C23 - DME Blue Print & QP As On 18-7-23

C 23
DIPLOMA IN MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
MODEL BLUE PRINT FOR THE QUESTION PAPER SETTING FOR

1. SUMMETIVE ASSESMENT
2. FORMATIVE ASSEMENT
MODEL QUESTION PAPERS FOR

1. SUMMETIVE ASSESMENT
2. FORMATIVE ASSEMENT
ENGLISH (M-101) COMMON
Blue Print for setting question paper at different levels
Time Schedule : C23-Common- 101 : ENGLISH
S.no. Title of the Unit Periods Weightage No. of No. of Mapping of

allotted of Marks Short Long COs
answer Answer
questions questions
1 English for 8 CO1, CO2,
Employability 1 CO3, CO4,
2 CO5
2 Living in 8 16 CO1, CO2,
Harmony CO3, CO4,
CO5
3 Connect with 8 CO1, CO2,
Care 2 CO3, CO4,
26 2 CO5
4 Humour for 8 CO1, CO2,
Happiness CO3, CO4,
CO5
5 Never Ever 8 10 1 CO1, CO2,
Give Up! CO3, CO4,
1 CO5
6 Preserve or 9 CO1, CO2,
Perish CO3, CO4,
23 2 CO5
7 The Rainbow of 8 CO1, CO2,
Diversity 2 CO3, CO4,
CO5
8 New Challenges 8 CO1, CO2,
-Newer Ideas CO3, CO4,
19 1 CO5
9 The End Point 8 1 CO1, CO2,
First CO3, CO4,
CO5
10 The Equal 8 1 CO1, CO2,
Halves CO3, CO4,
16 1 CO5
11 Dealing with 9 1 CO1, CO2,
Disaster CO3, CO4,
CO5
Total 90 110 30 80
C23- COMMON-101: ENGLISH: END EXAM ( 80 Marks )
Question Paper Pattern (Division of Topics: Question wise)
S.No. Weightage of Language Skill / Sub aspects & Description
of the Marks grammatical Concept of the
Questi question
on
PART-A ; 10 questions X3 marks = 30 Marks
1 3 Articles & a) Definite, indefinite articles
( 6 Questions X ½ Prepositions b) prepositions of place, time,
Mark) directions
2 3 Vocabulary Synonyms, Antonyms, affixes,
( 6 Questions X ½ words& phrases, Phrasal Verbs,
Mark) words matching with meanings,
one word substitutions,
3 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs

( 6 Questions X ½ ( be/do/have)
Mark) b) Modal verbs
4 3 Tenses Using appropriate Verb forms
( 3 questions 1
mark each )
5 3 Voice Conversion : Active & Passive
( 3 questions 1 voice
mark each )
6 3 Adjectives Using appropriate adjective form/
( 3 questions 1 conversion : Degrees of
mark each ) comparison
7 3 Types of sentences & Conversion from one type of

( 3 questions 1 positive, negative sentences sentence to the other , making
mark each ) negative sentence
8 3 Syntheses of Sentences / Transformation of sentences :

( 3 questions 1 Conjunctions / linkers Simple, complex & compound
mark each ) sentences / use of linkers/
conjunctions
9 3 Direct& Indirect Speech Conversion from Direct to Indirect
( 3 questions 1 & Vice versa
mark each )
10 3 Correction of Sentences Remaining grammar aspects

( 3 questions 1 ( concord & usage based…etc)
mark each )
PART –B ; 5 QX10 M = 50 Marks
11 10 Marks Paragraph Writing From Units 1,2,3
(theme based- focus on importance
of learning and using English)
12 10 Giving instructions or From Units 4,5,6,7
directions Theme based / Situation based /role
13 10 Dialogue writing play/ general topic
14 10 Essay writing From Units 8,9,10,11
(theme based )
15 10 Letter writing Formal / informal letters
16 10 Report Writing Report on Mini projects/ industrial
visits / camps/ events / celebrations
17 10 a) E-Mail writing a) E mail etiquette
( 2 questions X 5 b) Framing questions b) Wh & Yes-No questions
Marks)
18 10 (Ten questions Reading Comprehension An unseen piece of prose text with
1 mark each ) 10 questions for reading
comprehension check
C23-Common-101 :English : Bifurcation of Syllabus for UNIT TESTS 1,2,3

Unit Lessons / Grammar / Language aspects Writing Skills
Test Chapters ( Topics or Short Answer ( Topics for Long answer/ Essay
questions) Questions)
U.T 1 Chapters 1,2,3 a) articles & prepositions, a) Theme based Paragraph
b)Vocabulary: Affixes, ( focus on LSRW skills, importance
synonyms, Antonyms, of English, Self-esteem, SWOC
matching meanings, words & analysis, Social media )
phrases, one word substitutes) b) Dialogue on themes of lessons 2&3
c)Adjectives ( degrees of / Dialogue on General topic / a
comparison) situation
d) Main& Auxiliary Verbs c) Reading comprehension
e) phrasal verbs/ word order
U.T 2 Chapters a) concord a) Theme based paragraph

4,5,6,7 b) Tenses (Humour for happy living, learning
c) Types of sentences from failures, Environmental
d) Framing questions protection, multi- culture /global
e) words &phrases, linkers culture )
b) Letter writing ( formal& informal),
c) instructions/ directions, E-mail
writing
U.T 3 Chapters a) Voice (active &passive) a) Theme based paragraph/ Essay

8,9,10,11 b) Speech( direct& indirect) writing ( Technical innovations, Goal
c) Synthesis of sentences setting, gender sensitivity, dealing
( simple, complex, compound with disaster)
sentences) b) Essay writing, Report writing
d) Error analysis c) Reading Comprehension
e) words &phrases, linkers
Unit Test Total 40 Short Answer questions Long Answer Questions: ( Part-B)
Question Marks ( Part-A) Q. 6,7,8 @ 8 marks each ;
Paper ( Part A=16 Q. 1 = 4 marks Each question with Internal choice
pattern Part B =24) Q. 2 to 5 = 3 Marks each Total: 8X3 = 24 Marks
(40 Total=16 Marks
Marks )
C23- COMMON-101: ENGLISH: UNIT TEST Exams 1,2,3 ( 40 Marks each )

Question Paper Pattern (Division of Topics: Question wise)
UNIT TEST-1 Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 1,2,3 ) :
PART-A : 16 Marks
S.No. Marks Grammatical concept/ Sub topics / concepts
allotted aspect/ skill
1 4 Marks Vocabulary a) Affixes, b) Synonyms

( 8 Questions c) antonyms
X ½ Mark) d) one word substitutes
2 3 (6 Questions Articles & Prepositions a) Definite, indefinite articles
X ½ Mark) b) Prepositions of place, time direction
3 3 ( 3 questions Adjectives a) Using appropriate forms of adjectives
1 mark each ) b) Conversion of Degrees of comparison
4 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs ( be/do/have)

( 6 questions ½ b)Modal verbs
mark each )
5 3 Marks Phrasal verbs Using phrasal verbs in sentences of one’s
( 3 questions 1 own
mark each )
Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

6 8 Marks Paragraph question Theme based questions : Lesson 1 :
A or B ( internal choice) Focus on LSRW skills, problems and
solutions in using English, Importance of
English, English for employability,
SWOC analysis
7 8M Dialogue making Conversation / Role play between two
A or B ( internal choice ) people :
a) Dialogue on themes of lessons 2&3
b) Dialogue on General topic / a situation
8 8M Reading Comprehension Unseen prose passages with 8 different
A or B questions ( F I V E model questions+
( internal choice ) Others)
Unit Test -2:Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 4,5,6,7)

Part – A: 16 Marks
1 4 Marks Tenses Present, Past, Future tenses : Filling in
with proper verb forms using the given
base form
2 3M Concord Concord: agreement between subject and
verb
3 3M Framing questions Framing Wh & Yes-No questions
4 3M Types of sentences Conversion of sentences ( except

questions) , Using of proper linkers /
discourse markers
5 3M Words& Phrases , linkers Using words& phrases, linkers in
sentences of one’s own
Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

6 8 Marks Paragraph writing a) Themes on lessons 4/5
A or B ( internal choice ) b) Themes based on lessons 6/7
7 8M Letter Writing a) Letter writing : formal
( internal choice : A or B ) b) Letter writing: Informal
8 8M a) Paragraph: Tenses a) Paragraph on Routines/ past narration
Reinforcement / Future plans
b) Email & Instructions/ b) i) E- Mail writing ( formal or
directions informal)
ii ) Giving instructions/ directions
Unit Test -3: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 8,9,10,11)

Part – A ; 16 Marks
1 4 Marks Error Analysis Find errors and make corrections

2 3M Voice Conversion: Active & Passive voice
3 3M Synthesis of sentence Conversion: Simple, complex &
compound sentences
4 3M Reported speech Conversion: Direct & Indirect speech
5 3M Words & phrases, linkers Matching words with their meanings/
Using words& phrases, linkers in
sentences of one’s own
Part- B : 8X3 = 24 Marks
6 8 Marks Essay writing a) Theme based ( lessons 8 / 9 )
A or B ( internal choice ) b) Theme based ( Lessons 10/11)
7 8M Report writing a) Report on Mini projects/ industrial
A or B ( internal choice ) visits / camps/ events /exhibitions /
celebrations
b) themes from lessons 8 to 11 …like
disaster management / technical
inventions / gender equality/ goal setting
8 8M Reading Comprehension Reading passages with 8 different
A or B ( internal choice ) questions ( FIVE model+ others)
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-I
Time: 90 Mnts. Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 3 marks. Questions from 2 to 5
carry three marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language /
grammatical expressions.
1. A) Give synonyms for the words: i) abruptly ii) advantage ( ½ X2=1 M)
B) Give antonyms for the words: i) pure ii) dry ( ½ X2=1 M)
C) Add affixes for the words: i) connect ii) worth ( ½ X2=1 M)
D) Give one word substitute for the following: ( ½ X2=1 M)
i) The interactive web page that can be updated frequently by an individual or group.
ii) An ability that can be acquired by anyone through practice.
2. A) Fill in the blanks with proper Articles: ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) My cousin joined M.Tech in ______ University in Tamil Nadu.
ii) Mrs. Rekha Chatterjee is _______ MLA from the West Bengal.
iii) My father came to _______ college yesterday to pay my exam fees.
B) Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) What can I do ______ you , Sarat?
ii) Mr. Agarwal distributed his property _______ his two daughters.
iii) The coach was pleased _______the performance of the players.
3. Rewrite / Fill in the following blanks as directed in the brackets: (1X3 = 3 M)
a) Burj Khalifa is one of ________( tall) buildings in the world. ( Fill in with proper form of the
adjective given in the brackets)
b) The tiger is more ferocious than the leopard. (Change into Positive degree)
c) Very few cities in India are as populous as Mumbai. ( Change into comparative degree)
4. A) Fill in the blanks with proper Primary Helping Verbs ( be/do/have forms) ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) Prasad _______ (be) at the canteen when I saw him a few minutes ago.
ii) He _______ (do) this work always.
iii) The teacher ______just left the classroom.
B) Fill in the blanks with appropriate Modal verbs based on the clue given in the brackets: ( ½ X3 = 1
½ M)
i) We all _______ respect our elders. ( moral obligation)
ii) Sir, ________ I come in please? ( seeking permission)
iii) Tarun _____ easily win the match. ( ability)
5. Use the following phrasal verbs in sentences of your own. (1X3 = 3 M)
i) bring up ii) give away iii) put off
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Instructions: Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded for
the appropriate content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your answer.
6. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about the significance of learning and using English in
your present and future life.
OR
B) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about challenges you are facing in speaking and writing
English and the solutions to overcome them.
7. A) Write a dialogue between two friends in at least six turns discussing the advantages and
disadvantages of social media.
OR
B) Write a dialogue between two friends, who have joined different courses in different colleges after
their tenth class and now exchanging information about their newly joined courses and colleges.
8. A) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence:
Treating life as an adventure is the best quality of successful people. A person's security lies not
in his comfort zone, but in his initiative, creativity and courage. Effective people do not label others
from their past success or failure, but rediscover each time they meet them. These people are not
overawed by top celebrities, cine personalities and sadhus. Winning people are excellent team players to
take part in the process of creative problem solving. They are skillful at balancing their strengths and
weaknesses with others. The final character of victorious people is exercising the four dimensions of
life i.e., physical, mental, emotional, and enthusiastic.
Questions:
a) What is the best quality of successful people?
b) List out the three qualities which make a person secure?
c) Why are the effective people not wondered at the lives of celebrities?
d) What do the team players do?
e) What is the special skill of the winning people?
f) What is the final character of victorious people?
g) What qualities of effective or winning people do you want to inculcate?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “the feeling of respect, wonder and fear all
together at something or someone”
OR
B) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence:
Benjamin Franklin was born in 1706 in Boston, Massachusetts. He came from a big family. He
had 16 brothers and sisters. When Benjamin was 15, his brother started the first Boston newspaper. It
was called ‘The New England Courant’. He worked for the newspaper for a short time, but he was not
happy. So, he went to Philadelphia and worked as a printer. In 1729, he bought a newspaper business.
The newspaper was the ‘Pennsylvania Gazette’. He was very busy. In 1733, he started publishing ‘Poor
Richard’s Almanac’. His pen name (the name he used as an author) was Richard Saunders. This book
came out every year. Almanacs have information about weather and crops. They also have wise
sayings. The wise saying “A penny saved is a penny earned” comes from Poor Richard’s Almanac.
Benjamin Franklin was also an inventor. In 1743 he invented a very good stove called the Franklin
stove. He invented swim fins. He invented bifocal glasses. He also invented the first odometer. He
retired from his newspaper business in 1749. He stopped working on it. Then he became busy with
science. Benjamin Franklin was also very interested in American politics. He helped Thomas Jefferson
write the Declaration of Independence. In 1776, he and other people signed the Declaration of
Independence. Franklin died on April 17, 1790. He was 84 years old.
Questions:
a) How many siblings did Benjamin Franklin have?
b) What was the newspaper started by his brother?
c) What did he buy after working as a printer?
d) What information was available in his Almanacs?
e) Mention any two inventions made by Benjamin Franklin?
f) Rewrite the meaning of the saying in your own words: “A penny saved is a penny earned”
g) Which American president was Benjamin Franklin associated with?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “external limbs of fish that help them swim and
steer”.
---------------------------
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 4 marks. Questions from 2 to 5
carry Three marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language /
grammatical expressions.
1. Fill in the blanks with proper verb form using the base form given in the brackets. (1X4=4M)
a) The match ______ (start) already before we entered the stadium.
b) Rani ________ ( clean) dishes when the phone rang.
c) They _____( hold) the thief tightly until the police arrived.
d) Mr. Rajesh and his team _________( work) on this project since last month.
2. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word from the pair given in the brackets. (1X3=3M)
a) Bread and butter _______ a wholesome breakfast. ( is / are )
b) The minister accompanied by his staff _______already arrived. ( have/ has)
c) Not only the film director but also all the actors _____facilitated by the committee. ( was/ were)
3. Frame two different ‘Wh’ questions and one ‘Yes-No’ question from the following: (1X3=3M)
India is the second most populous country just behind China. It is expected that in a few months,
India stands top on the list due to our unprecedented birth rate. On the contrary, Japan is losing its
population. The rate of death in Japan is double when compared to its birth rate of the country.
4. Convert the following sentences as directed. (1X3=3M)
a) I want your bike for one hour. ( convert into an imperative sentence)
b) It is a very beautiful garden. ( convert into an exclamatory sentence)
c) Alas! what a great tragedy. (convert into a declarative sentence )
5. Use the following words/ phrases/ linkers in sentences of your own: (1X3=3M)
a) struggle ii) ground breaking iii) however
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Instructions: Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded for
the appropriate content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your answer.
6. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about dealing with obstacles and failures in one’s life.
OR
B) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about protecting our environment.
7. A) Write a letter to your Principal requesting him / her to issue your Original Tenth marks list as
you need to update your ADHAR card with date of birth and other details and return the certificate
after the updating work.
OR
B) Write a letter to your father requesting him to send you two thousand rupees as you have to pay
your hostel fees.
8. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about your future plans after Diploma.
OR
B) i) Draft an E-mail to your friend inviting him/her to your village to spend the weekend with you.
ii) Write a set of instructions at least in five sentences about drawing money from an ATM.
**********
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-III
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 4 marks. Questions 2 to 5 carry
Three marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language / grammatical
expressions.
1. Correct the following sentences: ( 1X4=4M)
a) All the books have been sold out last week.
b) I, Ramesh and you will together book a cab.
c) I am feeling terribly cold.
d) The police has arrested the gang of robbers.
2. Change the voice of the following: ( 1X3=3M)
a) A cat is chasing two rats.
b) The news has been published recently.
c) They will certainly win the match.
3. Rewrite the sentences as directed: ( 1X3=3M)
a) Though Rakesh studied well, he could not get the first class. ( Convert into a simple sentence)
b) It was raining heavily, and so the match was cancelled. ( Convert into a complex sentence)
c) The horse was too old to gallop. ( Convert into a compound sentence)
4. Change the speech of the following as directed: ( 1X3=3M)
a) Satwik said to his mother, “I forgot my water bottle in my classroom.”
b) The teacher ordered the students not to make noise.
c) Swapna said, “Rajesh, what are you searching for?”
5. Use the following words /phrases/ linkers in sentences of your own: ( 1X3=3M)
i) apologize to ii) occasionally iii) for a while
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Instructions: Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded
for the appropriate content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your
answer.
6. A) Write an essay in about 175 words on how the technical inventions changed our lives.
OR
B) Write an essay in about 175 words about the significance of the gender equality.
7 A) Write a report about any disaster that you have read in newspaper or witnessed including your
suggestions for better preventive measures to mitigate the loss.
OR
B) Write a report about the Inter Polytechnics Sports and Games Meet (IPSGM) held in your
District headquarters.
8 A) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
Animals living in modern zoos enjoy several advantages over animals in the wild; however,
they must also suffer some disadvantages. One advantage of living in the zoo is that the animals
are separated from their natural predators; they are protected and can, therefore, live without risk
of being attacked. Another advantage is that they are regularly fed a special, well-balanced diet;
thus, they do not have to hunt for food or suffer times when food is hard to find. On the other
hand, zoo animals face several disadvantages. The most important disadvantage is that since they
do not have to hunt for food or face their enemies, some animals became bored, discontented or
even nervous. Another disadvantage is that zoo visitors can endanger their lives. Some animals
can pick up airborne diseases from humans.
Questions:
a) What are the two animal habitations mentioned in the passage?
b) Give the main advantage of animals living in zoo.
c) What kind of food is the zoo animals fed with?
d) What is the most disadvantage aspect faced by the zoo animals?
e) How do you think that the visitors can harm the zoo animals?
f) Do you support keeping the animals in a zoo for our entertainment? Justify your answer in a
sentence.
g) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: A violent or bigger animal that kills and eats the
other tiny animal.
h) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
OR
B) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
“I say to you today, my friends, even though we face the difficulties’ of today and
tomorrow, I still have a dream. I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up, live out the true
meaning of its creed. I have a dream that one day on the red hills of Georgia sons of former slaves and
sons of former slave-owners will be able to sit down together at the table of brotherhood. I have a
dream that my four little children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the
colour of their skin but by the content of their character. I have a dream…. I have a dream that one day
in Alabama, with its vicious racists, with its governor having his lips dripping with the words of
interposition and nullification, one day right there in Alabama little black boys and black girls will be
able to join hands with little white boys and white girls as sisters and brothers:” On 28th August in
1963, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. spoke these immortal words to a crowd of over 200000 people who
had gathered for the now historic march in Washington to demand an end to racial segregation in the
USA, and for equality in jobs and civil rights.
Questions:
a) Who is the speaker of the above speech and what is his nationality?
b) What is the occasion of the above speech: ( )
i) a birthday party ii) an election campaign
iii) a movement for a right cause iv) a government function
c) What sort of discrimination did the speaker fight against?
d) What good does he expect regarding the children of slaves and masters?
e) What is the contextual meaning of the frequently used word “dream” ?
f) How should a nation be judged?
g) What are the two places mentioned by the speaker in his speech?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “that lives for ever without death”
******************
MODEL PAPER
End Examinations
Time: 3 Hrs. Max.Marks: 80

PART-A 10X3=30 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and each question carries 3 marks. Marks will be awarded only
for the desired and accurate language / grammatical expressions.
1. A) Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
My father sent me _____ envelope through ______ messenger and ______ cover contained a bank
cheque in my favour.
B) Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
My mother arranged a beautiful flower vase ______ my study table, just beside my computer,
______ which she keeps fresh flowers every day. The vase is made _____ ceramic.
2. A) Give synonyms for the words: i) depressed ii) caricature
B) Give antonyms for the words: i) natural ii) visible
C) Add affixes to the words: i) prefer ii) proper
3. A) Fill in the blanks with suitable Primary Helping Verbs (Be/ do/ have forms):
i) All the books _______ already been sold out.
ii) She paid condonation fees as she_______ not attend the classes regularly last semester.
iii) Why _______ you not giving me reply?
B) Fill in the blanks with suitable Modal verbs based on the clue given in brackets.
i) Pratap is an ambidextrous; he _______ write with his two hands. (ability)
ii) Jyothsna __________ pay the tuition fees by tomorrow. ( obligation)
iii) My grandfather ________ to ride a horse in his youth. ( Past habit)
4. Fill in the blanks with suitable verb form using the base form given in the brackets.
i) Suma_________ ( bring) a pup to the class yesterday.
ii) Johnny __________(play) the piano in a music band every weekend.
iii) Girija _______ (watch) a movie on TV when I visited her last Sunday.
5. Change the voice of the following:
i) My elder brother paid my exam fees yesterday.
ii) These two chapters will be taught in next month.
iii) They are constructing a new house.
6. i) Pacific is ___________( big) ocean of all. (Fill in with appropriate degree of the adjective given
in the bracket)
ii) No other food item is as nutritious as honey. ( Change into Comparative degree)
iii) Bangalore is one of the beautiful cities of India. ( Change into Positive degree)
7. i) You need two thousand rupees to buy a new pair of shoes. Write a polite expression asking your
father for money.
ii) Radhika has been invited for the wedding. ( Convert into a negative sentence)
iii) Our pet pigeons flew away last night. ( Convert into a negative sentence)
8. i) Ramesh can’t reach on time ______ he travels by a superfast train. ( Fill in with suitable
conjunction)
ii) Though the long bell was given, the children stayed in the classroom. (Change into a simple
sentence)
iii) Get a ticket on a sleeper coach, and then you can sleep during journey. (Change into a complex
sentence)
9. i) Tarun said, “ Prathima, I shall return your notes tomorrow”. (change into a reported speech )
ii) Arjun requested his sister Priya not to disturb him while he was studying. (change into a direct
speech)
iii) Teacher said, “Students, why are you talking in the class?” (change into a reported speech )
10. Correct the following sentences:
i) These flowers are smelling sweet.
ii) Either the father or his children has arrived home early.
iii) Every bike rider should abide to the traffic rules.
PART-B 10X5=50Marks
Instructions: a) Answer any FIVE questions and each question carries TEN marks.
b) The criterion for the award of marks is the appropriate content, quality and clarity of expression but
not the length of your answer.
11. Write a paragraph in 120 words about the problems you are experiencing in speaking English and
your own solutions to overcome them.
12. Write a set of instructions to create a word file and insert a Table using MS office on a computer.
13. Write a dialogue in at least eight turns between a sales person and you at a readymade garment
showroom as you want to buy a readymade dress.
14. Write an essay in about 175 words on valuing opposite gender and show mutual respect.
15. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about the menace of street dogs in your area.
16. Imagine that your class had visited an industry / organisation relevant to your branch of
Engineering; write a report about the visit to submit to your HOD.
17. a) Write an E-mail to your cousin requesting him/her to send you the diploma study material by a
courier or post.
b) Frame THREE ‘wh’ questions & TWO ‘Yes-No’ questions from the following passage.
Dolphins are intelligent animals. A dolphin’s nose is on top of its head. So, it can easily breathe on the
surface of the water. The skin of a dolphin has no scales. It is soft and smooth. They swim in ‘pods’; a
very large pod is called a ‘herd’. They are very social and help each other fight off predators. Dolphins
brain has two sides. One side sleeps while the other side stays awake.
18. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be accurate,
precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
The Indian Army is the land-based branch and the largest component of the Indian Armed
Forces. The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Army, and it is commanded
by the Chief of Army Staff (COAS), who is a four-star general. The primary mission of the Indian
Army is to ensure national security and national unity, defending the nation from external aggression
and internal threats, and maintaining peace and security within its borders. It conducts humanitarian
rescue operations during natural calamities and other disturbances, like Operation Surya Hope, and
can also be requisitioned by the government to cope with internal threats. It is a major component of
national power alongside the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force. The army has been involved in
four wars with neighbouring Pakistan and one with China. Other major operations undertaken by the
army include: Operation Vijay, Operation Meghdoot and Operation Cactus.
a) What is the largest component of Indian Armed Forces?
b) Who is the four-star general?
c) “Maintaining internal peace and security is not one of the responsibilities of Indian
Army”. Is the statement True or False ?
d) What is the primary mission of the Indian Army?
e) Name the operation held by the Indian Army during natural disaster.
f) What are the other two forces mentioned in the passage?
g) If you were to join Armed forces, which wing do you prefer? State your reason in a
sentence.
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: ‘forcefulness or violent behavior’
i) Give the antonym for the word: ‘internal’
j) Suggest a suitable title for the passage in a word or phrase.
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-I (M-102) COMMON
No. of Weightag COs

S.No. Chapter/Unit title Short type Essay type
Periods e Allotted mapped
R U Ap R U Ap
Unit - I: Algebra
1 Functions 6 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO1
2 Partial Fractions 5 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO1
Matrices and
3 20 16 2 0 0 0 0 1 CO1
Determinants
Unit - II: Trigonometry
4 Trigonometric Ratios 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 CO2
5 Compound Angles 5 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO2
Multiple and
6 8 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO2
Submultiple angles
7 Transformations 6 5 0 0 0 0 1/2 0 CO2
Inverse
8 Trigonometric 6 5 0 0 0 0 1/2 0 CO2
Functions
Trigonometric
9 6 5 0 0 0 0 1/2 0 CO2
Equations
10 Properties of triangles 5 5 0 0 0 0 0 1/2 CO2
11 Complex Numbers 6 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO2
Unit III: Co-ordinate Geometry
12 Straight Lines 5 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 CO3
13 Circles 6 5 0 0 0 0 1/2 0 CO3
14 Conic Sections 12 5 0 0 0 0 1/2 0 CO3
Unit – IV: Differential Calculus
15 Limits and Continuity 6 3 0 1 0 0 0 0 CO4
16 Differentiation 28 23 1 0 0 1 1 0 CO4
Unit – V: Applications of Derivatives
Geometrical
17 4 5 0 0 0 0 0 1/2 CO5
Applications
18 Physical Applications 6 5 0 0 0 0 0 1/2 CO5
19 Maxima and Minima 4 5 0 0 0 0 0 1/2 CO5
Errors and
20 4 5 0 0 0 0 0 1/2 CO5
Approximations
3 3
Total 150 110 9 1 0 1
1/2 1/2
Marks 27 3 0 10 35 35
R: Remembering Type : 37 Marks

U: understanding Type : 38 Marks
Ap: Application Type : 35 Marks
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test I
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-I (M-102) COMMON
Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40

Part-A 16Marks
Instructions: (1) Answer all questions.

(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry
Three marks each.
1. Answer the following:
a. If and , then defined by
is a function: State TRUE/FALSE. (CO1)
b. If , then 3A =________. (CO1)
c. The value of sin 45 ° +cos 45o is _____. (CO2)
d. The formula for in terms of is _________. (CO2)
A+ B .
2. If , then find (CO1)
[ ]
2 −1 4
3. Find the determinant of 0 −2 5 . (CO1)
−3 1 3
4. Find the value of sin750. (CO2)
5. Prove that (CO2)

Part-B 3×8=24
(2) Each question carries eight marks
(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation
is the content but not the length of the answer.
6. A) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)

or
x−4
B) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)
( x−2)(x−3)
7. A) If and , then find AB (CO1)
Or
[ ] [ ]
3 1 4 1 5 −3
B) If P= 1 −2 0 and Q= 0 6 9 , show that
3 1 6 −2 7 8
(CO1)
8. A) Find the adjoint of the matrix (CO1)
or
B) Solve the following system of linear equations by Cramer’s rule:
(CO1)
-o0o-
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test II
Engineering Mathematics-I (M-102) Common
Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40

Part-A 16Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three
marks each
1. Answer the following.
a. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO2)
b. If sin
−1
( 35 )=tan
−1
( x ) , then x=¿ . (CO2)
c. If , then =_______. (CO2)
d. The eccentricity of the rectangular hyperbola is ______. (CO3)
2. Express in terms of (CO2)
3. Find the intercepts made by the straight line x +5 y−10=0. (CO3)
4. Find the centre and radius of the circle (CO3)
5. Find the vertex and focus of the parabola y 2=8 x . (CO3)
Part-B 3×8=24

sin 5 θ+ sinθ
6. A) Prove that =tan3 θ (CO2)
cos 5 θ+cosθ .
or
B) Prove that tan

−1
( 14 )+ tan ( 35 )= π4
−1
(CO2)
7. A) Solve (CO2)
or
B) If a =3, b=4, c=5, find the area of the ∆ ABC . (CO2)
8. A) Find the equation of the line passing through and perpendicular to the
line . Also find the perpendicular distance from the given point
to the given line.
(CO3)
or
B) Find the equation of the ellipse whose focus is (2, 0), directrix is x+y-1= 0 and
eccentricity is ½. (CO3)
-o0o-
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test III
Time: 90 minutes Max.Marks:40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three
marks each.
a. State TRUE/FALSE. (CO4)
d n
b. For any constant n, ( x )=¿_____ (CO4)
dx
c. (CO4)
d. Write the formula for finding the percentage error in x. (CO5)
sin 2 θ
2. Evaluate lim (CO4)
θ→0 θ
3. Find the derivative of w.r.t. x. (CO4)
4. Differentiate w.r.t. x. (CO4)

5. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve at the point . (CO5)
Part-B 3×8=24

dy
6. A) if x=a t 2 and y=2at then find (CO4)
dx
or
B) Find , if (CO4)
7. A) If then prove that (CO4)

or
∂u
∧∂ u
B) If u ( x , y )=log (x + y ), then find ∂ x (CO4)
∂y
8. A) The radius of a sphere is decreasing at a rate of 0.2 cm/sec. How fast is its
surface area decreasing when the radius is 10 cm. (CO5)
or
B) Find the maximum and minimum values of the function .

(CO5)
-o0o-
MODEL PAPER-I
END EXAM INATION
TIME: 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS: 80M

PART-A
Answer All questions. Each question carries THREE marks. 10x3=30M
1. If and is a function defined by then find the range of
(CO1)
2. Resolve the function into partial fractions. (CO1)
3. If and find A+B (CO1)
[ ]
2 −1 4
4. Find the determinant of the matrix 0 −2 5 by Laplace’s expansion. (CO1)
−3 1 3
5. Show that (CO2)
6. Prove that (CO2)

7. Find the modulus of the complex number3+ 4 i. (CO2)
8. Find the distance between the parallel lines and (CO3)
9. Evaluate (CO4)
10. Find if (CO4)

PART-B
Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
11. Solve the system of linear equations and using matrix
inversion method. (CO1)
sin 7 θ+sin 5 θ (CO2)
=tan 6 θ .
12. A) Show that cos 7 θ+cos 5θ
−1 1
()
−1 1
( )
−1 2
B) Prove that tan 7 + tan 13 =tan 9 () (CO2)
13. A) Solve (CO2)

B) If a =10, b=12, c =5, then find the area of the ΔABC. (CO2)
A) Find the equation of the circle with (4, 2) and (1, 5) as the two ends of its diameter.
14.
(CO3)
B) Find the equation of the conic whose focus is (1,0), directrix is 3x+4y+1=0 and
eccentricity is 2. (CO3)
15. A) Find the derivative of 3 tanx−4 logx−7 e x +sin−1 x w.r.t x. (CO4)
B) Find the derivative of x 2 e3 x w.r.t x. (CO4)
16. A) If , then find (CO4)

∂u
2 2 ∧∂ u
B) If u ( x , y )= x y + y x , then find ∂ x (CO4)
∂y
17. A) Find the equation of tangent to the curve y=x 2 +1 at (2,1) . (CO5)
B) If the radius of a circular plate is increasing at 0.7 cm/sec, find the rate
of increase in its area when the radius is 10 cm. (CO5)
18. A) Find maximum or minimum value of f ( x )=x −4 x +3.
2
(CO5)
B) If an error of 0.02 cm is made in the side of a square, what is the approximate error in the area
and perimeter of the square? (CO5)
-o0o-
MODEL PAPER-II
END EXAM INATION
TIME: 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS: 80M

PART-A
1. If A={-1, 0, 1} and f : A → B is defined by f ( x )=x 2−x +1, then find the range of f.
(CO1)
2. Resolve the function into partial fractions. (CO1)

3. If A = [ 31 98 −20 ]and B= [ 47 0 2
1 4 ]
, then find (A+B)T. (CO1)
If A= [
−1 1 ]
4 2 2
4. , then find A . (CO1)
0 0
5. Find the value of cos 360 + sin 36 0 =tan 810 . (CO2)
cos 36 −sin 36
1+ cos 2 θ
6. Prove that =cotθ .
sin 2 θ (CO2)
7. Find the modulus of the complex number 3+2i. (CO2)
8. Find the point of intersection of the non-parallel lines and
(CO3)
9. Evaluate (CO4)
10. Find if (CO4)

PART-B
Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
11. Solve the system of linear equations and
using Cramer’s rule. (CO1)

12 A) Show that 0 0 0 . (CO2)
cos 40 +cos 80 +cos 160 =0
B) Prove that tan
−1
( 14 )+ tan ( 35 )= π4
−1
(CO2)
13. A) Solve (CO2)

o
B) If a =5, b=7, C =30 , then find the area of the ΔABC. (CO2)
14. A) Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (0, 0), (2, 0), and (0, 3) (CO3)
B) Find the vertex, focus, directrix and latus rectum of the parabola y =16 x .
2
(CO3)
15. A) Find the derivative of 3 sin x+ log x+2 tan−1 x +8 e−x w.r.t.x. (CO4)
2
1−x w.r.t. x.
B) Find the derivative of 2 (CO4)
1+ x
16. A) If , then find (CO4)
B) If then prove that (CO4)

17. A) Find the equation of tangent to the curve y=x −2 x +4 at (2,4).
3 2
(CO5)
B) If s ( t )=t 2 +2 t+ 3 is the displacement of a particle, find its velocity

and acceleration at the time t=3 sec. (CO5)
18. A) Find maximum or minimum value of . (CO5)
B) If an error of 0.02 cm is made in the side of a square, then what is the percentage error in the
calculated value of its area? (CO5)
-o0o-
M-103 ENGINEERING PHYSICS

Short Answer Essay Type(Marks)
S.No Major Topics Weightage of Type(Marks)
Marks R U A R U A
1 Units and 03 0 0 3 0 0 0
measurements
2 Statics 13 0 0 3 0 10 0
3 Gravitation 20 0 0 0 10 10 0
4 Concepts of energy 13 0 0 3 0 10 0
5 Thermal physics 13 0 3 0 0 0 10
6 Sound 16 0 3 3 0 10 0
7 Electricity & 16 0 3 3 0 10 0
magnetism
8 Modern Physics 16 3 0 3 0 0 10
Total: 110 3 9 18 10 50 20
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-I
ENGINEERING PHYSICS (M-103) COMMON
Time : 90 Minutes Total Marks : 40

PART—A 16 Marks
Instructions : (i) Answer all questions.
(II) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3
marks
each.
1. (i) Which among the following is a fundamental quantity.

(a) Force (b) Momentum (c) Time (d) Density (CO1)
(ii) Pascal is the S.I unit of pressure. (True / False) (CO1)
(iii) Displacement is vector quantity (Yes / No) (CO1)
(iv) The formula for orbital velocity is _______________ (Fill in the blank) (CO2)
2. Define absolute, relative errors and percentage errors. (CO1)
3. Define equal vectors, unit vector and co-initial vectors. (CO1)
4. A force of 100 N acts at a point at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Find the horizontal and
vertical components of force. (CO1)
5. Define natural and artificial satellites. Give one example each. (CO2)
PART— B 24 Marks
(ii) Each question carries 8 marks with internal choice.
6. (a) Define concurrent and co-planar forces. Explain Lami’s theorem. (CO1)
(OR)
(b) Two forces 20 N and 30 N acts at a point with an angle of 60°between them.
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant. (CO1)
7. (a) State and explain Kepler’s laws of planetary motion. (CO2)

(OR)
(b) Define acceleration due to gravity (g). Write the factors affecting the value of g. (CO2)
8. (a) Write a brief note on polar and geo-stationary satellites. (CO2)

(OR)
(b) State the Newton’s universal law of gravitation and derive the relationship between g and G.
(CO2)
***
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II
Time : 90 Minutes Total Marks : 40

PART — A 16 Marks
(ii) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3 marks
each.
1 (i) Which among the following is unit of Work.

(a) newton (b) pascal (c) joule (d) watt (CO2)
(ii) In Boyle’s law verification, temperature remains constant. (Yes/No) (CO3)
(iii) Velocity of sound in a medium varies with temperature (Yes/No) (CO3)
(iv) The S.I unit of intensity of sound _______________ (Fill in the blank) (CO3)
2 Define potential energy, give one example. (CO2)
3 Explain the absolute scale of temperature. (CO3)
4 An ideal gas of given mass at temperature 100 °C occupies a volume of 240 CC. If it is heated at
constant pressure, find its volume at 150 °C. (CO3)
5. Write any three differences between musical sound and noise. (CO3)
PART—B 24 Marks
6. (a) Write about solar energy and solar thermal conversion. (CO2)
(OR)
(b). Define kinetic energy and derive the relationship between KE and momentum. (CO2)
7. (a) Write ideal gas equation and calculate the value of R for 1 gram mole of a gas. (CO3)
(OR)
(b) Define conduction, convection and radiation. Explain with one example each. (CO3)
8. (a) Write four methods of reducing an echo and four applications of echo. (CO3)
(OR)
(b) What are ultra sonics. Mention six applications of it. (CO3)
***
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-III
Time : 90 Minutes Total Marks :

40marks
PART—A 16 Marks
Instructions : (i)Answer all questions.

(ii) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3 marks
each.
1. (i) The S.I unit of specific resistance is

(a) Ω (b) Ω /m (c) Ω - m (d) pascal (CO4)
(ii) Magnetic field lines are open curves. (True/False) (CO4)
(iii) At the critical angle, the angle of refraction is equal to 90°. (Yes/No) (CO4)
(iv) Photo eletric cell converts ____ energy into electric energy (Fill in the blank) (CO4)
2. Find the current passing through a conductor of resistance 2 Ω when P.D of 50 V is applied across
it. (CO4)
3. State the Coulomb’s inverse square law of magnetism and write the equation for it. (CO4)
4. State three laws of photo electric effect. (CO4)
5. Write any three applications of superconductors. (CO4)
PART—B 24 Marks

6. (a) State and explain Kirchoff’s laws. (CO4)

OR
(b) Draw circuit diagram of Meter bridge. Two resistors of 10 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in the
left and right gaps of a meter bridge. Find the balancing length. (CO4)
7. (a) Define para, ferro and dia magnetic materials with two examples each. (CO4)
OR
(b) Explain the principle and working of an optical fiber. (CO4)
8. (a) Explain intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. (CO4)

OR
(b) Explain conductors, semiconductors and insulators based on energy gap. (CO4)
***
MODEL PAPER
END EXAMINATION
Time : 3 hours Total Marks : 80
PART— A 3 ×10 = 30
Instructions : (i) Answer all questions. (ii) Each question carries three marks.
(iii) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five
simple sentences.
1. Write any three advantages of S.I units. (CO1)

2. Define moment of force. Write its SI unit. (CO1)
3. Find the work done in lifting a body of mass 10 kg through a height of 20 m against gravity.
(CO2)
4. Define absolute zero temperature. Convert -10 °C into Kelvin temperature. (CO3)
5. Define Doppler effect. Mention one application. (CO3)
6. Write the Sabine’s formula for reverberation time and name the quantities in it. (CO3)
7. Define specific resistance. Write its S.I unit. (CO4)
8. Write any three characteristics of magnetic lines of force. (CO4)
9. Draw a neat diagram of photoelectric cell and name the parts. (CO4)
10. Write any three applications of optical fibers. (CO4)
PART—B 10×5=50
Instructions : (i) Answer any five questions. (ii) Each question carries ten marks.
(iii) Answers should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
but not the length of the answer.
11. (a) State and explain triangle law of vectors. 6
(b) A force of 100 N acts on a particle at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. Find the horizontal
and vertical components of force. 4 (CO1)
12. State and explain Kepler’s law of planetary motion. 10
(CO2)
13. (a) Derive the relationship between g and G.
(b) Calculate the orbital velocity of a satellite so that it revolves around the earth if the Radius of
earth = 6.5 × 106 m, mass of earth = 6×1024 kg and Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10-
11
Nm2/kg2. 5+5 (CO2)
14. Explain the principles of solar thermal conversion and photo-voltaic effect. 5+5 (CO2)
15. (a) Derive the ideal gas equation.
(b) Volume of a gas at 27 °C is 100 CC. Keeping the pressure constant, find its volume at a
temperature of 50 °C. 7+3 (CO3)
16. (a) Write any five methods of reducing noise pollution.
(b) Define echo. Write three applications of it. 5+2+3
(CO3)
17. (a) Derive an expression for balancing condition of Wheat stone’s bridge with neat circuit
diagram.
(b) The values of resistance of P, Q, R are 50 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω respectively in the balanced
condition of the bridge. Find the unknown resistance S. 7+3 (CO4)
18. Explain n-type and p-type semiconductors. 5+5 (CO4)
***
M-104 ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY & ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
Model Blue Print with Weightage for Blooms category and questions for each chapter and COs
mapped
Marks wise Question wise

Weight distribution of distribution of
Unit No of Mapped
S.No age of Weightage Weightage
Title/Chapter Periods with CO
marks
R U Ap An R U Ap An
Fundamentals of
1 14 21 15* 3 3 1½* 1 1 CO1
Chemistry
Solutions, Acids
2 16 21 8* 10 0 3 1½* 1 1 CO1
and Bases
3 Electrochemistry 12 13 0 10 3 1 1 CO2
4 Corrosion 8 13 3 10 0 1 1 CO2
5 Water Treatment 8 13 10 0 0 3 1 1 CO3
Polymers &
6 Engineering 12 13 0 10 3 0 1 1 CO4
materials.
7 Fuels 6 3 0 0 3 0 1 CO4
Environmental
8 14 13 0 13 0 2 CO5
Studies
Total 90 110 36 56 12 6 5 7 4 2
*One question of 10 marks should be given with 50% weightage from unit title 1and 2
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-I
ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY & ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (M-104)
TIME: 90 minutes Total Marks: 40
PART-A
16 Marks
(2) First question carries 4 marks and each of rest carries 3 marks.
(3) Answers for Q.No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
exceed five simple sentences.
1. a. Number electrons present in Na+ ion is ---------- (CO1)

b. The molarity and normality of NaOH is the same (True or False) (CO1)
c. Acid with pH 6 is stronger than Acid pH 4 (True or False) (CO1)
d. 2s is spherical shaped orbital but 3p is ------------ (CO1)
2. Distinguish between orbit and orbital. ( CO1)
3. Define buffer solution. Give two examples. (CO1)
4. Calculate the number of moles present 10.6 gm of Na2CO3. (CO1)
5. Draw the atomic structures of Si and Ge. (CO1)
PART – B
3x8M = 24M
Instructions: (1) Answer either (A) or (B).
(2) Each question carries 8 marks.
6. a) Explain Postulations of Bhor’s atomic theory. Give its limitations. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Explain the significance of Quantum numbers. (CO1)
7. a) Define molarity and normality. Calculate the molarity and normality of 10.6 gm
of Na2CO3 present in 500 ml solution. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Explain Arrhenius theory of acids and bases. Give its limitations. (CO1)
8. a) Define ionic bond. Explain the formation of ionic bond in NaCl. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Define solution. Explain the types of solutions based on its solubility. (CO1)
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II
TIME: 90 minuts Total Marks:40
PART-A
16 Marks
(3) Answers for Q.No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. a) Graphite is an insulator. (True of False) (CO2)

b) ------------ is an electrolyte in Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cell (CO2)
c) Zinc is more active than Iron. (True or False) (CO2)
d)Write the Chemical formula of rust. (CO2)
2. Write any three differences between metallic conduction and electrolytic conduction.(CO2)
3. Write a short note on stress cell. (CO2)
4. Define hard water. Mention any two salts that cause hardness (CO3)
5. What is the role of salt bridge? (CO2)
PART – B 3x8M = 24M

Instructions: (1) Answer either (A) or (B) .
6. a) Explain construction and working of galvanic cell. Draw the neat diagram. (CO2)
(OR)
b) Explain construction and working of Lead -storage battery. (CO2)
7. a) Calculate the temporary, permanent and total hardness of water containing the following
salts:
CaSO4 =13.6 mg/lit, Mg(HCO3)2 = 7.3 mg/lit,
Ca(HCO3)2 = 16.2 mg/lit, MgCl2 = 9.5 mg/lit (CO3)
(OR)
b) Explain Ion-Exchange process of softening of hard water. (CO3)
8. a) What is rusting of iron? Explain Mechanism of rusting of iron. (CO2)

(OR)
b) Explain cathodic protection methods. (CO2)
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-III
TIME: 90 minutes Total Marks:40
PART-A
16 Marks
(3) Answers for Q. No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. a) Semiconductor Nano Crystals are called ................ (CO4)

b) Chloroprene is the monomer of Neoprene. (True/False) (CO4)
c) Give any two examples for green house gases. (CO5)
d) Presence of ozone in stratosphere is a pollutant.( Yes/No) (CO5)
2. Define liquid crystals. Give their applications. (CO4)
3. Write a method of commercial production of Hydrogen as a fuel. (CO4)
4. Define Green Chemistry. List any two benefits. (CO5)
5. Define TLV and Sink. Give an example each. (CO5)
PART – B 3x8M = 24M

Instructions : (1) Answer either (A) or (B).
6. a) Define polymerisation. Explain condensation polymerisation by taking nylon 6,6 as an

example. . (CO4)
(OR)
b) Define elastomers. Give a method of preparation and applications of Buna-S. (CO4)
7. a) What is air pollution? Discuss any one of the Global impacts of air pollution. (CO5)
(OR)
b) Write the composition and uses of the following:
i) LPG ii) CNG iii) Biogas iv) Power Alcohol (CO4)
8. a) Define e-pollution. State the sources and controlling methods of e-pollution. (CO5)
(OR)
b) Define water pollution. Write the causes of water pollution. (CO5)
MODEL PAPER
END EXAMINATION
TIME: 3hrs Total Marks:80
PART-A
Instructions: (1) Answer all questions. (2) Each question carries Three marks. 3x10=30M
1. Draw the atomic structures of Si and Ge. (CO1)

2. Write the anomalous electronic configuration of Chromium and Copper. (CO1)
3. State the limitations of Arrhenius theory of acids and bases. (CO1)
4. Define solution. Classify solutions based on solubility. (CO1)
5. State the applications of Li-ion batteries. (CO2)
6. List the factors that influence the rate of corrosion of metals. (CO2)
7. Mention disadvantages of hard water used in industries. (CO3)
8. State any three applications of Nano Materials. (CO4)
9. Write the composition and uses of LPG. (CO4)
10. What is e-waste? State the sources of e-waste. (CO5)
PART – B
Instructions: (1) Answer any five questions. (2) Each question carries Ten marks. 10x5=50M
11. Explain the significance of quantum numbers. (CO1) 10M

12. Define molarity and normality. Calculate the molarity and normality of 250 ml of solution that
contains 5.3 gm of sodium carbonate. (CO1) 10M
13. a) Define ionic bond. Explain the formation of ionic bond in NaCl. (CO1) 6M
b) Define Buffer solution. Give any two examples and applications. (CO1) 4M
14. a) Explain the construction and working of Hydrogen-Oxygen Fuel cells. (CO2) 6M
b) State any four differences between electrolytic cells and Galvanic cells. (CO2) 4M
15. a) Explain the mechanism of rusting of iron. (CO2) 6M
b) Write a short note on Sacrificial anodic method of prevention of corrosion. (CO2) 4M
16. Define hard water. Explain ion-exchange process of softening of hard water with a neat diagram.
(CO3) 10M
17. a) Define elastomer. Write a method of preparation and any two applications of Buna-s .
(CO4) 6M
b) What are Liquid Crystals? Give any two examples and applications. (CO4) 4M
18. a) Define deforestation. State the impacts of deforestation. (CO5) 6M b) Write
a short note on Ozone layer depletion. (CO5) 4M
M-105 - ENGINEERING MECHANICS
MODEL BLUE PRINT OF THE QUESTION PAPER
Question Wise Marks Wise

Sl. Periods Weightage Distribution of Distribution of
Chapter Title
No Allocated Allocated Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Statics 22 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
2 Friction 20 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Geometrical Properties
3 22 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
of Sections
4 Dynamics 28 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Simple Mechanisms &
5 28 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Machines
TOTAL 120 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Note: R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap-Applying;
Unit Test - 1
Q.No Question from the Chapter Bloom’s Marks CO
category allocated addressed
Part - A (16 marks)
1 Definitions and Statements R 4 CO1, CO2
2 Statics U 3 CO1
3 Statics U 3 CO1
4 Friction U 3 CO2
5 Friction U 3 CO2
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Statics Ap 8 CO1
7 Friction Ap 8 CO2
8 Statics / Friction Ap 8 CO1, CO2
Unit Test - 2
Part - A (16 marks)
2 Centroid U 3 CO3
3 Centroid U 3 CO3
4 Dynamics U 3 CO4
5 Dynamics U 3 CO4
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Centroid Ap 8 CO3
7 Centroid Ap 8 CO3
8 Dynamics Ap 8 CO4
Unit Test - 3
Part - A (16 marks)
2 Dynamics U 3 CO4
3 Dynamics U 3 CO4
4 Simple Mechanisms and Machines U 3 CO5
5 Simple Mechanisms and Machines U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Dynamics Ap 8 CO4
7 Simple Mechanisms and Machines Ap 8 CO5
8 Dynamics / Simple Mechanisms and Machines Ap 8 CO4,CO5
R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap-Applying; An- Analylising
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-I
M-105 - ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Time: 90Min. Total marks: 40
PART-A
Instructions: Answer ALL questions.
In Question no.1, each question carries one mark.
From Question no. 2 to 5 carries three marks each
1. a) If the line of action of all the forces in a system of forces intersecting at a single point then the
system of forces is called____________________.
b) Define couple.
c) Define angle of friction.
d) The frictional force depending upon the nature of the surface (True/False).
2. State the Lami’s theorem
3. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two forces of 100 N and 60 N act at a
point, if the angle between them is 600
4. What is the horizontal force required to pull a body of weight 500N along the horizontal
surface? Take the coefficient of friction as 0·3
5. List out different types of friction.
PART-B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Questions. Each question carries 8 marks
6. Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force of the following system of
forces :
(OR)
A weight of 2 kN is supported by two strings as shown below. Find the tensions in the strings.
A 60 45 C
T T
7. A body of weight 200 N is to be pulled down an inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the
horizontal is 1 5 °. If the coefficient of friction
W between the plane and the body is 0·3. Determine the effor
required— (a) when the effort is parallel to the plane and (b)when the effort is parallel to the base.
(OR)
A body of weight 100 N is to be pulled up an inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the horizontal
is 20°. If the coefficient of friction between the plane and the body is 0·28. Determine the effor required—
(a) when the effort is parallel to the plane and (b)when the effort is parallel to the base.
8. Find the magnitude of two forces such that if they act at right angle the resultant is √ 10 N and if they
act at 600 the resultant is √ 13 N.
(OR)
A weight 250N is resting on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the surfaces is 0.3.
Determine the least value of effort is required acting at an angle of 30o with the horizontal.
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II
M-105, ENGINEERING MECHANICS
PART-A
In Question no.1, each question carries one mark From Question no. 2 to 5 carries three marks each
1. a) Define radius of gyration.
b) Define center of gravity.
c) Define velocity.
d) Write impulse-moment equation.
2. State the Newton’s second law of motion and write its formula.
3. State the parallel axis theorem of moment of inertia.
4. Write formula for moment of inertia about the centroidal axis of (i) Rectangle (ii)Circle and
(iii)Triangle.
5. A body moving with a velocity of 12 m/s and attains a speed of 85 m/s in 10 seconds. Find the
acceleration and distance travelled
PART-B
6. A bullet, of mass 0.1 kg, is fired into a target with a velocity of 350 m/s. The mass of the target is 10 kg
and it is free to move. Find the loss of kinetic energy.
(OR)
A body is moving with uniform acceleration. In the eleventh and fifteenth seconds from the
commencement it moves through 7.2m and 9.6m respectively. Find its initial velocity and the
acceleration with which it moves.
7. An angle section is specified as 125 mm X 75 mm X 10 mm. Find its moments of inertia about the
centroidal axes.
(OR)
Determine the M.I of channel section shown in figure about centroidal axes.
8. An I section is made up of top flange,80X20 mm, web 120X20 mm and bottom flange 100X20 mm.
Determine the moment of inertia of the I-section about its centroidal axes.
(OR)
A bar of triangular section of sides 100mm X 80mm X 60mm is placed in such a way that its longest side is
on the ground. Calculate the moment of inertia of the section about the centroidal axis parallel to the
base.
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-III
M-105, ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Time: 90 Min. Total marks: 40
PART-A
In Question no.1, each question carries one mark
1. a) Relation between Time period and frequency is……………………..
b)Write any one example for Simple harmonic Motion..
c) Define velocity ratio.
d) Write condition for self locking of machine.
2. A lifting machine consists of pulley arranged in second order. There are four pulleys in each block. An
effort of 200 N is applied to lift a load of 1000 N. Calculate Write any two characterstics.
3. Define lower pair, higher pair and give one example to each..
4. The speed of a wheel increases from 300 to 360 rev/min. in 3.25 seconds. Calculate the angular
acceleration.
5. Define SHM. Write any two characterstics
PART-B
6. A flywheel increases its speed from 30 rpm to 60 rpm in 10 seconds. Find the number of revolutions
made by the wheel in 10 seconds and its angular acceleration.
(OR)
A wheel rotating at 30 rev/min. is uniformly accelerated for 1.5 minutes during which time it makes 75
revolutions. What is the angular velocity of the wheel at the end of this interval and the further
interval required for the wheel to reach an angular velocity of 100 rev/min?
7. In a differential pulley block a load of 180N is being raised by an effort of 10N. The number of teeth
on larger and smaller block are 12 an 11 respectively. Find the velocity ratio, Mechanical Advantage
and efficiency of the machine.
(OR)
In a third system of pulleys, there are four pulleys. Find out the effort required to lift a load of 18KN, if the
efficiency of the machine is 75%.
8 A wheel rotating about a fixed axis at 30 r.p.m. is uniformly accelerated for 50 seconds during which it
makes 40 revolutions. Determine— (a) angular velocity at the end of this interval and (b) time required for
the speed to reach 80 rpm.
(OR)
Explain any one of the inversions of a quadratic chain with a neat diagram.
(M-105)
MODEL PAPER
DME– FIRST YEAR END EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (M-105)
Time : 3 hours Max Marks : 80

Part – A 10 x 3 = 30
Instructions : 1) Answer all questions

2) Each question carries three marks
3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five simple sentences.
1. Briefly explain the following system of forces:
a. Concurrent forces
b. Coplanar forces
2. State (i) Lami’s theorem (ii)Varignon’s theorem.
3. What is the horizontal force required to pull a body of weight 500N along the horizontal
surface? Take the coefficient of friction as 0·3.
4. State the laws of solid friction.
5. Define (a) Centroid and (b) Radius of gyration.
6. State the importance of moment of inertia in engineering applications.
7. State Work energy principle.
8. A bullet of mass 30 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 250 m/s from a gun of mass 25 kg. Find
the velocity with which the gun will recoil.
9. Define the following :
a) Idle Machine
b) Reversible Machine
c) Self-locking Machine
10. Define (a) lower pair, and (b) higher pair and give at least one example of each.
Part – B 5 x 10 = 50
Instructions : 1) Answer any five questions

2) Each question carries ten marks
3) Answer should be comprehensive and criteria for valuation is content, but not the length of the
answer.
11. Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force of the following forces system :
A force of 20 N acting due to East
A force of 25 N acting 40° North of East
A force of 10 N acting 50° West of North
A force of 30 N acting vertically down words.
12. A body of weight 100 N is to be pulled up an inclined plane whose angle of inclination with the
horizontal is 20°. If the coefficient of friction between the plane and the body is 0·28. Determine
the effor required— (a) when the effort is parallel to the plane and (b)when the effort is parallel to
the base.
13. Calculate moment of inertia about centroidal axes for the given I-section. The dimensions
are as follows : Top flange : 90 mm × 20 mm ; Web : 20 mm × 100 mm ; Bottom flange :
150 mm × 40 mm
14. (a) The resultant of two equal forces acting at a point with an angle of 60° between them
is 80 N. Find the magnitude of each force.
(b) State and explain parallel axis theorem.
15. (a) A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a level road under the action of 981 N of propelling force.
Determine the time taken by the car to increase its velocity from 24 kmph to 48 kmph and distance
travelled during this time.
(b) A body of mass 0·1 kg starts falling freely under gravity from a height of 3 m. Calculate the potential
and kinetic energies of the body when it is at a height of 1 m from the ground. Assume g = 9·81
m/s2.
16. (a) A wheel rotating about a fixed axis at 30 r.p.m. is uniformly accelerated for 50 seconds during
which it makes 40 revolutions. Determine— (a) angular velocity at the end of this interval and (b) time
required for the speed to reach 80 rpm.
(b) A body moving with simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 1m and period of
oscillation of 2 seconds. What will be its velocity and acceleration after 0·4 second after
passing an extreme position?
17. The larger and smaller diameters of differential wheel and axle are 80 mm and 70mm
respectively. The effort is applied at the end of lever which is 120mm long. What is the
velocity ratio and the efficiency when the load lifted is 800 N with an effort of 32N.
18. (a) Explain the conditions for reversibility and self-locking of a simple machine.
(b) Explain any one of the inversions of a quadratic chain with a neat diagram.
M-106 BASIC MANUFACTURING PROCESSES

Chapter Title
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Carpentry 15 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
2 Fitting 15 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
3 Forging 15 13 1 1 3 10
4 Sheet Metal 15 13 1 1 3 10
5 Drilling and Jig Boring. 15 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Mechanical working of
6 15 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
metals
TOTAL 120 110 5 5 08 18 12 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks CO
Q.No Question from the Chapter
Part - A (16 marks)
Carpentry and Fitting R,U 4 CO1,CO2
1
2,3 Carpentry U 6 CO1,CO2
4,5 Fitting U 6 CO1,CO2
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Carpentry Ap 8 CO1,CO2
7 Fitting Ap 8 CO1,CO2
8 Carpentry and Fitting Ap 8 CO1,CO2
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Forging, Sheet Metal Work R,U 4 CO1,CO2,
1
2,3 Forging U 6 CO1, CO2
4,5 Sheet Metal work U 6 CO1, CO2
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Forging Ap 8 CO1, CO2
7 Sheet Metal work Ap 8 CO1, CO2
8 Forging, Sheet Metal Work Ap 8 CO1, CO2
Unit Test - 3
Bloom’s Marks
Q.No Question from the Chapter CO addressed
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Drilling & Mechanical Working of metals R,U 4 CO3,CO4,CO5
1
2,3 Drilling U 6 CO3, CO4
4,5 Mechanical working of metals U 6 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Drilling & Jig boring Ap 8 CO3, CO4
7 Mechanical working of metals Ap 8 CO5
CO3,
8 Drilling & Mechanical Working of metals Ap 8
CO4,CO5
MODEL PAPER
D.M.E. – I YEAR END EXAMINATION
BASIC MANUFACTURING PROCESSES (M-106)
Time : 3 Hours Total Marks: 80
PART – A
Answer all questions 10 X3=30

1. List out different holding devices used in carpentry
2. Sketch the jack plane and label the parts.
3. List out various hand hammers used in fitting section. How do you specify them?
4. Sketch the file and label the parts used in fitting section.
5. Write the difference between flattering and fullering.
6. What is hem? write different types of hems.
7. Classify various drilling machines
8. State the function of jig.
9. What is hot working? Give three examples of hot working processes
10. Distinguish between blanking and punching?
PART – B
Answer any five questions 5 X 8=40 marks
11. List out various carpentry joints. Explain any one of them
12. Describe the working of wood turning lathe
13. Explain different types of fitting operations
14. Explain the working of board drop power hammer with a neat sketch
15. Explain any five sheet metal operations with neat sketches
16. Describe Radial drilling machine with a neat sketch
17. Describe Open front jig boring machine with a neat sketch.
18. Describe working of various hot rolling mills
C23-M-106
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
M-106 Basic Manufacturing Processes
Time : 90 Minutes Total Marks: 40
PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4Questions carry 3 marks each
1.(a) Tapping is the process of cutting (Internal/External thread)

(b) Bench vice is a measuring device (True/False)
(c) List any two striking tools used in the carpentry shop
(d) Try square is used for marking/testing of--------------------------------angles
2. List out any three marking tools used in carpentry. Write specific applications of any one
3. Draw a neat sketch of hand saw and name its parts
4. List out different types of files used in fitting section
5. What is the function of plier. Name any two pliers.
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries
8 marks and may have sub questions.
6.(a). Describe any two carpentry joints with neat sketches

(OR)
(b) Classify wood working machines. Describe band saw with the help of a
neat sketch
7. (a) Sketch and describe an angle plate, surface plate and V-block
(OR)
(b) Explain the working principle of combination set with neat sketch.
8. (a). ) List various fitting operations. Explain any two fitting operations
(OR)
(b) Describe Metal jack plane with sketch.
C23-M-106
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION
D.M.E. – I YEAR EXAMINATION
Unit Test - II

PART – A
1.(a) The snip is used for cutting of sheet (True/False)
(b) Tong is a holding tool (True/False)
(c) Write difference between hem and seam in sheet metal
(d) Stakes are used in (Sheet metal shop/Fitting shop)________
2. Sketch the anvil used in Black smithy and name the parts
3. List 6 types of tongs used in forging shop
4. Draw a neat sketch of snip and label the parts
5. Sketch the swage block used in smithy shop
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries 8
marks and may have sub questions.
6.(a) Name the different type of power hammers. Explain the working of board drop
power hammer.
(OR)
(b) Name the various heating equipment used in forging process. Explain black
smith’s forge DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
7.(a) Explain various sheet metal operations

(OR)
(b) Draw and explain various types of seams
8.(a) Explain soldering and brazing processes.

(OR)
(b) Explain various forging operations .
C23-M-106

D.M.E. – I YEAR EXAMINATION
Unit Test - III
PART – A
1.(a) What is the function of jig

(b) State the function of drill jig.
(c) Hot working operation is carried out-------------------------------recrystallization temperature
(d) Hot piercing is used to produce seam less tubes (True/False)
2. Differentiate jigs and fixtures
3. List out the hot-working processes
4. Define cold working. List out any two cold working process?
5. Sketch the twist drills and label the parts..
PART – B
5. (a) Explain Indirect extrusion method with neat sketch.

(OR)
(b) Write the differences between hot working and cold working
6. (a) Describe the working of radial drilling machine..
(OR)
(b) Explain various drilling operations.
7. (a) Explain the process of wire drawing.
(OR)
(b) List out various types of drills. Explain any one of them.
DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR

M-107 ENGINEERING DRAWING

Chapter Title
R U Ap R U Ap
Importance of
1 01 -
Engineering Drawing
Engineering Drawing
2 05 -
Instruments
Free hand lettering &
3 06 0 1 5
Numbering
5
Dimensioning Practice 09 0 1 5
4
5
Geometrical
5 24 1 1 1 5 10
constructions
5
Projections of Points,
6 Lines, Planes & 21 0 1 5
Auxiliary Planes 5
Projections of Solids
7 12 1 1 10
0
Sections of Solids 21 1
8 1 10
0
Orthographic
9 30 1 1 10
Projections
0
Isometric Views 30 1 10
10 1
0
Development of
11 21 1 1 10
surfaces
0
TOTAL 180 1 3 6 10 10 60

Table specifying the scope of syllabus to be covered for Unit Test-I , II
& III. M-106 :: ENGINEERING DRAWING
Unit Test - 1
Marks
Q.No Question from the topic
allocated
Part A (20 marks)
1 Free hand lettering & Numbering 5
2 Dimensioning Practice 5
3 Geometrical constructions 5
Part - B (20 marks)
6 Projections of Points, Lines, Planes & 10
Auxiliary Planes
Unit Test - 2
Marks
allocated
Part A (20 marks)
Part - B (20 marks)
5 Orthographic Projections 10
6 Projections of Solids 10
Sections of Solids
Unit Test – 3
Marks
allocated
Part A (20 marks)
Part - B (20 marks)
5 Isometric Views 10
6 Development of surfaces 10
C-23-M-107
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATIONS MODEL QUESTION PAPER
D.M.E. – I YEAR EXAMINATION ENGINEERING DRAWING
Instructions: 01. All the dimensions are in mm
02. Use first angle projections only
03. Due Weightage will be given for the dimensioning and neatness
PART – A 04 x 05=20
01. Answer all the questions

02. Each question carries FIVE marks
01. Write the following in single stroke capital vertical lettering of

size 10mm ORTHOGRAPHIC PROJECTIONS
02. Redraw the given fig. and dimension it according to SP-46:1988.Assume suitable scale
03. Draw internal common tangents to two unequal circles of radii 26mm and
20mm.The distance between the circles is 75mm.
04. Draw the projections of a regular pentagon of side length 40 mm inclined to the
H.P. by 300 and perpendicular to V.P. using auxiliary plane method
PART – B 04 X 10 = 40
01. Answer any FOUR of the following questions

02. Each question carries TEN marks
05. Draw the involute of a circle of diameter 30 mm and also draw a tangent to the
curve at a distance of 60 mm from the centre of the circle.
06. A right circular cone of height 80 mm and base radius 60 mm is resting in the H.P.
on one of its generators and its axis is parallel to V.P. Draw the projections of the
solid.
07. A regular hexagonal prism of height 80 mm and base side 40 mm is resting in the
H.P. on its base. It is cut by an auxiliary inclined plane of 60 0 inclination passing
through the axis at a distance of 30 mm from the top base. Draw the sectional
views of the solid and the true section.
08. A pentagonal pyramid of height 80 mm and base side 40 mm is resting in the H.P.
on its base such that one of the sides of the base is perpendicular to the V.P. It is
cut by a section plane perpendicular to the V.P. and inclined to the H.P. by 60 0
and passing through the axis at a distance of 25 mm from the base. Draw the
development of the lateral surface of the truncated pyramid.
09. Draw the front view, top view and left side view of the object shown in the fig.
10. Draw the isometric view of the component whose orthographic projections are given below

C-23-M-107
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST - 1
ENGINEERING DRAWING
Time : 2 hours Total Marks : 40 M
Instructions: 01. All the dimensions are in mm

02. Use first angle projections only
03. Due Weightage will be given for the dimensioning and neatness
PART – A 04 x 05=20

01. Write the following in single stroke capital vertical lettering of size
10mm ORTHOGRAPHIC PROJECTIONS
02. Redraw the given fig. and dimension it according to SP-46:1988.Assume
suitable scale
03. Draw internal common tangents to two unequal circles of radii 26mm
and 20mm.The
distance between the circles is 75mm.
04. Inscribe a regular hexagon in a circle of diameter 50 mm.
PART – B 02 X 10 = 20
01. Answer all questions
05. Draw the involute of a circle of diameter 40 mm and also draw a tangent to
the curve at a distance of 50 mm from the centre of the circle.
06. Draw the projections of a regular pentagon of side length 40 mm inclined to the
H.P. by 300 and perpendicular to V.P.
C-23-M-107
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST –I
ENGINEERING DRAWING
Time : 2 hours Total Marks : 40 M
PART – A 04 x 05=20

01. Write the following in single stroke capital inclined lettering of size 15
mm STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION & TRAINING
02. Redraw the given fig. and dimension it according to SP-46:1988.Assume
suitable scale
03. Draw external common tangents to two unequal circles of radii 18mm
and 14mm.The distance between the circles is 66 mm.
04. Divide a line of length 70 mm into 8 equal parts.
PART – B 02 X 10 = 20
05. Draw the front view, top view and left side view of the object shown in the fig.
06. A regular hexagonal prism of height 80 mm and base side 40 mm is resting in the
H.P. on its base. It is cut by an auxiliary inclined plane of 60 0 inclination passing
through the axis at a distance of 30 mm from the top base. Draw the sectional
views of the solid and the true section.
C-23-M-107
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATIONS MODEL QUESTION PAPER
UNIT TEST - 3
D.M.E. – I YEAR EXAMINATION ENGINEERING DRAWING
Total Marks : 40 M Time : 2 hours
PART – A 04 x 05=20
01. Write the following in single stroke capital vertical lettering of size 12 mm
“GOVERNMENT OF ANDHRAPRADESH“
02. Redraw the given fig. and dimension it according to SP-46:1988.Assume suitable scale
03. Construct an ellipse by concentric circles method whose major axis is 80 mm and minor axis
is 50 mm.
04. Construct a regular pentagon of side 35 mm.
PART – B 02 X 10 = 20
05. Draw the isometric view of the component whose orthographic projections are given below
06. A pentagonal pyramid of height 80 mm and base side 40 mm is resting in the H.P. on its base such
that one of the sides of the base is perpendicular to the V.P. It is cut by a section plane perpendicular
to the V.P. and inclined to the H.P. by 60 0 and passing through the axis at a distance of 25 mm from the
base. Draw the development of the lateral surface of the truncated pyramid.
M-111 COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS LAB
UNIT TEST - I
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
MAX MARKS:40 Time:90Min
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
1. Identify the internal hardware components of a PC and assemble them.

2. Identify the external components or peripherals of a PC and connect them.
3. Identify the components on motherboard.
4. Perform the process of placing processor on CPU slot.
5. Perform the process of removing and placing the RAM in the corresponding slot.
6. Identify the CMOS battery and test whether it is working it or not.
7. Find details of following: DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
a) Operating System being used.

b) Processor name
c) RAM
d) Hard disk
8. Create a folder by your name, search a file or folder and find its path.
9. Draw the National Flag using MS Paint.
10. Create a word document that contains TEN names of your classmates (boys-5 & girls-5) and
perform the following tasks:
a) Save the document to your desktop.
b) Sort the names in each list alphabetically.
c) Set line spacing to 1.15.
d) Use bullet points for the names in both lists separately.
UNIT TEST - II
COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS LAB

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………1. Write
individually addressed letters to your friends about the Republic Day celebration using Mail Merge.
2. Create a Word document about your college and insert page numbers in footer and College Name in
header.
3. Create your class time table using Tables in MS Word.
4. Create a 2-page document about your College & insert hyperlinks for courses offered in the
college and insert Bookmarks next to College Name.
5. Write individually addressed letters to your friends (at least 5 members) to intimate the External
Examination time table using Mail Merge.
2 2 2
(x + y ) x +2 xy + y
6. Write an equation = in MS word.
( x− y )2 x2 −2 xy + y 2
7. Create the organizational structure of your college in MS Word.

8. Create a spreadsheet by totaling marks of 3 or more subjects, then calculate percentage and
hence find grade based on boundary conditions of FIVE students:
Grades O >= 90%, A >=80%, B >=70%, C >=60%, D >=50%, E >=40%, F <40%
9. Create a Excel spreadsheet for the following data, making sure that the cell marked with Category (A1) is
pasted in cell A1 in the spreadsheet and perform the questions below.
Total
Category (A1) Product Name Quantity Inventory Price per Unit
Price
Office Supplies Binder 2 20 12.99 25.98
Office Supplies Pencil 20 20 0.99
Electronics Samsung 4K Smart TV 1 5 399.00
Electronics Bluetooth Speakers 4 5 44.49

Lenovo X230 12in 2 2 279.90
Computers
Laptop
a). Change the format of the “Total Price” column to “Currency” format.
b) Calculate Total Price by writing formula.
c) Turn on filtering for the table.
d) Sort the table by column “Category” from A to Z.
10. Create a spreadsheet to calculate Cumulative monthly attendance for a period of Three
months.
UNIT TEST - III

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….1.
Create a PowerPoint Presentation about your College in 5 slides only.
2. Create a PowerPoint Presentation on Computer Hardware in minimum 5 slides.
3. Create a PowerPoint Presentation on Computer Fundamentals with Entrance, Emphasis effects
in minimum 5 slides.
4. Create a PowerPoint Presentation on any topic with special animation effects like Entrance,
Motion Paths & Exit.

5. Resize the image using photoshop.
6. Change the background of a Photograph.
7. Edit an image by using
a) Crop tool.
b) Resize the image
c) Save the new image with new name keeping original image as it is.
8. A Picture of two parrots (parrots.jpg) is given to you. Make anyone of one of the parrots in Black
& White.
9. Convert a color image to monochrome and improve quality of photograph.
10. Copy three pictures and fit into the empty frames.
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATIONS
DIPLOMA IN COMPUTER ENGINEERING
MODEL PRACTICAL QUESTION PAPER-YEAR END EXAM
SCHEME: C-23 SUBJ CODE: M-111

MAX MARKS:60 TIME: 3HOURS
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
1. Identify the internal hardware components of a PC and assemble them.
2. Identify the external components or peripherals of a PC and connect them.
3. Write the procedure to create the files and folders

4. Write the procedure to access Calculator, Paint and Notepad application
5. Write the procedure to perform the following in MS Word
(a) Change the Font Size
(b) Change the Font Style
(c) Change the Text Size
6. Write the procedure to perform the following in MS Word
(a) Change the Font Color.
(b) Use Various Text Alignment Options. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
(c) Format text in Bold, Italic and Underline.

7. Create the hierarchy of your family in MS Word.
8. Write the procedure to perform the following in MS Word:
(a) Insert a Table

(b) Add a Row
(c) Add a column
(d) Delete a Row
(e) Delete a column
2 2 2
(x + y ) x +2 xy + y
9. Write the procedure to use Equation = and Symbols.
( x− y )2 x2 −2 xy + y 2
10. Write the procedure to perform the following in MS Excel
(a) To Modify Column Width
(b) To Modify Row Height
(c) Format text in Bold, Italic, and Underline.

11. Write the procedure to create charts and Graphs in MS Excel
12. Write the procedure to create simple Power Point Presentation on your college in Three
slides.
13. Write the procedure to perform Animation on Text and Objects in your presentation.
14. Take a photographic image. Give a title for the image. Put the border. Write your names.
Write the Name of Institution and Place.
15. Prepare a cover page for the book in your subject area. Plan your own design.
16. You are given a picture of a flower and associated background (Extract.jpg).Extract the
Flower only from that and organize it on a background. Select your own background for
organization.
17. You are given a picture (BrightnessContrast.jpg). Adjust the brightness and contrast of the
picture so that it gives an elegant look.
18. You are given a picture (position.jpg). Position the picture preferably on a plain background
of a color of your choice - Positioning include rotation and scaling.
19. Remove the arrows and text from the given photographic image(Filename: photo.jpg).
20. Type a word; apply the following effects. Shadow Emboss.
M-301 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-II
A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/CT/TT-301
Subject Title : Engineering Mathematics – II
Subject Code : A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/CER/TT-301
Periods/Week : 04
Periods/Semester : 60
BLUE PRINT
S.No. Chapter/Unit No. of Weightage Short type Essay type COs
title Periods Allotted mapped
R U Ap R U Ap
Unit – I: Indefinite integration
1 Indefinite 20 34 1 2 0 1/2 2 0 CO1
integration
Unit – II: Definite integration
2 Definite integrals 10 16 0 2 0 0 1 0 CO2
Unit – III: Applications of Definite Integrals
3 Area of curves 3 3 0 0 1 0 0 0 CO3
4 Mean and RMS 3 8 0 0 1 0 0 1/2 CO3
values
5 Numerical 4 10 0 0 0 0 0 1 CO3
Integration
Unit – IV : Differential Equations
6 Introduction to 5 6 2 0 0 0 0 0 CO4
Differential
Equations
7 Solutions of first 4 13 0 0 1 0 0 1 CO4
order differential
equations
8 Solutions of 4 10 0 0 0 0 0 1 CO4
second order
homogeneous
differential
equations
9 Solutions of 7 10 0 0 0 0 0 1 CO4
second order non-
homogeneous
differential
equations
Total 60 110 3 4 3 1/2 3 4
1/2
Marks 9 12 9 5 30 45
R: Remembering Type : 14 Marks
U: understanding Type : 42 Marks
Ap: Application Type : 54 Marks
M-301
Unit Test I
Subject name: Engineering Mathematics-II
Sub Code: A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
Time: 90 minutes Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks each.
a.
(CO1)
b. (CO1)
c. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO1)
d. (CO2)
2. Evaluate (CO1)
3. Evaluate (CO1)
4. Evaluate (CO2)
5. Evaluate (CO2)
Part-B 3×8=24 Marks

(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. A) Evaluate (OR) (CO1)
B) Evaluate (CO1)
7. A) Evaluate (OR) (CO1)
B) Evaluate (CO1)
1 −1
8. A) Evaluate ∫ tan 2x dx (OR) (CO2)
0 1+ x
B) (CO2)
Unit Test II
Subject name: Engineering Mathematics-II
Sub Code: A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks
each
a. Formula to find area bounded by y=f (x ) and X-axis from x=a to x=b is____ (CO3)
dy
b. Integrating factor of + P ( x ) y=Q(x ) is e∫ Pdx: State TRUE/FALSE (CO4)
dx
c. The order of the differential equation is ___________. (CO4)
d. The auxiliary equation of the differential equation is ____(CO4)

2. Find the area bounded by the curve axis, between the lines
(CO3)
3. Find the mean value of in the interval (CO3)
4. Form the differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary constant from
(CO4)
5. Solve the differential equation (CO4)
Part-B 3×8=24 Marks

(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. A) Find the R.M.S value of over the range and (OR) (CO3)
B) Calculate the approximate value of by using Trapezoidal rule by dividing the range into 5
equal intervals. (CO3)
dy 2 x+ y
7. A) Solve =e (OR) (CO4)
dx
B) Solve (CO4)
8. A) Solve ( D2−2 D+1 ) y=e−x (OR) (CO4)
B) Solve ( D2 +6 D+9 ) y=sin 3 x (CO4)
-o0o-
END EXAM MODEL PAPERS

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II
A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
MODEL PAPER-I
TIME : 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS : 80M

PART-A
Answer All questions. Each question carries THREE marks.
10x3=30M
11. Evaluate (CO 1)
12. Evaluate (CO 1)

−1
sin x
13. Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 1−x 2
14. Evaluate (CO 2)
15. Evaluate (CO 2)

16. Find the area bounded by the curve the X-axis between the lines (CO3)
and
17. Find the mean value of the function in the interval . (CO 3)
18. Find the order and degree of the differential equation . (CO 4)
19. Form the differential equation for the family of curves y=mx by eliminating the arbitrary constant
m. (CO 4)
20. Solve (CO 4)
PART-B
Answer any five questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
11. (a) Evaluate (CO 1)
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

1
12. (a) Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 25 x2 +9
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

π /2
(b) Evaluate ∫ xcosx dx (CO 2)
0

(b) Find the RMS value of √ x over the range x=1 and x=2. (CO 3)
15. Calculate the approximate value of by using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule by dividing the range
into 8 equal parts. (CO 3)
dy y 1
16. Solve + = 2 (CO 4)
dx x x DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
17. (a) Solve (D¿¿ 2+ 4 D+4 ) y =0 ¿ (CO 4)
(b) Solve (CO 4)

18. Solve ( D¿¿ 2+5 D+6) y=e 3 x +sin 2 x ¿ (CO 4)
-o0o-
END EXAM MODEL PAPERS

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II
A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
MODEL PAPER- 2
TIME : 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS : 80M

PART-A
1. Evaluate (CO 1)
2. Evaluate (CO 1)
logx
3. Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
x
4. Evaluate (CO 2)
5. Evaluate (CO 2)
6. Find the area bounded by , X-axis and the lines x=0, x=1. (CO 3)
f ( x )=2 x +3
7. Find the mean value of the function f ( x )=x 2 in the interval [1,2] (CO 3)
8. Find the order and degree of the differential equation

(CO 4)
9. Form the differential equation for the family of curves y=a e x +b e x by eliminating the arbitrary
constants a and b. (CO4)
10. Solve (CO 4)
PART-B
Answer All questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x 10=50M

(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

9
12. (a) Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 25−x 2
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

1
(b) Evaluate ∫ ( x +2 ) ( 2 x −1 ) dx (CO 2)
0

(b) Find the R.M.S. value of the function f (x)=√ sinx over the range x=0 and x=π
(CO3)
11
15. Find the approximate value of ∫ ( x +1 ) dx using Trapezoidal rule by dividing the interval into 10
1
equal parts. (CO 3)
dy
16. Solve + y cotx=cosecx (CO 4)
dx
17. (a) Solve (D¿¿ 2+ 4) y=0 ¿ (CO 4)
(b) Solve (CO 4)
18. Solve (D¿¿ 2−5 D+ 4) y=x +sin 2 x ¿ (CO 4)
-o0o-
M- 302 APPLIED ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS
MODEL BLUE PRINT for the Question Paper
Question wise
Marks wise Distribution of
No. of Weightage Distribution of
S.No Chapter/ Unit Title Weightage
periods Allocated Weightage
R U Ap An R U Ap An
Fundamentals of
1 12 16 6 10 - 2 1 -
Electrical Circuits
2 DC and AC Machines 14 26 6 20 - 2 2 -
Special purpose
3 electrical machines and 14 26 6 20 - 2 2 -
Measuring instruments
4 Electrical Safety 10 16 6 10 - 2 1 -
5 Basic Electronics 10 26 6 20 - 2 2 -
Total 60 110 30 80 - 10 08 -
R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap-Applying; An- Analysing
MODEL PAPER – FORMATIVE ASSESSMENT - 1
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C-23)

Duration: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40
Part-A
Note: Answer all five questions. 4X3 = 16
First question carries four marks and remaining each question carries three marks.
1. (a) Electrical unit for resistance is ___________________. (CO1)
(b) Ohm’s law does not obeys for _________________. (CO1)
(c) The Power factor of a pure resistor is unity: (true/ false)

(CO1)
(d) The power absorbed by a pure inductive circuit is____________. (CO1)
2. State work, power and energy. (CO1)
3. State the methods of speed control of DC motors. (CO2)
4. Write any three applications of AC machines. (CO2)
5. List the types of servo motors. (CO3)
Part-B
Note: Answer all three questions. 3X8 = 24
Each question has its own choice and carries eight marks.
6. Explain Kirchhoff’s laws with legible sketch. (CO1)
(OR)
State and explain dynamically induced EMF and statically induced EMF. (CO1)
7. Explain the construction and working of welding transformer. (CO2)
(OR)
Explain the construction and working of Three Phase Induction Motor. (CO2)
8. Describe the working principle of permanent magnet stepper motor (CO3)

(OR)
Describe the working principle of Brushless servo motor. (CO3)
UNIT TEST - 2

Duration: 90 minutes Maximum Marks: 40
Part-A
Note: Answer all five questions. 4X3 = 16
First question carries four marks and remaining each question carries three marks.
1. (a) Fuse wire is made up of an alloy of ______________. (CO4)
(b) The purpose of earthing electrical appliances is ______________ (CO4)
(c) Earth wire is made of ________________ material (CO4)
(d) Circuit breaker is used to _______________. (CO4)
2. Define transducer and list any three applications of transducer. (CO3)

3. State the need of earthing of electrical equipment and machinery. (CO4)
4. Distinguish between Intrinsic Semiconductor and Extrinsic Semiconductor in any three aspects. (CO5)
5. Write the three possible transistor configurations. (CO5)
Part-B
Note: Answer all three questions. 3X8 = 24
Each question has its own choice and carries eight marks.
6. What is a sensor and explain how a sensor is different from a transducer (CO3)
(OR)
Explain the first aid methods to be followed after electrocuted. (CO3)
7. Explain the pipe earthing with a legible sketch. (CO4)
(OR)
Explain the reasons and seriousness of electric shock. (CO4)
8. Explain the working of PN junction diode with forward bias and reverse bias. (CO5)
(OR)
Describe the working of zener diode. (CO5)

MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II

Time : 3 hours ] [ Total Marks : 80
PART—A 3x10=30M
(2) Each question carries three marks.
(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five simple sentences.
1. State work, power and energy. (CO1)
2. State Fleming’s right hand rule. (CO1)
3. Write the types of DC generators. (CO2)
4. Write any three applications of DC motor. (CO2)
5. State the types of Servomotors. (CO3)
6. Define sensors. (CO3)

7. What are the effects on human body due to electrical shock? (CO4)
8. State the need of earthing of electrical equipment. (CO4)
9. Define conductor, semi-conductor and insulator. (CO5)
10. State the use of transistors. (CO5)
PART—B
Instructions: (1) Answer any five questions. 5x10=50M
(2) Each question carries ten marks.
(3) Answers should be comprehensive and criterion for valuation is the content but not the length of
the answer.
11. State and explain faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (CO1)
12. Describe the working principle of transformer with legible sketch. (CO2)
13. Describe the working principle of single phase capacitor type induction motor. (CO2)
14. a. Define transducer and explain in classification of transducer. (CO3)
b. State the need of transducer in measuring instruments. (CO3)
15. Explain the different parts of PLC by drawing the Block diagram and state the purpose of each part.
(CO3)
16. Explain the first aid methods to be followed after electrocuted. (CO4)
17. Explain the working of PN junction diode with forward and reverse bias with legible
sketch. (CO5)
18. Describe the working of zener diode. (CO5)

M-303 Thermal Engineering - 1
Blue Print of a Model Question Paper
Question Wise Question Wise

S. Periods Weightage Distribution of Distribution of
Chapter Name
No Allocated Allocated Weightage Marks
R U Ap R U Ap
Fundamentals of
1 14 21 01 01 1½ 03 03 15
Thermodynamics
Laws of Perfect
2 14 21 01 01 1½ 03 03 15
Gases
Thermodynamic
3 19 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
Processes on Gases
4 Air Standard Cycles 14 21 01 01 1½ 03 03 15
Fuels and
5 14 21 01 01 1½ 03 03 15
Combustion
TOTAL 75 110 05 05 08 15 15 80
Unit Test – 1

Part - A (16 marks)
1 Fundamentals of Thermodynamics , Laws of R,U 4 CO1 - CO3
Perfect gases, Thermodynamic Processes on
Gases
2 Fundamentals of Thermodynamics U 3 CO1
3 Fundamentals of Thermodynamics U 3 CO1
4 Laws of Perfect Gases U 3 CO2
5 Thermodynamic processes on gases U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Fundamentals of Thermodynamics Ap 8 CO1
7 Laws of Perfect Gases Ap 8 CO2
8 Thermodynamic Processes on Ap 8 CO3
Gases
Unit Test – 2

Part - A (16 marks)
1 Thermodynamic Processes on Gases, Air R,U 4 CO3-CO5
Standard Cycles, Fuels and Combustion
2 Thermodynamic Processes on Gases U 3 CO3
3 Air Standard Cycles U 3 CO4
4 Air Standard Cycles U 3 CO4
5 Fuels and Combustion U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Thermodynamic Processes on Gases Ap 8 CO3
7 Air Standard Cycles Ap 8 CO4
8 Fuels and Combustion Ap 8 CO5

D.M.E – Third Semester
Unit Test - 1
THERMAL ENGINEERING – 1
Time : 90 Minutes DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
Total Marks: 40
PART – A
1. (a) Write the formulas for displacement work and flow work.
(b) In the throttling process the entropy remains constant. (True/False)
(c) The Universal gas constant value is _________ kJ/kg mole-K.
(d) What is the characteristic of Isochoric process?
2. What are the intensive properties? Give two examples.
3. In a piston cylinder arrangement air expands from a volume of 0.003 m 3 to 0.024 m3 at a constant pressure of
690 kN/m2. The amount of heat rejected through cylinder walls is 6 kJ. Determine the change of internal
energy.
4. 0.24 kg of gas at a pressure of 110 kPa and a temperature of 330 K occupies a volume 0.21 m 3. Calculate the
value of gas constant and molecular weight of the gas.
5. Represent Isothermal process on p-V and T-s diagrams.
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries 8 marks
and may have sub questions.
6. In a steady flow system, a fluid flows at the rate of 4 kg/s. It enters at a velocity of 300 m/s and has enthalpy
of 2330 kJ/kg at inlet. It leaves the system at a velocity of 150 m/s and its enthalpy at outlet is 1656 kJ/kg.
During its passage through the system fluid has a loss of heat transfer by 30 kJ/kg to the surroundings.
Determine the power of the system in kW. Neglect any change in the potential energy.
(OR)
Apply the steady flow energy equation and find the heat transfer in the boiler and the exit velocity in the
nozzle.
7. 2 kg of an ideal gas is heated from 250C to 1050C. Assuming R = 0.265 kJ/ kg-K and γ = 1.18 for the gas, find (a)
specific heats (b) change in internal energy and (c) change in enthalpy.
(OR)
An ideal gas is expanded from 400 kN/m and 0.04 m3 to 120 kN/m2 and 0.1 m3. The temperature fell down
2
during the process was observed as 1500C. If the values of CP and CV are 1.025 kJ/kg K and 0.726 kJ/kg K
respectively. Find (a) the change in internal energy (b) the mass of the gas.
8. Represent isobaric process on p-V and T-s diagrams and Write the mathematical expressions for change in
internal energy, work transfer, heat transfer, change in enthalpy and change in entropy for a isobaric process.
(OR)
Represent isentropic process on p-V and T-s diagrams and Write the mathematical expressions for change in
internal energy, work transfer, heat transfer, change in enthalpy and change in entropy for an Isentropic
process.

Unit Test – 2
D.M.E – Third Semester
PART – A
1. (a) Write an expression for change entropy for constant pressure process.
(b) Carnot cycle consists of two adiabatic and two isothermal processes. (True/False)
(c) In the diesel cycle the heat is added at constant ____________ process.
(d) Write the formulae for HCV of a fuel.
2. If 0.05 kg of gas is heated from 25 0 C to 1500 C, what is the change of entropy, if the process is carried out at
constant volume? Assume CV = 0.9 kJ/ kg K.
3. A gas engine working on Otto cycle has a cylinder diameter if 180 mm and a stroke of 320 mm; the clearance
volume is 0.0022 m3. Find the air standard efficiency assuming γ = 1.4.
4. Show the Carnot cycle on p-V diagram and T-s diagram.
5. Write the advantages of liquid fuels over solid and gaseous fuels.
PART – B
6. One kg of air at a pressure of 10 bar and a temperature of 373 K undergoes a reversible process which may
be represented by pV1.1 = constant. The final pressure is 2 bar. Assume R =0.287 kJ/kg K and γ = 1.4, find (a)
final volume (b) final temperature and (c) increase in entropy.
(OR)
Represent polytropic process on p-V and T-s diagrams and Write the mathematical expressions for change in
internal energy, work transfer, heat transfer, change in enthalpy and change in entropy for a polytropic
process.
7. Derive an expression for air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle. State the air standard assumptions.
(OR)
An engine operating on the ideal Otto cycle has a bore of 0.1 m a stroke of 0.127 m and compression ratio 7.
At the beginning of compression stroke the cylinder contains air at 288.6 K and 100 kPa, if the maximum cycle
temperature 1923 K. Determine (a) The pressure, volume and temperature at main points (b) The air
standard efficiency and (c) Heat supplied and heat rejected per kg of air.
8. Explain the working of Bomb calorimeter with a line diagram and write an expression to find the Higher
Calorific Value.
(OR)
Describe the working of Orsat apparatus for the analysis of dry flue gases to with a line diagram .
C23-M-303
D.M.E. – III SEMESTER EXAMINATION
PART – A
10 X 3 = 30
Instructions: Part A consists of 10 questions. Answer all questions and each question carries three marks.
1. State the Kelvin-Plank statement of the second law of thermodynamics and explain with a line diagram.
2. Pressure behind the piston remains constant at 700 kPa while the volume increases from 0.003m 3 to
0.024m3. Determine the work transfer across the boundaries.
3. Define Charles’s law and write the equation for Charles’s law between two states.
4. State Avagadro’s law and calculate the molar volume at NTP conditions.
5. 2 kg of gas occupying 0.7 m 3 had an initial temperature of 15 0C. It was then heated at constant volume until
its temperature becomes 1350C. How much heat was transferred to the gas?
6. Represent a constant pressure process on p-V and T-s diagrams.

7. Write three assumptions made in the analysis of air standard cycles.
8. Plot the Carnot cycle on Pressure-Volume diagram, Temperature-Entropy diagram and name the
thermodynamic processes.
9. Define (a) LCV (b) HCV related to fuels.
10. Write the steps involved in conversion of gravitational analysis into volumetric analysis of a fuels.
PART – B
5 X 10 = 50
Instructions: Answer any five questions. Each question carries 10 marks.

11. A) In a steady flow system, a fluid flows at the rate of 4kg/s. It enters at a velocity of 300m/s and has enthalpy
of 2330 kJ/kg at inlet. It leaves the system at a velocity of 150m/s and its enthalpy at outlet is 1656 kJ/kg.
During its passage through the system through the system fluid has a loss of heat transfer by 30 kJ/kg to the
surroundings. Determine the power of the system in kW. Neglect any change in the potential energy.
12. 2·5 kg of an idea gas is expanded from a pressure of 700 kPa and volume 1·5 m3 to a pressure of 140 kPa and
volume of 4·5 m3. The change is internal energy is 500 kJ. Specific heat at constant volume for the gas is 0·719
kJ/kgK. Determine (a) gas constant and (b) initial and final temperatures.
13. (a) A quantity of gas is contained in a frictionless piston – cylinder system. The pressure is given by
P= (8 – 4V)
Where p is in bar and V is in m3. The gas expands from initial volume of 0.06 m3 to 0.3 m3 and there is a heat
transfer of 105 kJ to the gas. Calculate the change of internal energy.
(b) An ideal gas is expanded from initial state of 900 kN/m2 and 0·12 m3 to final state of 100 kN/m2 and 0·48
m3. The temperature change during this process was observed as 160°C. The values of Cp and Cv are 1·025
kJ/kg K and 0·735 kJ/kg K respectively. Find (a) mass of the gas and (b) the change in internal energy of
the gas.
14. A quantity of gas has an initial pressure, volume and temperature 140 KN/m2, 0.4 m3 and 250C respectively. It
is compressed to a pressure of 1.4MN/m2 according to the law PV1.25 = constant. Determine: (a) Work
transfer to the gas; (b) Heat transfer from the gas; (c) Change in entropyTake Cp = 1.041 kJ/kg K and Cv =
0.743 kJ/kg K
15. 2 kg of air at 10 bar and 3270 C expands adiabatically to a pressure of 1 bar. Determine (a) Final volume (b)
Final temperature (c) Work energy transferred during the process (d) Change in internal energy and (e)
Change in enthalpy. For air Cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K and R = 0.287 kJ/kg K
16. In an ideal Otto cycle the air at the beginning of isentropic compression is 1 bar and 15 0 C. The ratio of
compression is 8. The heat added is 1008 kJ/kg during constant volume process.
Take γ = 1.4; Cv = 0.714 kJ/kg K
Determine (a) Maximum temperature in the cycle
(b) The air standard efficiency
(c) The work done per kg of air
(d) The heat rejected per kg of air
17. The volumetric analysis of a producer gas is as follows: Hydrogen – 20.2%, Methane – 2.8%, Carbon
monoxide – 22.2%, carbon dioxide – 7.7% and Nitrogen – 47.1%. Estimate the volume of air required.
18. (a) Explain the thermodynamic processes of a Diesel Cycle with the help of p-V diagram.
(b) Explain the working of Junkers gas calorimeter with a line diagram and write an expression to find the
Higher Calorific Value.
M-304 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
Blue Print of Model Question Paper

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
Simple Stresses
1 Stresses 12 19 01 02 1 03 06 10
and Strains
2 Strain energy 8 13 01 - 1 03 - 10
Shear Force and
3 16 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
Bending Moment
Theory of Simple
Bending &
4 12 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
Deflection of
Beams
Torsion in Shafts
5 12 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
and Springs
TOTAL 60 110 05 05 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Simple Stresses & Strains, Strain Energy, Shear
Force & Bending Moment
R,U 4 CO1,CO2,CO3
1
2,3 Simple Stresses & Strains U 6 CO1
4 Strain Energy U 3 CO2
5 Shear Force & Bending Moment U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Simple Stresses & Strains Ap 8 CO1
7 Strain Energy Ap 8 CO2
8 Shear Force & Bending Moment Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
1 Theory of Simple Bending & Deflections of Beams, R,U 4 CO4,CO5
2,3 Theory of Simple Bending & Deflections of Beams U 6 CO4
4,5 Torsion in Shafts & Springs U 6 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Theory of Simple Bending & Deflections of Beams Ap 8 CO4
7,8 Torsion in Shafts & Springs Ap 16 CO5
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION(C-23)

DME – III SEMESTER, UNIT TEST-I
M-304, STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
PART-A : Instructions: Answer ALL questions.
1. a) Define Stress.
b) The ratio between ultimate stress and Design stress is called _______________.
c) The strain energy stored with in elastic limit is called____________
d) Define shear force.
2. List out the three elastic constants and write down the relation between them
3. A MS bar carries an axial load of 75 kN. If the allowable tensile stress is 50 N/mm 2, find the diameter of
the rod.
4. Calculate the proof resilience and modulus of resilience due to extension of steel bar 20 mm
diameter and 1500 mm length. The stress induced in elastic limit and modulus of elasticity for
2 2
steel bar is 250 N/mm and 200 GN/m respectively.
5. Draw shear force diagram for a simply supported beam of length 6 m and carries a point load of 40
kN at a distance of 1·75 m from left end support.
PART-B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3Questions. Each question carries 8 marks
6. Draw the stress – strain diagram for ductile material subjected to tensile force.
(OR)
A bar of length 3 m has a diameter of 50 mm over half its length and a diameter of 25 mm over the other
half. If E= 2.06 x 105 N/mm2 and the bar is subjected to a pull of 50 kN. Find the stress in each section
and total extension of the bar.
7. A MS bar of length 2 m has a diameter of 50 mm, hangs vertically. A load of 20 kN falls on a collar
attached to the lower end. Find the maximum stress when (a) height of fall is 100 mm, (b) load is
applied suddenly without impact, and (c) when load is applied gradually. Take E=2X105N/mm2.
(OR)
A mild steel specimen of 20mm diameter extends mm over a 50mm gauge length under an axial load of 32KN.
(a) Calculate the strain energy at this point and (b) If the load at elastic limit is 55KN, calculate the proof
resilience.
8. A 6 m long cantilever beam carries loads of 2 kN and 3 kN at 2 m and 5 m r espectively from fixed end and
uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire length. Draw S.F and B.M diagram for the beam.
(OR)
A beam of length 1.2m is simply supported at its ends and carries two pint loads of 3.5KN and 4Kn at distances
of 0.4m and 0.8m from the left end support. Draw the Shear force diagram and bending moment diagram.
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION(C-23)
DME – III SEMESTER, UNIT TEST-II
M-304, STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
PART-A : Instructions: Answer ALL questions.
1. a) State simple bending equation with usual notations.
b) Write the expression for slope o n simply- supported beam with UDL over the entire beam
c) Write the formula for polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft.
d) Define a spring.
2. State any three assumptions made in theory of simple bending.
3. A cantilever beam of length 6m is carrying a uniform distributed load of 16KN-m. Calculate the deflection at
the free end of the beam. Take moment of inertia= 95X107mm4 and E=2X105N/mm2
4. Define polar modulus and write the equations for solid and hollow shafts.
5. List out the various types of springs.
PART-B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3Questions. Each question carries 8 marks
6. A rectangular beam 300 mm deep is simply supported over a span of 4 meters. What uniformly distributed
load per meter the beam may carry if the bending stress is not to exceed 120 N/mm2. Take I = 8x106 mm4.
(OR)
A Cantilever beam of length 2m is subjected to a UDL of intensity 1000N/m throughout its length.
Find the maximum bending stress in the beam if the cross section of the beam is rectangle with
dimensions 80mmX40mm.
7. A ship propeller shaft is to transmit 500 MW at 2 rev/sec. The shaft permissible stress is limited to
2
60 N/mm and the maximum torque being 1·3 times the mean torque. Determine (a)
required diameter of the solid shaft.
(OR)
A solid steel shaft 100 mm diameter transmits 75 kW at 150 rpm. Calculate (a) Torque on the shaft ; (b) The
maximum shear stress induced ; (c) The angle of twist in a length of 600 mm and (d) The shear stress at a
radius of 30 mm. Take G = 0·8 × 105 N/mm2.
8 A hollow shaft is to transmit 300 kW at 90 rpm. If the shear stress must not exceed 60 N/mm2, find the
external and internal diameters of shaft. Assume that the maximum torque is 20 % greater than the mean
torque and internal diameter is 0.6 times of the external diameter.
(OR)
A close coiled spring is to have stiffness of 1 N/mm of compression under maximum load of 45 N and
maximum shearing stress of 120 N/mm2. The solid length of wire is to be 45 mm. Find the diameter
of wire, the mean diameter of coils and number of coils required.
MODEL PAPER
DME– III SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
Part – A 3M X 10 = 30M

3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five simple sentences.
19. Define the following terms :

i. Poisson’s ratio
ii. Modulus of elasticity
iii. Modulus of rigidity
2. A load of 4000 N has to be raised at the end of a steel wire. If the unit stress in the wire must not
2
exceed 80 N/mm , what is the minimum diameter required? What will be the extension of 3·5
5 2
m length of wire? Take E  2 10 N/mm .
3. Define Factor of safety. Significance of Factor of Safety.
4. A bar of 35 mm diameter and 2 m long is subjected to a sudden load of 50 kN. Calculate the
5 2
maximum instantaneous stress and strain energy in the bar. Asssume E  2 10 N/mm .
5. List any three types of beams.
6. Draw the shear force diagram for a simply supported beam subjected to a uniform distributed load
throughout its length.
7. Write the bending equation and mention the units of the terms.
8. A cantilever beam 2.5 m carries a point load of 30 KN at free end. Find the slope and deflection of the beam
at the free end. Assume I = 8 x 107 mm4. E=2.1 x 105 N/mm2.Mention desirable properties of an insulating
materials.
9. Find the maximum torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter 30 cm, if the shear stress is not
2.
to exceed 40 N/mm
10. Define the terms spring index and stiffness related to coiled helical springs
Part – B 10M X 5 = 50M

3) Answer should be comprehensive and criteria for valuation is content, but not the length of the
answer.
11. Draw a stress-strain diagram for MS specimen and discuss the significance of salient points on it.
12. An MS bar of length 2 m has a diameter of 50 mm, hangs vertically. A load of 20 KN falls on a
collar attached to the lower end. Find the maximum stress when (a) height of fall is 100 mm, (b)
5
load is applied suddenly without impact and (c) load is applied gradually. Take E = 2x10
2
N/mm .
13.A 6 m long cantilever beam carries loads of 2 kN and 3 kN at 2 m and 5 m respectively from fixed end and
u.d.l of 10 kN/m over its entire length. Draw S.F and B.M diagram for the beam.
14.Draw SF and BM diagrams for the beam loaded as shown in figure below. All loads are in kN
and length are in metre:
15.A simply supported timber beam of rectangular cross section is to be support as a load of 25 kN
uniformly distributed over a span of 3·6 m. If the depth of the section is to be twice the breadth, and
2
the stress in timber is not exceed 7 N/mm , find the dimensions of the cross section.
16.(a)A timber beam, 150 mm x 300 mm cross section supports a central point load on a span of 4 m. If the
maximum bending stress is 8 N/mm2, what is the maximum deflection? Take E= 0.1 x 105 N/mm2.
(b)A cantilever 1.25 m long of section 100 mm wide x 160 mm deep carries a concentrated load of 60 kN at
free end. Find the deflection at free end. Take E= 2.1 x 105 N/mm2
17. A hollow shaft is to transmit 300 kW at 90 rpm. If the shear stress must not exceed 60 N/mm2, find the
external and internal diameters of shaft. Assume that the maximum torque is 20 % greater than the mean
torque and internal diameter is 0.6 times of the external diameter.
18. A closely coiled helical spring made of 10 mm diameter steel wire has 15 coils of 100 mm mean
diameter. The spring is subjected to an axial load of 150 N. Calculate (a) the maximum shear
4 2
stress induced, (b) the deflection and (c) stiffness of the spring. Take G= 8x10 N/mm .
M-305 MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY- I
Blue Print of a Model Question Paper

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Production Lathes 14 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
Shaper, Slotter,
2 14 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
and Planer
3 Foundry 09 16 01 01 1 03 03 10
Cutting Fluids and
4 09 16 01 01 1 03 03 10
Metal Coatings
5 Welding 14 26 01 01 2 03 03 20
TOTAL 60 110 05 05 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Production Lathes,
Shaper, Slotter, and Planer R,U 4 CO1,CO2
1
2 Production Lathes U 6 CO1,CO2
3,4,5 Shaper, Slotter, and Planer U 6 CO1,CO2
Part - B (24 marks)

6 Production Lathes Ap 8 CO1
7 Shaper, Slotter, and Planers Ap 8 CO2
Production Lathes,
8 Shaper, Slotter, and Planers Ap 8 CO1,CO2
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks
Q.No Question from the topic CO addressed
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Foundry, Cutting Fluids and Metal Coatings
1 R,U 4 CO3,CO4,CO5
Welding
2 Foundry U 3 CO3
3 Cutting Fluids and Metal Coatings U 3 CO4
Welding U 6 CO5
4,5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Foundry Ap 8 CO3
7 Cutting Fluids and Metal Coatings Ap 8 CO4
CO5
8
Welding Ap 8
C23-M-305
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
Manufacturing Technology – I

PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4Questions
carry 3 marks each
1. (a) Specification of lathe.
(b) Lathe cutting tool is a single point cutting tool. (True/False)
(c) Basic difference between shaper and slotter.
(d) significance of clearance angle.
2. List out any six lathe operations.
3. List out the different parts of a shaper.
4. State the main differences between planner and shaper.
5. How do you specify a shaper.
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Units. Answer any one full question from each
unit. Each question carries 8 marks and may have sub questions.
6. Describe the functions of lathe bed and lathe head stock with the help of sketch.
(OR)
Explain any two methods of taper turning carried out on lathe machine.
7. Explain the different operations performed by the shaper

(OR)
Explain the whit worth quick return mechanism of a slotter with line diagram.
8. Explain any two operations performed on engine lathe with sketches.
(OR)
Describe the construction and working principle of planar with legible sketch
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test -II
Manufacturing Technology – I (M-305)

PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4Questions carry
3 marks each
1. (a) Basic limitation of cutting fluid

(b) Welding is a permanent joint. (True/False)
(c) List out fluxes.
(d) Define casting.
2. List three relative merits of the cutting fluids and coolants.
3. Define pattern.
4. List three reasons for welding defects
5. Write any three differences between soldering and brazing.
PART – B
6. Explain various properties of moulding sand

(OR)
Write short notes on centrifugal casting process.
7. Explain properties and applications of cutting fluids and coolants.

(OR)
Explain various properties and applications of lubricants.
8. What are the common defects of w e l d i n g ? State their causes and remedies?
(OR)
Explain the principle of gas welding with a neat sketch and write its advantages and applications?
MODEL PAPER
DME - THIRD SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY- I (M-305)

Time: 3 hours] [ Total Marks : 80]
PART-A 3x10=30
Instructions:(1) Answer all questions.
(3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five simple
sentences.
2. State the working principle of lathe.

3. List out any six work holding devices used in lathe.
4. List out the different parts of a shaper.
5. How do you specify a slotter?
6. List out various types of hand-moulding tools.
7. Name any six types of patterns
8. List three relative merits of the cutting fluids and coolants.
9. What is the application of Enamel paints.
10. State the necessity of welding
11. Write any three differences between soldering and brazing.
PART-B 10x5=50
Instructions:1) Answer any five questions.

12. Describe the functions of lathe bed and lathe head stock with the help of sketch.
13. Explain any two methods of taper turning carried out on lathe machine.
14. Explain the whitworth quick return mechanism of a slotter with line diagram.
15. Describe the constructional details of planar with neat sketch?
16. Explain Centrifugal casting. Write the advantages and disadvantages and its applications.
17. Explain properties and applications of cutting fluids and coolants.
18. Explain the principle of operation arc welding with a neat sketch and write its advantages and
applications.
19. Describe the procedure for submerged arc welding with a neat sketch. State its advantages.

END EXAMINATION
MACHINE DRAWING (M-306 )
Time : 3 Hours
Total Marks: 60
Note: 1. Drawing should be neat and proportionate

2. Use first angle projection
1. Use Standard data
2. Assume missing data suitably if any
PART – A
Answer all the questions

4 X 5 = 20
1. Draw the two views of hexagonal headed bolt
2. Draw two views of double riveted zig –zag lap joint
3. Draw the single line symbols for the following pipe fittings
(a) Cap (b) Tee (c) 900 elbow (d) Reducer (e) Gate valve
4. Show the welding symbols for the following types
(i)Weld all round (ii) Grinding Finish (c) Chipping Finish (iv) Seam weld (V) Spot weld
Part B
Answer any one question
1 X 40 = 40
5. Assemble together the parts of the Foot step bearing shown in the figure and draw its following views (i)
sectional front view (ii) Top view (iii) Dimensioning
6. Assemble together the parts of the Knuckle joint shown in the figure and draw its following views (i)
sectional front view and (ii) Top view (iii) Dimensioning
M-401 DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Threaded Joints 8 13 1 - 1 3 - 10
Shafts, Keys and 14 26
2 1 1 2 3 3 20
Couplings.
Power Transmission
Drives 10 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
3 (a) Belt and Chain
Drives.
(b) Gear Drives 08 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
4 Cams 08 13 - 1 1 - 3 10
Elements of Internal 12 26
5 1 1 2 3 3 20
Combustion Engines.
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Q.No Question from the topic Blooms Marks CO

PART-A(16 marks)
1 Definitions and Statements R,U 4 CO1,
CO2,CO3
2 Threaded Joints U 3 CO1
3 Shafts, Keys and Couplings U 3 CO2
4 Shafts, Keys and Couplings U 3 CO2
5 Belt and Chain Drives U 3 CO3
PART-B(24 marks)
6 Threaded Joints Ap 8 CO1
7 Shafts, Keys and Couplings Ap 8 CO2
8 Belt and Chain Drives Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Q.No Question from the topic Blooms Marks CO
PART-A(16 marks)
1 Definitions and Statements R,U 4 CO3 to CO5
2 Gear Drives U 3 CO3
3 Cams U 3 CO4
4 Elements of Internal Combustion Engines U 3 CO5
5 Elements of Internal Combustion Engines U 3 CO5
PART-B(24 marks)
6 Gear Drives Ap 8 CO3
7 Cams Ap 8 CO4
8 Elements of Internal Combustion Engines Ap 8 CO5
C23-M-401
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST - 1
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
PART – A
1. (a) The ratio of Ultimate stress to allowable stress is called----------------
(b) The core diameter of M20 bolt is--------------------------
(c) State the function of Shaft.
(d) State the condition for maximum power transmission in the belt drive.
2. How a screw thread is designated? Give an example.
3. A gib headed key is used to connect a shaft of 60 mm diameter with a gear. Draw the gib headed key with the
proportions.
4. List the characteristics of a good shaft coupling?
5. Two pulleys 800 and 400 mm diameters which are fixed to two parallel shafts 4 m apart are connected by open
belt. Find the length of belt required and angle of contact.
PART – B
6. Explain the basic procedure of designing of machine members
(OR)
Design and draw an Eye bolt which is to be used for lifting an electric machine of load 5 kN. Ultimate stress of the
material is 600 MPa and the factor of safety is 6. Design the eyebolt from the proportionate dimensions.
7. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a bending moment of 3000 Nm and a torque of 10000 Nm. The shaft is made
of steel having ultimate tensile stress of 700 MPa and ultimate shear stress of 500 MPa. Assuming a factor of
safety of 6. Determine the suitable diameter of the shaft. (OR)
Design and draw a protective cast iron flange coupling for a steel shaft transmitting 15 kW power at 200 rpm and
having an allowable shear stress of 40 N/mm 2. The working stress in the bolts should not exceed 30 N/mm 2. Assume
that the same material is used for the shaft and key and that the crushing stress is twice the value of its shear stress.
The maximum torque is 25 % greater than the mean torque. The shear stress for cast iron is 14 N/mm 2.
8. Two pulleys 1.2 m and 0.5 m diameter are on parallel shaft 3.6 m apart, and are connected by an open belt drive.
The belt has a mass of 0.9 kg/m length, and the maximum tension in it is not to exceed 2000 N. The larger pulley
which is the driver runs at 3.5 rev/s and coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.25. Calculate the
power transmitted by the belt. (OR)
A belt transmitting power from a motor to a machine weighs 24 N/metre and the maximum permissible tension in it
is 1000 N. The belt embraces 5/9 of the pulley circumference. Coefficient of friction is 0.28. If the belt runs under
maximum power condition, determine the optimum belt speed and maximum power transmitted.
C23-M-401
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST - 2
PART – A
1. (a) Define circular pitch of gear
(b) Define Base circle of a cam
(c) Write the function of bearing
(d) Classify the chain drives
2. Classify the gears.
3. How do you classify the followers?
4. Write the differences between Governor and Fly wheel?

5. Define mechanical vibration.
PART – B
6. Explain the following gear trains with neat sketches and mention their applications.
a). Simple gear train, and b). Compound gear train.
(OR)
A three speed sliding gear box of a motor car is required to give speed ratios of 4:1, 2.5:1 and 1.5 :1 for the first,
second and third gear respectively. Diametral pitch of all gears is 0.3 /m and the centre distance between mating
gears is 70 mm. Find the suitable number of teeth for various gears, if the number of teeth on pinion is 14. Sketch the
arrangement.
7. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife edged follower:
a). Outstroke during 90° of cam rotation;
b).Dwell for the next 30° of cam rotation;
c). Return stroke during next 120° of cam rotation, and
d). Dwell for the remaining 120° of cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 40 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 30 mm. The follower moves with uniform
velocity during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the profile of the cam when the axis of the follower
passes through the axis of the cam shaft. (OR)
A cam is to be designed for a roller follower with the following data:
a). Outstroke during 120° of cam rotation;
b). Dwell for the next 30° of cam rotation;
c). Return stroke during next 90° of cam rotation, and
d). Dwell for the remaining part of cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 50 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 25 mm. The diameter of the roller is 20
mm. The follower moves with simple harmonic motion during both the outstroke and return stroke. Draw the profile
of the cam when the axis of the follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft.
8. Compare the sliding contact bearings with rolling contact bearings
(OR)
Explain Porter governor with a sketch.
C-23-M-401
MODEL PAPER
DME – IV-SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
PART – A
Instructions: Answer all the questions 3 x 10=30
Each question carries THREE marks
1. What are the factors to be considered while designing a machine element?

2. Write the function of Shaft and Axle.
3. Define Couplings. Classify the Couplings.
4. Distinguish between Open and Crossed belt drives.
5. State the advantages and disadvantages of Belt drive.
6. Define the terms a). Circular pitch b). Module
7. Write the differences between involute and cycloidal tooth profiles.

8. Classify the Cams.
9. Write the functions and classification of bearings.
10. Write the differences between Flywheel and Governors.
PART - B
Instructions: Answer any FIVE the questions 5 x 10 = 50
Each question carries TEN marks
11. Design and draw an Eye bolt which is used for lifting an electric machine load of 5 kN. Take
Ultimate stress of the material as 600 MPa and the factor of safety as 6. Give the
proportions of the eyebolt designed.
12. A steel shaft transmits 4 kW at 800 RPM. The angular deflection should not exceed 0.25 o per meter length of
the shaft. If the modulus of rigidity for the material of the shaft is 84 x 10 3 N/mm2, find the diameter of the
shaft .
13. Design and draw a muff coupling to connect two shafts transmitting 100 kW power at 200 rpm. The
permissible shearing and crushing stresses for shaft and key material are 50 N/mm 2 and 100 N/mm2
respectively. The material for muff is cast iron with a permissible shear stress of 15 N/mm 2. Assume that the
maximum torque transmitted is equal to the mean torque.
14. A flat belt drive is used to transmit 15 kW power from an electric motor to a flourmill. The following data is
available.
Thickness of belt: 10 mm; Density of belt material: 1.1 gm/cm3 .
Motor pulley diameter: 1400 mm; Motor pulley speed: 135 rpm;
2
Stress in the belt: 2.4 MN/m . Angle of contact: 2.75 radians;
Coefficient of friction: 0.3;
Determine the width of the belt.
15. Explain the following gear trains with neat sketches and mention their applications.
i). Simple gear train and ii). Compound gear train.
16. A cam is to be designed for a knife edge follower with the following data:
a). Cam lift = 50 mm during 120° of cam rotation with Simple Harmonic Motion.
b). Dwell for the next 30°.
c). During the next 120° of cam rotation, the follower returns to its original position with simple harmonic
motion.
d). Dwell during the remaining.
Draw the profile of the cam when the line of stroke of the follower passes through the axis of the cam
shaft and the radius of the base circle of the cam is 35 mm.
17. Describe the working of Porter governor with a legible sketch.
18. Explain the methods of controlling the vibrations in mechanical systems.
*********

M-402 HYDRAULICS & FLUID POWER SYTEMS

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Fluid Statics 10 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
2 Fluid Dynamics 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
3 Flow through pipes 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
4 Hydraulic Machines 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
5 Fluid Power Systems 08 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks CO
category
allocated addressed
Part - A (16 marks)
Fluid Statics, Fluid Dynamics and Flow through CO1,CO2,
pipes
R,U 4
1 CO3
2,3 Fluid Statics U 6 CO1
4 Fluid Dynamics U 3 CO2
5 Flow through pipes U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Fluid Statics Ap 8 CO1
7 Fluid Dynamics Ap 8 CO2
8 Flow through pipes Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
1 Hydraulic Machines and Fluid Power systems R,U 4 CO4,CO5
2,3,4 Hydraulic Machines U 3 CO4
5 Fluid Power systems U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6,7 Hydraulic Machines Ap 16 CO4
8 Fluid Power systems Ap 8 CO5
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - 1
HYDRAULICS & FLUID POWER SYTEMS (M-402)

PART – A
1. (a) One liter of a certain fluid weighs 8N. specific volume of the same fluid is----------
(b) ----------------------------is the formula for determining the size of equivalent pipe for two pipes of
lengths L1, L2 and diameters d1, d2 respectively? Where, L = L1 + L2
(c) In a steady, ideal flow of an incompressible fluid, total energy at any point of the fluid is always
constant. This theorem is known as-------------
(d) The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at the point, is called as----------
2. Define Specific gravity, Surface Tension and Bulk Modulus.

3. State the condition for maximum power transmitted through a pipe. What is the corresponding
maximum efficiency?
4. State any three assumptions made in Bernoulli’s theorem.
5. Define Absolute pressure and Vaccum Pressure and give the formulae.
PART – B

6. A U-tube differential manometer, containing mercury is connected to two pipes as shown in figure.
The pipes are carrying water. Find the pressure difference between two pipes.
(OR)
Explain the Bourdan Pressure Gauge with neat Sketch.
7. A vertical pipe of 15 m high and 6 m in diameter is filled with water. The distance between datum to
the pipe bottom is 3 m. How much potential energy is stored in the water? Also express potential
energy in terms of energy head.
(OR)
A 50 cm diameter pipe, carrying water, branches into two pipes of diameters 30 cm and 15 cm
respectively. The mean velocity in the 50 cm diameter pipe is 3 m/sec and in the 30 cm diameter
pipe is 2 m/sec. Determine.
(a) Discharge in 50 cm pipe.
(b) Velocity in 15 cm pipe.
8. Water is supplied from a reservoir through a 300 mm diameter pipe and 600 m long to a turbine
which is situated 108m below the free surface. Discharge through the pipe is 81 lit/sec. Find the
head lost and the power transmitted by the pipe? Darcy’s friction factor, f =0.01.
(OR)
Find the maximum power that can be transmitted to a power station through a hydraulic
pipe 3 km long and 20 cm diameters, when the pressure at the power station is
600 kN/m2. Take f = 0.0075.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - 2
HYDRAULICS & FLUID POWER SYTEMS (M-402)

PART – A
1. (a) Pelton turbine the energy available at inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle is known
as----------------------- DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
(b) Francis Turbine is a Reaction turbine. (True/False)
(c) Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting _________ energy to_________ energy
(d) The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in ______
2. What is priming and why it is necessary

3. State any three differences between peloton wheel and Francis turbine.
4. Classify water turbines according to the direction of flow?
5. Define static and manometric heads of a centrifugal pump?
PART – B
6. Explain the Constructional details and working of Kaplan turbine

(OR)
Explain the Constructional details and working of Francis turbine

7. Explain the working of reciprocating pump.
(OR)
Explain the working of centrifugal pump

8.Explain the Pneumatic system with a schematic diagram
(OR)
Explain the hydraulic system with a schematic diagram.
MODEL PAPER
DME - FOURTH SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
HYDRAULICS & FLUID POWER SYTEMS
Time: 3 hours] [Total Marks: 80
PART – A 3 x 10 = 30

(2) Each question carries Three marks.
1. Define the following fluid properties (a) Viscosity (b) Surface tension
2. Calculate the specific gravity of a liquid whose specific weight is 7·5 k N/m3?
3. State any three limitations of Bernoulli’s theorem
4. State continuity equation and mention units of each term.
5. Water flows through a pipe 250 mm in diameter and 60 m long with a velocity of 3 m/s. Find the loss of
head due to friction by using Darcy’s formula when f = 0·005.
6. State major energy losses and minor energy losses in pipes
7. Write the applications of centrifugal pump?
8. Write any three differences between Impulse turbine and Reaction turbine.
9. Write advantages and applications of fluid power systems.
10. List out any six applications of fluid power systems.
PART – B 5 x 10 = 50
Instructions: (1) Answer all Five questions either A or B from each question.
(2) Each question carries Ten marks.
11. (A) An inverted differential manometer is connected to two pipes A and B carrying water as shown in the
figure. The fluid in the manometer is oil of specific gravity 0.8. Determine the pressure difference between A
and B.
12. A pipe 300m long has a slope of 1 in 100 taper from 1.5 m diameter at the higher end to 0.75 m diameter
at the lower end. The discharge of water through the pipe is 5500 litre/min. If the pressure at the higher end is
100 kPa, then find the pressure at the other end
13. A horizontal venturi meter, 30 cm × 15 cm, discharges 80 litre/sec. If the difference of the pressure head
between inlet and throat is 1·5 m of water, find the coefficient of discharge of venturi meter
14. Find the maximum power transmitted through a pipe of 100 mm diameter and 2 km long. The supply
head is 4·9 kPa. [Take f = 0.01]
15. Two reservoirs are connected by a straight pipe 1·6 km long for the first half of its length it has 160 mm
diameter and then suddenly reduced to 80 mm. The water level in the two reservoirs differ by 30 m.
Determine the rate of flow in litre/min. [Take f = 0.01] Neglect minor losses.
16. Explain the working of Kaplan turbine with a neat sketch.
17.Explain the working of centrifugal pump with a neat sketch.
18.Explain Pneumatic system with a schematic diagram

M-403 THERMAL ENGINEERING- II

Chapter Name
No. Allocated Allocated Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Internal Combustion 19 26 1 1 3 3 20
2
Engines.
Performance of IC
2 12 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Engines.
3 Air Compressors. 16 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
4 Gas Turbines & Jet 1 1 3 3 15
14 21 1½
Propulsion.
5 Automobile Technology 14 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
TOTAL 75 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
R-Remember; U-Understanding; Ap-Application ; An- Analylising
Unit Test – 1

Part - A (16 marks)

Internal Combustion Engines, Performance of IC CO1,
1 R,U 4
Engines, Air Compressors CO2,CO3
2 Internal Combustion Engines, U 3 CO1
3 Internal Combustion Engines U 3 CO1
4 Performance of IC Engines U 3 CO2
5 Air Compressors U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Internal Combustion Engines Ap 8 CO1
7 Performance of IC Engines Ap 8 CO2
8 Air Compressors Ap 8 CO3

Unit Test – 2
Q.No Question from the topic Bloom’s Marks CO

Part - A (16 marks)
Air Compressors, Gas Turbines & Jet Propulsion, CO3, CO4,
1 R,U 4
and Automobile technology. CO5
2 Air Compressors U 3 CO3
3 Gas Turbines U 3 CO4
4 Jet Propulsion U 3 CO4
5 Automobile technology U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Air Compressors Ap 8 CO3
7 Gas Turbines & Jet Propulsion Ap 8 CO4
8 Automobile technology Ap 8 CO5
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - 1
Thermal Engineering- II (M-403)
PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4 Questions carry 3 marks each
1. (a) External combustion engine develops more power than IC engine (True/False)
(b) Expand the terms TDC and BDC.
(c) What is Morse test in I.C. Engines?
(d) To calculate the volumetric efficiency in air compressors actual volume of air drawn is calculated at NTP
conditions. (True/False)
2. Draw the typical indicator diagram for 4-stroke petrol engine.

3. Write any three reasons for necessity of cooling in the I.C. Engines.
4. Define the terms ( a) IP (b) BP related to IC engines.
5. Write down the classification of reciprocating compressors based on any three criteria.
PART – B
6. Explain the working of four stroke diesel engine with neat diagrams.
(OR)
Explain the battery ignition system in the S.I engines with a neat sketch.
7. A single cylinder engine working on 4-stroke cycle has a bore of 120 mm and stroke 135 mm and runs at 650
RPM. The mean effective pressure is 6.5 bar. It consumes 10 cc of fuel in 30 seconds. The diesel oil used is
having a C.V. of 42000 kJ/kg and specific gravity of 0.85. The brake wheel diameter is 900 mm and rope
diameter is 20 mm. The net load on the brake is 0.11 kN. Calculate (a) Mechanical efficiency (b) Indicated
thermal efficiency and (c) Brake thermal efficiency.
(OR)
In a full load test on an oil engine the following results were obtained: IP = 30 kW, BP = 24 kW, Fuel
consumption = 0.128 kg/min, Cylinder circulating water = 5.9 kg/min, Temperature rise of cooling water =
49.50C, Temperature of exhaust gas = 387.80C, Temperature of engine room = 18.4 0C, Air fuel ratio = 20,
Calorific value of oil = 45200 kJ/kg and Specific heat of exhaust gas = 1.05 kJ/kg K. Determine the mechanical
and indicated thermal efficiencies.
8. Describe the working of a single stage reciprocating air compressor with a line diagram
(OR)
Determine the work required to compress 1 kg of air from 1 bar abs and 27 0C to 9 bar abs. The law of compression is
pV1.35 = C.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - 2
Thermal Engineering – II (M-403)
PART – A
1. (a) In the axial flow compressor the pressure ratio per stage is _________.
(b) Gas turbine is a rotary type internal combustion engine. (True/False)
(c) The fuel in Rocket engine is _________.
(d) Clutch is mounted between ______________
2. List the advantages of multi stage compression.
3. Write any three applications of gas turbines.
4. Write the principle of operation of jet engines.
5. List three alternative fuels used in IC engines.
PART – B
6. Write any eight differences between reciprocating compressors and rotary compressors.
(OR)
Determine the minimum work required to compress 1 kg of air from 1 bar abs and 27 0C to 9 bar abs i 2
stages. The law of compression is pV1.35 = C and inter cooling is complete. If the air was compressed in one
stage between the same pressure limits, what is the percentage saving of work by compressing it in two
stages. Assume R = 0.287 kJ/kg K.
7. Explain the constant pressure gas turbine with neat sketch.
(OR)
Explain the turbo-jet unit with a neat sketch.
8. Describe the Working of Single plate Clutch.
(OR)
Explain the functions of principal components of conventional automobile transmission system with a line
diagram.
C-23-M-403
MODEL PAPER
D.M.E. – IV SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
THERMAL ENGINEERING -II
PART – A
10 X3 = 30
1. Write any three differences between battery ignition system and magnetic ignition system.
2. Draw theoretical valve diagram for a 4-stroke diesel engine.
3. List important performance parameters of I.C engines.
4. A single cylinder, 4-stroke diesel engine has a bore of 110 mm, stroke 120 mm. The indicated mean effective
pressure is 375 kN/mm2.
5. Write any three applications of compressed air in the engineering applications.
6. Write three differences between centrifugal compressors and axial flow compressors.
7. Write the applications of the gas turbines.
8. List the fuels used in Jet engines.
9. List three merits of Hydrogen using as alternative fuel.
10. State the concept of Turbocharging of automobile engines

PART – B
5 X 10 = 50
11. Explain the working of 4- stroke C.I. engine with neat sketches.
12. Explain the working of zenith carburettor with a neat sketch.
13. The following results were obtained from a test on a petrol engine. I.P = 30 kW; B.P = 26 Calorific Value of
the fuel = 44100 kJ/kg; Fuel consumption = 8.2 kg/hr. Find (a) Indicated thermal efficiency (b) Brake thermal
efficiency (c) Mechanical efficiency.
14. The following data relates to a double acting single cylinder 7.5 kW air compressor.
Suction pressure = 0.9 bar
Delivery pressure = 6 bar
Average piston speed = 120 m/min
Law of compression PV1.25 = constant
Determine the cylinder dimensions if stroke to diameter ratio is 1.25. Neglect the clearance volume.
15) Write any eight differences between reciprocating compressors and rotary compressors.
16) Explain the closed cycle gas turbine with a line diagram and show the thermodynamic cycle on p-V diagram and T-
s diagram.
17. Explain the functions of principal components of conventional automobile transmission system with a line
diagram.
18 (A) Explain the Turbo-jet engine with a line diagram.

(B) Describe the Working of Single plate Clutch.
********

M-404 - ENGINEERING MATERIALS

Chapter Name
No. Allocated Allocated Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
Properties and Testing of
1 12 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Engineering Materials
Plastics and Powder
2 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Metallurgy
Production of Iron and
3 12 21 1 1 1 1/2 3 3 15
Steel
4 Heat treatment of Steel 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Ferrous, Non-Ferrous
5 10 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Metals and their alloys
TOTAL 75 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks
category
allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Properties and Testing of Engineering Materials,
Plastics and Powder Metallurgy ,Production of Iron
R,U 4 CO1,CO2,CO3
1
2,3 Properties and Testing of Engineering Materials U 6 CO1
4 Plastics and Powder Metallurgy U 3 CO2
5 Production of Iron U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Properties and Testing of Engineering Materials Ap 8 CO1
7 Plastics and Powder Metallurgy Ap 8 CO2
8 Production of Iron Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Production of steel, Heat treatment of Steel,
1 Ferrous, Non-Ferrous R,U 4 CO3-CO5
2 Production of steel U 3 CO3
3 Heat treatment of Steel U 3 CO4
Ferrous, Non-Ferrous
4,5
U 6 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Production of steel Ap 8 CO3
7 Heat treatment of Steel Ap 8 CO4
Ferrous, Non-Ferrous CO5
8
Ap 8
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test – 1
ENGINEERING MATERIALS (M-404)

Time : 90 Minute Total Marks: 40
PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4 Questions
carry 3 marks each
1. (a) The maximum cycle stress at which the material will operate indefinitely
without failure is known as .
(b) For ductile material the percentage elongation will be more than 5%. (True/False)
(c) What is the effective number of atoms for body cantered cubic lattice?
(d) Melting point for pure iron is
(a) 113000C (b) 14000C (c) 15390C (d) 7230C
2. Define the mechanical properties strength and hardness.
3. State the principle of radiography testing.
4. Differentiate between thermosetting plastics and thermoplastics.
5. State three important raw materials of iron ore.
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3 Units. Answer any one full question from each unit.
Each question carries 8 marks and may have sub questions.
6. Explain Rockwell hardness test and compare B-scale with C-scale.
(OR)
Explain the unit cell structures of (i) BCC and (ii) FCC with examples.
7. Explain injection moulding with a legible sketch.

(OR)
Explain steps in making products by using power metallurgy technique.
8. Explain with a neat sketch the production of cast iron in cupola furnace.
(OR)
Draw a neat sketch of a Puddling furnace and explain how the wrought iron
is produced from it.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test – II
PART – A
st
Instructions: 1 Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4Questions carry 3 marks each
1. (a) What is the melting point of pure iron?
(b) The annealing temperature of mild steel is in the range of 8400C to 8700C. (True/False)
(c) Iron carbon alloy having carbon more than 2% is known as
(a) Cast iron (b) High carbon steel (c) Mild steel (d) None of the above
(d) Brass is an alloy of and .
2. List raw materials used for making of steel.

3. List out six heat treatment processes of steel.
4. State the properties of Babbit metals.
5. State the influence of silicon and manganese on plain carbon steel.
PART – B
6. Describe the open hearth of process of making steel.
(OR)
Describe L-D process of making steel .
7. Sketch the Iron- carbon diagram and mark the salient points.
(OR)
Explain the heat treatment processes (a) Carburising (b) Nitriding
8. Explain Properties and applications of Grey and White cast irons.

(OR)
What are the desired properties of bearing metals? Name three types of bearing metals.
MODEL PAPER
DME– IV SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
Part – A 3 M X 10 = 30 M

3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five
simple sentences.
1. Define the following properties:

a)Ductility
b) Creep resistance
2. Mention three advantages of Non-Destructive tests.
3. List three Advantages of powder metallurgy.
4. Differentiate between thermosetting plastics and thermoplastics.
5. State three important raw materials of iron ore.
6. State the advantages of making steel in L-D process.

7. List any six methods of heat treatment of steels. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
8. Define case hardening and list the case hardening processes.

9. State the desirable properties of bearing metals.
10. State the properties and uses of nickel.
Part – B 10 M X 5 = 50M

3) Answer should be comprehensive and criteria for valuation is content,
11. Explain the Rockwell Hardness Test with sketch and compare B-scale with C-scale.
12. Explain the unit cell structures of (i) BCC and (ii) FCC with examples.
13. Explain injection moulding with a legible sketch.
14. Explain steps in making products by using power metallurgy technique.
15. Explain with a neat sketch the production of cast iron in cupola furnace.
16. Sketch the Iron- carbon diagram and mark the salient points.
17. Explain Properties and applications of Grey and White cast irons.
18. (a) Explain the differences between basic and acid type of furnaces.
(b) Explain the heat treatment processes (a) Carburising (b) Nitriding
M-405MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-II
Sl. Chapter Name Periods Weightage Question Wise Marks Wise

No. Allocated Allocated Distribution of Distribution of
Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Milling Machines 12 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Gear Generating
2 12 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Processes
Grinding and Broaching
3 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Machines
Measurements and
4 12 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Metrology.
Nonconventional
5 10 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Machining Processes.
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
R-Remember; U-Understanding; Ap-Application; An- Analysing
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
CO1,CO2,
Statements and Definitions. R,U 4
1 CO3
2,3 Milling Machines U 6 CO1
4 Gear generating processes U 3 CO2
5 Grinding and Broaching Machines U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Milling Machines DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
Ap 8 CO1
7 Gear generating processes Ap 8 CO2
8 Grinding and Broaching Machines Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Grinding and Broaching Machines, CO3, CO4,
1 Measurement & Metrology and Unconventional R,U 4
Machining Processes
CO5
2 Broaching Machines U 3 CO3
3 Measurement & Metrology U 6 CO4
4,5 Nonconventional Machining Processes U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Broaching Machines Ap 8 CO3
7 Measurement & Metrology Ap 8 CO4
8 Nonconventional Machining Processes Ap 8 CO5
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test – I
MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-II (M-405)
Time: 90 Minutes Total Marks: 40

PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4Questions
carry 3 marks each
1. (a) State the basic difference between horizontal and vertical milling machine.
(b) Milling Cutter is a multi-pointer cutter (True or False)
(c) How gears are specified?
(d) Define Grade.
2. Name any 6 different types of milling machines.
3. List out the tool holding devices used in milling operations.
4. List various gear finishing operations.
5. Give the specifications of grinding wheels.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PART-B
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
6. Explain different milling operations with neat sketches

(OR)
Draw a line diagram of horizontal milling machine and explain the functions of its
parts
7. Explain (a) Gear shaping and (b) Gear hobbing. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
(OR)
Explain (a)Burnishing , (b) Shaving and (c) Lapping.
8.. Explain the Centerless grinding machine with the help of neat sketch.
(OR)
Explain types of bonds used in grinding wheel making.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test – II
MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY-II (M-405)
PART – A
1. (a) the basic purpose of broaching machine is _______
(b) Ultrasonic machining is used for ferrous materials (True/False)
(c) Plug gauge is used to ____________
(d) State one common type of measuring tool.
2. List types of Broaching machines.
3. Define Precision and Accuracy.
4. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of EDM.
5.State the applications of angular measuring instruments.
PART – B
marks and may have sub questions..
6. Explain horizontal broaching machine with a neat sketch.
(OR)
Explain the vertical broaching machine with a neat sketch.
7. Explain the working principle and applications of Coordinating Measuring Machine (CMM) .
(OR)
Explain the working of mechanical and optical comparator.
8. Describe Abrasive Jet machining with neat sketch. Also mention advantages and disadvantages.
(OR)
Describe of Laser beam machining (LBM) with advantages and disadvantages.
MODEL PAPER
DME - FOURTH SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY- II (M-405)
Time: 3 hours] [ Total Marks : 80
PART-A 10 X 3 =30
(3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five simple sentences.
1. List various milling machines.
2. List various methods of gear manufacturing.
3. List specifications of milling machines.

4. Mention various gear materials.
5. State the working principle of grinding operation.
6. List types of broaching machines.
7. Define Precision and Accuracy.

8. State the applications of Bevel protractor.
9. List the equipment used in U.S.M. processes.
10. Explain the principle of Electric Discharge machining.

PART-B 5 x 10 = 50
Instructions: (1) Answer all five questions.
(3) Answers should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but not the
length of the answer.
11. Explain the following milling operations with simple sketches:

i) Slab milling ii) Face milling
iii) End milling iv) Angular milling
12. Describe with a neat sketch gear shaping process using pinion cutter.
13. Explain the working of universal milling machine with the help of neat sketch.
14. Explain horizontal broaching machine with a neat sketch
15. What are various methods of grinding? Explain with a neat sketch the principle of Centre less grinding
with a neat sketch.
16. Explain various sources of errors.
17. Explain the working principle and applications of Coordinating Measuring Machine (CMM) .
18. Explain the principle of working of Ultrasonic machining with a neat sketch.
M-406 PRODUCTION DRAWING

BLUE PRINT OF QUESTION PAPER
Marks Wise Question Wise

S. Periods Weightage Distribution of Distribution of CO’s
Chapter/Unit Title
No Allocated Allocated Weightage Weightage Mapped
R U Ap An R U Ap An
1 Introduction to -
06 CO1
Production Drawing
2 Limits, Fits &
Tolerances and 18 10 10 02 CO2, CO3
Surface finish
3 Specification of
materials and
06 05 01 C03
standard 05
components
4 Preparation of
12 05 01 CO4
Process sheet 05
5 Detailed and Part 40 CO1 to
48 40 02
Drawings CO5
Total 90 12 60 06
MODEL PAPER
D.M.E. – IV SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
PRODUCTION DRAWING (M-406)
Note: 1. Drawing should be neat and proportionate

2. Use first angle projection
1. Use Standard data
2. Assume missing data suitably if any
PART – A
Answer all the questions 4 X 5 = 20
1) Determine the limit dimensions for a clearance fit between the mating parts having nominal diameter of
40mm, providing a minimum clearance of 0.1mm, with the tolerance of the hole as 0.025mm and that of the
shaft 0.05mm. Follow hole basis system
2) Draw the symbols for the following geometrical tolerance characteristics.
(a) Flatness (b) Cylindricity (c) Position (d) Angularity
(e) Symmetry
3) Write the meaning of the following surface roughness symbols.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
4) Draw the conventions for the following standard machine components.

(a) Straight knurling (b) bearings (c) Semi elliptic leaf spring
(d) Worm (e) Spur Gear
Part B
Answer any one question 1 X 40 = 40
5 A) Study the given assembly drawing of Eccentric and
(i) Draw the part drawings.
(ii) Mention suitable fits and tolerances wherever required.
(iii) Apply suitable geometrical tolerances.
(iv) Indicate surface roughness values/symbols to the components.
(v) Prepare process sheet for the manufacturing of “Straps”.
(vi) Prepare bill of materials.
Parts List
Sl.No Name Material Qty
1 Strap CI 1
2 Sheave CI 1
3 Shim Brass 2
4 Strap CI 1
5 Bolts with Nuts MS 2
(OR)
B) Study the given assembly drawing of Universal coupling and
(a) Draw the part drawings.
(b) Mention suitable fits and tolerances wherever required.
(c) Apply suitable geometrical tolerances.
(d) Indicate surface roughness values/symbols to the components.
(e) Prepare process sheet for the manufacturing of “Centre block”.
(f) Prepare bill of materials.
Parts List
Sl.No Name Material Qty
1 Fork MS 2
2 Center Block MS 1
3 Pin MS 2
4 Collar MS 2
ASSESSMENT
C23-Common-408: English Communication Skills Lab
 The assessment for C23-Common 408 : ‘English Communication Skills’ is on par with all other
practical subjects comprising 40 marks for Internal assessment and 60 marks for External
examination attaining the final total of 100 Marks.
 The Internal Assessment can be conducted in the form of Assignments in all the 8 Units. One or Two
assignments ( oral / written) can be conducted in each Unit, awarding 10 marks for each assignment
and the total marks can be averaged to 40 marks as suggested below.
 These assignments should focus mostly on LISTENING and SPEAKING skills rather than writing.
The questions for assignments can be customized according to the topic.
 Listening skills can be tested by playing different Audio/ Video clips ( appropriate in content and
language, preferably without subtitles). Follow pre-while-post stages of listening activity and students
should answer general, specific, inferential, vocabulary questions etc.
 Self -Introduction, JAM, Interview Skills, making presentation on a place/a thing/ a person/ an event /
a picture etc.. are some of the topics for individual speaking skills.
 GD should be made as group activity and the teacher assesses various skills of the students as given
in the workbook.
 The performance of the students in various Internal assessment activities should be documented as
guided in the following Assessment sheet (one for each student) to award Internal marks.
Calculating Internal marks through Assignments :

Name of the Student: PIN: Branch: Academic Year:
S. Title of the Unit Assignment 1: Assignment 2: Total Marks in
No. 10 Marks 10 Marks each Unit
(Average for 10
Marks )
1 Listening Skills
2 Workplace etiquette
3 Introducing Oneself
4 Short Presentations (JAM)
5 Group Discussion
6 Resume & Cover Letter
7 Interview Skills
8 Presentation Skills
Marks Scored Ex: 65
Total No. of Units 8
Internal Assessment : (65/8 ) X4 = 32.5 33 ( for 40 Marks)
Average for 40 Marks
Common-408 : English Communication Skills Lab

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Guidelines to prepare the question paper of the Lab End exam for 60 marks:
I. Listening Skills: 10 Marks
Students listen to the audio / watch the video clip ( without subtitles) and answer the questions
supplied to them in advance; observe the three stages of the Listening activity.
II. Individual Speaking skills: 25 Marks
a) Self-Introduction (5 M)
b) Speak for a minute (JAM) on the given topic, can be allotted through chits/lots: (5M )
c) Presentations ( 10M)
c) Interview skills – (10)
III. Group Discussion 20 Marks
Communication Parameters to Assess Speaking Skills

Content Awareness of the topic, focus on the topic, adequacy of ideas related
to the topic,
Language Quality, clarity and relevance of ideas, Fluency, Vocabulary
Pronunciation, Grammar ( Syntax, semantics), style, rhetorics
Organising Coherence, cohesion of , relevant ideas , Proper beginning, topic
sentence, expansion/details, conclusion ,Using proper Linkers ,
Avoid repetitions, clichés, fillers
Body Language Postures, Gestures, Eye contact, facial expressions, Audibility, pitch,
modulations , appropriate /acceptable pauses ,
M-501 Industrial Management and Entrepreneurship


No Allocated Allocated Distribution of Distribution of
Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
Principles of
1 08 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Management.
Organization
Structure &
2 15 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Organizational
Behaviour.
Production
3 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Management.
Engineering Ethics &
4 Safety and Labour 15 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Codes.
Entrepreneurship &
5 08 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Start-ups.
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks CO
Q.No Question from the Chapter DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR

Part - A (16 marks)
Principles of Management, Organization Structure &
CO1,CO2,
Organizational Behaviour and Production R,U 4
1 Management CO3
2 Principles of Management U 3 CO1
3 Organization Structure & Organizational Behaviour U 3 CO2
4,5 Production Management U 6 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Principles of Management U 8 CO1
7 Organization Structure & Organizational Behaviour U 8 CO2
8 Production Management U 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Engineering Ethics and Human Values and
1
Entrepreneurship & Start-ups
R,U 4 CO4, CO5
2 Engineering Ethics and Human Values U 1 CO4
3 Entrepreneurship & Start-ups U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Engineering Ethics and Human Values U 8 CO4
7 Entrepreneurship & Start-ups U 8 CO5
Engineering Ethics and Human Values and CO4, CO5
8 Entrepreneurship & Start-ups
U 8
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
Industrial Management and Entrepreneurship Start-ups (M-501)
PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one-mark questions, and remaining 4Questions carry 3 marks each
1. (a) The highest skill required for top level management is ------------------------
(b) Who stated the Needs of hierarchy theory?
(c) PERT is event oriented approach (Yes/No)
(d) Choose the correct answer
Bin card are used in (planning department/stores/marketing department/finance department)

2. Differentiate Management and Administration.
3. Explain Trait theory of leadership
4. Define Routing, Scheduling and Production control.
5. State the purpose of bin card
PART – B
6. (a) Explain Staff organisation with the aid of sketch and state advantages and disadvantages.
(OR)
(b)Explain Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs
7. (a)Explain ABC Analysis of inventory.
(OR)
(b)For the following data of a project, draw the network. Find out critical path and project duration
Activity. 1--2 1--3 1--4 2--5 3--5 3--6 4--6 5--7 6--7
Days. 5 4 7 6 10 7 8 5 6
8(a) Explain the principles of management.

(OR)
(b) Explain functions of Management.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - II
Industrial Management and Entrepreneurship Start-ups (M-501)
PART – A
Instructions: 1st Question having 4 one-mark questions, and remaining 4Questions carry 3 marks each
1. (a) Write the full form of TQM
(b) Write the full form of MSME
(c) Choose the correct answer
ISO means Indian organisation for standardisation (Yes/No)
(d ) EDP means ---------------------
2. List out causes for accidents in the industry
3. What are the expectations of entrepreneur?
4. What are the pillars of TQM?
5. Lit out Beneficiaries of ISO9000 certification
PART – B
Instructions: Part B consists of 3Units. Answer any one full question from each unit. Each question carries 8
6. (a) Explain various industrial hazards .
(OR)
(b)Explain Industrial Relations Code, 2020
7. (a) Explain any four self-employment schemes
(OR)
(b) Explain the Entrepreneurial Development schemes existing in our country
8 (a) what are the advantages and disadvantages of ISO 9000series of standards
(OR)
(b) Explain Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
MODEL PAPER,
D.M.E. – V SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
INDUSTRIAL MANAGEMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP START-UPS (M-501)
PART – A
Answer all questions 10 x 3=30
1. With line diagram, show the managerial skills needed at various levels of management
2. Differentiate administration, organisation and management
3. List out various types selection tests
4. Explain Trait theory of leadership
5. What is meant by inventory control
6. List out various types of productions and explain any one of them
7. Write the classification of Engineering ethics
8. List out causes of industrial accidents
9. What are the pillars of TQM
10. Lit out Beneficiaries of ISO9000 certification
PART B
Answer all questions 5 x 8=40
11. Explain principles of management stated by Henry Foyal
12 Explain Maslow’s needs of hierarchy motivation theory
13 Explain Line and Staff organisation structure
14 Explain different types of productions
15 For the following data of a project, Draw the network, Find out critical path and project
Duration.
Activity. 1--2 1--6 2--3 2-4 3--5 4--5 6--7 5--8 7-8
Optimistic time 2 2 5 1 5 2 3 2 7
days
Most likely time 5 5 11 4 11 5 9 2 13
days
Pessimistic time 14 8 29 7 17 14 27 8 31
days
16 Explain causes of industrial accidents and cost of industrial accidents

17 Explain the salient features of Industrial Relations Code, 2020
18 Explain break even analysis with a line diagram.
(M-502) INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING AND QUALITY CONTROL

BLUE PRINT OF MODEL QUESTION PAPER

No Allocated Allocated Distribution of Distribution of
Weightage Weightage
R U Ap R U Ap
1 Work Study 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Plant Engineering
2 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
and Factory Costing.
Quality Control
3 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Techniques.
Estimation of
4 Weights and 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Machining Times
Estimation of
5 Forging and Welding 10 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Costs.
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Unit Test - 1
Q.No Question from the Chapter/ Unit Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)

1,2 Work Study R 7 CO1
3 Plant Engineering and Factory Costing. U 3 CO2
4,5 Quality Control Techniques U 6 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Work Study U 8 CO1
7 Plant Engineering and Factory Costing. U 8 CO2
8 Quality Control Techniques Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Q.No Question from the Chapter/ Unit Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
1,2, 3 Estimation of Weights and Machining Times U 10 CO4
4, 5 Estimation of Forging & Welding Costs R,U 6 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)

6, 7 Estimation of Weights and Machining Times Ap 8 CO4
8 Estimation of Forging & Welding Costs Ap 16 CO5
R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap-Applying;
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST - I
INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING AND QUALITY CONTROL (M-502)

PART – A
st
Instructions: 1 Question having 4 one mark questions, and remaining 4 Questions carry 3 marks each
1. (a) Write the formula for Halsey wage plan.
(b) Standard of output is the factor to rate the employee (True/False)
(c) In Emerson’s efficiency plan the bonus is calculated on the basis that bonus must be ------ of his daily rages
if the efficiency exceeds 100%
(d) What is the Purpose of Incentive?
2. What are the objectives of method study?
3. What is the Importance of Plant maintenance
4. Differentiate between inspection and quality control.
5. Differentiate discrete data and continuous data?
.
PART – B
6. Explain the procedure for work measurement by stopwatch method.
(OR)
What are the constituents of standard time? Define each terms involved in computing standard time high
lighting the allowances.
.
7. Explain different types of Plant layouts.
(OR)
Explain Basic Feature of Emerson’s efficiency Plan and discuss the merits and demerits of the plan.
8. The daily production in machine shop is 1000 components. These components are inspected by GO and NO
GO gauges. A sample of 100 is inspected daily for continuously ten days. The samples are taken at random.
Compute the control limits and draw P chart
Date 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Rejections 2 10 6 20 18 14 15 12 8 6
(OR)
Analyse the differences between variable charts and Attribute charts
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST - II

PART – A
1. (a) How the weight of the component is calculated.
(b) Time taken for tapping is more than that of drilling time. (True/False)
(c) The general formulae for machining time is ----
(d) State the tool movement in facing operation.
2. Write the formula for finding the volume of (a) Cone (b) Circular ring and (c) Frustum of Pyramid?
3. List different machining processes involved while making the given component.
4. List out various forging losses?
5. What are the costs generally considering while calculating the Gas welding cost?
PART – B
6. Estimate the time required to turn 35mm diameter bar to the dimensions shown in fig. Cutting speed is
15.4m/min and feed is 2mm/rev. All cuts are 3.5mm deep.
(OR)
Estimate the number of rivets made from 4.5kg of mild steel as shown in the fig. The
density of the material is 7.87 grams/cm3. All dimensions are in mm.
7. 200 pieces of a component as shown in the figure. are to drop forged from a 4cm diameter bar stock.
Calculate the cost of manufacturing if (a) Material cost is Rs.100 per meter length. (b). Forging charges@ Rs.
010 per cm2 of surface area to be forged. (c) On cost is 10% of material cost. Assume all possible forging
losses and all dimensions are centimetre.
(OR)
Two one meter long MS plates10 mm thick are to be welded by a lap joint with 6 mm electrodes. Calculate
the cost of welding if: Electrical supply is 250 amps and 30 volts: Welding speed: 10 m/hr; Electrodes used:
0.5kg/m of welding; Labour charges: Rs.15 per hour; Power charges: 1/kWh; Cost of electrode: Rs.15/kg;
Efficiency of welding machine: 60%.
8. 100 M.S. pieces of component as shown in Fig. are to be drop forged from a 4cm dia bar stock. Estimate
the cost of manufacturing, using given data .
a). Cost of material = Rs.100/-meter
b). Forging charges = 0.05Rs./cm2 surface area.
c). on cost = 10% of material cost.
Consider all possible losses during operations.
(OR)
Two one meter long MS plates10 mm thick are to be welded by a lap joint with 6 mm electrodes. Calculate
MODEL PAPER
D.M.E. – V SEMESTER END EXAMINATION

PART – A
10 x 3 = 30
1. List six advantages of work study?
2. Define Standard time?
3. What is the Importance of Plant maintenance?
4. List any three methods of depreciation.
5. State the causes of variation in a process.
6. Differentiate inspection and quality control.
7. Estimate the machining time to turn a MS Rod from 4 cm to 3.5 cm diameter for a length of 15 cm in a single
cut. Assume cutting speed 30m/min and feed 0.4mm/rev.
8. Write the formulae for Volume of (a) Cone (b) Circular ring.
9. List any three types of forging losses.
10. List the costs involved in the estimation of welding cost of a product.
PART – B
5 X 10 = 50
Instructions: Answer any 5 Questions. Each question carries 10 marks and may have sub questions.
11. Describe the procedure adopted for method study to improve the productivity of the manufacturing
Industry.
12. What are the constituents of standard time? Define each terms involved in computing standard time high
lighting the allowances.
13. An N.C. machine was purchased for Rs. 15, 00,000 and its life is estimated as 15 years. Its scrap value is Rs.
75,000. Calculate (1) Rate of depreciation (2) Total depreciation fund at the end of four years; (3) Value of
the machine at the end of 12 years. Using straight line method of depreciation
14. The following data was recorded for constructing Mean and Range charts. Sample Size is 6. Number of
samples are 12. Calculate (a) Upper & Lower control limits (b) Draw Mean and Range charts. (c) Comment
on the process.
Sample
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Number
x̄
325 315 285 510 410 300 430 290 210 250 350 325
Mean,
Range, R 42 46 62 43 62 75 51 39 42 58 38 37
15. (A) Explain the procedure for estimation of selling price of the given product.
(B) Explain the 5-S concepts of improving quality in the organisation.
16. Calculate the cost of brass casting shown in the fig. Density of brass may be taken as 8.6 gm/cc. The cost
of brass material is Rs.60 per kg. All dimensions are in mm.
17. Two one meter long MS plates 10 mm thick are to be welded by a lap joint with 6 mm electrodes. Calculate
18. (A) Estimate the time required to turn 35mm diameter bar to the dimensions shown in fig. Cutting speed is
15.4m/min and feed is 2mm/rev. All cuts are 3.5mm deep.
(B) 100 M.S. pieces of component as shown in Fig. are to be drop forged from a 4 cm dia bar stock. Estimate
the cost of manufacturing, using given data.
a). Cost of material = Rs.100/-meter

Consider all possible losses during operations.

M-503 GREEN ENERGY AND THERMAL SYSTEMS
BLUE PRINT OF MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
Thermodynamic
1 Processes of 15 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
Vapour.
2 Steam Boilers 10 16 1 1 1 3 3 10
3. Steam Turbines 15 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Thermal and 2
4 Nuclear Power 15 26 1 1 3 3 20
Plants
Green Energy and DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
5 20 26 1 1 3 3 20
E-Vehicles. 2
TOTAL 75 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Note: R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap -Applying;
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Properties of Steam, Steam Boilers, Steam
1 R,U 4 CO1,CO2,CO3
Turbines
2 Properties of Steam U 3 CO1
3 Properties of Steam U 3 CO1
4 Steam Boilers U 3 CO2
5 Steam Turbines U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Properties of Steam Ap 8 CO1
7 Steam Boilers Ap 8 CO2
8 Steam Turbines Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants, Green
1 R,U 4 CO4, CO5
Energy and E-Vehicle Technology.
2 Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants U 3 CO4
3 Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants U 3 CO4
4 Green Energy and E-Vehicle Technology. U 3 CO5
5 Green Energy and E-Vehicle Technology. U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Thermal and Nuclear Power Plants Ap 8 CO4
7 Green Energy Ap 8 CO5
8 E-Vehicle Technology Ap 8 CO5
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
GREEN ENERGY AND THERMAL SYSTEMS (M-503)
PART – A
1. (a) Dryness fraction of saturated liquid is _________.
(b) What is the function of blow off cock?
(c) Write the expression for critical pressure ratio for maximum discharge in the nozzle.
(d) In jet condenser, water and steam directly mixes. (true/False)
2. Write the expressions for enthalpy of super heated steam, specific volume of superheated steam and entropy
of super heated steam.
3. Determine the mass and enthalpy of 0.5 m 3 of wet steam with a degree of wetness equal to 10% and a
pressure of 10 bar.
4. Mention various factors influencing the boiler efficiency.
5. Differentiate between impulse turbine and reaction turbine.
PART – B
6. One kg of steam at pressure 10bar and dryness fraction 0.4 is heated at constant pressure to a temperature
of 2000C. Find (a)Workdone,(b)Heat Transfer and Change in entropy.
(OR)
2 kg of steam initially at a pressure of 12 bar and a temperature of 2500C expands polytropically to 1.2 bar.
Find (a) the final condition (b) work done (c) heat transfer (d) change in entropy
7. Explain Lamont boiler with a neat sketch.
(OR)
Explain the Benson boiler with a neat sketch.
8. Steam at 20bar and temperature 2500C is expanded isentropically to a pressure of 0.1bar. The mass flow rate
of the steam is 1kg/s. Determine throat and exit diameters of the nozzle.
(OR)
Explain the working of Low level jet condenser with the help of neat sketch.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
PART – A
1. (a) Function of moderator in nuclear power plant is………………………
(b) Wind energy is an example of Green energy. (True/False)
(c) Fuel cell converts chemical energy in __________energy.
(d) The fuels used in nuclear power plant are ____________
2. List any three elements of thermal power plant.
3. Write the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power plant.
4. What is the principle of photovoltaic cell. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
5. Explain briefly plug in hybrid electric vehicle..
PART – B
6. Draw the schematic layout of steam power plant and mention the function of each component.
(OR)
Explain the working of Nuclear reactor with the help of neat sketch.
7. Illustrate the Hybrid electric vehicles.
(OR)
Draw the block diagram of Battery electric vehicle(BEV) and mention function of each part in BEV.
8. EExplain the working of Solar still with a neat sketch.

(OR)
Explain the working of horizontal axis wind mill with the help of neat sketch.
MODEL PAPER
D.M.E. –V SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 80
PART-A 10 x 3 = 30
INSTRUCTIONS: (1) Answer all questions and each question carries three marks.
1. Define dryness fraction and degree of super heat of vapour.

2. What is the change in specific entropy of wet steam at 8 bar and 0.9 dry to the steam at 12 bar
and 3500C?
3. State the need of high pressure modern boilers.
4. Write the function of (i) Economiser (ii) Steam trap and (iii) Steam injector.
5. State the principle of photovoltaic cell.
6. Steam enters a steam nozzle at a pressure of 1.8 Mpa and at a temperature of 3500C and
expands to a pressure of 0.12 Mpa with 95% dry. Calculate the exit velocity of the steam.
7. Classify turbines based on any three criteria.
8. Write any three differences between Battery electric vehicle and conventional vehicle.
9. List the effects of pollutants of the thermal power plant.
10. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of nuclear power plant.
PART-B 5 x 10=50
INSTRUCTIONS: (1) Answer any five questions and each question carries ten marks.
11. 1 kg of steam at 20 bar and 250 0C undergoes a non-flow process to a pressure of 8 bar. If the
final volume of the steam is 0.242 m 3, find (a) The equation of the processes (b) The work energy
transferred.
12. Explain the working of Lamont boiler with a neat sketch.
13. (a)Explain the working of Surface condenser with the help of neat sketch.
(b) Explain the working of parson’s reaction turbine.
14. Dry and saturated steam enters the nozzle with 135 m/s and expands from 10 bar to 0.1 bar.
Using the steam tables find (a) Dryness fraction at the exit (b) Velocity of steam at exit.
15. Draw the schematic layout of steam power plant and explain the function of each component.
16. Explain the working of pump circulation solar water heater with the help of neat sketch.
17. Explain the working of Pressurised Water Reactor (PWR) with a neat sketch.
18. Explain in details about
(a) Hybrid electric vehicle
(b) Fuel cell electric vehicle
(M-504) INDUSTRIAL AUTOMATION & 3D PRINTING

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
Industrial 1½
1 10 21 1 1 3 3 15
Automation
Computer 1½
Integrated
2 12 21 1 1 3 3 15
Manufacturing
Systems
3 CNC Programming 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
4 Industrial Robotics 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
5 3D Printing 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
Note: R-Remembering; U-Understanding; Ap -Applying;
Unit Test - 1
Bloom’s Marks
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
1 Industrial automation,CIM,CNC R,U 4 CO1,CO2,CO3
2 Industrial Automation U 3 CO1
3 Industrial Automation U 3 CO1
4 Computer Integrated Manufacturing Systems U 3 CO2
5 CNC Programming U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Industrial Automation Ap 8 CO1
7 Computer Integrated Manufacturing Systems Ap 8 CO2
8 CNC Programming Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test - 2
Bloom’s Marks CO
Part - A (16 marks)
1 Robotics& 3D printing R,U 4 CO4, CO5
2 Industrial Robotics U 3 CO4
3 Industrial Robotics U 3 CO4
4 3D Printing U 3 CO5
5 3D Printing U 3 CO5
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Industrial Robotics Ap 8 CO4
7 3D Printing Ap 8 CO5
8 3D Printing Ap 8 CO5
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
INDUSTRIAL AUTOMATION & 3D PRINTING (M-504)
PART – A (4x1+4x3=16M)
1) (a) There are 5 industrial revolutions till now (TRUE/FALSE)

(b)IIoT means ______________
(c) A ______________ in an NC system is a set of instructions which informs the machine tool what is to be
done and when.
(d) Point to point NC system is also called as______________
2) Define group Technology

3) List out six benefits of CAM
4) Write the meaning of the following G & M – Codes i) G-71 ii) G-94
5) List any three applications of CNC.
PART B 3 x 8 = 24 M
6) (a) Explain the emerging need for industrial 4.0
(OR)
(b)Explain the Features and Benefits of IIoT.
7) (a) Explain the functions of components of a CNC with a neat diagram.

(OR)
(b) Write six differences between NC and CNC machines.
8) (a) Write six differences between Manual part programming and Computer Aided Part programming.
(OR)
(b) Write a part program for the component shown in the fig. The machining parameters are given cutting
speed= 600 rpm; feed 150mm/min.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - II
PART – A (4x1+4x3=16M)
1.(a) ---------- is used in difficult and hazardous areas to replace humans.

(b) The three degrees of freedom of a robot are ____________, ____________, ___________
(c) Expand SLA ---------------------------- in 3D printing process.
(d) Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) is a Rapid Prototyping Technique.(True/False)
2. List three applications of industrial Robots.
3. State important Robot programming methods and Languages.
4. What is Principle of Additive Manufacturing Process?
5. List important 3D Printing Methods.
PART B 3 x8 =24M
6. (a) Describe the functions of components of a robot with a line diagram.

(OR)
(b) Explain different degrees of freedom of an industrial robot.
7. (a) Write Advantages, Disadvantages and Industrial applications of Robots.

(OR)
(b) Explanation of Steps in the 3D Printing Process with a Flow chart.
8. (a) Explain FDM 3D Printing Process.

(OR)
(b) Explain Selective Laser Sintering (SLS) Process .
MODEL PAPER
DME - FIFTH SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
Time : 3 hours Total Marks : 80

PART-A 3x10=30
Instructions:(1) Answer all questions.

(3) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. Why Industry 4.0 is important in the manufacturing sectors?

2. List Applications of IIoT .
3. List Benefits of CAD.
4. How CNC machines are specified.
5. Write NC Part Programming Languages.
6. Write three different preparatory functions
7. Give classification of Robots.
8. Define (a) Yaw (b) Pitch related to robotic motion.
9. Define Rapid Prototyping and 3D Printing.
10. List three advantages of SLS 3D Printing Process.
PART—B 10 × 5=50
Instructions: (1) Answer any five questions.

(3) Answers should be comprehensive and criterion for valuation is the content
11. Explain Briefly the Features of Industrial Revolutions from First Industrial Revolution to Fourth Industrial
Revolution
12. Explain the functions of components of a CNC with a neat diagram.
13. (a) Explain the key features of IIoT .
(b) Write five differences between NC and CNC machines.
14. Write a part program for the component shown in the fig. The machining parameters are given cutting speed=
600 rpm; feed 150mm/min.
15. Describe the functions of components of a robot with a line diagram.

16. (a) Write Five differences between Manual part programming and Computer Aided Part programming.
(b) Write Advantages, Disadvantages and Industrial applications of Robots.
17. Explain FDM 3D Printing Process with advantages and applications.
18. Explain SLA 3D Printing Process with advantages and applications.
M-505 REFRIGERATION AND AIRCONDITIONING
Model Blue Print of Question Paper

Chapter Name
R U Ap R U Ap
Fundamentals of
1 10 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Refrigeration
Vapour
Compression &
2 Vapour Absorption 14 26 1 1 2 3 3 20
Refrigeration
Systems
Refrigeration
Equipment &
3 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Applications of
Refrigeration. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
Air Conditioning &

4 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
Psychrometry
Air Conditioning
Equipment
5 12 21 1 1 1½ 3 3 15
& Applications of Air
Conditioning.
TOTAL 60 110 5 5 08 15 15 80
R-Remembering. U-Understanding. Ap-Applying
Unit Test – 1
Bloom’s Marks
Question from the Chapter CO addressed
Q.No category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Fundamentals of Refrigeration, Vapour compression &
1 Vapour absorption Refrigeration Systems, Refrigeration R,U 4 CO1,CO2, CO3
equipment
2 Fundamentals of Refrigeration U 3 CO1
Vapour compression & Vapour absorption Refrigeration
3 U 3 CO2
Systems
Vapour Compression & Vapour absorption Refrigeration
4 U 3 CO2
Systems
5 Refrigeration equipment & Applications of Refrigeration U 3 CO3
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Fundamentals of Refrigeration Ap 8 CO1
Vapour compression & Vapour absorption Refrigeration
7 Ap 8 CO2
Systems
8 Refrigeration equipment & Applications of Refrigeration Ap 8 CO3
Unit Test – 2
Bloom’s Marks
category allocated
Part - A (16 marks)
Refrigeration equipment & Applications of Refrigeration.
CO3, CO4,
1 Air Conditioning and Psychrometry , Air Conditioning R,U 4
CO5
Equipment & Applications of Air Conditioning
2 Refrigeration equipment & Applications of Refrigeration. U 3 CO3
3 Air Conditioning and Psychrometry U 3 CO4
Air Conditioning Equipment & Applications of Air
4 U 3 CO5
Conditioning
5 U 3 CO5
Conditioning
Part - B (24 marks)
6 Refrigeration equipment & Applications of Refrigeration Ap 8 CO3

7 Air Conditioning and Psychrometry Ap 8 CO4
8 Ap 8 CO5
Conditioning
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - I
REFRIGERATION & AIR CONDITIONING (M-505)
PART – A
1. (a) One ton of refrigeration is _______kJ/s.

(b) If the condenser pressure increases the power consumption of compressor increases. (True/False)
(c) What are the three fluids used in the vapour absorption refrigeration system?
(d) Write the chemical name of R-22.
2. List the refrigeration methods.
3. Why the wet compression is not desirable in the vapour compression refrigeration system?
4. An absorption type of refrigeration system heating, cooling and refrigeration takes place at the temperature
of 100 0C, 20 0C and -100C. Find the theoretical COP of the system.
5. Write any three requirements of the refrigerants.
PART – B
and may have sub questions. DRAFT - PHASE 1- MECH -C23 - FIRST YEAR
6. A cold storage is supplied with 4000 kg of fish at 22 0C. The fish has to be cooled to -10 0C. Freezing point of the
fish is -20C. If the capacity of the plant is 10 tons, how long will it take to cool the fish? Specific heats of the fish
above and below the freezing point are 3 kJ/kg K and 1.25 kJ/kg K respectively. Latent heat of freezing = 220
kJ/kg.
(OR)
Explain Closed air refrigeration system with a neat sketch
7. A simple vapour compression refrigeration plant produces 5 tons of refrigeration. The enthalpy values at inlet
to compressor, at exit of compressor and at exit from the condenser are 183.19, 209.41 and 74.59 kJ/kg
respectively. Estimate (i) The refrigeration flow rate (ii) The COP (iii) The power required to drive the
compressor (iv) The rate of heat rejection to the condenser.
(OR)
Explain the actual vapour absorption refrigeration system with neat sketch.
8. Explain the working of hermitically sealed compressor with a neat sketch.

(OR)
Explain the working of air cooled condenser with a neat sketch.
MODEL PAPER
Unit Test - II
PART – A
1. (a) Give two examples of desiccant material used in the drier.
(b) Effective temperature for human comfort in the summer is 190C. (True/False)
(c) the ratio of actual mass of moisture in a given volume of air to the mass of moisture when the same
volume is saturated at the same temperature is known as
(a) Relative humidity (b) Humidity ratio (c) Degree of saturation (d) none of the above
(d) Constant dew point temperature lines are _______ lines in the psychrometric chart.
2. List three applications of refrigeration.
3. Classify the air conditioning systems based on any three criteria.
4. The air supplied to a room of a building in winter is to be at 17 0C and have a percentage of relative humidity
of 60%. If the barometric pressure is 1.01326 bar, calculate the specific humidity.
5. Write any three advantages of unitary air conditioning systems.
PART – B
6. Explain the working of thermostatic expansion valve with a neat sketch.

(OR)
Explain the working of cold storage plant with a neat sketch.
7. Explain the Factors governing effective temperature conditions that affect body heat.
(OR)
Explain four psychrometric processes with the help of psychrometric chart.
8. Write the requirements of air distribution and list out the duct systems in the air conditioning.
(OR)
Explain the summer air conditioning system for a hot and dry conditions with a neat sketch.
MODEL PAPER
DME - FIFTH SEMESTER END EXAMINATION
Time: 3 hours] [Total Marks: 80
PART – A 3 x 10 = 30

(2) Each question carries Three marks.
1. Define Refrigeration. Mention three methods of refrigeration.

2. Draw the line diagram of open air refrigeration system and label the parts.
3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of vapour compression refrigeration system?
4. State any six desirable thermodynamic properties of refrigerants.
5. What is a hermitic Compressor? State its applications.
6. State the function of capillary tube. What are its advantages and limitations?
7. State the modern applications of air conditioning.
8. Define the following terms
(i) Dry bulb temperature
(ii) Specific Humidity
9. Why the filter used in air conditioning system? List different types of filters.
10. What is the cooling tower? State the need of a cooling tower.
PART – B 5 x 10 = 50
Instructions: (1) Answer any Five questions.

11. A cold storage is supplied with 4000 kg of fish at 22 0C. The fish has to be cooled to -100C. Freezing point of the
fish is -20C. If the capacity of the plant is 10 tons, how long will it take to cool the fish? Specific heats of the
fish above and below the freezing point are 3 kJ/kg K and 1.25 kJ/kg K respectively. Latent heat of freezing =
220 kJ/kg.
12. A simple vapour compression refrigeration plant produces 5 tons of refrigeration. The enthalpy values at inlet
to compressor, at exit of compressor and at exit from the condenser are 183.19, 209.41 and 74.59 kJ/kg
respectively. Estimate (i) The refrigeration flow rate (ii) The COP (iii) The power required to drive the
compressor (iv) The rate of heat rejection to the condenser.
13. Explain the working of an Electrolux refrigerator with a neat sketch.
14. Explain the working of an ice plant with the help of a neat sketch.
15. (a) Explain Closed air refrigeration system with a neat sketch
(b) ) Explain the working o8f flooded type evaporator with a sketch.
16. Explain various psychrometric processes with the help of Psychrometric chart.
17. Explain working of Window air conditioner with the help of a sketch.
18. (a) Explain the Factors governing effective temperature conditions that affect body heat.
(b) Explain different types of Dust Collectors used in air conditioning systems.
ASSESSMENT
C23-Common-508: Life Skills ( Lab Practice )
 The assessment for C23-Common 508 is on par with all other practical subjects comprising 40 marks
for Internal Assessment and 60 marks for External examination attaining the final total of 100 Marks.
 The Internal Assessment can be conducted in the form of Assignments in all the 11 Units together,
taking the average for 40 marks as suggested below.
 The Assessment sheet provided after each lesson in the Life Skills workbook should be considered as
assignment (A) for 10 marks. In addition to that, another assignment (B) can be conducted for 10
marks in each Unit, awarding total average of 10 marks for each Lesson. Finally, the cumulative total
should be averaged to 40 marks as Internal marks.
 The questions for Assignment can be customized according to the topic and need. We can also
consider the questions of assignments given after each lesson in the workbook.
 The assignment questions can also be given based on case studies, personal experiences,
observations, making inferences/ analysis/ forming opinions, solving puzzles, questions on logical
thinking, reasoning, evaluating and writing reviews, etc.
Calculating Internal marks through Assignments

Name of the student: PIN: Branch: Academic Year:

S. Title of the Unit / Assignment A: Assignment B: Total Marks in
No. Lesson 10Marks 10 Marks each Unit/ Lesson
( assessment sheets ( Average for
after each lesson) 10 Marks)
1 Attitude
2 Adaptability
3 Goal setting
4 Motivation
5 Time Management
6 Critical Thinking
7 Creativity
8 Problem Solving
9 Team work
10 Leadership
11 Stress Management
Marks scored Example: 90
Total Number of 11
Assignments
Internal Assessment: Example: (90/11) X4=32.7 33
Average for 40 Marks
C23-Common-508 : Life Skills Lab

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Guidelines to
prepare the question paper of the End exam for Life Skills Lab for 60 marks:
I. Define any two concepts related to Life skills: ( Oral ) – 10 Marks
( From Lessons 1 to 11)
II. Recollect and narrate an incident either from your personal experience or observation
where you have exhibited/ learned about any one of the following life skills. (oral) – 15
Marks.
( From Lessons 1 to 4: Attitude/ Adaptability/Motivation/Goal setting/
III. Recollect and narrate an incident either from your personal experience or observation
where you have exhibited/ learned about any one of the following life skills. (oral) – 15
Marks.
( From Lessons 5, 9,10,11 : Time Management, Team Work, Leadership, Stress
Management )
IV. A question on problem solving skill, using creativity and critical thinking.
( A case study/a problematic situation should be provided by the examiner and the
students should answer it in writing.)
Ex: Analyse the following problematic situation and write down the possible solutions and
choose the best among them using your creativity and critical thinking / How do you solve
the following problem?– ( written ) 20 Marks
( From Lessons 6,7,8: Creativity/ Critical Thinking/ Problem Solving )
Note: The questions I to III can be evaluated through Viva Voce and Q.No. IV should be answered by
the students in writing. The examiner can adopt the blended mode of evaluation ( oral& written)
considering the strength of the class and availability of time.

C23 - DME Blue Print & QP As On 18-7-23

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C 23

DIPLOMA IN MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MODEL BLUE PRINT FOR THE QUESTION PAPER SETTING FOR

MODEL QUESTION PAPERS FOR

Time Schedule : C23-Common- 101 : ENGLISH

S.no. Title of the Unit Periods Weightage No. of No. of Mapping of

3 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs

7 3 Types of sentences & Conversion from one type of

8 3 Syntheses of Sentences / Transformation of sentences :

10 3 Correction of Sentences Remaining grammar aspects

C23-Common-101 :English : Bifurcation of Syllabus for UNIT TESTS 1,2,3

U.T 2 Chapters a) concord a) Theme based paragraph

U.T 3 Chapters a) Voice (active &passive) a) Theme based paragraph/ Essay

C23- COMMON-101: ENGLISH: UNIT TEST Exams 1,2,3 ( 40 Marks each )

1 4 Marks Vocabulary a) Affixes, b) Synonyms

4 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs ( be/do/have)

Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

Unit Test -2:Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 4,5,6,7)

4 3M Types of sentences Conversion of sentences ( except

Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

Unit Test -3: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 8,9,10,11)

1 4 Marks Error Analysis Find errors and make corrections

Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Time: 3 Hrs. Max.Marks: 80

No. of Weightag COs

R: Remembering Type : 37 Marks

Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40

Instructions: (1) Answer all questions.

1. Answer the following:

a. If and , then defined by

is a function: State TRUE/FALSE. (CO1)

b. If , then 3A =________. (CO1)

c. The value of sin 45 ° +cos 45o is _____. (CO2)

d. The formula for in terms of is _________. (CO2)

4. Find the value of sin750. (CO2)

5. Prove that (CO2)

6. A) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)

7. A) If and , then find AB (CO1)

8. A) Find the adjoint of the matrix (CO1)

Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40

1. Answer the following.

a. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO2)

c. If , then =_______. (CO2)

d. The eccentricity of the rectangular hyperbola is ______. (CO3)

2. Express in terms of (CO2)

3. Find the intercepts made by the straight line x +5 y−10=0. (CO3)

4. Find the centre and radius of the circle (CO3)

5. Find the vertex and focus of the parabola y 2=8 x . (CO3)

Instructions: (1) Answer all questions.

B) Prove that tan

Time: 90 minutes Max.Marks:40

1. Answer the following:

a. State TRUE/FALSE. (CO4)

d. Write the formula for finding the percentage error in x. (CO5)

3. Find the derivative of w.r.t. x. (CO4)

4. Differentiate w.r.t. x. (CO4)

Instructions: (1) Answer all questions.

7. A) If then prove that (CO4)

B) Find the maximum and minimum values of the function .

TIME: 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS: 80M

1. If and is a function defined by then find the range of