based on Week 5 (05-11 January) Coverage of ‘TO DO LIST’

refer to:-

Test Date 11/02/2024

-Subjects-

and

20 /-

(special edition for Prelims 2024)

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Weekly Practice Test 5

UPSC PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 2024

(Weekly Test-01 (February): Date 10/02/2024)

(Test according to: FEBRUARY ‘REVISION AND PRACTICE’ TIMETABLE)

(Test created from: RAPID REVISION BOOKS)

SUBJECT 1: MEDIEVAL INDIA

20 MCQs

Q1. Which of the following statements
relating to the Rajput clan is/are correct?
a. The forts built in this period were an
expression of political authority.
b. There was no social mobility within varna
hierarchy.
4. The Rajputs, which emerged as a new caste
have a clear basis of origin and trace their
origin back to a common ancestor.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
a. Only one statement

c. Distribution of land among the Rajput clans b. Only two statements

led to the emergence of large estates.
c. Only three statements
d. More than one statements are correct.
d. All four are correct

Q2. The Harsola copper plate inscription can

Q4. Consider the following pairs (Dynasties
be attributed to which of the following
and their kingdoms):-
Rajput dynasties?

a. Gurjaras 1. The Tomars- Dilika

2. The Kalachuris- Chedi

b. Kalachuris
3. The Paramaras- Malwa
c. Parmaras
4. The Chandelas – Bundelkhand
d. Chauhans
How many are correctly matched?

Q3. Consider the following statements about a. Only one pair

the organization of Rajput society: - b. Only two pairs
1. The society had a sense of brotherhood and c. Only three pairs
egalitarianism.
d. All four pairs
2. The Rajputs were unwilling to extend the
sense of brotherhood among non Rajputs
which led to a growing gap between the
Q5. Jayadeva, a 12th century poet who was
ruling class and the people (non-rajputs).
also a contemporary of several other poets
3. The Rajputs treated war as a sport. in the corut of Lakshmana Sena of Bengal
wrote which of the following texts?

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Weekly Practice Test 5

a. Rajatarangini b. The temple is also called Yamika tirtha, as it

is believed that the power of Yama has been
b. Gita Govinda
nullified due to presence of Lord Jagannath.
c. Mudrarakshasa
c. The front entrance has a moon pillar
d. Kathasaritsagara installed.

d. It is also called black pagoda

Q6. Consider the following statements about

Rajput architecture and choose the correct
Q9. He was a great king of the Sena dynasty
option: -
who completed the work of Adbhut Sagara
a. Mughal architecture greatly influenced which was started by his father. Choose the
indigenous Rajput styles. correct option:-

b. The hill forts of Rajasthan, a group of six a. Ballal Sena

forts built by various Rajput kingdoms and
b. Vijaya Sena
principalities are part of UNESCO World
Heritage Sites. c. Vishvarupa Sena

c. Rajput architecture continued well into the d. Lakshamana Sena

20th century as the rulers of princely states
of India commissioned vast palaces and
other buildings, these incorporated the
European styles as well which led to the
formation of Indo-Saracenic style.
Q10. Vijay Prasasti was composed by the
famous poet Sriharsha in the memory of
which ruler?

d. All the statements are correct. a. Vijaya Sena

b. Lakshamana Sena

Q7. A fine specimen of the Maru-Gurjara style c. Jeyachandra

of architecture, UNESCO describes this as
displaying the pinnacle of craftsmanship d. Prithviraj Chauhan
in stepwell construction. It has been
designs as an inverted temple and is
divided into seven levels, with sculptural Q11. The well-known painting ‘Bani Thani’
panels of unmatched artistic quality. The belongs to the
monument described above is: -
a. Bundi School
a. Chand bawri
b. Jaipur School
b. Agrasen ki Baoli
c. Kangra School
c. Panna Meena Ka Kund
d. Kishangarh School
d. Rani ki Vav

Q12. Which of the following schools show a

Q8. Which of the following statements about
Jagannath Temple is correct?
a. It was built by Narsimhadeva.
strong influence of Mughal school of art
along with impact of ornamented dressers
belonging to the periods of Akbar and
Jahangir?

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Weekly Practice Test 5

a. Shekhwati School 3. Huen Tsang, Chinese pilgrim visited

Kashmir during the reign of Utpala
b. Amber School
Dynasty.
c. Hadoti School
4. Tantrins, Ekangas, Damras played an
d. Jaipur School important role in the politics history of the
Dynasty.

Select the correct statement/s-

Q13. ‘Rajatarangini’ a famous work of
Kalhana giving useful insights into the a. Only one statement
history of Kashmir was written in which
b. Only two statements
language?
c. Only three statements
a. Urdu
d. All four statements
b. Sanskrit

c. Prakrit
Q16. She is a women ruler mentioned in 6th
d. Dogri
Taranga of Rajatarangini, by Kalhana who
Q14. Consider the following pairs: has described her as a merciless woman
who killed her kin for accession to the
Kings Prominent temples
throne. Coins bearing her name have also
constructed
been found. She also founded the towns of
1. Lalitaditya Martand Sun Temple Siddapura and Kankanapura. Select the
correct option: -
2. Yahovarman Lakshamana Temple
a. Didda
3. King Yayati I Sun Temple of Konark
b. Yashovati
4. Kumarapala Rudra Mahakala Temple
(Patan) c. Suganda

Select the option depicting number of pair/s d. LalliyaShahi

correctly matched-

a. Only one pair Q17. The 13th century ‘Lekhapaddhati’ text

b. Only two pairs gives us information on which of the
following topics?
c. Only three pairs
a. Art of wrting
d. All four pairs
b. Essay Writing

c. Legal documents
Q15. Consider the following statements about
Utpala Dynasty of Kashmir: - d. Epigraphic style

1. Avanti Varman was the founder of the

dynasty. Q18. The famous play ‘Harkeli Nataka’ was
2. Rajatarangini mentions 3 women rulers of written by which ruler belonging to
Chauhan Dynasty?
Kashmir.
a. Prithviraj Chauhan

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Weekly Practice Test 5

b. Ajayaraja II d. As per Nagpur Prashashti inscription, he

achieved a number of military successes.
c. Vigraharaja IV

d. Simharaja
Q20. Yuvraja belonging to Chedis of Tripuri
was a powerful ruler who defeated the
Q19. Which of the following statements Rashtrakuta army. In order to
relating to King Bhoja of Parmara Dynasty commemorate his success, the famous poet
is incorrect? Rajashekara staged his drama by the title
of:
a. It is believed that he supported Anandapala,
Hindu Shahi ruler in his fight against the a. Trikalingadhipati
Ghaznavids.
b. Vidya Salabhanjika
b. He was a polymath and has written about c. Adbhut Sagara
grammar, poetry, chemistry, yoga etc.
d. It was untitled
c. He founded the city of Bhojpur and built the
Bhojeswar Temple in that region

UPSC PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 2024

(Weekly Test-01 (February): Date 10/02/2024)

(Test according to: FEBRUARY ‘REVISION AND PRACTICE’ TIMETABLE)

(Test created from: RAPID REVISION BOOKS)

SUBJECT 1: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

30 MCQs

Q1. Consider the following statements about spots and have a direct impact on Earth’s
the Sun: atmosphere in a number of ways.

1. Sun generates energy through nuclear
fusion where hydrogen atoms in its core
fuse with helium.
2. Sun emits a continuous stream of charged
particles known as solar wind, when solar
wind interacts with Earth’s magnetosphere
it leads to the phenomenon called Northern
and Southern lights.
3. Sunspots are temporary phenomena on the
Sun’s photosphere characterized by dark
4. Recently, India has launched the Aditya L1
satellite to study Sun’s corona and has
placed it in Lagrange Point 5 to offer
uninterrupted viewing of the Sun.
Choose the option below indicating the correct
statement/s above:
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three

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Weekly Practice Test 5

d. All four 4. Brown dwarfs are a type of stars where

during the formation the core is not dense
enough to trigger nuclear fusion.
Q2. Which of the following Space mission/s
Select the option indicating the correct
are associated with Mars?
statement/s from above-
a. Hope Orbiter, Curiosity, Artemis
a. Only one
b. Curiosity, Juno, Artemis
b. Only two
c. Insight, Curiosity, Hope Orbiter
c. Only three
d. Perseverance, Curiosity, Davinci
d. All four

Q3. Which one of the following is the reason

Q6. Which of the following factor/s can
why astronomical distances are measured
potentially make observation of black
in light years?
holes challenging?
a. Distance among stellar bodies do not
1. Black holes are often located at significant
change
distances from Earth
b. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change
2. No direct light emission
c. Light always travels in straight line
3. Interstellar dust and gas
d. Speed of light is always same
4. Intense gravitational pull around black hole.

Select the correct option-

Q4. Ceres, Makemake, Haumea are-
a. 1 and 2 only
a. Asteroids
b. 2,3 and 4 only
b. Moons of Jupiter
c. 2 and 4 only
c. Neutron Stars
d. 1,2,3 and 4
d. Dwarf planets

Q7. It is observed that most of the launch sites

Q5. Consider the following statement/s-
1. Nebula is a cloud made up of gas and dust
in space; it is the place where birth of starts
takes place.
in the world are located close to the
equator. The most appropriate reason for
this is
a. Gravitational pull is least at the equator

2. All the stars end up becoming a black hole b. Coriolis force is nearly zero at the equator
at the end of the life cycle.
c. To take optimum advantage of the Earth’s
3. The explosive death of a star is called substantial rotational speed
supernova, which is capable of sending
d. None
shock waves into the surrounding
interstellar medium.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

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Weekly Practice Test 5

1. Remote sensing satellites use electric waves d. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
to observe and map a particular area. correct.

2. Remote sensing systems which measure

energy that is naturally available are called
Q10. An artificial satellite orbiting around the
passive sensors while the active sensors
Earth does not fall down. This is so
provide their own energy source for
because the attraction of the Earth-
illumination.
a. Does not exist at such distance
3. Active sensors can be used for examining
wavelengths that are not sufficiently b. Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
provided by the Sun or to better control the
c. Provides the necessary speed for its steady
way a target is illuminated.
motion
4. A laser fluorosensor and a synthetic
d. Provides necessary acceleration for its
aperture radar (SAR) are examples of Active
motion
sensors.

Select the incorrect statement/s from the

options given below- Q11. What is Kessler syndrome?

a. Only one a. A disease wherein astronauts feel exhausted

after coming back on Earth
b. Only two
b. Proliferation of space debris in the Low
c. Only three
Earth Orbit
d. All four
c. A problem found in Space Launch Vehicles.

d. A rare viral respiratory problem developed

Q9. Consider the following statements: in enclosed areas

Statement I- Communication Satellites are

placed in geostationary orbit to ensure
Q12. Consider the following pairs-
unhindered communication.

Statement II- A geostationary satellite is an

Earth orbiting satellite that revolves around Space Missions Agency undertaking
the Earth at the same time as the Earth it
rotates along its axis.
1. ACE NASA
Select the correct option-
2. Bepi Colombo ESA (Europe) and JAXA
a. Both Statement I and II are correct and (Japan)
Statement II is correct explanation of
3. EnVision JAXA
Statement I.
4. ExoMars ESA
b. Both Statements I and II are correct
however, Statement II is not the correct Select the correctly matched pair-
explanation od Statement I.
a. 1 and 2 only
c. Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect. b. 3 and 4 only

c. 1,3 and 4 only

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Weekly Practice Test 5

d. 1,2 and 4 only 1. Shukrayaan-I Venus

2. Tianwen- 1 Mars

Q13. Which of the following may be potential 3. Hope Probe Saturn

reasons as to why missions to study
4. Europa Clipper Jupiter
asteroids are undertaken?
Select the correctly matched pairs from the
a. Potential mining of resources needed by
options below-
space-faring humans
a. Only one
b. Some asteroids may pose risk of collision
with Earth. b. Only two
c. Asteroids are remnant debris and may help c. Only three
to trace solar system evolution
d. All four
d. All of the above

Q16. Consider the following statements about

Q14. India recently launched is first solar
space mission Aditya L1, which of the
following can be said to be its objective/s
for the launch?
1. To help track storms directed towards the
Earth and predict their impact.
2. To understand why Sun’s not-so-bright
corona is a million degree Celsius hotter
than the surface of the Sun.
3. To examine coronal mass ejections (CMEs)
4. To research coupling and dynamics of the
Solar Atmosphere
Select the correct option indicating
objective/s of the launch-
a. Only one
Lucy Space Mission-
1. It is a mission undertaken by NASA to study
the Trojan Swarms which orbit Jupiter
around the Sun.
2. The mission was launched in 2021 and in its
12 year mission Lucy will explore a record-
breaking number of asteroids.
3. Lucy also will fly by Earth three times to get
a push from its gravity, making it the first
spacecraft to return to the vicinity of Earth
from the outer solar system.
4. Recently, the spacecraft flew by an asteroid
the named Dinkinesh.
Select the correct statement/s from the options
given below-

b. Only two a. Only one

c. Only three b. Only two

d. All four c. Only three

d. All four

Q15. Consider the following pairs-

Q17. Consider the following statements
relating to the difference between Hubble
Space Missions Object of Study/ and James Webb Telescope-
Observation

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Weekly Practice Test 5

1. Hubble telescope imaging worked by using the Atlas-Centaur mission, leading the
ultraviolet and the visible spectrum of light Saturn V rocket to the Moon.
while James Webb Telescope observes
Choose the correct option about the statements
objects in infrared radiations.
given above-
2. While the Hubble telescope orbits the sun,
a. 1 only
James Webb Telescope orbits the Earth.
b. 2 only
Choose the correct statement/s from the
options below- c. Both 1 and 2

a. 1 only d. Neither 1 nor 2

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 Q20. Consider the following statements about

oxidizers-
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. They can be in solid, liquid, or gaseous form

2. Highly combustible in nature

Q18. Which of the following can be said to
advantage/s of using Small Satellite 3. They intensify combustion and increase the
Launch Vehicle? flammable range for chemicals

1. Meeting need of Launch on Demand 4. Liquid oxygen is the most common oxidizer
in launch vehicles.
2. Minimal Launch infrastructure
Select the correct option indicating the correct
3. Low cost launch of heavy satellites (500+ kg)
statement/s-
into multiple high orbits
a. Only one
4. Low turn-around time
b. Only two
Select the correct option-
c. Only three
a. Only one
d. All four
b. Only two

c. Only three
Q21. Consider the following pairs and choose
d. All four
the correct option:

Launch Vehicle
Q19. Consider the following Statements Characteristics
about cryogenic engines-
a. Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle - Three
1. The term cryogenic refers to the fact that Stages launch vehicle having cryogenic as
these liquefied gasses must be kept at second stage
cryogenic temperatures, that is, very low
b. Small Satellite Launch Vehicle - Three
temperatures (below -150 degree
stage all solid launch vehicle
Centigrade).
c. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle - Four
2. The first instances of cryogenic rockets were
Stage launch vehicles having both solid and
seen as part of the US Space Program NASA:
liquid fuels

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Weekly Practice Test 5

d. Exactly 2 pairs are correct Q24. Quasi satellites has been recently seen in
news. Which of the following statements
most appropriately describes it-
Q22. Consider the following statements-
a. It is a satellite based on quantum computing
1. Ion propulsion is a technology that involves
b. Satellites of mars
ionizing a gas to propel a craft.
c. Space rocks near the Earth’s orbit that
2. Ion propulsion hold advantage over
moves around the Sun
conventional propulsion in terms of being
low in fuel weight, possessing much higher d. Satellite to be launched on far side of moon
fuel efficiency and having longer
operational life.
Q25. Consider the following statements-
Choose the correct statement from the options
below- 1. It has gravitational attraction.

a. 1 only 2. It does not seem to interact with light.

b. 2 only 3. It may provide an explanation for anomalies

in the laws of gravity.
c. Both 1 and 2
The above description is most likely related to-
d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. Dark matter

b. Red giant
Q23. Consider the following statements:
c. Supernova
1. NavIC (navigation satellite system) operates
with less number of satellites as compared d. Heliosphere
to GPS.

2. Highly precise satellites provide a better

Q26. Consider the following statement with
resolution to NavIC as compared to GPS.
respect to Indian Space Association
3. All the satellites under NaVIC are placed in (ISpA)-
one orbit while satellites of GPS are present
1. ISpA will act as a single-window and
in different orbits.
independent agency on matters related to
4. GPS has a wider coverage area as compared space technology.
to NavIC.
2. ISpA has been created to protect Indian
Choose the correct statements with options Space research Organisation (ISRO) from
given below- private competitors in the future.

a. Only one 3. ISpA will also act as the marketing arm of

ISRO.
b. Only two
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
c. Only three
correct?
d. All four
a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

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Weekly Practice Test 5

d. 1, 2 and 3 c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q27. With reference to “exoplanets”, consider

the following statements-
Q29. With reference to Perseverance Rover,
1. An exoplanet is a planet outside the Solar consider the following statements-
System.
1. It aims to study the geology of Mars and
2. They are hidden by the bright glare of the signs of ancient life.
stars they orbit.
2. It is an European Space Agency Mission.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
3. Jezero Crater on Mars is the landing site of
a. 1 only the rover.

b. 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
c. Both 1 and 2
a. 1 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2
b. 2 and 3 only

c. 1 and 3 only
Q28. With reference to gravitational waves
consider the following statements- d. 1,2 and 3 only

1. Gravitational waves are produced only

when two black holes merge into each other.
Q30. The NISAR mission aims to study-
2. They travel at the speed of light.
a. Coronal Mass Ejections
Which of the statements given above is/are
b. Study Earth’s ecosystem and effects of
correct?
climate change
a. 1 only
c. Exoplanets
b. 2 only
d. none

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 Shield IAS Test Code:
Your Door to the Future
D D/M M/Y Y
Date :
OMR ANSWER SHEET
INSTRUCTIONS FOR USING THE ANSWER SHEET
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3. Use of PEN IS STRICTLY PROHIBITED. 1.
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5. Do not make any stray marks on the sheet. Rough work must not be done Wrong Method
on the answer sheet. to darken Circles
6. There may be more answer spaces than you need, if so leave than blank.
1.
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2.
space provided as follows :
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A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Enter
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ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
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3. 28. 53. 78.
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5. 30. 55. 80.
6. 31. 56. 81.
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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5
SUBJECT 1: MEDIEVAL INDIA
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Q1. D)
There was social mobility in the varna
hierarchy. Examples-
Medas and Hunas exemplify this process since
they acquired ‘Rajput’ rank from a tribal
position.
The Pratiharas belonged to the Gurjara clan
and became an important ruling power in the
8th century A.D. They were originally
pastoralists and agriculturists.
The Pratiharas of Mandor (837 A.D.) are said to
have descended from Kshatriya wife of a
Brahmana thus laying claim to Brahma-kshatra
status.
Q2. C)
Parmara ruler Siyaka’s Harsola Copper plate.
Q3. c)
There is a great deal of controversy about the
origin of rajputs among many scholars. Many
of the Rajput clans trace their genealogy to the
solar and lunar families of Kshatriyas which are
mentioned in Mahabharata. Some others trace
their ancestry back to a sacrificial fire said to
have been held at Mt. Abu by the sage
Vashishta.
The basis of Rajput society was the clan. Every
clan traced its descent from a common ancestor,
real or imaginary and these clans generally
dominated a compact territory.
Q4. D)
All are correctly matched.
Q5. B)
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Gitagovindam is a lyrical poetry in twelve
chapters, sub-divided into twentyfour
divisions called Prabandha. The author was
Jayadeva of twelfth cenrtury. In this work, the
author has tried to combine religious fervour
with eroticism. It belongs to the medieval
Vashnavism and describes the love sports and
pangs of separation of Radha and Krishna. In
this poem, according to the author, he has
shown his mastery in music and dance, his
devotion to Vishnu, his understanding of
science of erotica etc.
Q6. D)
Hill forts includes six majestic forts in
Chittorgarh; Kumbhalgarh; Sawai Madhopur;
Jhalawar; Jaipur, and Jaisalmer.
Q7. D)
Rani ki Vav was constructed by Rani Udaymati
in memory of her husband, King Bhima 1 of
Solanki Dynasty. It is situated on the banks of
Saraswati River.
Q8. B)
Jagannath temple was built by Anantavarman
Chodaganga. It is called White Pagoda and is a
part of Char Dham pilgrimages. In the front
entrance stands the Aruna Stambha or Sun
Pillar.
Q9. D)
Lakshmana Sena completed the book Adbhut
Sagara started by his father Ballal Sena.
Q10. A)
Vijaya Sena, Vijay Prashati means Eulogy of
Vijay
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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5

Tantrins- a body of foot soldiers

Q11. D) Ekangas- body of royal bodyguards

It was painted by Nihal Chand from the Mewar Damaras- landed chiefs
School of Kishangarh. It is inspired by Radha
All played important political role.
and portrays a woman who is elegant and
graceful.

Q16. A)
Q12. B) Queen Didda
Amber Lalliyashahi is the name for Kallar the ruler of
Hindu Shahi Dynasty mentioned in
Rajatarangini.
Q13. B)

Sanskrit
Q17. C)
Rajatarangini, (Sanskrit: “River of Kings”)
Legal Document. It is from the Chalukya
historical chronicle of early India, written in
kingdom of Gujarat which gives insights into
Sanskrit verse by the Kashmiri Brahman
Kalhana in 1148, that is justifiably considered to the social and political like of the period. Most
importantly it gives us a great deal of
be the best and most authentic work of its kind.
information about female slavery and the ways
It covers the entire span of history in the
women were pushes into slavery and their
Kashmir region from the earliest times to the
date of its composition. treatment.

Q18. C)
Q14. B)

Only two pairs are correctly matched. Vigraharaja IV or Visaldev

Jaya Simha Siddharaja built the Rudra

Mahakala Temple at Siddhapur (Patan) and not Q19. D)
Kumarapala (He rebuilt the Somnath Temple).
Nagpur prashahti inscription gives detail about
King Yayati I built the Lingaraj temple while Lakshmadeva’s military successes.
the sun Temple at Konark was built by
Narsimhadeva.
Q20. B)

Q15. C) Vidya Salabhanjika was the name.

Trikalingadhipati was title adopted by
Huen Tsang did not visit Kashmir during Gangeya Deva.
Utpala Dynasty rule but was there in the times
of Durlabh Vardhana a ruler from Karkota
Dynasty.

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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5
SUBJECT 2: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Q1. B)
The first two Statements are correct and the last
two are incorrect.
The Sun emits a continuous stream of charged
particles known as the solar wind. This stream
consists mainly of electrons and protons and
extends throughout the solar system. The solar
wind interacts with the Earth's magnetosphere,
leading to phenomena such as the Northern
and Southern Lights.
Sunspots are temporary phenomena on the
Sun's photosphere that appear as spots darker
than the surrounding areas. They are caused by
the Sun's magnetic activity and are associated
with increased solar activity.
Sunspots follow an approximately 11-year
solar cycle, where their number increases and
decreases in a cyclical fashion. This cycle is
related to the Sun's magnetic activity cycle. The
period of maximum sunspot activity is known
as solar maximum, while the period of
minimum activity is called solar minimum.
During solar maximum, the Sun's surface can
have a higher number of sunspots.
While sunspots themselves do not directly
impact Earth, they are associated with
increased solar activity. Solar flares and coronal
mass ejections (CMEs) linked to sunspots can
affect space weather, potentially disrupting
satellite communications and power grids on
Earth.
Aditya-L1 satellite is placed at L1 point and not
L5.
Q2. C)
For detailed explanation about the mission
refer the class material.
Q3. D)
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Light year is the distance light travels in one
year.
Reasons for measuring astronomical distances
in light years-
• Familiar units like kilometers and miles are
absurdly small for describing such vast
distances.
• Speed of light is both finite and constant
throughout the universe and is known to
have high precision.
Measuring in light-years also allows
astronomers to determine how far back in time
they are viewing. Because light takes time to
travel to our eyes, everything we view in the
night sky has already happened. In other
words, when you observe something 1 light-
year away, you see it as it appeared exactly one
year ago.
Q4. D)
Q5. B)
Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Not all stars end up becoming a black hole. Low
and medium stars (<1.44 times the sun), will
follow the path to become a white dwarf and if
the mass is >1.44 times the sun then they will
follow the path of a neutron star and black hole.
Though brown dwarfs as formed the same way
in which stars are formed they are not stars.
Objects which are too large to be called planets
and too small to be stars are brown dwarfs. In
brown dwarfs as the cloud collapses, the core is
not dense enough to trigger nuclear fusion.
Q6. D)
Black holes do not emit light or any other form
of electromagnetic radiation on their own. They
are essentially invisible to telescopes that detect
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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5
visible light, making it challenging to observe
them directly.
Black holes are incredibly dense objects with
extremely strong gravitational fields. his makes
the region around the black hole essentially
"dark" and prevents the direct observation of
the black hole itself.
The space between us and distant black holes
may contain interstellar dust and gas, which
can absorb or scatter light. This interference can
make it difficult to observe and analyze the
light coming from the vicinity of a black hole.
Q7. C)
If a spacecraft is launched from a site near
Earth's equator, it can take optimum advantage
of the Earth's substantial rotational speed.
Sitting on the launch pad near the equator, it is
already moving at a speed of over 1650 km per
hour relative to Earth's center.
Compared to a launch far from the equator, the
equator-launched vehicle would need less
propellant, or a given vehicle can launch a more
massive spacecraft.
Believe it or not, the surface of the Earth is
traveling faster there at the equator. If you look
at two spots on one line from pole to pole, one
spot on the equator and the other halfway to the
pole, each will make a complete revolution in
24 hours and return to where it was. But since
the Earth's shape is round, and the widest point
is at the equator the spot on the equator would
have to go more miles in that twenty four
hours. That means that the land is moving
faster at the equator than any other place on the
surface of the Earth. The land at the equator is
moving 1670 km per hour, and land halfway to
the pole is only moving 1180 km per hour, so
launching from the equator makes the
spacecraft move almost 500 km/hour faster
once it is launched.
Q8. A)
Only statement 1 is incorrect. Remote Sensing
Satellite uses electromagnetic and not electric
waves.
Rest all the statements are correct.
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The sun provides a very convenient source of
energy for remote sensing. The sun's energy is
either reflected, as it is for visible wavelengths,
or absorbed and then re-emitted, as it is for
thermal infrared wavelengths. Remote sensing
systems which measure energy that is naturally
available are called passive sensors. Passive
sensors can only be used to detect energy when
the naturally occurring energy is available.
Active sensors, on the other hand, provide their
own energy source for illumination. The sensor
emits radiation which is directed toward the
target to be investigated. The radiation
reflected from that target is detected and
measured by the sensor. Active systems require
the generation of a fairly large amount of
energy to adequately illuminate targets.
Q9. A)
Communication satellites are placed in
geostationary orbits so that the antennas
located on the Earth do not have to rotate to
track them but can be pointed permanently at
the position in the sky where the satellite is
located.
Q10. D)
A satellite orbits the Earth when its speed is
balanced by the pull of the Earth’s gravity.
Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration
gained by an object due to gravitational force.
They are able to orbit around the planet
because they are locked into speeds that are fast
enough to defeat the downward pull of gravity.
Without this balance, the satellite would fly in
a straight line off into the space or fall back to
Earth.
Q11. B)
The “Kessler Syndrome” is an orbital debris
term that has become popular outside the
professional orbital debris community without
ever having a strict definition. The Kessler
syndrome (also called the Kessler effect,
proposed by the NASA scientist Donald J.
Kessler in 1978, is a scenario in which the
density of objects in low Earth orbit (LEO) is
high enough that collisions between objects
could cause a cascade—each collision
generating space debris which increases the
likelihood of further collisions
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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5
One implication is that the distribution of
debris in orbit could render space exploration,
and even the use of satellites, unfeasible for
many generations.
Q12. D)
EnVision will be ESA’s next Venus orbiter,
providing a holistic view of the planet from its
inner core to upper atmosphere to determine
how and why Venus and Earth evolved so
differently. EnVision is an ESA-led mission
with important contributions from NASA,
which will provide VenSAR (Synthetic
Aperture Radar), as well as Deep Space
Network support.
Q13. D)
Imposing of risk of collision with Earth- DART
was the first-ever mission dedicated to
investigating and demonstrating one method
of asteroid deflection by changing an asteroid's
motion in space through kinetic impact.
DART which stands for Double Asteroid
Redirection Test was undertaken by NASA.
Apart from all the above objectives, asteroids
may also be studied by scientists as potential
source of bringing elements to Earth which led
to the creation of live. NASA undertaking
OSIRIS-Rex mission to study asteroid Bennu
will be exploring the various molecules which
might give a hint of presence of life.
Q14. D)
Q15. C)
The third pair is incorrectly matched. Hope
Probe is a mission for Mars carried by UAE. It
is Arab world’s first mission to another planet.
Q16. D)
These mysterious space rocks have been
gravitationally trapped in Jupiter’s orbit
around the Sun for billions of years and hold
clues to the formation of our solar system.
NASA’s Lucy mission will be the first
spacecraft to study these ancient relics up close.
Lucy is named for a fossilized skeleton of a
human ancestor, which was named for the
Beatles song "Lucy in the Sky with Diamonds."
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Dinkinesh is a small asteroid located in the
main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.
On Nov. 1, 2023, NASA’s Lucy spacecraft flew
by the asteroid, and sent back images showing
that Dinkinesh has a moon, which has been
named Selam.
Q17. A)
The second statement is incorrect, James Webb
Telescope orbits the sun and Hubble orbits the
Earth.
Q18. C)
Small Satellite launch vehicle can carry
satellites weighing up to 500 kg to a low earth
orbit while the tried and tested Polar Satellite
Launch Vehicle (PSLV) can launch satellites
weighing in the range of 1000 kg.
SSLV is a three-stage all solid vehicle and has a
capability to launch up to 500 kg satellite mass
into 500 km Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and 300 kg
to Sun Synchronous Orbit (SSO).
Q19. C)
Q20. C)
An oxidizer is a chemical that is usually not
itself combustible or flammable, but that
initiates or promotes combustion in other
materials through oxidation reactions.
Q21. D)
1st pair is incorrect as the cryogenic stage is the
3rd stage in GSLV and not 2nd
Q22. C)
Q23. B)
Only statements 1 and 4 are correct.
GPS has better resolution at 5m m than NavIC
which is 17-20m. Three satellites of the
constellation are placed in geostationary orbit
and the other 4 satellites are placed in inclined
geosynchronous orbit. NavIC offers two
services: Standard Position Service (SPS) for
civilian users and Restricted Service (RS) for
strategic users.
Q24. C)
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Answers & Explanations _ Weekly Practice Test 5
The traced path of Kamoʻoalewa makes it
appear as a constant companion of the Earth.
Some co-orbiting objects are called quasi-
satellites because of their very close orbit and
very similar orbital period with Earth,
seemingly orbiting Earth. Quasi satellites are
asteroids.
Q25. A)
Dark matter is invisible material that seems to
add to the gravitation in galaxies. Dark energy
seems to accelerate the expansion of the
Universe with an anti-gravitation force. Both
dark matter and dark energy are theories to
explain anomalies in gravitation for objects at
the galaxy scale of measurement.
Most matter in our universe is dark matter,
which does not emit, reflect, or otherwise
interact with light. While scientists don't know
what it's made of, they know it's there, because
its gravity gives it away: Large reservoirs of
dark matter in our universe warp space itself.
Q26. A)
 ISpA aspires to be the collective voice of the
Indian Space industry. ISpA will be
represented by leading domestic and global
corporations that have advanced
capabilities in space and satellite
technologies.
 ISpA will undertake Policy Advocacy and
engage with all stakeholders in the Indian
Space domain, including the Government
and its Agencies, to make India self-reliant,
technologically advanced and a leading
player in the space arena.
 ISpA will also work towards building global
linkages for the Indian space industry to
bring in critical technology and investments
into the country to create more high skill
jobs.
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Q27. C)
An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar
system. Most orbit other stars, but free-floating
exoplanets, called rogue planets, orbit the
galactic center and are untethered to any star.
Most of the exoplanets discovered so far are in
a relatively small region of our galaxy, the
Milky Way. We know from NASA’s Kepler
Space Telescope that there are more planets
than stars in the galaxy.
Exoplanets are very hard to see directly with
telescopes. They are hidden by the bright glare
of the stars they orbit. So, astronomers use other
ways to detect and study these distant planets.
They search for exoplanets by looking at the
effects these planets have on the stars they
orbit.
Q28. B)
The strongest gravitational waves are
produced by cataclysmic events such as
colliding black holes, supernovae (massive
stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes),
and colliding neutron stars.
Q29. C)
Perseverance rover was carried out by NASA.
Q30. B)
NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO SAR is a remote
sensing satellite in low earth orbit. NISAR will
map the entire globe in 12 days and provide
spatially and temporally consistent data for
understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems,
ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise,
ground water and natural hazards. It carries L
and S band dual Synthetic Aperture Radar
(SAR)
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