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SECTION I
Time—35 minutes
27 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage or a pair of passages. The questions are to be answered
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage or pair of passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could
conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, choose the response that most accurately and
completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

Most writings on the subject of motion
pictures, including those scrutinizing the structural
characteristics, aesthetic qualities, and effects of
motion pictures on audiences, have traditionally been
(5) relatively abstract and have not considered what a
film’s audiences actually see. In fact, various external 1.
factors intervene between the filmmaker’s intent and the
audience’s experience, often altering the qualities of a
film and, consequently, the viewer’s perception of it.
(10) In the process of distribution, a film can be
mutilated in many ways. The damage is most obvious
when films in one language are shown to audiences that
speak a different language. Subtitling may be simply
incompetent, full of mistakes, or used for actual
(15) censorship. Dubbing—a significantly more profound
intervention—can be even more damaging. Some films
are reedited to render them “more understandable” by
their target audiences, while others are given new titles
rather than translations of their original titles, a practice
(20) that often creates false expectations and distorts the
work’s intent. 2.
When a film is shown on television or video, it
suffers the most extensive deformations. In addition to
causing a loss of image size and definition, current
(25) mass-market television and video technology is harmful
in other ways. These intrusions include advertisements
that break the intended continuity, the superimposition
of images—such as station identifications and weather
bulletins—over parts of the picture, and spoken
(30) announcements over parts of the soundtrack considered
by programmers to be “unimportant.” Some alterations,
such as a subtle increase in the projection speed of a
televised movie to obtain more commercial time, are
almost imperceptible but nonetheless detrimental to the
(35) integrity of the film.
It seems that audiences and even most film critics
have tacitly accepted this situation—they rarely speak
about it. This may be partly because of the special
nature of film. In many other arts it is obvious that
(40) reproductions of a work are not the work itself, and they
are not treated as such. However, the very nature of film
makes it an exactly reproducible art form, under ideal
conditions, each print is not merely a reproduction but
is in fact another instance of the work itself. But we
(45) tend to overlook how rarely the ideal conditions apply,
and this is disturbing for two reasons. First, professional
analysis, interpretation, and evaluation may be unfair to
filmmakers when—as is surprisingly often the case—
they are based on a version that has already been
(50) seriously altered. Second, when critics’ comments are
based on original, uncompromised versions of the films,
they may raise false expectations with regard to the
more or less faulty versions that are often available to
viewers.
In the passage, the author primarily attempts to
(A) provide evidence against a claim that is often
made in the criticism of a particular art form
(B) establish that changing the materials used in
a particular art form would enhance public
appreciation of that art form
(C) refute a commonly held view regarding the
detrimental effects of criticism on a particular
art form
(D) describe a problem that is generally overlooked
in the criticism of a particular art form
(E) explain why a particular art form is the target of
negative criticism
The author distinguishes film from at least some other art
forms with regard to the
(A) extent of public reliance on professional analyses
and evaluations
(B) possibility of creating multiple instances of the
same artwork
(C) susceptibility of the artwork to damage through
environmental factors and aging
(D) degree of control that a work’s creator has over
the conditions of its public presentation
(E) complexity of the methods used to provide public
access to the artwork
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PrepTest 87

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would
be most likely to agree with which one of the following
statements?
(A) Films should be projected at precisely the speed
at which they were designed to be projected.
(B) Filmmakers should accept the fact that criticisms
are often directed against distributors rather than
against filmmakers.
(C) Film critics should acknowledge that mutilations
of films during distribution and public exhibition
are inevitable.
(D) Film commentaries should not be concerned with
audience reactions to films.
(E) Films should be viewed only in relatively large,
darkened theaters.
4. Which one of the following would, if true, most
strengthen the author’s argument concerning any
modification of a film for distribution?
(A) Almost all filmmakers whose work critics respect
approve of the distribution of altered versions of
their films.
(B) Mass-market television and video technology
has recently improved in its ability to present
films in ways that conform to the intentions of
filmmakers.
(C) Many professional commentaries on nonfilm
artworks are based on aged, mutilated, or
otherwise altered versions of those works.
(D) Almost all viewers of films are unaware of the
professional commentaries that are written about
those films.
(E) In almost every film that has a soundtrack, all
parts of the soundtrack are designed by the
filmmaker to contribute significantly to the
film’s artistic value.
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5. It can be inferred from the passage that the author
believes which one of the following statements about
films?
(A) When shown on television—even without having
been reedited and without any commercial
breaks or superimposed messages—films can be
artistically compromised to some extent.
(B) Films are considered by many art critics to
be of questionable significance as a topic of
serious scholarly analysis, interpretation, and
evaluation.
(C) Because of technical limitations involved in the
process of reproducing films, no reproduction
of any one film can be strictly classified as the
work that the filmmaker intended.
(D) Even when they are distributed in
uncompromised versions, films elicit variable
responses from viewers, and thus they can rarely
be expected to have the aesthetic impact that the
filmmakers intend.
(E) Most films do not meet the standards set by
writings that analyze their structural and
aesthetic qualities.
6. Suppose that a Russian company is planning to distribute
to Russian-speaking audiences a film that was produced
in Italy with dialogue originally spoken only in Italian.
It can be inferred from the passage that the author would
be most likely to agree with which one of the following
recommendations regarding the film?
(A) The company should attempt to translate the
film’s title into Russian but should also make
explanatory material available for audiences that
know no Italian.
(B) The company should first make the film available
only to critics who understand Italian and
afterwards should release it to the general
public.
(C) The film should be subtitled in Russian, but
only if the translation is strictly faithful to the
original.
(D) The version of the film that Russian-speaking
audiences see should not include subtitles.
(E) The film should be very cautiously restructured,
as needed, to make the filmmaker’s intentions
clearer to Russian-speaking audiences.
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PrepTest 87
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A recent worldwide decline of ocean fishery stocks
has stimulated rapid growth in cultivated production
of fish and shellfish, usually known as fish farming.
Between 1987 and 1997, for example, global
(5) fish production from farming doubled. Fish farming
produces a quarter of all fish and shellfish eaten by
humans, and, as global population increases, fish
farming will probably become even more important in
supplying human protein needs. Some experts
(10) even argue that in addition to helping to compensate
for the decline in ocean harvests, fish farming will
restore wild populations by relieving pressure on ocean
fisheries. There is, however, little if any evidence that
fish farming will restore ocean fishery stocks.
(15) The complexity of production systems leads to an
underlying paradox: fish farming is a possible solution,
but also a potential contributing factor, to the continued
decline of ocean fishery stocks worldwide.
In the first place, the more intensive forms of fish
(20) farming, oriented toward high-volume production,
threaten the sustainability of ocean fisheries through
water pollution and ecological disruption. Intensive
fish farming usually involves the enclosure of fish in a
secure system; population densities are typically high,
(25) resulting in the generation of large amounts of waste
and increased potential for the spread of pathogens.
Habitat destruction through the spread of untreated
waste, the escape of species not native to the farm’s
region, or contamination by new pathogens can all
(30) ensue, seriously damaging ocean and coastal resources
and, ultimately, wild fishery stocks.
Even more important, intensive farming of many
species of fish requires large inputs of fish meal and fish
oil in order to supply fatty acids that vegetable matter
(35) lacks or essential amino acids that it inadequately
supplies, like lysine and methionine. For the ten species
of fish most commonly farmed, an average of 1.9
kilograms of wild fish is required for every kilogram of
fish produced. Of the ten species, only three—catfish,
(40) milkfish, and carp—require less fish input than is
eventually harvested, while the farming of carnivorous
species like salmon has a very high input-to-output
ratio. Although some defenders of fish farming contend
that predatory carnivores in the wild consume even
(45) more fish than they would on a farm, farming of such
carnivorous species requires up to 5 kilograms of wild
fish for every kilogram of fish produced.
Expanding farm production does have the potential
to alleviate some of the pressure on wild fishery stocks.
(50) For example, increasing the farm production of fish
like salmon can reduce prices, deterring investment in
fishing fleets and, over time, reducing fishing efforts.
Similarly, other farmed fish like tilapia and channel
catfish provide alternatives to ocean fish like cod and
(55) haddock. Nonetheless, even these benefits may in
the end be lost because niche markets have started to
develop for several species of wild-caught fish, causing
their catch rates to remain high even as the production
of viable farmed substitutes has increased.
7. Which one of the following most accurately describes the
main point of the passage?
(A) The recent decline of ocean fishery stocks was
caused by damage to ocean habitats resulting
from fish farming.
(B) Fish farming has some potential both for
increasing global fish supplies and for
threatening those very supplies.
(C) Fish farming is destined to supply ever-larger
percentages of human protein needs.
(D) The high catch rates for several types of wild-
caught fish overshadow the advances made by
fish farming.
(E) Because of their diet, carnivorous fish are
more expensive and difficult to farm than
noncarnivorous fish.
8. There is information in the passage sufficient to answer
which one of the following questions?
(A) How does the escape of species not native to a
farm’s region result in habitat destruction?
(B) What sort of shellfish is most commonly raised
on fish farms?
(C) Approximately how many kilograms of fish, on
average, does a wild salmon consume during its
lifetime?
(D) What proportion of the fish and shellfish eaten by
humans is produced on fish farms?
(E) How long does it take for niche markets for
wild-caught fish to have an appreciable effect on
wild populations?
9. Which one of the following is closest to the meaning of
the phrase “relieving pressure on ocean fisheries” as used
in the middle of the first paragraph?
(A) making up for the scarcity of wild-caught fish
(B) supplementing the incomes of people who make
a living from ocean fishing
(C) causing fewer wild fish to be caught
(D) reducing the amount of income to be earned from
ocean fishing
(E) reducing overall demand for fish and fish
products
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PrepTest 87

10. The information in the passage most strongly supports
which one of the following statements?
(A) Any further decline in ocean fishery stocks would
not be caused entirely by human activities.
(B) The best way to reduce the price of wild-caught
fish is to put a farmed variety of the same
species on the market.
(C) If fish farming does not continue to increase,
then it is unlikely that worldwide human protein
needs can be met.
(D) Most consumers do not perceive a difference in
taste between wild-caught and farmed varieties
of the same species of fish.
(E) The use of wild fish to meet the nutritional needs
of farmed fish could result in the overfishing of
worldwide fish stocks.
11. The views put forward in the passage conform most
closely to which one of the following principles
governing new methods of food production?
(A) They should be employed only if they do not
result in major changes in consumer demand for
foods produced using traditional methods.
(B) They should be employed if they are
economically more efficient than existing
methods and their use will not result in business
failures or loss of jobs.
(C) They should not be employed if they will
ultimately result in a net decrease in food of the
type produced.
(D) They should be employed if they promote
diversification in the types of foods available
for human consumption and help to bring about
environmental improvement.
(E) They should be employed only if they replace
other methods that have undesirable ecological
effects.
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12. The statements in the passage provide the most support
for the view that the author believes which one of the
following?
(A) Most farmed fish are carnivorous.
(B) Farmed and wild fish consume the same foods.
(C) Pollution is currently more damaging to wild fish
populations than is overfishing.
(D) Market forces can either encourage or discourage
overfishing of ocean fisheries.
(E) The market for wild-caught fish is likely to
remain a small one.
13. The information in the passage most strongly supports
which one of the following statements?
(A) Wild fish require different nutrients than farmed
fish do.
(B) It is more profitable to farm species such as
catfish, milkfish, and carp than to farm species
such as salmon.
(C) The farming of tilapia and channel catfish
produces as much environmental damage as the
farming of cod and haddock.
(D) A growing number of consumers are choosing
wild-caught fish of certain species in preference
to farmed fish.
(E) Noncarnivorous fish in the wild typically do
not consume more food than their farmed
counterparts do.
14. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree
with which one of the following statements regarding
pollution caused by fish farming?
(A) Such pollution is problematic primarily because
of the genetic mutations it would cause in wild
fish that live near fish farms.
(B) Such pollution contributes to coastal degradation
more than any other type of pollution.
(C) Such pollution is less likely to occur if fish
farming enterprises do not pursue intensive
production methods.
(D) Such pollution cannot be prevented by fish
farmers alone without the involvement of
government agencies.
(E) Such pollution is, however harmful, unlikely to
prevent fish farming from eventually relieving
the pressure on wild fishery stocks.
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PrepTest 87

Criminal courts frequently rely on accomplice
witnesses (witnesses who testify regarding the role
of an alleged co-conspirator in a crime) and jailhouse
informants (witnesses who provide testimony based
(5) on information obtained while incarcerated) for
prosecutorial information. Typically the testimony
provided by such cooperating witnesses includes
information garnered through the witnesses’
conversations with the accused, which can include a
(10) purported confession to the crime.
Information from a cooperating witness is often
provided in exchange for a reduced sentence or some
other incentive. This kind of inducement creates a
situation that is highly conducive to evidence
(15) fabrication on the part of the cooperating witness. In
fact, one recent study concluded that lying informants
are rarely prosecuted and therefore have much to gain
and little to lose by testifying falsely.
While courts have recognized the unreliable nature
(20) of evidence obtained through bartered testimony, they
have held that safeguards are in place to adequately
protect the accused against a conviction based on false
testimony. These safeguards allow effective cross-
examination of a cooperating witness and enable the
(25) jury to consider a witness’s motivations. However,
these safeguards do not always provide protection.
There are cases in which prosecutors merely imply
to cooperating witnesses that they will receive an
incentive in exchange for testimony. In such cases, the
(30) exchange between prosecution and witness does not
have to be disclosed to the jury.
In addition, psychological research on confession
testimony—confessions obtained by investigators
directly from the accused—reveal further problems
(35) with bartered testimony. This research indicates that
jurors give undue weight to confession evidence when
rendering guilt decisions. This effect is especially
notable in cases where jurors are aware that a defendant
has been offered an incentive in exchange for a
(40) confession. This is particularly relevant here because
if people have difficulty realizing the effect that an
incentive can have on a defendant’s behavior, they may
also fail to realize the effect that an incentive may have
on a cooperating witness’s behavior.
(45) A common psychological phenomenon may account
for jurors’ superficial examination of confession
evidence. Studies show that people tend to explain the
behavior of others in terms of internal dispositions or
attitudes as opposed to external, situational factors. In
(50) one study, regardless of whether confession evidence
was obtained via negative pressure (threats of worse
treatment and/or harsher punishment) or positive
pressure (promises of better treatment and/or leniency),
mock jurors viewed a confession as evidence that the
(55) defendant committed the crime because “only a guilty
person would confess to such a crime.” The same logic
can be applied to the testimony of cooperating.
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witnesses: jurors may presuppose that accomplice
witnesses and jailhouse informants offer their testimony
(60) as atonement rather than deducing that external factors
made it expedient to give the testimony.
15. Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main point of the passage?
(A) Evidence obtained through coercion, whether
that coercion results from positive pressure or
negative pressure, can never be regarded as
reliable.
(B) Numerous considerations suggest that the
courts’ reliance on the testimony of accomplice
witnesses and jailhouse informants may result in
convictions based on false testimony.
(C) Studies show that jurors give undue weight
to confession testimony, a fact that may be
explained by people’s general tendency to
ignore situational factors in explaining the
behavior of others.
(D) Traditional legal arguments offered in support
of permitting the testimony of accomplice
witnesses and jailhouse informants are based on
a set of assumptions that numerous studies cast
doubt on.
(E) There is substantial evidence to indicate that the
testimony of accomplice witnesses and jailhouse
informants is heavily influenced by incentives
offered by the prosecution.
16. Which one of the following questions is explicitly
addressed in the passage?
(A) Do jurors give the same weight to confession
evidence provided by a cooperating witness as
they do to confession evidence provided directly
by the defendant?
(B) To what extent are prosecutors and investigators
limited in their ability to offer incentives to
accomplice witnesses and jailhouse informants
in exchange for testimony?
(C) Is the bartered testimony of an accomplice
witness any more or less reliable than the
bartered testimony of a jailhouse informant?
(D) How common is the prosecution of cooperating
witnesses who knowingly provide false
testimony?
(E) To what extent do jurors vary in their ability to
discern when a witness is lying?
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PrepTest 87
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17. The author would be most likely to agree with which one
of the following statements about the courts’ reliance on
the testimony of cooperating witnesses?
(A) It encourages unacceptably harsh treatment of
prisoners by investigators and prison officials.
(B) It fails to recognize that cooperating witnesses
may fear retaliation from defendants they testify
against.
(C) It frequently places an unfair burden on jurors.
(D) It is justified only in cases in which the
prosecution has little other evidence against a
defendant.
(E) It likely leads to some convicted criminals’
receiving sentence reductions that are
unwarranted.
20. The author mentions the research on confession
testimony (fourth paragraph) primarily in order to
(A) reveal a potential problem for the author’s
analysis
(B) make an unfavorable comparison to a study cited
earlier in the passage
(C) justify a conclusion regarding jurors’ treatment of
evidence provided by cooperating witnesses
(D) question the relevance of jury decision-making
processes to the issue of the courts’ reliance on
the testimony of cooperating witnesses
(E) contrast the way in which jurors evaluate
evidence provided by a defendant with the
way jurors evaluate evidence provided by a
cooperating witness

18. According to the third paragraph, current safeguards may 21. Which one of the following most accurately describes
be inadequate to protect a defendant from a cooperating how the final paragraph functions in the passage?
witness’s fabricated testimony because
(A) It attempts to explain a phenomenon discussed in
(A) current safeguards are designed to protect the the previous paragraph.
rights of witnesses rather than the rights of (B) It attempts to call into question a claim made in
defendants the previous paragraph.
(B) current safeguards fail to recognize the unreliable (C) It summarizes the problems discussed in the
nature of testimony that is obtained via coercion previous two paragraphs.
(C) juries may not be made aware that a cooperating (D) It outlines potential solutions to the problems
witness expects to receive an incentive from the discussed in the previous four paragraphs.
prosecution in exchange for testimony (E) It expands upon a proposal made in the first
(D) jurors tend to view the testimony of cooperating paragraph.
witnesses as more reliable than the testimony of
defendants
(E) prosecutors are typically not penalized for
offering incentives to cooperating witnesses in
exchange for testimony GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

19. In using the phrase “jurors’ superficial examination

of confession evidence” {first sentence of the final
paragraph), the author most likely means to refer to
jurors’
(A) failure to properly take into account the factors
that may lead an individual to give confession
evidence
(B) failure to distinguish between confession
evidence offered by a defendant and confession
evidence offered by a cooperating witness
(C) lack of expertise necessary to accurately
evaluate confession evidence
(D) unwillingness to assess the veracity of a witness
who offers confession evidence
(E) tendency to disregard confession evidence when
it conflicts with other evidence presented at trial

PrepTest 87

Passage A is adapted from a book by a music historian,
and passage B from an anthropology journal.
Passage A
Many commentators have described the blues
musician of the United States as an extension of the
griot of West Africa, yet one could hardly find two
performers with less in common from a sociological
(5) perspective. Griots were the historians of their
communities, representatives of time-honored
traditions, the preservers of lore and cultural identity.
They took these traditions and transformed them into
song, and as a result often enjoyed great status in their
(10) communities. In societies that lacked libraries and
museums, official documents and archives, the griot’s
song filled many of the roles that these institutions
serve in other societies.
The blues musician, in contrast, honed a music
(15) of personal expression, often reflecting a lack of
connection to the broader streams of society, evoking
feelings of alienation and anomie. Slavery caused this
terrible disjunction. Slavery destroyed in large part the
(20) historical continuities that made the griot’s art possible.
Blues music was, in many ways, a response to this
deprivation.
And here we encounter the fundamental tragedy
of the blues and one of the sources of its unparalleled
(25) symbolic power. For the music sings of small,
everyday details of individual lives. But behind this
façade always sits a larger reality, invariably unspoken,
but no less present for this silence. Separated from the
social institutions that gave life its meaning and
(30) resonance within their traditional societies, African
Americans struggled to find substitutes for what
was lost within the smaller cosmos of their personal
relationships and daily life. Blues music reflected this
dynamic, gave it powerful poetic expression.
(35) From this perspective, the perennial themes of blues
music—heartache and hardships—capture in a personal
dimension the larger social truth.
Passage B
Fifteenth-century Portuguese explorers observed a
stratified social hierarchy in the Wolof culture of
(40) Senegal, with a high-status noble sector (géer) and
low-status caste groups (ñeeño). Wolof elites of the day
ranked ñeeño in six subcastes, the lowest of which was
griot.
Griots alone specialized in the spoken word.
(45) Raising one’s voice in public was considered
inappropriate for socially prominent people, but griots,
considered unmarriageable outside their caste, shouted
and sang their patrons’ praises to crowds of people,
often with a drum, and always with great eloquence.
(50) At community gatherings, griots accompanied
their patrons, with whom they had usually inherited
a close relationship through generations of service.
Reciting vivid histories about the brave deeds of their
patrons’ family ancestors and singing praises about
(55) their exemplary work and daily conduct, griots used
-7-
their music to sway public opinion in favor of their
patrons. Their songs invoked specific public values and
described their patrons’ adherence to them, making the
griot a blend of community historian, storyteller,
(60) spokesperson, and ultimately, guardian of norms
and culture. Despite the griots’ public loudness,
these performances and the prestige they brought
their patrons required griots to be sensitive to Wolof
community values and conceptions of correct
(65) social conduct.
22. Which one of the following is a principal purpose of
each passage?
(A) to explain how a musical tradition can replace
official institutions
(B) to reveal the paradoxical nature of the
relationship between a culture’s values and the
artists who help perpetuate those values
(C) to compare two closely related musical traditions
(D) to explore the relationship between the social
standing of a group of musicians and the music
they produce
(E) to criticize a characterization of a particular
culture
23. Based on the information in passage A about blues and
the information in passage B about the music of Wolof
griots, which one of the following can most reasonably
be inferred?
(A) Both types of music were drawn from feelings of
alienation within a social structure.
(B) Each type of music was created in response to a
cultural loss.
(C) Both types of music served to preserve the
traditions of their societies.
(D) Both types of music were derived from earlier
African musical traditions.
(E) Each type of music is characterized by
subject matter that is typically drawn from a
circumscribed set of themes.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
PrepTest 87
 -8-

24. The attitude displayed in passage A toward blues
musicians and the attitude displayed in passage B toward
griots can both be characterized as
(A) admiration for the musicians’ ability to represent
personal struggle symbolically
(B) unease about the musicians’ role in preserving a
social structure
(C) envy of the musicians’ artistic contributions
(D) approval of the musicians’ role as community
historians
(E) respect for the musicians’ artistry
25. Passage B indicates that which one of the following
claims made in passage A about griots was not true of
griots in fifteenth-century Wolof culture?
(A) They were representatives of time-honored
traditions.
(B) They preserved the cultural identity of their
societies.
(C) They often enjoyed great status in their
communities.
(D) They served a function analogous to that served
by libraries in other societies.
(E) Their art was made possible by the communal
values of their societies.
27. A difference in the way in which the two passages use the
term “griot” is that
(A) passage A uses the term to refer to both musicians
and other performers whereas passage B uses
the term to refer only to musicians
(B) passage A uses the term only to refer to a type of
musician whereas passage B also uses the term
to refer to a social class
(C) passage A uses the term to refer to both
contemporary and historical musicians whereas
passage B uses the term to refer only to
historical musicians
(D) passage B uses the term to refer to musicians who
perform only at community gatherings whereas
passage A uses the term to refer to musicians
who also perform for small groups
(E) passage B uses the term to refer only to
musicians employed by nobles whereas passage
A uses the term to refer to musicians who have a
variety of employment arrangements

26. Passage B suggests that which one of the following was

true of fifteenth-century Wolof society?
(A) The society’s sense of shared communal values
was beginning to unravel.
(B) Public shouting and loud singing were acceptable
only among lower social classes.
(C) People who served as guardians of societal norms
and culture generally enjoyed high social status.
(D) Powerful nobles relied on numerous methods to
preserve their social status.
(E) Only members of the highest social class had a
conception of correct social conduct.

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

PrepTest 87

SECTION II
Time—35 minutes
26 Questions
Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;
that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.
1. In situations where it is difficult to make informed 2.
decisions about products, consumers should be
provided with the relevant information. The difficulty of
determining whether a food product contained nutritious
ingredients was resolved by requiring food manufacturers
to print nutritional information on their products’
packaging. Similarly, many consumers are interested in
conserving energy, and since there is no easy way for
consumers to determine how much energy was required
to manufacture a product, _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes the
argument?
(A) consumers who are informed of the amount of
energy used to produce a product should choose
energy efficient products
(B) manufacturers should use less energy while
producing products
(C) providing consumers with information about
the energy used to produce a product would
reduce the impact of fossil fuels on our lives and
economy
(D) consumers should demand products that require 3.
less energy to produce
(E) manufacturers should be required to label their
products with information about the amount of
energy used to produce those products
-9-
Biologist: Some small animals will instinctively go limp,
“playing dead” when caught by a predator. But it
is hard to see how playing dead can have survival
value in this situation. The predator means to eat
the animal just the same, whether or not it plays
dead.
Which one of the following, if true, would most help to
resolve the apparent paradox described by the biologist?
(A) Many small animal species will play dead
when surprised by a loud noise or unexpected
movement.
(B) Predators often leave their food in a hiding place
rather than eating it immediately.
(C) A small animal is more likely to play dead when
caught by a predator if the predator species is
common in the area.
(D) Most predators prey upon a variety of species,
not all of which play dead when caught.
(E) Many small animal species that do not play dead
are capable of fighting off predators.
Food columnist: Only 2 percent of imported seafood is
subjected to health safety inspections. So if you
want to increase the likelihood that the seafood
you buy will be safe to eat, you should buy only
domestic seafood.
The answer to which one of the following questions
would most help in evaluating the food columnist’s
argument?
(A) Do the health safety inspections detect all health
risks present in the seafood that is inspected?
(B) What kinds of health risks can seafood pose?
(C) What percentage of imported food other
than seafood is subjected to health safety
inspections?
(D) What percentage of domestic food other
than seafood is subjected to health safety
inspections?
(E) What percentage of domestic seafood is subjected
to health safety inspections?
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4. Dog owner: In general, large dogs need less intensive
exercise than smaller dogs to stay fit. A dog that
is not exercised at the level of intensity it needs
is more apt to be troublesome than one that is. So
for any apartment dweller who has limited time
to give a dog exercise but who wants to have a
dog, a large dog is less likely to be troublesome
than a small one.
Which one of the following is an assumption the dog
owner’s argument requires?
(A) An apartment dweller who has limited time to
exercise a dog is unlikely to want to own a dog.
(B) Providing a dog with more intensive exercise
requires more time than providing a dog with
less intensive exercise.
(C) At least some apartment dwellers who have
limited time to exercise a dog should not own a
dog.
(D) Of dogs owned by apartment dwellers, those
that live in large apartments are less likely to
be troublesome than those that live in small
apartments.
(E) In general, the more often a dog gets exercise, the
more likely it is that the dog will stay fit.
5. One theory concerning the importance of vitamin C in
the human diet holds that vitamin C plays a crucial role
in the production and maintenance of the body’s supply
of collagen, an important protein occurring almost
exclusively in connective tissue and bones. For this
reason, some doctors believe that vitamin C can be useful
in treating the symptoms of some common illnesses.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
by the information above?
(A) Some doctors believe that there are illnesses that
affect the state of connective tissue or bones.
(B) Some doctors believe that vitamin C is the only
substance that produces and maintains collagen.
(C) Some doctors believe that strengthening
connective tissue and bones increases the body’s
ability to use certain vitamins.
(D) Some doctors believe that use of vitamin C is the
most effective treatment for certain common
illnesses.
(E) Some doctors believe that any illness that can be
ameliorated with vitamin C causes deterioration
of connective tissue and bones.
- 10 -
6. Principle: If someone makes an error, it is unethical for
a coworker to use that error to his or her own
advantage.
Application: Because Mark used his coworker Rashmi’s
clients’ e-mail addresses to advance his own
career, his action was unethical.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to justify
the above application of the principle?
(A) Mark had the e-mail addresses of Rashmi’s
clients only because he had copied them from
Rashmi’s directory while she was at lunch.
(B) A coworker of Rashmi and Mark had access to
Rashmi’s clients’ e-mail addresses and shared
them with Mark.
(C) Rashmi offered to help Mark develop a client
base by sharing her own clients’ e-mail
addresses with him.
(D) Mark had access to Rashmi’s clients’ e-mail
addresses only because she unintentionally left
them visible in an e-mail that she sent to both
Mark and her clients.
(E) Mark happened upon a list of many of the e-mail
addresses of Rashmi’s clients while conducting
market research.
7. Kevin: My barber shop sells an herbal supplement that,
according to my barber, helps prevent baldness
because it contains an enzyme that blocks the
formation of a chemical compound that causes
people to lose hair.
Sabine: That’s simply not true. The fact is, your barber
makes money by convincing people to buy that
product.
Sabine’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the
grounds that it
(A) discounts scientifically plausible evidence merely
because the person offering it is not a scientist
(B) takes for granted that a product will be harmful
if it is sold on the basis of an unsubstantiated
claim
(C) rejects an explanation without proposing an
alternative explanation
(D) draws a conclusion about someone’s motives for
making a particular claim without providing
evidence that any such claim was actually made
(E) rejects a claim merely because the person making
the claim stands to benefit by doing so
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8. Analyst: When Johnson attacked his opponent by quoting
her out of context, his campaign defended this attack
by claiming that the quote was even more politically
damaging to her in context. But those who run his
campaign clearly do not believe this. They have
since had plenty of chances to refer to the quote in its
proper context but continue to quote it out of context.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
strongly supports the analyst’s reasoning above?
(A) In criticizing an opponent, political campaigns will
pursue the line of attack they believe to be most
politically damaging.
(B) In criticizing an opponent, political campaigns do
not use techniques that they would find
objectionable if used against their candidate.
(C) In criticizing an opponent, political campaigns are
expected by voters to make sure that the quotes to
which these campaigns refer are not taken out of
context.
(D) In criticizing an opponent, political campaigns will
not be strongly criticized as long as the words
attributed to their opponent were actually said by
their opponent.
(E) In criticizing an opponent, political campaigns will
avoid using techniques that leave their candidate
open to effective counterattacks.
9. Ellen: A group of economists and ecologists recently
estimated the economic value of Earth’s biosphere’s
“essential services,” such as climate regulation, food,
and water supplies, at $33 trillion annually.
We should therefore make protection of the
biosphere a high priority.
Santiago: I’m uncomfortable with the idea of calculating the
biosphere’s dollar value in order to justify protecting
it. Such an approach implies that the biosphere’s
most important value lies in the “services” it
provides us.
On the basis of their dialogue, it can most reasonably be
concluded that Ellen and Santiago disagree over the truth
of which one of the following statements?
(A) Estimating the dollar value of the biosphere’s
essential services is an appropriate way of providing
a rationale for making protection of the biosphere
a high priority.
(B) The biosphere’s most important value lies in
something other than the services it provides to
human beings.
(C) Calculating the dollar value of the biosphere’s
essential services is the most effective way to
ensure that protecting the biosphere is treated as a
matter of urgency.
(D) The idea that the dollar value of the biosphere’s
essential services can be accurately calculated is
unrealistic.
(E) Calculating the dollar value of the biosphere’s
essential services implies that the biosphere’s most
important value lies in the services it provides
to human beings.
- 11 -
10. Researchers have found that most people’s bodies
make an enzyme, CYP2A6, that plays a crucial role in
eliminating nicotine, the addictive drug in cigarettes,
from the body. Smokers whose bodies make the most
common form of this enzyme tend to smoke more than
those whose bodies make some other form of it. Why?
Well, the faster nicotine is eliminated from one’s body,
the sooner one will crave another cigarette, and _______.
Which one of the following, if true, most effectively
completes the explanation above?
(A) the most common form of CYP2A6 is the one
that most rapidly eliminates nicotine from the
body
(B) most people whose bodies make the rarest form
of CYP2A6 do not smoke at all
(C) if one’s body does not make CYP2A6, nicotine
will still be eliminated, although very slowly
(D) the greater the quantity of CYP2A6 that
one’s body makes, the faster nicotine will be
eliminated
(E) helping to eliminate nicotine is not the only
function that CYP2A6 serves
11. Unlike other mechanical devices, the clock did not evolve
from the simple to the complex. The earliest clocks were
also the most complicated. This is because early clocks
were used primarily to predict astronomical phenomena,
though the mechanisms they used for this purpose
incidentally enabled one to keep track of time. Gradually
the timekeeping functions became more important and
the astronomical ones diminished.
Which one of the following is most strongly supported
by the information above?
(A) Present-day clocks are of no use in the prediction
of astronomical phenomena.
(B) The mechanisms used to predict astronomical
phenomena in at least some clocks were more
complicated than most more recent mechanisms
used for this function.
(C) Clocks used only for keeping time do not differ
appreciably in their mechanical complexity.
(D) The mechanisms that the earliest clocks used
to predict astronomical phenomena were more
complicated than the mechanisms used for
timekeeping functions in some more recent
clocks.
(E) Interest in predicting astronomical phenomena
has declined steadily since the invention of the
first mechanical clocks.
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12. Regina: The additional revenue obtained from leasing
government-owned toll bridges to private
investors will be allocated to the transportation
budget, so the leases will not be used to reduce
shortfalls in other budget areas.
Amal: But allocating new revenue to transportation
will free up existing transportation funds for
use in other areas. Thus, the new revenue will
nonetheless help reduce budget shortfalls in other
areas.
Regina and Amal disagree over whether
(A) there will be shortfalls in budget areas other than
transportation
(B) the amount of money currently allocated to
transportation is adequate
(C) new revenue from leasing government-owned toll
bridges should be allocated to transportation
(D) new revenue allocated to transportation will
result in existing transportation funds being
reallocated to other areas
(E) leasing government-owned toll bridges to private
investors will be financially beneficial to the
government
13. The use of ordinary dictionaries in interpreting the law is
justified in the same way that chemists use the periodic
table. The periodic table is a convenient source of
agreed-upon background information that can be usefully
applied to the problem on which a chemist is working.
In the same way, ordinary dictionaries can be useful to a
legal interpreter in resolving terminological issues.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) The periodic table lists the properties of the
elements, and presents them in a pattern
to represent relations between them, while
an ordinary dictionary mostly just gives an
alphabetical ordering to the words it defines.
(B) There is wide agreement about the data on the
periodic table, while disagreements between the
definitions in different ordinary dictionaries are
likely to be relevant to legal interpretation.
(C) The use of a periodic table as a reference source
actually came much later in history than the use
of ordinary dictionaries to describe the meanings
of words.
(D) The periodic table contains only a relatively
small amount of information that could, in
theory, be memorized, while the information in
an ordinary dictionary is likely to be too large
for any one person to know all at once.
(E) The periodic table is used primarily by
chemists, while ordinary dictionaries are not
used primarily by legal scholars and legal
interpreters.
- 12 -
14. Biologists are mistaken in thinking that the fossil
record provides direct evidence of the course of human
evolution. Fossils cannot be interpreted objectively:
the physical characteristics by which they are classified
invariably reflect the models the paleontologists wish to
test. For example, classifying a pelvis as human because
it supported an upright posture requires taking for granted
that bipedalism distinguished early hominids from apes.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the overall conclusion of the argument?
(A) No early apes had pelvises that would support an
upright posture.
(B) The claims made by evolutionary theorists cannot
be objectively tested.
(C) The fossil remains of some early hominids are
difficult to distinguish from those of apes.
(D) The fossil record does not directly reveal the
course of human evolution.
(E) Paleontologists’ classifications of fossils are
always influenced by the theories that these
scientists are testing.
15. The better we understand the behavior and ecological
niche of an endangered species, the better chance we
have of saving it. And the more individuals of a species
we study, the better we understand it.
Therefore, _______.
Which one of the following most reasonably completes
the argument?
(A) many endangered species will become extinct
before we have the knowledge that is necessary
to save them
(B) continued reduction of wildlife habitat will make
the preservation of many endangered species
impossible
(C) knowledge that contributes to saving endangered
species becomes harder to get as species become
more endangered
(D) to save endangered species it is more important
to acquire the right kind of knowledge than to
take action
(E) the impact of human study of endangered species
is sometimes more harmful than beneficial
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16. Art may make the world more beautiful, but one should 18. Some killer whales eat fish exclusively, but others also
choose a career in some profession other than art. eat seals. Different groups of killer whales “chatter” in
Whether and how much artists get paid is determined by distinct dialects, and the dialects of seal-eating killer
subjective evaluations by viewers or audiences of their whales are recognizably different from those of killer
work. It is unacceptable for one’s pay to be determined whales that do not eat seals. Harbor seals use their ability
by subjective evaluations of one’s work. to distinguish between different killer-whale dialects
to avoid seal-eating killer whales. Marine biologists
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to
hypothesize that young harbor seals start with an aversion
criticism on the grounds that the argument
to all killer whales but then learn to ignore those that do
(A) takes for granted that people should choose not eat seals.
careers solely on the basis of how much they
Which one of the following, if true, provides the
pay
strongest support for the biologists’ hypothesis?
(B) takes for granted that a work of art will be
considered beautiful either by everyone or by no (A) Killer whales that eat seals also eat other marine
one mammals that are similar in size to seals.
(C) overlooks the possibility that one’s pay in (B) Unlike harbor seals, which can hear killer-whale
any profession involves a certain degree of chatter even at great distances, most fish cannot
subjective evaluation hear that chatter, even close at hand.
(D) overlooks the possibility that some artists are (C) When mature harbor seals first listen to the
paid very well recorded chatter of killer whales that eat only
(E) treats a criterion that must be satisfied in order for fish but whose dialect is unfamiliar, the seals
a career choice to be a good one as a criterion rapidly swim away from the sound.
that will ensure that a career choice is a good (D) Young harbor seals show no natural aversion to
one any seal predators other than killer whales.
(E) If a fish-eating killer whale mistakenly attacks
17. Critic: Vampires have traditionally been symbols of a harbor seal, that seal, if it survives, will
pure evil. Recently there has been a trend in subsequently avoid all killer whales that chatter
entertainment of humanizing vampires. This is in the attacker’s dialect, but other harbor seals
unfortunate. The overall trend in entertainment will not.
toward moral complexity is a good thing. But evil
exists in the world, and the vampire myth is one
of the most powerful representations of that.
The claim that the overall trend in entertainment toward
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
moral complexity is a good thing plays which one of the
following roles in the critic’s argument?
(A) It states a principle used to support the conclusion
of the argument.
(B) It places limits on how broadly the conclusion of
the argument should be generalized.
(C) It justifies the need for the argument’s being
given.
(D) It provides a hypothesis that is rejected in the
conclusion of the argument.
(E) It is the conclusion of the argument.

PrepTest 87

19. Trainer: An athlete developed lower back pain after
a strenuous athletic competition. For several
days, she tried to overcome the pain by daily
stretching, but the pain continued. Then, on the
advice of a friend, she used a heating pad. Within
a few days the pain was gone. This shows that the
use of heating pads is generally more effective at
relieving lower back pain than stretching is.
The trainer’s argument is vulnerable to criticism on each
of the following grounds EXCEPT:
(A) It fails to consider that even if the use of heating
pads is more effective at relieving lower back
pain than stretching is, it may be much less
effective at helping to heal the underlying injury
responsible for the pain.
(B) It fails to consider the fact that lower back pain
resulting from athletic competitions often
disappears after several days regardless of any
attempts to relieve it.
(C) It fails to consider that the athlete’s experience
regarding the effectiveness of different methods
of relieving lower back pain may not have been
representative of that of the general population.
(D) It overlooks the possibility that the effectiveness
of different methods of relieving lower back
pain may vary substantially depending on the
underlying cause of the lower back pain.
(E) It overlooks the possibility that there might be
ways of stretching that are much more effective
at relieving lower back pain than were the ways
the athlete tried.
- 14 -
20. Some literary theorists argue that since literary works
are expressions of ideology, it is naive to view them as
embodying a distinct aesthetic value to a greater or lesser
degree. But these theorists evaluate particular literary
works as being ideological expressions that are more or
less interesting and successful. Therefore, these theorists
succumb to the view they wish to undermine.
The claim that the literary theorists evaluate particular
literary works as being ideological expressions that are
more or less interesting and successful plays which one
of the following roles in the argument?
(A) It is presented as evidence for the conclusion that
it is naive to view literary works as embodying
a distinct aesthetic value to a greater or lesser
degree.
(B) It is presented as evidence against the claim that
it is naive to view literary works as embodying
a distinct aesthetic value to a greater or lesser
degree.
(C) It is a conclusion for which the claim that it is
naive to maintain that literary works embody
a distinct aesthetic value to a greater or lesser
degree is offered as evidence.
(D) It is presented as evidence for the conclusion that
the literary theorists succumb to the view they
wish to undermine.
(E) It is presented as evidence against the claim that
literary works are expressions of ideology.
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21. City official: Landowners must clear the snow from the
sidewalks along the edge of their property by 24
hours after the end of a snowstorm. The city has
the right to clear any sidewalk that is still covered
more than 24 hours after a snowstorm’s end, and
whenever it does so, it will bill the landowner
for the service. All landowners whose sidewalks
have not been cleared within 48 hours of the
end of a snowstorm will receive citations, which
always result in fines unless the landowners can
demonstrate extenuating circumstances.
If all of the official’s statements are true, which one of
the following must be true?
(A) If the city clears a sidewalk of snow 50 hours
after the end of a snowstorm, the owner will be
billed for the service and will receive a citation.
(B) All landowners who fail to clear their sidewalks
by 24 hours after the end of a snowstorm will be
billed by the city for snow removal.
(C) All sidewalks in the city will be cleared of snow
within 50 hours of the end of a snowstorm.
(D) Nearly all landowners who do not clear their
sidewalks within 48 hours after the end of a
snowstorm will be fined.
(E) Landowners who can demonstrate extenuating
circumstances will not be billed by the city for
snow removal service.
22. Critic: Almost all of the paintings from our city’s art
movement share two characteristics: bold
brushwork and a sharp contrast of light and
shadow. The only ones that do not share these
characteristics are abstract paintings, which—
because they are nonrepresentational—do not
depict light or shadow. However, the most
famous painting from our city—Blue Irises—
cannot be considered part of the city’s art
movement. For while this painting displays bold
brushwork, it does not exhibit a sharp contrast of
light and shadow.
Which one of the following is an assumption required by
the critic’s argument?
(A) In spite of its title, Blue Irises is
nonrepresentational.
(B) Blue Irises does not depict any shadows at all.
(C) Blue Irises is not an abstract painting.
(D) All of the nonrepresentational paintings ever
produced in the critic’s city display bold
brushwork.
(E) All of the paintings from the critic’s city with
a sharp contrast of light and shadow emerged
from the city’s art movement.
- 15 -
23. Critic: Journalists should have reasonable knowledge
of statistics. If not, they can make errors that
misinform the public. For example, based on a
clearly flawed interpretation of polling data, one
journalist erroneously reported that a certain
candidate would win an election.
The pattern of reasoning in the critic’s argument is most
similar to that in which one of the following arguments?
(A) Before being issued a driver’s license, an
applicant should demonstrate an understanding
of the environmental effects of driving a fossil
fuel-powered car and be aware of the steps
that drivers can take to lessen that impact.
Otherwise, there will be an unlimited increase in
the amount of carbon dioxide released into the
atmosphere.
(B) All elementary schools should have recess time.
Otherwise, children can incur health risks due
to insufficient exercise. As a case in point, in
a school that had eliminated recess in favor of
increased academic hours, the students were
less physically fit than before the elimination of
recess.
(C) International travelers should have to be
processed through border security at each
frontier they cross. The inconvenience this
might cause is something travelers must tolerate.
Otherwise, safety would be sacrificed for mere
convenience.
(D) All public officials should study ethics prior to or
while holding their official position. The study
of ethics would enable officials to anticipate the
moral pitfalls that characterize public service as
well as to withstand the tendency to use public
service for private gain.
(E) Toy manufacturers should be required to
record the place and date a toy was made on
the toy itself. Otherwise, if the information is
recorded on the package only, the purchaser
can easily discard the package, thus losing this
information, which would make it impossible to
respond to manufacturer recalls.
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 - 16 -

24. Editorialist: Landis, one of this city’s top elected officials, 26. People should patronize businesses that meet high ethical
recently spent $10,000 to redecorate his office. standards, and the news media should help them to
Many people believe that if Landis used city patronize those businesses. Therefore, when a business
funds, then he misused public money, thereby performs a notably ethical action, the news media should
violating his official duties. But Landis is guilty publicize that fact, for hearing of a business’s ethical
of such violation regardless of the money’s conduct is often enough to motivate people to patronize
source. Spending $10,000 so frivolously is that business.
clearly immoral when so many people in our city
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
live in poverty.
weakens the argument?
The editorialist’s conclusion follows logically if which
(A) Some businesses that have high ethical standards
one of the following is assumed?
do not actually meet those standards.
(A) The money Landis used was not his own money. (B) Meeting high ethical standards is primarily a
(B) It is immoral to spend money on luxury items matter of refraining from unethical behavior.
when there are people who lack basic necessities. (C) It is relatively easy for a business to meet its
(C) Landis knew about or participated in the decision ethical standards if it does not set them very
to redecorate his office. high.
(D) Every public official has an official duty never to (D) The news media is more likely to publicize
perform immoral actions. a business’s unethical conduct than it is to
(E) Had Landis not spent the money redecorating the publicize a business’s ethical conduct.
office, it would have been used to help alleviate (E) Some businesses that meet high ethical standards
poverty in the city. would not do so if they could not remain
profitable while meeting those standards.
25. Katelin says that we will be hit by a major snowstorm
tomorrow. So she probably believes that tomorrow’s
antique car show will be canceled, for it will certainly not
be held if we are hit by a major snowstorm.
The questionable pattern or reasoning in the argument
above is most clearly parallel to that in which one of the
following?
(A) Jorge says that given today’s pollution levels,
many species of migratory birds will become
extinct. Thus, he probably believes that the
extinctions will occur, since it is widely known
that pollution might not be reduced at all.
(B) Bo says that the soil in his backyard is poorly
drained, and since raspberry bushes will not
grow well in soil that is poorly drained, Bo
probably believes that raspberry bushes will not
grow well in his backyard.
(C) Wanda says that no form of coercive force is ever
justified. Thus, since most people who say this
believe that government should be abolished,
Wanda probably believes that government
should be abolished.
(D) My chemistry professor says that most chemists
are good at math. So, my chemistry professor
might believe that most chemists are good at
chess, since most people who are good at math
are also good at chess.
(E) Dr. Bowder says that eating garlic increases one’s
alertness. So, since she knows that whatever
improves one’s circulation increases one’s
alertness, Dr. Bowder probably believes that
eating garlic increases one’s circulation.
S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

PrepTest 87
 - 17 -

SECTION III
Time—35 minutes
26 Questions

Directions: Each question in this section is based on the reasoning presented in a brief passage. In answering the questions, you
should not make assumptions that are by commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. For
some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer;
that is, choose the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

1. Minh: This film director’s newest works are very
predictable. He’s pillaging his own catalog, but
with diminishing returns. Each film is simply a
repetition of his earlier ones.
Natalie: You mistake the films’ startling sameness for
evidence of a lack of creativity. It would be more
accurate to say that he ultimately creates strong
new works from the same core elements, and
these works are thus original.
The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that Minh
and Natalie agree on the truth of which one of the
following statements about the director’s newest works?
(A) They share many features with his earlier films.
(B) They constitute evidence that he is pillaging his
own catalog.
(C) They are nothing more than repetitions of the
director’s earlier films.
(D) They are less original than his earlier films.
(E) They provide evidence of the director’s creativity.
2. Campaign manager: In campaign speeches, our candidate
has been reluctant to reveal all the unpleasant
consequences of the policies he endorses, but
this lapse can be justified. There is no way to get
elected while being fully candid. And it is vitally
important that our candidate get a chance to help
implement a political agenda that is very positive.
Which one of the following principles, if valid, most
helps to justify the reasoning in the campaign manager’s
argument?
(A) Ethically questionable acts can sometimes be
justified by their good consequences.
(B) It is better to fail while behaving ethically than to
succeed by resorting to unethical measures.
(C) Legitimate ends obtained through illegitimate
means become illegitimate.
(D) It is possible to accomplish one’s agenda even if
one is not trusted.
(E) Voters can best be trusted to make good decisions
when they are fully informed.
3. Columnist: Although it is our civic duty to protect the
population against hazards to public health, we
should not reroute high-tension power lines away
from heavily populated areas. This is because our
limited resources should be devoted to protecting
the population only against well-substantiated
threats to public health.
The conclusion of the columnist’s argument can be
properly drawn if which one of the following is
assumed?
(A) Public health would be damaged by the loss of
electric power.
(B) Proponents of expensive safety measures with
respect to high-tension power lines ignore
economic realities.
(C) Scientific evidence exists for causal links
between various modern practices and threats to
public health.
(D) No investigation of the effects of high-tension
power lines has established any health threat to
people.
(E) Rerouting high-tension power lines away from
heavily populated areas would hinder our ability
to study the effects of power lines on people.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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4. The coat patterns of large cat species correspond to the
habitats in which those species live and hunt. Species
with spotted coats are at home in trees and dappled
forests, while species living in the open plains, such as
lions, have plain coats. The only anomaly is the cheetah,
a spotted cat that lives in the open savannah.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to
explain the anomaly described above?
(A) Unlike all other large cat species, cheetahs’
hunting strategy does not rely on stealth but
instead relies purely on speed.
(B) Of all the large cat species, cheetahs most often
have their prey stolen from them by larger
predators.
(C) Because they have wide paws with
semiretractable claws, cheetahs are not able to
climb upright trees.
(D) Unlike lions, cheetahs are typically solitary
hunters.
(E) Unlike all other large cat species, cheetahs are
unable to roar.
5. As the current information explosion forces the print
media, television, and the Internet to compete for public
attention and for advertiser and subscriber dollars,
journalistic standards are lowered. Consequently, we
are increasingly bombarded with inaccurate and trivial
information.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion of the argument?
(A) The drawbacks of the information explosion now
outweigh its benefits.
(B) People are more and more subjected to
insignificant and unreliable information.
(C) Journalistic standards have fallen in recent years.
(D) One result of the current information explosion
is fierce competition among the print media,
television, and the Internet for both money and
public attention.
(E) If journalists returned to earlier journalistic
standards, the significance and reliability of
news stories would increase.
- 18 -
6. The best way to increase the blood supply in the city of
Pulaski is to encourage more donations by people who
are regular blood donors. A study conducted in two other
cities—Moorestown and Fredricksburg—indicates that
it is difficult and expensive to attract first-time blood
donors, and that many sporadic donors are reluctant
to give more often. But officials in those cities had
considerable success convincing many of their cities’
regular donors to increase their donation frequency.
Which one of the following, if true, would do most to
undermine the conclusion of the argument above?
(A) Increasing blood donation by regular donors
in Moorestown and Fredricksburg produced a
significant increase in the blood supply in those
cities.
(B) The pool of potential blood donors in
Moorestown and Fredricksburg contained
proportionally fewer frequent blood donors than
does the pool of potential donors in the city of
Pulaski.
(C) A follow-up study in Moorestown and
Fredricksburg showed that long-term frequency
of blood donation among regular donors
remained higher after the promotional campaign
than it had been before the campaign.
(D) In the city of Pulaski, the number of sporadic
blood donors is significantly greater than the
number of regular blood donors.
(E) Almost all of the regular blood donors in the city
of Pulaski are already giving blood as frequently
as is medically safe.
7. Advertisement: Honey Oat Puffs cereal is made with
whole-grain oats. Health experts agree that
whole-grain oats are among the most healthful
foods, far more healthful than most of the foods
in a typical diet. So most people would have
more healthful diets if they ate Honey Oat Puffs
for breakfast.
The reasoning in the advertisement’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the argument
(A) infers that a food will have a certain property
simply because one of the food’s ingredients has
that property
(B) treats a property that is sufficient to make a food
healthful as a property that a food must have in
order to be healthful
(C) confuses two distinct meanings of the word
“healthful”
(D) concludes that a food contributes to health simply
because that food tends to be part of the diets of
healthy people
(E) contains a premise that presupposes the truth of
the conclusion
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8. Astronomer: Conditions in our solar system have
probably favored the emergence of life more than
conditions in most other solar systems of similar
age. Any conceivable form of life depends on
the presence of adequate amounts of chemical
elements heavier than hydrogen and helium, and
our sun has an unusually high abundance of these
heavier elements for its age.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the astronomer’s argument by the
claim that any conceivable form of life depends on
chemical elements heavier than hydrogen and helium?
(A) It is a statement for which no evidence is
provided and that is part of the evidence offered
for the argument’s only conclusion.
(B) It is a statement for which no evidence is
provided and that is offered as support for
another statement that in turn is offered as
support for the conclusion of the argument as a
whole.
(C) It is a statement for which some evidence is
provided and that itself is offered as support for
the conclusion of the argument as a whole.
(D) It is the conclusion of the argument as a whole
and is supported by another statement for which
support is offered.
(E) It is one of two conclusions in the argument,
neither of which is offered as support for the
other.
10. Giant ground sloths began disappearing from the
Americas about 10,000 years ago, around the time that
the last ice age ended, and are now extinct worldwide.
Scientists had thought that these sloths failed to adapt
to climate changes, but they are now coming to believe
that it was the arrival of human beings shortly before
that ice age ended that was responsible for the sloths’
disappearance.
Which one of the following, if true, provides the most
support for the scientists’ new belief?
(A) Scientists have not found any physical evidence
to support the idea that giant ground sloths were
hunted to extinction.
(B) Species of smaller tree-dwelling sloths continue
to live throughout South and Central America.
(C) Their large size made the giant ground sloths less
adaptable than most other ground sloths.
(D) Giant ground sloths are not the only large
mammals that began to disappear from the
Americas around 10,000 years ago.
(E) One type of giant ground sloth survived on
isolated islands until human beings arrived there
well after the last ice age.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

9. Political organizer: Our group needs to assemble at

least 30 volunteers if Marcia Garson is to have
a chance of winning the election, since she will
win only if the public is fully informed about her
record. To fully inform the public, at least 30 of
our people must campaign for her, but we simply
cannot afford to pay people for this work.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the conclusion drawn in the political organizer’s
argument?
(A) Marcia Garson will probably not be elected.
(B) The political organizer’s group cannot afford to
pay people to campaign for Marcia Garson.
(C) If winning the election is to be a possibility for
Marcia Garson, the political organizer’s group
needs to bring together at least 30 volunteers.
(D) If the public is not fully informed about Marcia
Garson’s record, she will not win the election.
(E) At least 30 people from the political organizer’s
group need to campaign for Marcia Garson in
order to fully inform the public about her record.

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11. Studies have shown that those who take daily doses of
vitamin C are less likely to contract colds than are those
who do not. Thus, if a person contracts a cold, he or she
probably does not take daily doses of vitamin C.
The questionable reasoning in the argument above most
closely parallels that in which one of the following?
(A) To be classified as a hurricane, a tropical storm
in the Atlantic Ocean must have sustained wind
speeds of over 74 miles (119 kilometers) per
hour. So tropical storms with sustained wind
speeds at about that level are not hurricanes.
(B) Everyone who ate the tuna salad prepared in the
cafeteria has contracted botulism. So those who
ate other dishes prepared in the cafeteria will
probably also get this disease.
(C) Laboratory rats given an extremely low-calorie
diet live up to 20 percent longer than do those
given a more ordinary diet. So most people
could extend their life spans by eating a great
deal less than they usually do.
(D) People who train diligently to play poker can
achieve a certain level of proficiency, so those
players owe their success to hard work alone.
(E) Automobile engines that undergo regular oil
changes are more likely to be problem free
than are those that do not. So automobiles with
engine problems probably have not had regular
oil changes.
- 20 -
12. The Discourses, a work attributed to the ancient Stoic
philosopher Epictetus, is believed to have been compiled
from Epictetus’s lectures by his student Arrian. Some
claim that Arrian himself authored The Discourses
and falsely attributed authorship to Epictetus. That is,
however, highly unlikely. Epictetus’s views were well
known by his contemporaries in Roman society; if
Arrian tried to pass off his own views as Epictetus’s, this
deception would soon be exposed.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the
argument?
(A) The Discourses would have received very little
attention in Roman society if that work had not
been attributed to Epictetus.
(B) Some of the philosophy that modern scholars
believe Arrian subscribed to can be found in The
Discourses.
(C) Arrian in some ways modeled himself on the
historian Xenophon, who had written works that
he falsely attributed to the philosopher Socrates.
(D) Arrian had high status in Roman society, which
he knew would be undermined if he were shown
to be dishonest.
(E) During his long career, Arrian was a soldier, a
consul of Rome, and a governor in Turkey.
13. A study tested the performance of 70 pilots, half of
whom chose to go on a reduced-calorie diet. Those
who did not diet performed well, while pilots who were
dieting performed worse, although they had performed
well before they started their diets. The average level
of impairment for the dieters was approximately equal
to that caused by consuming two alcoholic drinks on an
empty stomach.
Each of the following, if true, contributes to an
explanation of the study results described above
EXCEPT:
(A) Dieters often become preoccupied with worries
about their weight losses and calorie intakes.
(B) Many of the pilots, including both dieters and
nondieters, consumed alcohol before the tests,
and dieting increases vulnerability to alcohol’s
effects.
(C) Reduced-calorie dieting makes most people more
vulnerable to irritability and fatigue.
(D) Many of the pilots chose to go on a diet
because they were curious about whether one’s
weight affects one’s piloting skills.
(E) Whereas alcohol has no effect on the level of
glucose (a nutrient vital to brain function) in the
bloodstream, dieting lowers the glucose level.
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14. Guam has 40 times more spiders than nearby islands 16. If a novelist is popular he or she can vividly imagine
have. Biologists argue that this is a consequence of the large numbers of characters, each with a personality and
accidental 1940s introduction into Guam of the brown attitudes that are completely different from those of the
tree snake, which by the 1980s had eliminated ten of others and from those of the novelist. Such a writer also
twelve native bird species. The biologists attribute the will be capable of empathizing with people who have
spider population’s increase to the loss of bird species, goals completely different from his or her own and so
because many birds prey on spiders and some use will have some doubts about the genuine value of his or
spiderwebs in constructing nests. her own desires.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the If the statements above are true then each of the
biologists’ conclusion? following could also be true EXCEPT:
(A) Birds compete with spiders for insect prey. (A) Some novelists who can vividly imagine large
(B) The biologists counted spiderwebs as a means of numbers of characters with attitudes and
estimating the spider population. personalities completely different from those of
(C) Spiderwebs are more prevalent on Guam than on the others are not popular.
nearby islands. (B) Some novelists are incapable of empathizing with
(D) The two bird species remaining on Guam have people whose goals are completely different
proliferated since the arrival of the brown tree from their own.
snakes. (C) Some people who lack the ability to empathize
(E) Brown tree snakes have proven difficult to with those who have goals completely different
eradicate on Guam. from their own are popular novelists.
(D) No people who have doubts about the value of
15. If the glee club pays cash today to rent the equipment it their own desires are incapable of empathizing
needs for next Saturday’s party, its usual rental agency with people who have goals that are completely
will accept a much lower price than the club would pay different from their own.
for renting the equipment next Saturday. The club’s party (E) Most writers who have doubts about the value of
committee knows the costs involved but nonetheless will what they desire are popular novelists.
wait until next Saturday to pay. The committee clearly
cares little about saving money.
Which one of the following assumptions is required by
the argument above?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(A) At least some influential members of the club’s
party committee are interested in the savings
available by renting the equipment today rather
than renting it next Saturday.
(B) Most members of the club’s party committee are
aware of the glee club’s financial situation.
(C) At least one rental agency will not accept a lower
price for equipment rental today than it would
accept next Saturday.
(D) The club’s party committee has a number of
responsibilities that take priority over saving
money.
(E) There is enough cash available to the glee club
today to pay for the equipment rental at today’s
lower price.

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17. After monitoring blood levels of lycopene (a nutrient
found in some fruits and vegetables) in 1,000 middle-
aged study participants over a 12-year period, researchers
found that participants with low levels of lycopene
were more than twice as likely as those with high levels
to have a stroke during that period. Clearly, lycopene
reduces the risk of stroke.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the
argument?
(A) Most fruits and vegetables that are rich in
lycopene also contain high levels of several
other nutrients that are thought likely to reduce
the risk of stroke.
(B) Countries in which people consume substantial
quantities of lycopene-rich fruits and vegetables
generally have lower rates of stroke than other
countries.
(C) Middle-aged people typically have lower
lycopene levels than young adults.
(D) Study participants with high levels of lycopene
consumed, on average, twice the quantity of
fruits and vegetables as those with low levels of
lycopene.
(E) There was wide variation in lycopene levels
among study participants.
19. Most movie critics believe that sentimentality detracts
from aesthetic value. But these critics are wrong, since
the reason they hold this belief is that sentimentality
pervades so many movies that its absence makes a movie
more interesting to frequent movie-goers like themselves.
It is like someone whose food is usually prepared with
a certain type of flavoring concluding that the flavoring
itself detracts from the quality of the food.
The reasoning in the argument is flawed in that the
argument
(A) is based solely on an inappropriate appeal to
authority
(B) rejects a position merely on the grounds that
someone who argues for it has an ulterior
motive
(C) takes a necessary condition for a movie’s
being of high aesthetic value to be a sufficient
condition for this
(D) concludes that a view is false merely on the
grounds of how people came to believe it
(E) takes what is sufficient for diminishing the
quality of a work to be necessary for doing so

18. In order to cut costs and thereby maximize his profit, Mr. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Kapp used inferior materials in constructing the library.
Whether legal or not, it was clearly wrong for him to do
so. For, as an experienced and knowledgeable builder,
he must have realized that his action would put people at
serious risk.
The argument’s conclusion is properly drawn if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) Any knowledgeable and experienced builder
would realize that using the inferior construction
materials that Mr. Kapp used would put people
at serious risk.
(B) An action can be wrong from a moral standpoint
without necessarily being legal.
(C) Mr. Kapp made a large profit from the
construction and sale of the building.
(D) It is wrong to knowingly put people at serious
risk for the sake of profit.
(E) Mr. Kapp either knew or ought to have known
that using the inferior materials he used to build
the library would put people at serious risk.

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20. Business owner: Although allowing coal mining in our
region would create new jobs, we can expect the
number of jobs in the region to decrease overall
if it is permitted. Many local businesses depend
on our region’s natural beauty, and the heavy
industrial activity of coal mining would force
most of them to close.
Which one of the following most accurately describes
the role played in the business owner’s argument by the
claim that many local businesses depend on the region’s
natural beauty?
(A) It is given as direct evidence for a statement
that is used to support the argument’s overall
conclusion.
(B) It is a premise that is offered as direct support for
the overall conclusion of the argument.
(C) It is an intermediate conclusion offered as direct
support for the argument’s main conclusion.
(D) It is the overall conclusion drawn in the
argument.
(E) It is a hypothesis for which evidence is explicitly
offered, but it is not itself intended to support
the argument’s overall conclusion.
21. Columnist: Obviously, money helps one satisfy one’s
desires. However, people become less happy as
they become more wealthy. For, though wealth
allows one to satisfy desires one would not
otherwise be able to, it invariably creates an
even greater number of desires that will not be
satisfied.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the
columnist’s argument?
(A) Extreme wealth impedes the attainment of the
highest level of happiness.
(B) The fewer unfulfilled desires one has, the happier
one is.
(C) One’s happiness tends not to increase each time a
desire is satisfied.
(D) There are very few wealthy people who would
not prefer to be wealthier.
(E) Satisfying one’s desires is not the only relevant
factor to one’s happiness.
- 23 -
22. Laurie: In a democracy, public art should bring people
together either by expressing a consensus on a
subject or by helping people to reconcile their
differences and to recognize that no single
opinion is definitive. Since contemporary public
art creates only acrimony, it has failed in its task.
Elsa: If people hold radically different opinions, public
art should emphasize that. No art form can do the
impossible, which is what you are asking for.
Laurie’s and Elsa’s statements provide the most support
for holding that they disagree about
(A) what types of public art are most characteristic of
contemporary democracies
(B) whether it is possible in a democracy to create
public art that people with radically different
opinions can enjoy and support
(C) what the criterion of success for public art in a
democracy should be
(D) whether contemporary public art creates only
acrimony
(E) whether it is wise for contemporary public art to
help achieve a consensus on a project
23. Environmental ethicist: Since whooping cranes, unlike
sandhill cranes, are endangered as a species, the
survival of any one whooping crane is much
more important to the preservation of its species
than the survival of any one sandhill crane is to
the preservation of its species. Hence, we have
a greater duty to protect the life of an individual
whooping crane than we do to protect the life of
an individual sandhill crane.
The environmental ethicist’s reasoning conforms most
closely to which one of the following principles?
(A) Any duty to protect the life of an individual
organism is entirely independent of the duty to
protect the species to which that organism belongs.
(B) The more important the survival of individual
members is to the preservation of a species,
the greater the duty to protect the lives of that
species’ individual members.
(C) The fewer species an endangered species is
closely related to, the greater the duty to protect
that species.
(D) There is a greater duty to protect a species as a
whole than there is to protect any individual
member of that species.
(E) There is a greater duty to protect one individual
organism over another only if the former
organism is a member of an endangered species
and the latter organism is not.
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24. All of the one-way streets in the city have dedicated 26. Employee: Vernon’s behavior in last month’s incident
bike lanes. City buses do not travel on any street with a was certainly unprofessional enough that our
dedicated bike lane. Parking is allowed only on streets company was justified in firing him. But several
that do not have a dedicated bike lane. City bus number higher-ranking employees whose behavior in
nine travels the full length of Batchelder Avenue. the incident was just as unprofessional haven’t
been fired and are treated as employees in good
If the statements above are true, which one of the
standing. So for the sake of consistency, the
following must also be true?
company must give Vernon his job back.
(A) Batchelder Avenue is a one-way street.
Which one of the following most accurately describes a
(B) Batchelder Avenue is not a one-way street.
flaw in the employee’s argument?
(C) Parking is allowed on Batchelder Avenue.
(D) Parking is not allowed on Batchelder Avenue. (A) illicitly using a key term in different senses
(E) Parking is not allowed on any street on which during the course of the argument
buses do not travel. (B) confusing behavior that is sufficient to justify an
action with behavior that is required to justify
25. Ecological terms like “invasive species” invoke human that action
cultural standards like belonging, citizenship, fair play, (C) offering as its primary evidence a premise that is
and morality and apply them to the natural world. These equivalent to the argument’s conclusion
terms can influence ecologists’ opinions of certain (D) treating behavior that can sometimes result in
organisms before any data is gathered about their a certain consequence as behavior that always
ecological impact. To prevent this, they should avoid results in that consequence
using such terms. (E) inferring that one specific response to a problem
is necessary without considering another equally
Which one of the following conforms most closely to the
supported response
principle illustrated above?
(A) Police should not use terms like “thief” when
talking to suspects no matter how strong
the evidence of their guilt, since suspects
are officially innocent until they have been
convicted by a court.
(B) Environmental regulators should not argue
publicly that particular substances are harmful,
since the government’s decisions about which
substances are harmful should be made by
legislators.
(C) Opinion writers should avoid using overly
unflattering language to describe their
opponents’ views on controversial issues, since
such language often leads readers simply to
discount the views of the writer that uses it.
(D) Software developers should refrain from using
psychological terms to describe the performance
of their programs, since this could influence
their expectations about how those programs
will handle unanticipated inputs.
(E) People should be careful when attributing
motives to another person in order to explain
that person’s behavior, since psychological
studies suggest that such attributions are
frequently incorrect.

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION IV
Time—35 minutes
23 Questions

Directions: Each set of questions in this section is based on a scenario with a set of conditions. The questions are to be answered on
the basis of what can be logically inferred from the scenario and conditions. For each question, choose the response that most
accurately and completely answers the question and mark that response on your answer sheet.

Questions 1–5 1. Which one of the following could be the order in which
the six groups are evaluated?
The participants in an experiment designed to evaluate the
persuasive impact of expert witness testimony will be divided (A) judges, police officers, teachers, medical doctors,
into six groups, according to occupation—judges, lawyers, nurses, lawyers
medical doctors, nurses, police officers, and teachers. The (B) judges, teachers, medical doctors, lawyers, police
six groups will be evaluated separately, one after the other, in officers, nurses
accordance with the following conditions: (C) medical doctors, judges, police officers, nurses,
The teachers must be evaluated at some time before the teachers, lawyers
medical doctors and at some time before the nurses. (D) teachers, lawyers, police officers, nurses, medical
The medical doctors must be evaluated at some time doctors, judges
before the lawyers. (E) teachers, medical doctors, judges, police officers,
The nurses must be evaluated either immediately before nurses, lawyers
or immediately after the police officers.
The police officers must be evaluated at some time 2. Which one of the following groups could be evaluated
between the judges and the lawyers, regardless of sixth?
whether the judges are evaluated before the lawyers or (A) judges
after. (B) medical doctors
(C) nurses
(D) police officers
(E) teachers

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3. If the lawyers are evaluated at some time before the 5. What is the minimum number of groups that must be
judges, which one of the following could be true? evaluated after the teachers?
(A) The judges are evaluated third. (A) five
(B) The medical doctors are evaluated fifth. (B) four
(C) The nurses are evaluated third. (C) three
(D) The police officers are evaluated fourth. (D) two
(E) The teachers are evaluated second. (E) one

4. If the police officers are evaluated fifth, which one of the

following must be true?
(A) The judges are evaluated third. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(B) The lawyers are evaluated sixth.
(C) The medical doctors are evaluated second.
(D) The nurses are evaluated fourth.
(E) The teachers are evaluated first.

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Questions 6–10 6. How many of the commercials are there any one of
which could be aired last?
A television station must determine the order in which five
commercials, each advertising a single product—fast food, (A) five
granola, pizza, sportswear, or trucks—are to be aired during (B) four
the five slots available in a commercial break. The order of the (C) three
commercials is subject to the following constraints: (D) two
The pizza commercial must be aired earlier than the (E) one
granola commercial.
The sportswear commercial must be aired earlier than the 7. If the truck commercial is aired earlier than the granola
truck commercial. commercial, then which one of the following CANNOT
The fast-food and sportswear commercials must be aired be true?
consecutively.
(A) The fast-food commercial is aired second.
(B) The granola commercial is aired fourth.
(C) The pizza commercial is aired first.
(D) The sportswear commercial is aired first.
(E) The truck commercial is aired fourth.

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8. If the pizza commercial is aired immediately before the 10. If the granola and truck commercials are not aired
truck commercial, then which one of the following could consecutively, then which one of the following could be
be true? true?
(A) The truck commercial is aired third. (A) The fast-food commercial is aired last.
(B) The sportswear commercial is aired third. (B) The granola commercial is aired fourth.
(C) The pizza commercial is aired first. (C) The pizza commercial is aired third.
(D) The granola commercial is aired fourth. (D) The sportswear commercial is aired second.
(E) The fast-food commercial is aired second. (E) The truck commercial is aired fourth.

9. How many of the commercials are there any one of

which could be aired second?
(A) five GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
(B) four
(C) three
(D) two
(E) one

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Questions 11–17
Over the course of four consecutive weeks, a gallery is going
to show three oil paintings—Gold, Hanbok, and Ibex—and
three watercolor paintings—Ping, Roil, and Sails. Each
painting will be shown in at least one week, with exactly one
oil painting and one watercolor painting shown per week,
subject to the following conditions:
No painting can be shown in two consecutive weeks.
Gold cannot be shown in any week in which Ping is
shown.
Hanbok must be shown in any week in which Sails is
shown.
Hanbok cannot be shown earlier than the third week
unless Ibex is shown in the first week.
11. Which one of the following could be the schedule of the
paintings shown in the four weeks, listed in order from
the first week to the fourth?
(A) Gold and Roil; Hanbok and Sails; Ibex and Ping;
Gold and Roil
(B) Gold and Roil; Ibex and Sails; Hanbok and Ping;
Gold and Roil
(C) Ibex and Ping; Gold and Roil; Hanbok and Sails;
Gold and Roil
(D) Ibex and Ping; Hanbok and Sails; Gold and Ping;
Hanbok and Roil
(E) Ibex and Ping; Hanbok and Sails; Hanbok and Ping;
Gold and Roil

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12. If Sails is shown in the second week, then any of the 15. The schedule of the paintings shown in the four weeks is
following could be shown in the third week EXCEPT: completely determined if which one of the following is
true?
(A) Gold
(B) Hanbok (A) Gold is shown twice.
(C) Ibex (B) Hanbok is shown twice.
(D) Ping (C) Ping is shown twice.
(E) Roil (D) Roil is shown twice.
(E) Sails is shown twice.
13. Which one of the following must be false?
16. If Roil is shown in both the second and fourth weeks,
(A) Sails is shown in the first week. which one of the following could be true?
(B) Hanbok is shown in the second week.
(C) Roil is shown in the third week. (A) Gold is shown in the first week.
(D) Ibex is shown in the fourth week. (B) Hanbok is shown in the second week.
(E) Ping is shown in the fourth week. (C) Hanbok is shown in the fourth week.
(D) Ibex is shown in the second week.
14. If Gold is shown in the first week, which one of the (E) Ibex is shown in the fourth week.
following could be true?
17. Which one of the following, if substituted for the
(A) Ibex is shown in the third week. condition that Gold cannot be shown in any week in
(B) Ping is shown in the third week. which Ping is shown, would have the same effect in
(C) Roil is shown in the second week. determining the schedule of the paintings shown in the
(D) Roil is shown in the fourth week. four weeks?
(E) Sails is shown in the second week.
(A) Roil must be shown in any week in which Gold is
shown.
(B) Gold must be shown in any week in which Roil is
shown.
(C) If Ping is not shown in the first week, then Sails
must be shown no earlier than the third week.
(D) If Ping is shown in the first week, then Ibex must
also be shown in the first week.
(E) Hanbok cannot be shown in any week in which
Roil is shown.

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Questions 18–23 18. Which one of the following could be the assignment of
volunteers for Friday and Saturday?
A charity is assigning volunteers to work at its booth at a fair
that runs three days: Thursday, Friday, and Saturday. Five (A) Friday: Lentz, Morse, Nuñez
volunteers are being assigned: Lentz, Morse, Nuñez, Pang, Saturday: Lentz, Morse, Nuñez
and Quinn. On each day, exactly three of the volunteers will (B) Friday: Lentz, Morse, Pang
work at the booth. The assignment of volunteers to days must Saturday: Lentz, Morse, Quinn
meet the following conditions: (C) Friday: Nuñez, Pang, Quinn
No volunteer works every day. Saturday: Lentz, Morse, Nuñez
On any day that Morse works, Lentz also works. (D) Friday: Nuñez, Pang, Quinn
Nuñez works on Friday. Saturday: Lentz, Morse, Pang
Pang does not work on Saturday. (E) Friday: Nuñez, Pang, Quinn
Saturday: Morse, Nuñez, Quinn

19. If Pang works on Friday, then any of the following could

be true EXCEPT:
(A) Lentz works on Friday.
(B) Morse works on Thursday.
(C) Morse works on Friday.
(D) Nuñez works on Thursday.
(E) Nuñez works on Saturday.

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20. If Pang works on only one day, which one of the 22. If Morse works on Thursday, which one of the following
following must be true? must be true?
(A) Lentz works on Thursday. (A) Lentz works on Friday.
(B) Morse works on Saturday. (B) Morse works on Saturday.
(C) Nuñez works on Thursday. (C) Nuñez works on Saturday.
(D) Pang works on Friday. (D) Pang works on Thursday.
(E) Quinn works on Saturday. (E) Quinn works on Friday.

21. The assignment of volunteers to days is completely 23. If Morse works on only one day, which one of the
determined if which one of the following is true? following must be true?
(A) Lentz works on Thursday. (A) Lentz works on Friday.
(B) Morse works on Friday. (B) Morse works on Saturday.
(C) Nuñez works on Thursday. (C) Nuñez works on Saturday.
(D) Pang works on Friday. (D) Pang works on Thursday.
(E) Quinn works on Saturday. (E) Quinn works on Friday.

S T O P
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION IN THE TEST.

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SECTION I

1. D 8. D 15. B 22. D
2. B 9. C 16. D 23. E
3. A 10. E 17. E 24. E
4. E 11. C 18. C 25. C
5. A 12. D 19. A 26. B
6. C 13. D 20. C 27. B
7. B 14. C 21. A

SECTION II

1. E 8. A 15. C 22. C
2. B 9. A 16. C 23. B
3. E 10. A 17. B 24. D
4. B 11. D 18. C 25. B
5. A 12. D 19. A 26. B
6. D 13. B 20. D
7. E 14. D 21. A

SECTION III

1. A 8. A 15. E 22. C
2. A 9. C 16. C 23. B
3. D 10. E 17. A 24. B
4. A 11. E 18. D 25. D
5. B 12. D 19. D 26. E
6. E 13. D 20. A
7. A 14. A 21. B

SECTION IV

1. E 8. E 15. E 22. E
2. A 9. C 16. E 23. D
3. D 10. D 17. A
4. D 11. C 18. C
5. B 12. B 19. C
6. D 13. A 20. B
7. B 14. D 21. B

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June 2019 Conversion Table

The table below should be used for converting raw scores to the 120–180 score scale for the June 2019 administration.
The table below shows the LSAT reported score that corresponds to each possible raw score.

Reported Raw Score

Score Lowest Highest
180 100 102
179 99 99
178 —* —*
177 98 98
176 97 97
175 —* —*
174 96 96
173 95 95
172 94 94
171 93 93
170 92 92
169 90 91
168 89 89
167 87 88
166 86 86
165 84 85
164 83 83
163 81 82
162 79 80
161 77 78
160 75 76
159 73 74
158 71 72
157 69 70
156 68 68
155 66 67
154 64 65
153 62 63
152 60 61
151 58 59
150 56 57
149 54 55
148 52 53
147 50 51
146 49 49
145 47 48
144 45 46
143 44 44
142 42 43
141 41 41
140 39 40
139 38 38
138 36 37
137 35 35
136 33 34
135 32 32
134 31 31
133 30 30
132 29 29
131 28 28
130 27 27
129 26 26
128 25 25
127 24 24
126 —* —*
125 23 23
124 22 22
123 —* —*
122 21 21
121 20 20
120 0 19

*There is no raw score that will produce this scaled score for this form.

PrepTest 87