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G3-BOARD EXAM TRIAL IN FORENSIC SCIENCE

Prepared by: Prof. Christine Jewell Ronda, 2nd Placer, April 2023 CLE

Instructions: Read carefully. Choose the best answer for each question. Shade the correct letter in the separate shading
sheet provided. Do not forget to write your name and the subject of your test questionnaire in your shading sheet.

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION TECHNIQUES a. Focal Points


b. Inner Terminus
1. __________ are tiny portions or is a hill-like c. Pattern Area
structure found on the epidermis of friction skin containing d. Outer Terminus
sweat, with pores appearing as black lines in a fingerprint
impression. 9. What are the little openings on the skin from where
a. Imaginary Lines sweat is excreted?
b. Furrows a. Ridges
c. Black Lines b. Whorl
d. Ridges c. Pores
d. Loop
2. What is that two innermost ridges running
parallel with each other and diverging at a certain point 10. What is an attempt at character reading through the
surrounding the pattern area? patterns of fingerprints?
a. Pattern Area a. Dactylography
b. Divergence b. Dcatyloscopy
c. Convergence c. Dactylomancy
d. Type lines d. Dactylo-analysis

3. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded 11. What is the scientific examination of the prints of the
by the type lines where the characteristics needed for soles of the feet?
interpretation/classification is found? a. Podoscopy
a. Double Lines b. Poroscopy
b. Loops c. Chiroscopy
c. Ridges d. Edgeoscopy
d. Pattern area
12. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and
4. He discovered the three families of fingerprint leaving scars to form elaborate designs.
patterns. a. Tattoo
a. Govard Bidloo b. Scarification
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi c. Personal Description
c. J.C.A. Mayer d. Anthropometry
d. Francis Galton
13. The Delta is placed upon or within the innermost
5. What do you call the inner terminus or focal sufficient recurve.
point located at the center or the approximate center of a. True
the pattern area? b. False
a. Center c. Partially True
b. Delta d. Partially False
c. Core
d. Open delta 14. He is the father of Criminalistics.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
6. He discovered the outer and inner layer of the b. Edmond Locard
skin. c. Sir Francis Galton
a. Govard Bidloo d. Hans Gross
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
c. J.C.A. Mayer 15. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the
d. Francis Galton pattern or design formed by ridges on the inside of the
end joint of the fingers and thumb.
7. The configuration and details of individual ridges a. Ridges
remain constant and unchanging. This is the principle of b. Pores
___________. c. Fingerprint
a. Principle of Individuality d. DNA
b. Principle of Permanency
c. Principle of Infallibility 16. There are ________ families of fingerprint pattern.
d. Principle of Constancy a. Two
b. Three
8. The core and delta are also termed as c. Eight
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d. Four d. Latent impressions

17. The upper ten impressions in the fingerprint card are 26. _______ are rolled towards the body and ____ are
taken individually. These are referred to as the rolled away from the body.
___________. a. Thumb; index
a. Rolled impression b. All other fingers; thumb
b. Plain Impression c. Index; thumb
c. Slapped Impression d. Thumb; all other fingers
d. Flat Impression
27. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and
18. It represents only about five (5) percent of the another type of delta, the dot is selected.
fingerprint patterns encountered. a. True
a. Loop b. False
b. Arches c. Maybe
c. Whorl d. Never
d. None of these
28. if the ridge is entirely within the pattern area, delta is
19. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses located at the end nearer to ______.
digital imaging technology to obtain, store, and analyze a. to the core
fingerprint data. b. inside the pattern area
a. AFIS c. below the sufficient recurve
b. Automated Fingerprint Identification System d. point of divergence
c. Digital Imaging System
d. Both A & B 29. I. When there is a definite break in type line, the ridges
immediately inside of it is considered as its continuation
20. It refers to the appearance of extra fingers as II. when the bifurcation run parallel after bifurcating and
anatomically known. then diverge, in such case, the two forks/bifurcation
a. Microdactylism become the type line.
b. Macrodactylism a. Statement 1 and 2 are true
c. Polydactylism b. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
d. Syndactyl c. Statement 1 and 2 are both false
d. Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
21. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the ridges run its
direction to the thumb. 30. The following ridges has two RC, EXCEPT?
a. Radial Bone a. short ridge
b. Radial Loop b. Center Point of Bifurcation
c. Ulnar Loop c. Opening of Bifurcation
d. Arch d. Crossing or Enclosure

22. Ridge forms in the person's fingers and feet during its 31. It is usually applies only to a loop type of pattern. It
infant’s stage which usually starts: can be done by drawing an imaginary line between delta
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life and core.
b. 4th to 5th months after conception a. Ridge Counting
c. 5th to 6th week of the fetus life b. Ridge Tracing
d. 5th to 6th months after birth c. Primary Classification
d. Major Classification
23. He is an argentine police official who started the first
fingerprint files based on patterns developed by his 32. These are irregular pegs composed of delicate
mentor, francis galton. He derived from galton his own connective tissue protruding and forming the ridges of the
system of classifying prints which was officially adopted in skin on the fingers, palms, toes and soles of the feet.
argentina and other spanish speaking countries. a. Epidermis
a. Roscoe James Pitt b. Skin
b. Juan Vucetich c. Dermis
c. Dr. Henry Faulds d. Dermal Papillae
d. Sir Edward Richard Henry
33. Captain James Parke first use of state and penal use
24. It Is the basic principle involve in personal of fingerprint at what prison facility?
identification which states that the greater the number of a. Auburn
similarity or difference the greater the probability for the b. New York Prison
identity or non-identity to be conclusive. c. Albany
a. law of individuality d. Singsing
b. law of multiplicity of evidence
c. law of infallibility 34. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a person in
d. law of multiplication which he/she walks in a swaying movement due to knock
knee feet.
25. Generally speaking, fingerprints found at the crime a. Ataxic Gait
scene are called b. Cow’s Gait
a. Latent print c. Spastic Gait
b. Rolled impressions d. Paretic Gait
c. Chance prints

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35. The following are the requisites of a loop except one,
a. It must have a core 45. What type of classification takes into consideration
b. It must have a complete circuit only the loop type starting from the right thumb (the first
c. It must have a delta loop appearing in the set of prints on a fingerprint card)?
d. It must have a ridge count of at least one a. Secondary Classification
b. Primary Classification
36. What is the finger appearing four blocks towards finger c. Final Classification
number three? d. Key Classification
a. Finger No. 1
b. Finger No. 2 46. It is the ridge count of the loop and the whorl in the
c. Finger No. 7 little finger of both hands.
d. Finger No. 5 a. Secondary Classification
b. Key Classification
37. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in c. Primary Classification
finger number eight (8) is a loop, what is the numerical d. Final Classification
value of that finger?
a. None 47. Two ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each
b. 8 other which separate in an opposite direction.
c. 16 a. Delta
d. 2 b. Core
c. Divergence
38. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorl pattern d. Convergence
while in the left hand are all loop pattern, what will be the
primary classification? 48. The Secondary Classification of the Thumb, Middle,
a. 25/29 Ring and Little fingers must be written in small letters.
b. 24/28 a. True
c. 25/1 b. False
d. 32/32 c. Partially True
d. Partially False
39. If two Opposite Finger are amputated what would be
its classification? 49. When the tracing ridge goes above or inside to the
a. Both fingers are given whorls with inner trace value right delta and it has a ridge count of three (3) or more
b. Both fingers are given whorls with meet trace value intervening between the tracing ridge and the right delta
c. Both fingers are given whorls with middle trace value it is____.
d. Both fingers are given whorls with outer trace value a. Inner Whorl
b. Outer Whorl
40. Which is NOT true about accidental whorl? c. Middle Whorl
a. It has a combination of two different patterns d. Meeting Whorl
b. It has two deltas
c. The plain arch is not included in the combination 50. What ridge characteristic is this?
d. It is subject of ridge tracing in the Key Division

41. In the presentation of fingerprints in court, who


decides if the evidence will be approved?
a. Fingerprint examiner a. Converging ridge
b. Judge b. Diverging ridge
c. Defense c. Enclosure ridge
d. Prosecutor d. Bifurcation ridge

42. One single ridge splitting into three-pronged fork- 51. What does letter “A” stands for?
shaped pattern.
a. Spur A. Delta B
b. Tibia B. Core
c. Bifurcation C. Type line A
d. Trifurcation D. Pattern Area

43. The elevated area just behind the fingers and above 52. The inner layer of the skin is known as
the center of the palm. a. Dermis
a. Palmar zone b. Epidermis
b. Thenar zone c. Scarf
c. Hypothenar zone d. Pores
d. Calcar zone
53. It appears after the sub-secondary classification at the
44. What is that downward slope of the ridges above the extreme right portion of the classification formula.
core formed from the direction of the thumb towards the a. Secondary Classification
little finger? b. Key Classification
a. Accidental Whorl c. Primary Classification
b. Central Pocket loop whorl d. Final Classification
c. Ulnar loop
d. Radial Loop

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54. This concern with the thumb of both hands, and is a. Plain whorl
placed just to the left side, or before the primary b. Plain arch
classification. c. Double loop whorl
a. Secondary classification d. Accidental whorl
b. Primary classification
c. Sub-secondary classification 64. One of the principles of Fingerprints which means
d. Major classification fingerprint cannot be forged.
a. Principle of individuality
55. Pattern in which one or more ridges enter on the side b. Principle of Infallibility
toward the little finger, re-curve and then exit toward the c. Principle of Permanency
same side. d. Principle of Humanity
a. Loop
b. Ulnar loop 65. The science of identification by means of fingerprint.
c. Radial loop a.Friction skin
d. Double loop b. Polydactyl
c. Dactyloscopy
56. Sometimes referred to as a patent print, made by d. Dactylomancy
fingers stained with colored materials such as blood, ink,
paint, grease, or dirt. 66. The depressed area or canal between the ridges which
a. Chance print may be compared with the friction skin.
b. Latent print a. Fingerprint
c. Visible print b. Friction ridges/ ridges
d. Invisible print c. Dactyl
d. Furrows
57. Fingerprint pattern where the ridges turn through at
least one complete circuit. Ridges form circularly around a 67. Poroscopy is________.
central point of the finger. a. Science of microscopic hair analysis
a. Palmar zone b. Science of identification thru sweat
b. Ulnar loop c. Science of identification thru footprints
c. Visible print d. Science of identification thru sole prints
d. Whorls
68. It is the center or heart of fingerprint pattern.
58. It is found within most pattern areas, usually a delta a. Delta
and core. b. Core
a. Enlargement c. Pattern area
b. Focal point d. Typelines
c. Forensic odontology
d. Iodine fumes 69. He is considered as the Father of Personal
Identification.
59. The layer of the skin just below the epidermis or outer a. Henry Goddard
layer. b. Francis Galton
a. Dermis c. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Epidermis d. Juan Vucetich
c. Femur
d. Outer skin 70. Categories of Fingerprint
a. eight
60. The outermost non vascular covering of the skin. b. nine
a. Dermis c. three
b. Epidermis d. four
c. Femur
d. Outer skin 71. That type of pattern in which at least two deltas are
present with a recurve in front in each.
61. The nearest point nearest the type line divergence, a a. Loop
characteristic junction in the looped ridge pattern seen in b. Arch
the fingerprints of approximately 65% of people. c. Whorl
a. Dental records d. Double loop
b. Delta
c. Biometrics 72. Fingers that represent pair number 3 in primary
d. Core division.
a. Right thumb and right middle
62. Characteristic which may easily change. Except b. Right middle and right index
a. Clothing c. Right little and left thumb
b. Growth hairs d. Right thumb and left little
c. Grade of profession
d. Gaits 73. The forking or dividing of one line into two or more
branches.
63. Consists of one or more ridges which make a complete a. converging
circuit, with two deltas, between which, when an b. diverging
imaginary line is drawn, at least one recurving ridge within c. bifurcation
the inner pattern area is cut or touched. d. enclosure

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c. Large
74. In Major Classification, arches are likewise counted its d. Inner
ridge count.
a. Statement is True 84. What classification in the fingerprint classification is
b. Statement is False derived by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on
c. Maybe the thumb?
d. Ridge Traced a. Key Classification
b. Major Classification
75. Are impression made by simultaneously pressing the c. Final Classification
finger to the card, use as a reference to classification. d. Secondary Classification
a. Rolled Impression
b. Flat Impression 85. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern
c. Chance Impression appears on the middle finger and there are 12 ridge
d. Latent Impression counts, what will be the interpretation?
a. Ring
76. Chinese to use inked fingerprints of official documents b. Outer
and business transaction, fingerprint is called___ c. Inner
a. Ma Huang d. Middle
b. Hua Chi
c. Tegata 86. What are the three patterns involved in the secondary
d. Dactyloscopia classification (small-lettered group)?
a. Plain Whorl, Plain Arch, Ulnar Loop
77. Afis is a system for storing and recording of b. Plain Arch, Tented Arch, Radial loop
fingerprints for future reference. Afis means c. Accidental Whorl, Central Pocket Loop, Double Loop
a. Automatic fingerprint identification system Whorl
b. Automated fingerprint identification system d. None of these
c. Automatic fingerprint identifying system
d. Automated fingerprint identifying system 87. Consists of two separate loop formations, with two
separate and distinct sets of shoulders, and two deltas.
78. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in a. Spiral Loop
finger number 2 is plain whorl, what is the numerical value b. Central Pocket Loop
of that finger? c. Double Loop
a. 32 d. Plain Whorl
b. 8
c. 16 88. When the tracing ridge goes above or inside to the
d. 2 right delta and it has a ridge count of three (3) or more
intervening between the tracing ridge and the right delta
79. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or it is____.
slanting ridges flows against the little finger? a. Inner Whorl
a. Loop b. Outer Whorl
b. Radial Loop c. Middle Whorl
c. Ulnar Loop d. Meeting Whorl
d. Tented Arch
89. the first person to introduce Bertillonage into the
80. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the United States was___.
classification will be; 1000STARS a. William West
a. M 32 W MMM/ M 32 W MMM b. Will West
b. M 31 W MMM/ M 31 W MMM c. McClaughry
c. M 30 W MMM/ M 30 W MMM d. Alphonse Bertillon
d. None of these
90. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and
81. What is the major division if the left thumb has 17 delta appear which we are concerned in the classification
ridge count and the right thumb has 21 ridge count? process.
a. M/L a. Type lines
b. L/M b. Pattern Area
c. S/L c. Bifurcation
d. M/M d. Delta

82. In the Major Division, what table should be used for 91. In 1911, the state of illinois made the first criminal
the right thumb when the left thumb reaches 17 or more? conviction based solely upon fingerprint evidence. It was
a. Table No. 1 known as the first judicial ruling on such evidence in the
b. Table No. 3 case of_______.
c. Table No. 2 a. People vs corral
d. Table No. 4 b. People vs jennings
c. Lamble vs state
83. From the same division above, what is the d. State vs conners
interpretation when the ridge of the left thumb reaches
sixteen (16)? 92. What shall be the complete classification formula if the
a. Small right fingers are all radial loop, all with the ridge count of
b. Medium 10, and the left fingers are all amputated.

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a. 10 1 OII rR3r 10 10 M III RRR 10 2. Art or science that deals with the study of the principles
b. 10 S 1 rR3r 10 M M MMM 10 of photography, the preparation of the photographic
c. 10 S 1 OII rR3r 10 S 1 OII rR3R 10 evidence, and its application to police work.
d. 10 S 1 rR3r OII 10 S 1 rR3r OII 10 a. Police Photography
b. Forensic Photography
93. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the c. Digital Photography
symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary Classification? d. Photography
a. I
b. O 3. It is an electromagnetic energy that travels in a form of
c. M a wave with the speed of 186,000 miles per second.
d. L a. Light
b. Camera
94. The numerical value of the right thumb and right index c. Radio Waves
for purposes of primary classification is d. Lens
a. 16
b. 8 4. It is produced as energy made by action of some small
c. 4 particles such as electron and protons.
d. 2 a. Wave theory
b. Corpuscular theory
95. In deriving primary division, what shall be the c. Modified wave theory
numerical value assigned to a pair of whorl patterns d. Light theory
appearing 2 blocks after finger number 3.
a. 8 5. The condition of the sunlight where object in an open
b. 4 space cast a transparent or bluish shadow.
c. 2 a. Bright light
d. 1 b. Dull sunlight
c. Hazy sunlight
96. It is the Ridge counting of a Loop pattern that appears d. None of these
in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers of both hands.
a. Key Classification 6. It produces light by instantaneous electrical discharges
b. Major Classification between two electrodes in a gas filled glass bulb.
c. Final Classification a. Photo flood lamp
d. Sub-Secondary Classification b. Flash bulb
c. Electronic flash
97. The following are families of fingerprint pattern d. Fluorescent lamp
except.
a. Whorl 7. A special type of artificial lights that is capable of
b. Loop producing infrared radiation.
c. Arch a. Electronic flash
d. Accidental b. Infrared lamp
c. Ultra-violet lamp
98. He is a notorious gangster and a police character who d. Flash bulb
attempted to erase his fingerprint by burning it with acid.
a. Robert James Pitts 8. It is a type of light in which their wavelength are either
b. William West too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
c. Will West eye.
d. John Dillinger a. Black Light
b. Visible Light
99. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint science. c. Invisible Light
Which among the following is not included? d. Bright Sunlight
a. Principle of Individuality
b. Principle of Permanency 9. It is an important light in photography where its
c. Principle of Infallibility wavelength ranges from 700-1000 nanometers.
d. Principle of Validity a. Visible light
b. Ultra-violet light
100. What ridge divides itself into two or more branches c. Infrared lights
that meet to form the original figure? d. X-rays
a. Island Ridge
b. Lake Ridge 10. If the object is transparent, then the vibrations of the
c. Eyelet electrons are passed on to neighboring atoms through the
d. All of the foregoing bulk of the material and reemitted on the opposite side of
the object.
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY a. Hyper focal point
1. It is a derivative of two Greek words phos which means b. Absorbed
“light” and graphia meaning “write”. c. Transmitted
a. Police Photography d. Reflected
b. Forensic Photography
c. Digital Photography 11. What is considered as the utmost used of photography
d. Photography in police work?
a. For identification

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b. For preservation 21. It is a lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal
c. For record purpose of its negative material.
d. For court presentation a. Normal lens
b. Super wide angle lens
12. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which c. Wide angle lens
produced what secondary color of light? d. Long or Telephone lens
a. Magenta
b. Yellow 22. SPO2 Cardo with his team conducted a thorough
c. Cyan stakeout of a certain building in Hotel Sogo. In order to
d. Orange document all the movements of their subjects, they
applied the principles of photography with the aid of what
13. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography particular lens mechanism?
to_________. a. wide angle lens
a. record the image b. zoom lens
b. Exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights c. telephoto lens
c. makes the image visible d. fish eye lens
d. makes the image permanent
23. The inability of the lens to focus lines turning in
14. It is essentially carved piece of glass or transparent different direction for example a cross.
medium which either converge or diverge light rays a. Camera
passing through it to form an image. b. Lens
a. Camera c. Distortion
b. Lens d. Astigmatism
c. Astigmatism
d. Distortion 24. The diaphragm is placed behind of the lens, straight
lines near the edges tends to placed bend inwards.
15. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography? a. Barrel distortion
a. View finder type b. Mustache distortion
b. Single lens reflex (SLR) c. Distortion
c. Twin lens reflex (TLR) d. Pincushion distortion
d. Press/view camera
25. When the image formed a lens comes to a sharper
16. The bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or focus on curved surface than on a flat surface.
material. a. Curvature of field
a. Relative Aperture b. Coma
b. Absorption / Transmission c. Chromatic difference of magnification
c. Refraction d. Chromatic aberration
d. Reflection
26. Type of lenses which lens corrected for chromatic
17. A device used by early artists (centuries before Christ) aberration.
to display a scene on the wall of an otherwise-darkened a. Apochromatic lens
room so that it could be more-easily copied. b. Anastigmatic lens
a. Camera c. Achromatic lens
b. Camera Obscura d. Rapid rectilinear lens
c. Vintage Camera
d. Camera Lucida 27. The mechanical or electrical adjustments to make the
shutter open and the flash lamp reach the peak of its flash
18. A camera having two separate lenses of the same focal at the same time.
length - one for viewing and focusing; the other for a. Parallax Error
exposing the film. b. Flash Synchronization
a. Twin lens reflex camera c. Filter Factor
b. Single lens reflex camera d. Polar Screen Filters
c. View camera
d. Pinhole camera 28. It is located in the lens and is a set of leaf like piece
of metal that can change the size of the hole that lets in
19. A camera lens that is capable of taking photograph for light.
extreme close-up without the need attachment is called. a. Shutter
a. Zoom lens b. Lens
b. Telephoto lens c. Aperture
c. Wide angle lens d. Film holder
d. Micro lens
29. A form of over lapping thin metal leaves arranged in a
20. It is to reduce the possibility that any unwanted circle, it can be made to expand or contrast and thus to
angular rays of light may strike the lens from outside the admit into the camera greater and smaller amount of light.
picture area. a. Aperture
a. Negative lens b. Diaphragm
b. Positive lens c. Shutter
c. Spherical aberration d. Light tight box
d. Lens hood

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30. What refers to the film and photographic paper that is d. Scanning
composed of emulsion containing silver halides and
suspended in gelatin? 39. The process of removing unexposed silver halide
a. Photo Paper remaining in the emulsion after the first stage of
b. Film development of the latent image.
c. Silver Halides a. Stop bath
d. Sensitized Material b. Fixation
c. Development
31. A sheet or strip of celluloid or other materials that has d. Washing
been coated with a light-sensitive emulsion which, when
exposed to an optical image in a camera and chemically 40. Helps retard the action of the developing agent and
treated, gives negative or positive, black and white or remove the excess developer from the film, thus
colored photographs. preventing contamination of the fixing bath.
a. Exposure a. Fixing bath
b. Film b. Hardening rinse bath
c. Focusing c. Acid rinse bath
d. Parallax d. Water rinse bath

32. Type of film which is sensitive to blue and greens, but 41. The following are the essential parts of the camera
not to reds. EXCEPT:
a. Infrared a. Light Tight Box
b. Non-chormatic b. Lens
c. Orthochromatic c. Tripod
d. Panchromatic d. Shutter

33. It is made by passing light through the negative onto 42. It is the distance measured from the optical center of
a piece of paper that is coated with a light sensitive the lens is set to focus at infinite position. It is also known
emulsion very similar to film. as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will
a. Contact printing determine the size of an image and area of coverage of
b. Photographic print the lens
c. Camera a. Focal Length
d. Scanning b. Hyperfocal Distance
c. Depth of Field
34. A black and white films possess several characteristics d. Relative Aperture
such as speed, spectral and granularity. The speed will be
referring to the sensitivity of the film to light and the 43. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture
spectral is the sensitivity to ________________. is the indicator for light transmitting capability of the lens.
a. Film Speed Which lens opening will admit more light to pass through
b. Wavelength its medium?
c. Electromagnetic Energy a. f 2.8
d. all of these b. f 4
c. f 5.6
35. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal d. f 16
exposed film?
a. # 1 44. It is the main fixing agent that dissolves unexposed
b. # 3 silver halides.
c. # 2 a. Elon, Hydroquinone
d. # 4 b. Sodium Sulfate
c. Potassium Bromide
36. What photo paper according to its chemical content is d. Sodium Thiosulfate
best suited for police photography?
a. Silver Chloride paper 45. It is the process of eliminating unwanted portion of
b. Silver Bromide paper the negative during the enlarging process.
c. Silver Chlorobromide a. Cropping
d. Iodide paper b. Dodging
c. Vignetting
37. A type of photographic printing paper which have a d. Dye Toning
low speed emulsion containing silver chloride, fine grain
and produce deep blacks, and used for contact printing. 46. Laser light is also referred to as ______?
a. Chloride papers a. ultraviolet
b. Bromide papers b. concurrent
c. Chlorobromide papers c. visible
d. Variable contrast paper d. coherent

38. It is the process of making positive prints by placing a 47. A homogeneous medium which (transmit and /or
sheet of printing paper in direct contact with the negative, absorb) differentially wavelength of the electromagnetic
emulsion to emulsion. energy.
a. Contact printing a. Lens
b. Photographic print b. Focus
c. Camera c. Shutter

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d. Filter

48. It is where the image forms, consists of gelatin


containing light-sensitive crystals of silver halides.
a. Top Coat
b. Emulsion layer
c. Subbing layer b.
d. Support

49. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show


the extent damage on the subject?
a. General View
b. Medium View
c. Close-up shot
d. Extreme Close
c.

50. In taking photograph of evidence, what must be done?


a. Take photograph with measurements
b. Take photograph without measurements
c. Take photography without measurements, then with
measurements
d. Take photographs with measurements then without
measurements d.

51. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture 53. Hologram refers to a:
is the indicator of the light transmitting capability of the a. 1 dimensional image in a film.
lens. Which of the following lens opening will admit more b. 2- dimensional image in a film
light to pass through its medium? c. 3 – dimensional image in a film
d. 4 – dimensional image in a film

54. A convex lens is capable of________.


a. Reducing the object
b. Making the object appear hairy
c. Enlarging the object
a. d. Reducing the size of the picture

55. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny


or highly polished surfaced because it reduces or
eliminates glare is known as:
a. Neutral density
b. Color
b. c. Polarizing
d. Contrast filter

56. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave


theory of Huygens. What is that unit of light wavelength
which is express in ten millionth part of a millimeter.
a. Millimicron
c. b. Nanometer
c. Angstrom
d. Micron

57. A method of photography in which an image is digitally


encoded and stored for later reproduction.
a. Police Photography
d. b. Forensic Photography
c. Digital Photography
52. In photographing the scene of the crime, what view d. Photography
should be used in order to show the best feature of the
nature of the crime scene? 58. It is a light-tight box; with a lens to form an image
with a shutter and diaphragm to control the entry of the
image.
a. Astigmatism
b. Lens
c. Distortion
d. Camera
a.

59. It is something known as lateral spherical aberration.


It concerns with rays entering the lens obliquely.
a. Coma

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b. Curvature of field
c. Chromatic aberration 69. It can be used effectively when photographing blood
d. Chromatic difference of magnification in black and white.
a. Correction filter
60. The inability of the lens to focus all the color in some b. Contrast filter
place. c. Blue filters
a. Chromatic aberration d. Green Filter
b. Coma
c. Chromatic difference of magnification 70. This has little value in crime scene photography. A light
d. Astigmatism directly behind the subject creates a silhouette.
a. Back lighting
61. This means by which the object distance is estimated b. Side lighting
or calculated to form the image sharp. c. Front lighting
a. Lens Focus d. Freestyle lighting
b. Shutter
c. Filter 71. It is a type of artificial lights for photography which is
d. Range finder a reflectorized or spot light.
a. Photo flood lamp
62. A contraption placed on the path of the light which b. Flash bulb
passes through the lens. c. Electronic flash
a. Lens d. Fluorescent lamp
b. Focus
c. Shutter 72. Chemical lamps, as they generated light by the rapid
d. Filter combustion.
a. Photo flood lamp
63. Those intended to darken or lighten certain colors b. Flash bulb
which would be produced of the same brightness without c. Electronic flash
the use of such. d. Fluorescent lamp
a. Haze Filters
b. Neutral Density Filter 73. A classification of natural lights which objects in open
c. Contrast Filter space cast no shadow but objects at far distance are
d. Correction Filter clearly visible.
a. Cloudy bright
64. It provides a strong but flexible plastic (cellulose b. Bright
acetate) base for all the other component layers of the c. Dull
film. d. Cloudy dull
a. Top Coat
b. Emulsion layer 74. Type of camera without lens. An extremely small hole
c. Subbing layer takes its place, which should be in very thin material.
d. Support a. Box Camera
b. Folding-Roll Film Camera
65. It contains dye that prevents light from reflecting off c. Pinhole Camera
the support of the camera itself and back onto the d. Range Finder Camera
emulsion.
a. Anti-halation Backing 75. Type of camera normally fitted with a single-element
b. Second Adhesive layer lens, a limited range of aperture control, and a single-
c. Subbing layer speed leaf shutter.
d. Support a. Box Camera
b. Folding-Roll Film Camera
66. It is the product of illumination and time. It concern c. Pinhole Camera
with the two settings: the aperture and shutter speed. d. Range Finder Camera
a. Exposure
b. Film 76. A camera that has a mirror directly in the path of light
c. Focusing traveling through the lens that reflects the scene to a
d. Parallax viewing screen.
a. Box Camera
67. Through the range finder, the image of an straight line b. Reflex Camera
in the object appears to be cut into halves and separated c. Pinhole Camera
from each other of the when lens is not in focus. d. Range Finder Camera
a. Ground glass
b. Coincident image 77. Commonly refers to a point-and-shoot camera.
c. Split-image a. Single use camera
d. Range finder b. Viewfinder camera
c. Instant Camera
68. It is universally used as the medium that hold the d. Compact camera
crystals in emulsion.
a. Gray or anti-halation backing 78. It is called as the main part of the camera.
b. Gelatin a. Shutter
c. Base b. Lens
d. Emulsion Layer c. The aperture

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d. Body d. Projecting

79. The place in a camera where the film is located in 88. It is considered as the presence of all lights.
readiness for it to be exposed to light. a. Black Light
a. Film plane b. White Light
b. Lens c. Blue Light
c. The aperture d. Light Bulb
d. Body
89. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass
80. It is a lens setting technique that allows you to shoot through them that the object on the other side may be
sharp pictures within a certain distance range without clearly seen.
having to refocus. a. Transparent
a. Hyper focal point b. Translucent
b. Hyper focal distance c. Opaque
c. Transmitted d. Filter
d. Reflected
90. TWO successive crest or through of wave and it is
81. If the object is opaque, then the vibrations of the expressed in either Millimicron (Nanometer) or Angstrom.
electrons are not passed from atom to atom through the a. Light year
bulk of the material is so called? b. Frequency
a. Hyper focal point c. Light Wavelength
b. Absorbed d. Light Volume
c. Transmitted
d. Reflected 91. It is a light source in which it already comes to
existence and is created by the divine providence without
82. This lens is usually found in simple or box camera. It the intervention of humanity.
is uncorrected lens and therefore suffers from inherent a. Artificial Light
defects of lenses. b. Sunlight
a. Rapid rectilinear lens c. Divine Light
b. Simple meniscus lens d. Natural Light
c. Anastigmatic lens
d. Achromatic lens 92. It is an artificial light describes as containing wire
filaments that connects them which sustains the electrical
83. It has a better color correction and has the ability to charge that combines them.
produce the best definition of image in the photographs. a. Photoflood Lamp
a. Process lens b. Fluorescent Lamp
b. Fixed focus lens- short focal length, greater dOP c. Incandescent Bulb
c. Achromatic lens d. Flash Bulb
d. Simple meniscus lens
93. In modern photography, DSLR cameras almost
84. Type of film which is sensitive to all colors and are dominated the market because of its superior
further subdivided according to their degree of sensitivity autofocusing on fast moving objects, such as
to each color. photographing sports. DSLR means______.
a. Infrared a. digital single lens reflex
b. Non-chromatic b. digital systematic lens reflex
c. Orthochromatic c. dual system lens reflex
d. Panchromatic d. digital single low reflex

85. It combines the contrast ranges in one paper; this 94. It is an inherent lens aberration wherein the lens has
versatility is achieved with special chlorobromide emulsion an inability to focus light passing through it and producing
that produces varying contrast responses upon exposure an image that is sharp in the center and blurred at the
to different colored light. side.
a. Chloride papers a. Spherical Aberration
b. Bromide papers b. Coma
c. Chlorobromide papers c. Chromatic Aberration
d. Variable contrast paper d. Flare

86. It is the process of making positive prints by projecting 95. This effect causes images to be spherized which
the negative image onto photosensitive paper. means the edges of images look curved and bowed to the
a. Contact printing human eye.
b. Photographic print a. pincushion distortion
c. Projection printing b. spherical aberration
d. Cropping c. barrel distortion
d. wavy field Curvature
87. Also known as “Printing in” where it provides an extra
exposure to an area of the print to make it darker, while 96. What lens system of the camera reflects the light
blocking light from the rest of the print. passing the lens and mirror making the image possible to
a. Dodging be viewed from the viewfinder?
b. Burning* a. pentaprism
c. Cropping b. shutter

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c. condenser later confronted, she confessed that she had just made up
d. Filter and concocted a story to get back at her boss for his mean
behavior towards her. The preceding illustration would
97. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a give us the condition that-
photograph, he is actually __________light rays or color a. A laboratory examination is material to exonerate the
from the light to reach the film. innocent or eliminate the not guilty in the criminal
a. adding investigation
b. multiplying b. A laboratory examination as in case will determine
c. subtracting whether a suspect is guilty or not guilty
d. Dividing c. A laboratory examination as in case of polygraph will
substitute for effective criminal investigation
98. The abbreviation of “LASER” means? d. To prove the crime has been committed, an investigator
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation has to rely on laboratory to establish the guilt.
b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Ray
c. Light Amplify by Stimulation Emission of Radiation 6. In order for evidence to maintain its integrity and
d. Light Amplification by Stimulation Emitted of Radiation admissibility in court of law, strict adherence to principles,
rules and accountability must be observed and must be
99. What is the correct sequence of sensitivity of the three established to show where, when and how an item or
emulsion layers of color film? evidence was collected showing its entire history. Starting
a. red- green- blue from its initial discovery, collection, packaging, handling,
b. blue- green- red transportation, examination, storage and presentation in
c. green- red- blue court. This process is simply known as:
d. blue- red- green a. Proper handling of evidence with care and disposition
of evidence
100. It is the process of omitting an object during the b. Custody transfer evidence
process of enlarging and printing. c. Chain of custody
a. Dodging d. DO’s and DON’T’s in handling evidence
b. Vignetting
c. Cropping 7. An individual who, through their examination of
d. Burning in evidence, characterizes and identifies blood and body
fluids.
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY a. Chemist
b. biologist
1. A forensic chemist can be called in as an expert witness c. criminalist
in a court of law by virtue of the following qualifications d. serologist
EXCEPT;
a. Education 8. States that once contact is made between two surfaces
b. Training a transfer of materials will occur.
c. Experience a. Bertillonage principle
d. Knowledge of human behavior b. Galton’s details
c. Gross principle
2. The following are the golden rules in the practice of d. Locard’s exchange principle
chemistry except;
a. Go slowly 9. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
b. Be thorough body.
c. Take notes a. Fingerprint
d. NOTA b. Odontology
c. Skeletal Identification
3. A French criminologist, the father of modern forensics d. Photography
and he established the world’s first crime laboratory in
Lyons, France (1910) 10. Are articles and materials which are found in
a. Cesare Lombroso connection with an investigation and which aid in
b. Hans Gross establishing the identity of the perpetrator of the
c. Edmund Locard circumstances under which the crime was committed or
d. Alphonse Bertillon which in general assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. testimonial evidence
4. This means any organic material originating from a b. circumstantial evidence
person’s body, even if found in inanimate objects, that is c. witness
susceptible to DNA testing. d. physical evidence
a. Chiroscopy
b. Latent 11. Below are the roles of the forensic chemist in the
c. Patent scientific criminal investigation, except:
d. Biological sample a. Determining whether or not a place/ location is a
clandestine laboratory
5. A store clerk claimed that she was sexually assaulted b. Examination of marked bills/ suspects during
by her store manager after closing of store hours. She tells entrapment (extortion case)
the investigators that she was drugged, passed out and c. Taking paraffin test.
then awoke to discover that she was sexually abused. d. Filing the case in court
When the police analyzed her urine samples the result did
not indicate the presence of any type of drugs. When the 12. An average man has _____ amount of blood

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a. 6 meters 22. The following are the importance of the study of blood
b. 6 quartz except,
c. 5 gallon a. For disputed parentage
d. 1 drum b. As circumstantial
c. As conclusive evidence
13. This test for blood may be made by the policeman on d. As corroborative evidence
the crime scene.
a. Preliminary test 23. This kind of projected bloodstain pattern is usually
b. Secondary Test caused by blood from an internal injury mixing with air
c. Teichman Test from the lungs being expelled through the nose, mouth or
d. Drug Test an injury to the airways or lungs. It tends to form a very
fine mist due to the pressure exerted by the lungs moving
14. This type of test is very delicate and never fails to air out of the body. Small air bubbles in the drops of blood
detect blood. are typically found in this type of spatter.
a. Preliminary test a. Expirated spatter
b. Benzidine Test b. Arterial Spurt
c. Nakayama test c. cast-off
d. Teichman Test d. gunshot spatter

15. If in the application of benzidine test to the blood it 24. Police Capt. X conducts a test that will possibly identify
gives blue color in phenolphalein test it give what color? blood or determines whether the blood stains really
a. Red contained blood. This test is called?
b. Blue a. Precipitin test
c. Pink b. confirmatory test
d. Black c. blood grouping test
d. preliminary test
16. The following are the confirmatory test for blood
except; 25. Which of the following test for blood the can give dark
a. Microscopic test brown rhombic crystals of haemin?
b. Benzidine test a. Teichmann test
c. Microchemical test b. Leucomalachite green test
d. Spectroscopic test c. Luminol test
d. Benzidine test
17. This examination for blood is the most dilcate and
reliable test for determining the presence of blood in both 26. Who discovered the blood grouping through a
old and recent stains. technique known as ablution elution technique?
a. Microscopic test a. Leon lattes
b. Spectroscopic test b. Karl Landsteiner
c. Microchemical test c. Rudolf Virchow
d. Teichman d. Victor balthazard

18. It refers to the clear liquid of blood that separates 27. Determines whether blood is a human or non-human
when the blood is allowed to clot. origin, and if non-human, the specific animal family from
a. Cells which it originated.
b. Serum a. benzidine test
c. WBC b. precipitin test
d. Platelets c. confirmatory test
d. preliminary test
19. Blood is red in color due to the presence of?
a. Bacteria 28. This preliminary blood test will result to a blue color.
b. Serum a. Precipitin Test
c. Hemoglobin b. Guaiacum Test
d. Platelets c. Takayama Test
d. Teichman Test
20. 55% of blood of human is composed of?
a. Plasma 29. It refers to the fluids produced by the male sex organ
b. Serum a. Semen
c. WBC b. Testes
d. RBC c. Testoseterone
d. Vagina
21. Is the amount of blood found in the crime scene can
determine the length of time that the victim survived the 30. It is a condition especially to very young men that
attack? there is a presence of semen without spermatozoa.
a. Yes, because when person is dead blood pressure falls a. Aspermia
to zero and bleeding ceases b.Oligospermia
b. No, it depends on the wound of the victim c. STD
c. It depends upon the situation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
31. What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a single
ejaculated.

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a. 1.5-3.5 cc d. any of these
b. 2.5-4.5 cc
c. 2.5- 5cc 41. It is a super cooled liquid which possesses high
d. 3.5- 5cc viscosity and rigidity
a. Carbon
32. A method of choice for the detection of occult (usually b. Glass
not noticeable to the naked eye) blood at a crime scene c. Fracture
that was cleaned up or escaped detection for extended d. None of the above
periods of time.
a. barberio’s test 42. The two types of glass fractures are?
b. benzidine test a. Radial and Ulnar fractures
c. moulage b. Radial and Concentric fractures
d. luminol test c. Concentric and emetic fractures
d. Plain and one-way fractures
33. The following are the chemical examination for semen
and seminal stain, except. 43. Forensic evidence usually overlooked by the
a. Florence test investigators in the scene of the crime known as matters
b. Acid phosphatase test in the wrong place is:
c. Barberio’s test a. flammable substance
d. Benzidine test b. Impressions
c. dust and dirt
34. Blood that is directed back toward its source of energy. e. smoke
It is often associated with gunshot wounds of entrance.
a. front spatter 44. A branch of science that treats of the form and
b. blood typing quantity of medicine to be administered within a certain
c. cyanosis period
d. back spatter a. toxicology
b. serology
35. Which evidence offers strongest resistance to c. biology
decomposition? d. Posology
a. semen
b. urine 45. In what mode of administration that poison can be
c. hair absorbed rapidly?
d. blood a. oral
b. anal
36. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined c. inhalation
to determine if it was _______. d. injection
a. bend
b. folded 46. Process of eliminating poison by causing production of
c. stretched sweat.
d. cut a. SUDORIFICS
b. DIURETICS
37. Is the relationship between the diameter of the c. EMETIC
medulla and the diameter of the whole hair? Its d. all of the above
determination is performed under a microscope with
micrometer eyepiece. 47. Are agents that makes the poison harmless by
a. medullary index chemically altering it, it inhibits the action of poison by
b. medullar radius forming harmless or insoluble compounds or by oxidizing
c. medullary ratio poison when brought into contact with them.
d. none of these a. Physical Antidotes
b. Mechanical antidotes
38. What part of the hair can DNA be best found? c. Chemical Antidotes
a. Shaft d. Physiological antidotes
b. Tip
c. Root 48. This test is used to determine the presence of nitrates,
d. Cuticle or whether a person has fired a gun or not.
a. paraffin test
39. Fiber is the smallest textile. There are two divisions of b. walker’s test- for gunshot residue on clothing
fiber these are? c. ignition test
a. Animal and Plant d. van urk test
b. Human and Plant
c. Animal and Human 49. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of
d. Artificial and Natural serial numbers?
a. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
40. A class of fibers of vegetable (e.g., cotton, flax, ramie), b. colloidal magnesium
animal origin (e.g., silk, wool, and specially fur), or mineral c. etching solution
origin (e.g., asbestos). d. borax solution
a. artificial
b. synthetic 50. The amount of blood alcohol considered dangerous to
c. natural fibers life is –

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a. 5.0% individual stains, with a new pattern created for each time
b. 0.15% the heart pumps
c. 2.5% a. Expirated spatter
d. 0.05% b. cast-off
c. Arterial Spurt
51. This reagent produces a blue flaky precipitate in the d. gunshot spatter
presence of cocaine. The test is not reliable as many other
drugs and diluents respond in the same manner. 61. ___ was the 1st poison for which the analytical test
a. Marquis Test called a Marsh test was developed by british chemist
b. Dillie Koppanyi Test James Marsh
c. Cobalt Thiocyanate Test a. Arsenic
d. Duquenois- Levine Test b. Atropine
c. Acetic Acid
52. Red Blood Cells contains antigen or the so called? d. acetone
a. Lanstenier
b. Agglutinogen 62. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified
c. Precipition when DPA solution is used and the visible result is
d. Agglutination a. Blue specs with tailing
b. Bluish florescence
53. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B c. Green specs
has a reaction or clump with the sample blood,the blood d. Orange specs
group is?
a. Group B 63. Barberio test if positive will give what color?
b. Group AB a. Dark Brown
c. Group O b. Blue
d. Group A c. Red Orange
d. Yellow
54. It is the major component of a glass.
a. lime 64. Mr. Choypapi was caught stealing the personal
b. soda belongings of Mr. Palambing particularly a pale of paint.
c. silica When Mr. Choypapi fled together with the stolen item, he
d. gel did not notice that there was a hole in the pale that causes
continues dropping of the paint. These drops of paint are
55. If blood is positive in the application of benzidine test, example of physical evidence which can be considered
it gives what color? as…
a. Red a. Corpus Delicti Evidence
b. Blue b. Associative evidence
c. Green c. Tracing evidence
d. Black d. None of these

56. Phenolphtalein test is also know as? 65. The outer covering of the hair is called?
a. Kastle-meyer test a. Cuticle
b. Nakayama test b. Cortex
c. Drug test c. Medulla
d. Sugar test d. Shaft

57. 90% of plasma is composed of? 66. In the examination, the examiner found out the
a. Serum presence of nitrites after diphenylamine reagent added
b. Water and the color turns to blue. Therefore, it was fired when?
c. Platelets a. It was fired not recently
d. RBC b. It was not fired
c. It was fired recently
58. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere. d. It cannot be distinguished
a. Red
b. Clay 67. The following are the accurate tests for the presence
c. Reddish-brown of alcohol in the human body, except.
d. Black a. Saliva test
b. Fecal test
59. What is the type of bloodspatter wherein the blood of c. Breath Analyzer test
the victim is ejected from the exit wound and travels in d. Blood test
the same direction as the bullet?
a. forward spatter 68. The art of extracting and working on metals by the
b. backspatter application of chemical and physical knowledge.
c. bleeding a. Metallography
d. everted b. Etching
c. Metallurgy
60. This refers to the spurt of blood released when a major d. Petrography
artery is severed. The blood is propelled out of the
breached blood vessel by the pumping of the heart and 69. This is known as the circulating tissue of the body.
often forms an arcing pattern consisting of large, a. Blood

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b. Plasma consist typically of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder
c. Serum used in fireworks is one example of this.
d. Fibrinogen a. high explosives
b. low explosives
70. The crowning glory a woman is her hair. What is the c. bomb
coloring pigment of the hair? d. urea nitrate
a. Pheomelanin
b. Neuromelanin 79. A common class of microscopic evidence. They are
c. Hemoglobin classified as animal, vegetable, mineral, or natural,
d. Melanin manufactured, or synthetic.
a. fibers
71. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the b. hair
hair and is composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils c. dirt
that cohere? They contain pigment granules in varying d. skin
proportion depending on the type of hair.
a. medulla 80. This is a property possessed by various substances
b. cortex that glow when exposed to light of a short wavelength.
c. core The phenomenon in which some substances absorb light
d. cuticle and re-emit part of it as light of a longer wavelength.
a. light
72. A dose that would produce death if not immediately b. infrared
treated to any one it comes in contact with. c. fluorescence
a. Safe dose d. brightness
b. Minimum dose
c. Lethal dose 81. The act of detecting scent, generally by respiration,
d. Maximum dose transmitting impulses from the mucous membranes in the
upper part of the nose via the olfactory nerve to the
73. Refers to any agent that neutralizes poison and its forebrain, where the information is translated into
effects perceived odor.
a. Emetics a. gustation
b.Antidotes b. visual
c. Antibiotics c. auditory
d. Alkaloids d. olfaction

74. Which among the following exhibits bluish 82. The value of an aqueous solution is a number
fluorescence when exposed to ultra violet light? describing its acidity or alkalinity. A number used to
a. Urine represent the acidity or alkalinity of an aqueous solution.
b. Semen a. pH
c. Saliva b. centimeters
d. Blood c. f-stop
d. grams
75. This means any organic material originating from a
person’s body, even if found in inanimate objects, that is 83. A test for marijuana in which positive result is shown
susceptible to DNA testing. by purple color in the chloroform layer.
a. Chiroscopy a. Marquis Test
b. Latent b. Dillie Koppanyi Test
c. Patent c. Van Urk Test
d. Biological sample d. Duquenois- Levine Test

76. If a person habitually drinks alcoholic beverages there 84. Persons with blood alcohol below ____ are not
develops a certain degree of adaptation by the body, considered intoxicated.
thereby increasing the body threshold to it. Later, greater a. 10%
quantity and percentage will be tolerated and will lead to b. 0.05%
the diminution of its effects. c. 0.15%
a. addiction d. 100%
b. habituation
c. tolerance 85. The measured amount of a chemical that is
d. punch drunkenness administered at one time, or that an organism is exposed
to in a defined period of time.
77. _________________is probably the most widely a. dosage
accepted way to determine the concentration of alcohol in b. weight
the body. It is a direct method of estimation although the c. grams
subject may refuse blood extraction for such analysis. d. amount
a. analysis of the breath
b. analysis of urine 86. Highly irritant substance that causes local distraction
c. analysis of the blood of tissues and characterized by nausea, vomiting and
d. analysis of the stool great local distress.
a. irritant poisons
78. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, b. tetanic poisons
but sub sonically meaning that they “deflagrate.” They c. corrosive poisons

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d. antidote
87. These are also called blasting agents. They are so 96. There is prompt and marked disturbance of function
insensitive to shock that they cannot be reliably or death within a short period of time. It is due either by
detonated. taking a strong poison in excessive single dose or several
a. primary explosive doses at short interval.
b. secondary explosive a. Acute poisoning
c. tertiary explosive b. Sub-acute poisoning
d. explosive c. Chronic poisoning
d. Suicidal poisoning
88. It refers to a substance which relieves or reduces
fever. 97. A hallucinogenic drug, also considered a club drug,
a. serum that is abused among juveniles and young adults taking
b. laxative-evacuation of testinal contents part in parties or ‘raves’. It is used as an animal
c. antipyretic anaesthetic, and the only illicit source of the drug is
d. emetic through theft, mostly from veterinary clinics.
a. MDMA
89. This is one of the byproducts of complete combustion b. cannabis
of the gunpowder and other elements with the propellant. c. LSD
It is light, almost black, and lack sufficient force to d. ketamine
penetrate the skin. It is merely deposited on the target
and readily wiped off. 98. A high explosive used commercially and in the military.
a. tattooing The chemical name for the compound is
b. powder burns cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine, and it is also known as
c. smoke ‘cyclonite’ and ‘hexogen’.
d. blood a. dynamite
b. Molotov cocktail
90. Poisonous fluid secreted by animals such as snakes c. RDX
and scorpions and typically injected into prey or d. grenade
aggressors by biting or stinging.
a. Tetanus 99. It is a confirmation test used to detect blood spots.
b. venom Based on the research results this test can still be used to
c. toxin identify dried blood spots on clothing aged 20 years, and
d. poison able to detect positively the presence of blood with the
formation of pink/ salmon- colored crystals.
91. The following are the microchemical tests for blood, a. Takayama test
except: b. Teichmann’s test
a. Teichmann Hemin Reaction/Teichman Test/Haemin c. Barberio’s test
Crystal Test d. guaiacum test
b. Haemochromogen Crystal Test Or Takayama Test
c. Acetone-Haemin Test 100. The following are the four stages of work of a forensic
d. none of the above chemist, except:
a. Collection or reception of the specimen or evidence to
92. This is the act of drawing in of air, vapor or gas and be examined
any suspended particulates into the lung. b. The actual examination of the specimen
a. exhalation c. Communication of results of the examinations
b. perspiration d. Deciding the outcome of the examinations
c. inhalation
d. oxygen FORENSIC BALLISTICS
1. It is the science that deals with the motion, behavior,
93. This is the ability to withstand the effect of various and effects of projectiles.
factors including potentially toxic substances. a. Motion
a. strength b. Ballistics
b. perseverance c. Projectiles
c. resistance d. Science
d. super powers
2. The word “Ballistics” comes from the Greek Words
94. Action of a drug other than that desired for beneficial “ballo” or “ballein” which means ___________.
pharmacological effect. a. To Punch
a. lethal dose b. To throw
b. toxification c. To slide
c. side-effect d. To Shoot
d. addiction
3. The following are the branches of ballistics except:
95. For cocaine abusers, this is the feeling as if grains of a. Interior Ballistics
sand are lying under the skin or small insects (cocaine b. Exterior Ballistics
bugs) are creeping on the skin. c. Forensic Ballistics
a. insect syndrome d. International Ballistics
b. hallucination
c. agglutination
d. magnan’s symptom

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4. Treats of the motion of projectile after leaving the c. Fouling
muzzle of the gun barrel. It refers to the attributes and d. Target lock
movements of the bullet after it has left the gun muzzle.
a. Interior Ballistics 14. A types of ammunition where its cartridge without
b. Exterior Ballistics bullet containing gunpowder that is designed to generate
c. Forensic Ballistics a loud noise to indicate firing.
d. International Ballistics a. Dummy
b. Drill
5. It is the science of firearms identification by means of c. Blank
the ammunition fired through them. d. Live
a. Interior Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics 15. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to a
c. Forensic Ballistics group of cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge.
d. Terminal Ballistics What is now a cartridge?
a. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup,
6. It is the sound created at the muzzle end of the barrel priming mixture, and the anvil
of the firearm after the explosion. b. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge
a. Muzzle blast case, gunpowder and primer
b. Muzzle energy c. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove,
c. Trajectory shell head, and the crimp
d. Penetration d. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the base.

7. So called as the speed of the bullet. 16. What is the type of cartridge in which the ignition cap
a. Velocity (primer) is concealed inside the cartridge case and has a
b. Air resistance pin resting upon it.
c. Penetration a. flint-lock
d. Range b. pin-fire
c. rim-fire
8. The downward movement of the bullet target. d. center fire
a. Velocity
b. Pull of gravity 17. It is a type of motion of a projectile wherein the action
c. Air resistance of the bullet travelling passing through the rifled barrel is
d. Range either twisted to the left or to the right.
a. Direct Motion
9. It refers to a group of cartridge or to a single unit of b. Rotatory Motion
cartridges. c. Translational Motion
a. Bullet d. Motion to Quash
b. Ammunition
c. Projectiles 18. It is called as the distance between the firearm and
d. Cartridge case the target.
a. Velocity
10. It is a mixture of chemicals of various compositions b. Air resistance
designed to propel the projectile and is also known as c. Penetration
propellant or power charge. d. Range
a. Bullet
b. Priming mixture 19. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control
c. Gunpowder of shot where the bullet travel straight.
d. Chemicals a. Maximum Range
b. Maximum Effective Range
11. Known as the oldest explosive and the most dangerous c. Accurate Range
explosive to handle and store because it can be easily d. Effective Range
ignited by heat.
a. Gunpowder 20. It is called as the actual pattern or the curved path of
b. Black powder the bullet in flight.
c. Smokeless powder a. Muzzle blast
d. White powder b. Muzzle energy
c. Trajectory
12. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, d. Penetration
but sub sonically meaning that they “deflagrate.” They
consist typically of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder 21. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its
used in fireworks is one example of this. normal path after striking a resistant surface.
a. high explosives a. Misfire
b. low explosives b. Mushroom
c. bomb c. Ricochet
d. urea nitrate d. Key hole shot

13. This means that the bullet during its flight towards the 22. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time
target rotates on its axis and hit the target nosed on. or delayed in firing?
a. Gyroscopic stability a. Knocking Power
b. Gyroscopic mobility b. Hang fire

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c. Recoil 31. Another portion of the recoil action characterized as
d. None of these the backward and upward movement of that takes place
before the bullet leaves the muzzle.
23. In the terminal ballistics, It refers to the size of the a. recoil
bullet groupings on the target. b. energy generated
a. Terminal penetration c. muzzle blast
b. Terminal velocity d. jump
c. Terminal energy
d. Terminal accuracy 32. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
a. Trajectory
24. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert b. Yaw
examination of firearms, bullets and shells that would c. Velocity
determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired from d. Gyroscopic action
a particular firearm, and whether or not a particular shell
is loaded and ejected from the same firearm and it is 33. It is the term given when the bullet has been lodged
conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase of forensic and remained in the body.
ballistics best describes the statement? a. Bullet migration
a. Field investigation b. Bullet souvenir
b. Technical examination c. Bullet embolism
c. Legal proceedings d. Bullet proof
d. None of the above
34. It refers to two or more bullets that leave the barrel
25. What is the hole at the bottom of the primer pocket one after the other.
as the passage way for the priming mixture to impart an a. Tandem bullet
ignition to the propellant charge? b. Dual bullet
a. body c. Bullet embolism
b. vent or flash hole d. Bullet migration
c. shoulder
d. cannelure 35. Are made of lead alloy of this metal, lead, tin,
antimony which are slightly harder than pure lead.
26. A cartridge case is a metallic or non-metallic container a. Lead
that holds the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into one b. Jacketed
or otherwise known as the shell or casing. What does the c. Ball
cartridge case made up of? d. Tracer
a. 30% copper and 70% zinc
b. 40% nitroglycerine and 60% nitrocellulose 36. The most important single process in a barrel
c. 70% copper and 30% zinc manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
d. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal, and 10% sulfur expert is:
a. reaming operation
27. What is the bottom portion of the cartridge case which b. rifling operation
contains the head stamp marking on the base of the shell c. lapping operation
containing the caliber, manufacturer and in some cases d. drilling operation
including the date, trade name, and batch number?
a. rim 37. The brass gilding metal cup which contains the priming
b. extracting grooves mixture, the disc and the anvil.
c. primer pocket a. Priming Mixture
d. base b. Disc
c. Anvil
28. It refers to the bullets or slugs propelled. d. Primer Cup
a. Motion
b. Ammunition 38. The priming mixture (composing of the KCLO3, sulfur
c. Projectiles and carbon) located either at the cavity rim or at the
d. Ballistics center of the primer upon the striking effect of the firing
pin will ignite and such action is known as ….
29. What is the hole drilled into the barrel of the firearm a. explosion
through which the bullet travels when fire? b. Muzzle blast
a. Tubules c. percussion action
b. rifling d. ignition
c. bore
d. ricochet 39. What is the distance measured between two opposite
lands inside the bore in a hundredths or thousandths of
30. A pointed, flat base bullet with a gilding metal jacket an inch? It is diameter to which the bore was reamed.
used for light vehicle? a. gauge
a. Tracer bullet b. millimeter
b. Fragmentary bullet c. caliber
c. Armor piecing bullet d. bore diameter
d. Incendiary bullet
40. What is the part of the cartridge designed to limit the
forward movement of the cartridge to chamber?
a. rim

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b. primer pocket 50. What is the mark generally found at the base portion
c. extracting grooves of the cartridge case more specifically near center of the
d. base primer cup in a center fire cartridge or at the rim cavity of
a rim-fire cartridge?
41. What should be the classification of a shell when the a. Firing Pin Mark
diameter of the rim is larger than the diameter of the b. Extractor Mark
shell’s body? c. Ejector mark
a. Belted type d. Chamber Mark
b. Rimless case
c. Rebated type 51. Marks are generally found on the bullet through a
d. Rimmed case loose-fit barrel and where the rifling is already badly worn
out.
42. According to the diameter of the base or rim of the a. Shearing marks
cartridge cases, which is common to revolver and shot gun b. Shaving marks
cartridges? c. Stripping marks
a. Diameter is greater than the body d. Slippage marks
b. presence of extracting grooves
c. Diameter of rim is equal to the body 52. It is use to obtain test bullets and test shells.
d. Made of brass case a. Bullet Recovery box
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
43. This refers to the classification of firearms wherein it c. Analytical or Torsion Balance
has no rifling inside their gun barrel. d. chronograph
a. Rifled Bore Firearm
b. Smooth Bore Firearms 53. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at
c. Machine guns the crime scene?
d. Shotguns a. Picking it through the handle
b. Picking it through the barrel
44. It is an ancient smoothbore and loading shoulder arms c. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger
designed to fire a shot or a single round lead ball. guard
a. Shotgun d. Inserting a rod at the barrel
b. Rifle
c. Carbine 54. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
d. Musket a. inverted edge
b. bigger size
45. This refers to the firearms that propels projectile with c. protrusion of tissue
more than one (1) inch in diameter. d. no definite shape
a. Artillery
b. Small Arms 55. What instrument is used in measuring the velocity of
c. Rifles the bullet?
d. Carbine a. Calipher
b. Torsion Balance
46. It is a barrel construction of a shotgun in which there c. Helixometer
is a diminishing bore diameter towards its muzzle. d. Chronograph
a. Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun
b. Choke Bore type shotgun 56. Under factors in Terminal Ballistics, what do you call
c. Paradox Type Shotgun this one?
d. Single Barrel Shotgun

47. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of


cartridge stored in the handle are called.
a. Pistols
b. Revolver
c. Self-loading pistol
d. Automatic Firearm
a. Terminal Energy
48. It is a type of firearm designed to fire several loads b. Maximum effective range
(shot) in one loading. c. Muzzle Energy
a. Single Shot Firearms d. Effective range
b. Repeating Firearms
c. Double Action 57. What is the appearance of a test bullet inside a bullet
d. Single recovery box?

49. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are


determinable even before the manufacture of the firearm?
a. Class Characteristics
b. Individual Characteristics
c. Repetitive mark
d. accidental mark

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moisture causing the formation of rust in the bore of the
firearm.
a. Corrosive
b. Non-corrosive
c. Berdan primer
d. Boxer primer

65. It refers to the study of projectile penetration on


tissue.
a. a. Ballistic
b. Wound ballistic
c. Motion
d. Biology

66. It is a substance that contains a great amount of


stored energy that can produce an explosion.
a. Bomb
b. b. Grenade
c. Explosive
d. Gunshot

67. The following are the stages in the manufacture of


barrel except:
a. Drilling
b. Reaming
c. Lifting
c.
d. Rifling
58. It refers to the movement of the projectiles.
68. This is the polishing operation in which a lead plug
a. Motion
closely fitting the inside of the barrel is drawn back and
b. Ballistics
forth on a rod carrying with is a polishing compound.
c. Projectiles
a. Rifling
d. Science
b. Reaming
c. Lapping
59. It refers to the bullets or slugs propelled.
d. Drilling
a. Motion
b. Ammunition
69. A firearm which fires and reloads on a single pull of
c. Projectiles
the trigger so that the weapon is ready to be fired with
d. Ballistics
the next pull of the trigger.
a. Air riffle
60. This extends from the “breech” to the “muzzle” of the
b. Autoloading
gun. In involves all reactions that take place while the
c. Breedblock
bullet is still in the gun.
d. Ballistics
a. Interior Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics
70. A part of a firearm barrel where the cartridges are
c. Forensic Ballistics
placed into position for firing.
d. International Ballistics
a. Choke
b. Bore
61. Treats the effects of the impact of the bullet towards
c. Caliber
the target.
d. Chamber
a. Interior Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics
71. It is a means of safely stopping a bullet in flight when
c. Forensic Ballistics
recovery is not the objectives.
d. Terminal Ballistics
a. Barrel swaging
b. Bullet trap
62. It is an air encountered by the bullet in flight.
c. Blank cartridge
a. Velocity
d. Bullet efficiency
b. Air resistance
c. Pull of gravity
72. Special form of bullet migration when the bullet loses
d. Range
its momentum while inside the chamber of the heart.
a. Souvenir Bullet
63. It has soft lead cores inside a jacket and is use against
b. Tandem Bullet
personnel only.
c. Bullet Migration
a. Jacketed
d. Bullet embolism
b. Lead
c. Tracer
73. The sealing or prevention of gunpowder gas after
d. Ball
explosion from escaping so as to maintain high pressure
in the firing chamber thereby increasing the propulsive
64. Types of printing mixture compound that contains
power on the bullet.
potassium chlorate which when ignited it produce
a. Obturation

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b. Tandem Bullet c. vent or flash hole
c. Bullet Migration d. cannelure
d. Bullet embolism
82. What kind of primer has two flashholes?
74. Any person, legal entity, corporation, partnership or a. Berdan
business duly licensed by the FEO of the PNP to engage in b. Boxer
the business of repairing firearms and other weapons or c. Hiram
constructing or assembling firearms and weapons from d. Edward
finished or manufactured parts thereof on a per order
basis and not in commercial quantities or of making minor 83. A type of military bullet capable of leaving visible
parts for the purpose of repairing or assembling said marks or traces while in flight giving the gunner the
firearms or weapons. chance to observe the strike of the shot or make
a. Licensed citizen adjustments in the event of a miss
b. Gunsmith a. ball type
c. Authorized person b. Incendiary Bullet
d. Gun club c. Armor Piercing
d. Tracer Bullet
75. The term ballistics is also said to have been derived
from the Roman war machine called ___________ a 84. A type of bullet, which is intended for anti-personnel
gigantic catapult that was used to furl missiles or large and general use.
object at a distance like stone, dead animal or even dead a. ball type
person. b. Armor Piercing
a. ballo c. Incendiary Bullet
b. ballista d. Explosive Bullet
c. ballum
d. ballor 85. Rifling having (4) lands and grooves, right twist, the
width of the grooves is two (2) times the width of the lands
76. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior (4RG2X).
surface of the bore. a. Carbine Type
a. swaging b. Colt
b. ogive c. Smith and Wesson
c. rifling d. Steyer Type
d. breaching
86. The following are the advantages of using cartridges,
77. Where does police officer usually put markings on the except
recovered fired cartridge or shell? a. greatly speeded the loading of weapons
a. will not mark b. avoided waste of powder from spillage
b. at the rim c. soldiers carry with them a bag of powder and the ball
c. at the side of the body bullets to battles every time
d. at the base d. provided a uniform charge from shot to Shot

78. What is the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws a 87. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure
cartridge or cartridge case from the chamber of a firearm by?
a. extractor a. Gauge
b. ricochet b. Caliber
c. ejector c. Lands
d. breechblock d. Grooves

79. What is a versatile device or instrument that accurately 88. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
measures the pitch of rifling? a. Carbine
a. Diameter b. Pistol
b. Doximeter c. Revolver
c. Helixometer d. Rifle
d. Caliper
89. The unit of measurement of a shotgun is expressed in
80. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit gauge, however, it is still convertible into inch. What is the
found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption equivalent of 10 Gauge shotgun to inch?
is that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number a. .410 inch
of gunshot wounds entrance and exit is odd, the b. .775 inch
presumption is that one or more bullets might have been c. .729 inch
lodged in the body. What principle is this? d. .670 inch
a. presumption of similarity
b. odd-even rule 90. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time
c. principle of infallibility form simple to a more sophisticated firearm. According to
d. numbering principle history, it was believed the word pistol was taken from the
Italian word Pistoia which literally means:
81. What is the cylindrical part of the shell which house a. small gun
the gunpowder? b. coin
a. body c. city
b. shoulder d. hand gun

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Statement 2- slippage marks – a markings that cause by
91. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people an oily barrel.
were found dead on the scene of the crime. During the Statement 3 – shearing marks are the secondary to firing
incident, it was found out that the firearm involve uses a rod marks
pistol size ammunition but having contains a shoulder a. all of the above
stock because it was fired in a distance. The scene was b. only 3 is correct
filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty c. only 1 and 2 is correct
magazine recovered. If you are the investigator, what type d. only 2 and 3 is correct
of firearm was used?
a. machine gun 100. A type of ammunition which does not have bullet
b. sub machine gun used in filmmaking:
c. automatic firearm a. Dummy Ammunition
d. none of these b. Blank Ammunition
c. Drill Ammunition
92. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine d. Live Ammunition
number of vehicle restored?
a. By polishing stamped serial number QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS EXAMINATION
b. By cleaning obliterated surface 1. Any material that contains a mark symbol or sign, either
c. By removing the zone of strain visible, partially visible or invisible that may presently or
d. By applying etching reagent ultimately convey a meaning or a message to someone.
a. Document
93. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due b. Standard Document
to rusting of the action of salts deposited from the c. Questioned Document
gunpowder is: d. Public
a. pressure
b. corrosion 2. A condensed and compact set of authentic specimen
c. erosion which is adequate and proper should contain a cross
d. decomposition section of the material from known sources is:
a. Disguised document
94. Which of the following is used to measure equivalent b. Public Document
weight of the bullet? c. Standard document
a. Bullet Recovery box d. Official document
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope
c. Analytical or Torsion Balance 3. What kind of document when it contains some changes
d. Chronograph like addition or deletion
a. obliterated
95. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to: b. repeated
a. Oversized barrel c. disputed
b. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel d. altered
c. Oily barrel
d. Delayed combustion 4. When a document was examined, it was found out that
it lacks authenticity, claimed by another person and not
96. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to by the real author, the examiner classifies this as_______
muffle the sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the a. special
escape of gases. b. traced
a. Buffer c. disguised
b. Silencer d. spurious
c. Magazine
d. Hanger 5. It is a classification of document in which it is issued by
a public official in the exercise of the functions of his office.
97. It is known as the smallest pistol commercially a. Public Document
available center fire cartridge and patented by Franz b. Official Document
Pfannl in 1914. c. Private Document
a. Kolibri d. Commercial Document
b. Miniature Revolver C1ST
c. Handgun Caliber .50 6. A kind of document executed by a person in authority
d. UZI and by private parties but notarized by competent officials.
a. private document
98. What is the thin paper or foil which is pressed over the b. Commercial document
priming mixture in order to protect it from moisture c. public document
attack? d. Official document
a. Priming Mixture
b. Disc 7. What is the element of writing that is regular, recurrent
c. Anvil and visually pleasing?
d. Primer cap a. rhythm
b. restrained
99. Statement 1 – skid marks – a marks found at the c. regulated
cartridge where there is a forward movement of the bullet d. genuine
before passing through the gun barrel.

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8. Majority of questioned document cases are concerned a. retracing
with _________? b. pen emphasis
a. Documents Age c. pen lift
b. Disproving Alibis d. pen pressure
c. Proving Authorship
d. Counterfeiting 18. What is the physical force applied in contact of
the writing instrument which can be estimated from any
9. It is one of the most valuable tools of the question questioned documents?
document examiner which supplements any visual a. pen lift
examination of a document. b. pen emphasis
a. Magnifying glass c. pen analysis
b. Microscope d. pen pressure
c. ESDA
d. VSC
19. Which of the following can be legally used in
10. Questioned document examination used in comparison with a questioned document since its origin is
deciphering indented writings. known and can be proven?
a. Video Spectral Comparator a. forged
b. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus b. compared
c. Red jumpsuit apparatus c. standard
d. Projection light examination d. falsified

11. Handwritings exhibits identifying properties of 20. Contemporary handwriting standards means that the
elements which are used by an examiner in order to age of the standards should be within?
identify the author. This refers to ______ a. 8 years from the date of the question document
a. identifying characteristics b. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
b. personal characteristics c. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document
c. individualism d. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned Document
d. individual characteristics
21. It is the combination of then basic shape and designs
12. The art of beautiful writing is known as of letter and the writing instrument which was taught in
a. Drafting school.
b. Calligraphy a. Copy Book Form
c. Art appreciation b. System of Writing
d. Cacography c. Handwriting
d. Writing Movement
13. Which of these refers to the art of determining the
character or disposition of person by analyzing his 22. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental
handwriting? to a writing system.
a. Calligraphy a. Copy book form
b. Graphology b. Line quality
c. Haplography c. System of writing
d. QD Examination d. Writing movement

14. It is a type of standard document executed in the day 23. It is a specimen of writing executed deliberately with
to day activities and is being produced in the regular an attempt of changing its usual writing habits to hide
course of man’s activity. his/her identity.
a. Notarized Document a. Natural Writing
b. Contemporary Document b. Hand lettering
c. Collected/Procured Document c. Assisted Writing
d. Requested/Dictated Document d. Disguised

15. “The document examiner must decide within the limits 24. To be able to make a positive identification of a
of science” best means _____. person, document examiner must be able to observe the
a. The examiner must conduct examination immediately ________.
b. The examiner must decide based from the findings a. Characteristics of his handwriting
c. The examiner must examine all specimens b. Writing position of the writer
d. The examiner must do fair examination c. Manner on how the writer moves the pain
d. Distinguishing individual features of his handwriting
16. In writing a draft of a report and a stroke goes back
over another stroke, this refers to 25. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and
a. shading painful due to weakness and illness.
b. repetition a. tremors
c. retracing b. wrist movement
d. rhythm c. quality of movement
d. whole arm movement
17. The application of intermittent force of a writing
instrument against the paper resulting to the widening of 26. It is a name of a person which represent as an
the strokes to give special attention and importance is identification in a document and serves as an
called____ acknowledgement of the document signed.

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a. Evidential Signature d. Foot
b. Model Signature
c. Signature 36. The rounded outside of the top of the curve or stroke
d. Fingerprint in the small letters “n” and “m” is called the
a. Shoulder
27. A genuine signature used to prepare an imitated or b. Arch
traced forgery is known c. Hump
a. Evidential Signature d. Arc
b. Forged Signature
c. Model signature 37. This kind of will is signed by the testator acknowledged
d. Repeated Signature before the notary public with witnesses
a. Notarian
28. What is the blotting out or smearing over the writing b. Holographic
to make the original illegible? c. Stenographic
a. restoration d. notarial
b. forging
c. obliteration 38. It refers to the printing surface of a type block
d. altering a. Character
b. Pitch
29. In addition to its use in developing secret writing, c. Design
iodine fumes can be used to… d. Type face
a. determine if erasures have been made on a document
b. determine the kind of papers used in writing 39. It represents the backbone or main stroke of the
c. determine the kind of ink used in writing letters.
d. determine the personal character of the author a. Slant
b. Staff
30. It refers to the added element used to complete c. Diacritics
certain letters, and can either be a crossbar of a dot. d. Foot
a. Ligature
b. Blunt 40. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what
c. Diacritic has been effaced.
d. Hump a. Decipherment
b. Obliteration
31. what is a brandish stroke which is naturally added by c. Collation
the author to the capital letters in order to make them d. Comparison
attractive and may become the writer's identity or special
features? 41. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed the
a. peculiarities source of light behind it, letting light pass through the
b. knot paper.
c. beard a Transmitted Light Examination
d. spur b. Infrared Light Examination
c. Oblique Light Examination
32. This provides a 3-dimensional enlargement which is d. Ultraviolet Examination
important when searching for identifying handwriting
characteristics. 42. Mr. A, a Chief of the Intelligence Division of PNP, will
a. Stereoscopic microscope sign a “Confidential” file as an approval regarding the
b. Infrared microscope operation against the notorious drug syndicate in their
c. Comparison microscope locality. What class of signature does Mr. A executed?
d. Compound microscope a. Formal or Complete
b. Informal or Cursory
33. Fraudulent Tampering with a document often involves c. Careless Scribble
two kinds of erasures, namely: d. Forgery
a. Mechanical and Chemical
b. Electronic and Chemical 43. A fraudulent signature whereby there is no apparent
c. Electronic and Mechanical attempt at simulation or imitation, or the person (suspect)
d. all of the above merely signs the name in his name and or used another
signature and possess the document before the fraud is
34. Writing characterized by a lack of freedom of discovered.
movement, which gives the impression that every stroke a. Fraudulent Forgery
was made with great difficulty. b. Spurious Forgery/Simple Forgery
a. Restrained Writing c. Simulated Forgery
b. Free-writing Movement d. Traced Forgery
c. Loose Writing
d. Regulated Writing 44. A signature in a check is suspected to have been
forged. The signatory does not remember categorically
35. The lower part of letters such as “m”, “n”, and “h”, whether he had issued the check. The signature was
which rest on the base line is known as compared with a genuine signature but both were in the
a. Ending same in size and shape. What will be your conclusion
b. Hiatus about the signature?
c. Ball Gap

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a. genuine; the signatory only forgot the issuance of the 53. The condition of a typeface printing heavier on one
check side or corner than the remainder of its outline.
b. genuine; both signatures are exactly the same in size a. off-its-feet
and shape b. rebound
c. forgery; the signatory just want to deny the issuance of c. twisted letter
the check d. clogged
d. forgery; no signature is exactly the same in all aspects
when compared 54. It is an abnormality in the type printing in which it
refers to the actual damage to the typeface metal.
45. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a a. Mal-Alignment
signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other b. Permanent Defects
hand to establish who committed the forgery because: c. Typeface Defects
a. the forger might be a left handed d. Transitory Defects
b. imitation is one of the most effective means to disguise
one’s handwriting 55. It is a typeface defect in which the print provides a
c. it might be a traced forgery double or overlapping impression.
d. there is no sufficient standard Available a. Actual Breakage
b. Rebound
46. The following are characteristics of forgery except c. Actual Breakage
one: d. Clogged Typeface
a. Presence of Natural Variation
b. Multiple Pen Lifts 56. The father of Questioned Document
c. Show bad quality of ink lines a. Albert S. Osborn
d. Patchwork Appearance b. Col Calvin Godard
c. William Burt
47. It is a type of characteristics which is commonly found d. John Van Dyke
in the specimen writing of other persons.
a. Gross Characteristics 57. A person who can write either with his left or right
b. Individual Characteristics hand is called–
c. Class Characteristics a. Ambidextrous
d. A and C b. Analogous
c. Bicephalous
48. It is an additional stroke that serves as an ornament d. Dextrous or Dexterous
or artistic design to a letter which is not relevant to a
writing. 58. A fluid or viscous marking material used for writing or
a. Embellishment printing.
b. Rubrics a. Pen
c. Diacritics b. Ink
d. A or B c. Coal
d. Chalk
49. It is a type of writing movement which is usually found
on a child who starts to learn how to write or draw. 59. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which the
a. Hand Movement characters is 12 inch horizontal.
b. Finger Movement a. Pica
c. Forearm Movement b. Elite
d. Whole Arm Movement c. Typewriter
d. Betamax
50. This movement is produced in most part by action of
the hand as a whole with the wrists as center of action, 60. If ballpoint was patented by John Loud, who patented
but with some involvement of the fingers. the first practical fountain pen containing its own ink
a. Finger movement reservoir?
b. Hand movement a. William Mitchel
c. Forearm movement b. Lewis Waterman
d. Whole Arm movement c. Swamp Reed
d. Harrison Ford
51. Usually used for signing daily affair, primarily of
routine nature 61. The author of a typewritten document can be
a. Formal identified through
b. Informal a. his peculiar style of indention, grammar composition,
c. Careless and paragraphing
d. Complete b. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine
c. design and style of the typewriter’s character
52. It is the result of an attempt to transfer to a document d. brand and model of the typewriter
an exact facsimile of a genuine writing by tracing process.
a. simple forgery 62. An applicant for a job had tried to manipulate his
b. spurious forgery document (Birth Certificate) so that he would fit to the age
c. simulated forgery qualification. It found out that the document contains
d. traced forgery some discrepancies in a form of addition and deletion of
letters and figures in the document. Which document
would this fall?

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a. inserted document 71. Mr. Pogi is a construction worker who usually drink
b. disputed document during payday. One time while under the influence of
c. altered document liquor Mr. Pogi executed a document. Due to his condition
d. obliterated document an obvious deterioration is observed in his writing. Such
Changes in his writing is known as?
63. A document completely written and signed by one a. Natural Variation
person is known as____________. b. Permanent Change
a. Holograpic document c. Transitory Change
b. Questioned document d. Tremor
c. Standard document
d. None of the above 72. A horizontal loop of strokes which are added to
complete certain letters such as A, H, F, D etc.
64. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the a. Buckle Knot
added pressure on a flexible pen point? b. Embellishment
a. pen pressure c. Diacritics
b. pen lifting d. Rubric
c. Pen shading
d. Retouching 73. Substance used for blotting or smearing over an
e. Skill original writing to make illegible or undecipherable.
a. Ink Eradicator
65. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by b. Superimposing Ink
partially visible depression appearing underneath the c. Sympathetic Ink
original writing. d. Invisible Ink
a. invisible writing
b. indented writing 74. An examination to detect alterations made on inks.
c. Charred document a.Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
d. contact writing b. Oblique Light Examination
c. Video Spectral Comparator
66. Is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to d. Ink Eradicator
the right or left of its proper position?
a. vertical mal alignment 75. It refers to the factor which relates the condition of
b. horizontal mal alignment the writer as well as the circumstances under which the
c. twisted letter writing was prepared?
d. off-its feet a. System of Writing
b. Copy-Book Form
67. A type of abnormality/defects in typewriter that can c. Writing Movement
easily be corrected by simply cleaning the machine or d. Writing Condition
replacing the ribbon?
a. temporary defect 76. Specimen of writing which was executed while the
b. clogged type face writer’s hand is at steadied.
c. permanent defect a. Natural Writing
d. actual breakage b. Disguised Writing
c. Guided Writing
68. It is a group of muscles that push the pen up to form d. Assisted Writing
the upward strokes.
a. Extensors 77. An artificial light examination best used in deciphering
b. Flexors obliterated writing as well as addition.
c. Intensors a. Ultra-Violet Light
d. Reflexors b. Infra-Red Light
c. Transmitted Light
69. A document is considered to be_______________ d. Oblique Light
when it is more than 30 years kept in a place where it is
normally to be found it genuine and not embellished by 78. An artificial light examination best used is deciphering
any alteration. erased writing, contact writing as well as invisible writing.
a. antique a. Transmitted Light
b. ancient b. Oblique Light
c. archaic c. Infra-Red Light
d. none of these d. Ultra-Violet Light

70. The following are public documents, EXCEPT 79. It is the process of making a critical study of a given
a. Written official acts, or records of the official acts of the thing so as to discover facts about them.
sovereign authority, official bodies and tribunals and a. Examination
public officers, whether of the Philippines, or of a foreign b. Collation
country. c. Comparison
b. Documents acknowledged before a notary public. d. Evaluation
c. Last will and testaments
d. Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private 80. It is a critical side by side examination of two or more
documents required by law to be entered therein. specimen.
a. Examination
b. Collation

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c. Comparison and made an interruption in her strokes caused by the
d. Evaluation removing of the pen from the check. this interruption is
described as______
81. Writing characterized by too much freedom of a. pen stop
movement and lack of regulation which are usually tall b. pen pressure
letters. c. pen emphasis
a. Loose Writing d. pen lift
b. Genuine Writing
c. Restrained Writing 91. Bobbie Styles, a well known author, his books were
d. Regulated Writing successfully published, and were enjoyed by the readers
because of the trademarks on his penmanship. if his books
82. The relationship between the heights of the small will be examined, what is the right term for his trade mark
letters to the tall letters is of penmanship?
a. Slant a. personal characteristics
b. Position b. writing maturity
c. Ratio c. writing skill
d. Slope d. individual characteristics

83. The first writing material known to man. 92. It refers to any repeated elements of a person’s
a. Papyrus handwriting which serves as identifying characteristics.
b. Vellum a. Handwriting
c. Parchment b. Significant Writing Habits
d. None of these c. Writing
d. Writing Habits
84. This writing material made from the skin of animals
primarily of sheep, calves or goats. 93. The capability to write or its refers to writer’s
a. Vellum proficiency.
b. Parchment a. characteristics
c. Papyrus b. skill
d. Reed c. natural writing
d. normal
85. It was the first writing tool that has the writing end
slightly frayed like a brush. It is first used in papyrus 94. This are usually the result from contact with the other
writing material. writings.
a. Quill Pen a. Folds and Creases
b. Reed b. Blots
c. Steel Point Pen c. Perforation
d. Fountain Pen d. Smears

86. It is the oldest form of ink. 95. A kind of erasure by using a rubber eraser, sharp knife,
a. Indian Ink razor blade or picking instrument.
b. Log Wood Ink a. mechanical erasure
c. Iron Galotannate Ink b. electronic erasure
d. Dyestuff Ink c. magnetic erasure
d. chemical erasure
87. Paleography came from the Greek word ‘palaios’ which
means ____. 96. It is a process of spreading too much ink over an
a. Art writing original writing to make it undecipherable or illegible.
b. Writing a. Obliteration
c. To write b. Charred Document
d. Old writing c. Contact Writing
d. Invisible Writing
88. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
purpose and normal writing conditions. 97. What was done, when one retouches or goes back
a. Complete signature over a defective portion of a writing stroke?
b. Standard signature a. retracing
c. Evidential signature b. Pen pressure
d. Model signature c. patching
d. Pen shading
89. Questioned document examination is known by many
names except one: 98. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes
a. Forensic document examination and which is slightly to occur due to lack of movement
b. Document classification control.
c. Handwriting examination a. retouching
d. Handwriting analysis b. Pen shading
c. retracing
90. Jera Deen, the secretary of Mr. Maximillian Argus, was d. Blunt
trying to forge his signature in one black company check
while her boss was out in a meeting. unexpectedly, her 99. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but
boss arrived earlier than expected and she was surprised a…

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a. Retouching
b. Patching 9. This is a question designed evaluate the presence of
c. Drawing outside issues which may suppose responses to relevant
d. Tremor of fraud questions.
a. Symptomatic
100. It is a group of muscles that push the pen down to b. Knowledge question
form the downward strokes. c. Primary control
a. Extensors d. Evidence – connecting
b. Flexors
c. Intensors 10. Also called Neutral Question
d. Reflexors a. Symptomatic Question
b. Sacrifice Relevant Question
LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUE c. Irrelevant Question
1. It is the scientific methods of detecting deception done d. Relevant Question
with the aid of a polygraph machine.
a. Lie Detection 11. It is a type of series consisting of series of relevant
b. Polygraph and irrelevant questions answerable by either yes or no:
c. Polygraphy a. General Question Test
d. Lie Detector b. Guilt Complex Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
2. Which of the following is not detecting deception? d. Silent Answer Test
a. Polygraph
b. Encephalogram 12. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not
c. Truth Serum to produce verbal response.
d. Hypnotism a. Peak of Tension Test
b. Silent Test
3. Who was the first person to develop a polygraph c. Narrative
apparatus that was used in detecting deception? d. Guilt Complex Test
a. John Larson
b. Leonarde Keeler 13. When should the examiner perform chart probing?
c. Angelo Mosso a. at the end of each particular polygraph test
d. Cesare Lombroso (Hydrospymograph) b. during the entire polygraph test
c. anytime the examiner decides
4. General Question Test consists of series of relevant, d. after the polygraph test
irrelevant control questions in a planned order. Developed
by 14. What is the force or motion reaching any organism
a. John E. Reid that excites or cause reaction to the receptor?
b. Cleve Backster a. response
c. Angelo Mosso b. stimulus
d. Daniel Defoe c. control
d. adaptation
5. In “polygraph examination”, the term “examination”
means a detection of 15. This states that among the physiological responses
a. forgery that may be recorded are those that automatically occur
b. emotion only following the stimulation of specific nervous
c. the mind component system
d. deception a. Psychological leg basic premise
b. Physiological leg basic premise
6. " Were you the one who raped Paloma?" this refers to c. Mechanical leg basic premise
what type of question in a polygraph test? d. None of these
a. valid
b. relevant 16. It is a principle of polygraphy which says that a
c. controlled polygraph is capable of making graphic record consisting
d. irrelevant of dependable information regarding the physiological
changes of the body.
7. A type of questions given to determine information a. Psychological Leg Basic Premise
known or the subject possess regarding the crime or the b. Physiological Leg Basic Premise
criminal or his whereabouts? c. Mechanical Leg Basic Premise
a. Evidence Connecting Question d. None of these
b. Knowledge Question
c. Sacrifice Questions 17. It is an act of deceiving or misleading committed by a
d. Control Questions person usually accompanied by lying.
a. Admission
8. A type of question designed to link the subject to the b. Lying
crime? In criminal investigation it is otherwise referred to c. Deception
as associative evidence: d. Confession
a. Sacrifice Question
b. Evidence Connecting Question 18. What is the act of uttering or conveying of falsehood
c. Knowledge Question or creating a false or misleading information with the
d. Control Question

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intention of affecting wrongfully the acts and opinion of a. there is wine in truth
other? b. In truth, there is wine
a. Deception c. there is truth in wine
b. Lying d. In wine, there is truth
c. Specific response
d. Normal tracing 28. The drug administered to the subject in
Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis is________.
19. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, a. Shabu
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power. b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
a. fear c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
b. stimuli d. Morphine
c. response
d. reaction 29. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie
detector, but research clearly shows that it cannot
20. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in determine or detect a lying person. What then is the use
the Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” which means – of polygraph instrument?
a. Divine intervention a. To record physiological reactions of the subject.
b. Miraculous decision b. To record psychological reactions of the subject.
c. God’s hand c. To record and determine the facts of the case based on
d. God’s Favor the chart taken.
d. To record psychogalvanic reflex of the subject.
21. It is one of the ancient practices in detecting deception
wherein an accuser will fight against the accused in a duel 30. This is a person who cannot distinguish between right
and whoever lost the fight will be adjudged guilty. and wrong. also known as mythomania and pseudologia
a. Red Hot Iron Ordeal fantastica, is the chronic behavior of compulsive or
b. Rice Chewing Ordeal habitual lying. Unlike telling the occasional white lie to
c. Balance Ordeal avoid hurting someone's feelings or getting in trouble, a
d. Trial By Combat pathological liar seems to lie for no apparent reason
a. Pathological liar
22. This ordeal is done to a man accused of sorcery was b. Black liar
to be submerged in a stream. c. Ethnological liar
a. Ordeal of cold water d. Occupational liar
b. Ordeal of hot water
c. Rice chewing ordeal 31. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in
d. Red hot iron ordeal the form of untruthful statements with the intention to
deceive, often with the intention to maintain a secret of
23. An ancient method of detecting deception practice in reputation, to protect someone’s feelings from getting
Bengal, India was accused to prove his innocent would hurt, or to avoid punishment.
touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal. a. Lie
a. boiling water ordeal b. Liar
b. red hot iron ordeal c. Either of the two
c. Donkey’s tail ordeal d. None of the above
d. Trial by combat
32. A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the
24. In this method the accused will be require to run fast falsehood is generally understood, is often regarded as not
for twelve hours, take a cap of rice and drink a dark immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and
colored water. comedians.
a. Ordeal of rice chewing a. Black lie
b. Red hot iron Ordeal b. Red lie
c. Ordeal of red water c. Jocose lie
d. Ordeal of the cross d. Malicious lie

25. He is the heart specialized who is credited for the 33. A type of lie intended to mislead justice:
invention of the “Ink Polygraph” a. White Lie
a. Sticker b. Puffery lie
b. Veraguth c. Big lie
c. James Mackenzie d. Malicious Lie
d. Cleve Backster
34. This is a lie that would cause only relatively minor
26. In the test, HYOSCINE HYDROBROMIDE is given discord if it were uncovered and typically offers some
hypodermically in repeated doses until a state of delirium benefit to the hearer
is induced a. White lie
a. Truth serum b. Puffery lie
b. Narcoanalysis/narco synthesis c. Noble lie
c. Intoxication d. None of these
d. hypnosis
35. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned
27. Intoxication of alcohol used the Latin maxim “In vino, that is a lie.
veritas” as underlying principle. This latin maxim is literally a. Lie to Children
translated as ____________. b. Bald Face Lie

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c. White Lie d. the experience of the examiner
d. Lying by Omission
45. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the
36. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false atmosphere during the interrogation?
statements on material matter under oath or affirmation a. Interrogator’s behavior
in a court of law or in any of various sworn statements in b. Questioning style of the interrogator
writing. c. The type of crime involved
a. Perjury d. The subject’s personal history
b. Bluffing
c. Dissembling 46. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
d. Misleading a. Obtain confession
b. Prepare subject for polygraph test
37. The _______ nervous system works to restore things c. Make the subject calm
to normal when the conditions of stress have been d. Explain the polygraph test procedures
removed. It is the dominant branch when the condition is
normal and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed 47. Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct
a. Sympathetic of a polygraph examination?
b. Parasympathetic a. Pre-test Interview
c. Central b. Instrumental Test
d. autonomic c. Post-Test Interview
d. Psychological Test
38. What chemical is released by the brain during
situations of stress, shock and fear that will excite most of 48. Prior to the examination the subject should have at
his physiological responses and will give an increase in least ___ hours of sleep.
heart rate and a rise in blood pressure a. 5 hours
a. Epinephrine b. 12 hours
b. Norepinephrine c. 2 hours
c. Oxytocin d. 3 hours
d. endorphine
49. What is the duration of the pre-test interview?
39. This machine records the tiny voice modulations of the a. 12-30 minutes
subject which is inaudible to the normal hearer. b. 10-30 minutes
a. Eye tracker c. 20-30 minutes
b. Nystagmys d. 10-20 minutes
c. Spectrography
d. Psychological stress evaluator 50. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the
examiner do?
40. This component records the changes of breathing of a. Reschedule the examination
the subject b. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance
b. Pneumograph d. Do not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject
c. Kymograph for his available date for reschedule
d. Galvanograph
51. The following should be taken onto consideration
41. This is the longest and the second pen of the during the pre-test, EXCEPT:
instrument. a. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
a. Pneumograph b. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
b. Galvanograph c. taking history record of the subject
c. Cardiosphygmograph
d. Kymograph d. evaluating the psychological preparations of the subject
52. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is
42. Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock, involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the?
fear and anxiety. Perspiration means? a. Investigator
a. Breathing b. Object relative
b. Pulse beat c. Prosecutor
c. Sweating d. Judge
d. Heart rate
53. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the
43. What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the polygraph examination.
chart paper at six inches per minute during the test? a. Pre test
a. Kymograph assembly b. Preliminary Interview
b. Electronic motor drive c. Test Execution
c. Chart drive mini-motor d. Post test
d. Reactograph drive motor
54. The following are specific rules to be followed in the
44. What is the most important thing to consider in a formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except
polygraph result? one.
a. the competence of the examiner a. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the
b. the knowledge of the examiner subject can easily understand.
c. the training of the examiner b. Questions must be answerable by yes or no.

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c. Questions must be as short as possible. c. ask the subject if he has any questions
d. Questions must all be in the form of Accusation d. all of the above

55. It is conducted after the actual test designed to 63. It is a type of question in which it established the
obtained confession or admission from the subject. norms of the subject and it pertains to the basic
a. Post-test Interview/interrogation background of the subject. It only ask questions not
b. Actual Test related to the matter under investigation.
c. Chart Probing a. Relevant Question
d. Investigation b. Irrelevant Question
c. Knowledge Question
56. A self-incriminating statement falling short of an d. Evidence-Connecting Question
acknowledgement of guilt?
a. Admission 64. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized
b. Confession chart marking to begin or start the questioning?
c. Interview a. B
d. Interrogation b. S
c. X
57. The subject may be given this test if he is not yet d. C
informed of the details of the offense for which he is being
interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or 65. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at
from other sources like the print media. This valid test is the start of the test?
only made possibly when there is no widespread publicity a. X/60/1.5 A
about a crime where intimate details as to the methods of b. X/50/2.5 A
commission or certain facts of the case is known from the c. XX/60/1.5 A
victim and investigator. d.XXX/60/2.5 A
a. Guilt complex test
b. Control question 66. Which of the following should be used as a mark if the
c. Peak of tension test answer of the subject is NO?
d. Psychological stress evaluator a. +
b. –
58. Lists of stimulus and non-stimulus word are read to c. x
the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as d. /
possible. The answers to the question may be “yes” or
“no”. Unlike the lie detector, the time interval between the 67. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is
words uttered by the examiner and the answer to the truthful, the examiners finding should be:
question is recorded a. Conclusive
a. Guilt Complex Test b. Inconclusive
b. Word Association Test c. Negative
c. Use of padding question d. Positive
d. Administration of Truth Serum
68. Under backster zone comparison test technique, color
59. What do you call the alteration of consciousness and zones are applied in identifying so many questions used
concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant question is
of suggestibility while awareness is maintained? yellow, what then is the color zone for strong relevant
a. Hypnotism questions?
b. Narcoanalysis a. Red
c. Intoxication With Alcohol b. Black (Symptomatic Questions)
d. Use of Truth Serum c. Green
d. Orange
60. How many recording pens in a cardiosphygmograph?
a. 1 69. The person who devises an instrument that can record
b. 2 changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration
c. 3 simultaneously which he called the “Bread board Lie
d. 4 Detector”.
a. Angelo Mosso
61. This test compares the physiological response to b. John E. Reid
relevant questions about the crime with the response to c. John A. Larson
questions relating to possible prior misdeeds. "This test is d. William M. Marston
often used to determine whether certain criminal suspects
should be prosecuted or classified as uninvolved in the 70. The name of the first manufactured polygraph
crime" (American Psychological Association). instrument.
a. Control question test a. Keeler polygraph instrument (Leonarde Keeler-1926-
b. Directed lie test Associated Research Inc.)
c. Guilty knowledge test b. Associated Detecting instrument
d. Guilt Complex Test c. Larson polygraph instrument
d. Marston polygraph instrument
62. If the polygraph test result indicates innocence, what
should the examiner do? 71. A Hindu book of science and health which is
a. release the subject cordially considered one of the earliest references on detecting
b. thank the subject for his cooperation deception.

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a. Ayur Vida b. Ankles
b. Dharmasatra of Gautama c. Toes
c. Vasistra of Dharmasastra d. Neck
d. Legendary red book by Choi
82. A force questioning of a person who is reluctant to
72. A part of the pneumograph component which was give an information.
attached to the body of the subject with the usual length a. Interview
of 10 inches. b. Interrogation
a. beaded chain c. Confession
b. rubber convoluted tube d. Admission
c. finger electrode plate
d. blood pressure cuff 83. This is an erroneous decision that an examinee is
being deceptive when actuallyhe is being truthful.
73. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which a. false negative
placed above the brachial artery. b. false positive
a. arm cuff c. inconclusive result
b. infant cuff d. conclusive result
c. Wrist cuff
d. hand cuff 84. Which of the following is not a standard qualification
of a polygraph examiner?
74. The normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a a. He must be free of prejudice
polygraph test? b. He is an impartial seeker of truth
a. 60 –65 c. He must be a policeman
b. 6- 12 d. He must be of good moral character
c. 70 – 75
d. 13- 15 85. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph,
galvanograph, and cardiosphygmograph tracings
75. What is the normal cyclic rate of respiration of a recorded from series of question.
normal built person in a polygraph test: a. Polygrams
a. 60 –65 b. Chart
b. 6- 12 c. Subject
c. 70 – 75 d. A & B
d. 13- 15
86. Who formulates the questions to be administered
76. Subject under polygraph test should be fit which during the examination?
means that he/she should be: a. subject
a. Under A-1 Condition b. examiner
b. Mentally Fit c. investigator
c. Physically Fit d. subject and examiner
d. Psychologically Fit
87. Which of the following best signifies that the polygraph
77. The polygraph machine has ____ major components? examiner is technically qualified to administer
a. Three examination?
b. Five a. complete knowledge of the instrument
c. Four b. must be impartial seeker of truth
d. Six c. sincere desire to be a polygraph examiner
d. his primary obligation to his subject
78. A component of the polygraph machine which is
designed to detect changes of electro dermal response: 88. Outside interference during polygraph examination
a. Kymograph must be avoided; therefore the examination room must
b. Cardiosphymograph be:
c. Galvanograph a. well-ventilated
d. Pneumograph b. well-lighted
c. must not be decorated
79. Corrugated rubber bellows with the aid of beaded d. must be 90% sound proof
chain should be fastened on the subject's:
a. Abdomen and Chest 89. The polygraph examiner’s analysis and interpretation
b. Hips are;
c. Waistline a. generally acceptable as evidence if standing alone
d. Neck b. generally acceptable as evidence if it indicates
deception
80. A part of the cardiosphygmograph which indicates the c. generally not acceptable as evidence if standing alone
amount of air pressure in the system? d. generally not acceptable as evidence if without the
a. Air Pump consent of the examiner
b. Arm Cuff
c. Sphygmomanometer 90. An individual, being aware of his emotion can suppress
d. Connecting Plug or control some responses, except:
a. dryness of mouth
81. A sets of electrodes are attached to the : b. fidgeting
a. Palmar or tips of fingers of convenience c. nervousness

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d. blood pressure and heart action 100. Those who love to lie and are excited by the
challenge of not being detected. For them an interview is
91. Upon beginning the test, how many seconds should a contest that they want to win; they realize that they will
the examiner wait before asking the first question? probably be convicted but will not give anyone the
a. 10-15 satisfaction of hearing them confess.
b. 15-20 a. promotion liars
c. 5-10 b. panic liars
d. 20-25 c. compulsive liars
d. tournament liars
92. Are the three stereotypic Behavioral Responses to
threat.
a. Fight, Find, Fright
b. Fight, Fry, Freeze
c. Fall, Fight, Face
d. Fight, Flight, Freeze

93. In lie detection, the interrogator chart probes on the


subject every after the taking of each chart. At what
phrase or stage post interrogation conducted?
a. Done immediately before conducting the pre-test
interview
b. Done only on subjects who refuse to cooperate during
examination
c. Done every after taking each chart
d. When fully convinced of the subject’s guilt based on the
charts taken

94.Responses of the subject that has no bearing on the


matter under investigation.
a. Normal
b. Specific
c. Broad
d. General

95. Responses which contain deviations or signs of


deception which has direct bearing on the matter under
investigation.
a. Normal
b. Specific
c. Broad
d. General

96. It is a water-based ink intended for polygraph


instruments.
a. printer’s ink
b. capillary ink
c. writer’s ink
d. graphing ink

97. Post-test interview involves taking of the subject’s


consent to undergo polygraph examination.
a. yes
b. no
c. true
d. false

98. It is the popular but misleading name of the polygraph.


a. polygraph machine
b. polygraphy
c. lie detector
d. physiological detector

99. This is designed to absorb the response generated by


the introduction of relevant question in the series.
a. symptomatic question
b. irrelevant question
c. sacrifice relevant question
d. secondary relevant question

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