Abnormal Psychology

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TEST IN ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY

1.In the field of psychology, what does DSM stand for?


A. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
B. Diagnostic Statistical of the Mind
C. Disorders, Science and Mind
D. Diagnostic Science of Mind

2. Wilbert brushes his teeth 18 times a day. Each time, he uses exactly 83 strokes up and 83 strokes down.
After he eats, he must brush twice with two different brands of toothpaste. How would you diagnose Wilbert?
A. He is suffering from obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. He is suffering from generalized anxiety disorder
C. He is suffering from dysthymic disorder
D. He is suffering from panic disorder

3. Dissociative Identity Disorder or DID is often misdiagnosed as a psychotic disorder due to the presence of
auditory hallucinations. The difference between the auditory hallucination from people with DID and psychotic
disorder is ____?
A. Voices in DID are reported from inside their heads while in psychotic disorders are outside
B. Voices in DID are reported outside while in psychotic disorder are inside
C. Voices in DID are real while in psychotic disorder are not real
D. Voices in DID are not real while in psychotic disorder are real

4. What is the main idea of psychodynamic psychotherapy?


A. It focuses on three major facets: the structure of the mind, defense mechanisms and the stages of
psychosexual development
B. Its goal is to uncover repressed and sensitive conflicts to help the patient’s gain insight into the nature
of the conflicts.
C. It focuses on the past experiences, emotion, and feelings of the patient’s
D. To give individuals a chance to develop unfettered by threats to the self
5. What theory asserts the abnormal brain functioning was related to the four bodily fluids or humors: blood,
black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm?
A. Hippocratic Theory
B. Humoral Theory
C. Fluid Approach
D. Galenic Theory

6. The _________ coordinates movement with sensory input and contains parts of the reticular activating
system.
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Hindbrain
C. Forebrain
D. Midbrain

7. What is the definition of Clinical Utility Axis?


A. A thorough consideration of the scientific evidence to determine whether the intervention in question is
effective
B. A movement of people with severe mental illness from large psychiatric hospitals to nursing homes
C. A movement of people with severe mental illness out of institutions
D. Ability to understand the nature of a behavior and criminal intent

8. At the age of 57, Pat Summitt was a highly successful basketball coach and mother, but she was beginning
to experience lapses in her memory. Despite having cognitive difficulties, not all of her memories are lost to
her in this initial stage of the disease. She begins her memoir with the things she remembers. What could Pat
be suffering from?
A. Neurocognitive Disorder
B. Huntington’s Disease
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Parkinon’s Disease
9. Which of these statements is true regarding the differences in alcohol consumption and abuse between
men and women?
A. Females tend to use more alcohol than males; males tend to be more biologically vulnerable to alcohol
addiction than females
B. Males tend to use more alcohol than females; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to
alcohol addiction than males
C. Females tend to use more alcohol than males; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to
alcohol addiction than males
D. Males tend to use more alcohol than females; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to
alcohol addiction than males

10. What approach would you use to treat patients with paranoid personality disorder?
A. Cognitive Behavior Therapy
B. Psychological Treatment
C. Symptomatic Treatment
D. Cognitive Therapy

11. Which age group is MOST affected by major neurocognitive disorders?


A. 55 years old and below
B. 75 years old and above
C. 55-65 years old
D. 65-75 years old

12. How would you show your understanding of the Insanity Defense?
A. People’s ability to understand the nature of their behavior and therefore their criminal intent can be
diminished by their mental illness
B. The defendant does not go to trial because she is unable to understand the proceedings and assist in
the defense
C. A person charged admits to the action accused, but pleads not guilty due to mental illness
D. A person have been found not guilty of a crime by reason of insanity
13. What is the study of origins that has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it) and includes
biological, psychological, and social dimensions?
A. Epidemiology
B. Causality
C. Etiology
D. Nosology

14. What approach would you use in treating patients suffering from phobias?
A. Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
B. Systematic Desensitization
C. Operant Conditioning
D. Behavior Therapy

15. Which of the following best describes the relationship between sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and
parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)?
A. PNS is responsible for mobilizing the body during the times of stress whereas SNS helps the PNS
perform various other functions
B. PNS mobilized its energy in stressful situations and SNS is responsible to bring the body to a resting
state
C. PNS takes over after the SNS has been active for a while
D. SNS helps in balancing PNS

16. What year was the updated version of Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders or DSM-5
published?
A. 2010
B. 2012
C. 2013
D. 2014
17. What is the plan for testing the hypothesis, affected by the question addressed, by the hypothesis, and by
practical considerations?
A. Independent variable
B. Dependent variable
C. Research design
D. External validity

18. What is a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension and by apprehension
about the future?
A. Panic Disorder
B. Anxiety
C. Phobia
D. Fear

19. Barbara had been feeling depressed, hating herself and experiencing headaches in school for a year and
half. According to her, she felt hopeless and hated talking to people. Barbara could be diagnosed with
_________?
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
B. Persistent Depressive Disorder
C. Major Depressive Disorder
D. Double Depression

20. How would you differentiate bulimia nervosa to binge eating disorder?
A. Bulimia Nervosa refers to a lack of control over eating during the episode while Binge Eating Disorder
is feeling disgusted with oneself
B. Bulimia Nervosa is an intense fear of gaining weight while Binge Eating Disorder is eating in a discrete
period of time
C. Bulimia Nervosa are largely confined in men than women
D. Binge Eating Disorder occurs once a week for 3 months
21. The following are the variety of psychological treatments have been developed for physical disorders and
pain EXCEPT:
A. Relaxation procedures
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Biofeedback
D. Hypnosis

22. Sexual dysfunction is one category of disorders of sexuality and sexual functioning. The term sexual
dysfunction refers to:
A. Sexual urges or fantasies involving unusual sources of gratification problems
B. Dissatisfied with their own biological sex
C. Problems with normal sexual cycle
D. Problems with sexual fantasies

23. What is the most widely consumed psychoactive substance in the world?
A. Caffeine
B. Nicotine
C. Marijuana
D. Amphetamines

24. Which of the following is most likely to characterized schizoid personality disorder?
A. A detachment from social relationships
B. An insatiable desire for attention
C. A sense of self-importance
D. A fear of social rejection

25. Which of the following is not a subtype of major or mild neurocognitive disorders?
A. Dementia due to traumatic brain injury
B. Dementia due to septicemia
C. Dementia with Lewy bodies
D. Frontotemporal dementia
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the categories of mental status exam?
A. Observation and measurement
B. Appearance and behavior
C. Thought processes
D. Sensorium

27. The brain and the spinal cord comprise the _________.
A. Central nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Peripheral nervous system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system

28. Which of the following mostly describes common beliefs about people with psychological disorders during
the middle ages?
A. They were provided with with medical treatments because mental illness was regarded as equivalent to
physical illness
B. They were regarded as basically good individuals who were not responsible for their abnormal
behavior
C. They were thought to be possessed by evil spirits and exorcisms were attempted through rituals
D. They were considered to be suffering from religious delusions

29. Who led the biological tradition in the US in the 19th century - believe that causes of insanity were always
physical and therefore mentally ill patients should be treated like physically ill?
A. Wilhelm Wundt
B. John P. Grey
C. Hippocrates
D. Galen
30. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Glia is the area responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking and reasoning, planning for
the future, as well as long-term memory.
B. Glial cells are passive cells that serve to connect and insulate neurons
C. There are different types of glia cells with several specific functions
D. There are less glial cells than there are neurons.

31. Who produced the International Classification of Diseases, revision 10 (ICD 10)?
A. The American Psychological Association
B. The American Psychiatric Association
C. The American Medical Association
D. The World Health Organization

32. Which of the following is not true with regards to the culture and development of mental disorders?
A. Culture may influence a person's reaction to stress may be expected to react in the same way
B. Culture may influence what symptoms are present and the content of the symptoms
C. Culture may reinforce certain forms of a mental disorders
D. Culture may cause stress and psychological problems

33. The following are the symptoms of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder EXCEPT:
A. Increased arousal (Insomnia, irritability, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response)
B. Impulse to repeat certain behaviors or mental acts to avoid distress
C. Re-experiencing the traumatic event
D. Avoidance of stimuli and numbing

34. Over the last 6 months, Jerah has had several instances where she felt an intense fear that would reach a
peak within a few minutes. During these instances, she would also experience sweating, heart palpitations,
chest pain and discomfort, and shortness of breath. At times Jerah worried that she might die. What could
Jerah be suffering from?
A. Anxiety Disorder
B. Panic Disorder
C. Agoraphobia
D. Suicide
35. Which is formerly known as hypochondriasis?
A. Depersonalization-derealization disorder.
B. Dissociative Identity Disorder
C. Illness anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia

36. What neurotransmitter is associated with the increase of anxiety?


A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Oxytocin
D. GABA

37. How would you relate the DSM-IV TR Axis I and II?
A. Axis I indicates major clinical disorders that often emerge and end in the life cycle while Axis II
highlights psycho-social and environmental problems
B. Axis II is more life long in nature- personality/ mental retardation and it may affect the treatment of Axis
I disorders
C. Axis II includes personality (and developmental) disorders, and does not include in Axis I
D. Axis II is more significant than Axis I

38. What approach would you use for treatment for social but not specific phobias?
A. Psychodynamic approach
B. Evolutionary approach
C. Humanistic approach
D. Cognitive approach

39. Which of the following conditions is NOT included in the DSM?


A. Binge-eating
B. Anorexia
C. Obesity
D. Bulimia
40. What do you call the type of psychotherapy that originated by Sigmund Freud in which free association,
dream interpretation, and analysis of resistance and transference are used to explore repressed or
unconscious impulses, anxieties, and internal conflicts?
A. Interpersonal psychotherapy
B. Humanistic therapy
C. Psychoanalysis
D. Group therapy

41. How would you define polygenic?


A. A result of our genetic structure
B. Influenced by individual genes
C. Influenced by many genes
D. Influenced by few genes

42. What type of disorder did Pierre Biquet, a french physician, describe patients who came to him with a
seemingly endless list of complaints for which he could find no medical basis?
A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Personality disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Mood disorder

43. Anna, a 24-year-old law student, reported that she never really slept well, both having trouble falling
asleep at night and usually awakening again in the early morning. Anna’s sleep problems and their
interference with her schoolwork was causing her to experience increasingly severe depression. Anna could
be diagnosed with _______?
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Depressive episodes
C. Insomnia disorder
D. Bipolar Disorder
44. What is the type of leukocyte that surrounds identifiable antigens and destroys them?
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Memory B cells
C. Macrophages
D. Killer T cells

45. What approach would you use to treat erectile dysfunction?


A. Erectile Dysfunction Group
B. Vacuum Erection Device
C. Hoover Erection Device
D. Piston Erection Tool

46. Jake had been experiencing excessive sleepiness despite at least seven hours of sleep. It has been his
problem since his teenage years. Watching television and driving long distances were also problematic. Jake
could be diagnosed with _________?
A. Circadian Rhythm Sleep Disorder
B. Sleep-Related Hypoventilation
C. Hypersomnolence
D. Narcolepsy

47. Which of the following is an example of a single- case experimental design?


A. A researcher wants to investigate the hypothesis that as children go through adolescence they listen to
louder music
B. A researcher is interested in studying a woman who had no contact with civilization and create her own
language
C. A researcher changes the level of noise several times to see how it affects concentration in a group of
people
D. A researcher wants to know how different kinds of music will affect a 5-year-old who has never spoken
48. How would you explain the therapeutic technique to recall and relieve emotional trauma to release
accompanying tension?
A. By revealing emotionally charged material that may be repressed because it is too painful to bring into
consciousness
B. By understanding the relationship between the current emotions and earlier events
C. By focusing not only on psychological factors but also on social and cultural ones
D. By releasing of emotional material

49. Which of the following defines classical categorical approach?


A. Classification method founded on the assumption of clear-cut differences among disorders, each with a
different known cause
B. System for categorizing disorders using both essential, defining characteristics and a range of variation
on other characteristics
C. Classification and naming system for medical and psychological phenomena
D. Method of categorizing characteristics on continuum rather than binary

50. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding individuals with neuropsychological damage?
A. They often display moderate to severe psychopathology that includes hallucinations and delusions.
B. They often manifest psychopathological symptoms that are the opposite of their pre-disorder
personality.
C. They will develop psychopathology only when there is damage to areas of the frontal cortex.
D. They may or may not display psychopathological symptoms

51. The following are TRUE about the research methods EXCEPT:
A. Research in universities or medical settings must be approved by the institution’s review board
regarding whether or not the participants lack the cognitive skills to protect themselves
B. After participants are told the nature of the experiment and their role in it, they must be allowed to
refuse or agree to sign an informed consent form
C. Participants have a right to concealment of their identity on all data collected and reported
D. If the participant is in the control group or taking a placebo, informed consent is not needed
52. What would happen if a person suffering from depression takes too much lithium carbonate?
A. It causes nausea and diarrhea, muscle weakness or a dazed feeling
B. It intensify the lack of energy associated with depression
C. It increases the risk for relapse of the individual
D. It destabilizes mood for bipolar disorder

53. Individuals with _______ find it difficult to function adequately while having sex, for example, they may not
aroused or achieve orgasm.
A. Sexual dysfunction
B. Paraphilic disorder
C. Gender dysphoria
D. Sexual disorder

54. What is the ingestion of psychoactive substances in moderate amounts that does not significantly interfere
with social, educational, or occupational functioning?
A. Substance dependence
B. Substance intoxication
C. Substance abuse
D. Substance use

55. What makes the treatment for stimulant addiction difficult?


A. Stimulant users tend to use other drugs to counteract some of the effects of the stimulants and become
dependent on these drugs as well
B. Stimulants are very addicting, and it often takes many years to quit using them
C. It is easier to treat those who are addicted to socially acceptable drugs
D. Doctors are generally reluctant to treat substance use disorder
56. Lena has low self-esteem and usually feels empty unless she does dangerous and exciting things. She is
involved in drugs and has casual sexual encounters, even with strangers. She threatens to commit suicide if
her boyfriend suggests getting help or if he talks about leaving her. She alternates between passionately
loving and hating him, sometimes going from one extreme to the next in a short time. What type of personality
disorder does Lena have?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Histrionic personality disorder
D. Antisocial personality disorder

57. Which child shows behaviors indicative of mental illness?


A. 3-year-old who is mute, passive toward adults, and twirls while walking
B. 3-month-old who cries after feeding until burped and sucks a thumb
C. 9-month-old who does not eat vegetables and likes to be rocked
D. 4-year-old who stuttered for 3 weeks after the birth of a sibling

58.Which is a microscopic deposit of a protein that damages brain cells over time?
A. Neurocognitive disorder due to traumatic brain injury
B. Neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease
C. Neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease
D. Frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder

59. Laida can no longer form complete, coherent sentences. What could Laida be suffering from?
A. Facial agnosia
B. Agnosia
C. Aphasia
D. Apraxia
60. Sammy is known for being overly dramatic. She cries uncontrollably during sad movies and we sometimes
think that she is acting. She is vain and self-centered, interrupting many of our class conversations to discuss
her personal life. What type of personality disorder does Sammy have?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder

61. What is the main idea of M’Naghten rule in the Evolution of the Insanity Defense?
A. It must be clearly proved that at the time of committing the act, the party accused was laboring under
such a defect of reason, from disease of the mind, as not to know the nature and quality of the act he
was doing; or if he did know it, that he did not know he was doing what was wrong.
B. Evidence of abnormal mental condition would be admissible to affect the degree of crime for which an
accused could be convicted. Specifically, those offenses requiring intent or knowledge could be
reduced to lesser included offenses requiring only reckless or criminal neglect.
C. A person charged with a criminal offense should be found not guilty by reason of insanity if it is shown
that, as a result of mental disease or mental retardation, he was unable to appreciate the wrongfulness
of his conduct at the time of his offense
D. An accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act was the product of mental disease or mental
defect

62. Which is a genetic disorder that initially affects motor movements, typically in a form of chorea?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Pick’s disease
D. Prion disease

63. Timmy’s elderly grandmother does not recognize her own home any more. What could Timmy’s
grandmother be suffering from?
A. Facial agnosia
B. Agnosia
C. Aphasia
D. Apraxia
64. Trent’s developmental disorder is characterized by uncontrollable yelps, sniffs, and grunting noises. Which
developmental disorder is being described?
A. Social communication disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Tourette’s disorder
D. ADHD

65. What disorder is characterized by hyperactivity and impulsivity?


A. Autism spectrum disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Attention deficit disorder
D. Rett disorder

66. Renz is 17 and has been in trouble with the law for the past 2 years. He lies to his parents, vandalizes
buildings in the community, and often fights with others. He shows no remorse for the people he injures or the
grief that he causes his ailing parents. What type of personality disorder does Renz have?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Histrionic personality disorder
D. Antisocial personality disorder

67. Nancy thinks she is the best at everything. She thinks her performance is always excellent, and is
extremely critical of anyone else’s success. She constantly looks for admiration and reassurance from others.
What type of personality disorder does Nancy have?
A. Narcissistic personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Histrionic personality disorder
68. Which of the following are the advantages and limitations of cross-sectional designs?
A. No individual development data
B. Shows individual development
C. Cross- generational effect
D. No cohort effects

69. Which of the following is an important first step in studying a particular disorder?
A. Determining the criteria for identifying people who have the disorder
B. Determine what treatment approach will be tested
C. Selecting the appropriate subjects for study
D. Selection the best case study for analysis

70. Which statement supports the function of the autonomic nervous system?
A. It regulates the cardiovascular system as well as the endocrine system that produces hormones
B. It sponged up from the synaptic cleft into the same neuron
C. It makes sure that the body is working properly
D. It controls the body’s skeletal muscles

71. How would you rephrase the meaning of psychological dysfunction?


A. A psychological disorder characterized by beliefs and perceptions that are not based in reality
B. It focuses on the past experiences, emotions and feelings of the patients
C. A disorder caused by biological, psychological, and social dimensions
D. An abnormal mental functioning and patterns of behavior

72. A 15-year-old high school junior girl drank alcohol constantly. Which of the following would possibly be the
factor?
A. Seeing that her classmates are doing the same thing
B. Absent parental discipline, supervision and support
C. High expectations from family and friends
D. She just wanna try it
73. Kelly was a good student until the sixth grade. Her grades slowly began to drop, despite her increased
studying. Now, as a high school senior concerned about graduation, and with hopes of going to college, Kelly
has sought help. She places above average on an IQ test but shows significant problems with reading and
comprehension. Which disorder Kelly is suffering from?
A. Pragmatic communication disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Tourett’s disorder
D. ADHD

74. In school, 6-year-old Miley appears extremely awkward. She doesn’t understand when other children are
being sarcastic and misses many social communication cues. Miley has a/an?
A. Social communication disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Tourette’s disorder
D. ADHD

75. What is the definition of delirium?


A. Gradual deterioration of brain functioning that affects memory, judgment, language and other
advanced cognitive processes
B. Disorder that was created to focus attention on the early stages of cognitive decline
C. Impaired consciousness and cognition during the course of several hours or days
D. Progressive brain disorder that is common cause of neurocognitive deficits

76. Which mental state is characterized by a disturbance of cognition manifested by confusion, excitement,
disorientation, and a clouding of consciousness?
A. Dementia
B. Delirium
C. Aphasia
D. Apraxia
77. Which of the following diseases can cause neurocognitive disorder?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)
B. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Parkinson’s disease

78. What causes chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy?


A. Brain damage in temporal temporal regions of the brains
B. Motor problem
C. Head trauma
D. Brain injury

79. WHat disorder affects memory impairment apraxia?


A. Substance/ Medication-Induced Neurocognitive Disorder
B. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Prion disease

80. Paticia no longer recognizes Timmy when he visits, even though he is her only grandchild. What could
Patria be suffering from?
A. Facial agnosia
B. Agnosia
C. Aphasia
D. Apraxia

81. Which of the following statements about the diagnosis of neurocognitive disorder due to Hungtington’s
disease (NCDHD) is true?
A. It is a clinical diagnosis based on abnormal physical findings and family history or genetics
B. NCDHd is a disorder that requires positive neuroimaging for diagnosis
C. NCDHD is a diagnosis mostly based on radiological examination
D. It is a laboratory-based diagnosis or disorder
82. Eight-year-old Chandra is described by everyone as a “handful.” She fidgets constantly in class,
drumming her fingers on the desk, squirming in her chair, and getting up and down. She has trouble waiting
her turn at work or at play, and she sometimes has violent outbursts. Chandra is suffering from?
A. Pragmatic communication disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Tourett’s disorder
D. ADHD

83. Which of the following is not required for a DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability?
A. Deficits in adaptive functioning that result in failure to meet developmental and sociocultural standards
for personal independence and social responsibility
B. Deficits in intellectual functions confirmed by clinical assessment
C. Symptom onset during the developmental period
D. Full-scale IQ below 70

84. What type of personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for
affirmation and lack empathy?
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder
D. Histrionic Personality Disorder

85. Ten-year-old Cole can be frustrating to his parents, teachers, and friends. He has trouble waiting his turn
during games and does things seemingly without thinking. He often calls out answers in school, sometimes
before the complete question is asked. What mental state does Cole have?
A. Pragmatic communication disorder
B. Specific learning disorder
C. Tuorette’s disorder
D. ADHD
86. What factor in the Evolution of the Insanity Defense broadens the criteria for responsibility from knowledge
of right or wrong to state that “accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act was the product of
mental disease or mental defect”?
A. Insanity Defense Reform Act
B. American Law Institute
C. M’Naghten rule
D. Durham rule

87. Janna has spent the last half hour staring in the mirror. As you approach her she turns away and giggles.
When you ask what she’s laughing at, she answers, but you’re having difficulty understanding what she says.
What could Janna be suffering from?
A. Attenuated psychosis syndrome
B. Schizophreniform disorder
C. Delusional disorder
D. Disorganized

88. Karl was brought to a clinic by his mother. She was concerned because at times his behavior was
strange.His speech and his way of relating to people and situations would change dramatically, almost as if he
were a different person. What bothered her and Karl most was
that he could not recall anything he did during these periods. What could be Karl’s diagnosis?
A. Dissociative Identity Disorder
B. Generalized amnesia
C. Localized amnesia
D. Dissociative fugue

89. Sixteen-year-old Chad suddenly lost the use of his arms with no medical cause. The complete paralysis
slowly improved to the point that he could slightly raise them. However, Chad cannot drive, pick up objects, or
perform most tasks necessary for day-to-day life. What diagnosis does Chad have?
A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Body dysmorphic disorder
C. Illness anxiety disorder
D. Conversion disorder
90. Which pertains to people holding unusual postures, as if they were fearful of something terrible
happening if they move?
A. Disorganized speech
B. Catatonic Immobility
C. Inappropriate affect
D. Flat affect

91. What would happen to a person suffering from hypomanic episodes?


A. He/she might experience inability to concentrate, memory problems, and difficulty making decisions
B. He/she might experience noticeably shifts up and down from their baseline
C. He/she might feel hopelessness, low self-esteem and loss of appetite
D. He/she might feel happy, euphoric, excited and easily distracted

92. Approximately one-quarter of the people with schizophrenia exhibit what is called?
A. Disorganized speech
B. Catatonic immobility
C. Inappropriate affect
D. Flat affect

93. Which type of treatment for mood disorder has three main types (tricyclics, MAO inhibitors, and SSRIs)
and are often prescribed but have numerous side effects?
A. Interpersonal psychotherapy
B. Electroconvulsive therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Antidepressants

94. Sheiba lives in a remote village in Africa. She was recently caught in an adulterous affair with a man in a
nearby village. Her husband wants to kill her but won’t have to because of a tribal custom that requires her to
kill herself. She leaps from the nearby “sinful woman’s cliff.” What suicide type is this?
A. Fatalistic
B. Altruistic
C. Egoistic
D. Anomic

95. Ralph’s wife left him and took the children. He is a well-known television personality, but, because of a
conflict with the new station owners, he was recently fired. If Ralph kills himself, his suicide would be
considered?
A. Fatalistic
B. Altruistic
C. Egoistic
D. Anomic

96. What is a startling disorder characterized by a broad spectrum of cognitive and emotional dysfunctions
including delusions and hallucinations, disorganized speech and behavior, and inappropriate emotions?
A. Schizoaffective disorder
B. Delusional disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Hallucination

97. What do you call an experience of sensory events without any input from the surrounding environment?
A. Personality Disorder
B. Hallucination
C. Delusions
D. Anxiety

98. Sarah shows little interest in performing even the most basic day-to-day functions, including those
associated with personal hygiene. What negative symptoms does she have?
A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions
C. Avolition
D. Anxiety
99. What subtype applies when the central theme of the delusion is that another person is in love with the
individual?
A. Erotomanic Type
B. Grandiose Type
C. Somatic Type
D. Jealous Type

100. What subtype applies when the central theme of delusion is the conviction of having some great (but
unrecognized) talent or insight or having made some important discovery?
A. Erotomanic Type
B. Grandiose Type
C. Somatic Type
D. Jealous Type
Key to correction 33. C 67. A
34. B 68. C
1. A 35. C 69. A
2. A 36. D 70. A
3. A 37. B 71. D
4. C 38. B 72. A
5. B 39. C 73. B
6. D 40. C 74. A
7. A 41. C 75. C
8. C 42. A 76. B
9. B 43. C 77. C
10. D 44. C 78. C
11. D 45. B 79. A
12. D 46. C 80. A
13. D 47. D 81. A
14. B 48. D 82. D
15. C 49. A 83. D
16. C 50. D 84. B
17. C 51. D 85. D
18. B 52. A 86. D
19. C 53. A 87. D
20. A 54. D 88. A
21. B 55. A 89. D
22. C 56. B 90. B
23. A 57. A 91. D
24. A 58. C 92. D
25. D 59. C 93. D
26. A 60. D 94. B
27. A 61. A 95. D
28. C 62. A 96. C
29. B 63. B 97. B
30. C 64. C 98. C
31. D 65. C 99. D
32. A 66. D 100.A

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