Scribd Logo
Upload

Welcome to Scribd!

  • Aiats 11 (Cf+oym) MT-03 07-04-2024

    Uploaded by

    ayaangg
    13 views27 pages

    Original Title

    AIATS 11 (CF+OYM) MT-03 07-04-2024

    Copyright

    © © All Rights Reserved

    Available Formats

    PDF or read online from Scribd

    Did you find this document useful?

    Is this content inappropriate?

    Report this Document

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as PDF or read online from Scribd
    Flag for inappropriate content
    Download as pdf
    13 views27 pages

    Aiats 11 (Cf+oym) MT-03 07-04-2024

    Uploaded by

    ayaangg

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as PDF or read online from Scribd
    Flag for inappropriate content
    Download as pdf
    of 27
    Roll No.: Cocccococon Test Date: [07-1 Booklet Cove AL WOK ANAS for Medical Entrance Exam-2024 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) Readeach question caretly Iti mandatory to use Blue‘Black Ball Point Pen to darken the ‘appropriate ereiein he answersheet Mark shouldbe dark and should completely fl hecircle, Rough work mustnotbe donecon the answer sheet, Do not use white-flud of any other eudbing material on answer sheet No change in the answer ence marked s alowed ‘Student cannot uselog tables and calculators any other material Inthe examination hal 7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains allpages and no page smissing, oe Medical] IIT-JEE | Foundations Test Senes Each correct answer caries four marks, One mark will bo eciucedtor each incoxtctanswer fromthe total score Botore hating over the answer sheet othe inviglator, candidate should check that Rol No. and Centre Code have been filed ana ‘marked correctly Immediately ator the prescribed examination tine is over, answor shoot iobe returned theinvigiatr. ay There are two sections in each subject... Section A & Section. 8, You have to attempt all 35 questions from Soction-A 8 coe AO questions outot 15 rom Section 8 y Note: itis compulsory to fil Roll No, and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, clhenise your answer sheet vill not be consider Open Mock Test No. 3 TOPICS OF THE TEST. Complete Syllabus of NEET ‘Open Mock MM : 720 Choose the correct answer : LSECTION SAS 1. If the displacement of a particle of mass m as function of time tis given by yeas fF) where A has the dimension of length. Then (1) The argument of trigonometric function must be a dimensionless quantity £2 ers tm o fE (3) Dimensional formula of k is [MLT-2] (4) Dimensional formula of fe is (7) 2 If i,jandk are unit vectors along x, y and z directions, then ( frejjet (@) Wej=t 3. Two charged particles A and B of charge 2q and —q respectively are fixed at the positions shown in diagram. A third charge +4q is moved from C to E via D very slowly. The work done by electric force is All India Aakash Test Serles for NEE’ Time : 3 Hrs. 20 2kq? a @ ae 2 (a) (4) Zero R The V-I characteristics of a diode is shown in figure. ‘The ratio of forward to reverse bias resistance is (ma): 10 V (valty 20 1(WA) (1) 6x 108 (2) 12 10% 3) 12104 (4) 3 103 Velocity vs displacement graph of a particle moving in asstraight line is shown below. The acceleration of the particle is v ee (1) Anon-zero constant (2) Increasing linearly with x (3) Increasing parabolically with x (4) Zero ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623466 : CE CE) agnetic materials used in transfoy Block A of mass 40 kg is connected to one end of | 9. Ferromagi MEF Muse the light rope which passes over a smooth and light have pa - pulley as shown, A person of mass 60 kg ison the (1) Low permeability and high hysteresis loss ‘other end. What should be the acteleration of man High permeability and low hysteresis io, in order to keep the block at rest? (2) High pe - is =e (3) High permeability and high hysteresis loss (4) Low permeability and low hysteresis loss 40. For a real object, if its image formed by opty device is magnified and virtual, the device can be Alia) Hf cog - (1) Concave mirror or convex lens (2) Concave mirror or concave lens i (3) Convex mirror or convex lens (1) Bms?, upward (2) ms, downward (4) Convex mirror or concave lens is ij d with velocity v at angk 5 > Bee) 11. Aparticle is projecte 'y vat angle 0 wit, (3) Zms*, upward (4) 3ms, downward horizontal. In the entire path of the projectile ‘A5 kg block is moving in straight line across a floor (1) Velocity of the particle in vertical direction fist at a constant speed due to a force of 30 N, as increasés then decreases ‘shown. The value of coefficient of kinetic friction (jus) ke is [lake g= 10 ms (2) Velocity of the particle in horizontal direction frst decreases then increases (3) Acceleration remains constant (4) Velocity of the particle in vertical direction 1 remains constant 3 az 12. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a 3 process described by the equation PV = constant. @? a4 The molar specific heat capacity of the gas during . a the process is The magnetic field component of an EM wave given by B=Bysin(ot+kz)i. Its corresponding a Zr @ ZR electric field component will be Z e (1) E=cBsin(ot+kz)j @) BR ) 3R (2) E=c& sinot -kz) j fe ee A 13. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic (3) E=cB sin(ut —kz)k variable? 4) E= B® sinfut +a) (1) Gas constant (2) Pressure ° (3) Volume (4) Temperature Space for Rough Work Cor "porate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1710008. Phi jone : 011-47623456 14. The wave number of a photon in brackett series of 9 hydrogen atom is 7. The electron has undergone transition from the orbit having quantum, number as 6 (3) 4 (4) 7 15._ In the circuit shown below, the power consumed if resistance X is maximum when X is equal to 2R 2h x MR (2) 2R @) 4k w& 16. Identify the semiconductor device whose. (V-/) characteristics are given below (1) Zener diode (2) Light emitting diode (3) Solar cell (4) Photodiode 17. When iight of wavelength % is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is V, then work function of the surface is (1) 20v @ Prev @) "%-20v () ev CUE 18. A ball is dropped from a satelite revolving around the earth at certain height in circular orbit. The path ‘raced by the ball is (1) Straight line (2) Parabolic (3) Circular (4) Spiral” 19. The acceleration of the electron in the n™ orbit of hydrogen atom is proportional to m4 @) rs 1 (3) Zz 20.. Resistances of 6 9 and x are connected in parallel in the left gap and resistances 5 9 and 3.9 are connected in series in the right gap of @ ‘meter bridge. Ifthe balancing length is 36 cm from the left gap, the value of resistance x is, (1) 720 @ 182 (8) 38 (@) 240 21. A cylindrical rod of length L, area of cross-section A is hanging from a fixed support. If the extension in the rod due to self weights ¢, then Young's modulus of the rod is Mat 2Mgl ae @ Ma 3Mat ) 2At 4) 2At 22. Consider a horizontally oriented syringe containing water The diameter of /— plunger _— is, 4 mm and the diameter of nozzle is 2 mm. The plunger is pushed with a constant speed of 0.5 ms". The speed of water coming out of nozzle is (1) 2ms4 (@) 8ms* 2) 4ms" (4) Zero ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005. Phone : 011-47623456 Bi 7 ome 23. Ahollow sphere is rolling down on an inclined plane. The ratio of translational kinetic energy to its rotational kinetic energy is (1) 25 @ 15 @1 (4) 04 2 24, Two balls each of mass m are moving in a horizontal plane (x—y) as shown, ¢ ms" @Q—r2ms" The speed of centre of mass of the system (1) Zero (2) 22ms* (@) ams" (4) $ ms* 25. Two coherent point sources S; and S; are separated by a small distance d as shown below. The fringes obtained on the screen will be (1) Concentric ellipses (2) Concentric circles (3) Concentric rectangles (4) Concentric squares 26. 27. 28. 29, Cuca IE The equation of a wave on a string having linear mass density 0.02 kg mt is given by y = oss 2 sap iam The tension in the string is (1) 5.0N (2) 5ON (3) 10N (4) 100 N A particle performing SHM, starts from extreme position and its time period is 12 seconds. If after 3 seconds its velocity is V2 xm s~, then amplitude of oscillation is (1) 2m (2) 42m (3) 6y2m (4) 82m In the circuit shown below, the potential difference Va= Va is 7 2V a4 Hi 10 19 19 fl i D Seay F 4 2 4) 4 2 Mov (@) 3v @)1v (4) Zero ‘A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it aS 3.55 cm. The least count of the measuring instrument is (1) 0.01 mm (3) 0.1 cm (2) 0.1mm (4) 0.01m ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 6, , Pusa Road, New Delhi= 110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Cok ‘Allindla Aakash Tost Sorles for NEET-2024 Effective capacita 0. Effective capacitance between the points Aand Bin | 3, A rng of radlus 2R has charge 60 distribute at ee iformly overt The net electric field ata distance athe vocal 2 pic oers uniformly over it. The fi (alte capactor have 2 HF capacity] 2eom to eet on sais is kQ kQ 1) <> (2) —3 og @) ta 4 ka 4Q @) 12 a) &9 as 4 34, Five charges are placed at the comers of regular pentagon as shown. What is the net force on the charge 3? 5 (1) 2yF (2) 4uF (3) 3uF (4) Sur 31. Inthe circuit shown below, the charge flown through the batiery is our 3nF iy i tt tt c (vy a 3KG Sur eur @ 1 45. ‘The number density of oxygen molecule at certain Vv temperature and pressure is 2.5 = 10% molecule/m?. (1) 48 uc. (2) 60 nC if diameter of oxygen molecule is 1.0 x 10-*° m, then (@) e2uc @) tone the mean free path of oxygen molecule is nearly 32. Mass numbers of the elements A, 8, C and D are take V2=14, n= 24) 30, 60, 90 and 120 respectively. If their specific 7 binding energies are 5 MeV, 8.5 MeV, 8 MeV and 4) 4am (2) 20 um 7 MeV respectively, then in which of the following =) 10pm di sem reaction's energy willbe released? sicroNes - = 3 B+A Cees 0) o-8 36. If two inputs of a NOR gate are joined together, the (1) Only in (a) gate is equivalent to ‘ eee eraaies (1) oR (2) NAND an 3) NOT (4) NO (4) Neither in (2) nor in (b) @) Oe Space for Rough Work Garparate Office = hakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Dehi-110006, Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 A body weighs 900 N on the surface at ear, 4, 37. The position of a particle is given by the equation .|. 41. " R . —6f + 9t, where tis measured in seconds and weight at a distance 5 from centre is (Where ig S is in meter. The time interval between the two . a "instances when the particle is at rest is radius of ea x ()2s @) 3s (1) 100.N Oe (3) 1s (4) 4s. (3) 175N (4) ie ; 38. .A solid conducting sphere of radius R having @ | 42, The volume (V) of diatomic gas varies wi, charge Q and a point charge q is placed at distance temperature (7) as shown in the graph. The ratio of 2R from the centre of sphere such that net potential change in internal energy, to the heat absorbeq at centre Cis zero. Then q is it, when it undergoes a change from the state 4 1g. a tate Bis ek . AR (1) 4Q (2) -2Q @) 2 (4) -@ 3 5 39. Imagine that a reactor converts all given mass into Qs As energy and that it operates at a power level of 2 x 10'° watt. The mass of the fuel consumed per hour @ 3 @ 2 in the reactor will be (given velocity of light, = 3 7 5 *10* ms") 43. . In Bohr's model of atom. If potential energy of an (1) 0.49 (2) 08g electron is 1.51 eV, then its kinetic energy will be (8) 2% 10g (4) 4x 1079 (1) 1.51 ev (2) 252eV 40. Shape of wavefront in case of (3) 5.04 ev (4) 0.755 ev |. Light diverging from a point source is spherical. | 44, if 8 drops of water each of radius r and surface | Light emerging out of convex lens when a pi tension T coalesce to form a bigger drop, then source is placed at focus is plane. Pressure inside bigger drop is [Po is atmospheric Ill. Parallel beam diverging from the concave lens pressure] is spherical ae a Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1) +e @) +a, (1) Land tt only (2) tland til only 1 5 (3) and Ill only (4) 1, Wand I (3) tae, (4) Ph re ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dali 110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Cea 45. 46. 47. 48. CTE In a Young's double slit experiment, the dista 0 tthe distance between the slits and screen is D and distance between slits is 32. The total number of minima obtained on the screen will be (1) 5 (2) 6 @)7 (4) 9 A thin convex lens of focal length F and a thin concave lens of focal length £ are putin contac The resultant lens is a (1) Convex lens of focal length F (2) Concave lens of focal length F (Comte ottatengtn (4 Conv ne ofc E The potent eneay cure fer 9 pari i hn below. The particle is in equilibrium at point UW) x (m) Aya gc (2) 6 (4) oO In the circuit shown below, the “potential across capacitor is 100 2 I 1000 2002 sin (100r) CUTER z m) 2o0si{ 1001) @) 200si{ toot) (3) 100sin{ 100" -$) (4) 10Vin{100¢~7) 49. A current carrying wire is placed near a conducting ring as shown. 1t £50; then induced curent in oop is (1) Zero (2) Clockwise (3), Anticlockwise (4) Will change direction periodically 80. A.wire of length 34 carries current J as shown in figure. Ifthe wire is bent into equilateral triangle, then magnetic moment of the loop is nN vB? om le (4) 5e @ te ‘Space for Rough Work Torporata Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110006. Phone : 017-47623456 RUEV [CHEMI ISTRY] TRETSECTIONT A, aE 55. Correct order of limiting molar conductivity of the ect: ree given ions in water at 298 K is 51. Incorrect statement among the following is peqenenyen (1) Mixture of CO and Nz is called producer gas (1) Nav ig ps ne (2) On small scale pure CO is prepared by (2) Mg?* > - . dehydration of formic acid with concentrated (3) Ca? > Mg’ > Na HeSOu at 373 K (4) Na* > Mg? > Ca (3) CO reduces ZnO to Zn 56. If the rate constant of a first order reaction is 1,424 (4) Mixture of CO and CH is called synthesis gas 10s" then the time required for the completion 52. Given below are the two statements. of 20% of the reaiction will be ‘Statement is paramagnetic in nature. (1) 400s (2) 350s Statement Il: There are 8 electrons in antibonding (3) 250s (4) 125 molecular orbitals of O2. 57. IUPAC name of the given compound is In light of the above statements, choose the correct CH, answer, ei (1) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct No, (3) Both statement | and statement il are incorrect (1) 4-Methyl-5-chloro-1-nitrobenzene (4) Both statement | and statement II are correct (2) 2-Chloro-4-methyl-4-nitrobenzene eee tage (“) of / (3) 3-Chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene . Ifthe mass percentage { | of ethanol in water is (4) 1-Chioro-2-methyl-6-nitrobenzene 18.4% then the molality of ethanol in the aqueous | 58. Consider the following statements. solution will be * (@) Sucrose does not reduce Tollens’ reagent. () 741m (2) 49m (b) Sucrose is composed of a-D-glucose and @) 27m (4) 4.0m B-D-galactose units. 54, Which among the following is correct for a solution (c) Sucrose is a disaccharide. showing negative deviation from ideal behaviour? The correct satomenta (1) (GH) > 0, (AS)nie> 0, (AV)nix > 0 th @ane ne (2) (AH)nix <0, (AS)nix > 0, (Aix <0 (2) (a)ana¢ a c (8) (AH)nix> 0, (A8)nur< 0, (AV) <0 (3) (oyand (e) ay (4) (AH)ou > 0, (&8)n < 0, (AV)x > 0 ore y ae 0. {AV) (4) (a), (b) and (6) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dani 110005. Phone : 011-47623466 Se) ‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 62. 59. 60. 61 Correct order of acidic strength’ of the given ‘compounds is COOH _ COOH COOH «COOH No, CH, OCH, @ ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (v)> Gi) > Gil) > (2) (> (ii) > Civ) > Gi) (3) (ili) > (i) > (i) > (iv), (4) (> Gi)> > WW) Consider the following reaction sequence ‘CONH, Br LOMCONO, . HNOSHSO. | ow Te? Fira Beak tO) 910) (ttaen) Product D in the reaction sequence is NHOH NH, No, a) (2) No, NH, NH, NO, (3) (4) No, oO” ~CH, In sulphur estimation by carius method, 0.5 g of an organic compound gave 1.398 g of barium sulphate. ‘The percentage of sulphur present in the compound is (Molar mass of BaSO« = 233 g mol) (1) 64.2% (2) 16.4% (3) 24.5% (4) 38.4% 63. 64. 65. a , it ir Match the species given in List! with thelt corresponding colour given in List-ll. List-1 List-ll (@) | (NHasPOnt2Mo03 | ()_| Blood red (b) | PbS (i) | Violet (c) | [Fe(SCN)P* (iii) | Yellow (d) | (Fe(CN)sNOS}* (iv) | Black The correct match is (1) (a) ~ (i, (b) = (iv), (6) - @, (4) — (2) (a) = (iv), (b) — (il), (¢) - Gi, (8) ~ (3) (a) - (iv), (b)- @ (4) (a) — (il), (b) = (il), (c) - (), (6) - Coefficients a, b and d for the given balanced chemical equation respectively are aSs(s) + OH-(aq) > cS*(aq) + dS203*(aq) + eH20(1) (1),4,3.and 4 (2) 1, 42and 2 (3) 2,9and4 (4) 1,10 and 3 Correct order of spin only magnetic moment values of the given complexes is [Co(H20).]** [Mn(CN)s> @ wo) (1) Gi> (i) > @ (2) (> Gi) > i) (3) i) > (i) > @ (4) (i> (i) > Gil) Consider the following statements (a) Most common oxidation state of vanadium is +4. (b), V20s is basic in nature. (c) CrO is basic but Crz0s is amphoteric in nature. (d) Mnz0r is a covalent green oil. The correct statements are (1) (a), (b) and (c) only (2) (b), (c) and (4) only (3) (a), (@) and (4) only (4) (a), (b), (¢) and (4) [FeFe]> (iy ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office = Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 66. CIFs on complete hydrolysis gives 67. Which among the following is incorrect order against 68. 69. 70. RUE (1) Feand HOCIO (3) HCl and HOF (2) HF and HOCIO (4) HF and HOCIO2 the property indicated? (1) NHs > PHs > AsHs > SbHs (Basic nature) (2) SbH3 > AsHs > PHa > NHs (ArH) (3) NHs > PHs > SbHa > AsHs (Melting point) (4) SbHs > NHs > AsHs > PHs (Boiling point) Consider the following statements (@) Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex reactions, (b) All natural and artificial radioactive ‘decay of unstable nuclei take place by first order kinetics, (c) The thermal decomposition of HI on gold surface is an example of first order reaction. (2) For complex reaction, molecularity has no meaning, The correct statements are (1) (@), (b) and (¢) only (2) (a), (b) and (4) only (3) (@), (b), (c) and (d). (4) (b), (c) and (4) only. Gold on reaction with aqua regia forms (1) AuCls, N20 and HO (2) AuCl;, NO and H20 (8) AUuCl;, NO2 and He (4) AUC, No and He Correct order of melting point of the given compounds is (1) H2Fe > H20 > HaSe > H2S (2) 120 > HeTe > HSe > HS (3) HeTe > H2Se > HzS > HO (4) HaTe > HaSe > HzO > H2S PE 71. Consider the following reaction sequence (Neo oO Cleun, 4 NEO, Ho Major product C is ° od (3) 9° (2) 3 “ During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl's method, the ammonia evolved from 2.5 g of compound was neutralized by 25 mL of 1.2 M H2SOs solution. The Percentage of nitrogen present in the compound is (133.6% (2) 24.2% (3) 42.6% (4) 52.6% Given below are the two statements ‘Statement I: A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal proportions will have zero optical rotation. Statement Il: Enantiomers are ‘superimposable mirror images of each other. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Statement | is correct but statement I) is” incorrect (2) Both statement'l and statement Il are correct (3) Both statement | and statement II are incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct 72. 73. ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 7 OT La76Z3456 CLL ‘ode-B) The pait of com; 4 tinguished by iodoform est oe a (1) Isopropyl alcohol and n-propyl alcohol (2) Acetone and benzophenone (3) Ethanol and benzaldehyde (4) 2-Butanol and butanone 75. Consider the following compounds a) wi) (ili) The correct order of energy released on hydrogenation of the given compounds is (4) «i> Ga) > 2) > Gi @) Gi) > 0 4) «i> > Gi 76. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 3.2 atm from an initial volume of 1.3 L to a final volume of 4.3 L. The change in internal energy of the gas will be (1) -525.24 (2) -972545 (3) -3254 (4) -7254 77. Solubility of AgBr in 0.1 M CaBre solution will be (Kep of AgBr= 5 * 10-"9) (1) 7.5 x 10°? M (2) 7.07 «107M (3) 5x 10-3 M (4) 2.5% 10-2 M 78. Which of the following compounds on, heating liberates oxygen gas? (1) HsPOs. (2) NHsNOs (3) (NH«)2Cr20r (4) Pb(NOs)2 79, For the reaction, A(s) > 2B(g) + C(Q) if AU = 15 kd and AS = 90 J K-! at 300 K then AG of the reaction will be (1) 12.25 ks (2) -4.52kd (3) 6.21 kd (4) 3.28 kd All india Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 80. at. 82, 83, 84, am Correct order of energy of orbitals for multielectronic Species is (1) 4f> 4d> 5p > 5s (3) 4f> 5p > 4d> 5s : In which of the following species the central atom is spd hybridised? (2) 5p> 58> 4f> 4d (4) Sp>4d> 58> 4f () sich (2) Br () SFe (4) XeFs Match List- with List List List- {Atomic number) (IUPAC official name) @) | 108 (_| Lawrencium (©) | 108 (i)_| Hassium (© [105 {ii)_ | Seaborgium (@ [103 (iv) | Dubnium ‘The correct match is (1) (@) = Gi, (b)~ Gi), (€)- G). (@)~ (2) (2) ~ Ci) (6) ~ Gi, (6) = (), (@)— 0) (3), (2)~ Gi) (0) ~ (@)(6) = 0. (@) ~ ) (4) (@)—(),(0)= (i), (©). (@)~ 6 If the mass ratio of methane and sulphur trioxide is 4:1 thon the ratio oftheir number of atoms will be (1) 4:4 @) 8:1 (3) 8:5 (4) 25:1 Given below are.two statements ‘Statement I: Fullerenes are the only pure form of carbon. Statoment Il; In buckminsterfullerene, all carbon atoms are sp? hybridised. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Both statement I and statement Il are incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement II are correct {@) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect : (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement I! is correct “Space for Rough Work Corporate Ofice = Aakash Tower, 5, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 85. Inwhich set, all the species are aromatic in nature? LOO OAS O"O (4) Q CO and O BREE SECTION -BO 86. Volume of O2 required at STP to react completely with 1.4 kg of ethene is (1) 12004 (2) 2400 L (3) 1600. (4) 3360 87. The standard Gibbs energy change for'the given reaction is Ni(s) + 2Ag*(aq) > Ni2*(aq) + 2Ag(s) (Given npg =-025 VE 45 = 80 v) (1) -175.28 kJ mol (2) ~ 275.25 kJ mor" (3) - 202.65 kJ mol" (4) — 85.45 kJ moF 88. pH of 0.2 M solution of sodium formate will be (pke of formic acid = 3.75) (1) 85 (2) 75 (3) 10.2 (4) 97 89. For the reaction, H:(g) > 2H(g), the correct option is (1) AiH>O and aS>0 (2) AH 0 (3) AH OandaS<0 90, Correct order of basic strength of the given compounds is oad, o @ Gi) Ww (1) G)> > > Gi) (2) (i) > Gt) > ()> (y (3) (> Gi)> (> () (4) > (> Giy> Gy) 91. Consider the following reaction sequence Kou, , HO yg OLAHL, © cu YS oy tate thon Soc Ss Ojon Major product D is a/an (1) Ketone (2) Aldehyde (3) Alkene (4) Alkane 92. Asolution of copper sulphate is electrolysed for 100 minutes with a current of 3.86 amperes. The mass of copper deposited at cathode is (Atomic mass of copper = 63.5.u) (112.59 (2) 6.259 (3) 15.29 (4) 7.69 93. Given below are the two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion (A): Boiling point of HF is more than HCI. Reason: (R): HF molecules are associated with each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Ais true but Ris false (3) Ais false but Ris true (4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 701 T-A762G456 CLD) of, The species wich wll show hyperconugaton are 66~> @ «i (iy (wv) (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (2) Gi), (ii) and (iv) only (8) (ii) and (ii) only (4) (and (iil) only 95. Correct order of metal-carbon bond strength in the given species is, [Ma(CO}s)" [Cr(CO)s] 0 qi) (1) > > Gi) (2) Gil) > (> Gil) (3) Gi) > Gi) > () (4), (ii) > (i) > (iy 96. Correct order of negative hydration enthalpy. of given ions is (1) Mn2* > Co? > Cu?* (2) Cu?* > Mn?* > Co (3) Co® > Cu? > Mn2 (4) Cut > Co > Mn?* 97. Consider the following statements {a) SOz reacts with chlorine in the presence of. charcoal to give thionyl chloride. (b) SOz is used in refining petroleum and sugar. (c) Moist sulphur dioxide behaves as reducing agent. (@) $02 is a-resonance hybrid of three canonical forms. [M(CO}e- i) Se The correct statements are (1) (@), (b) and (c) only (2) (6), (c) and (4) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (@) and (c) only 98. If 16.5 watt bulb emits monochromatic radiation of wavelength 600 nm then the number of photons emitted per second by the bulb is (h=66« 10% Js) (1) 1% 102 (2) 5108 (3) 1 10 (4) 5 10" 99. Correct order of reactivity of given compounds towards Sw! reaction is, Cl cl S a asa 0 } (i) (1) Gi) >) > 0) (2) > Gi)> (i) (3) (i) > Gi) > (iil) (4) Gi) > @> Gi) 100. Match the vitamins name given in List-! with their deficiency diseases given in List-ll. List-ll List (a) [Pyridoxine “| (i) | Rickets | (0) [Ascorbic acid | (i) | Xerophthalmia (©) | Vitamin D (@) | vitamin a | (iv) (1) (a) (ill). (©) ~ (i), (©) = Gv), (4) = Gi (2) (a) - (iv), (b)— Gil), (€) = (i), (6) = (3) (a) ~ (ii), (©) ~ (iv), (c) — (), (A) = (i (4) (@) = (iv), (b) = (il), (€) = @, (@) = (i (ii) | Bleeding of gums Convulsions ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pus Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 “ [BOTANY] ESS Saas SECTIONT AM 101. Which of the following processes does not occur during mitosis in an animal cell? (1) Chromatids moving to opposite poles (2) Formation of recombination nodules (3) Disappearance of nuclear envelope (4) Splitting of centromere 102. Biological concept of species was given by (1) Emst Mayr (2) RH. Whittaker (3) Emst Haeckel (4) Carolus Linnaeus 103. Find the correct match w.rt. prokaryotic cell structure and their role. (1) Chromatophores — Respiration (2) Pi = Moiilty (8) Plasmid ~ Promotes antibiotic sensitivity (4) Mesosome Distribution of DNA to daughter cells, 104, Attemariais (1) An edible sac fungus : (2) Smut fungus (3) An aquatic fungus (4) A parasitic imperfect fungus 105. Consider the following four statements A, 8; C and D and select the right option for.two correct statements. (A) Citrus bears polyadelphous stamens (B) Pea flower has multicarpellary aynoecium (C) Datura has parietal placentation (0) Salvia flower has stamens of different length within a flower The correct statements are (1) (A) and (0) (2) (A)and (8) (3) (B) and (C) (4) (8) and (D) 106. 107. 108, 109, 410. Extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels, called tyloses are (1) Important for radial conduction of water (2) Balloon-shaped and characteristic of sapwood only (3) Abundant in heartwood (4) Found only in primary xylem Cycas is alan (1) Monoecious gymnosperm (2) Heterosporous plant (3) Flowering plant (4) Uniceltutar alga Which of the following algae contains laminarin as reserve food material? (1) Ectocarpus (2) Chara (3). Ulothrix (4) Porphyra The current atmospheric concentration of CO2 is limiting to (1) Cs plants only (2) Cé plants only (3) CAM plants only (4) Both Cs and Cs plants Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) Plasma membrane of human RBCs contains 52% protein and 40% lipid. (2) Fluid mosaic model was given by Singer and Nicolson in 1972 (3) Fluid nature of plasma membrane helps in secretion. (4) Fluidity of plasma membrane is mainly due to carbohydrates. ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dain 10005. Phonov 07 147623456 CULL) 411, The type of population interactio species is benefitted and other is nor benefitted is called (1) Mutualism (2) Ammensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Predation 142. mRNA does not contain (1) Pentose sugar (@) Purine nitrogenous base nin. Which one neither harmed QUE need 115, Which of the following is a correct statement w.r-t. alien species invasion? (1) Clarias gariepinus was introduced in India accidently. (2) Lantana has become a serious weed in multiple wetlands in India (3) Cichlid fish was introduced in Lake Victoria and has killed multiple species of Nile perch (4) Parthenium is a terrestrial weed which came to India with imported wheat 116. Which of the following is the correct expression for (3) N-glycosidic bond primary production? (4) S-methyl uracil (1) Biomass produced by producers 413. Match column-1 with column-Il and ioe correct option using the codes ghen helew (2) Biomass produced by producers, Column-t Columnall ee E (@) Primary productivity a. | Unisexual male | (i) | Staminate Time flower (4) Primary productivity. Area ». | Swollen part of | (ip | Parietal 117. Pelagic fishes produce | pecice! plsteftation (1) Large number of smal-sized offsprings (2) Large number of large-sized offsprings Free siarnere Ait) | Polyandrous_ (3) Small number of large-sized offsprings Peripheral () | Thalamus (4) Small number of small-sized offsprings |_| placenta 418. Ganga Action Plan (1985) was proposed to 2b a q (1) Discharge untreated sewage into the river i Fs a 7 (2) Build treatment plants that can increase BOD rmulfold @) i a U wv, (3) Build a large number of sewage treatment @)i it i iv plants i iv i ii (4) Develop technology of biogas production 114. Which of the following is not an example of Mendelian disorder? (1) Phenyiketonuria (2) Haemophilia (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Down's syndrome 119. Which of the following is correct floral formula of wheat? (1) % h Pejrodicues) As Gs (2) Ebr © oF % h Kava Cxs Arve Gay (3) %h Kes Cre2eayAsyr Gr (4) BrOgPoayAss Boy ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 5 Pasa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 CUI 120. Given below are two statements Statement I: DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction, that is 3'-»5" Statement II: Primer is formed for synthesis of lagging strand only. Inthe light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Only statement | is correct (2) Both the statements are correct, (3) Both the statements are incorrect (4) Only statement Ils correct 121. S gene consists of three alleles, S, S' and s. S and S' show dominance over s, while they are codominant to each other. In a cross between Ss and S's, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible respectively? (1) 4and4 (2) 4and2 (3) 3and4 (4) 2and4 122. Read the following statements {a) Orobanche is a parasitic plant that produces single seed per fruit (b) Parthenocarpy can only occur by artificial application of growth hormones. (©) Micropyle facilitates the entry of O2 into the seed during germination, The incorrect statement(s) is/are (1) (b) only (2) All (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a) and(b) only (4) (a) and (c) only 123. Which among the following is incorrect for pollen grains? (1) Itrepresents male gametophyte (2) It has spherical structure measuring about 25-50 jum in diameter (8) Exine is outermost continuous layer which is made up of sporopollenin (4) Intine is the inner wall which is thin and continuous, 424, The plant growth regulators which are derivatives of terpenes and adenine respectively are (1) Auxin and ethylene (2) Gibberelin and kinetin (3) Gibberellin and abscisic acid (4) Auxin and gibberellin 125. Conversion of 2-PGA into PEP during EMP pathway also leads to release of (1) ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation (2) Redox equivalents (8) Carbon dioxide (4) HO 126. Adenovirus (1) Helps in curd formation (2) Produces statins (8) Causes respiratory infections (4) Lacks nucleic acid 127. A short day plant flowers, when they receive (1) Light hours more than the critical duration (2) Dark hours more than the critical duration (8) Light hours longer than the dark hours only (4) Dark hours less than the critical duration 128. Amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time is called (1) Standing crop (2) Standing state (3) Net primary productivity (4) Stratification 129, The total number of biodiversity hotspots and the percent of Earth's land area they cover are respectively (1) 25 and more than 2% (2) 34 and less than 2% (3) 25 and less than 2% (4) 34 and more than 2% ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, Now Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 omen 430. Non-living, rigid structure of plant cel is (1) Cell wall (2) Celi membrane SEE (@) Cytosol (4) Ribosonie 136. Anapkiase promoting complex (APC) helps in 431. Apomictic seeds : (1) Condensation of chromatin (1) Do not contain embryo (2) Decondensation of chromosomes and (2) Are genetically identical to the parent reassembly of nuclear membrane (3) Are produced by fertilization (3) Replication of DNA (4) Are found only in dicots (4) Degeneration of nucleolus 132, Coralloid roots of Cyeas are associated with 187. Chlorophyll @ and b show maximum ‘absorption (1) Ammonifying bacteria Peak in wavelength range of (2) Heterotrophic bacteria 2/005 500 nm (8) Nitiying bacteria (2) 500 ~ 600 nm and 400 - 500 nm respectively (4) Nivogen fixing cyanobacteria (3) 600-700 nm and 500 — 600 nm respectively 138. The genes HBA1, HBA2 and HBB regarding | 139 ny 300-400 nm | thalassemia are located respectively on low many of the following fun Eiromosome number mycelium and also reproduce, using conidia? (1) 16,16 and 41 (2) 14, 11 and 16 , Albugo, (3) 16, 11 and 16 4 118 and41 Aspergillus, Neurospora, Alternaria, Claviceps 134. a. Conjoint a4 (3 b. Presence of water containing cavity @)5 (4) 6 c. -Surrounded by bundle sheath 199, Read the following statements 4d. Scattered in ground tissue A: Caffeine is produced by plants as defence Which of the above characteristics are associated mechanism against grazers and browsers. with the vascular bundles of dicot stem? B: Nearly 25 percent of all insects are known to be (1) Only b (2) b,c andd phytophagous. (3) Alla,b,candd (4) Onlya : Calotropis is a poisonous weed. 135. Find the incorrect statement w.rt. Rauwolfia In the light of above statements, find the correct vomitoria. option. (1) Itis a medicinal plant (1) Only statement B is correct. (2) It produces an active chemical called reserpine (2) Statements B and C are incorrect (3) It does not show genetic dive (3) Only statement A is incorrect (4) It grows in different Himalayan ranges (4) All statoments A, B and C are correct Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, [24 J Pusa Road, New Delti-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 [All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 140. Which of the following is not associated with the techniques applied for DNA fingerprinting? (1) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Restriction enzymes (3) Polymerase chain reaction (4) Polymerisation of amino acids 141. When both mother and father are heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia, then the probability of having trait for sickle cell anaemia but apparently unaffected offsprings will be (1) (2) 4 (3) 142. Assertion (A): Flowers that undergo pollination by abiotic agents produce enormous amount of pollen. Reason (R): Pollen grain coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor whén pollination is carried by abiotic agents. In the light of above statements choose the correct option. (1) Both Assertion and reason are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both Assertion and reason are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (3) Assertion is true but reason is false (4) Reason is true but assertion is false 143. Diadelphous condition of stamens in fabaceae is shown by Nia Ble 1 @ ¢ 145, Equisetum belongs to (1) Psitopsida (8) Sphenopsida (2) Lycopsida (4) Pteropsida 146. Cells positioned away from root apical meristems differentiate as _A_, while those pushed to the periphery, mature as _B Aand B respectively are (1) Cortical celts and epidermal cell (2) Epidermal cells and root cap cell (3) Root cap cell and epidermal cell (4) Hypodermal cell and root cap cell 147. Glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates occur in (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Golgi body (4) Cytosol 148. Migration of centrioles and chromosomes towards poles begins respectively during (1) Prophase and anaphase (2), Metaphase and anaphase (3) Prophase and metaphase (4): Anaphase and prophase 149. Hub in centriole is” (1) Peripheral triplet of microtubules (2) Rod-shaped proteinaceous mass in the central part (3) Proteinaceous amorphous pericentrioler region (4) Radially oriented filaments 150. Find the correct sequence of events that occurs during sexual reproduction of a fungi belonging to ‘Ascomycetes. ‘(1) Meiosis + Karyogamy > Plasmogamy (1) Ae (2) Ages (2) Plasmogamy -> Dikaryophase -> Karyogamy > (3) Age (4) Arvo Meiosis 144. The radial conduction of water takes place by the (3) Karyogamy -> Plasmogamy —> Dikaryophase > (1) Tracheids (2) Vessels oo (3) Ray parenchyma (4) Fibres (4) Plasmogamy -» Karyogamy ->Dikaryophase —> lelosis| ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008. Phone : 011-47623456 (Code-B) rm PE ‘select the pair of animals which are jaw jawiess vertebrates. (1) Petromyzon and Pterophyllum (2) Myxine and Petromyzon (@) Pristis and Exocoetus (4) Tygon and Torpedo a ene ialeana ate characteristic features of (1) Mostly endoparasites (2) Dorso-ventrally flattened body (Q) Triploblastic (4) Pseudocoelomate 1. Which of the following acts as a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme, carboxypeptidase? (1) Calcium (2) Zinc (3) Magnesium (4) Copper 4. The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking.a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of (1). Meloidogyne incognita (2) Salmonella typhimurium (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (4) Bacteriophage 55. The type of epithelium present in the inner lining of ducts of salivary gland is also present in the (1) Inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles (2) Walls of blood vessels {G) Lining of stomach and intestine (4) Moist surface of buccal cavity All India Aakash Test Ser [Z0oLoey) 156. All of the following structures are present only in male frogs, except (1) Bidder's canal (2) Cloaca (3) Vocal sacs (4) Copulatory pad 157. Select the per cent of COz carried in a dissolved state through plasma in an adult human under normal conditions. (1) 97%. (2) 7% 3) 3% (4) 20-25% 158, The first heart sound produced during the cardiac cycle in humans is associated with the (1) Closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves (2) Opening of the semilunar valves (3) Closure of the semilunar valves (4), Opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves 159. All of the following are true for cortical nephrons, except (1) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced (2) They are.more in number than juxtamedullary nephrons (3) Their glomeruli are in the outer cortex (4) Their loop of Henle are very long and run deep into,medulla 460. Select the incorrect match w.rt. humans. (1) Fibrous joint ——-— Between cranial bones (2) Cartiiaginous joint — Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column — Between humerus and pectoral girdle = Between the carpals (3) Saddle joint (4) Gliding joint ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aal 011-47623456 161. In a standard ECG, the ventricular systole starts (1) Shortly aftor QRS complex (2) Just after T-wave (3) Just before T-wave (4) Shortly after Q-wave 162, Percent of which of the following cells of total WBCs is equal to the per cent of proteins present in blood plasma of human? (1) Basophils (2) Monocytes (3) Lymphocytes (4) Neutrophils 163. Choose the correct option to complete the analogy. Homologous structures : Divergent evolution : : Analogous structure: (1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution (3) Founder effect (4) Adaptive radiation All India Aakash Test Sories for NEET-2024 Cnr) 465. Consider the following given formula of Hardy. Weinberg principle. pe + 2pq + q?=1 % Select the correct interpretation for '‘2pq'. (1) Homozygous recessive individuals (2) Homozygous recessive alleles (3) Heterozygous individuals (4) Homozygous dominant alleles 166, Select the mismatch. (1) Smack - Obtained by acetylation of morphine (2) Heroin — Depressant and slows down the body functions (3) Cocaine — Obtained from poppy plant (4) Crack — Interferes with the transport of neurotransmitter dopamine 167. Match column | with column II w.r-t. diseases and 164, Match the column | with column Il and-select the their causative agents. correct option. Column | Column i [ Column! Column Il ‘Salmonella typhi (i) | Pneumonia | a. | Ramapithecus (i) | Probably lived ‘Streptococcus Ringworm in East African | | pneumoniae 7 grasslands c. | Wuchereria bancrofti | (iii) | Typhoid b. | Australopithecines | (ii) Probably aa @. | Trichophyton (wv) | Fitarasis — — Choose the most appropriate opti the Homo erectus (ii) | First human-like Ppropriate option from the following being the _ ee howe (1) alii), b(), cliv), aij (2) ati, b¢), efiv), i) | than [ Dvopithecus { |. | Homo habits (iv) | More man-like } (1) ativ), DG, eC), AQ - (2) a(iv), B¢i), c(i), Ail) (3) a(iv), BG), efi), dCi) (4) alii, b(H), cliv), aii) (3) alii), Biv), c(i), dQi) (4) aliv), bi), efi, dCi 168. Select the correct method of ART in which embryo up to 8 blastomeres could be transferred into fallopian tube. (1) UT (3) GIFT (2) ZIFT (4) tut ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110008. Phone : 011-47623456 UCR 469. Acoording to 2011 census ra growth rate of our population (1) 75!1000 per year (2) 30/1000 per year (8) 65/1000 per year (4) 2071000 per your 470. Ideal contraceptive should be (a) User-friendly (©) Effective (e) Leastino side effect Port, the poputatc ot was about > (b) Easily available (4) Reversible Consider the given options and choose the most appropriate answer. (1) (@), (b), (¢) and (A) only (2) (@), (b), (4) and (e) only (3) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called and an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the _‘B' Select the correct option which fills the blanks and 'B’ respectively. A B (1) Outer cell mass (2) Chorionic villi (3) Trophoblast > (4) Theca interna 172 1m. Trophoblast * antrum Inner cell mass Corpus luteum Inhuman females, primary oocyte grows in size and completes its first meiotic division within (1) Secondary follicle (2) Tertiary follicle (3) Graafian follicle (4) Primary follicle. Select the incorrect match. (1) Adrenal gland — Addison's disease (2) Pituitary gland — Acromegaly (3) Thyroid gland - Graves’ disease (4) Pancreas — , Diabetes insipidus 173, All India Aakash Test Sei 174, The human male ejaculates about 200-300 million ‘sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility, at least._A__ per cent sperms must have normal - shape and size and at least _B__ per cent of them ust show vigorous motilty. Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A and B respectively. (1) 50, 50 (2) 40, 60 (3) 60, 40 (4) 30, 70 175. Which of the following are not the components of actin filament? : (1) F acting (2) Meromyosins (3) Troponins (4). Tropomyosins 176. In the resting state, a subunit-of masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin filaments, Select the correct option to fil in the blank. (1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin (3), Metomyosin (4) ‘F-actin 17T-All of the foliowing are eliminated by sebaceous + glands, except (1) Lactic‘acia (2) Sterois (8) Hydrocarbons (4) Waxes 178. Which of the following formed elements are

    You might also like