Pipe CNS 1 6

POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING
I. FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS
A vertical turbine pump with the jump and motor closed coupled
and design to be installed underground, as in the case of a
deepwell pump.
A. Horizontal split case pump

B. Booster pump
C. Submersible pump
D. Vertical shaft turbines pump
Answer: C
An underground formation that contains sufficient saturated

permeable material to yield significant quantities of water.
A. Aquifer C. Wet pit

B. Ground water D. Well water
Answer: A
A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a screened inlet

kept partially filled with water by an open body of water such
as pond, lake, or steams.

Answer: C
Water which is available from well, driven into water bearing

subsurface strata (aquifer)

Answer: B
Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force

as the impeller is rotated.
A. Impeller C. Casing
B. Stuffing box D. Shaft sleeve
Answer: A
A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise occur at
the point of entry of the shaft into the casing.
Answer: B
Protect the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box.
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density at

saturation
A. Relative humidity C. Humidity ratio

B. Absolute humidity D. Saturation ratio
Answer: A
An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry

air

Answer: C
Which of the following is equivalent to 1lb?
A. 5000 grains C. 7000 grains

B. 6000 grains D. 8000 grains
Answer: C
The bypass factor for large commercial units
A. Around 20% C. Around 10%

B. Around 30% D. Around 50%
Answer: C
Sometimes called specific humidity

Answer: C
For any given barometric pressure, the humidity ratio is a
function of the
A. Critical temperature C. Dry bulb temperature

B. Dew point temperature D. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: B
The humidity ratio corresponding to any given dew point

temperature varies with the total barometric pressure,
increasing as the barometric pressure
A. Increases C. Varies
B. Decreases D. Constant
Answer: B
The ratio of the mass of water vapor in the air per unit mass of
dry to the mass of water vapor requires for saturation of the
same air sample

Answer: D
A closed channel excavated through an obstruction such as a

ridge of higher land between the dam and the powerhouse is
called
A. Canal C. Penstock
B. Headrace D. Tunnel
Answer: D
The small reservoir in which the water level rises or falls to

reduce the pressure swings so that they are not transmitted to
the closed conduit is called
A. Penstock C. Pressure tank

B. Power reservoir D. Tunnel
Answer: D
The regulation of the water in the form of a relatively small
pond of reservoir provided at the plant is called
A. Pondage C. Reservoir
B. Water storage D. Lake
Answer: A
A structure used to relieve the reservoir of excess water
A. Spillway C. Butress dam

B. Diversion channel D. Arch dam
Answer: A
The fluid pressure difference created by column of heated gas,

as by7 chimney is called
A. Natural draft C. Induce draft

B. Forced draft D. Required draft
Answer: A
The pressure rise from greater to a lesser vacuum, created in a

gas loop between stream generator outlet and chimney by means of
a fan is called
A. Forced draft C. Required draft

B. Induced draft D. Balanced draft
Answer: B
Also known as Francis turbines or radial flow turbines
A. Impulse turbines C. Reaction turbines

B. Tangential turbines D. Axial flow turbines
Answer: C
The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise what is
known as
A. Powerhouse C. Setting
B. Forbay D. Surge chamber
Answer: C
When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design, it
will be desirable to provide a _________ in order to relieve the
effects of rapid changes in flowrate.
A. Forbay C. Surge chamber

B. Draft tube D. Penstock
Answer: C
To keep the deflected jet out of the way of the incoming jet,
the actual angle is limited to approximately
A. 90 deg. C. 165 %
B. 135 deg. D. 175 deg.
Answer: C
The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for

satisfactory operation is known as
A. NPSHR C. Velocity head

B. NPSHA D. Friction head
Answer: A
Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or evacuating

the receiving tank
A. Both increase cavitation

B. Both decrease cavitation
C. Both eliminate cavitation
D. Both drive cavitation
Answer: A
Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can be

either single-acting or double acting and are suitable up to
approximately
A. 2000 psi C. 8000 psi

B. 4000 psi D. 10,000 psi
Answer: A
In a sensible heating process the final humidity ratio is:
A. Increased C. The same

B. Decreased D. Cannot be determined
Answer: C
In an adiabatic saturation process the final relative humidity

is:
A. Increased C. The same

B. Decreased D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A
Cooling and dehumidifying process is commonly used for:
A. Summer air conditioning C. Winter cooling

B. Ice making D. Heat pumping
Answer: A
An adiabatic saturation process is also known as:
A. Constant WB temperature process

B. Constant DB temperature process
C. Constant DP temperature process
D. Constant vapor temperature process
Answer: A
For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not

be lower than
A. 5 C C. 10 C
B. 17 C D. 20 C
Answer: A
For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not

be more than
A. 5 C C. 10 C
B. 17 C D. 20 C
Answer: B
The process of simultaneous heating and dehumidifying is known
as:
A. Sensible heating
B. Cooling and dehumidifying
C. Sensible cooling
D. Chemical dehumidifying
Answer: D
The process in increasing the dry-bulb temperature without

changing the humidity ratio is known as:
A. Sensible heating
C. Sensible cooling
D. Heating and dehumidifying
Answer: A
The process of simultaneous cooling and decreasing of humidity

ratio is known as:
A. Sensible cooling
B. Cooling and humidifying
C. Cooling and dehumidifying
Answer: C
The process of cooling without changing the humidity ratio is

known as:
A. Sensible heating
C. Sensible cooling
D. Heating and humidifying
Answer: C
The process of simultaneous heating and humidifying ratio is
known as:
A. Sensible cooling
B. Cooling and humidifying
C. Heating and humidifying
Answer: C
Which of the following cycle is bulky and involves toxic fluids

hence it is unsuitable for home and autocooling
A. Carnot refrigeration cycle

B. Absorption cycle
C. Vapor and compression cycle
D. Air refrigeration cycle
Answer: B
Which of the following refrigeration cycle is practical when

large quantities of waste or inexpensive heat energy are
available?
A. Reciprocating compressors
B. Centrifugal compressors
C. Rotary compressors
D. Scroll compressors
Answer: D
Condensers used in small and medium sized up to approximately

100 tons refrigerators.
A. Air-cooled condensers C. High side condensers

B. Water cooled condensers D. Low side condensers
Answer: A
An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which heat

transfer modes?
A. Conduction C. Radiation
B. Convection D. All of the above
Answer: D
Energy added to a vapor is known as a latent heat of
vaporization
A. Latent heat of vaporization

B. Sensible heat of vapor
C. Superheat
D. B and C
Answer: C
The vaporization process that occurs at temperature below the

triple point of a substance is called.
A. Evaporation C. Sublimation
B. Boiling D. Condensation
Answer: C
As the pressure increases, the amount of work it can do

increases and its enthalpy
A. Increases
B. Remained the same
C. Decreases
D. Pressure and enthalpy has no relation at all
Answer: A
During the compression process, the internal energy of the

refrigerant vapor
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain the same
D. Internal energy has no relation to the compression process
Answer: A
The measure of the amount of thermal energy transfer occurring

within the evaporator per unit mass under stated conditions.
A. Refrigeration capacity C. Refrigeration effect

B. Heat capacity D. Heat absorptivity
Answer: C
The peak power that can be produced on an occasional basis
A. Brakepower C. Continous duty rating

B. Intermittent rating D. Power rating
Answer: B
A value of a property that includes the effect of friction is

known as:
A. Brake value C. Friction value

B. Indicated value D. Actual value
Answer: A
Forced draft fans are run at relatively high speeds in the range
of
A. 1200 to 1800 rpm C. 1000 to 1600 rpm

B. 1500 to 2000 rpm D. 900 to 1500 rpm
Answer: A
Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes referred to as
A. Natural chimney C. Gravity chimney

B. Normal chimney D. Stack
Answer: C
For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect probably

should be considered to be
A. 75% of the ideal C. 80 % of the ideal

B. Equal to the ideal D. Half the ideal
Answer: C
In a balanced system, the available draft is
A. Unity C. Zero
B. 100 D. Infinite
Answer: C
It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil and
through which the fuel oil is injected into the working
cylinders of Diesel engines
A. Atomizer C. Fuel spray nozzle

B. Injector D. Cracker
Answer: A
The device that transfer thermal energy from one fluid to

another
A. Condenser C. Evaporator
B. Feedwater D. Heat exchanger
Answer: D
Undergrounds system of hot water and / or steam
A. Hydrothermal resource
B. Geothermal resource
C. Hot water resource
D. High pressure water system
Answer: A
The process of returning spent geothermal fluids to the

subsurface Is called
A. Injection C. Rejection
B. Returning D. Exhaustion
Answer: A
The simultaneous demand of all customers required at any

specified point in an electric power system is called
A. Demand C. Power demand

B. Electrical demand D. Load
Answer: D
The electricity generating plants that are operated to meet the

peak or maximum load on the system are called
A. Peaking plants C. High demanding plants

B. High-load plants D. Add-on plants
Answer: A
The capacity of a substance to transmit a fluid is called
A. Fluidity C. Porosity
B. Permeability D. Smoothness
Answer: B
The ratio of the aggregate volume pore spaces in rock or soil to

its total volume is called
A. Porosity C. Permeability
B. Sphericity D. Salinity
Answer: A
Cooling efficiency is typically

A. 75 to 80% C. 80 to 85%
B. 50 to 70% D. 90 to 95%
Answer: B
Forced draft towers can cool the water to within

A. 10 to12 F C. 20 to 24 F
B. 5 to 6 F D. 2.5 to 3 F
Answer: B
The higher the wet bulb temperatures

A. The higher the efficiency
B. The lower the efficiency
C. The efficiency is limited
D. The efficiency is maximum
Answer: B
Define the relative difficulty in cooling, essentially the

relative amount of contact area or fill volume required
A. Heat load C. Cooling duty
B. Tower load D. Rating factor
Answer: D
Evaporation loss can be calculated from the humidity ratio
increase and is approximately _________ decrease in water
temperature
A. 0.18% per C C. 0.10% per C

B. 0.25% per C D. 0.30% per C
Answer: A
Water lost in small droplet and carried away by the air flow
A. Range C. Drift
B. Approach D. Bleed-off
Answer: C
The ratio of total dissolved solids in the recirculating water

to the total dissolved solids in the make-up water.
A. Ratio of concentration
B. Cooling efficiency
C. Coil efficiency
D. Bypass factor
Answer: A
A dry-cooling tower where steam travels through large diameter

“trunks” to a cross-flow heat exchanger where it is condensed
and cooled by the cooler air
A. Direct condensing tower
B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
C. Evaporative cooling tower
D. Atmospheric cooling tower
Answer: A
The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for
satisfactory operation is known as
Answer: A
The actual fluid energy at the inlet

Answer: B
Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or evacuating

the receiver tank
A. Both increase cavitation

B. Both decrease cavitation
C. Both eliminate cavitation
D. Both drive cavitation
Answer: A
Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can be

either single-acting or double acting and are suitable up to
approximately
A. 2000 psi C. 8000 psi

B. 4000 psi D. 10,000 psi
Answer: A
Plunger pumps are only single-acting and are suitable up to

approximately
A. 2000 psi C. 8000 psi

B. 4000 psi D. 10,000 psi
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer coefficient.
A. Fouling factor C. Cleanliness factor

B. Sensible heat ratio D. Biot number
Answer: C
The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow rates at

which the temperature can be accurately contained by the
desuperheater.
A. Cleanliness factor C. Turndown ratio

B. Capacity factor D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
With a reversible regenerator, the thermal efficiency of the

Ericsson cycle is ______ to that of the Carnot cyle
A. Less than C. Proportional

B. Greater than D. Equal
Answer: D
The electron magnetic radiation emitted from the daughter
nucleus when an alpha particles leaves the patent atom
A. Neutron C. Gamma ray

B. Position D. K-capture
Answer: C
Which of the following statement is a scheme for energy storage?
A. Pumped hydro C. Thermal energy storage

B. Magnetic energy storage D. All of the above
Answer: D
A reactor that employs fast or high energy neutrons and contains
no moderator is called
A. High energy reactor C. High speed reactor

B. Fast reactor D. Turbo reactor
Answer: B
A reactor that utilizes slow moving neutrons
A. Slow reactor C. Thermal reactor

B. Intermediate reactor D. Slow speed reactor
Answer: C
The water bearing stratum of permeable san, rock, or gravel is

called
A. Reservoir C. Aquifer
B. Water source D. Well
Answer: C
The electricity generating units that are operated to meet the

constant or minimum load on the system is called
A. Constant load plants C. Invariable load plants
B. Baseload plants D. Steady load plants
Answer: B
The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given

temperature,
A. Absorptivity C. Emissivity
B. Conductivity D. Reflectivity
Answer: C
What are the main components in a combined cycle power plant?
A. Diesel engine and air compressor

B. Steam boiler and turbine
C. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
Answer: C
The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally designed by

a three-digits number size as 646. The first digit designates
A. Stroke of the pump in inches

B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in inches
C. Percent clearance
D. Number of cylinder
Answer: B
The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against

a given head with no losses in the pump is called
A. Wheel power C. Hydraulic power

B. Brake power D. Indicated power
Answer: C
Fluid that are pumped in processing work are frequently more

viscous than water. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the
passing fluid increases useful work
D. Working head increases as the viscosity
Answer: C
The law that states “Entropy of all perfect crystalline solids
is zero at absolute zero temperature”
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: D
An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry

air
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Humidity ratio
D. Saturation ratio
Answer: C
Which of the following is equivalent to 1 lb?

A. 5000 grains C. 7000 grains
B. 6000 grains D. 8000 grains
Answer: C
The locus of states that the same value of stagnation enthalpy

and mass flux is called.
A. Fanno line C. Willian’s line
B. Reyleigh line D. Mollier’s line
Answer: A
Combining the conservation of mass and momentum equations into a

single equation and plotting it on the h-s diagram yield a curve
called
A. Fanno line C. Willian’s line
B. Reyleigh line D. Mollier’s line
Answer: B
Across the shock, the stagnation temperature of an ideal gas
A. Increases C. Remains constant
B. Decreases D. Proportional
Answer: C
Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing

moisture on a solid dessicant or drying material such as
activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular sieve?
A. Regenerative dryer C. Deliquescent dryer

B. Spray dryer D. Refrigerated dryer
Answer: C
When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal

equilibrium with a third body, the two are in thermal
equilibrium with each other.
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamic
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: A
The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where

energies appear in several complex forms is the
A. Kinetic energy C. Potential energy
B. Internal energy D. Friction energy
Answer: B
The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following

process except
A. Isentropic expansion C. Isothermal expansion
B. Isenthalpic expansion D. Isentropic compression
Answer: B
The maximum possible work that can be obtained a cycle operating
between two reservoirs is found from
A. Process irreversibility
B. Carnot efficiency
C. Availability
D. Reversible work
Answer: B
The following factors are necessary to define a thermodynamic

cycle expect
A. The working substance

B. High and low temperature reservoirs
C. The time it takes to complete the cycle
D. The means of doing work on the system
Answer: C
A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied
A. Cryogenic temperature
B. Absolute temperature
C. Vaporization temperature
D. Critical temperature
Answer: D
The geometrical electricity generating plants that employs a

closed-loop heat exchange system in which the heat of the
primary fluid is transferred to a secondary fluid, which is
thereby vaporized and used to drive a turbine generator set
A. Binary cycle plant C. Double cycle plant

B. Dual cycle plant D. Cascade cycle
Answer: A
The geothermal solution which contains appreciable amounts of
sodium chloride or other salts is called
A. Sulfur dioxide C. Sea water

B. Potassium silicate D. Brine
Answer: D
The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one

pound of water one degree Fahrenheit at standard conditions.
A. Btu C. Joule
B. Calorie D. Centigrade
Answer: A
The process that uses a stream of geothermal of hot water or

stream to perform successive task requiring temp is called
A. Diminishing heat
B. Decreasing heat
C. Cascading heat
D. Negative gradient process
Answer: C
The water formed by condensation of steam is called
A. Distilled water C. Dew

B. Condensate D. Condenser
Answer: B
A structure that removes heat from condensate is called

A. Desuperheater C. Evaporator
B. Cooling tower D. Condenser
Answer: B
In a typical hydroelectric generating plant using reaction
turbines, the turbine is generally housed in a
A. Powerhouse C. Forbay
B. Penstock D. Setting
Answer: A
After the water passes through the turbine, it is discharges

through the draft tube to the receiving reservoir known as the
A. Tail race C. Draft tube

B. Tailwater D. Setting
Answer: A
The turbine, draft tube and all related parts comprise what is
known as
A. Powerhouse C. Setting
B. Forbay D. Surge chamber
Answer: C
When a forbay is not part of the generating plant’s design, it

will be desirable to provide a ________ in order to relieve the
effects of rapid changes in flowrate.
A. Forbay C. Surge chamber

B. Draft tube D. Penstock
Answer: C
A. 90 deg. C. 165%
B. 135deg. D. 175deg.
Answer: C
The spontaneous vaporization of the fluid, resulting in a

degradation of pump performance.
A. Cavitation C. Available head

B. Vapor lock D. Net head
Answer: A
A dry cooling tower where steam is condensed by cold water jets

(surface or jet condenser)
A. Direct condensing tower

B. Indirect condensing dry cooling tower
C. Evaporative cooling tower
D. Atmospheric cooling tower
Answer: B
If the heat is being removed from water, the device is known as
A. Chiller C. Air conditioner

B. Cooler D. Air cooler
Answer: A
Which of the following is the refrigerant “of choice” in uniting
air conditioners?
A. R-22 C. R-11
B. R-123 D. R-502
Answer: A
In new equipment, which of the following replace R-11?
A. R-12 C. R-502
B. R-123 D. R-22
Answer: B
The mass flow rate produces by the compressor is
A. Proportional to the mass of the suction vapor that the

compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
B. Equal to the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor
takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
C. Less than the mass of the suction vapor that the compressor
takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
D. Greater that the mass of the suction vapor that the
compressor takes in at the suction inlet per unit time
Answer: B
A boiler operated at pressure not exceeding 1.055kg/cm2 gage

steam, or water temperature no exceeding 121˚C.
A. Low pressure heating boiler

B. Hot water supply boiler
C. Miniature
D. Power boiler
Answer: A
The very hot steam that doesn’t occur with a liquid
A. Pure steam C. Critical steam

B. Saturated vapor D. Dry steam
Answer: D
The steam produced when the pressure on a geothermal liquid is

reduced
A. Low pressure steam C. Sub pressure steam

B. High quality steam D. Flashed steam
Answer: D
The vent or hole in the Earth surface, usually in a volcanic

region, from which, gaseous vapors, or hot gasses issue
A. Fumaroles C. Hot spot
B. Crater D. Hot spring
Answer: A
The earth interior heat made available to man by extracting it

from hot water or rocks.
A. Geological heat C. Volcanic heat

B. Geothermal heat D. None of these
Answer: B
Device that takes advantage of the relatively constant

temperature of the Earth’s interior, using it as a source and
sink of heat for both heating and cooling.
A. Geothermal devices C. Geothermal heat pumps

B. Geothermal generator D. Geothermal turbines
Answer: C
The spring that shoots jets of hot water and steam into the air
is called
A. Geyser C. Thermal jet

B. Hot jet D. Guyshen
Answer: A
What is the power seat width of a spray valve?
A. 1/16 in. C. 1/8 in.

B. 1/32 in. D. 1/4 in.
Answer: A
A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an

engine.
A. Servomotor C. Governors
B. Indicator D. Speedometer
Answer: C
The useful energy transfer in Btu/hr divided by input power in

watts. This is just the coefficient of performance expressed in
mixed units.
A. Energy efficient ratio C. Bypass factor

B. Coil efficient D. Sensible heat ratio
Answer: A
If EER is the energy efficiency ratio, and COP is the
coefficient of performance then
A. EER=3.41COP C. EERxCOP=3.41
B. COP=3.41EER D. 3.41EERxCOP=1
Answer: A
Which of the following is a reversed Rankine vapor cycle?

B. Vapor refrigeration cycle
C. Air refrigeration cycle
D. Absoption cycle
Answer: B
The most common type of refrigeration cycle, finding application

in household refrigerators, air conditioners for cars and
houses, chillers and so on.

D. Absoption cycle
Answer: B
Which of the following is a reserved Brayton cycle?

D. Absoption cycle
Answer: C
A 100kg is at 0˚C is heated by supplying 2000KJ of heat to it.
If the heat of fusion is 335kJ/kg how many kilograms of ice will
melt into water?
A. 8 kg C. 6 kg
B. 10 kg D. 3 kg
Answer: C
Determine the quantity of latent heat transferred to an

evaporator when 5 kg of water undergoes those changes from a
liquid at 0˚C to ice at 0˚C.
A. 1,300 kJ C. 1,450 kJ
B. 1,675 kJ D. 1,800 kJ
Answer: B
Compute the rate of water transfer by melting an ice at a rate

of 50 kg/hr.
A. 8 kJ/sec C. 5 kJ/sec
B. 10 kJ/sec D. 12 kJ/sec
Answer: C
10 kg of water at 60˚C receives 42,000kJ of heat coming from the

surrounding. Assuming it is open to the atmosphere, how many
kilograms of water will be vaporized?
A. 18 kg C. 10 kg
B. 15 kg D. 20 kg
Answer: A
As the liquid changes phase to vapor, its enthalpy
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. Enthalpy has no relation to phase change
Answer: A
Which of the following processes does not alter the kinetic

energy level of a substance?
A. Fusion
B. Adding sensible heat to a solid
C. Adding sensible heat to a liquid
D. Superheating a vapor
Answer: A
Condensers used for larger capacities refrigerators.
A. Air-cooled condersers C. High side condensers

B. Water-cooled condensers D. Low side condenser
Answers: B
Coolers and chillers for water generally operate with an average

temperature difference of
A. 3 to 11 C C. 6 to 22 C
B. 5 to 8 C D. 10 to 16 C
Answer: A
To avoid freezing problems, entering refrigerant should be
A. Below-2 C
B. Above-2 C
C. Equal to-2 C
D. 0 C
Answer: B
Suction lines should not be sized too large, as reasonable

velocity is needed to carry oil from the evaporator back to the
compressor. For horizontal suction lines, the recommended
minimum velocity is
A. 3.8 m/s C. 7.1 m/s

B. 6.1 m/s D. 4.8 m/s
Answer: A
Type of turbine used for low heads, high rotational speeds and
larger flow rates
A. Axial flow turbines C. Radial flow turbines

B. Reaction turbines D. Impulse turbines
Answer: A
A. 135 deg. C. 165 deg.

B. 150 deg. D. 175 deg.
Answer: C
Which of the following turbines are centrifugal pumps operating
in reverse?
A. Reaction turbines C. Tangential turbines

B. Impulse turbines D. Axial flow turbines
Answer: A
Weight per unit volume is termed as:
A. Specific gravity C. Weight density

B. Specific density D. Pressure
Answer: C
Measure of hotness or coldness of the body
A. Pressure C. Energy
B. Temperature D. Entropy
Answer: B
The temperature at which the water vapor in the air begins to

condensed, or the temperature at which the relative humidity of
air becomes 100%.
A. Flash point C. Dew point

B. Boiling point D. Freezing point
Answer: C
It consists of a wet and dry bulb thermometers mounted on a

strip of metal
A. Manometer C. Pyrometer
B. Gyrometer D. Sling psychrometer
Answer: D
A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure:
A. Air pressure C. Heat radiation

B. Condensate water level D. Air volume
Answer: A
The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point

temperature to the amount that should be in the air if the air
were saturated at the dry-bulb temperature is:
A. Partial pressure actual dew point

B. Percentage humidity
C. Relative humidity
D. Run faster
Answer: A
All of the following statements about wet bulb temperature are

true, EXCEPT
A. Wet bulb temperature aequals adiabatic saturation

temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature is the only temperature necessary to
determine grains water per lb of dry air
C. Wet bulb temperature lies numerically between dew point and
dry bulb temperature for unsaturated systems
D. Wet bulb temperature equals both dry-bulb and dew point
temperature at 100% relative humidity
Answer: C
Heat added to or removed from a substance that cause a change of

temperature:
A. Absolute heat C. Specific heat
B. Latent heat D. Sensible heat
Answer: D
The ratio of the actual to the ideal heat transfer coefficient.
A. Fouling factor
B. Sensible heat ratio
C. Cleanliness factor
D. Biot number
Answer: C
The ratio of the maximum to minimum mass steam flow rates at

which the temperature can be accurately contained by the
desuperheater.
A. Cleanliness factor C. Turndown ratio

B. Capacity factor D. Fouling factor
Answer: C
Used to described the act of blowing the exhaust product out

with the air-fuel mixture
A. Supercharging C. Honing
B. Scavenging D. Choking
Answer: B
A form of supercharging in which the exhaust gases drive the

supercharger
A. Lugging C. Turbocharging
B. Honing D. Blower charging
Answer: C
The maximum speed of the turbine under no and no governing
action is called
A. Runaway speed
B. Pre governing speed
C. Governing speed
D. No load governing
Answer: A
Which of the following statements is false when gasoline is used

as diesel fuel.
A. Gasoline does not ignite

B. Gasoline wears the fuel-injection pumps because of its low
viscosity
C. Addition of lubrication oil to gasoline will just severe
the situation
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Which of the following is an advantage of hydro-plants?
A. Hydro plants provide ancillary benefits like irrigation,

flood control, aquaculture navigation etc.
B. Modern hydro generators give high efficiency over
considerable range of load. This helps in improving the
system
C. Due to its great ease of taking up and throwing off the
load, the hydro power can be used as the ideal spinning
reserve in a system mix of the thermal, hydro and power
station
D. All of the above
Answer: B
The hole area behind the dam draining into a stream or river
across which dam has been constructed is called
A. Lake C. Catchment area

B. Forebay D. Reserve potential
Answer: C
Dams constructed primarily to store flood waters called
A. Storage dams C. Detention dam

B. Diversion dams D. None of the above
Answer: C
A channel which leads water to a turbine is called
A. Canal C. Penstock
B. Tailrace D. Headrace
Answer: D
Sometimes called percentage humidity

Answer: D
When measuring ____________ of air, the bulb of the thermometer

should be shaded to reduce the effect of direct radiation
A. Dry bulb temperature C. Critical temperature

B. Wet bulb temperature D. Saturation temperature
Answer: A
An ordinary thermometer whose bulb is enclosed in a wetted cloth
sac or wick
A. Dry bulb thermometer C. Ordinary thermometer

B. Wet bulb thermometer D. Mercury thermometer
Answer: B
To obtain an accurate reading with a wet bulb thermometer, the

wick should be saturated with
A. Clean air C. Moist

B. Vapor D. Clean water
Answer: A
The amount by which the wet bulb temperature is reduced below

the dry bulb temperature depends on the relative humidity of the
air and is collective
A. Range C. Drify
B. Approach D. Wet bulb depression
Answer: D
The measure of the relationship between the dry bulb and

dewpoint temperature of the air and as such, it provides a
convenient means of
Dewpoint temperature of the air when the dry bulb temperature is
known
A. Wet bulb temperature C. Humidity ratio

B. Saturation temperature D. Relative humidity
Answer: A
An index of the total heat (enthalpy) of the air
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Saturation temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Dewpoint temperature
Answer: A
The sensible heat of the air is a function of the

B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: B
The latent heat of the air is a function of the

B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dewpoint temperature
D. Saturation temperature
Answer: A
- - THE END - -
NOTE: PLEASE KEEP THIS FILE CONFIDENTIAL

I. FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING
Is the most common dryer used which consist of rotating cylinder
inside which the materials flow while getting in contact with
hot gas.
A. Tower dryer C. Trey dryer
B. Centrifugal dryer D. Rotary dryer
Answer: (D) Rotary Dryer
Is the ratio of the mass of water-vapor in air and the mass of

air if it is saturated is called:
A. Humidity ratio C. Vapor ratio
B. Mass ratio D. Relative humidity
Answer: (D) Relative Humidity
The hands feel painfully cold when the skin temperature reaches
A. 8 deg C C. 12 deg C
B. 10 deg C D. 14 deg C
Answer: (B) 10 deg C
The refrigerant used in steam jet cooling is:
A. Steam C. Ammonia
B. R-11 D. Water
Answer: (D) Water
The total heat of the air is a function of

A. WB temperature C. DB temperature
B. DP temperature D. WB depression
Answer: (A) Wet Bulb Temperature
Boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is:
A. 21 deg F C. 5 deg F
B. 15 deg F D. 28 deg F
Answer: (A) 21 deg F
PIPE CNS 02
Which of the following is NOT a type of water cooled condenser
in refrigeration?
A. Double pipe C. Shell and coil
B. Double shell D. Shell and tube
Answer: (B) Double Shell
Component of absorption refrigeration system in which the

solution is cooled by cooling water.
A. Rectifier C. Evaporator
B. Generator D. Absorber
Answer: (D) Absorber
Cascade refrigeration cycle is often used in industrial process
where objects must be cooled to temperature below:
A. -46 deg C C. -66 deg C
B. -56 deg C D. -76 deg C
Answer: (A) -46 deg C
Type of refrigerant control designed to maintain a pressure
difference while the compressor is operating.
A. Thermostatic expansion C. Automatic expansion
valve valve
B. Using low side float D. Capillary tube
flooded system
Answer: (D) Capillary Tube
As a rule of thumb, for a specified amount of compressed air,

the power consumption of the compressor decreases by ___________
for each 3 deg C drop in the temperature inlet air to the
compressor.
A. 1 percent C. 2 percent
B. 1.5 percent D. 2.5 percent
Answer: (A) 1 percent
Modern way of detecting air compressor leak is by using
A. Soup and water C. Acoustic leak detector
B. Air leak detector D. Ammonia leak detector
Answer: (C) Acoustic Leak Detector
PIPE CNS 02
For foundation of stacks, the maximum pressure on the soil is
equal to the pressure due to the weight and the ___________.
A. Soil movement C. Ground movement
B. Wind movement D. Engine movement
Answer: (B) Wind Movement
Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded

by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of at least
A. 3 times the diameter of C. 3 times the diameter of
engine bolt anchor bolt
B. 2 times the diameter of D. 2 times the diameter of
engine bolt anchor bolt
Answer: (C) 3 times the diameter of anchor bolt
For multi stage compression of an ideal Brayton cycle, the back

ratio will
A. Increase C. Remains the same
B. Decrease D. None of these
Answer: (B) Decrease
Type of turbine that has a specific speed below 5.

A. Impulse turbine C. Francis turbine
B. Propeller turbine D. Deriaz turbine
Answer: (A) Impulse turbine
A high discharge type of turbine
A. Impulse turbine C. Francis turbine
B. Propeller turbine D. Deriaz turbine
Answer: (B) Propeller Turbine
Use to minimize the speed rise due to a sudden load rejection

A. Needle valve C. Shut-off valve
B. Wicket gate shut-off D. Jet deflector
Answer: (D) Jet Deflector
Is the speed of a turbine when the head on the turbine is one
meter
A. Specific speed C. Utilized speed
B. Rated speed D. Unit speed
Answer: (D) Unit Speed
PIPE CNS 02
Is a fluid property which refers to the intermolecular
attraction by which the separate particles of the fluid arc held
together.
A. Cohesion C. Surface tension
B. Adhesion D. Hypertension
Answer: (A) Cohesion
Which of the following is NOT the cause of black smoke in diesel

engine?
A. Fuel valve open too C. Carbon in exhaust pipe
long D. Overload on engine
B. High compression
pressure
Answer: (B) High Compression pressure
Which of the following is not a method of starting a diesel

engine?
A. Manual: rope, crank and C. Compressed air
kick D. Using another generator
B. Electric (battery)
Answer: (D) Using another generator
Two-stroke engine performs ________ to complete one cycle.

A. Suction and discharge C. Power and exhaust stroke
stroke D. Suction and exhaust
B. Compression and power stroke
stroke
Answer: (B) Compression and power stroke
A type of geothermal plant used when there is a presence of
brine extracted from underground
A. Dry geothermal plant C. Single flash geothermal
B. Double-flash geothermal plant
D. Binary geothermal plant
Ans. (D) Binary geothermal plant
Is the most important safety device on the power boiler.

A. Check valve C. Safety valve
B. Gate valve D. Globe valve
Answer: (C) Safety valve
PIPE CNS 02
During hydrostatic test, the safety valves should be
A. Removed C. Closed
B. Open D. Partially closed
Answer: (A) Removed
Where deaerating heaters are not employed, it is recommended
that the temperature of the feed water be not less than ______
Answer: (A) 197 deg C
Is a reaction during which chemical energy is released in the
form of heat.
A. Cosmic reaction C. Endothermic reaction
B. Ethnic reaction D. Exothermic reaction
Answer: (D) Exothermic reaction
By reheating the steam in an ideal Ranking cycle the heat

rejected will.
Answer: (A) Increase
By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle the moisture

content at boiler exit will.
B. Decrease D. None of those
Answer: (A) Increase
Presently the highest steam temperature allowed at the turbine
inlet is about ______.
B. 520 deg C D. 1020 deg C
Answer: (C) 620 deg C
Two most common gases employed in Stirling and Ericsson cycles
are.
A. Air and helium C. Hydrogen and helium
B. Oxygen and helium D. Nitrogen and helium
Ans. (C) Hydrogen and Helium
PIPE CNS 02
In most common design of gas turbine, the pressure ratio
ranges from
A. 10 to 12 C. 12 to 18
B. 11 to 16 D. 15 to 20
Answer: (B) 11 to 16
In Brayton cycle, the heat is transformed during what process?

A. Constant temperature C. Isobaric process
B. Isentropic process D. Isochoric process
Answer: (C) Isobaric Process
The fuel injection process in diesel engine starts when the
piston ______
A. Is at the TDC C. Approaches TDC
B. Leaving TDC D. Halfway of the stroke
Answer: (C) Approaches TDC
If the cut-off ratio of diesel cycle increases, the cycle

efficiency will
A. Decrease C. Remains the same
B. Increase D. None of these
Answer: (A) Decrease
The fuel used in a power plant that is used during peak periods.
A. Gas C. Liquid
B. Solid D. None of these
Answer: (C) Liquid
Typical compression ratio of Otto cycle is
A. 6 C. 10
B. 8 D. 12
Answer: (B) 8
If joule Thomson coefficient is equal to zero, then the process

will become
A. Isentropic C. Isobaric
B. Isenthalpic D. Isothermal
Answer: (D) Isothermal
PIPE CNS 02
If the fluid passed through a nozzle its entropy will:
Answer: (C) Remains the same
Refrigerant consisting of mixtures of two or more different

chemical compounds, often used individuals as refrigerant for
other applications.
A. Suspension C. Blends
B. Compound reaction D. Mixing of refrigerant
Answer: (C) Blends
Pairs of mating stop valves that allow sections of a system to

be joined before opening these valves or separated after closing
them
A. Check valve C. Safety valve
B. Gate valve D. Campanion valve
Answer: (D) Companion Valve
An enclosed passage way that limits travel to a single path.
A. Corridor C. Lobby
B. Hallway D. Tunnel
Answer: (A) Corridor
For immediate dangerous to life or health (IDHL), the maximum

concentration from which unprotected persons are able to escape
within _____ without escape-impairing symptoms or irreversible
health.
A. 15 min C. 20 min
B. 1 min D. 30 min
Ans. (D) 30 minutes
The volume as determined from internal dimensions of the

container with no allowance for the volume of internal parts.
A. Internal allowance C. Internal interference
B. Internal gross volume volume
D. Internal fits volume
Answer: (B) Internal Gross Volume
PIPE CNS 02
A waiting room or large hallway serving as a waiting room
A. Terrace C. Compound room
B. Rest room D. Lobby
Answer: (D) Lobby
A continuous and unobstructed path of travel from any point in a
building or structure to a public way
A. Average of aggress C. Hallway of aggress
B. Mean of aggress D. Pathway of aggress
Answer: (B) Mean of aggress
Any device or portion of the equipment used to increase
refrigerant pressure
A. Pressure relief device C. Pressure lift device
B. Pressure-imposing D. Pressure limiting device
element
Answer: (B) Pressure-imposing element
The quantity of refrigerant stored at some point is the

refrigeration system for operational, service, or standby
purposes
A. Pressure vessel C. Liquid receiver
B. Pumpdown charge D. Accumulator
Answer: (B) Pumpdown charge
Secondary refrigerant is a liquid used for the transmission of

heat, without a change of state, and having no flash point or a
flash point above ______ as determined from ASTM
A. 150 deg F C. 180 deg F
B. 160 deg F D. 200 deg F
Answer: (A) 150 deg F
A service valve for dual pressure-relief devices that allows

using one device while isolating the other from the system,
maintaining one valve in operation at all times.
A. Three-way valve C. One-way valve
B. Two-way valve D. Four-way valve
Answer: (A) three-way valve
PIPE CNS 02
Tubing that is enclosed and therefore exposed to crushing,
abrasion, puncture, or similar damage after installation.
A. Protected tubing C. Open tubing
B. Bare tubing D. Unprotected tubing
Answer: (D) Unprotected tubing
Refers to blends comprising multiple components of different

volatile that, when used in refrigeration cycles, change
volumetric composition and saturation temperature as they
evaporate (boil) or condense at constant pressure.
A. Zeolite C. Composition
B. Blending D. Zeotropic
Answer: (D) Zeotropic
Is a premises or that of a premise from which, because they are

disabled, debilitated, or confined, occupants cannot readily
leave without the assistance of others
A. Institutional occupancy C. Residential occupancy
B. Public assembly D. Commercial occupancy
occupancy
Answer: (A) Institutional occupancy
Is one in which a secondary coolant is in direct contact with

the air or other substance to be cooled or heated.
A. Double indirect open C. Indirect closed system
spray system D. Indirected, verted
B. Indirect open spray closed system
system
Answer: (B) Indirect open spray system
Refrigerant number R-744 is
A. Butane C. Propane
B. Carbon monoxide D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide
Refrigerant number R-1150 is

A. Propylene C. Ethane
B. Ethene D. Methyl formate
Answer: (B) Ethene
PIPE CNS 02
Refrigerant R-40 is
A. Chlorodifluoromethane C. Ammonia
B. Difluoromenthane D. Chloromethane
Answer: (D) Chloromethane
When the air duct system serves several enclosed spaces, the
permissible quantity of refrigerant in the system shall not
exceed the amount determined by using the total volume of those
spaces in the which the airflow cannot be reduced to less than
____ of its maximum when the fan is operating
A. One-quarter C. Three-quarter
B. One half-quarter D. One-fourth-quarter
Answer: (A) One-quarter
The space above a suspended ceiling shall not be included in

calculating the permissible quantity of refrigerant in the
system unless such space is continuous and is part of the air
return system
A. Partition C. Separator
B. Plenums D. Plate divider
Answer: (B) Plenums
Which of the following is not a possible location of service
valve?
A. Suction of compressor C. Outlet of liquid
B. Discharge of compressor receiver
D. Outlet of condenser
Answer: (D) Outlet of condenser
A coil in series with evaporator that is use to prevent the

liquid refrigerant entering the compressor
A. Accumulator D. Liquid suction heat
B. Liquid superheater exchanger
C. Drier loop
Answer: (C) Drier loop
A type of valve connected from discharge of compressor directly
to suction that is normally closed and will open automatically
only if there is high discharge pressure
A. Check valve C. King valve
B. Solenoid valve D. Relief valve
Answer: (B) Solenoid valve
PIPE CNS 02
Use to increase the capacity of condenser
A. Water regulating valve C. Liquid-suction heat
B. Desuperheating coils exchanger
D. Condenser heating coils
Answer: (B) Desuperheating coils
Is use to subcooled the refrigerant from the condenser
A. Liquid line C. Desuperheating coils
B. Condenser subcooler D. Liquid receiver
Anwser: (A) Liquid line*
Which of the following is NOT a part of low pressure side in

refrigeration system?
A. Compressor C. Liquid line
B. Condenser D. Suction line
Answer: (D) Suction Line
Which of the following is NOT a part of condensing unit?

A. Compressor C. Condenser
B. Discharge line D. Liquid line
Answer: (D) Liquid line
By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the

compressor power per unit mass will
Superheating the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the

specific volume at compressor suction will
By subcooling the refrigerant in refrigeration system, the

specific volume at compressor suction will
PIPE CNS 02
Pressure loss due to friction at the condenser, the compressor
power per unit mass will
Which of the following is NOT a type of air-cooled condenser?

A. Shell and tube C. Forced draft
B. Natural draft D. Induced draft
Answer: (A) Shell and tube
A type of refrigerant control typically used in household
refrigeration
A. Thermostatic expansion C. Capillary tube
valve D. High side float
B. Automatic expansion
valve
Answer: (C) Capillary Tube
Type of condenser that operates like a cooling water

A. Air-cooled condenser C. Shell and tube condenser
B. Evaporative condenser D. Water cooled condenser
Answer: (B) Evaporative condenser
The major problem of heat pump is
A. Refrigerant used C. Supply air
B. Outside air D. Frosting
Answer: (D) Frosting
Dominant refrigerant used in commercial refrigeration system

A. R11 C. R12
B. R22 D. R502
Answer: ( D) R502
Cascade refrigerant system are connected in
A. Series C. Series-parallel
B. Parallel D. Parallel
Answer: (A) Series
PIPE CNS 02
Is use to heat up the solution partially before entering the
generator in absorption refrigeration system
A. Rectifier C. Regenerator
B. Absorber D. Pump
Answer: (C) Regenarator
The COP of actual absorption refrigeration system is usually

A. Less than 1 C. Less than 3
B. Less than 2 D. Less than 4
Answer: (A) Less than 1
Sight glass is often located at
A. Discharge line C. Between condenser and
B. Liquid line liquid receiver
D. Suction line
Answer: (B) Liquid line
Use to detects a vibration in current caused by the ionization

of decomposed refrigerant between two opposite charged platinum
electrodes
A. Electronic detector C. Bubble method
B. Halide torch D. Pressurizing
Answer: (A) Electronic detector
The ability of oil to mix with refrigerants

A. Carbonization C. Mixing
B. Purging D. Miscibility
Answer: (D) Miscibility
Joints and all refrigerants-containing parts of a refrigerating

system located in an air duct carrying conditioned air to and
from an occupied space shall be constructed to withstand a
temperature of ____ without leakage into the airstream.
A. 550F C. 650F
B. 600F D. 700F
Answer: (D) 700F
PIPE CNS 02
Refrigerant piping crossing an open space that affords
passageway in any building shall be not loss than ______ above
the floor unless the piping is located against the ceiling of
such space and is permitted by the authority having jurisdiction
A. 2.2 m C. 4.2 m
B. 3.2 m D. 5.2 m
Answer: (A) 2.2m
Methyl chloride shall not be in contact with
A. Aluminum C. Magnesium
B. Zinc D. All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Shall not be in contact with any halogenated refrigerants

A. Aluminum C. Magnesium
B. Zinc D. All of these
Answer: (C) Magnesium
Are suitable for use in ammonia system
A. Copper C. Plastic
B. Aluminum and its alloy D. Cast iron
Answer: (B) Aluminum and its alloy
In a pressure-relief device is used to protect a pressure vessel

having an inside dimension of 6 in or less, the ultimate
strength of the pressure vessel so protected shall be sufficient
to withstand a pressure at least ____ the design pressure
A. 2 times C. 4 times
B. 3 times D. 5 times
Answer: (B) 3 times
Seats and discs shall be limited in distortion, by pressure or

other cause, to set pressure change of not more than ____ in a
span of five years.
A. 1% C. 10%
B. 5% D. 50%
Answer: (B) 5%
PIPE CNS 02
Liquid receivers, if used or parts of a system designed to
receive the refrigerant change during pumpdown charge. The
liquid shall not occupy more than __of the volume when
temperature of the refrigerant is 90F
A. 80% C. 90%
B. 85% D. 95%
Answer: (C) 90%
The discharge line (B4) shall be vented to the atmosphere
through a ____ fitted to its upper extremity.
A. Nozzle C. Pipe
B. Convergent-divergent D. Diffuser
nozzle
Answer: (D) Diffuser
Convert fossil fuels into the shaft work

A. Nuclear power plant C. Dendrothermal power
B. Gas turbine power plant plant
D. Thermal power plant
Answer: (D) Thermal power plant
Ultimate strength drops by 30% as steam temperature raises from

____ for unalloyed steel
A. 300 to 400 C C. 600 to 700 C
B. 400 to 500 C D. 700 to 800 C
Answer: (B) 400 to 500 C
Recent practice limits steam temperature to

A. 438 C C. 648 C
B. 538 C D. 738 C
Answer: (A) 438 C
In a closed feed water heater, the feed water pass through
A. Inside the tube C. Inside the shell
B. Outside the tube D. Outside the shell
Answer: (A) Inside the tube
Is use if extracted steam upon condensation gets subcooled

A. Trap C. Filter
B. Deaerator D. Drain cooler
Answer: (D) Drain cooler
PIPE CNS 02
Needs only single pump regardless of number of heaters
A. Open heater C. Mono heater
B. Closed heater D. Regenerative heater
Answer: (B) Closed heater
Is also known as deaerator
A. Open heater C. Reheat heater
B. Closed heater D. Regenerative heater
Answer: (A) Open Heater
Dissolve gases like _____ makes water corrosive react with metal
to form iron oxide
A. O2 and N2 C. O2 and CO2
B. O2 and CO D. N2 and SO2
Answer: (C) O2 and CO2
A cycle typically used in paper mills, textile mills, chemical

factories, sugar factories and rice mills
A. Cogeneration cycle C. By-products cycle
B. Combined cycles D. Cascading cycle
Answer: (A) Cogeneration cycle
When process steam is basic need and power is byproduct, this
cycle is known as
A. Cogeneration cycle
B. Combined cycles
C. By-product cycle
D. Cascading cycle
Answer: (C) By-product cycle
PIPE CNS 02
A type of turbine employed where steam continuously extracted
for process heating
A. Back-pressure turbine C. Steam turbine
B. Gas turbine D. Passout turbine
Answer: (D) Passout turbine
Which of the following is used for binary cycle power generation

for high temperature application?
A. Mercury C. Potassium
B. Sodium D. All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
Critical temperature of mercury is
A. 1160 c C. 1360 c
B. 1260 c D. 1460 c
Answer: (D) 1460 C
Critical pressure of mercury is

A. 100 MPa C. 128 Mpa
B. 108 Mpa D. 158 MPa
Answer: (B) 108 Mpa
Method used in converting heat directly to electricity by
magnetism
A. Electromagnetic C. Magnetohydrodynamic
induction D. Thermoelectric
B. Magnetodynamic
Answer: (C) Magnetohydrodynamic
Which of the following is not a material used for thermoelectric

elements
A. Bismuth telluride C. Zinc telluride
B. Lead telluride D. Germanium
Answer: (C) Zinc telluride
a type of coal formed after anthratice
A. Lignite C. Peat
B. Bituminous D. Graphite
Answer: (D) Graphite
Which of the following is lowest grade of coal?
PIPE CNS 02
A. Peat C. Sub- bituminous
B. Lignite D. Bituminous
Answer: (B) Lignite
Which of the following helps in the ignition of coal?

A. Moisture C. Fixed carbon
B. Ash D. Volatile matter
Answer: (D) Volatile matter
Is the ratio of fixed carbon and volatile matter.
A. Air-fuel ratio C. Combustion ratio
B. Fuel ratio D. Carbon-volatile ratio
Answer. (B) Fuel ratio
A suspension of a finely divide fluid in another.

A. Filtration C. Emulsion
B. Floatation D. Separation
Answer. (C) Emuslion
Contains 90% gasoline and 10% ethanol.
A. Gasohol C. Gasothanol
B. Gasonol D. Gasethanol
Answer: (A) Gasohol
Process used commercially in coal liquefaction.

A. Tropsch process C. Fisher-tropsch process
B. Fisher process D. Mitch-tropsch process
Answer. (C) Fisher-tropsch process
Is an organic matter produced by plants in both land and water.
A. Bio-ethanol C. Petroleum
B. Biomass D. Biogradable
Answer. (B) Biomass
In thermal power plant, induced draft fans are located at the

A. Exit of furnace C. Above the stack
B. Foot of the stack D. Top of the stack
Answer: (B) Foot of the stack
PIPE CNS 02
In thermal power plant, forced draft fans are installed at the
A. Foot of the stack C. Exit of the preheater
B. Top of the stack D. Inlet of the preheater
Answer: (D) Inlet of the preheater
Known as drum less boiler.

A. La Mont boiler C. Force circulation boiler
B. Fire tube boiler D. Once-through boiler
Answer: (D) Once-through boiler
Reduces the steam temperature by spraying low temperature water
from boiler drum.
A. Reheater C. Desuperheater
B. Preheater D. Superheater
Answer. (C) Desuperheater
Carbon dioxide can be removed by:

A. Deaeration C. Evaporation
B. Aeration D. Vaporization
Answer. (B) Aeration
Is often used to absorb silica from water.
A. Sorbent C. Silica gel
B. Rectifier D. Magnesium hydroxide
Answer. (D) Magnesium hydroxide
Presence of excess hydrogen ions makes the water
A. Acidic C. Base
B. Alkalinity D. Hydroxicity
Answer. (A) Acidic
PH of water varies with
A. Pressure C. Density
B. Temperature D. Volume
Answer. (B) Temperature
PIPE CNS 02
Ph value of ______ is usually maintained for boiler water to
minimized corrosion.
A. 8.5 C. 10.5
B. 9.5 D. 11.5
Answer. (C) 10.5
What type of turbine that has a degree of reaction of ½?

A. Impulse turbine C. Rarsons turbine
B. Reaction turbine D. Deriaz turbine
Answer. (C) Rarsons turbine
Tranquil flow must always occur
A. Above the normal depth C. Below the normal depth
B. Above the critical depth D. Below the critical depth
Answer. (B) Above the critical depth
Which of the following head loss coefficient among the

following types of entrance?
A. Bell mouth C. Reentrant
B. Square edge D. It depends
Answer. (C) Reentrant
What waste treatment method involves of algae from stabilization
pond effluents?
A. Sedimentation C. Filtration
B. Floatation D. Microscreening
Answer. (D) Microscreening
The number of nozzles will depend on the quantity of steam
required by the turbine. If nozzles occupy the entire ….. the
ring, the turbine is said to have:
A. Partially full C. Maximum peripheral
peripheral admission admission
B. One-half peripheral D. Full peripheral
admission admission
Answer. (D) Full peripheral admission
PIPE CNS 02
Tandem compound units may also have two low-pressure castings
that produces:
A. Single flow C. Triple flow
B. Double flow D. Quadruple flow
Answer. (C) Triple flow
A type of turbine used for driving pumps, fans, and other

auxiliaries in power plant commonly operate at exhaust pressure
approximating atmospheric.
A. Tandem compound turbine C. Cross-compound turbine
B. Passout turbine D. Back pressure turbine
Answer. (D) Back pressure turbine
A governor with 0% regulation is termed as:

A. Isochronous governor C. Isenchronous governor
B. Synchronous governor D. Isobarnous governor
Answer. (A) Isochronous governor
The speed regulation for most turbine-generators is adjustable
from:
A. 2 to 6% C. 6 to 10%
B. 4 to 8% D. 8 to 12%
Answer. (A) 2 to 6%
Poppet valves of steam turbine are used for extraction pressure

of:
A. 20 to 120 psig C. 20 to 130 psig
B. 20 to 150 psig D. 20 to 140 psig
Answer. (B) 20 to 150 psig
When both bearings of steam engines are on one side of the of

the connecting rod, the engine is referred to as:
A. Center-crank engine C. Under crank engine
B. Side crank engine D. Standard crank engine
Answer. (B) Side crank engine
When the valve in steam engine is in mid-position of its travel,
it will cover the steam port by an amount known
A. Steam lap C. Full lap
B. Partial lap D. Angular lap
Answer. (A) Steam lap
PIPE CNS 02
A type of governor in steam engine that do not control the
actual admission of steam to the cylinder but controls the
pressure of the steam.
A. Flyball governor C. Throttling governor
B. Variable cut-off D. Shaft governor
governor
Answer. (C) Throttling governor
By inter-cooling using two stage compressor of Brayton cycle,

the backwork ratio will:
A. Increase C. Remains constant
Answer. (B) Decrease
On dynamic similitude, the relation which represents the ratio
of inertia force to pressure force is:
A. Froude number C. Euler number
B. Cauchy number D. Reynolds number
Answer. (C) Euler number
What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing full?
A. 0.6 m/sec C. 1.2 m/sec
B. 0.9 m/sec D. 1.8 m/sec
Answer. (A) 0.6 m/sec
A temporary structure constructed to exclude water from the side

of the foundation during its excavation and construction is
called.
A. Calsson C. Coffer dam
B. Retaining wall D. Earth dam
Answer. (C) Coffer dam
Which is not a physical characteristic of water?

A. Total suspended and C. Color
dissolve solids D. Hardness
B. Tubidity
Answer. (D) Hardness
Which dam is best for weak foundation?

A. Gravity C. Buttress
B. Arch D. Earth
Answer. (C) Buttress
PIPE CNS 02
What is the volume of water which will drain freely from the
aquifer?
A. Specific yield C. Safe yield
B. Reservoir yield D. Secondary yield
Answer. (A) Specific yield
What is the line defined by the water level in a group of

artesian wells?
A. Water table C. Specific yield
B. Peizometric surface D. All of the above
Answer. (B) Peizometric surface
Select the one that is a positive indication of pollution of a
river.
A. Acidity C. Chloride content
B. Oxygen content D. Nitrite content
Answer. (C) Chloride content
The cooling water is made to fall in series of baffles to expose
large surface area for steam led from below to come in direct
contact.
A. Spray condenser C. Jet condenser
B. Surface condenser D. Barometric condenser
Answer: (D) Barometric condenser
Show the variation of river flow (discharge) with time
A. Hydrograph C. Mass curve
B. Hyctograph D. Flow duration curve
Answer: (A) Hydrograph
Is an open channel erected on a surface above the ground.

A. Canal C. Pentstock
B. Tunnel D. Flume
Answer: (D) Flume
Type of turbine used up to 300 m head

A. Impulse turbine C. Propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine D. Deriaz turbine
Answer: (D) Deriaz turbine
PIPE CNS 02
Oil is atomized either by air blast or pressure jet at about
A. 60 bar C. 80 bar
B. 70 bar D. 90 bar
Answer: (B) 70 bar
Type of solid injection that use single pump supplies fuel under
high pressure to a fuel header.
A. Common rail injection C. Distributor system
B. Individual pump D. Single rail injection
injection system
Answer: (A) Common rail injection
Water flow in diesel engine that is caused by density

differential.
A. Thermosiphon cooling C. Pressure water cooling
B. Thermostat cooling D. Evaporative cooling
Answer: (A) Thermosiphon cooling
Type of lubrication system in diesel engine in which oil from

pump is carried to a separate storage lank outside the engine
cylinder and used for high capacity engine.
A. Mist lubrication system
B. Wet sump lubrication
C. Splash system
D. Dry sump lubrication system
Answer: (D) Dry sump lubrication system
Produces extreme pressure differentials and violent gas

vibration.
A. Vibration C. Explosion
B. Detonation D. Knocking
Answer: (B) Detonation
In a spark ignition engine, detonation occurs near the

___________.
A. End of combustion C. Beginning of combustion
B. Middle combustion D. Beginning of interaction
Answer: (A) End of combustion
PIPE CNS 02
In a compression ignition engine, the detonation occurs near the
________.
A. End of combustion C. Beginning of combustion
B. Middle of combustion D. Beginning of interaction
Answer: (C) Beginning of combustion
Morse test is use to measure the _______ of multi-cylinder

engine.
A. Break power C. Friction power
B. Indicated power D. Motor power
Answer: (B) Indicated power
Ignition delay can be min imized by adding _________ to decrease

engine knocking.
A. Ethel ether C. Ethyl nitrate
B. Ethyl chloride D. Ethyl oxide
Answer: (C) Ethyl nitrate
At any point in fluid at rest, the pressure is the same in all

directions. This principle is known as:
A. Bernoulli principle C. Pascal’s law
B. Archimedes principle D. Torricelli’s law
Answer: (C) Pascal’s law
The hot-wire manometer is used to measure

A. Pressure in gasses C. Wind velocities at
B. Pressure in fluids airports
D. Gas velocities
Answer: (D) Gas Velocities
The pitot static tube measures

A. The static pressure C. The total pressure
B. The gage pressure D. The dynamic pressure
Answer: (A) The static pressure
PIPE CNS 02
The terminal velocity of a small sphere setting in a viscous
fluid varies as the
A. First power of its diameter
B. Inverse of fluid viscosity
C. Inverse square of the diameter
D. Inverse of the diameter
Answer: (B) Inverse of fluid viscosity
Pressure drag results from

A. Skin friction
B. Deformation drag
C. Breakdown of potential flow near the forward stagnation
point
D. Occurrences of wake
Answer: (A) Skin friction
The pressure coefficient is the ratio of pressure forces to:

A. Viscous forces C. Gravity forces
B. Inertia forces D. Surface tension force
Answer: (B) Inertia forces
Which instruments is used to measure humidity of the atmosphere
continuously?
A. Barograph C. Hydrograph
B. Thermograph D. Thermo-hydrograph
Answer: (C) Hydrograph
Entrance losses between tank and pipe or losses through elbows,
fittings and valves are generally expresses as a function of
A. Kinetic energy C. Friction factor
B. Pipe diameter D. Volume flow rate
Answer: (A) Kinetic Energy
The air that contains no water vapor is called

A. Zero air C. Dry air
B. Saturated air D. Humid air
Answer: (C) Dry Air
PIPE CNS 02
In psychrometric chart, the constant-enthalpy lines coincide
with constant-temperature lines at temperature
A. Above 50⁰C C. Below 50⁰C

B. Below 40⁰C D. Above 10⁰C
Answer: (C) Below 50 C
The amount of moisture in air depend on its

A. Pressure C. Temperature
B. Volume D. Humidity
Answer: (C) Temperature
The deep body temperature of healthy person is maintained
constant at
A. 27⁰C C. 47⁰C
B. 37⁰C D. 48⁰C
Answer: (B) 37 C
Air motion also plays important role in
A. Surroundings C. Human comfort
B. Cooling D. None of these
Answer: (C) Human Comfort
During simple heating and cooling process has a ____ humidity

ratio
A. Increasing C. Constant
B. Decreasing D. None of these
Answer: (C) Constant
The _____ follows a line of constant wet-bulb temperature on the
psychrometric chart.
A. Evaporative cooling C. Direct cooling process
process D. None of these
B. Condensive cooling
process
Answer: (A) Evaporative cooling process
A vapor which is not about to condensate is called a
A. mixture of vapor and C. Superheated vapor
liquid D. None of these
B. critical vapor
Answer: (C) Superheated vapor
PIPE CNS 02
Passing from the solid phase directly into vapor phase is called
A. Condensation C. Sublimation
B. Fusion D. None of these
Answer: (C) Sublimation
Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with a vacuum
chamber that the pressure of gases is inversely proportional to
their
A. Temperature C. Volume
B. Pressure D. None of these
Answer: (C) Volume
____ is energy in transition
A. Heat C. Power
B. Work D. None of these
Answer: (A) Heat
Is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the

adjacent liquid or gas which is in motion, and it involves
combine effects of conduction and fluid motion.
A. Conduction C. Radiation
B. Convection D. None of these
Answer: (B) Convection
Radiation is usually considered as

A. Surface phenomenon C. Surface corrosion
B. Surface interaction D. None of these
Answer: (A) Surface phenomenon
Work is ____ between the system and the surroundings.
A. Work interaction C. Heat interaction
B. Energy interaction D. None of these
Answer: (B) Energy interaction
Is a process during which the system remains in equilibrium at

all times
A. Quasi-equilibrium C. Dynamic equilibrium
B. Static equilibrium D. None of these
Answer: (A) Quasi-equilibrium
PIPE CNS 02
In the absence of any work interactions between a system and its
surroundings , the amount of net heat transfer is equal
A. The change in total energy of a closed system
B. To heat and work
C. Energy interactions
D. none of these
Answer: (A) The change in total energy of a closed system
The constant volume and constant pressure specific heats are

identical for
A. compressible substance
B. incompressible substance
C. compressible gas
D. none of these
Answer: (B) Incompressible substance
The velocity of fluid is zero at wall aand maximum at the center

because of the
A. velocity effect
B. viscous effect
C. temperature effect
D. none of these
Answer: (B) Viscous effect
For steady flow devices, the volume of the control volume is

A. increase
B. decrease
C. constant
D. none of these
Answer: (C) Constant
Work done in turbine is ____ since it is done by the fluid.

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these
Answer: (A) Positive
PIPE CNS 02
I. FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING
 In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure

refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed
from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?
a) Evaporator c) Chiller
b) Cooler d) Flooded Evaporator
Answer: c) Chiller. In refrigeration application, the appropriate term

used for evaporator is chiller.
 In an ideal standard Brayton cycle, 1.5 kg/s of air at 101 kPaa and 27
o
C is compressed isentropically to a certain pressure and temperature
after which the is added until the temperature becomes 1027 oC.
Isentropic expansion occurs in the turbine. Determine the net power
produced by the cycle.
a) 629.56 kW c) 592.65 kW
b) 529.76 kW d) 579.26 kW
Answer: b) 529.76 kW
 In an air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 12 % of the

displacement volume. What is the thermal efficiency?
a) 57 % c) 59 %
b) 58 % d) 60 %
Answer: c) Thermal efficiency = 59 %
 It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated

refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the
vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system?
a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Vacuum refrigeration system
c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system
d) Flooded refrigeration system
Answer: d) Flooded refrigeration system
 In an air-standard Brayton cycle, air enters compressor at 1 bar and 15

o
C. The pressure leaving the compressor is 0.6 MPaa and maximum
temperature of the cycle is 1000 oC. What is the maximum net work, in
kJ/kg?
a) 319.52 c) 392.51
b) 315.29 d) 352.19
Answer: d) Max Wnet = 352.19 kJ/kg
1|Page
 How do you call the ice formation on a refrigeration system at the
expansion device, making the device inoperative?
a) Ice formation c) Freeze-up

b) Freezing d) Pump-down
Answer: c) Freeze-up
 What is the clearance volumetric efficiency of an ammonia compressor

designed with 4 % clearance and operating between condenser temperature
of 30 oC (psat = 1.1672 MPaa) and evaporator temperature of 4 oC (psat =
497.48 kPaa)?
a) 93.61 % c) 93.68 %
b) 96.31 % d) 96.83 %
Answer: b) Volumetric Efficiency = 96.31 %
 In a lithium bromide solution absorption refrigeration system, which of

the following is the function of water?
a) Refrigerant c) Absorbent
b) Coolant d) Analyzer
Answer: a) Refrigerant. Water serves as refrigerant while the lithium

bromide serves as the absorbent. In ammonia solution absorption
refrigeration system, water serves as the absorbent while ammonia serves
as the refrigerant.
 The percent rating of water tube boiler is 200 %, factor of evaporation

is 1.10, and heating surface is 400 ft2. Determine the rate of
evaporation, in kg/hr.
a) 1831 c) 1831
b) 1138 d) 1813
Answer: b) Rate of evaporation = 1138 kg/hr
 In the absorption refrigeration system, is a pressure vessel mounted

above the generator through which the vapor leaving the generator pass.
How do you call this component?
a) Absorber c) Analyzer
b) Rectifier d) Reflux
Answer: c) Analyzer or bubble column
2|Page
 A Carnot cycle is represented by a rectangle in a Ts diagram that
operates between temperature limits of 300 oK and 650 oK. Inscribed
within a rectangle is a ellipse of maximum major and minor axes,
represents a cycle and operating at the same temperature limits.
Considering that the major axis of the ellipse is two times that of its
minor axis. Determine the thermal efficiency of the cycle represented by
an ellipse.
a) 44.88 % c) 48.48 %
b) 43.66 % d) 46.36 %
Answer: a) 44.88 %
 Determine the critical radius in cm for an asbestos-cement covered pipe

[kasb = 0.208 W/m-oK]. The external heat-transfer coefficient is 1.5
Btu/h-ft2-oF.
a. 2.44 cm c. 2.55 cm
b. 2.66 cm d. 2.22 cm
Answer: a) Critical radius = 2.44 cm
 A hiker carried an Aneroid barometer from the foot of Mount Banahaw to

the camp of the NPA leader Ka Roger. On the foot of the mountain, the
barometer reads 30.150 inches of Hg, and on the camp, which is nearly at
the top of the mountain it reads 28.607 inches of Hg. Assume that the
average air density (atmospheric) was 0.075 pcf, estimate the height of
the mountain, in ft.
a) 1455.54 c) 1545.54
b) 1554.54 d) 1455.55
Answer: a) 1455.54 ft
 In the absorption refrigeration system, it is the inlet part of the

condenser, cooled by a separate circuit of cooling water or strong aqua.
It condenses a small part of the vapor leaving the bubble column and
returns it as a liquid to the top of baffle plate. This ensures that the
vapor going to the condenser is lowered in temperature and enriched in
ammonia. What is this component?
a) Reflux c) Analyzer
b) Rectifier d) Absorber
Answer: b) Rectifier. Reflux does about the same thing by providing a

small flow of condensed ammonia liquid to the top plate of the bubble
column, but does not require a separate cooling circuit.
3|Page
 In a geothermal power plant, the mass flow rate of ground water is 4000
kg/s and the quality after throttling is 20%. If the turbine power is 80
MW, what is the change in enthalpy of steam at the inlet and outlet of
the turbine?
a) 120 kJ/kg b) 100 kJ/kg

c) 200 kJ/kg d) 150 kJ/kg
Answer: b) Change of enthalpy = 100 kJ/kg
 Determine the partial pressure of CO2 for the following analysis of gas
mixture by weight at 101 kPaa and 25 oC: CO2 = 35 % and N2 = 65 %.
a) 25.75 kPaa b) 27.55 kPaa

c) 52.75 kPaa d) 52.57 kPaa
Answer: a) partial pressure of CO2 = 25.75 kPaa
 Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting

point of ice is taken as 0o and the boiling point of water is 80o?
a) Reaumur Scale c) Carrene Scale

b) Genetron Scale d) Frigorie Scale
Answer: a) Reaumur Temperature Scale
 A certain coal has the following ultimate analysis by weight. C = 67 %,

Ash = 5 %, Moisture = 8 %, N = 6 %, H = 3 %, Sulfur = 7 %, O = 4 %.
Calculate the higher heating value in Btu/lb.
a) 15 179 c) 11 579
b) 17 519 d) 19 517
Answer: c) 11 579 Btu/lb
 What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of

one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. It is 1/180 of the heat
required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 32 to 212
o
F at constant atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.
a) Specific heat b) British thermal unit

c) Calorie d) Sensible heat
Answer: b) British thermal unit or Btu
4|Page
 Determine the heating value of a certain fuel with a SG = 0.997.
a) 42 975 kJ/kg c) 42 597 kJ/kg

b) 42 795 kJ/kg d) 42 579 kJ/kg
Answer: a) 42 975 kJ/kg
 How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory
methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is
the mixture of ice and salt.
a) Calorific mixture c) Water-ammonia mixture

b) Frigorific mixture d) Hygroscopic mixture
Answer: b) Frigorific mixture
Note: Adding of 10 % salt (NaCl), by weight, to water lowers its

freezing point from 32 oF to 18.7 oF.
 If an airplane is flying at an altitude of 5 800 ft, what is the

approximate atmospheric pressure at the said altitude?
a) 12.34 psi c) 14.7 psi

b) 13.24 psi d) 14.32 psi
Answer: a) 12.34 psi
 It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be

condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to
condense regardless of the pressure applied. How do you call this
temperature?
a) Saturation temperature c) Superheated temperature

b) Critical temperature d) Dew point temperature
Answer: b) Critical temperature
 Calculate the energy transfer rate across 6” wall of firebrick with a

temperature difference across of 50 oC. the thermal conductivity of the
firebrick is 0.65 Btu/hr-ft-oF.
a) 369 W/m2 c) 369 Btu/hr-Ft2

b) 639 W/m2 d) 639 Btu/hr-Ft2
Answer: a) Heat Transfer = 369 W/m2
5|Page
 Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric
pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a
pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as:
a) Halogenated refrigerant c) Freon refrigerant

b) Vacuum refrigerant d) Halocarbon refrigerant
Answer: b) Vacuum refrigerant
 What is the specific gravity of a fuel at 28o Baume?
a) 0.868 c) 0.688
b) 0.886 d) 0.986
Answer: b) SG = 0.886
 Air at 1 MPaa and 310 oC is expanded to 250 kPaa in accordance with the
relation pV1.25 = C. Determine the work done.
a) + 162.11 kJ/kg c) – 162.11 kJ/kg

b) + 126.11 kJ/kg d) – 126.11 kJ/kg
Answer: a) Work done, W = + 162.11 kJ/kg
 It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since

about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants,
such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures
required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?
a) Halogenated refrigerants c) Freon refrigerants

b) Vacuum refrigerants d) Halocarbon refrigerants
Answer: a) Halogenated refrigerants
 A Rankine cycle operates with a thermal efficiency of 40 % and the

factor of evaporation of the boiler is 1.15. Determine the mass flow
rate of steam if the cycle power output is 5.5 MW.
a) 5.3 kg/s c) 4.3 kg/s

b) 3.5 kg/s d) 6.3 kg/s
Answer: a) Steam mass flow rate, ms = 5.3 kg/s
6|Page
 This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling
tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower
section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan,
float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this
component?
a) Water-cooled condenser c) Evaporative condenser

b) Atmospheric condenser d) Chiller
Answer: c) Evaporative condenser
 A boiler operates at 82 % efficiency while the mass of steam generated

is 490 200 kg in 6 hours. The enthalpy of steam is 3187 kJ/kg and feed
is 604.83 kJ/kg while the fuel used for boiler has a heating value of 32
567.85 kJ/kg. Find the mass of fuel needed per day in metric tons.
a) 179.6 c) 189.6
b) 198.6 d) 169.8
Answer: c) Fuel consumption per day = 189.6 metric tons
 It refers to a factor used in calculating the over-all heat transfer

through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It
includes the sum of the heat-transfer rate of the layer of dirt and
foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is
this factor?
a) Cooling factor c) Contact factor

b) By-pass factor d) Fouling factor
Answer: d) Fouling Factor
 A 10 kg/s of air enters the theater at 16 oC. The theater is to be

maintained at 27 oC DB and 20 oC WB. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.71,
what is the latent heat load of the theater?
a) 45.21 kW c) 54.21 kW
b) 110.682 kW d) 42.51 Kw
Answer: a) Latent heat load, qL = 45.21 kW
 It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a tank or

a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside
of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of
evaporator?
a) Flooded evaporator c) Dry evaporator

b) Cooing coil evaporator d) Headered coil evaporator
Answer: a) Flooded evaporator
7|Page
 A 80 MW power plant has an average load of 34 500 kW and a load factor
of 0.75. Find the reserve power over a peak load power.
a) 14 000 kW c) 34 000 kW
b) 24 000 kW d) 4 000 kW
Answer: c) Reserve Power = 34 000 kW
 What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any

device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an
evaporator?
a) Refrigerant control b) Expansion valve

c) Throttling valve d) Capillary tube
Answer: b) Expansion Valve
 A steam generator burns fuel oil with 25 % excess air. Fuel may be
represented by C14H30. Calculate the actual-air fuel ratio.
a) 17.63 c) 18.63
b) 16.63 d) 15.63
Answer: b) Actual A/F ratio = 18.63 kg air per kg fuel
 Define a “control valve”.
a) The value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain
the required condition
b) The quantity or condition of the controlled medium
c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated
d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under
steady state conditions
Answer: d) The valve of the controlled condition actually under steady

state conditions
 A container filled with helium is dropped 3000 m above the ground, find
the change of temperature?
o o
a) 12.43 C c) 9.43 C
o o
b) 15.43 C d) 8.43 C
Answer: c) The change of temperature, T = 9.43 o

C
8|Page
 A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-
storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating
system. What is referred to as “manipulated variable”?
a)The water being heated

b)The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator
c)The steam supply
d)The temperature of the air being heated
Answer: c) Manipulated variable is referred to as the steam supply
 Which of the following valves is the one designed to allow a fluid to

pass through in one direction?
a) Globe valve c) Gate valve

b) Float valve d) Check valve
Answer: d) Check valve
 A 3153-lb car is accelerated from 32 fps to 55 fps in 10 seconds.

Determine the work done, in Btu.
a) 125.92 c) 192.52
b) 152.92 d) 129.52
Answer: a) Work done, W = 125.92 Btu
 How do you classify a solenoid valve?
a) A thermal valve c) A magnetic stop valve

b) A bellows valve d) A bi-metallic valve
Answer: c) A solenoid valve is classified as magnetic stop valve
 What is a thermostat?
a) A temperature-operated switch
b) A pressure-operated switch
c) A superheat-operated switch
d) A back pressure-operated switch
Answer: a) A temperature –operated switch
 A turbine has a peripheral coefficient of 0.6. Find the runner diameter

of the turbine if it operates at 450 rpm and a head of 60 m.
a) 0.874 m c) 0.784 m
b) 0.478 m d) 0.748 m
Answer: a) Water runner diameter, Dr = 0.874 m
9|Page
 Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in
a boiler furnace?
a) Help preheat the air for the furnace

b) Help preheat the feed water
c) Protect economizer from excessive heat
d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
Answer: d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
 Heat is transferred from hot water to an oil in a double-pipe counter-

flow heat exchanger. Water enters the outer pipe at 120 oC and exits at
55 oC while the oil enters the inner pipe at 26 oC and exits at 65 oC.
What is the log-mean temperature difference (LMTD)?
o o
a) 42.60 C c) 40.62 C
o o
b) 46.20 C d) 42.06 C
o
Answer: c) Log Mean Temperature Difference, LMTD = 40.62 C
 Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap?
a) Thermodynamic
b) Mechanical
c) Thermostatic
d) They do not belong to any specific type of trap family
Answer: c) Thermostatic
 In a Rankine cycle, steam enters the turbine at 2.5MPa and a condenser

pressure of 50KPa. What is the quality of steam at the turbine exhaust?
Steam Properties:
@ 2.5Mpaa, h = 2803.1 kJ/kg & s = 6.2575 kJ/kg-OK;
@ 50kPaa, hf = 340.49 kJ/kg, hfg = 2305.4 kJ/kg,
vf = 0.00103 m3/kg, sf = 1.0910 kJ/kg-OK,
sfg = 6.5029 kJ/kg-OK.
a) 79.45 % c) 97.45 %
b) 59.75 % d) 95.55 %
Answer: a) Steam Quality, x2 = 79.45 %
 An adiabatic turbine steam generating plant receives steam at a pressure

of 7.0 MPa and 550OC (h = 3531 kJ/kg) and exhausts at a condenser
pressure of 20kPa (h = 2290 kJ/kg). The turbine inlet is 3 meters higher
than the turbine exit, inlet steam velocity is 15m/s and the exit is
300m/s. Calculate the turbine work in kJ/kg.
a) 1296.14 c) 1196.24
b) 1619.42 d) 1294.16
Answer: c) The turbine work, Wt = 1196.24 kJ/kg
10 | P a g e
 Determine the indicated power of a four-cylinder, 4-stroke, Diesel
engine with 20-cm bore and 30-cm stroke running at 1000 rpm and has a
reading of 450 kPa mean effective pressure in the indicator diagram.
a) 159.83 Hp c) 189.53 Hp
b) 158.93 Hp d) 198.53 Hp
Answer: c) Indicated power, IP = 189.53 Hp
 What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps?
a) They pass condensate at steam temperature

b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
c) They cannot be fitted outside
d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems
Answer: b) they operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
 The approach and efficiency of cooling tower are 10 oC and 65 %,

o
respectively. If the temperature of water leaving the tower is 27 C,
determine the temperature of water entering the tower.
o o
a) 54.57 C c) 55.47 C
o o
b) 45.57 C d) 54.75 C
Answer: b) Temperature of water entering the tower,

t3 = 45.57 oC
 What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?
a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line
Answer: b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
 An air-vapor mixture has a dry bulb temperature of 30 oC and a humidity

ratio of 0.015 kg/kg d.a., calculate the enthalpy of the moist air.
a) 68.527 kJ/kg d.a c) 86.527 kJ/kg d.a

b) 65.827 kJ/kg d.a. d) 67.528 kJ/kg d.a
Answer: a) Enthalpy, h = 68.527 kJ/kg d.a.
11 | P a g e
 Determine the equivalence ratio of the following mixture: 4 grams of
butane, C4H10, and 75 grams of air.
a) 0.72 c) 0.92
b) 0.62 d) 0.82
Answer: d) Equivalence ratio = 0.82
 Can temperature controlled applications be trapped?
a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances

b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate
Answer: c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than back

pressure
 Find the air Hp of an industrial fan that delivers 25 m3/s of air

through a 900 mm by 1200 mm outlet. Static pressure is 127 mm of water
gage and air density is 1.18 kg/m3.
a) 52.3 Hp c) 35.2 Hp
b) 42.3 Hp d) 34.2 Hp
Answer: a) Fan power, WF = 52.3 Hp
 Determine the indicated mean effective pressure of an engine, in psi,

having a brake mean effective pressure of 750 kPa and 80 % mechanical
efficiency.
a) 138 c) 137
b) 136 d) 135
Answer: b) Indicated mean effective pressure, pI = 136.01 psi
 Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing
condensate from heat exchangers?
a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap

b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
d) That the trap is fitted level with or above the heater outlet
Answer: b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
12 | P a g e
 The indicator card (actual p-V diagram) of an engine in a Diesel power
plant indicates an area of 0.06 m2 and length of 300 mm, and with a
spring scale of 2500 kPa/m. The engine was tested using Prony brake with
lever arm of 3 m and tare weight of 8 kN. Determine the mechanical
efficiency if the engine is running at 600 rpm. The engine is 2-stroke
and has 12 cylinders, 300 mm bore, and 450 mm stroke.
a) 78.01 % c) 79.01 %
b) 82.01 % d) 76.01 %
Answer: c) Engine mechanical Efficiency = 79.01 %
 How is flash steam produced?
a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems

b) From saturated steam
c) From superheated steam
d) From steam mixed with high temperature air
Answer: a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems
 A 2-kg steam at 2.5 MPaa and 260 oC undergoes a constant pressure until
the quality becomes 70 %. Determine the heat rejected, in Btu. At 2.5
MPaa and 260oC: h = 2907.4 kJ/kg; and at 2.5 MPaa and 70 % quality: hf =
962.11 kJ/kg and hg = 2803.1 kJ/kg.
a) 1244.7 Btu c) 1424.7 Btu

b) 1442.7 Btu d) 1274.4 Btu
Answer: a) Heat rejected = 1244.73 Btu
 Are steam traps required to pass air?
a) Steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances

b) Only when the trap has passed all the condensate
c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
d) Only on high pressure steam system
Answer: c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
 A 145 000-kW turbo-generator requires 690 000 kg/hr of steam at rated

load and 23 000 kg/hr of steam at zero load. Determine the steam rate,
in kg/kW-hr, at 75 % of its rated load.
a) 4.81 kg/kW-hr c) 3.81 kg/kW-hr

b) 5.81 kg/kW-hr d) 2.81 kg/kW-hr
Answer: a) Rated load = 4.811 kg/kW-Hr
13 | P a g e
 How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping
system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the
operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the
sprinklers?
a) Mechanical sprinkler c) Automatic system

b) Wet pipe system d) Deluge system
Answer: d) Deluge system
 What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control

system?
a) What degree of accuracy is required?

b) Is the control for heating or cooling?
c) Is a two or three port valve required?
d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-
closed?
Answer: d) In the even of power failure, must the valve fail-open or

fail-closed?
 The combustion gases of a furnace are separated from its surrounding or

ambient air which is 29 oC. The brick wall is 130 mm and has a thermal
conductivity of 1.23 W/m-oC with a surface emissivity of 0.81. The outer
surface temperature of the wall is 130 oC and with surface air
conductance of 15 W/m2-oC. For steady state conditions, what is the total
heat transmitted for a surface area of 30 m2?
a) 70.33 kW c) 73.30 kW
b) 33.07 kW d) 37.30 kW
Answer: a) 70.33 kW
 Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio is used for comfort air
conditioning?
a) 50 to 55 % c) 55 to 60 %
b) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 %
Answer: b) RH = 55 % to 60 %
 When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be

charge into which of the following parts of the system?
a) High pressure side c) Low pressure side

b) Low and high pressure side d) Compressor discharge line
Answer: c) Low pressure side
14 | P a g e
 A 1.5 MW Diesel power generating unit has a generator efficiency of 85
%. Determine the volume flow rate, in lps, of cooling water required for
the engine at 18 oC temperature rise.
a) 21 lps c) 19 lps
b) 22 lps d) 23 lps
Answer: a) Volume flow = 21 lps
 Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85 o

C?
a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam

b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied
to the boiler
c) To reduce the gas content of the water
d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water
Answer: c) To reduce the gas content of the water
 What is used to dry air?
a) A separator c) A strainer
b) A steam trap d) A tee piece
Answer: a) A separator
 What causes water hammer in the boiler?
a) Suspended water droplets

b) An air/water mixture
c) Strainers fitted on their sides
d) Slugs of water in the steam
Answer: d) Slugs of water in the steam
 A Carnot refrigerator is to remove heat from a cooled space at a rate of

18 000 kJ/hr to maintain the temperature at – 8 oC. If the air
surrounding the refrigerator is 25 oC, determine the minimum power
required for the refrigerator.
a) 0.723 kW c) 0.523 kW
b) 0.623 kW d) 0.423 kW
Answer: c) 0.623 kW
 How does air enter a steam system?
a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam system
b) With make-up water to the boiler feedtank
c) With condensate entering the boiler feedtank
d) Both a, b, & c
Answer: d) All of the items stated from a to c
15 | P a g e
 A Pelton wheel has a capacity of 25 000 kW with head of 290 m. What is
the number of jet needed for this turbine if the jet if the nozzle jet
diameter is 200 mm.
a) 3 c) 4
b) 2 d) 1
Answer: c) Number of Jets or Nozzles = 4
 Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides?
a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body

b) To trap more dirt
c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning
d) To provide maximum screening area for the steam
Answer: a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body
 The water turbine of a 5-MW hydro-power plant has a specific speed of 40

rpm and a discharge of 2020 lps. What is the approximate diameter of the
jet.
a) 191 mm c) 171 mm
b) 181 mm d) 161 mm
Answer: a) Nozzle diameter = 191 mm
 What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its

steam consumption?
a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.
b) The rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary
medium
c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar
d) The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat
exchanger
Answer: A
 A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7

bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at
3 bar g?
a) The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation

at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g.
b) The heat output would be greater because steam at 3 bar g has a
greater volume than steam at 7 bar g.
c) Less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a
higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g.
d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature
between the steam and product is reduced.
Answer: d)
16 | P a g e
 A standard 25-mm outside diameter steel tube (with wall thickness of
1.65 mm) is carrying 0.34 lps of oil. Determine the velocity of flow of
oil inside the tube.
a) 191 fpm c) 181 fpm

b) 171 fpm d) 161 fpm
Answer: c) Fluid Velocity = 181 fpm
 For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid
of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?
a) They are approximately double those from the bottom

b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
c) Losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top
d) Losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom
Answer: b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
 Helium is used in a Carnot engine where the volumes beginning with the
constant temperature heat addition are V1 = 0.3565 m3, V2 = 0.5130 m3, V3
= 8.0 m3, and V4 = 5.57 m3. Determine the thermal efficiency if k =
1.666.
a) 83.95 % c) 89.35 %
b) 85.93 % d) 85.39 %
Answer: a) Thermal Efficiency = 83.95 %
 What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection?
a) It agitates the solution

b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used
c) Steam traps are not required
d) It dilutes the tank content
Answer: d) It dilutes the tank content
 The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital, where you are assigned
as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely
to be installed?
a) Screw chiller c) Scroll Chiller

b) Reciprocating chiller d) Centrifugal chiller
Answer: d) Centrifugal chiller
17 | P a g e
 The temperature inside a furnace is 320 oC and temperature of the
outside is – 10 oC. What is the temperature difference in oR.
a) 495 c) 945
b) 594 d) 596
o
Answer: b) Temperature change, 594 R
 Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject

the total heat that comes from which of the following?
a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect

b) Superheating
c) Subcooling
d) Compressor work
Answer: a) Compressor Work and net refrigeration effect
 The forced convective heat transfer coefficient for a hot fluid flowing
over a cold surface is 225 W/m2.0C for a particular problem. The fluid
temperature upstream of the cold surface is 120 0C, and the surface is
held at 10 0C. Determine the heat transfer rate per unit surface from
the fluid to the surface.
a. 24 570 W/m2 b. 52.470 W/m2

c. 24 700 W/m2 d. 24 750 W/m2
Answer: d) 24 750 W/m2
 A published „U‟ value from a steam coil to a water based solution is

given as 550 – 1300 W/m2-oC. When would be figure near the lower end of
the range be used?
a) When the steam is known to be of good quality

b) For short coils
c) For small diameter coils
d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place
Answer: d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place
 Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:
a) The tank contains a corrosive solution

b) When agitation of the tank solution is required
c) When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur
d) When good heat distribution is required
Answer: a) The tank contains a corrosive solution
18 | P a g e
 What range of „U‟ values would you apply for mild steel jacket around a
stainless steel tank containing a water and detergent solution?
a) 285 – 480 c) 450 – 1140

b) 850 – 1700 d) 285 – 850
Answer: c) 450 to 1140 kJ/kg-oK
 A 5 m x 4 m x 4 m room has an air temperature of 32 oC (psat = 4.559

kPaa, hg = 2559.9 kJ/kg) and the pressure is 101 kPaa. The mass of water
vapor in air is 2.5 kg with Rv = 0.45 kJ/kg-oK. What is the relative
humidity of the air?
a) 94.08 % c) 74.08 %
b) 84.08 % d) 64.08 %
Answer: a) 94.08 %
 A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity

of heat required compare with steam coil heating?
a) It depends on the temperature of the water being heated

b) More heat will be required
c) The same amount of heat will be required
d) Less heat will be required
Answer: c) The same amount of heat will be required
 If the velocity of discharge from a fire hose is 15 m/s and the hose is
oriented 45o from the horizontal. Disregarding air friction, determine
the maximum range of the discharge.
a) 14 m c) 33 m
b) 24 m d) 23 m
Answer: d) Maximum range, R = 23 m
 Which of the following parameters has the greatest limiting effect on

the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?
a) Wet-Bulb temperature c) Dry-Bulb temperature

b) Range d) Approach
Answer: a) Wet-bulb temperature
Note: It is not possible to cool the water below the air‟s wet-bulb
temperature. Thus, the WB temperature, more than any other parameter,
sets the absolute limit on the cooling tower‟s capacity.
19 | P a g e
 A full cylindrical tank 12 m high has a constant diameter of 6 m. The
tank has a 100 mm diameter hole in its bottom. The coefficient of
discharge for the hole is 0.98. How long will it take for the water
level to drop from 12 m to 6 m?
a) 16 minutes c) 20 minutes
b) 24 minutes d) 28 minutes
Answer: b) the time to lower the level = 24 minutes
 Air enters a cooling tower at 10 oC DB and 9.5 oC WB temperature. It

leaves the tower saturated at 21 oC. Which condition is a likely outcome
of this?
a) Sublimation b) Condensation
c) Adsorption d) Fog
Answer: d) Fog
Note:
 The process has the potential to create fog, which consists of
liquid droplets suspended in the atmosphere.
 Adsorption is a process in which molecules of gas or liquid are
extracted from an atmosphere. But it does not indicate suspended
moisture droplets such as those that characterize fog.
 A gaseous mixture of propane (C3H8), methane (CH4), and ethane (C2H6) have
partial pressure 50 kPa, 95 kPa, and 115 kPa respectively. Determine the
mass percentage of propane.
a) 30.68 % c) 28.68 %
b) 21.68 % d) 32.68 %
Answer: a) 30.68 %
 It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of

coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not
be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How
do you call this?
a) Zone c) Room
b) Space d) Plenum
Answer: a) Zone
20 | P a g e
 A pump delivering 230 lps of water whose absolute viscosity is 0.0114
poise has a 300 mm diameter suction pipe and 254 mm diameter discharge
pipe. Determine the friction factor in the suction line if the pipe
material is a cast iron.
a) 0.02068 c) 0.0199
b) 0.2013 d) 0.0299
Answer: c) the friction factor, f = 0.0199
 In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a

partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?
a) Zone c) Room
b) Space d) Plenum
Answer: c) Space
 A boiler installed where the atmospheric pressure is 752 mm Hg has a

pressure of 12 kg/cm2. Find the absolute pressure, in MPa.
a) 1277.05 kPaa c) 1727.05 kPaa

b) 1772.05 kPaa d) 1572.07 kPaa
Answer: a) Absolute Pressure = 1277.05 kPaa
 It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a

single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system.
What is this?
a) Zone c) Room
b) Space d) Plenum
Answer: c) Room
 Indicator test that shows that the area of card is 33 mm2, length of
card is 50 mm. If spring scale is 1.72 MPa per mm, determine the MEP:
a) 1.781 Mpa c) 33 Mpa

b) 1.135 Mpa d) 50 Mpa
Answer: b) Mean Effective Pressure, MEP = 1.135 MPa
 Calculate the thermal efficiency of an air standard diesel cycle engine

operating at a volumetric compression ratio of 23:1 with a cut-off ratio
of 2.25.
a) 62.6% c) 60.6%
b) 65.6% d) 67.6%
Answer: b) 65.6 %
21 | P a g e
 It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a
conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space
from an internal source during a given time interval.
a) Space heat gain

b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate
Answer: a) Space heat gain
 It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be removed from a

conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and
acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load component is equal to
the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the
building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment.
How do you call this?
a) Space heat gain

b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate
Answer: b) Space cooling load
 An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of

power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37
o
C and 400 oC. Is the Engineer‟s claim valid?
a) Valid c) Not valid

b) Probably d) May be valid
Answer: c) The claim is not valid
 There are 20 kg of exhaust gas formed per kg of fuel oil burned in the
combustion of diesoline C16H32. What is the excess air percent?
a) 30.1 % c) 29.16 %
b) 21.5 % d) 30.6 %
Answer: c) 29.16 %
 A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and
work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is
converted from chemical to thermal form within the body.
a) Metabolism c) Eating
b) Body food processing d) Blood circulation
Answer: a) Metabolism
22 | P a g e
 A Diesel power plant uses fuel with heating value of 45 038.8 kJ/kg.
What is the density of fuel at 30 oC?
a) 0.7882 kg/li c) 0.8782 kg/li

b) 0.9887 kg/li d) 0.8878 kg/li
Answer: c) 0.8782 kg/li
 What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single

equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?
a) Skin c) Blood
b) Clothing d) Water
Answer: b) Clothing
 What is the insulating value of clothing?
a) Btu unit c) Clo units

b) Calorie unit d) Frigorie Unit
Answer: c) Clo units
 Which of the following is the value of clo units?
o
F  ft 2  Hr F m2
o
a) 1 clo  0.880 c) 1 clo  0.275
Btu W
o
F m2 o
F m2
b) 1 clo  100 d) 1 clo  190
kW kW
o
F  ft 2  Hr
Answer: a) 1 clo  0.880
Btu
 Determine the friction power of an engine if the frictional torque

developed is 0.30 kN-m running 1200 rpm.
a) 47.7 kW c) 37.7 kW
b) 43.3 kw d) 33.3 kW
Answer: c) 37.7 kW
23 | P a g e
 A 500 kW Diesel engine operates at 101.3 kPaa and 27 oC in Calamba City.
If the engine will operates in Baguio City having 93 kPaa and 23 oC,
what new brake power will be developed if mechanical efficiency is 85 %.
a) 455.96 kW c) 549.10 kW
b) 954.1 kW d) 495.1 kW
Answer: a) 455.96 kW
 What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a

space, it is the mean temperature of individual; exposed surfaces in the
environment?
a) Index temperature
b) Mean radiant temperature
c) Space temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature
Answer: b) Mean Radiant Temperature
 Fish weighing 11 000 kg with a temperature of 20 oC is brought to a cold

storage and which shall be cooled to – 10 oC in 11 hours. Find the
required plant refrigerating capacity in TR if the specific heat of fish
is 0.7 kCal/kg-oC above freezing and 0.30 kCal/kg-oC below freezing point
that is – 3 oC. The latent heat of freezing is 55.5 kCal/kg.
a) 25.26 c) 14.38
b) 15.26 d) 24.38
Answer: d) 24.38 TR
 In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the

following is true?
a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH

b) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative
Answer: a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
 A refrigeration system operates on the reversed Carnot cycle. The

minimum and maximum temperatures are – 25 C and 72 C, respectively. If
the heat rejected at the condenser is 6000 kJ/min, find the tons of
refrigeration required.
a) 20.44 TR c) 24.40 TR
b) 42.20 TR d) 44.20 TR
Answer: a) 20.44 TR
24 | P a g e
 What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?
a) An increase in entropy
b) An increase in enthalpy
c) A decrease in entropy
d) A decrease in enthalpy
Answer: d) A decrease in enthalpy
 Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content

that they can possess at different times.
a) Wet materials c) Hygroscopic materials

b) Gross materials d) Bone-dry-weight material
Answer: c) Hygroscopic material
 The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a

percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material.
a) Moisture content c) Regain

b) Bone-dry-weight d) Gross weight
Answer:
 What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator over an atmospheric

deaerator?
a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required

b) Less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c) It can be fitted at ground level
d) It removes more oxygen
Answer: d) It removes more oxygen
 In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture

content, fixed carbon, ash, and which of the following?
a) Sulfur c) Hydrogen
b) Nitrogen d) Volatile matter
Answer: d) Volatile matter
 How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the
products of combustion is in the liquid state?
a) Higher heating value c) Lower heating value

b) Proximate heating value d) Gravimetric heating value
Answer: a) Higher heating value
25 | P a g e
 What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the
conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a
specified relative humidity?
a) Space heat gain c) Space heating load

b) Space cooling load d) Space heat extraction rate
Answer: c) Space heating load
 Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at which heat is
actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its
sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only
when the space air temperature remains constant.
a) Space heat gain c) Space heating load

b) Space cooling load d) Space heat extraction rate
Answer: d) Space heat extraction rate
 It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling

load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water
flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the
coil. What do you call this?
a) Coil load c) Heating coil load

b) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load
Answer: a) Coil load
 It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the

conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements
inside the coil.

Answer: c) Heating Coil Load
 What is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is absorbed by the

refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the
sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping heat gain, pump power
heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in
commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only
about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system
using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load.

Answer: b) Refrigerating load
26 | P a g e
 It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or
absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be
mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?
a) Hydrometer c) Hygrometer
b) Psychrometer d) Barometer
Answer: c) Hygrometer
 It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or

other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an
actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may
be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball
specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you
call this device.
a) Automatic Valve c) Automatic flow meter

b) Thermostat d) Pyrometer
Answer: a) Automatic Valve
 Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the
line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that
the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions,
the best one to take first in this situation would be to:
a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply

b) Surface-blow the boiler
c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d) Increase the speed of the feed water
Answer: c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
 It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load

fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load
demands. What is this component?
a) Spillway c) Dam
b) Surge tank d) penstock
Answer: b) Surge Tank
 It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming

lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous
gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?
a) Coking or coking coal c) Free burning coal

b) Peat coal d) Lignite coal
Answer: a) Coking or coking coal
27 | P a g e
 It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when
ignited.
a) Fire point c) Flash point

b) Ignition temperature d) Creep temperature
Answer: a) Fire point
 It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient

flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary
contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature?
a) Fire point c) Flash point

b) Ignition temperature d) Creep temperature
Answer: c) Flash point
 The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted

light; the color by reflected light is referred to as:
a) Bloom c) Reflection
b) Deflection d) Residue
Answer: a) Bloom
 How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified
conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool
in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils?
a) Ash c) Color
b) Carbon residue d) Coke
Answer: b) Carbon residue
 Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax
formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax
crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the
solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test
conditions, it is known as the
a) Cloud point c) Pour point

b) Creep point d) Flash point
Answer: a) Cloud point
28 | P a g e
 It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under specific
test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a
lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this
temperature?
a) Cloud point c) Pour point

b) Creep point d) Flash point
Answer: c) Pour point
 It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and

was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and
to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on
deposit formation and corrosion. What is this?
a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number
Answer: d) Neutralization number and total acid number
 How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils, especially

those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during
fuel combustion?
a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number
Answer: b) Total base number
 These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to

metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of
applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they
include graphite, molybdenum disulfide, polytetrafluoroethylene, talc,
graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call
these materials?
a) Greases
b) Liquid lubricants
c) Solid lubricants
d) Powder lubricants
Answer: c) Solid lubricants
29 | P a g e
 These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by
solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do
you call these oil additives?
a) Detergents c) Dispersants
b) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion inhibitors
Answer: c) Dispersants
 How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on
sensitive bearing metals?
Answer: d) Corrosion inhibitors
 These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and
corrosion by neutralizing combustion by-product acids. What are these
additives?
Answer: a) Detergents
 What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matters?
a) Adhesion c) Cohesion
b) Advection d) Convection
Answer: a) Adhesion
 How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on
iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion
products, aggravated by low-temperature stop-and-go operation?
b) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: d) Rust inhibitors
 How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate
low-temperature flow, along with sufficient viscosity at high
temperatures?
a) Viscosity-index improvers
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: a) Viscosity-index improvers
30 | P a g e
 These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication
conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston-ring
surfaces.
a) Anti-wear additives
b) Pour point dispersants
d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: a) Anti-wear additives
 These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily
from the oil.
a) Anti-wear additives
b) Defoamants
d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: b) Defoamants
 These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by

reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil
additives?
a) Anti-wear additives c) Friction modifiers

b) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: c) Friction modifiers
 How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is
harnessed?
a) Crater c) Hot water source

b) Fumarole d) Volcano opening
Answer: b) Fumarole
 At standard atmospheric conditions, what is the approximate speed of

sound?
a) 336 m/s c) 363 m/s
b) 633 m/s d) 346 m/s
Answer: a) 336 m/s
 The speed of sound is also called as:
a) Sound velocity c) Acoustic velocity

b) Subsonic velocity d) Critical velocity
Answer: c) Acoustic velocity
31 | P a g e
 This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a
fluid. How do you call this velocity?
a) Sonic velocity c) Subsonic velocity

b) Supersonic velocity d) Hypersonic velocity
Answer: a) Sonic Velocity
 Which of the following is the speed of light?
a) 2.998 x 108 m/s c) 2.998 x 109

b) 2.998 x 1010 m/s d) 2.998 x 107 m/s
Answer: a) 2.998 x 108 m/s
 What can you say about entropy in the universe?
a) Entropy is always increasing

b) Entropy is decreasing
c) Entropy will zero at the end of time
d) Entropy is stagnating
Answer: a) Entropy is always increasing
 Which of the following is the chemical formula of butane?
a) C2H5 c) C10H16
b) C4H10 d) C3H6
Answer: b) C4H10
 If the sensible heat ratio is 0.75, what does it mean?
a) 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat

b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat
c) 25 % latent and sensible heat and 75 % latent heat
d) 75 % sensible and latent heat and 25 % sensible heat
Answer: b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat
 The hardness of ground water required as feed water for a boiler is 0 –

10 ppm (part per million), which of the following is the range of
alkalinity requirement?
a) pH 9 to pH 10 c) pH 6 to pH 10
b) pH 10 to pH 11 d) pH 8 to pH 10
Answer: b) pH 10 to pH 11
32 | P a g e
 As used in the Revised PSME Code for Boilers and Pressure Vessels, it is
any boiler which does not exceed any of the following limits: 405 mm
inside diameter, 1065 mm overall length of outside to outside heats at
center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum
allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?
a) Power boiler c) Portable boiler

b) Miniature boiler d) Locomotive boiler
Answer: b) Miniature boiler
 It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be used

externally to itself) is generated by the direct application of heat
used for power generation. How do you call this boiler?
a) Power boiler c) Portable boiler

b) Oil-fired boiler d) Miniature boiler
Answer: a) Power boiler
 It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water of for

application of heat to generate steam or other vapor to be used
externally from it. What do you call this pressure vessel?
a) Boiler or steam generator c) Fired pressure vessel

b) Unfired pressure vessel d) Pressurized tank
Answer: a) Boiler or steam generator
 What do you call a vessel in which pressure is obtained from external

sources, or from an indirect application of heat?
a) Boiler or steam generator c) Fired pressure vessel
b) Unfired pressure vessel d) Pressurized tank
Answer: b) Unfired pressure vessel
 It is any boiler or unfired pressure vessel constructed, installed,

placed in operation but subject to annual inspection. What do you call
this?
a) Miniature boiler c) Existing installation
b) New boiler d) Portable boiler
Answer: c) Existing installation
 It is a boiler that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or

disqualified, marked and marked indicating its rejection. How do you
call this boiler?
a) Second hand boiler c) Reinstalled boiler
b) Condemned boiler d) Unfired boiler
Answer: b) Condemned boiler
33 | P a g e
 When new boilers are installed in either existing or new buildings, a
minimum height of at least ______ shall be provided between top of the
boiler proper and ceiling.
a) 1050 mm c) 2130 mm
b) 1250 mm d) 2050 mm
Answer: c) 2130 mm
 For power boilers, when the tensile strength of steel is not known, it
shall be taken as 379 MPa and which of the following for the wrought
iron?
a) 379 N/mm2 c) 310 MPa

b) 450 MPa d) 521 N/mm2
Answer: c) 310 MPa
 Name one characteristic feature of mechanical steam traps.
a) They pass condensate at steam temperature

b) They operate by sensing condensate temperature
c) They can be fitted into any position
d) They are not affected by increasing back pressure
Answer: b) They pass condensate steam temperature
 In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at venting air

than an inverted bucket trap?
a) A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air

b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent
c) A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap
d) The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap
Answer: b) A float fitted with automatic air vent
 In a mechanical steam trap, what added benefit does the automatic air
vent offer to a float trap?
a) It stops the trap from freezing in cold weather

b) The trap can be use on larger backpressures
c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the trap
d) The condensate orifice can be the same size for all pressure gauges
Answer: c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the

trap
34 | P a g e
 In a mechanical steam trap, what advantage does a bucket trap have over
a float type?
a) It is able to withstand waterhammer

b) It can be used on higher pressure
c) It can discharge air freely
d) It cannot lose its water seal
Answer: b) it can be used on higher pressure
 A heat exchanger is designed to operate without waterlogging of the

steam space. What is the usual choice of trap for its drainage?
a) Thermostatic trap
b) Inverted bucket trap
c) Thermodynamic trap
d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent
Answer: d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent
 Which is the best trap to use when steam locking can occur?
a) An inverted bucket trap with an internal check valve mechanism

b) A balanced pressure steam trap
c) A float trap with automatic air vent
d) A float trap with steam lock release mechanism
Answer: b) A balanced pressure steam trap
 What is a common cause of waterhammer in drying coils?
a) Wet steam supplied to the coil

b) Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
d) The coil falling in the direction of steam flow
Answer: c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
 Which of the following statements is true?
a) Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for rotating cylinders

b) Rotating cylinders can not suffer from steam locking
c) Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a steam lock
release
d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can
considerably improve start-up times
Answer: d)
35 | P a g e
 Name the principle cause of waterhammer?
a) Water particles suspended in steam

b) Water allowed to build up in pipes
c) Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes
d) Wet steam passing through steam traps
Answer: b) Water allowed to build up in pipes
 What effect does steam locking have on rotating machinery?
a) None at all
b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
c) It increases the drying rate of drying cylinders
d) It causes the steam trap to air bind
Answer: b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
 What do you call a boiler of which both the location and ownership have
been changed after primary use?
a) Second hand boiler c) Surplus boiler

b) Miniature boiler d) Reinstalled boiler
Answer: a) Second hand boiler
 It is a boiler removed from its original setting and re-erected at the

same location or erected at a location without change of ownership. How
do you call this boiler?
a) Second hand boiler c) Surplus boiler

b) Miniature boiler d) Reinstalled boiler
Answer: d) Reinstalled boiler
 Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with which of the following for
the determination of water level?
a) Safety valve c) Fusible plug

b) Water gage glass d) Pressure gages
Answer: b) Water gage glass
 The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code steel or wrought

iron heating boiler of welded construction shall not exceed to which of
the following pressures?
a) 1 atmosphere c) 1 Bar
b) 100 kPa d) 2 gage pressure
Answer: c) 1 bar
36 | P a g e
 What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas
evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a
generator upon the application of heat?
a) Absorption refrigeration system

b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system
d) Steam jet refrigeration system
Answer: a) Absorption refrigeration system
 What do you call a shut-off valve other than a valve for controlling the
flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration system?
a) Fusible valve c) Stop valve

b) Check valve d) Relief valve
Answer: c) Stop valve
 What is a device, used in refrigeration system, having a predetermined

temperature fusible member for the relief of pressures?
a) Fusible valve c) Stop valve

b) Check valve d) Relief valve
Answer: a) Fusible valve
 It is a measure of the lack of potential or quality of energy; and once

that energy has been exchanged or converted, it cannot revert back to a
higher level. What is this?
a) Specific heat c) Entropy

b) Internal energy d) Molecular energy
Answer: c) Entropy
 What do you call the method used to evaluate all welds performed on
pressure parts of boiler tube materials?
a) Radiographic test c) Hydrostatic test

b) Vacuum test d) Orsat analysis
Answer: a) Radiographic test
 It is a boiler testing method that is used to verify the microstructure

of the boiler tubes using optical microscopes. How do you call this
method?
a) Tube sampling c) Metallurgic replication

b) Radiographic testing d) Optical testing
Answer: c) metallurgic replication
37 | P a g e
 Which of the following is true regarding the relation of rk and re for
spark-ignition engine, where rk = compression ratio while re = expansion
ratio?
a) rk > re
b) rk < re
c) rk = re
d) re is not considered in the spark-ignition engine
Answer: c) rk = re
 It is the generic term given to a family of solid fuels with high carbon
content. How do you call this?
a) Solid fuel c) Coal

b) Anthracite d) Bituminous
Answer: c) Coal
 It is a boiler fuel created from the residue produced from crude

petroleum after it has been distilled to produce lighter oils like
gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil. What is this fuel?
a) Oil c) Kerosene
b) Coke d) Peat
Answer: a) Oil
 What do you call a form of boiler fuel that is easy to burn, with very
little excess air?
a) Coal c) Oil
b) Gas d) Bunker
Answer: b) Gas
 The second law of thermodynamics says that whenever energy is exchanged

or converted from one form to another, the potential for energy to do
work will be _________.
a) Decreased c) Increased
b) Zero d) Stagnant
Answer: a) Decreased
 What is true about steam as it condenses?

a) It does so at constant entropy and temperature
b) It does so at constant enthalpy and reducing temperature
c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and temperature remains constant
d) Both enthalpy and entropy increase
Answer: c)
38 | P a g e
 It is an increase in fluid pressure in a long pipe caused by a sudden
velocity decrease, where the sudden decrease in velocity is caused by a
valve closing.
a) Aero dynamics c) Water hammer
b) Terminal velocity d) Drag
Answer: c) Water hammer
 It is an upward force that is exerted on an object (like flat plate,

airfoil, rotating cylinder, etc.) as the object passes through a fluid.
What do you call this?
a) Drag c) Lift
b) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity
Answer: c) Lift
 What is a frictional force that acts parallel but opposite to the

direction of motion of fluid?
a) Drag c) Lift
b) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity
Answer: a) Drag
 It is a term used by automobile manufacturers to designate the power

required to move a car horizontally at 50 mi/hr against the drag force.
What is this?
a) Mechanical horsepower c) Aero horsepower

b) Fuel power d) Fluid power
Answer: c) Aero Horsepower
 A manufacturer claims that it has a COP of 2.0 when cooling a food at 5

o
C using ambient air at 30 oC as a heat sink. Is the claim of the
manufacturer valid?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Probably
d) It needs experimental verification
Answer: a) Yes
 What can you say about the velocity of fluid at the center of the pipe
section?
a) Maximum b) Minimum
c) Average d) Zero
Answer: a) Maximum
39 | P a g e
 Continuity equation is applicable to which of the following?
a) Viscous and unviscous fluids

b) Compressibility fluids
c) Conservation of mass
d) Steady and unsteady flows
Answer: c) Conservation of mass
 Hygrometer is an instrument used to determine of which of the following?
a) Specific gravity of fluids

b) Specific gravity of gases
c) Specific gravity of liquids
d) Specific gravity of solids
Answer: a) Specific gravity of fluids
 At critical point of a pure substance, what is the value of latent heat?
a) Maximum c) Minimum
b) Zero d) Below zero
Answer: c) Zero, at the critical point hg – hf = 0
 Which of the following is a function of a steam nozzle?
a) Converts kinetic energy into heat energy

b) Changes internal energy into kinetic energy
c) Converts potential energy into heat energy
d) Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic energy
Answer: d) Changes in enthalpic energy is converted into changes in

kinetic energy
 Generally steam turbines in power station operate at which of the

following speeds?
a) 3000 rpm c) 1000 rpm

b) 4000 rpm d) 500 rpm
Answer: b) 4000 rpm
 Tidal power is the power generated from which of the following?
a) Waves of the ocean

b) Thermal energy of ocean water
c) Raw sea water
d) Rise and fall of tides
Answer: d) Rise and fall of tides
40 | P a g e
 Which of the following is an expression or equivalent of horsepower per
ton of refrigeration?
4.715 COP
a) COP c) 4.715
1
b) COP x 4.715 d) 4.715 x COP
Answer: a) 4.715 divided by the COP
 It is the ratio of the amount of heat taken up by a substance to the

temperature at which the substance exists. How do you call this?
a) Internal energy c) Flow energy

b) Enthalpy d) Entropy
Answer: d) Entropy
 Which of the following is a type of water turbine where a jet of water

is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water
the turbine starts moving?
a) Reaction turbine c) Steam turbine

b) Francis turbine d) Pelton wheel
Answer: d) Pelton wheel
 What do you call a fan in which the fluid is accelerated parallel to the
fan axis?
a) Axial centrifugal fan

b) Mixed flow centrifugal fan
c) Radial centrifugal fan
d) Francis type fan
Answer: a) Axial centrifugal fan
 It represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving parts of

the engine, and expressed as horsepower. How do you call this?
a) Indicated Hp c) Brake Hp
b) Combined Hp d) Friction Hp
Answer: d) Friction Hp
41 | P a g e
 How do you call a device or engine which continually and indefinitely
discharged more energy than it receives?
a) Carnot engine c) Generating machine

b) Stirling engine d) Perpetual motion machine
Answer: d) Perpetual motion machine
 In plotting the bHp versus speed in a wide open throttle test for a
spark ignition engine, the bHp curve:
a) is a Straight line
b) tends to concave downward
c) has no characteristic shape
d) tends to concave upward
Answer: b) tends to concave downward
 Upon entering the boiler room, you find the water out of the glass, the
safety valve blowing off strong, and a fire under the boiler. Your
first action would be to:
a) Remove the fire with draft and damper open

b) Cool the boiler down completely
c) Prevent priming by not raising the safety valve or making change in
operating of engines or boiler
d) Cool the boiler down completely and prevent priming by not raising
the safety valve
Answer: a) Remove the fire with draft and damper open
 The A.S.M.E. Boiler code for boiler shells requires a tensile strength
of which of the following, in psi?
a) 10000 to 20000 c) 25000 to 45000

b) 55000 to 63000 d) 70000 to 85000
Answer: b) 55000 to 63000
 The best time to blow a boiler down is:
a) Once a day when the load is lightest

b) Once a day under full load
c) When the chemical concentration is greatest
d) Once a shift
Answer: c) When the chemical concentration is greatest
42 | P a g e
 In performing a hydrostatic test on an existing power boiler, the
required test pressure must be controlled so that it is not exceeded by
more than:
a) 2% c) 4%
b) 6% d) 8%
Answer: a) 2%
 The first step to take in planning a preventive maintenance program is

to:
a) Replace all electric wiring

b) Make an equipment inventory
c) Replace all pump seals
d) Repair all equipment which is not in operation
Answer: b) Make an equipment inventory
 Which of the following is the most important consideration in a fire

prevention program?
a) Train the staff to place flammable in fireproof containers

b) Know how to attack fires regardless of size
c) See that halls, corridors, and exits are not blocked
d) Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard
Answer: d) Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard
 Which of the following types of portable fire extinguisher is

recommended as most effective for putting out oil fires?
a) Pump tank type c) Soda acid type
b) Cartridge actuated type d) Foam type
Answer: d) Foam type
 Which of the following are the four stages of the warning system
designated by the high air pollution alert warning system?
a) Initial, chronic, acute, penetrating

b) Forecast, alert, warning, emergency
c) Light, medium, heavy, extra heavy
d) Early, moderate, severe, toxic
Answer: b) Forecast, alert, warning, emergency
 The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation of sewage is

known as:
a) Lime c) Copper sulfate
b) Sulfuric acid d) Methylene blue
Answer: a) Lime
43 | P a g e
 Most of the bacteria in sewage are:
a) Saprophytic c) Dangerous
b) Parasitic d) Pathogenic
Answer: a) Saprophytic
 One of the two types of non-material nuclear radiation is:
a) Gamma radiation c) Transmutation radiation

b) Walton radiation d) Betatron radiation
Answer: a) Gamma radiation
 Which of the following is not a qualification for an applicant for ME

board examination:
a) A certified plant mechanic

b) At least 18 years old
c) A holder of BSME degree
d) A citizen of the Philippines
Answer: a) A certified plant mechanic
 A thermo hydraulic feed water regulator is used to regulate the flow of

water to a drum type boiler. The amount of water input to the boiler is
controlled in proportion to the:
a) Boiler load
b) Setting of the feed pump relief valve
c) Amount of water in the outer tube that flashes into steam
d) Water level in the drum
Answer: d) Water level in the drum
 The standard capacity rating conditions for any refrigeration compressor

is:
a) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 86oF, 154.5 psig for the discharge
b) 5oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 154.5 psig for the discharge
c) 10oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 144.5 psig for the discharge
d) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 134.5 psig for the discharge
Answer: a) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 86oF, 154.5 psig for the
discharge
44 | P a g e
 In accordance with the air pollution control code, no person shall cause
or permit the emission of air contaminants from a boiler with a capacity
of 500 million BTU sulfur dioxide content of more than:
a) 300 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 15

percent excess air
b) 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted emissions measured at 10
percent excess air
c) 200 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 15
percent excess air
d) 300 per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 10 percent
excess air
Answer: b) 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted emissions

measured at 10 percent excess air
 Assume that one of your assistance was near the Freon 11 refrigeration
system when a liquid Freon line ruptured. Some of the liquid Freon 11
has gotten into your assistant‟s right eye. Of the following actions,
the one which you should not take is to:
a) Immediately call for an eye doctor specialist (medical doctor)

b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye
c) Uses a boric-acid solution to clean out the Freon 11 from his eye
d) Wash the eye by gently blowing the Freon 11 out of his eye with air
Answer: b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye
 As compared to a power-driven triplex single-acting pump of the same

size and operating at the same speed, a steam-driven duplex double-
acting pump will:
a) Pump more water per minute

b) Give a more uniform discharge
c) Have a higher first cost
d) Be more economical to operate
Answer: a) Pump more water per minute
 It is a device commonly used to cool condenser water in Power and

Refrigeration plants. The function of which is to reject heat to the
atmosphere by reducing the temperature of water circulated through
condenser or other heat rejection equipment. What is this device
commonly called?
a) Condenser c) Cooler
b) Cooling tower d) Evaporator
Answer: b) Cooling tower
45 | P a g e
 It is a type of dryer in which the gases of combustion pass through the
spaces surrounding, or in other ways heating, the drying chamber, but
the gases are not allowed in contact with the material being dried. What
is this dryer?
a) Direct-heat type dryer c) Steam-heated type dryer

b) Indirect-heat type dryer d) Rotary Dryer
Answer: b) Indirect-heat type dryer
 In a refrigeration system, which of the following would cause a high

suction pressure?
a) Expansion valve not open wide enough

b) Expansion valve open too wide
c) King valve not open wide enough
d) Dirty dehydrator
Answer: b) Expansion valve open too wide
 In the deep well installing or operation, the difference between static

water level and operating water level is called:
a) Suction lift c) drawdown

b) priming level d) clogging
Answer: c) drawdown
 Which of the following is an characteristics of an impulse turbine?
a) Steam striking blades on angle

b) No steam reaction to velocity
c) Steam striking blades at zero angle
d) Steam reversing direction
Answer: c) Steam striking blades at zero angle
 Gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in the
flue gases is:
a) Carbon dioxide c) Hydrogen

b) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
Answer: c) Hydrogen
 Scale in boiler can:

a) Create low steam quality
b) Cause foaming
c) Overheat blow off line
d) Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
Answer: d) Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
46 | P a g e
 The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
temperature:
a) Absorptivity c) Emissivity
b) Conductivity d) Reflectivity
Answer: c) Emissivity
 To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type and better

arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most practical?
a) Full flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil pump and
bearings
b) Splash lubricating system in the crank case
c) Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
d) Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements
Answer: a) Full flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil
pump and bearings
 When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of

heat to or from the gas, the process is called:
a) Reversible c) Adiabatic
b) Polytrophic d) Isothermal
Answer: c) Adiabatic
 Which of the following is other name for the liquid valve?
a) Freon valve c) shut off valve

b) king valve d) Master valve
Answer: b) king valve
 In accordance with recommended maintenance practice, thermostats used in

a pneumatic temperature control system should be checked:
a) Weekly c) Bi-monthly
b) Monthly d) Once a year
Answer: d) Once a year
47 | P a g e
 Of the following, the best method use to determine the moisture level in
a refrigeration system is to:
a) Weigh the driver after it has been in the system for a period of time
b) Use a moisture indicator
c) Visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion
d) Test a sampler lubricating oil with phosphorus pentoxide
Answer: b) Use a moisture indicator
 A full-flow drier is usually recommended to be used in a hermetic

refrigeration compressor system to keep the system dry and to:
a) Prevent the products of decomposition from getting into the

evaporator in the event of motor burn-out
b) Condense out liquid refrigerant during compressor off cycles and
compressor start-up
c) Prevent the compressor unit form decreasing in capacity
d) Prevent the liquid from dumping into the compressor crank-case
Answer: a) Prevent the products of decomposition from getting into the

evaporator in the event of motor burn-out
 You are supervising the installation of a steam-driven reciprocating

pump. The pump‟s air chamber is missing and you have to replace it with
one with several salvaged ones. The salvaged air chamber selected should
have a volume equal to, most nearly,:
a) Half of the position displacement of the pump

b) 1 ½ times the position displacement of the pump
c) 2 times the piston displacement of the pump
d) 2 ½ times the piston displacement of the pump
Answer: d) 2 ½ times the piston displacement of the pump
 Economical partial-load operation of steam turbines is obtained by

minimizing throttling losses. This is accomplished by:
a) Reducing the boiler pressure and temperature

b) Throttling the steam flow into the uncontrolled set of nozzles
c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several groups and providing a
steam control valve for each group
d) Controlling the fuel flow to the steam generator
Answer: c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several groups and

providing a steam control valve for each group
48 | P a g e
 How do you compare superheated steam to that of saturated steam at the
same pressure?
a) Contains more heat energy

b) Has a greater enthalpy of evaporation
c) Has a smaller specific volume
d) Condenses at a higher temperature
Answer: a) Contains more heat energy
 Which of the following is not a characteristic of superheated steam?
a) It contains no water droplets

b) It causes severe erosion in pipes
c) It may cause uneven heating of a product
d) It has a temperature greater than 165 oC
Answer: b) It causes severe erosion in pipes
 Superheated steam at a pressure of 6 bar g:
a) Has a larger specific heat capacity than water

b) Has a dryness fraction of 0.99
c) Must not be used as a heat transfer medium
d) Has a temperature greater than 165 oC
o
Answer: d) Has a temperature greater than 165 C
 Of the following, the main purpose of a sub-cooler in a refrigerant

piping system for a two-stage system is to:
a) Reduce the total power requirements and total heat rejection to the
second stage
b) Reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
c) Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the
temperature
d) Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown
Answer: A
 In large refrigeration systems, the usual location for charging the

refrigeration system is into the:
a) Suction line
b) Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the expansion
valve
c) Line between the condenser and the compressor
d) Line between the high pressure cut-off switch and the expansion valve
Answer: b) Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the
expansion valve
49 | P a g e
 The effect of a voltage variation to 90 percent of normal voltage, for a
compound wound DC motor, of the full load current is:
a) Increase in the full load current approximately by 10%

b) Zero
c) A decrease in the full load current of approximately 10%
d) A decrease in the full load current 20%
Answer: a) Increase in the full load current approximately by 10%
 The main advantage of operating a steam engine or steam turbine

“condensing” is that it:
a) Increases the mean effective pressure in the prime mover

b) Decrease the condensate temperature
c) Permits the use of exhaust steam to drive auxiliary equipment
d) Eliminates the need for separating non-condensable from the steam
Answer: a) Increases the mean effective pressure in the prime mover

 The automatic shut off valves for a water gage installed on a high-
pressure boiler must be:
a) Horizontal swing-check valves

b) Vertical swing-check valves
c) Ball-check valves
d) Spring-loaded check valves
Answer: c) Ball-check valves
 The efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of the:
a) Plate thickness to the rivet diameter

b) Strength the riveted joint to the strength of a welded joint
c) Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of the solid plate
d) Number of rivets in the first row of the joint to the total number of
rivets on one side of the joint
Answer: c) Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of the solid

plate
 It corresponds to a heat absorption rate of 237.6 Btu/min (4.175 kW)

with inlet and outlet pressures corresponding to saturation temperature
of 23 oF (-5 oC) and 59 oF (15 oC), respectively. How do you call this
absorption rate?
a) American Unit of refrigeration

b) British Unit of refrigeration
c) European Unit of refrigeration
d) Standard Unit of refrigeration
Answer: b) British Unit of refrigeration
50 | P a g e
 What is the advantage of an internal water level control over an
external one?
a) The external control is in a „dead‟ area

b) It is less likely to scale up
c) It will respond more quickly to changes in water level
d) Daily testing of the level control chamber is not required
Answer: d) Daily testing of the level control chamber is not required
 What is the purpose of testing gauge glasses?
a) To ensure the gauge cocks are operative

b) To ensure there is sufficient water over the top fire tube
c) To ensure the boiler water level is being properly sensed
d) To check the boiler 1st and 2nd low water level alarms
Answer: a) To ensure the gauge cocks are operative
 What is the effect of an overloaded boiler?
a) Water level rises and lock-out occurs

b) Reduced steam production
c) Water level drops and lock-out occurs
d) Steam velocity reduces and separator efficiency drops
Answer: c) Water level drops and lock-out occurs
 Why is slow, controlled warm-up of a steam system essential?
a) To make it easier to open the boiler main stop valve

b) To minimize undue stresses and eliminate damage
c) To permit separators to remove more water
d) To prevent stress on the boiler
Answer: b) To minimize undue stresses and eliminate damage
 Which of the following is the main purpose of the steam distribution

manifold?
a) It replaces the need for a separator after the boiler

b) to remove air from the steam system
c) To provide an extra separating function
d) It is a requirement of the pressure systems regulations
Answer: c) To provide an extra separating function
51 | P a g e
 Priming of a boiler is:
a) Getting a boiler prepared for start-up

b) A reduction in boiler pressure and carryover of water
c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of water
d) Balancing of boilers in a multi-boiler installation
Answer: c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of water
 What is the advantage of interruptible tariff?
a) Quick and easy to change to heavy fuel oil when required

b) Price of fuel
c) Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed supply
d) Convenience of supply
Answer: c) Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed supply
 At what pressure should a boiler safety valve be set?
a) Maximum working pressure

b) Normal working pressure
c) Hydraulic test pressure
d) Feed pump maximum pressure
Answer: a) Maximum working pressure
 What is the purpose of a bottom blowdown valve?
a) To control water level

b) To drain the boiler
c) To maintain TDS
d) To remove sludge
Answer: d) To remove sludge
 How often, as a minimum, should gauge glasses be tested?
a) Once a shift c) Twice a day

b) Once a day d) Once a week
Answer: b) Once a day
 Why are two gauge glasses often fitted?
a) One is a check against the other

b) One is a reserve
c) It is a legal requirement
d) To increase periods between maintenance
Answer: c) It is a legal requirement
52 | P a g e
 Temporary hardness salts are reduced by:
a) Raising the water temperature

b) Lowering the water temperature
c) Raising the pH value
d) letting the water settle
Answer: a) Raising the water temperature
 What is the effect of CO2 in a steam system?
a) The formation of scale

b) The formation of sludge
c) Corrosion
d) Acidity
Answer: c) Corrosion
 Which of the following forms soft scale or sludge?
a) Magnesium sulphate c) Sodium carbonate

b) Sodium bicarbonate d) Calcium bicarbonate
Answer: d) Calcium bicarbonate
 Which of the following are principal dissolved solids that are scale
forming?
a) Carbonates and sulphates of sodium

b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium
d) Bicarbonate of sodium and magnesium
Answer: c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium
 What is the effect of temperature on calcium and magnesium sulphates?
a) They separate out as soft scale and sludge

b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale
c) Foaming and carryover occurs
d) The TDS is increased
Answer: b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale
53 | P a g e
 What is the treatment for scale forming salts in boiler feedwater?
a) They are chemically treated to modify the pH

b) The feedwater tank is raised to at least 85 oC
c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids
d) They are removed by filtration means
Answer: c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids
 Which of the following types of alcohol is the most frequently

considered as fuel for internal combustion engine?
a) Methyl alcohol c) Isopropyl alcohol
b) Ethyl alcohol d) Alcogas
Answer: b) Ethyl alcohol
 In a thermal plant, name the components of a self-acting temperature

control system.
a) Control valve and actuator

b) Control valve, actuator and sensor
c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor
d) Control valve, actuator and capillary tube
Answer: c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor
 What is the purpose of over temperature protection within the self-

acting control system?
a) To protect the valve from high temperature steam

b) To protect the liquid fill in the capillary from boiling
c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage
d) To protect the application from overtemperature
Answer: c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage
 Why are three-port self-acting control valves used in an industrial

steam of a thermal system?
a) To mix or divert liquids especially water

b) To dump steam to waste under fault conditions
c) Where cooling applications are required
d) When large valves are required to meet large capacities
Answer: a) To mix or divert liquids especially water

 How do you call a process in which superheated steam is either restored
to its saturated state, or its superheated temperature is reduced?
a) Superheating c) Reheating
b) Regenerative heating d) Desuperheating
Answer: d) Desuperheating
54 | P a g e
 What does MAWP stand for
a) Maximum attenuated working pressure

b) Maximum allowable working pressure
c) Maximum allowable with pressure
d) Minimum allowable working pressure
Answer: b) Maximum allowable working pressure
 Name one disadvantage of a direct acting pressure reducing valve.
a) It only has proportional control

b) It has proportional and integral control but no derivative control
c) It operates in an o/off fashion
d) An external power source is required for it to operate
Answer: a) It only has proportional control
 In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the

following is true?
a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH

b) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative
Answer: a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
 It is dust removal equipment that consists of a cylindrical tank

structure provided with a tangential opening at one end for gas passage
and a spray manifold at the center which is made of a vertical pipe
attached with spray nozzles where water is introduced at the bottom of
this spray pipe. The gas revolves around the cylindrical body as it
enters the scrubber, and comes in contact with the water spray, the dust
fly ash are then wetted and hence separated from the gas leaves the
scrubber at the top.
a) Cinder trap or catcher c) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber

b) Cyclone Separator d)Electrostatic Precipitator
Answer: c) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber
55 | P a g e
 What is a heat exchanger that allows cross contact between two media?
This heat exchanger allows the cooling water to flow by gravity over the
outside of tubes or plates.
a) Single-pass heat exchanger

b) Double-pass heat exchanger
c) Baudelot heat exchanger
d) Shell-and-tube heat exchanger
Answer: c) Baudelot heat exchanger
 What is the recommended weight of the machine foundation?
a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight

b) 4 to 6 times the machine weight
c) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
d) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
Answer: a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight
 It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming

lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous
gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?
a) Coking or coking coal b) Free burning coal

c) Peat coal d) Lignite coal
Answer: a) Coking or coking coal
 It is an engine in which the connecting rod is directly connected to the

piston wristpin. The side thrust caused by the angularity of the
connecting rod is taken by the piston bearing against the cylinder wall.
a) Opposed-piston engine b) Trunk piston engine

c) Crosshead engine d) 2-stroke engine
Answer: b) Trunk piston engine
 It is an internal combustion engine wherein the ignition of the fuel is

not accomplished solely by the heat developed from the compression of
the combustion air supplied but partly or entirely by other heat
sources, such as an uncooled tube, plate, bulb, or an electric
resistance coil.
a) Spark-ignition engine
b) Compression-ignition engine
c) Surface-ignition engine
d) Dual combustion engine
Answer: c) Surface-ignition engine
56 | P a g e
 This is the condition in a geothermal plant wherein the ground surface
where the well is drilled is depressed or subsides due to depleting.
What do you call this?
a) Ground subsidence c) Thermal pollution

b) Chemical pollution d) Dissolved solids
Answer: a) Ground subsidence
 In the critical thickness of insulator concept for a cylinder, what does

the Biot number indicate if its value is less than 1?
a) Condition for optimum heat flow

b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate
c) Additional insulation will decrease the heat transfer rate
d) Heat transfer rate reaches a maximum
Answer: b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate
 How do you call the ratio of the product of a convective heat transfer
coefficient and the critical radius of the insulator to that of the
thermal conductivity of the insulator?
a) Biot number c) Prandlt number

b) Nusselt number d) Reynolds number
Answer: a) Biot number
 This is a type of dryer that consists of a vertical shaft in which the

wet feed is introduced at the top and falls downward over baffles while
coming in contact with the hot air that rises and exhaust at the top.
This dryer is used for drying palay, wheat, and grains.
a) Rotary dryer c) Hearth dryer

b) Tower dryer d) Tray dryer
Answer c) Tower dryer
 How do you call those substances that are particularly variable in the
moisture content that they can possess at different times?
a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material
Answer b) Hygroscopic materials
57 | P a g e
 The bottom blow down on a boiler is used to:
a) Remove mud drum water impurities

b) Increase boiler priming
c) Reduce steam pressure in the header
d) Increase the boiler water level
Answer a) Remove mud drum water impurities
 In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the heat
exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the compressed air, prior to
combustion?
a) Reheater c) Recuperator
b) Heater d) Heat exchanger
Answer c) Recuperator
 The heat rejected by the working substance to the regenerator in the

Stirling cycle is:
a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the

regenerator
b) Not equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the
regenerator
c) Dependent on the value of temperature in the heat addition process
d) Measured during the constant temperature heat rejection process
Answer a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the
regenerator
 How do you call a device that converts liquid refrigerant to vapour,

with the help of the surrounding heat?
a) Condenser c) Expansion valve

b) Compressor d) Evaporator
Answer d) Evaporator
 In gas compressor, when the volumetric efficiency increases, the piston

displacement has:
a) Not been changed c) Been decreased

b) Been increased d) Been insufficient data
Answer c) Been decreased
58 | P a g e
 The ratio of its radiating power to that of a black body at same
temperature.
a) Transmissivity c) Reflectivity
b) Absorptivity d) Emissivity
Answer d) Emissivity
 Fans used to withdraw air under suction, that is, the resistance to gas
flow is imposed primarily upon the inlet.
a) Blowers c) Exhauster
b) industrial fans d) Domestic fans
Answer c) Exhauster
 The phenomenon of rising water in the tube of small diameter is called

what?
a) Surface tension c) Capillary rise

b) Water gage rise d) Fluid column rise
Answer c) Capillary rise
 Pitot tube is used to measure,
a) Height c) Velocity
b) Viscosity d) Density
Answer c) Velocity
 During engine operation, to vary the air quantity and also to vary the
air fuel mixture, this is used to pen and closed the inlet manifold.
a) Throttle valve c) Check valve

b) Choke valve d) Gate valve
Answer a) Throttle valve
- - THE END - -
NOTE: PLEASE KEEP THIS FILE CONFIDENTIAL
59 | P a g e
INSTRUCTION: FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING
This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral casing

where water enters the runner radially at its outer periphery and
changes direction (imparting energy to the runner) while flowing along
the complex-shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely
used type of hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes.
a. Pelton Turbine c. Turgo Turbine

b. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine
ANSWER: (B)Francis Turbine
It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with

the tail water.
a. Draft Tube c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Surge Chamber
ANSWER: (A)Draft Tube
It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess water is pumped to an

elevated space during off-peak period and the stored water will be used
to drive hydraulic turbines during the peak period to meet the peak
demand.
a. Run-of-River Plant c. Pumped Storage Plant
b. Storage Plant d. None of the above
ANSWER: (c) Pumped Storage Plant
It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine.

a. Headrace Pipe c. Penstock
b. Forebay d. Tailrace
ANSWER: (D) Tailrace
This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating

debris. It prevents leaves, branches, and other water contaminants from
entering the penstock.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Trash Rack d. Weir
ANSWER: (B) Trash Rack
It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir.

a. Headwater c. Tailwater
b. Discharge d. Stored water
ANSWER: (A) Headwater

This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide
vanes and runner blades.
a. Kaplan Turbine c. Turgo Turbine
b. Pelton Turbine d. Cross-flow
ANSWER: (A) Kaplan Turbine
It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in

elevation between high and low tide to produce energy.
a. Water power c. Fluid Power
b. Tidal Power d. Wave Power
ANSWER: (B) Tidal Power
The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river;
at low river flows the output decreases accordingly.
a. Pumped Storage Plant c. Storage Plant
b. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above
ANSWER: (B) Run-of-River Plant
The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam.

a. Forebay c. Penstock
b. Draft tube d. Tailrace
ANSWER: (C) Penstock
A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross or intersect.
a. Turbulent flow c. Critical flow
b. Laminar flow d. Steady flow
ANSWER: (B) Laminar Flow
It conducts the water around the turbine.

a. Spiral casing ` c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Governor
ANSWER: (A) Spiral Casing
These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to
control the flow of water and therefore the energy supplied to the
runner.
a. Spillway c. Headrace pipe
b. Runner d. Wicket gate
ANSWER: (D) Wicket gate

The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration
as the actual turbine, when the model would be of the proper size to
develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft.
a. Synchronous speed c. Runaway speed

b. Specific speed d. Turbine speed
ANSWER: (B) Specific speed
The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or

tailrace.
a. Dynamic head c. Gross head
b. Net head d. Effective head
ANSWER: (C) Gross Head
The ratio of the effective head to the gross head.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency

b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency
ANSWER: (B) Penstock Efficiency
The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Penstock efficiency d. Volumetric efficiency
ANSWER: (C) Hydraulic effenciency
Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine.

a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine
ANSWER: (C) Reaction Turbine
Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine.

a. Impulse turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine
ANSWER: (B) Propeller turbine
The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the
turbine to be set above the tailwater level without losing any head
thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged discharge to
increase the net head available to the turbine runner.
a. Spiral casing c. Wicket gate
b. Draft tube d. Butterfly valve
ANSWER: (B) Draft Tube

It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the low-
pressure headrace or tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace
pipe or tunnel from excessive changes in pressure and supplying or
storing water as required.
a. Surge tank c. Butterfly valve
b. Draft tube d. Spillway
ANSWER: (A)Surge tank
The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto
the turbine shaft.
a. Runner c. Impeller
b. Flywheel d. Lobe
ANSWER: (A) Runner
The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump
inlet suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the
liquid is called
a. Priming c. Foaming
b. Cavitation d. Net positive suction head
ANSWER: (B) Cavitation
A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and
will help determine how long oil will flow at a given temperature is
known as ________________.
a. Pour point c. Relative density
b. Flash Point d. Viscosity
ANSWER: (D) Viscosity
A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines and shear and
conduction effects owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and
conductivity.
a. Turbulent c. Critical
b. Laminar d. Non-viscous
ANSWER: (B) Laminar
The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the
weight of displaced liquid is known as
a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle
b. Continuity equation d. Law of Conservation of mass
ANSWER: (C) Archimedes’ principle
The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to

a. add energy to the flow c. add mass to the flow
b. extract energy from the flow d. none of the above
ANSWER: (B) extract energy from the flow

It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can
be set above the tailwater level.
a. draft tube c surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway
ANSWER: (A) draft tube
It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that

exceeds the design capacity of the dam.
a. draft tube c. surge chamber
b. penstock d. spillway
ANSWER: (d) spillway
The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given

head with no losses in the pump is called:
a. brake power c. indicated power
b. hydraulic power d. none of the above
ANSWER: (B)hydraulic Power
The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center
because of the
a. velocity effect c. viscous effect
b. temperature effect d. none of the above
ANSWER: (C) Viscous effect
The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative
since work
a. done by the fluid c. done on the fluid
b. rejected by the fluid d. none of the above
ANSWER: (C) done ON the fluid (-)
This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on

the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine will
start moving.
a. Steam turbine c. Reaction turbine
b. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine
ANSWER: (D) Pelton wheel turbine
A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine.

a. Governor c. guard
b. Surge tank d. wicket gate
ANSWER: (B) Surge Tank

This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in volcanic
region, from which steam, gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue.
a. Magma c. Fumarole
b. Geyser d. Fault
ANSWER: (C) Fumarole
The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters.

a. 1000 c. 1500
b. 3000 d. 4000
ANSWER: (B) 3000
A wind energy system transforms the ______________________ of the wind

into mechanical or electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical
use.
a. Potential Energy c. Internal Energy
b. Heat Energy d. Kinetic Energy
ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy
It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters.

a. Tide range c. Wave
b. Tide d. Water current
ANSWER: (B) Tide
The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________

of its speed.
a. Cube c. Square
b. Fourth Power d. All of the above
ANSWER: (A) Cube
It is the maximum tidal range.

a. Neap tides c. Spring tide
b. Ebb tide d. Tidal wave
ANSWER: (C) Spring Tide
Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure

methane.
a. Dry c. Wet
b. Saturated d. Superheated
ANSWER: (A) Dry

In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and
boils to steam directly into the reactor vessel. It is then piped
directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving the electrical
generator, producing electricity.
a. Heavy Water Reactor c. Boiling Water Reactor
b. Pressurized Water Reactor d. All of the above
ANSWER: (C) Boiling Water Reactor
It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically

charging the particles of fly ash in the flue gas and collecting them by
attraction to charged metal plates.
a. Wet scrubber c. Electrostatic Precipitator
b. Bag houses d. Cyclone Separator
ANSWER: (C) Electrostatic Precipitator
This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and

beryllium, slows down the fast neutrons that are born during the fission
process.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector
ANSWER: (C) Moderator
These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission
chain reaction. They are withdrawn from the core to start the chain
reaction and inserted all the way into the core to stop it.
a. Control Rods c. Moderator
b. Coolant d. Reflector
ANSWER: (A) Control Rods
In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” describes the
combination of a gas turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle)
with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and steam turbine generator(s)
(Rankine cycle) for the production of electrical power.
a. Diesel Cycle c. Otto Cycle
b. Reheat Cycle d. Brayton Cycle
ANSWER: (D) Brayton Cycle
Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and
animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as
the “fuel of the future” or “green fuel” and comprises mainly of
_________________.
a. Propane c. Butane
b. Ethane d. Methane
ANSWER: (D) Methane

It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and
is captured by air pollution control equipment such as electrostatic
precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers.
a. Ash c. Bottoming Ash
b. Fly Ash d. Refuse
ANSWER: (B) Fly Ash
Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a

calorific value of less than 8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free
basis.
a. Bituminous coal c. Peat
b. Lignite d. Anthracite
ANSWER: (B) Lignite
It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as
using the waste heat from an engine for space heating.
a. Superposing c. Topping
b. Cogeneration d. Combined Cycle Plant
ANSWER: (B) Cogeneration
The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel.
a. Stoichiometric Air c. Excess Air
b. Actual Air d. Percentage excess air
ANSWER: (A) Stoichiometric Air
The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a

unit mass of fuel is called:
a. calorimeter c. salinometer
b. pyrometer d. thermometer
ANSWER: (A) Calorimeter
When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous

form, the heating value is known as:
a. Higher heating value (HHV) c. Lower heating value (LHV)
b. Heating value (HV) d. Gross calorific value (GCV)
ANSWER: (C) Lower heating Value (LHV)
The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually
supplied and the theoretical air required divided by:
a. the theoretically air supplied
b. the deficiency air supplied
c. total air supplied
d. none of the above
ANSWER: (A) the theoretically air supplied

During a combustion process, the components which exist before the
reaction are called ______
a. reactants c. products
b. flue gases d. none of the above
ANSWER: (A) reactants
The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is
called ________
a. excess air c. theoretical air
b. combustion air d. none of the above
ANSWER: (C)Theoretical air
A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the
complete combustion of fuel oil is
a. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen
b. oxygen d. nitrogen
ANSWER: (C) hydrogen
The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of
combustion is in
a. solid form c. vapor form
b liquid form d. gas form
ANSWER: (B) Liquid Form
The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight

or volume of fuel is known as:
a. heating value c. latent heat
b. sensible heat d. work of compression
ANSWER: (A) Heating Value
An “ attemporator ” is another name for

a. Dry pipe c. Reheater
b. Superheater d. Desuperheater
ANSWER: (D) Desuperheater
What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion?

a. Colorless smoke.
b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with
minimum oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content.
c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.
d. Saturated clean smoke.
ANSWER: (C) Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil
combustibles in the flue gas.
It is a solidified mass of fused ash.
a. Sludge c. Solidified ash
b. Carbon residues d. Clinker
ANSWER: (D) Clinker
Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast

iron?
a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and
the pressures were comparatively low.
b. Because it is cheap.
c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of
steel.
d. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it gives
greater efficiency to the system.
ANSWER: (A)
It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for

combustion before it enters the boiler furnace.
a. economizer c. air preheater
b. reheater d. forced-draft fan
ANSWER: (C) air preheater
What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel?

a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen
b. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash
d. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture
ANSWER: (D)
Which element of fuel is not combustible?

a. Carbon c. Hydrogen
b Sulfur d. Oxygen
ANSWER: (D) Oxygen
A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an

engine and piston travel in an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the
vertical axis and piston travel forms the horizontal axis.
a. Engine Indicator c. Planimeter
b. Pyrometer d. Dynamometer
ANSWER: (A) Engine Indicator

This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine
leaky piston packing, sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose
bearings, restricted and or outlet piping, etc.
a. Timing diagram c. T-s diagram
b. P-h diagram d. Indicator diagram
ANSWER: (D) Indicator Diagram
The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose.
a. Tare Weight c. Gross Load
b. Net Load d. Net Tension
ANSWER: (A) Tare Weight
The power output of the generator.

a. Ideal Power c. Indicated Power
b. Brake Power d. Electrical Power
ANSWER: (D) Electrical Power
The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power.

a. Specific fuel consumption c. Steam rate
b. Heat Rate d. Mass flow rate
ANSWER: (A) Specific Fuel Consumption
The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied.

a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency
ANSWER: (C) Thermal Efficiency
The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency d. Engine efficiency
ANSWER: (D) Engine efficiency
The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion
process.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. All of the above
ANSWER: (B) Cut-off ratio
The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Bottom Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume
ANSWER: (B) Head End Center Position

The position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the
cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position c. Top Dead Center Position
b. Head End Dead Center Position d. Clearance Volume
ANSWER: (A) Crank End Dead Center Position
When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an

engine, the engine is called:
a. rotary engine c. steam engine
b. 2-stroke cycle engine d. 4-stroke cycle engine
ANSWER: (B) 2-stroke cycle engine
What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine?

a. Diesel cycle c. Brayton cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Carnot cycle
ANSWER: (B) Otto cycle
Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of:

a. Cetane number c. Octane rating
b. Power output d. Net Calorific Value
ANSWER: (A) Cetane
The distance that the piston can travel in one direction.

a. Bore ` c. Stroke
b. Clearance d. Displacement
ANSWER: (C) Stroke
The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top
dead center.
a. Displacement volume c. Clearance volume
b. Cylinder Volume d. None of the above
ANSWER: (C) Clearance volume
It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the

entire power stroke, would produce the same amount of net work as that
produced during the actual cycle.
a. Average pressure c. Maximum pressure
b. Mean effective pressure d. Minimum pressure
ANSWER: (B) Mean effective pressure

The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume
specific heat.
a. Compression ratio c. Expansion ratio
b. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio
ANSWER: (D)Specific heat ratio
The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines.

a. Diesel cycle c. Otto cycle
b. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle
ANSWER: (A) Diesel Cycle
The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure
in the cylinder.
a. Ideal power c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Electrical power
ANSWER: (C) Indicated Power
The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating

and revolving parts of the engine and automobile before it reached the
drive shaft.
a. Electrical losses c. Indicated power
b. Brake power d. Friction power
ANSWER: (D) Friction Power
It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the

independent measurement of force, time and distance through which the
force is moved.
a. Planimeter c. Dynamometer
b. Anemometer d. Barometer
ANSWER: (C) Dynamometer
It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of

gasoline.
a. Octane Number c. Cetane Number
b. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity
ANSWER: (A) Octane Number
Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow
throughout the low portion of the fuel system.
a. Fuel injection pump c. Fuel transfer pump
b. Valve lifter d. Oil pan
ANSWER: (C) Fuel transfer pump

Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle.
a. Flywheel c. Crankshaft
b. Oil cooler d. After cooler
ANSWER: (A) flywheel
Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from
camshaft to rocker arm.
a. Push rod c. Valve lifter
b. Suction bell d. Flywheel
ANSWER: (A) Push rod
Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head.

a. Water jacket c. Oil cooler
b. Fuel transfer pump d. Turbo charger
ANSWER: (A) Water jacket
Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is
increased.
a. After cooler c. Radiator
b. Waste gates d. Muffler
ANSWER: (A) After cooler
The difference between the maximum and minimum volume.

a. Displacement Volume c. Clearance Volume
b. Top Dead Center d. Differential Volume
ANSWER: (A) Displacement Volume
These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil
out.
a. Piston Rings c. Combustion Chamber
b. Cylinder Liner d. Piston Plug
ANSWER: (A) Piston Rings
Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle.

a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure
ANSWER: (C) constant volume
Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle.

a. constant temperature c. constant volume
b. constant entropy d. constant pressure
ANSWER: (D) constant pressure

It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in
machines and thus diminish the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of
the parts
a. Lubricant c. Gasoline
b. Wax d. Benzene
ANSWER: (A) Lubricant
In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is

called:
a. thermal efficiency c. mechanical efficiency
b. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency
ANSWER: (C) mechanical efficiency
The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the

a. pressure ratio c. specific heat ratio
b. compression ratio d. cut-off ratio
ANSWER: (B) compression ratio
The maximum temperature of Diesel cycle will occur

a. after isentropic compression
b. at the end of isobaric heating
c. after isentropic expansion
d. at the beginning of adiabatic compression
ANSWER: (B) at the end of isobaric heating
The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period
of time.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor
ANSWER: (B) Load Factor
The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the
overall maximum demand of the whole system.
a. Demand Factor c. Capacity Factor
b. Load Factor d. Diversity Factor
ANSWER: (D) Diversity Factor
The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on
the customer’s circuit.
a. Reserve load c. Maximum demand
b. Peak load d. Connected load
ANSWER: (D) Connected load

The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or
equipment to the total duration of the period of time considered.
a. Operation factor c. Utilization factor
b. Demand factor d. Capacity factor
ANSWER: (A) Operation factor
The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean
effective pressure.
a. Mechanical efficiency c. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated engine efficiency d. Brake thermal efficiency
ANSWER: (A) Mechanical efficiency
The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine

efficiency.
a. Combined engine efficiency c. Generator efficiency
b. Combined thermal efficiency d. Brake engine efficiency
ANSWER: (C) Generator efficiency
The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is
called:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor
ANSWER: (B) load factor
The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as:
a. output factor c. demand factor
b. load factor d. capacity factor
ANSWER: (C) demand factor
The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak
load is called:
a. average load c. connected load
b. reserve over peak d. none of the above
ANSWER: (B) reserve over peak
A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final
state point are the same.
a. Process c. Change of state
b. Cycle d. All of the above
ANSWER: (B) Cycle

The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________.
a. 1.00 c. 1.40
b. 0.90 d. 1.30
ANSWER: (A) 1.00
The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is

known as _________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process
ANSWER: (B) Isothermal process
In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be

___________.
a. Isometric process c. Isobaric process
b. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process
ANSWER: (C) Isobaric process
In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection in the ____________________

process.
a. Isentropic expansion c. Isentropic compression
b. Isothermal expansion d. Isothermal compression
ANSWER: (D) Isothermal compression
A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with
time and in which the mass within the system changes with time.
a. Steady flow system

b. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system
c. Steady state system
d. Steady flow, steady state system
ANSWER: (B) Unsteady state, unsteady flow system
A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect

gases and a strong function of temperature and weak function of pressure
for non-perfect gases, vapors, and liquids.
a. Internal energy c. Enthalpy
b. Flow work d. Pressure energy
ANSWER: (A) Internal energy
It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of

matter, or a certain volume in space that one wishes to study.
a. Heat c. Work
b. System d. Efficiency
ANSWER: (B) System

It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance.
a. Density c. Specific weight
b. Specific volume d. Specific gravity
ANSWER: (C) Specific weight
It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its

boundaries.
a. Open system c. Steady flow system
b. Closed system d. Transient flow
ANSWER: (B) Closed system
Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body is directly

proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely
proportional to its mass?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
ANSWER: (D) Newton’s Second Law of Motion
A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy.

a. Reservoir c. Working substance
b. Engine d. Heat sink
ANSWER: (C) Working Substance
A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries.

a. Open system c. Isolated System
b. Closed system d. Transient flow system
ANSWER: (C) Isolated System
The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of

energy, which states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Third Law of Thermodynamics
ANSWER: (B) First Law of Thermodynamics
It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that
do not combine chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture
such as moist air is equal to the sum of the partial pressure exerted by
the individual gases or vapors.
a. Joule’s Law c. Dalton’s Law
b. Amagat’s Law d. Charles’ Law
ANSWER: (C) Dalton’s Law

It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its
saturation temperature.
a. Gas c. Air
b. Vapor d. Oxygen
ANSWER: (B) Vapor
The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are
identical.
a. Critical point c. Triple point
b. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point
ANSWER: (A) Critical point
The point at which heat transfer stops.

a. Steady-flow c. Thermodynamic equilibrium
b. Thermal equilibrium d. Steady-state
ANSWER: (B) Thermal equilibrium
It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity of a

solution.
a. Barometer c. Hydrometer
b. Calorimeter d. Manometer
ANSWER: (C) Hydrometer
It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases

according to the kinetic theory of heat.
a. 0 oK c. 0 oR
o
b. -273 C d. All of the above
ANSWER: (D) All of the above
The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram represents

_____________.
a. Steady Flow Work c. Nonflow Work
b. Net Work d. Cycle Work
ANSWER: (C) Nonflow work
A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______

times the maximum allowable working pressure.
a. 1.0 c. 1.25
b. 1.50 d. 1.75
ANSWER: (B) 1.50

It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction
only.
a. Gate valve c. Globe valve
b. Quick-return valve d. Check valve
ANSWER: (D) Check valve
An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to

_________.
a. Zero c. Positive
b. Negative d. None of the above
ANSWER: (A) Zero
The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process.

a. Pressure c. Volume
b. Internal energy d. Enthalpy
ANSWER: (D) Enthalpy
It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant.

a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Diesel cycle d. Brayton cycle
ANSWER: (D)
It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic

processes and two (2) isothermal processes.
a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Otto cycle d. Diesel cycle
ANSWER: (A)
How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a

Rankine cycle be decreased?
a. increase boiler pressure
b. increase inlet turbine pressure
c. increase condenser pressure
d. reduce turbine exit pressure
ANSWER: (D) reduce turbine exit
What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has
excessive moisture?
a. frosting c. diffusing
b. reheating d. dehumidifying
ANSWER: (B) reheating

A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of
temperature difference.
a. Heat c. Kinetic Energy
b. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy
ANSWER: (A) Heat
A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer.

a. Isentropic Process c. Adiabatic Process
b. Throttling Process d. All of the above.
An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature difference

between a system and its surrounding.
a. Work ` c. Conduction
b. Convection d. Heat
ANSWER: (A) Work
Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid

state, is called
a. Sublimation c. Condensation
b. Evaporation d. Vaporization
ANSWER: (A) Sublimation
A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work

associated with the container. From the first law of thermodynamics,
the resulting work is:
a. equal to the heat transfer
b. equal to the change in internal energy
c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure
d. equal to zero
ANSWER: (D) equal to zero
The net work output of a heat engine is always

__________________________.
a. less than the amount of heat input
b. more than the amount of heat input
c. less than the amount of heat output
ANSWER: (A) less the amount of hear input
The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies
that appear in several complex forms.
a. Enthalpy c. Internal Energy
b. Kinetic Energy d. Potential Energy
ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy

It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation temperature
corresponding to its pressure.
a. Saturated liquid c. Superheated liquid
b. Subcooled liquid d. none of the above
ANSWER: (B) Subcooled liquid
A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a

a. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind
b. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind
c. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (C) Perpetual motion machince of the first kind
The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the

same two reservoirs ________.
a. differ c. are the same
b. are unequal d. none of the above
ANSWER: (C) are the same
A process with no heat transfer is known as

a. isobaric process c. isothermal process
b. adiabatic process d. isometric process
ANSWER: (B) adiabatic process
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the

density of:
a. mercury c. oil
b. gas d. water
ANSWER: (D) water
This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to

each other
a. Series flow c. Parallel flow
b. Cross flow d. Counter flow
ANSWER: (B) Cross flow
The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is
called the principle of _______.
a. Conservation of Energy
b. Conservation of Mass
c. Second Law of Thermodynamics
d. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
ANSWER: (A) Conservation of Energy

A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
a. Isentropic c. Enthalpy Conservation
b. Throttling d. Steady State
ANSWER: (B) Throttling
The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear
in several complex forms.
a. Kinetic Energy c. Internal Energy
b. External Energy d. Flow Work
ANSWER: (C) Internal Energy
A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass

nor energy cross its boundaries.
a. Open system c. Closed system
b. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system
ANSWER: (C) Isolated System
A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference.

a. Manometer c. Bourdon gage
b. Barometer d. Piezometer
ANSWER: (A) Manometer
A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature

a. Superheated vapor c. Super saturated vapor
b. Saturated vapor d. Subcooled vapor
ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor
The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving

body, by virtue of its momentum.
a. Internal energy c. Gravitational potential energy
b. Work d. Kinetic energy
ANSWER: (D) Kinetic Energy
The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change

in internal energy is zero.
a. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process
b. Isometric process d. Polytropic process
ANSWER: (C) Isothermal process

The function of a pump or compressor is to
a. transfer heat from one fluid to another
b. increase the total energy content of the flow
c. extract energy from the flow
d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
ANSWER: (B)
This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine

cannot be converted into mechanical work”.
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: (B) 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is

called:
a. Gage pressure c. Absolute pressure
b. Vacuum pressure d. Saturation pressure
ANSWER: (C) Absolute pressure
This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful

horsepower developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to the
heat during the same time.
a. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated thermal efficiency
c. Combined thermal efficiency
d. Brake thermal efficiency
ANSWER: (D) Brake thermal efficiency
Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________.

a. temperature c. entropy
b. internal energy d. specific volume
ANSWER: (D) specific volume
This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body.

a. internal energy c. kinetic energy
b. potential energy d. work
ANSWER: (B) potential energy
Another term for constant volume process.

a. isometric c. isochoric
b. isovolumic d. all of the above
ANSWER: (D) all of the above

Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process
in the turbine.
a. Brake Work c. Actual Fluid Work
b. Ideal Work d. Combined Work
ANSWER: (B) Ideal Work
The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the

a. pressure c. entropy
b. volume d. temperature
ANSWER: (D) Temperature
It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely

vaporize a unit-mass of liquid at a given temperature.
a. latent heat vaporization c. hfg
b. enthalpy of vaporization d. all of the above
ANSWER: (D) all of the above
It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or

high temperatures.
a. Thermistor c. Thermocouple
b. Bimetallic Strip d. Mercury in glass
ANSWER: (C) Thermocouple
The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and
enthalpy.
a. Thermodynamics c. Calorimetry
b. Chemistry d. None of the above
ANSWER: (C) Calorimetry
The rate of doing work per unit of time

a. Torque c. Power
b. Force d. Moment
ANSWER: (C) Power
In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What
is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the
cycle thermal efficiency?
a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
ANSWER: (A) the cycle thermal efficiency will increase

corresponding to the existing pressure.
a. Superheated Vapor c. Wet vapor
b. Saturated Vapor d. None of the above
ANSWER: (A) Superheated Vapor
It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into

or out of a system.
a. Mechanical work c. Nonflow Work
b. Flow Work d. Electrical work
ANSWER: (B) Flow Work
A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature

a. Subcooled liquid c. Saturated liquid
b. Unsaturated liquid d. Water
ANSWER: (A) Subcooled liquid
In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the
flue gases burn outside the tubes.
a. Water-tube boiler c. Fire-tube Boiler
b. Steam generator d. Electric Boiler
ANSWER: (A) Water-tube boiler
It shows the water level in the boiler drum.

a. Water column c. Try cocks
b. Gauge glass d. All of the above
ANSWER: (B) Gauge glass
It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water.

a. Safety valve c. Fusible plug
b. Relief valve d. Try cocks
ANSWER: (C) Fusible plug
It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for

cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment
when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration of
soluble impurities in the boiler.
a. Blow-down line c. Boiler feedwater pump
b. Steam valve d. None of the above
ANSWER: (A) Blow-down line

It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to
preheat the air needed for combustion.
a. Economizer c. Feedwater heater
b. Reheater d. Air preheater
ANSWER: (D) Air preheater
It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which

utilizes the heat of the flue gases.
a. Economizer c. Open heater
b. Closed heater d. Waterwalls
ANSWER: (A) Economizer
It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative

capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the
furnace walls from high temperature.
a. Reheater c. Waterwalls
b. Superheater d. Feedwater heater
ANSWER: (C) Waterwalls
It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212

o
F to steam at 212 oF and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr.
a. One horsepower c. One kilowatt
b. One boiler horsepower d. None of the above
ANSWER: (B) One boiler horsepower/BHP
It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined

pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere
when that point is reached, thus guarding against a possible explosion
through excessive pressure.
a. Relief valve c. Safety valve
b. Fusible plug d. Pressure switches
ANSWER: (C) Safety valve
In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _______________.

a. inside the tubes c. outside the tubes
b. inside the shell d. outside the shell
ANSWER: (A) inside the tubes
It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant

pressure.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature
ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature

In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through
the fills as the water moves downward.
a. Crossflow c. Counterflow
b. Parallel flow d. Double-flow
ANSWER: (A) Crossflow
It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air.

a. Psychrometer c. Psychrometry
b. Refrigeration d. Pneumatics
ANSWER: (C) Psychrometry
It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist

air at a given temperature to the mass of water vapor in the same volume
of saturated air at the same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Humidity d. Relative Humidity
ANSWER: (D) relative humidity
Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result
in condensation of water vapor into liquid.
a. Saturated air c. Unsaturated air
b. Saturated vapor d. Moist air
ANSWER: (A) Saturated air
It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature

leaving the cooling tower.
a. Approach c. Terminal difference
b. Cooling Range d. LMTD
ANSWER: (B) Cooling Range
The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the
water vapor starts to condense is known as ___________________.
a. dry-bulb temperature c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature d. saturation temperature
ANSWER: (B) dewpoint temperature
The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature

to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower.
a. Dry-bulb c. Wet-bulb
b. Dew-point d. Saturation temperature
ANSWER: (C) Wet-bulb

Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system?
a. compressor c. condenser
b. evaporator d. refrigerant
ANSWER: (D) refrigerant
This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change

in dry-bulb temperature.
a. sensible heating or cooling
b. dehumidification
c. humidification
d. cooling and dehumidifying
ANSWER: (A) sensible heating or cooling
It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor.

a. Dry air c. Moist air
b. Saturated vapor d. Wet mixture
ANSWER: (C) Moist air
The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer.

a. Wet-bulb temp. c. Dew-point temp.
b. Dry-bulb temp. d. Wet-bulb depression
ANSWER: (B) Dry-bulb temp.
The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air.

a. enthalpy c. humidity ratio
b. specific volume d. relative humidity
ANSWER: (C) humidity ratio
This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of

the low-temperature system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the
high-temperature system.
a. Cascade systems c. Binary system
b. Multi-stage system d. Multi-pressure system
ANSWER: (A) Cascade systems
A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry-bulb

temperature.
a. Dehumidifying process c. Heating process
b. Cooling process d. Humidifying process
ANSWER: (D) Humidifying process

The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the
saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air.
a. Humidity Ratio c. Specific humidity
b. Relative Humidity d. Moisture content
ANSWER: (B)
It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing

the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a horizontal
line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process
ANSWER: (C)
It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio

without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is
represented in the psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to
down.
a. Sensible cooling process
b. Humidifying process
c. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process
ANSWER: (B)
The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to
condense when air is cooled at constant pressure
a. Dew Point Temperature c. Dry Bulb Temperature
b. Wet Bulb Temperature d. Condensing temperature
ANSWER: (A)
It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a

dimensionless quantity.
a. Coefficient of Performance c. Energy Efficiency Ratio
b. Energy Ratio d. Performance Ratio
ANSWER: (A)
It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in

place of a single cylinder compressor.
a. Intercooled Compression c. Efficient Compression
b. Multistage Compression d. High Power Compression
ANSWER: (B)
The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance
to the adjacent less energetic ones as a result of interactions between
the particles.
a. Heat transfer c. Conduction
b. Radiation d. Convection
ANSWER: (C) Conduction
What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement,

and quantity of air in space?
a. Refrigeration c. Psychrometry
b. Air-conditioning d. Humidification
ANSWER: (B) Psychrometry
The non-condensing component of the moist air.

a. Hydrogen c. Water vapor
b. Nitrogen d. Dry air
ANSWER: (D) Dry air
The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression

refrigerating system. It picks up heat by evaporating at a low
temperature and pressure and gives up this heat by condensing at a
higher temperature and pressure.
a. Water c. Ammonia
b. Air d. Gas
ANSWER: (C) Ammonia
What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and
the intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system?
a. High-side pressure c. Condensing pressure
b. Discharge pressure d. Low-side pressure
ANSWER: (D) Low-side pressure
A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the

capacity to produce a cooling effect of:
a. 3.517 kW c. 211 kJ/min
b. 12,000 Btu/hr d. All of the above
Axial fans are best suitable for application.

A. Large flow, low head
C. Low flow, high head
B. High head, large flow
D. Low flow, low head
ANSWER: (A) Large flow, low head

Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
A. Propeller C. Tube axial

B. Vane axial D. Radial
ANSWER: (B)
Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under varying

load is achieved by a ___________ that actuates a mechanism that adjust
the gate openings.
A. Governor C. Wicket gates
B. Runner D. Draft tube
ANSWER: (A) Governor
A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a

reaction turbine is known as:
A. Guide Vane C. Draft Tube
B. Wicket Gate D. Penstock
ANSWER: ( )
The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to backward

curved fans is_________
A. Higher C. Lower
B. Same D. None
ANSWER: (C) Lower
When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually desirable

to use a pump that will operate near its BEP which stands for _________.
A. Brake Effective Horsepower C. Best Effective Point
B. Best Efficiency Point D. Break Even Point
ANSWER: (B) Best Efficiency Point
In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when the

governor quickly closes the gates, many turbines are provided with a
_______________.
A. Surge Tank C. Draft Tube

B. Intake Valve D. Flywheel
ANSWER: (A) Surge Tank
Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
A. Propeller type fan
B. Backward curved centrifugal fan
C. Tube-axial fans
D. All of the above
ANSWER: (B) Backward curved centrifugal fan

A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages for
water and the ratio of outside impeller to impeller eye diameter is
about 1.5.
A. Francis type C. Radial type
B. Mixed Flow type D. Axial type
ANSWER: (A) Francis type
The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass from
outside of the pump to inside, while maintaining an air tight seal.
A. Sleeve C. Wearing Ring
B. Mechanical Seal D. Packing
ANSWER: (D) Packing
Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller

converts velocity energy to pressure head.
A. Diffuser C. Volute Casing
B. Impeller D. Impeller vanes
ANSWER: (A) Diffuser
If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the

_______________ is doubled.
A. Flow rate C. Power
B. Head D. Efficiency
ANSWER: (A) Flow rate
____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. They have
a high pressure drop even wide open.
A. Check Valve C. Ball Valve
B. Gate Valve D. Globe Valve
ANSWER: (D) Globe valve
Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group?

A. Elbows C. Tees
B. Unions D. Strainers
ANSWER: (D) Strainers
________________ pump are known as vortex and periphery pumps.

A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps
B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
C. Diaphragm Pumps
D. Sliding Vane Pumps
ANSWER: (A) Turbine (regenerative) Pumps

Which types of pump does not belong to the group:
A. Screw Rotary Pump
B. Diaphragm Pump
C. Direct Acting Steam Pump
D. Centrifugal Pump
ANSWER: (D) Centrifugal Pump
_____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling average

waters, because it does no rust and machining it, making its surface
smooth are easy.
A. Stainless Steel C. Cast-Steel
B. Bronze D. Cast-iron
ANSWER: (B) Bronze
A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called:

A. Check Valve C. Angle Valve
B. Globe Valve D. Gate Valve
ANSWER: (A) Check valve
______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with

pumping element suspended from discharge piping also known as deep well
or bore hole pumps.
A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump
B. Vertical Turbine Pump
C. Screw Pump
D. Sliding Vane Pump
ANSWER: (B) Vertical Turbine Pump
___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps, sewage

sludge, acid, or alkaline solutions, mixture of water and gritty
solids that wear out metal pumps.
A. Direct acting steam pumps
B. Vertical Turbine Pumps
C. Lobe pumps
D. Diaphragm pumps
ANSWER: (D) Diaphragm pumps
___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the drive

shaft; it is the principal pumping member.
A. Idle Rotors C. Rotor
B. Stator D. Driver
ANSWER: ()
What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to
impeller diameter, D, when there are two impeller diameters (one is
original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump?
A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D.

B. Q is directly proportional to D.
C. Q is inversely proportional to D.
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D.
ANSWER: (B)
What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P, to

the impeller speed, N, is pump is at two different rotative speeds?
A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N.

B. P is inversely proportional to N.
C. P is directly proportional to N.
D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N.
ANSWER: (D)
Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head:

A. Pelton wheel C. Kaplan turbine
B. Francis turbine D. Turgo turbine
ANSWER: (C) Kaplan turbine
If two identical centrifugal pump are installed in series, the system

flow rate ____________________.
A. is doubled C. remains the same

B. is halved D. zero
ANSWER: (C) remains the same
The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump inlet
suction pressure falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is
called:
A. sublimation C. water hammering
B. oxidation D. cavitation
ANSWER: (D) cavitation
The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line and
pump casing with liquid to remove air or vapors from the waterways of
the pump is called:
A. priming C. water hammering
B. charging D. pumping
ANSWER: (A) priming

Which term does not belong to the group:
A. gear pump C. vane pump
B. screw pump D. diaphragm pump
ANSWER: (D) diaphragm pump
A type of condenser combines the functions of a condenser and cooling

tower is called:
A. air-cooled condenser C. ground-cooling condenser
B. water-cooled condenser D. evaporative condenser
ANSWER: (D) Evaporative condenser
An expansion valve with a fluid-charged remote bulb that maintains a

constant degree of superheat in the evaporator is called:
A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve
B. capillary tube D. float valve
ANSWER: (A) Thermostatic expansion valve
A refrigeration system ideally suited for use in air-craft because it is

light in weight and requires less space is called:
A. mechanical vapor-compression C. air cycle
B. steam-jet D. vapor absorption
ANSWER: (C) air cycle
Refrigerant with chemical formula CHClF2 is designated by:

A. R134a C. R11
B. R12 D. R22
ANSWER: (D) R-22
Refrigerant with chemical formula CF3CH2F is designated by:

A. R134a C. R11
B. R12 D. R22
ANSWER: (A) R134a
Which refrigerant does not belong to the group?

A. ammonia C. methane
B. propane D. Isobutane
ANSWER: (A) ammonia
Carbon dioxide refrigerant is designated by:

A. R717 C. R600
B. R744 D. R 718
ANSWER: (B) R744

Piping, fittings and valves materials found suitable for use in ammonia
refrigerant are manufactured from:
A. Copper C. Iron and Steel
B. Aluminum D. Brass
ANSWER: (C) Iron and Steel
Which statement is correct with water-cooled shell and tube type of

condenser?
A. Refrigerant condensing inside tubes and water flowing in the shell.

B.Water flowing through passes inside tubes and the refrigerant
condensing in the shell.
C. Both refrigerant and water flowing through passes inside tubes and
refrigerant condensing.
D. A, B, and C are correct
ANSWER: (B)
In a vapour-absorption refrigeration system utilizing ammonia as

refrigerant and the absorbent is:
A. Water C. Lithium Bromide
B. Carbon dioxide D. Air
ANSWER: (A) Water
The most common secondary refrigerant medium used in indirect

refrigeration system such as in industrial ice plants and cold storages.
A. Hydrocarbon C. Air
B. Carbon dioxide D. Brine
ANSWER: (D) Brine
A constant restriction expansion device in refrigeration system which is

merely a long tube with narrow bore is called.
A. Thermostatic expansion valve
B. Automatic expansion valve
C. Capillary tube
D. Float valve
.
ANSWER: (C) Capillary tube
Mixtures of refrigerants but which behave like pure substance are

called:
A. isomers C. azeotropes
B. hydrocarbons D. CFC
ANSWER: (C) azeotropes

In refrigeration compressor that has an electric motor and a compressor
built into an integral housing is commonly called:
A. hermetic compressor C. Open type compressor

B. combined compressor D. packaged compressor
ANSWER: (A) hermetic compressor
Compounds with same chemical formula but different molecular structure

(such R134 & R134a) are called:
A. brominated C. azeotropes
B. hydrocarbons D. isomers
ANSWER: (D) Isomers
Which of the following refrigerants does not belong to the group?

A. Carbon dioxide C. Water
B. Ammonia D. Isobutane
ANSWER: (D) Isobutane
An expansion valve used for a flooded type of evaporator in a

refrigeration system is called:
A. thermostatic expansion valve C. automatic expansion valve

B. capillary tube D. float valve
ANSWER: (D) Float Valve
An atom in the refrigerant molecule considered responsible for the

depletion ozone layer in upper atmosphere (stratosphere)
A. Cl atom C. F-atom
B. H atom/s D. C atom
ANSWER: (A) CL atom
A vapour compression system used for production of low temperatures in

which a series of refrigerants, with progressively lower boiling points,
are used in series of single-stage units is called:
A. multipressure system C. cascade system

B. single-stage system D. series system
ANSWER: (C) Cascade system

Which statement is correct on the effect of liquid subcooling in a vapor
compression system?
A. subcooling both increases flashing of the liquid during expansion

and the refrigerating effect.
B. subcooling increases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.
C. subcooling both decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion
and the refrigerating effect.
D. subcooling decreases flashing of the liquid during expansion and
increases the refrigerating effect.
ANSWER: (D)
Which statement is correct on the effect of suction vapor superheating

in a vapor compression system?
A. superheating both increases specific compressor work and the

refrigerating effect.
B. superheating both decrease specific compressor work and the
C. superheating increases specific compressor work and decreases the
B. superheating decrease specific compressor work and increases the
ANSWER: (A)
Which statement is correct on the effect of increasing condensing

pressure in a vapor compression system?
A. increasing condensing pressure both increases specific compressor

work and the refrigerating effect.
B. increasing condensing pressure both decrease specific compressor
work and the refrigerating effect.
C. increasing condensing pressure increases specific compressor work
and decreases the refrigerating effect.
D. increasing condensing pressure decrease specific compressor work
and increases the refrigerating effect.
ANSWER: (C)
Freezing method utilizes the combined effects of low temperature and

high air velocity to produce a high rate of heat transfer from product
is called:
A. indirect contact freezing
B.immersion freezing
C. blast freezing
D. spray freezing
ANSWER: (C) blast freezing

A component installed a refrigeration system to ensure that no liquid
enters the compressor and subcooled the liquid from condenser to prevent
bubbles of vapor from impending the flow of refrigerant through
expansion valve is called:
A. liquid-to-suction heat exchanger C. subcooler
B. flash chamber D. drier
ANSWER: (A)
Refrigerant used in steam-jet refrigeration is:

A. ammonia C. water
B. carbon dioxide D. air
ANSWER: (C) water
Which refrigerant is completely miscible with oil:

A. ammonia C. R12
B. carbon dioxide D. R134a
ANSWER: (C) R-12
Ammonia is not used in domestic refrigeration and comfort air-

conditioning because:
A. ammonia is highly soluble in water.

B. ammonia is the cheapest refrigerant.
C. ammonia is flammable and toxic.
D. ammonia is non ozone depletion potential
ANSWER: (C) ammonia is flammable and toxic
Refrigerants 22 (R22) which is an HCFC, has 1/20th the ozone depletion

potential (ODP) of R11 and R12. Hence, it can be continue to be used
for quite sometime. However, all these have global warming-potential
(GWP). Because of this, R22 will have to be phased out by year:
A. 2010 AD C. 2020
B. 2030 AD D. 2040
ANSWER: (B) 2030 AD
Which of the statements is incorrect regarding the functions of the

liquid receiver?
A. stores unused refrigerant returning from condenser

B. stores refrigerant to be evaporated by the expansion valve
C. provides a place to store refrigerant when pumping out the
evaporator during maintenance operations.
D. stores oil that is carried along with refrigerant.
ANSWER: (D)
A shutoff valve that is actuated by an electromagnetic coil is called:
A. solenoid valve C. float switch
B. float valves D. holdback valve
ANSWER: (A)Solenoid valve
Which of the following statement is not false?

A. One ton of refrigeration is also known as one ton of
refrigerant.
B. The low pressure part of the refrigeration system is composed
of the discharge line of the expansion valve to the suction of
compressor.
C. A system operating in a cycle and producing a net quantity of
work from a supply system is known as refrigerator.
D. Multi staging of the compressor will increase the work.
ANSWER: (B)
Refrigeration system of 2 tons capacity. Which of the following

statements is correct?
A. The system has a COP of 2.
B. The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
C. The system uses 2 tons of refrigerants.
D. None of these is correct.
ANSWER: (B) The system has a refrigeration load of 400 Btu/min.
It states that when two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third
body. They are in thermal equilibrium with each other and hence are at
the same temperature.
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 2nd law of Thermodynamics
C. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
D. Boyle’s Law
ANSWER: (C) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
It states that the change of internal energy of an ideal gas is a

function of only the temperature change
A. Charles’ Law c. Joule’s Law
B. Boyle’s Law d. Zeroth Law
ANSWER: ()
The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving

body, by virtue of its momentum.
A. Potential Energy C. Internal Energy
B. Kinetic Energy D. Flow Work
ANSWER: (B) Kinetic Energy

The volume between the engine head and the piston when the piston is at
the top dead center
A. Clearance volume C. Volume of gas drawn in
B. Displacement volume D. Volume of exhaust gas
ANSWER: (A) Clearance volume
The process in which both the intake and exhaust valves are closed, and
the air-fuel mixture is processed by the upward piston movement.
A. Intake Stroke C. Power Stroke
B. Compression Stroke D. Exhaust Stroke
ANSWER: (B) Compression Stroke
Is a term expressing the combination of internal molecular energy,

expansion work and flow work.
A. Entropy C. Internal Energy
B. Enthalpy D. Mechanical Work
ANSWER: (B) Enthalpy
The combination of two refrigerants which cannot be separated by

distillation process.
A. Hydrocarbon C. Azeotropes
B. Isotopes D. Zeotropes
ANSWER: (C) Azeotropes
R-600 is what refrigerant?

A. Methane C. Butane
B. Nonane D. None of these
ANSWER: (C) Butane
-------------------End-------------------
Note: Please keep this file CONFIDENTIAL

INSTRUCTION: FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING
The measure of the ability of a goal to withstand exposure to

the environment elements without excessive crumbling
A. crumbling coefficient C. cohensiveness

B. weatherability D. attrition coefficient
Answer. (B)
A type of coal that tends to break apart as it burns thereby

exposing the unburned coal to the combustion air.
A. loose coal C. non-cohensive coal

B. free burning coal D. aggregate
Answer: (B)
A type of coal that produced a fused coal mass as it burns.
A. plastic coal C. soft coal

B. caking coal D. high-moisture coal
Answer: (B)
A combustible coal content that produces a major atmospheric

pollutant consequently, it is important that coal has a low
percentage of this component.
A. nitrogen C. carbon
B. sulfur D. hydrogen
Answer: (B)
The sum of the pressure head and velocity head.
A. static head C. velocity head

B. pressure head D. dynamic head
Answer: (D)
Which of the following statement is/are true regards to the
first law of thermodynamics for a change in state of a control
mass
A. since heat and work are path function Q-W must also be a
path function
B. Q-W is an inexact differential
C. A and B
D. Q-W is a point function
Answer: (D)
Which of the following statements is/are true with regards to

heat and work.
A. heat and work are both transient phenomena

B. both heat and work are boundary phenomena
C. both heat and work are path function
D. all of the above
Answer: (D)
The height of the surface of the water above the gage point
A. pressure head C. dynamic head

B. velocity head D. static head
Answer: (D)
The head required to produced a flow of the water.
A. static head C. velocity head

B. pressure head D. dynamic head
Answer: (C)
The dynamic pressure of the liquid at pump section less the

corresponding to the temperature at the same point, converted to
liquid.
A. NPSH C. c.pump operating head

B. specific head D. suction head
Answer: (A)
The algebraic difference of the discharge and suction heads.
A. pump operating head C. A and B

B. TDH D. NPSH
Answer: (C)
The transfer of the heat energy from exhaust gases to compressed
air flowing between the compressor and combustion chamber.
A. intercooling C. regeneration
B. convection D. economics
Answer:(C)
The removal of heat from compressed air between stages of

compression.
A. regeneration C. heat evacuation

B. exhaustion D. intercooling
Answer: (D)
As a general rule, the cooling water side of the condenser

should be schedule for inspection for every:
A. month C. 6 months
B. 3 months D. year
Answer: (B)
If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:
A. high-pressure cutout switch is jammed shut

B. low pressure switch is jammed shut
C. thermal bulb is not operating properly
D. scale trap is clogged
Answer: (B)
If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could

be:
A. a clogged scale trap

B. air in the system
C. automatic controls not functioning properly
D. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
Answer: (C)
If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be:
A. expansion valve not open wide enough

B. charging valve open too wide
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. dehydrator not working properly
Answer: (C)
The most likely cause of high superheat would be:
A. too much refrigerant

B. expansion valve open too wide
C. expansion valve closed in too much wide
D. back-pressure valve set too high
Answer: (B)
Short-cycling means that the machine:
A. grounds out frequently

B. stops and starts frequently
C. runs too fast
D. runs too slow
Answer: (B)
If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:
A. the solenoid valve will close

B. the compressor will shut down
C. the expansion valve will close
D. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
Answer: (B)
The memory lost when the operating power is removed
A. power memory C. initial memory

B. volatile memory D. quick data
Answer (B)
Which of the following regions in a multi-stage turbine where

efficiency a highest?
A. High pressure region above 200 psi

B. Intermediate pressure region
C. Low pressure most region
D. A and B
Answer (B)
Calculate the use factor of a 135 MW plant with a load facetor

of 0.8 and a peak load of 120 MW if its operation is limited to
8500 hrs in a year
A. 0.90 C. 0.70
B. 0.73 D. 0.78
Answer (B)
Calculate the net radiation heat flux exchange of two bodies
with surface temperature of 25 deg C. The radiation heat
transfer coefficient is 7.0 W/m2-k
A. 700 w/sq m C. 665 w/sq m

B. 750 w/sq m D. 650 w/sq m
Answer: (C)
Calculate the reserve factor for a power plant with a load

factor of 0.7 average load of 50 MW and rated capacity of 80 MW
A. 2 C. 1.12
B. 1.5 D. 1.6
Answer: (C)
Maximum demand of 30 MW and 10 MW are connected to a power plant

with a peak load of 70 MW. What is the diversity factor of the
plant?
A. 0.50 C. 0.65
B. 0.70 D. 0.86
Answer: (C)
A gas in piston-cylinder set-up undergoes an expansion of such

rate that PV 1.2 =constant. Before the expansion process the
pressure of the gas is 300 kpa and the volume is 0.50 m3. If the
final volume of the gas is 0.1 m3, calculate the work done by
the gas
A. 9.71 KJ C. 12 KJ
B. 11.0 KJ D. 8 KJ
Answer: (A)
The phenomenon in which air enters a submerged suction pipe from

the water surface is called a:
A. whirlpool C. vortex
B. vacuum D. thixotropic
Answer: (C)
Where groundwater ( wells and springs) or surface water (streams
and takes) are used for feedwater, water hardness of ___ and
alkalinity of pH 10 to be ph should be considered
A. 0-10 ppm C. 20-30 ppm

B. 10-20 ppm D. 30-40 ppm
Answer: (A)
Which of the following is not a solid fuel?
A. peat C. tar
B. briquettes D. coke
Answer: (C)
Canisters of helmets shall be removed immediately after having

been used on sucking water from a public service main or
private-use water system
A. horizontal split case pump

B. vertical shaft turbine pump
C. booster pump
D. submersible pump
Answer: (C)
A small fitting with a double offset, or shaped like the letter

U with the ends turned out
A. elbow tee C. spigot joint
B. expansion loop D. cross-over
Answer (D)
The condition in which droplets of water are carried by steam in

the boiler
A. priming C. carryover
B. breeching D. condensation
Answer (A)
At the start of the compression process of an air-standard

diesel power cycle the pressure is 100kpa and the temp is 15 deg
C. for a mean effective pressure of 1362 kpa and compression
ratio of 18 the heat of combustion developed is 1800 kj/kg.
what is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?
A. 65 % C. 55%
B. 59 % D. 68%
Answer (B)
A circular chip (k= 150 w/ mk) with a diameter d=10mm and
thickness t= 4 cm inside diameter and 12 cm outer diameter. The
inside wall temperature of the pipe is maintained at 500 deg C
while the outside surface of asbestos at 90 deg C. Calculate the
heat loss per meter length
A. 1265w/m C. 1400 w/m

B. 1500 w/m D. 1100 w/m
Answer A
Exergy is always
A. being produced C. not changing

B. being destroyed D. none of the above
Answer B
A 5m thick flat plane ( k=60 w/ m k) is well insulated on its

sides, while the top and bottom surfaces are maintained at 150
deg. Assuming a steady state heat conduction, calculate the
temperature 4 m below the top surface.
A. 100 deg c C. 94 deg c

B. 120 deg c D. 80 deg c
Answer C
A solid of diameter D=0.5 m and surface emissivity of 0.8

contains electrons that dissipate 100 W of heat. If it does not
receive radiation from the surroundings, what is the surface
temp?

Answer C
Which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhausts

into a turbine generator?
A. aeroderivative gas turbine

B. brayton engine
C. industrial gas turbine
D. joule turbine
Answer A
It is referred to as the maximum continous power available from
a hydroelectric power plant even under the most adverse
hydraulic condition
A. primary power C. continuous peak power

B. continuous base power D. firm power
Answer D
Energy destruction is a result of
A. heat transfer C. process irreversibility

B. work production D. none of the above
Answer C
Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in

temperature as they pass through the throttle valve. The Joule-
Thompson coefficient of these fluids is
A. negative C. positive
B. zero D. none of the above
Answer C
The interaction that occurs between a system and its

surroundings as the system executes a process, which is the
result of the system being at the temperature different from the
surrounding, is
A. mass transfer C. work transfer

B. heat transfer D. none of the above
Answer B
Working fluids used in refrigeration cycle decreases in

temperature as the pass through the throttle valve. The joule-
thompson coefficient of these fluids is
A. negative C. positive
B. zero D. none of the above
Answer C
The interactions that occurs between a system and its

surroundings as a system executes a process, which is the result
of the system being at temperature different from the
surrounding is
A. mass transfer C. work transfer

B. heat transfer D. none of the above
Answer B
An air pollutant which is the result of burning fuels oils
A. ferrous oxide C. sulfur dioxide

B. hydrogen nitride D. aluminum oxide
Answer C
Analysis of solid fuel to determine moisture, volatile matter,

fixed carbon, and ash expressed as percentage of the total
weight of the sample
A. viscometer C. ultimate
B. proximate analysis D. pour point
Answer B
A gas analysis apparatus in which the percentage of oxygen,

carbon dioxide and neonoxide in the gas measured by absorption
in separate chemical solutions
A. orsat C. ultimate
B. proximate D. pour point
Answer A
The water added to boiler feed to compensate for the water lost
through blowdown, leakage, etc
A. condensate C. sulfur
B. make-up D. economizer
Answer B
Gas flow caused by boiler’s pressure being less than boiler’s

furnace pressure
A. induced draft C. injector

B. infrared D. inhibitoR
Answer (a)
An automatic pressure-relieving device that opens in proportion

to the increase in pressure over its opening pressure
A. pressure gauge C. ammeter

B. relieve valve D. calorimeter
Answer B
A rotating device used to convert kinetic energy into mechanical
energy
A. turbine C. pump
B. generator D. vacuum
Answer A
Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
A. keeping all gland and stuffing boxes on the high pressure

side tight
B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low pressure
side tight
D. running the refrigerant through an aerator
Answer C
An excessively high head pressure could be caused by
A. solenoid valve shut off

B. insufficient cooling water to the condenser
C. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils
D. too much cooling water to the condenser
Answer B
The solenoid valve is controlled by
A. the amount of liquid in the system

B. the amount of gas in the system
C. the temperature in the condenser
D. the thermal switch operated by the icebox temperature
Answer D
If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer

than the
A. expansion valve is working normally

B. expansion valve is not working normally
C. solenoid valve is not working normally
D. scale trap is dirty
Answer B
If the pressure is too high
A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure

output
B. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant go
to receiver
C. the high pressure output switch should operate before the
relief valve
D. close in on the suction valve
Answer C
If a pressurized water reactor (PWR)
A. the coolant water is pressurized to work as moderator

B. b the coolant water boils in the core of the reactor
C. the coolant water is pressurized to prevent boiling of
water in the core
D. no moderator is used
Answer C
Which of the following property of coal has major influence on

the design and operation of a steam power plant
A. density of coal
B. carbon content of coal
C. ash content of coal
D. shape and size of coal
Answer C
a boiler horsepower is equal to the evaporation of 3405lbs of

100 degrees c water per hr. how much steam in lb per hour a 700
horsepower boiler can generate?
A. 24150 lb / hr C. 18000 lb/hr

B. 21000 lb/ hr D. 30000 lb/hr
Answer B
___ is obtained by mixing and burning precisely the right amount

of fuel and oxygen so that products are left once combustion is
complete
A. perfect combustion C. firing combustion

B. burning combustion D. burning combustion
Answer A
what type of boiler commonly used in industrial and heavy
commercial application due to less expensive to make low
pressure, easier to maintain and repair
A. water tube boiler

B. fire tube boiler
C. air tube boiler
D. marine water
Answer B
during the emergency operation of the boiler, when there is no

water in the gauge glass and steam comes out of the bottom
trycock, the water level cannot be determined. What preventive
measure the operator does to save the boiler
A. shutdown the boiler and do not add water

B. add water to compensate the water losss
C. increase the firing rate
D. continue to operate the boiler and add water
Answer A
the most important valve in the boiler operation and the last
line of defense against disaster is known as
A. pressure gauge C. safety valve

B. compound gauge D. gate valve
Answer C
a common test and very important when a boiler is being repaired

and or replaced before being back in operation or in service is
known as
A. hydrostatic test C. test clamp

B. water level test D. acid test
Answer A
In heat transfer by conduction, due to symmetry the heat flow as

a point is perpendicular to the isothermal surface through the
point. This mode of conduction is a characteristic of
A. non-isotropic
B. isotropic
C. insulators
D. conductors
Answer A
why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air
conditioning unit?
a. it will not cause ice build up

b. it will wear out the motor bearings &cause noise
c. it may not slice suction line
d. it decrease the volume flow of refrigerant
Answer b
The heat transferred radially across insulated pipe per unit

area
a. remain constant
b. inversely proportional to the thermal conductivity
c. decrease from pipe wall to insulated surface
d. increase form pipe wall to insulated surface
Answer c
under normal operating conditions, when a solid material to be

dried is placed inside a batch tray dryer, the material is
usually subjected
a. under constant drying conditions

b. under variable drying conditions
c. under high temperature drying
d. under low temperature drying
Answer a
a change of phase directly from vapor to solid without passing

through the liquid state is called as
a. sublimation
b. vaporization
c. solidification
d. deposition
Answer d
in terms of heat transfer, the use of a cooling tower is said to

be more efficient and more economical compared to an ordinary
heat exchanger since
a. large vol of air is available and free

b. temperature profiles of air and water can cross each other
c. large amount of water can be processed
d. a cooling tower is much smaller and cheaper than a heat heat
exchanger
Answer b
It is a form of oxygen photochemicallly produced in nature
a. ozone
b. oxidizing agent
c.oxidation
d. D02
Answer a
What is the chemical formula of ozone
a. O3
b. D3O
c. o7
d. O1
Answer a
In the upper atmosphere, ozone is nade by ultraviolet light

reacting with
a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. hydrogen
d. water vapor
Answer a
The ozone concentration of parts per million (ppm) is generally

considered maximum permissible for how many hours of exposure?
A. 8 hrs
b. 7 hrs
c. 4 hrs
d. 3hrs
Answer a
How may moisture be removed from air?
a. condensation
b. adsorption
c. A and B
d. none of these
Answer c
In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temp (db) of the air is lowered,
what will happens to the relative humidity
a. increased
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at which
it is cooled
Answer A
What is the effect of superheating the

refrigerant?
a. it increases the coefficient of performance

b. it decreases the coefficient of performance
c. it lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant
d. it increases the suction pressure of the refrigerant
Answer a
A turbine setting where one disadvantage is the difficulty of

lubricating the operating mechanism, with consequent relatively
rapid water
a. siphon setting
b. open fume setting
c cast setting
d. capacity setting
Answer b
A patented device combining expansion and compression function

in a single rotor permitting higher cycle temperatures
a. comprex
b. compressor
c. expander
d. single-shaft
answer: A
A rough measure of the physical size of the equipment which must

handle the specified quantity of the fluid
a. pressure ratio
b. fuel rate
c. thermal efficiency
d. air ratio
answer: d
The ratio of the highest main compressor discharge pressure as
the lower main compressor inlet pressure
a. cycle pressure ratio

b. cycle pressure level
c. work ratio
d. air ratio
Answer: a
The ratio of the maximum pressure in the cycle to the

atmospheric pressure
a. cycle pressure ratio

b. cycle pressure level
c. regenerator effectiveness
d. thermal efficiency
Answer: b
The ratio of the actual partial pressure exerted by tge water

vapor in any volume of air to the partial pressure that would be
exerted by the water vapor in the air is saturated at the
temperature of the air
a. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity
c. humidity ratio
d. saturation ratio
Answer: a
In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains constant but

the relative humidity
a. increases
b . remains constant
c. decreases
d. zero
Answer: c
The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor
start to condense
a. dew point
b. saturated point
c. cloud point
d. critical point
Answer: a
Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air
conditioning unit?
a. It will cause ice build-up

b. It will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
c. It may not slice suction line
d. It decreases the volume flow of refrigerant
Answer: B
A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer.
a. Hydrofluorocarbons (HCF’s)
b. R-22
c. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
d. R-12
Answer: A
Which of the following is the type of refrigerant that damages

Ozone layer?
a. Hydrocholorofluorocarbons (HCHF’s)
b. R-22
c. R-12
d. All of these
Answer: D
Large-bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed or

atmospheric condition by means of cooling.
a. Kata thermometer
b. JJ Thompson Thermometer
c. Kelvin Thermometer
d. Wet Bulb Thermometer
Answer: A
The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called
a. Stratification
b. Setting Due
c. Sedimentation
d. Ventilation
Answer: A
Which of the following components of the window air conditioning
system cleaned annually?
a. Evaporator and condenser

b. Fan blades and fan motor
c. Motor and compressor
d. All of these
Answer: C
A cooled heat exchanger that transfer heat from compressed air

to cooler air.
a. Intercooler
b. Refrigerator
c. Economizer
d. Aftercooler
Answer: D
All the control stand, pitch of the turbine blades must be

adjusted manually by a.
a. Sensor
b. Float valve
c. Gate
d. Switch
Answer: A
The most commonly used adjustable-blade propeller turbine.
a. Francis turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Impulse turbine
d. Pelton wheel
Answer: B
Runner blades are adjusted automatically in synchronism with

turbine wicker gates by a/an.
a. Control valve
b. Governor
c. Oil servomotor
d. Manual operation
Answer: C
What is supplied to the servomotor from the turbine governor oil
system through the generator shaft and through a control valve.
a. Water
b. Air
c. Steam
d. Oil
Answer: D
Used to exhaust air from the casing for starting.

a. Ejectors
b. Dearator
c. Injector
d. Blower
Answer: A
Advantage for propeller turbines of all types

a. open flumes setting
b. siphon setting
c. cost setting
d. capacity setting
Answer: B
An office air conditioning system drew in a quantitity of hot

air from outside, cooled it to 1 deg C, and mixed it with the
internal air of a building. Care was taken to supply enough
fresh air to eliminate objectionable odors. The temperature of
the space was maintained constant, and yet some people became
uncomfortable in the afternoon, why?
a. The relative humidity had dropped

b. When a person spends a long time at a constant temperature
that person becomes uncomfortable
c. Radiant heat from others in the office made the space
uncomfortable
d. The complainers were not really uncomfortable, they were just
bored
Answer: A
Equipment designed to reduce the amount of water vapor in the

ambient atmosphere;
a. Blower
b. Condenser
c. Dehumidifier
d. Cooling tower
Answer: C
A large paper plant uses its own cogeneration power plant to
generate its electricity because.
a. It permits the use of a more efficient generator

b. The company can better control the voltage
c. It does away with high power lines leading to the plant
d. It provides a more efficient conversion of fuel
Answer: D
The volumetric output of a centrifugal pump is reduced by

closing a valve part way on the intake side of the pump,
throttling the intake. The reduction of flow is accompanied by
“popping” noises which seem to come from inside the case.
What is the probable cause?
a. The impeller has broken

b. Dirt particles have got into the pump intake
c. The intake valve flow seal is loose and vibrates
d. The fluid is cavitating
Answer: D
If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room

temperature, why would one metal feel colder that the other?
a. One has a high temperature coefficient
b. One has a lower temperature
c. One has a high thermal conductivity
d. One has a high temperature
Answer: C
The ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the

boundary layer thermal resistance is described by:
a. Biot number
b. Nusselt number
c. Prandtl number
d. Reynolds number
Answer: A
An instrument which is commonly used to measure the most

important characteristics of fuel oil which is viscosity is
known as;
a. Saybolt Viscosimeter
b. Ph-meter
c. Acid Testmeter
d. Gravuty meter
Answer: A
In a refrigerator, this is a chamber for storing low-side liquid
refrigerant in a system, which also serves as a surge drum.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Compressor
d. Accumulator
Answer: D
The measure of a fluids resistance to flow (the internal

friction of a fluid) as temperature increase.
a. Density
b. Viscosity
c. Specific gravity
d. Temperature
Answer: B
A mechanical device used to burn solid fuel specifically used in

coal power palnt.
a. Stroker
b. Boiler
c. Staybolt
d. Condenser
Answer: A
The chemically correct ratio of air fuel a mixture capable of

perfect combustion with no unused air or fuel,
a. Fuel point
b. Pour point
c. Stoichiometric ratio
d. Stack
Answer: C
When a solid material is said to be “dry” it means that
a. The solid does not contain any moisture

b. The solid still contains very small amount of moisture
c. The solid contains equilibrium moisture
d. The weight of the solid is the same as the bone dry weight
Answer: B
A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface.
The heat that is first transferred to the air layer close to the
block is by conduction. It is eventually carried away from the
surface by:
a. Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Thermal
Answer: A
When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is
faster
a. On a slightly breezy day

b. On a calm day
c. On a cloudy day
d. On a hot and windy day
Answer: D
Reflector of a nuclear reactor are made up of
a. Boron
b. Cast iron
c. Beryllium
d. Steel
Answer: C
The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is
a. To slow down the fast moving electrons

b. To speed up the slow moving electrons
c. To start the chain reaction
d. To transfer the heat produced inside the reactor to a heat
exchanger
Answer: A
Which of the following is the most commonly used moderator?

a. Graphite
b. Sodium
c. Deuterium
d. Heavy water
Answer: A
Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by:
a. Smelling the discharge water

b. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge
c. Adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing the small
d. Applying a scapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking
for bubbles
Answer: B
Air arrangement of headwater tubes located in the boiler
a. Economizer
b. Condenser
c. Evaporator
d. Boiler
Answer: A
Scale in boiler can.
a. Create low steam quality

b. Cause foaming
c. Over blow-off line
d. Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
Answer: D
The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given

temperature.
a. Absorptivity
b. Emissivity
c. Conductivity
d. Reflectivity
Answer: B
In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by;
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Convection
d. Conduction
Answer: C
A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied;
a. Cryogenic Temperature
b. Absolute Temperature
c. Vaporization
d. Critical Temperature
Answer: D
What part of heat exchangers that are classified as radiant

convection and placed at the near of the furnace, where they
receive the bulk of the radiation from the flame.
a. Radiant superheaters
b. Condenser
c. Radiator
d. Evaporators
Answer: A
Which of the following is the major consideration while

selecting the nuclear power plant?
a. Safety
b. Load center
c. Disposal of waste
d. Availability of water
Answer: C
A moderator is used to:
a. Slow down neutrons

b. Slow down electrons
c. Accelerate neutrons
d. Direct flow of electron
Answer: A
Which of the following material is not used as moderator?
a. Graphite
b. Beryllium
c. Aluminum
d. Light water
Answer: C
In nuclear power plant which of the following is used to slow
down the fast neutron?
a. Reflector
b. Shield
c. Control rod
d. Moderator
Answer: D
Control rods for nuclear reactors are made of
a. Graphite
b. Concrete
c. Cadmium
d. Lead
Answer: C
The reactor in which fissionable fuel produced is more than the

fuel consumed is known as
a. Fast reactor
b. Breeder reactor
c. Thermal reactor
d. None of the above
Answer: B
Heavy duty gas turbines typically have
a. Double shaft
b. Triple shaft
c. Single shaft
d. Quadruple shaft
Answer: C
Which of the following statements is not a key feature of

fourier’s heat conduction.
a. It is phenomenological
b. It defines an important material property called thermal
conductance
c. It is vector expression indicating that the heat flux is
normal and the direction of decreasing temperature.
d. Assume that the thermal conductivity is constant with
repect to temperature of the material
Answer: D
What is the color code of steam line in geothermal power plant?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Silver Gray
d. Red
Answer: C
What is absorbed by sulphites in boiler water treatment?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Impurities settled in mud drums
Answer: D
A flow volume in which the fluids flow upward through a tapered

tube lifting a shaped weight to a position where the upward
force just balances to weight.
a. Rotameter
b. Thermometer
c. Viscometer
d. Ammeter
Answer: A
An instrument that register total pressure and static pressure

in a used to determine velocity.
a. Ammeter
b. Rotameter
c. Pitot tube
d. Pour point
Answer: C
A heat engine whose thermodynamic efficiency is greater than

that of a Carnot device using the same energy reservoir is known
as:
a. A perpetual machine of the zeroth kind

b. A perpetual machine of the second kind
c. A perpetual machine of the first kind
d. A perpetual machine of the third kind
Answer: B
The degrees of power interval in 4-stroke cycle of a six-
cylinder engine is
a. 60 degrees
b. 180 degrees
c. 90 degrees
d. 120 degrees
Answer: D
The portion of sunlight, rich in ultraviolet rays, which has a

strong effect on photographic plate.
a. Gamma rays
b. X-rays
c. Beta rays
d. Actinic rays
Answer: D
Which of the following does not illustrate the effect of

temperature or pressure on gas solubility?
a. Air bubbles from on the sides of a warm glass of water

b. Soda pop is bottle under pressure
c. Boiling frees water gases
d. Air is more humid on rainy days
Answer: D
Among the effluents that may be released from the hydrothermal

reservoir which one is the most toxic?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen sulfide
c. Methane
d. Ammonia
Answer: B
Newton said that a projectile if given enough horizontal

velocity will not fail to the earth. Instead, it moves along a
path around the earth. The 1st artificial satellite that verified
Newton’s statement is
a. Apollo 1
b. Houston 1
c. Sputnik 1
d. None of these
Answer: C
A refrigerant control valve that maintains a constant pressure
in a evaporator
a. Bleed valve
b. Angle valve
c. Automatic expansion valve
d. Ball check valve
Answer: C
A rigid contains gas a 100 kpa and 10 degrees C. the gas is

heated until the temperature reaches 100 degree C. Calculate the
work done by the system.
a. 2
b. 0
c. 1
d. 1.5
Answer: B
The compression ratio in an air-standard Otto cycle is 10. At

the beginning of the compression stroke the pressure is 120 kpa
and the temperature is 15 degree C. Calculate the pressure and
the temperature at the end of the compression process.
a. 4,000 kPa
b. 3,500 kPa
c. 3,014 kPa
d. 3,200 kPa
Answer: C
Find the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Otto power cycle

with a compression ratio of 7.
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 65%
d. 54%
Answer: D
At the beginning of the compression stroke in an standard Otto
cycle. The pressure is 100 kPa and the temperature is 15 degree
C. the compression ratio is 8 and work is 1,017.7 kj/kg.
Determine the mean effective pressure.
a. 1,406 kPa
b. 1,500 kPa
c. 1,350 kPa
d. 1,550 kPa
Answer: A
The compression ratio in an air standard diesel cycle is 20. At

the beginning of the compression process the pressure and the
temperature are 0.12 Mpa and 15 degree C respectively. What is
the pressure at the end of the compression process?
a. 8,500 kPa
b. 7,955 kPa
c. 8,300 kPa
d. 8,200 kPa
Answer: B
The accounting of all energy units involved in a system a cycle

of an piece of equipment
a. Thermodynamic solution
b. Equilibrium condition
c. Summation of energy units
d. Heat Balance
Answer: D
It refers to any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a

turbine more pressure for any purpose whatsoever
a. Regeneration
b. Extraction
c. Bled-off cycle
d. Regenerative extraction cycle
Answer: B
Any arrangement whereby steam is bled from a turbine for a

purpose of thermal regeneration of the condensate to a
temperature level approaching that of the boiler water.
a. Regenerative
b. Extraction cycle
c. Bled-off steam cycle
d. Regenerative extraction cycle
Answer: A
The steam extraction from the turbine
a. Bled steam
b. Extraction
c. Extracted steam
d. A and C
Answer: D
The point of particular pressure where the steam is extracted
a. Bleeder point
b. Extraction point
c. Bleeder
d. A and B
Answer: D
Vapor pumps that raise the pressure of the refrigeration to a

level that permits sufficient heat rejection to the condensing
medium.
a. Fans
b. Blower
c. Compressor
d. Suction
Answer: C
Low temperature heat exchanger that is used to absorb heat from

the refrigerated space and transfer it to the refrigerant in its
tubes so that it can be transported to another and released.
a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
c. Capillary tube
d. Compressor
Answer: B
The substance employed as cooling effect to absorb heat from the

refrigerated space in called
a. Condensate
b. Feedwater
c. Refrigerant
d. Moisture
Answer: C
It is inversely proportional to the power required to grind the
coal to certain fitness
a. Pulverizing index
b. Fireness index
c. Grindability index
d. Inverse power coefficient
Answer: C
The temperature where the ash becomes very plastic, somewhat

below the melting point of the ash.
a. Ash- softening temperature

b. Ash- plasticity temperature
c. Ash – fluidity temperature
d. Ash – liquefaction temperature
Answer: A
The amount of chemical energy in a given mass or volume of fuel.
a. Heating value
b. Energy storage
c. Calorific value
d. A and C
Answer: D
The refrigerant volume flow rate at entrance at the entrance of

compressor were obtained from a test on a twin cylinder, single
acting 15 cm x 20 cm, 320 rpm compressor ammonia refrigerating
plant to be 33 L/s. Determine the volumetric efficiency of the
compressor.
A. 77.65 %
B. 87.6 %
C. 97.6 TR
D. 65.65 %
Answer: B
A twin cylinder ammonia compressor with volume displacement of
14,726 cm3 operates at 300 rpm. Condenser and evaporator
pressure are 1200 kPa and 227 kPa respectively. Specific volume
of refrigerant at the entrance of compressor is 528.26 L/kg.
Compression process is polytropic with n = 1.2 and clearance
factor of compressor is 2 percent. Determine horsepower
required.
A. 60 hp
B. 70 hp
C. 80 hp
D. 90 hp
Answer: C
Three thousand cubic feet per minute of air are circulated over
an air-cooled condenser. If the load on the condenser is 64,800
Btu/hr, compute the temperature rise of the air passing over the
condenser. Specific volume of standard air (13.34
ft3/lb).
0
A. 10 F
0
B. 15 F
0
C. 20 F
0
D. 25 F
Answer: C
A reversed Carnot cycle has a refrigerating COP of 2.5.

Determine the ratio TH/TL?
A. 1.4
B. 1.5
C. 1.25
D. 1.2
Answer: A
Saturated vapor ammonia at -16 0C (h7 = 1442.60 kJ/kg) leaves the

evaporator and enters the compressor at -6 0C (h1 = 1465 kJ/kg).
The refrigerant leaves the condenser as saturated liquid at 40
0
C (h4 = 390.6 kJ/kg). Heat rejected from the condenser amount to
50 kW. The work to compressor is 208 kJ/kg, while the heat loss
from compressor is 33 kJ/kg. If 9.5 kJ/kg of heat are lost in
the piping between the compressor discharge and condenser inlet,
determine the refrigerating capacity of the system.
A. 49.5 TR
B. 46.61 TR
C. 12.88 TR
D. 13.24 TR
Answer: A
A 35.0 mL sample of gas is enclosed in a flask at 22 degrees
Celsius. If the flask was placed in an ice bath at 0 degrees
Celsius, what would the new gas volume be if the pressure is
held constant?
A. 34.1 ml
B. 31.1 ml
C. 32.39 ml
D. 33.1 ml
Answer: C
A car engine with a power output of 65 hp has a thermal
efficiency of 24%. Determine the fuel consumption rate of this
car if the fuel has heating value of 19,000 Btu/lbm.
A. 36.28 lb/hr
B. 37.28 lb/hr
C. 37.28 lb/hr
D. 35.30 lb/hr
Answer: A
The thermal efficiency of a carnot cycle operating between 170

0
C and 620 0C to:
A. 44%
B. 50%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer: B
Compute the humidity ratio of air at 70% relative humidity and

25 0C when the barometric pressure is 101.325 kPa. From steam
tables: Psat 34 0C = 3.169 kPa.
A. 0.014 kg water vapor/kg dry air
B. 0.14 kg water vapor/kg dry air
C. 1.4 kg water vapor/kg dry air
D. 0.0014 kg water vapor/kg dry air
Answer: A
A pressure gage registers 50 psig in a region where the

barometer reads 14.8 psia. Find the absolute pressure in kPa.
A. 666.66 kPa
B. 556.66 kPa
C. 446.66 kPa
D. 336.66 kPa
Answer: C
Determine the quality of steam in a vessel containing 2 kg of
saturated vapor and 8 kg of saturated liquid.
A. 100%
B. 20%
C. 80%
D. 60%
Answer: B
Consider 1 kg of air at 32 0C that expanded by a reversible

polytropic process with n = 1.25 until the pressure is halved:
Determine the heat transfer. Specific heat at constant volume
for air is 0.1786 kJ/kg.K.
A. 17.02 kJ heat rejected

B. 17.02 kJ added
C. 7.05 kJ heat rejected
D. 7.05 kJ added
Answer: B
Fifty kilograms of cooling water per second enter the condenser

at 25 0C and leaves at 50 0C. Find the heat carried away by
water.
A. 1234.45 kW
B. 5233.75kW
C. 2340.52 kW
D. 3140.25 kW
Answer: B
Ten kilograms per second of steam enter the turbine with an

enthalpy of 3200 kJ/kg and enter the condenser with an enthalpy
of 2500 kJ/kg in Rankine cycle. If the turbine efficiency is 80%
and the generator efficiency is 90%, determine the power plant
output.
A. 4320 kW
B. 3213 kW
C. 4056 kW
D. 5040 kW
Answer: D
The condenser of reheat power plant rejects heat at the rate of
500 kW. The mass flow rate of cooling water is 5 kg/s and the
inlet cooling water temperature is 35 0C. Calculate the
condenser cooling water exit temperature.
0
A. 43.35 C
0
B. 53.45 C
0
C. 63.66 C
0
D. 74.34 C
Answer: C
One kilogram of air is compressed adiabatically and in a steady-

flow manner. The compression efficiency is 80% and the work done
on the air is 265kJ/kg. Compute the heat.
A. 212 kJ/kg
B. 100 kJ/kg
C. 0 kJ/kg
D. 331.25 kJ/kg
Answer: C
Three-hundred kilojoules of heat flow by conduction from the

outside to the inside of a cold storage in one hour. If the
temperature and all other conditions are the same, what is the
heat flowing through the cold storage room in two hours?
A. 600 kJ
B. 900kJ
C. 300kJ
D. 1,200 kJ
Answer: A
Determine the specific weight of air at 760 mmHg absolute and 22

0
C?
A. 3.517 kW
B. 12,000 kW
C. 211 kJ/min
D. All of the above
Answer: D
0
Find the work process for a Helium gas at 20 C
A. 609 kJ/kg
B. 168 kJ/kg
C. 229 kJ/kg
D. 339 kJ/kg
Answer: A
Two kilogram of gas is confined in a 1m3 tank at 200 kPa and 88
0
C. What type of gas is in the tank?
A. Helium
B. Ethane
C. Methane
D. Ethane
Answer: B
Find the enthalpy of Helium if its internal energy is 200kJ/kg
A. 144 kJ/kg
B. 223.42 kJ/kg
C. 333.42 kJ/kg
D. 168 kJ/kg
Answer: C
Compute the mass of a 2 m3 propane at 280 kpa and 40 0

C.
A. 6.47 kg
B. 5.1 kg
C. 10.20 kg
D. 9.47 kg
Answer: D
Compute the air flow in ft3/min of mechanical ventilation

required to exhaust an accumulation of refrigerant due to leaks
of the system capable of revolving air from the machinery room
for a mass of 4lbs refrigerant.
A. 200
B. 210
C. 220
D. 230
Answer: A
Compute the free aperture cross section in m2 for the

ventilation of a machinery room if the mass of refrigerant IS 9
KG.
A. 0.314
B. 0.414
C. 0.514
D. 0.614
Answer: B
A 29.53” X 39.37” pressure vessel contains ammonia with f=0.041.
Compute the minimum required discharge capacity of the relief
device in kg/hr.
A. 106.71 kg/hr
B. 108.71 kg/hr
C. 110.71 kg/hr
D. 112.71 kg/hr
Answer: C
Compute the maximum length of the discharge pipe installed on
the outlet of a pressure-relief device in feet for internal pipe
diameter of 0.5 in and rated discharge capacityis 8 lb/min of
air. The rated pressure of relief valve is 16 psig.
A. 0.286 ft
B. 0.386 ft
C. 0.486 ft
D. 0.586 ft
Answer: A
A thermal power plant has a heat rate of 11, 363 Btu/kW-hr, Find
the thermal efficiency of the plant.
A. 28%
B. 30%
C. 34%
D. 40%
Answer: B
What is the hydraulic gradient of a 1 mile, 17 inches inside

diameter pipe when 3300 gal/min of water flow with f = 0.03
A. 0.00714
B. 0.00614
C. 0.00234
D. 0.00187
Answer: A
Find the loss of head in the pipe entrance if speed of flow is

10 m/s.
A. 5.10
B. 10.2
C. 17.4
D. 2.55
Answer: D
Find the mass of carbon dioxide having a pressure of 20 psia at
200F with 10 ft3 volume.
A. 1.04 lbs
B. 1.14 lbs
C. 1.24 lbs
D. 1.34 lbs
Answer: C
Wet material, containing 220% moisture ( dry basis ) s to be
dried at the rate of 1.5 kg/s in a continuous dryer to give a
product containing 10% (dry basis). Find the moisture removed in
kg/hr
A. 3543.75 kg/hr
B. 3513.75 kg/hr
C. 3563.75 kg/hr
D. 3593.75 kg/hr
Answer: A
Copra enters a dryer containing 70% moisture and leaves at 7%

moisture. Find the moisture removed on each pound of solid in
final product.
A. 6.258 lb
B. 1.258 lb
C. 4.258 lb
D. 2.258 lb
Answer: D
A 1 m x 1.5 m cylindrical tank is full of oil with S.G = 0.92.

Find the force acting at the bottom of the tank in dynes.
A. 106.33 x 10^3 dynes

B. 106.33 x 10^4 dynes
C. 106.33 x 10^5 dynes
D. 106.33 x 10^6 dynes
Answer: D
Find the pressure at the 100 fathom depth of water in kpag.
A. 1,793.96 kpag
B. 1,893.96 kpag
C. 1,993.96 kpag
D. 1,693.96 kpag
Answer: A
Find the depth in furlong of the ocean (S.G = 1.03) if the
pressure at the sea bed is 2,032.56 kpag.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Find the mass of 10 quartz of water.
A. 10.46 kg
B. 9.46 kg
C. 11.46 kg
D. 8.46 kg
Answer: B
Find the heat needed to raise the temperature of water from 30C
to 100 C with 60% quality. Consider an atmospheric pressure of
101.325 kpa. Use the approximate enthalpy formula of liquid.
A. 293.09 kJ/kg
B. 1,772.90 kJ/kg
C. 1,547.90 kJ/kg
D. 1,647.29 kJ/kg
Answer: D
Find the enthalpy of water at 212F and 14.7 psi if the dryness
factor is 30%. Use the approximate enthalpy formula of liquid
A. 461 Btu/lb
B. 471 Btu/lb
C. 481 Btu/lb
D. 491 Btu/lb
Answer: B
An air compressor consumed 1200 kW-hr per day of energy. The

electric motor driving the compressor has an efficiency of 80%.
If indicated power of the compressor is 34 kW, Find the
mechanical efficiency of the compressor.
A. 117.65%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 90%
Answer: C
An air compressor has a power of 40 kW at 4% clearance. If
clearance will increase to 7%, what is the new power?
A. 70 kW
B. 40 kW
C. 53 kW
D. 60 kW
Answer: B
A refrigeration system consumed 28,300 kW-hr per month of
energy. There are 20% of energy is lodt due to cooling system of
the compressor and motor efficiency is 90%. If COP pf the system
is 6, Find the tons of refrigeration of the system.
A. 43.15%
B. 46.15%
C. 49.15%
D. 41.15%
Answer: C
A 23 tons of refrigeration system has a heat rejected of 1ookW.

Find the energy efficiency ratio of the system.
A. 13.42
B. 14.42
C. 15.42
D. 16.42
Answer: B
A 200 mm X 250 mm, 8 cylinder, 4-stroke diesel engine has a

brake power of 150kW. The mechanical efficiency is 80%. If two
of the cylinders were accidentally cut off, what will be the new
friction power?
A. 31.50 kW
B. 33.50kW
C. 35.5o kW
D. 37.50 kW
Answer: D
If the efficiency ratio of the refrigeration system is 12.6,

what is the COP of the system?
A. 3.69
B. 4.23
C. 5.92
D. 6.83
Answer: A
What is the approximate value of temperature of water having
enthalpy of 208 Btu/lb?
A. 138.67⁰ C
B. 115.55⁰ C
C. 258.67⁰ C
D. 68.67⁰ C
Answer: B
Convert 750⁰ R to ⁰ K
A. 390.33⁰ K
B. 395.33⁰ K
C. 410.33⁰ K
D. 416.33⁰ K
Answer: D
An otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8. Find the pressure

ratio during compression.
A. 18.38
B. 16.38
C. 14.38
D. 12.38
Answer: A
A diesel cycle has a cut off ratio of 2.5 and expansion ratio of
4. Find the clearance of the cycle.
A. 9.11 %
B. 5.55%
C. 11.11%
D. 15.25%
Answer: C
A dual cycle has an initial temperature of 30C. The compression

ratio is 6 and heat addition at constant volume process is 600
Kj/kg. If cut-off ratio is 2.5, Find the maximum temperature of
the cycle.
A. 3638.5⁰ C
B. 3365.50⁰ C
C. 3565.50⁰ C
D. 3965.50⁰ C
Answer: B
A three stages air compressor compresses air from 100kPa to 1000
kPa. Find the intercooler pressure between the first and second
stage.
A. 505.44 kPa
B. 108.44 kPa
C. 316.23 kPa
D. 215.44 kPa
Answer: D
A 10-stages air compressor compresses air from 100 kPa to 800
kPa. Find the intercooler pressure between the first and second
stage.
A. 282.82 kPa
B. 113.21 kPa
C. 123.11 kPa
D. 333.51 kPa
Answer: C
A 3-stages air compressor compresses air from 1oo kPa to 700

kPa. Find the intercooler pressure between the 2nd and 3rd stage
A. 365.88 kW
B. 375.88 kW
C. 385.88 kW
D. 395.88 kW
Abswer: A
Carnot cycle A, B and C are connected in series so that the heat

rejected from A will be the heat added to B and heat rejected
from B will be added to C. Each cycle oprates between 30⁰ C and
400⁰ C. If heat added to A is 1000kW, find the work output of C.
A. 111.44 kW
B. 549.78 kW
C. 247.53 kW
D. 141.89 kW
Answer: A
-------------------End--------------------
Note: Please keep this File CONFIDENTIAL

Reheating process in Brayton cycle, the turbine work will

Ans. A
Which of the following is the chemical formula of ethanol?
A. C7H16 C. C7H8
B. C2H6O D. C6H12
Ans. B
Which of the following is the chemical formula of heptane?
A. C7H16 C. C7H8
B. C2H6O D. C6H12
Ans. A
Which of the following is the chemical formula of hexane?
A. C7H16 C. C7H8
B. C2H6O D. C6H12
Ans. D
Which of the following is the chemical formula of toluene?
A. C7H16 C. C7H8
B. C2H6O D. C6H12
Ans. C
As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following will

increase?
A. Temperature C. Internal energy

B. Enthalpy D. Mach number
Ans. D
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will

decrease?

Ans. D
As the air passes through a nozzle, which of the following will
decrease?

Ans. C
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will

increase?
A. Density C. Mach number

B. Entropy D. Velocity
Ans. A
As the air passes through a diffuser, which of the following will NOT
be affected?
A. Density C. Mach number

B. Entropy D. Velocity
Ans. B
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the temperature of

air will:

Ans. B
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the density of air

will:

Ans. B
After passing through a convergent-divergent nozzle the mach number of

air will:

Ans. B
By increasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle, which of the
following will not be affected?
A. Efficiency C. Heat added

B. Work D. Heat rejected
Ans. D
By decreasing the temperature source of Carnot cycle, which of the

following will not be affected?
A. Efficiency C. Heat added

B. Work D. Heat rejected
Ans. C
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful

cooling, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Condenser pressure
B. Evaporator pressure
C. Quality after expansion
D. Heat rejected from condenser
Ans. D
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle with useful

cooling, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Refrigerated effect C. Compressor power

B. COP D. Mass flow rate
Ans. D
By superheating the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle without

useful cooling, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit
mass analysis)
A. Heat rejected C. Compressor power

B. COP D. Specific volume at suction
Ans. B
useful cooling, which of the following will increase? (use per unit
mass analysis)
A. Heat rejected C. Compressor power

B. COP D. Specific volume at suction
Ans. C

useful cooling, which of the following will not be affected? (use per
unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigerated effect C. Compressor power

B. COP D. Mass flow rate
Ans. C
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle at condenser

exit, which of the following will increase? (use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Refrigerated effect
B. Specific volume at suction
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
Ans. A
By sub-cooling the refrigerant in vapor compression cycle at condenser

exit, which of the following will decrease? (use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Refrigerated effect
B. Specific volume at suction
C. Compressor power
D. Mass flow rate
Ans. D
By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor compression cycle,

which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. mass flow rate

B. COP
C. specific volume at suction
D. compressor work
Answer: B
By increasing the vaporizing temperature in vapor compression cycle,
which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. Refrigeration effect
B. COP
C. evaporator temperature
D. Temperature difference between evaporator and compressor
Answer: D
By increasing the condenser pressure in vapor compression cycle, which

of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. moisture content after expansion

B. compressor power
C. heat rejected from condenser
D. mass flow rate
Answer: A
If the pressure drop in the condenser Increases in a vapor compression

cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
A. mass flow rate

B. compressor power
C. heat rejected in the condenser
D. specific volume of suction
Answer: C
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression

cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
A. Refrigeration effect
B. mass flow rate
D. compressor power
Answer: B
If the pressure drop in the condenser increases in a vapor compression
cycle, which of the following will not be affected? (Use per unit mass
analysis)
A. compressor power
B. mass flow rate
C. heat rejection in the condenser
D. COP
Answer: A
If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor

compression cycle, which of the following will increase? (Use per unit
mass analysis)
A. Refrigerating effect
B. vaporizing temperature
D. COP
Answer: C
If the pressure drop in the evaporator increases in a vapor

compression cycle, which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit
mass analysis)
A. specific volume at suction

B. compressor power
D. COP
Answer: D
By lowering the condenser pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the

following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. pump work
B. turbine
C. heat rejected
D. cycle efficiency
Answer: C
By increasing the boiler pressure in Rankine cycle, which of the
following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. heat rejected
B. pump work
C. cycle efficiency
D. moisture
Answer: A
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle,

which of the following will decrease? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust

B. turbine work
C. heat added
D. heat rejected
Answer: A
By superheating the steam to a higher temperature in Rankine cycle,

which of the following will increase? (Use per unit mass analysis)
A. moisture content at the turbine exhaust

B. pump work
C. condenser pressure
D. cycle efficiency
Answer:
By reheating the steam before entering the second stage in Rankine

cycle, which of the following will decrease?
A. turbine work
B. moisture content after expansion
C. heat added
D. heat rejected
Answer: B
When Rankine cycle is modified with regeneration, which of the

following will increase?
A. turbine work
B. heat added
C. heat rejected
D. cycle efficiency
Answer: D
Is the combination of base load and peaking load.
A. rated load c. combine load

B. intermediate load D. over-all load
Answer: B
Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous maximum demand.
A. use factor C. demand factor

B. capacity factor D. diversity factor
Answer: D
Regenerative with feed heating cycle with infinite number of feedwater

heaters thus efficiency is equal to:
A. otto cycle C. erricson cycle

B. stirling cycle D. carnot cycle
Answer: D
A type of turbine used in desalination of sea water.
A. back pressure turbine C. peaking turbine

B. passout turbine D. reaction turbine
Answer: A
States that when conductor and magnetic field move relatively to each
other, an electric voltage is induced in the conductor.
A. Maxwell’s law C. Faraday’s law

B. Kirchoff’s law D. Newtons law
Answer:C
Transfers heat directly to electrical energy by utilizing thermionic

emissions.
A. Thermionic motor
B. Thermionic generator
C. Thermionic converter
D. Thermionic cell
Answer:B
Is the largest group of coal containing 46-86% of fixed carbon and 20
to 40% volatile matter.
A. anthracite C. Bituminous
B. sub-anthracite D. Sub-bituminous
Answer: C
When 1 gram of coal is subjected to a temperature of about 105⁰C for a

period of 1 hour, the loss in weight of the sample gives the:
A. volatile matter C. Fixed carbon

B. ash D. moisture content
Answer:D
When 1 gram of sample of coal is placed in a crucible and heated 950⁰C

and maintain at that temperature for 7 minutes there is a loss in
weight due to elimination of:
A. volatile matter and moisture

B. ash
C. Fixed carbon
D. moisture content
Answer: A
Consist of hydrogen and certain hydrogen carbon compounds which can be

removed from coal by heating.
A. moisture content
B. product of combustion
C. ash
D. volatile matter
Answer: D
By heating 1 gram of coal in an uncovered crucible until the coal is

completely burned, the __ will formed.
A. volatile matter and moisture

B. ash
C. Fixed carbon
D. moisture content
Answer:B
Caking coal are used to produce coke by heating in a coke oven in the
absence of __ with volatile matter driven off.
A. air C. oxygen
B. oil D. nitrogen
Answer:A
Grindability of standard coal is
A. 80 C. 100
B. 90 D. 110
Answer:C
Major constituent of all natural gases is
A. ethane
B. methane
C. propane
D. Cethane
Answer: B
Two types of fans are:
A. centrifugal and axial C. centrifugal and rotary

B. reciprocating and axial D. tangential and rotary
Answer:A
Enthalpy of substance at specified state due to chemical composition.
A. enthalpy of reaction C. enthalpy of formation

B. enthalpy of combustion D. enthalpy of product
Answer:C
A type of boiler used for duper critical pressure operation.
A. La Mont boiler
B. Once through-circulation boiler
C. Force circulation boiler
D.Natural circulation boiler
Answer:B
Economizer in a water tube boiler is heated by:
A. electric furnace
B. electric current
C. incoming flue gas
D. outgoing flue gas
Answer:D
Receives heat partly by convection and partly by radiation.
A. radiant superheater
B. desuperheater
C. convective superheater
D. pendant superheater
Answer:D
Regenerative superheater is a storage type of heat exchangers have an

energy storage medium called.
A. matrix
B. regenerator
C. Boiler
D. Recuperator
Answer:A
Stirling cycle uses a ____ as working fluids.
A. incompressible gas
B. incompressible fluids
C. compressible refrigerant
D. compressible fluids
Answer:D
In Striling process, the heat is added during
A. Isobaric process
B. Isentropic process
C. Isothermal process
D. Heat process
Ans. C.
Brayton cycle is known as
A. Carnot cycle C. Carnot cycle

B. Joule cycle D. Rankine cycle
Ans. B
It is applied to propulsion of vehicle because of certain practical

characteristics.
A. Diesel cycle C. Carnot cycle

B. Otto cycle D. Brayton cycle
Ans. D
Heat exchangers typically involve
A. no work interaction
B. no heat interaction
C. no energy interaction
D. none of these
Ans. D
A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called
A. Adiabatic C. Heat engines

B. Regenerator D. None of these
Ans. C
The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space at
A. Low temperature
B. High temperature
C. Medium temperature
D. None of these
Ans. B
A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called
A. perpetual motion machine of second kind

B. perpetual motion machine of third kind
C. perpetual motion machine of the first kind
D. none of these
Ans. B
A process is called _____ if no irreversibilities occur outside the
system boundaries during the process.
A. externally reversible
B. internally reversible
C. reversible
D. none of these
Ans. A
An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy transfer is
A. energy
B. heat
C. work
D. none of these
Ans. C
A _____ is used in aircraft engines and some automotive engine. In

this method, a turbine driven by the exhaust gases is used to provide
power to compressor or blower at the inlet.
A. discharging
B. turbocharging
C. supercharging
D. scavenging
Ans. B
The only device where the changes in kinetic energy are significant
are the
A. compressor
B. pumps
C. nozzles and diffusers
D. none of these
Ans. C
The distance between TDC and BDC in which the piston can travel is the
A. right extreme position

B. displacement stroke
C. stroke of the engine
D. swept stroke
Ans. C
In compression-engine the combustion of air-fuel mixture is self-
ignited as a result of compressing the mixture above its
A. self developed temperature

B. mixing temperature
C. self feed temperature
D. self ignition temperature
Ans. D
The thermal efficiency of an ideal Otto cycle depends _______ of the

working fluid.
A. the pressure ratio of the engine and the specific ratio

B. the temperature ratio of the engine and the specific ratio
C. the moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio
D. the compression ratio of the engine and the specific heat
ratio
Ans. D
Using monoatomic gas, the thermal efficiency of Otto cycle
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of these
Ans. A
In diesel engine, combustion process during combustion occurs during
A. isothermal process
B. constant pressure process
C. isentropic process
D. adiabatic
Ans. B
If the cutoff ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel cycle
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of these
Ans. A
If Erickson cycle , the regeneration process occur during ______
process.
A. constant volume
B. constant temperature
C. constant pressure
D. none of these
Ans. C
In Brayton cycle, the ____ during constant pressure process.
A. work is added
B. heat is transferred
C. pressure is rejected
D. energy is added
Ans. B
The two major application areas of gas turbine engines are
A. driving automotive engine and locomotives

B. heating and generation
C. aircraft propulsion and electric power generation
D. none of these
Ans. C
The use of regenerator in is recommended only when the turbine exhaust

temperature is higher than the compressor.
A. exit temperature
B. inlet temperature
C. mean temperature
D. absolute temperature
Ans. A
As the number of stages is increased, the expansion process becomes
A. isentropic C. isometric
B. isothermal D. polytropic
Ans. B
Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio typically
between
A. 6 to 8 C. 10 to 18
B. 12 to 24 D. 10 to 25
Ans: D
The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass ratio of
A. 1 C. 5
B. 3 D. 7
Ans: C
The single-stage expansion process of an ideal brayton cycle without

regeneration is replace by a multistage expansion process with
reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, thermal efficiency will:
A. Increase C. Remain constant

B. Decrease D. none of these
Ans: B
Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton cycle
A. Propulsion system
B. Automotive Turbine Engines
C. Aircraft Turbine engines
D. all of these
Ans. D
It used as working fluid in high-temperature application of vapor

cycle?
A. Helium C. Mercury
B. Deuterium D. Water
Ans. C
The superheat vapor enters the turbine and expands isentropically and
produces work by the rating shaft. The _________ may drop, during the
process.
A. density C. Temperature and pressure

B. Viscosity of fuel D. none of these
Ans. C
Only________ of the turbine work output is required to operate the
pump
A. 0.01% C. 0.03%
B. 0.02% D. 0.04%
Ans. D
Superheating the steam to higher temperature decreases the moisture

content of the steam at the_______
A. turbine inlet
B. compression inlet
C. compressor exit
D. turbine exit
Ans. D
Regeneration also provides a convenient means a dearating the

feedwater to prevent
A. boiler explosion C. boiler corrosion

B. boiler scale production D. compressor damage
Ans. C
Can be apply in Steam turbine cycle (Rankine), gas turbine cycle

(Brayton) and combined cycle
A. Hydroelectric plant C. Cogeneration plant

B. Nuclear power plant D. Tidal power plant
Ans. C
In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the

effect of lowering the condenser pressure the heat rejected will.:
A. increase C. remains the same

B. decrease D. none of these
Ans. B
In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures.
What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature,
the pump work input will:

Ans. C
How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine
cycle is modified with? The heat rejected:

Ans. B
During a combustion process, the components which exist before the

reaction are called
A. reaction C. reactants
B. combustion D. product
Ans. C
In an obvious reason for incomplete combustion
A. insufficient carbon C. insufficient nitrogen

B. insufficient air D. insufficient oxygen
Ans. D
Higher heating value when H20 in the product of combustion is in
A. solid form C. gas form

B. vapor form D. liquid form
Ans. D
Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium to a higher

temperature one is a
A. adiabatic
B. refrigerator
C. heat exchanger
D. heat pump
Ans. D
A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by ______ for each C the
evaporating temperature is raised or the condensing temperature is
lowered.
A. 2 to 4% C. 1 to 5%
B. 6 to 7% D. 6 to 10%
Ans. A
Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than other

heating systems , but they save money in the long run.
A. Refrigerator C. Heat pumps

B. Adiabatic D. Humidifyer
Ans. C
The most widely used absorption system is the ammonia-water system,

where ammonia is serves as a refrigerant and H20 as the
A. cooling C. heating and cooling

B. heating D. transport medium
Ans. D
The efficiency of all reversible heat engines operating between the

same two reservoir________
A. Differ C. Are Unequal

B. Are the same D. None of the above
Ans. B
A process with no heat transfer is known as
A. isobaric process C. isothermal process

B. adiabatic process D. isothermal process
Ans. B
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density of:
A. mercury C. gas
B. oil D. water
Ans. D
This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to
each other
A. Series flow C. Cross flow

B. Parallel flow D. Counter flow
Ans. C
The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is
called the principle of_____
A. Conservation of Energy
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
C. Conservation of Mass
D. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
Ans. A
A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
a. isenthalpic B. throttling
b. enthalpy conservation C. steady state
Ans. C
the sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that

appear in several complex forms
A. kinetic energy C. external energy

B. internal energy D. flow work
ans B
a system that is completely impervous to its surrounding. Neither mass

nor energy cross its bounderies
A. open system C. adiabatic system

B. closed system D. isolated system
Ans. D
a device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference
A. manometer C. barometer
B. bourdon gage D. piezometer
Ans. A
a vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature

A. superheated vapor C. super saturated vapor

B. saturated vapor D. subcooled vapor
Ans. A
the energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a

moving body, by virtue of its momentum.
A. internal energy
B. work
C. gravitational potential energy
D. kinetic energy
Ans. D
the thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the

change in internal energy is zero
A. isobaric process C. isothermal process

B. isometric process D. polytropic process
Ans. C
the function of a pump and compressor is to
A. transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. increase the total energy content of the flow
C. extract energy from the flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
Ans. B
this law states that ‘all energy received as heat by a heat-engine

cannot be converted into mechanical work’
A. 1st law of thermodynamics

B. 2nd law of thermodynamics
C. 3rd law of thermodynamic
D. all of the above
Ans. B
the intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is
called
A. gage pressure C. vacuum pressure

B. absolute pressure D. saturation pressure
Ans. B
This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful

horsepower developed by an engine and available on its crankshaft to
the heat during the same time
A. brake engine efficiency

B. indicated thermal efficiency
C. combined thermal efficiency
D. brake thermal efficiency
Ans. D
flow work is equal to pressure times _______
A. temperature C. internal energy

B. entropy D. specific volume
Ans. D
this form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body
A. internal energy C. potential energy

B. kinetic energy D. work
Ans. C
another term for constant volume process
A. isometic C. isovolumic
B. isochoric D. all of the above
Ans. D
work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process

in the turbine
A. brake work C. actual fluid work

B. ideal work D. combine work
Ans. B
the efficiency of carnot cycle depends upon the
A. pressure C. volume
B. entropy D temperature
Ans. D
it is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or

high temperatures.
A. thermistor
B. thermocouple
C. bimetallic strip
D. mercury in glass
Ans. B
the science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy

and enthalpy
A. thermodynamics C. calorimetry
B. chemistry D. none of the above
Ans. C
the rate of doing work per unit time
A. torque
B. power
C. force
D. moment
Ans. B
it an ideal rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure.

What is the effect of superheating the steam to a higher temperature
to the cycle thermal efficiency?
A. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase

B. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
C. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
D. none of the above
Ans. A
corresponding to the existing pressure
A. superheated vapor C. wet vapor

B. saturated vapor D. none of the above
Ans. A
it is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into

or out a system
A. mechanical work C. flow work

B. non flow work D. electrical work
Ans. C
a liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature

A. subcooled liquid C. unsaturated liquid

B. saturated liquid D. water
Ans. A
this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue
gases burn outside the tubes
A. water column C. gauge glass

B. try cocks D. all of the above
Ans. C
it prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water
A. safety valve C. relief valve

B. fusible plug D. try cocks
Ans. B
it has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for

cleaning, inspection, or repair. It blows out mud scale, or sediment
when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive concentration
of soluble impurities in the boiler
A. blow-down line
B. boiler feedwater pump
C. steam valve
Ans. A
is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which
utilizes the heat of the flue gases
A. economizer
B. open heater
C. closed heater
D. waterwalls
Ans. A
it is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to

preheat the air needed for combustion
A. economizer C. reheater
B. feedwater heater D. air preheater
Ans. D
it is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the

evaporative capacity of the water-tube boiler and at the same time
protect the furncace walls from high temperature.
A. reheater C. superheater
B. waterwalls D. feedwater heater
Ans. B
it is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at

212F and equivalent to 33500 btu/hr
A. One horsepower
B. One kw
C. One Boiler Horsepower
Ans. C
it prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined

pressure by opening to allow excess steam to escape into the
atmosphere when that point is reached, thus guarding against a
possible expulsion through excessive pressure.
A. relief valve C. fusible plug

B. safety valve D. pressure switches
Ans. B
in a water tube boiler, the water will pass through _____
A. inside the tubes C. inside the shell

B. outside the tubes D. outside the shell
Ans. A
it is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant

pressure
A. dry bulb temperatue C. dew point temperature

B. wet bulb temperature D. saturation temperature
Ans. C
in a ______ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through the

fills as the water moves downward.
A. cross flow C. parallel flow

B. counter flow D. double flow
Ans. A
it is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air
A. psychrometer C. refrigeration
B. psychrometry D. pneumatics
Ans. B
it is the ration of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of

moist air at a given temperature to the mass of hot water in the same
volume of saturated air at the same temperature
A. humidity ratio C. humidity

B. specific humidity D. relative humidity
Ans. D
air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will

result in condensation of water vapor into liquid.
A. saturated air C. saturated vapor

B. unsaturated air D. moist air
Ans. A
it is the warm water temperature minus the cold water temperature

leaving the cooling tower
A. approach C. cooling range

B. terminal difference D. LMTD
Ans. C
the temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100 % and where
the water vapor starts to condense is known as _____
A. dry bulb temperature C. wet bulb temperature

B. dewpoint temperature D. saturated temperature
Ans. B
the surrounding air ____ temperature is the lowest temperature to

which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower
A. dry bulb C. dew point

B. wet bulb D. saturation temperature
Ans. B
Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system?
A. compressor C. evaporator
B. condenser D. refrigerant
Ans. D
This refers to the rate of heat transfer attribute only to a change in

dry-bulb temperature
A. sensible heating or cooling

B. humidification
C. dehumidification
D. cooling and dehumidifying
Ans. A
it is a binary mixture of dry air and water-vapor
A. dry air
B. saturated vapor
C. moist air
D. wet mixture
Ans. C
the temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer
A. wet bulb temp

B. dry bulb temp
C. dew point temp
D. wet – bulb depression
Ans. B
The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air
A. enthalpy C. specific volume

B. humidity ratio D. relative humidity
Ans. B
This system combines two vapor compression units with the condenser of
the low temperature system discharge its heat to the evaporator of the
high temperature system
A. cascade systems C. binary system

B. multistage system D. multi pressure system
Ans. A
A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry bulb

temperature
A. dehumidifying process C. heating process

B. cooling process D. humidifying process
Ans. D
the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the
saturation pressure corresponding to the temperature of the air
A. humidity ratio C. specific humidity

B. relative humidity D. moisture content
Ans. B
In an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing

the moisture content of air. The process is represented by a
horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right
A. sensible cooling process

B. sensible heating process
C. humidifying process
D. heating and dehumidifying process
Ans. B
It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio
without changing the dry-bulb temperature of air. The process is
represented in the psychrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to
down
A. sensible cooling process

B. sensible heating process
C. humidifying process
D. heating and dehumidifying process
Ans. C
The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins
to condense when air is cooled at constant pressure
A. dew point temperature

B. wet bulb temperature
C. dry bulb temperature
D. condensing temperature
Ans. A
It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a

dimensionless quantity
A. coefficient of performance
B. energy ratio
C. energy efficiency
D. performance ratio
Ans. A
It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in

place of a single cylinder compressor
A. intercooled compression
B. multistage compression
C. efficient compression
D. performance compression
Ans. B
The transfer of energy from the more energetic in two or more
energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic ones
as a result of interaction between the particles
A. heat transfer
B. radiation
C. conduction
d. convection
Ans. C
What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air

movement, and quantity of air in space?
A. refrigeration C. air conditioning

B. psychometry D. humidification
Ans. C
The non condensing component of the moist air
A. hydrogen C. nitrogen
B. water vapour D. dry air
Ans. D
What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve

and the intake of the compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration
system?
A. high side pressure

B. dishcharge pressure
C. condensing pressure
D. low side pressure
Ans. D
------------------------End------------------------

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POWER AND INDUSTRIAL PLANT ENGINEERING

I. FAMILIARIZE THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS

A. Horizontal split case pump

An underground formation that contains sufficient saturated

A. Aquifer C. Wet pit

A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a screened inlet

A. Aquifer C. Wet pit

Water which is available from well, driven into water bearing

A. Aquifer C. Wet pit

Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force

Protect the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box.

The ratio of the actual vapor density to the vapor density at

A. Relative humidity C. Humidity ratio

An expression of the mass of water vapor per unit mass of dry

A. Relative humidity C. Humidity ratio

Which of the following is equivalent to 1lb?

A. 5000 grains C. 7000 grains

The bypass factor for large commercial units

A. Around 20% C. Around 10%

Sometimes called specific humidity

A. Relative humidity C. Humidity ratio

A. Critical temperature C. Dry bulb temperature

The humidity ratio corresponding to any given dew point

A. Relative humidity C. Humidity ratio

A closed channel excavated through an obstruction such as a

The small reservoir in which the water level rises or falls to

A. Penstock C. Pressure tank

A structure used to relieve the reservoir of excess water

A. Spillway C. Butress dam

The fluid pressure difference created by column of heated gas,

A. Natural draft C. Induce draft

The pressure rise from greater to a lesser vacuum, created in a

A. Forced draft C. Required draft

Also known as Francis turbines or radial flow turbines

A. Impulse turbines C. Reaction turbines

A. Forbay C. Surge chamber

The minimum fluid energy required at the pump inlet for

A. NPSHR C. Velocity head

Throttling the input line to a pump and venting or evacuating

A. Both increase cavitation

Traditional reciprocating pumps with pistons and rods can be

A. 2000 psi C. 8000 psi

A. Increased C. The same

In an adiabatic saturation process the final relative humidity

A. Increased C. The same

Cooling and dehumidifying process is commonly used for:

A. Summer air conditioning C. Winter cooling

An adiabatic saturation process is also known as:

A. Constant WB temperature process

For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not

For efficient operation, the condensing temperature should not

The process in increasing the dry-bulb temperature without

The process of simultaneous cooling and decreasing of humidity

The process of cooling without changing the humidity ratio is

Which of the following cycle is bulky and involves toxic fluids

A. Carnot refrigeration cycle

Which of the following refrigeration cycle is practical when

Condensers used in small and medium sized up to approximately

A. Air-cooled condensers C. High side condensers

An evaporator in a refrigeration unit makes use of which heat

A. Latent heat of vaporization

The vaporization process that occurs at temperature below the

As the pressure increases, the amount of work it can do