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INDEX
Historical background .............................................................................................................................................4
Making of constitution ............................................................................................................................................5
Preamble ..................................................................................................................................................................7
Citizenship ...............................................................................................................................................................9
Fundamental Rights: ..............................................................................................................................................11
Directive Principles of State Policy .......................................................................................................................14
Fundamental Duties ...............................................................................................................................................16
Basic Structure Doctrine in India .........................................................................................................................21
Federal system .......................................................................................................................................................22
Centre and State Relations.....................................................................................................................................24
Inter State Relations ..............................................................................................................................................27
Emergency .............................................................................................................................................................29
Vice President ........................................................................................................................................................33
Prime Minister .......................................................................................................................................................34
Council of Ministers ..............................................................................................................................................34
Cabinet Committee ................................................................................................................................................35
Supreme court ........................................................................................................................................................36
Parliamentary Committees ....................................................................................................................................39
Parliament ..............................................................................................................................................................42
Parliamentary forums ............................................................................................................................................50
Judicial Review .....................................................................................................................................................51
Judicial Activism ...................................................................................................................................................51
Governor ................................................................................................................................................................52
Cheif Minister ........................................................................................................................................................54
state legislature ......................................................................................................................................................55
High Court .............................................................................................................................................................56
Subordinate court...................................................................................................................................................57
Tribunals ................................................................................................................................................................58
National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission ...........................................................................................59
ECI .........................................................................................................................................................................60
UPSC .....................................................................................................................................................................61
SPSC ......................................................................................................................................................................62
Finance Commission .............................................................................................................................................62
NCSC .....................................................................................................................................................................63
NCST .....................................................................................................................................................................64
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NCBC ..............................................................................................................................................................64
Linguistic Officers...........................................................................................................................................65
CAG ................................................................................................................................................................65
Attorney General of India ...............................................................................................................................66
Advocate General ............................................................................................................................................66
Panchayati Raj .................................................................................................................................................67
Lokadalats .......................................................................................................................................................69
Union Territories .............................................................................................................................................70
NITI Aayog .....................................................................................................................................................74
NHRC ..............................................................................................................................................................74
SHRC (State Human Rights Commission) .....................................................................................................75
NCW................................................................................................................................................................75
(NCPCR) National Commission for Protection of Child Rights ....................................................................75
NCM (National Commission for Minorities) ..................................................................................................76
Chief Information Commissioner....................................................................................................................76
(SIC) State Information Commissioners .........................................................................................................77
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): ..........................................................................................................78
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) ............................................................................................................78
Lokpal..............................................................................................................................................................79
National Investigation Agency (NIA) .............................................................................................................80
NDMA .............................................................................................................................................................80
Bar Council of India ........................................................................................................................................81
Law commission .............................................................................................................................................81
Delimitation Commission ...............................................................................................................................82
Cooperative society .........................................................................................................................................82
Official language .............................................................................................................................................83
Public Services ................................................................................................................................................84
Rights and Liabilities ......................................................................................................................................84
Political Parties ................................................................................................................................................85
Regional Parties...............................................................................................................................................85
Electrol reform ................................................................................................................................................86
Election Laws ..................................................................................................................................................86
Coalition Governments ...................................................................................................................................86
Anti defection ..................................................................................................................................................87
Pressure Groups...............................................................................................................................................87
Foreign Policy .................................................................................................................................................87
RPA .................................................................................................................................................................88
Enforcement Directorate (ED) ........................................................................................................................90


HISTORICAL BACKGROUND 3. Consider the following statements
regarding the Charter Act of 1813:
1. Consider the following statements about the Statement-I: The Charter Act of 1813 gave
Regulating Act of 1773: Christian missionaries permission to enter
1. The act established the Governor of India and preach their religion.
Bengal as the Governor-General of Statement-II: The Charter Act of 1813
Bengal. appointed a Bishop to lead the Church,
supported by Indian tax money.
2. Annual elections of 24 directors were
Which one of the following is correct in
replaced by the election of six judges a
respect of the above statements?
year
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. The act granted the Governor-General correct and Statement-II is the correct
veto power over the decisions of his explanation for Statement-I
council. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. The act raised the qualification for correct and Statement-II is not the
voting in company elections from £500 correct explanation for Statement-I
to £1,000. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
How many of the above statements are is incorrect
correct? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(a) Only one II is correct
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 4. Regarding the Charter Act of 1853, which
of the following statements is correct?
(d) All four
1. The act allowed Indian representation
in the Legislative Council.
2. With reference to the Pitt's India Act of 2. It established separate provinces for
1784, consider the following statements: Sind and Punjab.
1. The Pitt's India Act established a 3. The act reduced the number of
system of dual government in India members on the Board of Directors
with equal authority given to the British from 24 to 18.
Crown and the British East India 4. It granted the Governor-General the
Company. authority to make legislative proposals
2. The act reduced the Governor-General's without the need for assent.
council to two members. How many of the above statements are
correct?
3. The act was named after William Pitt
the Elder (a) Only one
(b) Only two
4. The act gave the Governor-General the
(c) Only three
right to override decisions made by the
Company. (d) All four
How many of the above statements are
5. With reference to the Government of India Act
correct?
1919, consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. Under the Provincial Government,
(b) Only two subjects were divided into reserved and
(c) All three transferred lists. The Governor was
(d) None of the above responsible for subjects under the
reserved list.


2. The ministers responsible for subjects MAKING OF CONSTITUTION
under the transferred list were elected
by the legislature. 8. Consider the following pairs:
3. The executive councillors at Centre Personalities Position held
were accountable to the legislative 1. Sardar - Chairman of the
council. Vallabhbhai Union
How many of the above statements are Patel Constitution
correct? Committee
(a) Only one 2. Rajendra - 1st president of
(b) Only two Prasad the constituent
(c) All three assembly
(d) None
3. Jawaharlal - Chairman of the
Nehru Drafting
6. Which of the following features was NOT Committee
part of the Government of India Act 1919?
4. B.R. Rajam - Author of the
(a) Introduction of Dyarchy in the
Preamble of the
provincial government.
Constitution
(b) Creation of a public service
How many of the above pairs are correctly
commission in India.
matched?
(c) Establishment of the office of the High
Commissioner for India in London. (a) Only one pair
(d) Half of the council members should (b) Only two pairs
have 15 years of experience in public (c) All three pairs
service in India. (d) None of the pairs
7. Consider the following statements about the 9. With reference to the Constituent Assembly
Constituent Assembly of India: debates, consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Indian Independence Act 1. The Constituent Assembly debates are
of 1947 established the Constituent a rich source of understanding the
Assembly. intentions of the framers of the
Statement-II: The Constituent Assembly Constitution.
was responsible for drafting the Indian 2. The Constituent Assembly held its
Constitution. sessions behind closed doors, and there
Which one of the following is correct in is no record of its proceedings.
respect of the above statements?
3. The Preamble of the Indian
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Constitution was the last part to be
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct?
correct, and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I. (a) Only one
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II (b) Only two
is incorrect. (c) All three
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement- (d) None
II is correct.


10. What principle ensures that individuals 14. Which of the following best reflects the
have a responsibility to participate in the principle of ‘natural justice’ in the Indian
functioning of their government and uphold Constitution?
its democratic values? (a) It ensures that all legal procedures are
(a) Judicial Review followed meticulously.
(b) Popular Sovereignty (b) It promotes a fair and unbiased
(c) Implied Powers decision-making process.
(c) It allows the government to take any
(d) Habeas Corpus
action in the interest of the nation.
(d) It grants individuals the right to
11. A public authority's failure to give notice to represent themselves in court.
an applicant before taking a decision that
adversely affects their legitimate 15. Which statement accurately describes the
expectation is likely to be considered a ‘Implied Powers’ of the Indian Parliament?
violation of which one of the following (a) Implied powers are explicitly
principles? mentioned in the Constitution.
(a) Principle of Reasonable Expectation (b) Implied powers are those that the
(b) Principle of Locus Standi Parliament doesn't possess.
(c) Principle of Promissory Estoppel (c) Implied powers are necessary to carry
(d) Principle of Double Jeopardy out the expressly granted powers.
(d) Implied powers are derived from the
12. A law passed by the Parliament contains a state governments.
provision that infringes upon the
fundamental rights of citizens. In this 16. In the context of the Indian Constitution,
context, which doctrine allows the court to the ‘procedure established by law’ implies:
declare only the offending provision as (a) Any law enacted by the government is
unconstitutional while keeping the rest of a valid procedure.
the law intact? (b) Government can establish its own
(a) Doctrine of Separation of Powers procedures without judicial review.
(b) Doctrine of Judicial Review (c) Legal procedures must be just, fair, and
reasonable.
(c) Doctrine of Severability
(d) All legal procedures must be in
(d) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
conformity with the Constitution.
13. Which of the following statements best

17. The concept of ‘equality before law’ in the
explains the concept of ‘Eminent Domain’
Indian Constitution means:
in the Indian Constitution?
(a) All laws must treat individuals
(a) It is the power of the government to
equitably.
take private property for public use
with just compensation. (b) Every individual is equal before the law
and has the same legal rights.
(b) It is the power of the President to
remove any government official at will. (c) The government can discriminate
between individuals based on their
(c) It is the power of the judiciary to
characteristics.
interpret the Constitution.
(d) The judiciary has the authority to create
(d) It is the power of the Prime Minister to
laws.
make executive orders.


18. In the context of originalism, what is the (c) It defines and limits the powers of the
significance of ‘original public meaning’? judiciary.
(a) It refers to the interpretation of the (d) It ensures that all laws are consistent
Constitution based on the words' with international treaties.
original intent.
(b) It emphasizes the interpretation of the PREAMBLE
Constitution based on the meaning that
the general public understood at the 22. In the context of the Indian Constitution,
time of its adoption. what does the "Preamble" serve as?
(c) It focuses on the changing societal (a) A list of fundamental values like
norms and values in the interpretation liberty, guaranteed to citizens.
of the Constitution. (b) A statement of the values and
(d) It considers the amendments made to aspirations of the people.
the Constitution over time. (c) It act as a document that restricts the
power to legislate by the parliament .
19. Under the Stare decisis doctrine, which of (d) A comprehensive list for the judiciary
the following is a situation that may lead to for its review.
the overruling of a precedent?
(a) The precedent is a long-standing and 23. With reference to the Preamble of the
well-established legal principle. Indian Constitution, consider the following
(b) The precedent is consistent with the statements:
current societal values and norms. 1. The Preamble can be amended by a
(c) The precedent is found to be simple majority in the Parliament.
fundamentally incorrect or unjust. 2. The Preamble of the Indian
(d) The precedent was set by a higher Constitution was adopted on the same
court. day as the Constitution itself.
3. The Preamble serves as a prelude to the
20. The ‘rule of law’ in a constitutional Constitution and outlines its objectives.
government implies: How many of the above statements are
(a) The government has absolute power correct?
and authority. (a) Only one
(b) All citizens are bound by the law, (b) Only two
including the government. (c) Only three
(c) The law is subject to interpretation by (d) None
the executive branch.
(d) The government can suspend laws in 24. With reference to the Preamble of the
times of crisis. Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements:
21. Which one of the following statements best 1. The Preamble is a part of the Indian
describes the principle of Due Process of Constitution.
Law in the Indian Constitution? 2. The Preamble is a justiciable part of the
(a) It guarantees that laws will be applied Constitution.
fairly and justly. 3. The Preamble is a source of power to
(b) It empowers the government to enact the legislature.
any law it deems necessary.


How many of the above statements are (c) Prohibition of consumption of
correct? intoxicating drinks and drugs that are
(a) Only one injurious to health
(b) Only two (d) Protection and improvement of the
(c) Only three environment and safeguarding of
forests and wildlife
(d) None
28. Consider the following pairs:
25. With reference to the Preamble of the Preamble Description
Indian Constitution, consider the following 1. Sovereign - India is a member of
statements: the United Nations.
1. The Preamble was amended only once 2. Socialist - Government control of
in the history of India. strategic industries.
2. The Preamble is a part of the Basic 3. Secular - Promotion of atheism.
Structure of the Constitution. 4. Democratic - Universal adult
3. The Preamble does not have any legal franchise.
significance in India. How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
correct? (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(a) Only one
(c) All three pairs
(b) Only two
(d) None of the pairs
(c) Only three
(d) None
29. Consider the following pairs:
Preamble Description
26. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is 1. Unity - Promotion of regional
described as the ‘Key to the Constitution’. languages.
Which aspect of the Preamble supports this 2. Sovereign - Freedom from external
characterization? control.
(a) Its inclusion of the term socialist. 3. Fraternity - Assimilation of all
(b) Its declaration of India as a sovereign cultures.
state. 4. Justice - Equality before the law.
(c) Its mention of justice, liberty, and How many of the above pairs are correctly
equality. matched?
(d) Its affirmation of unity in diversity. (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
27. Which Directive Principle of State Policy is (c) All three pairs
closely associated with the Preamble's (d) None of the pairs
commitment to securing social justice?
(a) Promotion of educational and economic 30. Which of the following words were added
interests of Scheduled Castes, to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment to
Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker the Indian Constitution?
sections (a) Socialist and Secular
(b) The State shall endeavor to secure for (b) Socialist, Secular, and Democratic
the citizen a Uniform Civil Code (c) Sovereign, Socialist, and Democratic
through the territory of India (d) Socialist, Secular, and integrity


31. With reference to the Indian Constitution 3. The reorganization of states can be
and its borrowed provisions, consider the initiated only through a resolution in
following statements: the Rajya Sabha.
1. The idea of an independent judiciary is 4. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian
borrowed from the United Kingdom. Constitution lists the names of all states
2. The concept of parliamentary privileges and union territories.
is borrowed from the Constitution of Which of the above statements is/are
Australia. correct?
3. The provision for the election of the (a) Only one
President is borrowed from the (b) Only two
Constitution of Ireland. (c) Only three
How many of the above statements are (d) All four
correct?
(a) Only one 34. With reference to the Indian Constitution's
(b) Only two provisions on the Union and its territory,
consider the following statements:
(c) All three
1. The Constitution guarantees the
(d) None
continued existence and territorial
integrity of all states.
32. With reference to the Indian Constitution's 2. Article 2 of the Constitution empowers
schedules, consider the following the Parliament to admit new states into
statements: the Union of India.
1. The First Schedule lists the states and 3. A bill to alter the boundaries of any
union territories of India. state can be introduced in Parliament
2. The Fifth Schedule deals with the without the prior recommendation of
administration and control of the President.
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. How many of the above statements are
3. The Seventh Schedule divides the correct?
powers and responsibilities between the (a) Only one
Union and States. (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are (c) Only three
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two CITIZENSHIP
(c) All three
35. With reference to the Citizenship
(d) None
Amendment Act, 2019, consider the
following statements:
33. Consider the following statements 1. The Act permits members of six
regarding the Indian Union and its religious communities from
Territory: Afghanistan, Pakistan, and Bangladesh
1. The President of India has the power to to apply for Indian citizenship.
alter the boundaries of a state. 2. The Act reduces the requirement for
2. The formation of new states and citizenship eligibility from 11 years of
alteration of boundaries is done by a residence to just 6 years for these
simple majority in the Parliament. communities.


3. The Act exempts the migrants covered How many of the above statements are
from the Passport Act but not the correct?
Foreigners Act. (a) Only one
How many of the above statements are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 38. With reference to the acquisition of Indian
(d) None citizenship, consider the following
statements:
1. A person can acquire Indian citizenship
36. Regarding the National Register of Citizens
by birth if both parents are Indian
(NRC) in Assam, consider the following
citizens at the time of the child's birth.
statements:
2. Citizenship by naturalization requires
1. The NRC in Assam aims to identify
the person to be well-versed in any
foreign nationals residing in Assam. language mentioned in the Eighth
2. The NRC exercise is unique to Assam Schedule.
and is not planned to be extended to 3. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2003,
other states. made citizenship by birth more
3. Nagaland is already implementing a stringent, requiring both parents to be
similar database known as the Register Indian citizens or one to be an illegal
of Indigenous Inhabitants. migrant for those born after 2004.
How many of the above statements are How many of the above statements are
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
37. In the context of Overseas Citizen of India 39. Regarding the Constitution of India and
citizenship, consider the following
(OCI), consider the following statements:
statements:
1. An OCI cardholder can enter India
1. The Constitution provides a detailed
multiple times and is exempt from
and permanent framework for acquiring
registering with Foreigners Regional
and losing Indian citizenship.
Registration Office (FRRO).
2. Article 7 of the Constitution prohibits
2. An OCI cardholder is eligible to apply Indian citizens from voluntarily
for Indian citizenship after five years of acquiring the citizenship of any foreign
registration. state.
3. An applicant is not eligible for OCI if 3. Parliament has the power to make
they or their parents or grandparents provisions related to the acquisition and
have ever been citizens of Pakistan or termination of citizenship and other
Bangladesh. matters concerning citizenship.


How many of the above statements are 3. Writs under this right can only be
correct? issued against state authorities, not
(a) Only one private individuals.
(b) Only two How many of the above statements are
(c) All three correct?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS: (c) Only three
(d) None
40. A law that discriminates against a certain
group of citizens solely based on their 43. Regarding the freedom of speech and
religion, violates which one of the expression under Fundamental Rights,
following Articles of the Constitution of
India?
1. Freedom of speech and expression
(a) Article 14
includes the freedom to criticize the
(b) Article 15
government.
(c) Article 27
2. Freedom of speech and expression
(d) Article 29
includes the freedom to express
insensitive feelings through book.
41. Regarding the Fundamental Right to
3. Restrictions on freedom of speech and
Freedom of Religion in the Constitution,
expression can only be imposed by the
Central Government.
1. The Freedom of Religion guarantees
the right to convert from one religion to How many of the above statements are
another. correct?
2. The Freedom of Religion allows the (a) Only one
government to regulate religious (b) Only two
practices to maintain public order. (c) Only three
3. The Freedom of Religion is not (d) None
applicable to educational institutions.
How many of the above statements are 44. Concerning the right to equality in
correct? Fundamental Rights, consider the following
(a) Only one statements:
(b) Only two 1. The right to equality prohibits
(c) Only three discrimination on grounds of religion,
(d) None race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
2. The right to equality allows the
42. With regard to the Fundamental Right to reservation of seats in educational
Constitutional Remedies, consider the institutions.
following statements: 3. The right to equality ensures uniform
1. A writ of Habeas Corpus is used to civil laws for all religions.
prevent illegal detention. How many of the above statements are
2. The Fundamental Right to correct?
Constitutional Remedies is absolute (a) Only one (b) Only two
and cannot be suspended. (c) Only three (d) None


45. With reference to the right to constitutional Statement-II: These rights can be restricted
remedies in Fundamental Rights, consider by the state for ensuring the quality of
the following statements: education.
1. Writs issued under Article 32 can only Which one of the following is correct in
be used for enforcing Fundamental respect of the above statements?
Rights. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. A writ of mandamus can be issued correct and Statement-II is the correct
against private individuals. explanation for Statement-I.
3. The power to issue writs is vested (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
exclusively with the High Courts. correct and Statement-II is not the
How many of the above statements are correct explanation for Statement-I.
correct? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(a) Only one is incorrect.
(b) Only two (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(c) Only three II is correct.
(d) None
49. Consider the following statements
46. A person has been arrested for an alleged regarding the Right to Equality in India:
crime, and their family is concerned about
Statement-I: Reservations in educational
their well-being. Which writ can the family
file to ensure that the person is not institutions are based on caste.
subjected to any form of torture or inhuman Statement-II: Reservations can also be
treatment while in custody? provided for socially and educationally
(a) Mandamus backward classes.
(b) Habeas Corpus Which one of the following is correct in
(c) Certiorari respect of the above statements?
(d) Quo Warranto (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, and Statement-II is the correct
47. The government has imposed a ban on the explanation for Statement-I.
publication of a certain newspaper for (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
alleged national security reasons. The correct, and Statement-II is not the
newspaper publisher seeks a legal remedy correct explanation for Statement-I.
to challenge this ban. Which writ can be (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
used for this purpose? is incorrect.
(a) Habeas Corpus (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(b) Mandamus II is correct.
(c) Certiorari
(d) Prohibition 50. Consider the following statements
regarding the Right against Exploitation
48. Consider the following statements under Fundamental Rights in the Indian
regarding the Cultural and Educational Constitution:
Rights: 1. The Right against Exploitation includes
Statement-I: Minority communities have the prohibition of forced labor.
the right to establish and administer 2. Child labour is allowed under certain
educational institutions of their choice. circumstances as per the Indian
Constitution.


3. Slavery is not covered under the Right 53. Which one of the following statements best
against Exploitation. reflects the role of Fundamental Rights in
4. The Constitution does not explicitly the Indian Constitution?
define what constitutes "forced labor." (a) They ensure the protection of
How many of the above are constitutional individual liberties.
bodies?
(b) They grant privileges to individuals.
(a) Only one
(c) They primarily pertain to political and
(b) Only two
social rights.
(c) Only three
(d) All four (d) They are to protect the constitution and
its values.
51. With reference to the Fundamental Rights
in the Indian Constitution, consider the 54. Which statement accurately characterizes
following statements: the relationship between Fundamental
1. The Fundamental Rights are Rights and Directive Principles of State
enforceable against private individuals Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution?
and entities. (a) Fundamental Rights are subordinate to
2. The President can suspend the DPSP.
enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights and DPSP are
during a national emergency.
mutually exclusive.
3. The Right to Equality under Article 14
guarantees equal distribution of wealth (c) Fundamental Rights and DPSP are
in the country. equal in status.
4. The Supreme Court can issue writs (d) Fundamental Rights take precedence
only against the government and not over DPSP.
private individuals or entities.
correct? 55. Regarding the imposition of reasonable
(a) Only one
restrictions on Fundamental Rights, which
(b) Only two
statement is accurate?
(c) Only three
(a) Restrictions on Fundamental Rights
(d) All four
must be reasonable and can be imposed
only by the Parliament.
52. The government decided to curtail the
Freedom of Religion in the event of a (b) The judiciary alone has the authority to
public health emergency like covid 19, impose restrictions on Fundamental
leading to restrictions on religious Rights.
gatherings. Which article empowers the (c) Restrictions on Fundamental Rights
government to do so? must be prescribed by law and must be
(a) Article 15 reasonable.
(b) Article 26 (d) Fundamental Rights can never be
(c) Article 21 restricted under any circumstances.
(d) Article 25


56. In the context of Fundamental Rights, securing and protecting, as effectively as it
which statement accurately defines the may, a social order.
principle of "equal protection of the laws"? Which one of the following is correct in
(a) It implies that all citizens must be respect of the above statements?
provided the same legal remedies. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) It mandates that laws cannot correct, and Statement-II is the correct
discriminate against citizens based on explanation for Statement-I
their religion or caste.
(c) Equal protection of the laws means that correct, and Statement-II is not the
all laws must treat every citizen
correct explanation for Statement-I
equally.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(d) Equal protection of the laws ensures
is incorrect
that individuals are exempt from legal
obligations. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
57. With reference to the Fundamental Right to
Education in the Indian Constitution, 59. Consider the following statements
consider the following statements: regarding the Directive Principles of State
1. The Right to Education is a Policy:
fundamental right for children in the Statement-I: Directive Principles are legally
age group of 3 to 18 years. enforceable in case of a breach.
2. Private schools are mandated to provide Statement-II: Legislatures and executives
free and compulsory education under are to exercise their powers in accordance
this right. with the DPSP to uphold social justice.
3. The State has the authority to regulate Which one of the following is correct in
the fees charged by private unaided respect of the above statements?
schools. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the above statements are correct, and Statement-II is the correct
correct? explanation for Statement-I
(a) Only one
(b) Only two correct, and Statement-II is not the
(c) Only three correct explanation for Statement-I
(d) None (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
POLICY II is correct
58. Consider the following statements 60. Which of the following Directive Principles
regarding the Directive Principles of State of State Policy aim to secure the right to
Policy: work and Equity?
Statement-I: Directive Principles are only (a) Article 45 and Article 39A
applicable to the central government. (b) Article 41 and Article 46
Statement-II: The State shall strive to (c) Article 41 and Article 45
promote the welfare of the people by (d) Article 48A and Article 42


61. In the context of Directive Principles of provide a lawyer in stipulated time, leading
State Policy, which of the following to loss of case by the litigant.In the given
statements is correct? case, which of the following DPSPs is
1. Directive Principles are essential for the violated?
promotion of economic and social (a) Article 43B
democracy in India. (b) Article 39A
2. The state is not legally bound by (c) Article 37
Directive Principles in the governance
(d) Article 40
of the country.
3. The Fundamental Duties provided in
the Indian Constitution are closely 64. A state government decides to provide
related to Directive Principles. reservation in promotions to Scheduled
How many of the above are constitutional Castes and Scheduled Tribes in public
bodies? employment to fulfill ideals mentioned in
(a) Only one the Constitution. Which of the following
(b) Only two provisions does this decision aim to
(c) All three achieve?
(d) None (a) Article 46
(b) Article 41
62. Consider the following pairs: (c) Article 16
Amendment Articles inserted (d) Article 36
1. 42nd - Added Article
Amendment 39A, Article 48A, 65. In a scenario, a state government enforces a
1976 Article 43A, law that mandates the formation of
Article 39A municipality but does not make them
2. 44th - Created Article
financially independent. This law appears to
Amendment 38 to reduce
1978 inequalities. contradict which of the following Directive
3. 86th - Substitution of Principles of State Policy?
Amendment Article 45. (a) Article 243
2002 (b) Article 40
4. 97th - Created Article (c) Article 243P
Amendment 43B for
2011 cooperative (d) Article 46
societies.
How many of the above pairs are correctly 66. The central government decides to
matched? implement a policy that ensures adequate
(a) Only one pair means of livelihood for all citizens. This
(b) Only two pairs policy is in line with which Directive
(c) Only three pairs Principle of State Policy in the Indian
(d) All four pairs Constitution?
(a) Article 38
63. A victim of hit-and-run case seeks a (b) Article 39
qualified lawyer to represent his case in the (c) Article 47
court. However, NALSA is unable to (d) Article 48


67. A state government decides to impose a How many of the above statements are
heavy tax on luxury goods and use the correct?
revenue for funding higher education of (a) Only one
SCs and STS, as outlined in the Directive (b) Only two
Principles of State Policy. Which DPSP is (c) All three
the state government primarily trying to (d) None
implement?
(a) Article 45
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
(b) Article 46
(c) Article 47 70. With reference to amending Fundamental
(d) Article 51 Duties in the Indian Constitution, consider
the following statements:
68. With reference to amending Directive 1. The amendment of Fundamental Duties
Principles of State Policy in the requires a special majority in both
Constitution, consider the following houses of Parliament.
statements: 2. The amendment of Fundamental Duties
1. The procedure for amending Directive can be initiated only by prior
Principles requires a special majority in recommendation of the President of
both Houses of Parliament. India.
2. Unlike Fundamental Rights, Directive 3. Fundamental Duties can be amended
Principles can be amended by a simple through a joint session of Parliament if
majority in the Lok Sabha. there is a deadlock between the Lok
3. The President's assent is not required Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
for amending any Directive Principle. How many of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None
71. With reference to Fundamental Duties in
69. With reference to amending Directive the Indian Constitution, consider the
Principles of State Policy, consider the following statements:
following statements: Statement-I: Fundamental Duties are
1. The President can exercise a veto on applicable only to Indian citizens and not to
any amendment to Directive Principles foreigners.
if it contradicts the basic structure of Statement-II: The Parliament has the power
the Constitution. to prescribe the manner in which
2. There has been no amendment made to Fundamental Duties may be enforced.
the Directive Principles since the Which one of the following is correct in
adoption of the Constitution in 1950. respect of the above statements?
3. The scope of amending Directive (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Principles is limited by the public correct, and Statement-II is the correct
interest criterion. explanation for Statement-I.


(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are How many of the above statements are
correct, and Statement-II is not the correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I. (a) Only one
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (b) Only two
is incorrect. (c) Only three
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- (d) All Four
II is correct.
74. Which of the following Fundamental Duties
72. Regarding the inclusion of Fundamental leads to the economic progress of the
Duties in the Indian Constitution, consider country?
the following statements: 1. To value and preserve the rich heritage
Statement-I: Fundamental Duties were of our composite culture.
included in the original Constitution of 2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
India in 1950. unity, and integrity of India.
Statement-II: The fundamental duties were 3. To provide opportunities for education
inspired by the constitution of USSR . to his child or ward between the age of
Which one of the following is correct in six and eighteen years.
respect of the above statements? How many of the above statements are
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct?
correct, and Statement-II is the correct (a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I. (b) Only two
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (c) All three
correct, and Statement-II is not the
(d) None
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- 75. Which of the following statements
II is correct. accurately describes the legal enforceability
of Fundamental Duties in India?
1. Fundamental Duties are directly
73. Which of the following statements
enforceable by the judiciary, similar to
accurately describes the fundamental duties
Fundamental Rights.
of citizens as enshrined in the Indian
Constitution? 2. Violation of Fundamental Duties can
result in penalties and punishments
1. Fundamental Duties are justiciable in
imposed by the Parliament.
nature, and individuals can directly
approach the courts to enforce them. 3. The Indian Constitution includes a
comprehensive list of Fundamental
2. The 42nd Amendment to the
Duties, leaving no room for ambiguity.
Constitution introduced Fundamental
Duties How many of the above statements are
correct?
3. The 86th Amendment Act in 2002
increased the number of Fundamental (a) Only one
Duties from 10 to 11. (b) Only two
4. These duties act as a warning to the (c) All three
people against anti-social activities. (d) None


76. Which Fundamental Duties can be linked to How many of the above given statements
political development and nurturing youth are correct?
as future leaders? (a) Only one
1. To safeguard public property. (b) Only two
2. To develop the scientific temper, (c) Only three
humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and (d) All four
reform.
3. To cherish and follow the noble ideals 79. Fundamental Duties in India serve which of
which inspired our national struggle for the following purposes?
freedom. 1. As a constant reminder to citizens of
How many of the above statements are their duties while exercising their
correct? constitutional rights.
(a) Only one 2. As a set of moral principles for citizens
(b) Only two to follow voluntarily.
(c) All three 3. To contribute to the development of
(d) None discipline and patriotism among
citizens.
77. Which statement accurately distinguishes How many of the above statements are
between Fundamental Duties and correct?
Fundamental Rights? (a) Only one
1. Fundamental Duties are legally (b) Only two
enforceable, while Fundamental Rights (c) All three
are moral obligations. (d) None
2. Fundamental Duties are outlined in Part
III of the Indian Constitution, whereas 80. Fundamental Duties are inextricably linked
Fundamental Rights are detailed in Part to:
IV.
1. Fundamental Rights
3. Fundamental Duties are subject to
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
amendments, while Fundamental
Rights remain unalterable.
correct?
(a) Only 1
correct?
(b) Only 2
(a) Only one
(c) Both 1 & 2
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
(d) None
81. With reference to the amendment process,
78. The words Sovereign, Unity and Integrity
1. In the USA, a constitutional
are mentioned in which of the following:
amendment can be proposed either by a
1. Preamble
two-thirds majority vote in both houses
2. Directive principles of state policy of Congress or by a national
3. Fundamental Rights constitutional convention called for by
4. Fundamental duties two-thirds of state legislatures.


2. In India, a constitutional amendment 3. In the USA, a proposed constitutional
can be proposed by a two-thirds amendment must be ratified by at least
majority vote in both houses of 75% of the state legislatures to become
Parliament. part of the Constitution.
3. In both India and the USA, ratification How many of the above statements are
of all constitutional amendments correct?
requires a simple majority vote of the (a) Only one
state legislatures.
(b) Only two
correct? (c) Only three
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 84. With reference to amending the Indian
(d) None Constitution, consider the following
statements:
82. With reference to the amendment process in 1. Article 368 provides the procedure for
the Constitution, consider the following amending the Constitution.
statements: 2. Article 2 allows Parliament to amend
1. In India, an amendment to the the Constitution to change the names
Constitution can be initiated by either and territories of States.
House of Parliament. 3. Article 4 allows for amendments to the
2. In the United Kingdom, constitutional First Schedule of the Constitution.
amendments require a simple majority How many of the above statements are
vote in both the House of Commons correct?
and the House of Lords. (a) Only one
3. In Australia, constitutional amendments (b) Only two
must be approved by a majority of
(c) All three
voters in a national referendum.
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one 85. In the context of amending the Indian
(b) Only two Constitution and the USA Constitution,
(c) All three consider the following statements:
(d) None 1. In the USA, the process of amending
the Constitution is more rigid and each
amendment requires the approval of a
83. Regarding the amendment of the Indian
Constitution and the USA Constitution, three-fourth majority of state
consider the following statements: legislatures.
1. In the USA, there is no time limit for 2. In India, constitutional amendments can
the ratification of constitutional be initiated only by the central
amendments proposed by Congress. government and do not involve the
2. In India, a constitutional amendment states at any stage.
proposed by Parliament must be ratified 3. In both countries, the amendment
by at least 50% of the state legislatures process is lengthy and rarely used.
within 1 years.


correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) Only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) None of the above
86. With reference to the amendment of the 88. With regard to the amendment of the Indian
Indian Constitution, consider the following Constitution, consider the following
statements: statements:
1. A constitutional amendment bill related 1. A constitutional amendment bill passed
by Parliament cannot be challenged in a
to the change of the jurisdiction of the
court of law.
Supreme Court requires a simple
majority in both Houses. 2. A constitutional amendment bill that
affects the representation of states in
2. The President has the power to veto
Parliament can be passed by a special
constitutional amendments proposed by majority in both- Parliament and state
the Parliament that violate the basic legislatures.
structure of the constitution. 3. The President has the power to return a
3. The provision for joint sitting of both constitutional amendment bill for
Houses for the passage of a reconsideration, but Parliament can
constitutional amendment is not override the President's veto with a
mentioned in the Constitution. two-thirds majority.
correct? correct?
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) None
87. With reference to the amendment procedure 89. With reference to the amendment of the
of the Indian Constitution, consider the Indian Constitution, consider the following
following statements: statements:
1. The Constitution explicitly states that
1. A constitutional amendment that seeks
the Parliament of India can amend any
to alter the federal character of the
part of the Constitution without any
Constitution requires a special majority
limitations.
of two-thirds of the total members of
2. A constitutional amendment bill that
each House and ratification by at least
affects the official language of the
half of the state legislatures.
country requires ratification by a simple
2. The Constitution of India explicitly majority of state legislatures.
defines the term "basic structure" for 3. The power to amend the Constitution of
the purpose of constitutional India is vested solely in the parliament,
amendments. and the President plays no role in the
amendment process.


correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three (d) None
(c) Only three
(d) None BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
IN INDIA
90. Regarding constitutional amendments in
India, consider the following statements:
92. With reference to the Basic Structure
1. A constitutional amendment that seeks
Doctrine in India, consider the following
to change the name of a state can be statements:
done by a simple majority in 1. The Basic Structure Doctrine was first
Parliament. introduced in the Kesavananda Bharati
2. The Constitution does not provide for a case.
time limit within which a constitutional 2. The doctrine provides that certain
amendment must be ratified by state fundamental features of the
legislatures. Constitution are beyond the amending
3. Parliament acts as a constituent power of the Parliament.
assembly while amending the 3. The Basic Structure Doctrine has been
constitution. derived from the provision mentioned
in the Constitution, and not mentioned
How many of the above statements are directly in the Constitution.
correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
91. Which of the following statements
accurately differentiates between ordinary 93. In the context of the basic structure doctrine
and special amendments in the Indian and the power of judicial review, which
Constitution? statement is accurate?
(a) The basic structure doctrine was
1. An ordinary amendment requires a
explicitly mentioned in the original text
simple majority in Parliament, while a of the Indian Constitution.
special amendment requires a two- (b) The power of judicial review
thirds majority. encompasses all aspects of government
2. Ordinary amendments pertain to decisions, including political decisions
specific provisions of the Constitution, made by the executive.
while special amendments are general (c) The Supreme Court's power of judicial
in nature. review extends to Constitutional
3. Ordinary amendments can be initiated matters and to some other legal issues.
by either House of Parliament, whereas (d) The basic structure doctrine is based on
special amendments can only be the doctrine of parliamentary
initiated by the Lok Sabha. sovereignty.


94. Consider the following statements: FEDERAL SYSTEM
1. The basic structure doctrine allows the
97. With reference to the Indian federal system,
judiciary to strike down any
constitutional amendment that violates
1. The Indian federal system is a holding
fundamental rights.
together federation.
2. Judicial review in India is limited to
2. The division of powers in the Indian
reviewing the actions of the Executive
federal system includes the separation
and not those of the Legislature. of powers between the executive,
3. The judiciary's power of judicial review legislative, and judicial branches.
can be expanded or contracted through 3. The Indian Constitution is more rigid
constitutional amendments. than flexible. constitution.
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
95. With reference to the basic structure (d) None
doctrine and judicial review, which of the
following statements is correct? 98. . With reference to the federal system in
(a) The basic structure doctrine enables the India, consider the following statements:
judiciary to direct the parliament to 1. India's federal system is primarily
amend the Constitution. inspired by the Canadian model of
(b) Judicial review is primarily a federalism.
mechanism for correcting legislative 2. The term 'federation' is explicitly
errors. mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
(c) Indian constitution provides for Judicial 3. In a holding-together federation,
Review. powers are predominantly vested in the
states.
(d) The evolution of basic structure
doctrine is based on a single landmark How many of the above statements are
correct?
case in Indian legal history.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
96. Regarding the basic structure doctrine in
(c) Only three
India and similar principles abroad, which
(d) None
of the following countries has a doctrine
that closely resembles the Indian basic
structure doctrine? 99. In the context of India's federal system, which
of the following statements is correct?
1. United States
1. The Indian Constitution designates the
2. United Kingdom
organisation, structure, functions, and
3. Germany powers of state and central
How many of the above statements are governments.
correct? 2. The Union List encompasses more
(a) Only one (b) Only two significant subjects than the State List,
(c) All three (d) None indicating a strong central government.


3. In India, the residual power rests with 102. Consider the following statements:
the state legislatures. 1. The power of the President to
How many of the above statements are declare a state of emergency in a
correct? State.
(a) Only one 2. The existence of All India Services
(b) Only two recruited by the central government
but serving both the state and central
(c) All three
governments.
(d) None
3. The Governor's veto power over
State Bills.
100. Regarding the Indian federal system, 4. States are Indestructible
which of the following features are unique How many of the above statements are
to India compared to other federal correct with respect to federalism in
systems? India?
1. The Indian Constitution is the (a) Only one
lengthiest in the world. (b) Only two
2. The President of India has the power (c) Only three
to withhold assent to bills passed by (d) All Four
state legislatures.
3. India follows a bicameral legislative 103. Which of the following methods can help
system at both the central and state strengthen federalism in India?
levels. 1. Ensuring greater representation and
How many of the above statements are participation of states in national
correct? decision-making.
(a) Only one 2. Addressing regional imbalances and
(b) Only two inequalities through special
(c) All three assistance.
(d) None 3. Reducing devolution of powers and
resources to states.
101. With regard to Indian federalism, which of
correct?
the following statements is correct?
(a) Only one
1. India has a single citizenship for its
(b) Only two
citizens.
(c) All three
2. The Governor of a State is appointed
with concurrence of Chief Minister (d) None
of the respective State.
3. The Indian federal system is based 104. With respect to the promotion of
on the Australian model of federalism in India, which of the
federation. following institutions plays a crucial role
How many of the above statements are in effectively promoting cooperation
correct? between the Centre and the states?
(a) Only one 1. The Supreme Court
(b) Only two 2. The Finance Commission
(c) All three 3. The NITI Aayog
(d) None 4. The Inter-State Council


correct? correct?
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None
105. Consider the following statement about 107. In the distribution of legislative subjects in
reason for adoption of federal system in India, which of the following is NOT
India: correct?
1. To maintain unity and integrity of 1. Parliament has exclusive powers
the Nation. over the Union and concurrent list.
2. Due to colonial experience of the 2. During the Last National
system. Emergency, the amendment brought
3. To manage the various regional by the Parliament has reduced the
aspirations. State legislative power.
4. To provide equal representation to 3. In case of a conflict between a
all states in Parliament. central law and a state law on a
How many of the above statements are subject from the Concurrent list, the
Incorrect? centre law always prevails.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements are not
(b) Only two correct?
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) All three
CENTRE AND STATE RELATIONS (d) None
106. With reference to the central and
state legislation, which of the 108. With respect to the Centre's control over
following statements is correct? state legislation, which statement is
correct?
1. The state legislative laws can be
implemented outside of its territory 1. The Governor can reserve any bill passed
by the president during the state by the state legislature at first instance for
emergency in that territory. the consideration of the President.
2. Only the Parliament can make laws 2. The state legislature should take
on oil and natural gas found even permission/recommendations from/of the
within the territorial extent of the President to introduce bills like imposing
state. restrictions on the freedom of trade and
3. The President can make regulations commerce.
with the same effect as laws made 3. The President can call upon the head of
by Parliament for certain Union the Government of the states to reserve
Territories. money bills and other financial bills
during a financial emergency.


How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above statements are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None
109. In the context of parliamentary legislation
in the state field, consider the following 111. Regarding the distribution of legislative
statements: subjects, consider the following statements:
1. During a National Emergency, 1. The 44th Amendment Act
Parliament can legislate on state list transferred five subjects to the
subjects, and such laws remain in concurrent list from the union list,
effect till for the duration of the including education and forests.
emergency. 2. In the USA, only powers concerning
2. Even if a state passes a resolution the federal government are
requesting Parliament to legislate on mentioned in the Constitution, while
a state list subject, the state can in Canada, two lists are enumerated:
continue to make laws on the same centre and state.
subject. 3. The scheme of enumeration of
legislative subjects was borrowed
3. Parliament in USA and Australia can
from the Government of India Act,
also legislate on subjects in the state
1935, where residuary powers were
list in extreme emergency situations. vested in the Central government.
correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
110. In the context of the territorial extent of 112. With reference to the executive powers of
central and state legislation, consider the the Union and the States, consider the
following statements: following statements:
1. The President can make regulations 1. The executive power in States with
for Andaman and Nicobar islands, respect to matters in the Concurrent
Daman and Diu, Dadra and Nagar List shall ordinarily remain with the
Haveli, and Lakshadweep. respective States unless the
2. The Governor of Assam can direct Constitution or Parliament by law
that an act of Parliament does not expressly provides otherwise.
apply to a Tribal area in the state or 2. The executive power of a State or its
apply with specified modifications. officers and authorities existing
3. The President can direct that an act immediately before the
of Parliament does not apply to commencement of the Constitution
Tribal areas in Meghalaya, Tripura, with respect to matters in the Union
and Mizoram. List, shall cease to exist with
commencement of the Constitution


3. The executive power of the Union 115. With reference to the legislative powers of
and the States is always coextensive the Union and the States in India, consider
with their respective legislative the following statements:
powers. 1. The Union can entrust the execution
How many of the above statements are of Union laws to State agencies for
correct? matters in the Union List.
(a) Only one 2. Matters in the State List can be
(b) Only two administered by both the Union and
(c) All three the States without restrictions.
(d) None 3. Centre cannot delegate its
legislative powers to the states.
113. In the context of the Goods and Services How many of the above statements are
Tax in India, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) Only one
1. GST is a concurrent subject in the (b) Only two
Constitution. (c) All three
2. The GST Council is responsible for (d) None
making recommendations on tax
rates and other matters related to
116. With reference to the distribution of
GST.
financial powers between the Union and
3. The Parliament has the exclusive
the States in India, consider the following
power to amend the GST law.
statements:
1. The Union has exclusive control
correct?
over all sources of revenue, and the
(a) Only one
States are dependent on grants from
(b) Only two
the Union.
(c) All three
2. The States have the power to levy
(d) None
taxes on agricultural income, which
the Union cannot tax.
114. With reference to the utilisation of 3. Article 275 empowers the
executive power in the Concurrent field, Parliament to make statutory grants
consider the following statements: to states and these grants are charged
1. The Union may leave the on consolidated fund of India.
administration of a Union legislation How many of the above statements are
entirely to the States. correct?
2. The Electricity (Supply) (a) Only one
Amendment Act, 1956, leaves the
(b) Only two
administration of this Act wholly to
(c) All three
the Union government.
(d) None
correct?
(a) 1 only 117. Which of the following is a situation
where the executive power of the Union
(b) 2 only
extends to giving directions to a State as
(c) Both 1 and 2
to the construction and maintenance of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 means of communication?


(a) Whenever the Union deems it INTER STATE RELATIONS
necessary for any reason.
120. With reference to the Inter-State Water
(b) When the State requests such
Disputes Water Disputes is within the
directions from the Union.
exclusive jurisdiction in India, consider
(c) When the means of communication the following statements:
are declared to be of national or 1. The resolution of Inter-State of the
military importance. Supreme Court.
(d) In all cases involving transportation. 2. The decision of the Water Disputes
Tribunal established by the supreme
118. Which of the following best describes the court is binding on the states
obligation of the Government of India involved.
when a State incurs extra costs in carrying How many of the above statements are
out directions given by the Union? correct?
(a) The State must bear the extra costs (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
incurred. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) The Union is not obligated to cover
any extra costs incurred by the State. 121. With reference to the Inter-State River
(c) The central government must pay to Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019,
the State such sums as may be consider the following statements:
agreed upon. 1. The Disputes Resolution Committee
comprises of experts with at least 10
(d) The State is responsible for covering years of experience in relevant
all costs associated with carrying out sectors, nominated by the central
Union directions. government..
2. The Disputes Resolution Committee
119. With reference to the Sarkaria must resolve a dispute through
Commission, consider the following negotiations within six months.
statements: 3. The central government may appoint
1. It was constituted to review and assessors from the states involved in
the dispute to advise the Tribunal
recommend changes to the
Bench.
relationship between the centre and
the states. correct?
2. The Commission submitted its report (a) Only one
in 1988. (b) Only two
3. One of its key recommendations was (c) All three
the establishment of the National (d) None
Development Council.
How many of the above statements are 122. With reference to the Inter-state Council,
correct? consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. According to the Constitution, the
(b) Only two President can establish the Inter-state
(c) Only three Council at any time it appears to him
(d) None that public interest would be served
by its establishment.


2. The Inter-State Council is a 3. The meetings, proceedings, and
permanent constitutional body for deliberations of the Council should
coordination between the states and be held in public.
the Central government. 4. Approval by at least two-thirds of
3. The Chairman of the Standing the members need be laid down for
Committee of the Inter-State Council determining whether a consensus has
is the Prime Minister. been reached
correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
123. Which of the following statements about 125. With reference to Zonal Councils in India,
the establishment and functioning of the consider the following statements:
Inter-State Council is correct? 1. The idea of creating Zonal Councils
1. The Inter-State Council is mandatory was proposed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
and constitutionally mandated, during the drafting of the Indian
ensuring regular meetings for Constitution.
coordination between states and the 2. Zonal Councils are constitutional
Central government. bodies under 263A, with specific
2. The Inter-State Council has had legislative powers.
more than 25 meetings since its 3. The Zonal Councils also act as the
establishment in 1990. forum for the resolution of disputes
3. The Inter-State Council has a between States.
permanent secretariat for its How many of the above statements are
functioning. correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 126. With reference to Zonal Councils in India,
124. With reference to Inter-State Council, 1. The secretariat of the Zonal council
consider the following statements: and the Inter state council are same.
1. The Intergovernmental Council 2. The Northeastern states are part of
should evolve guidelines to identify the zonal council. It is known as
and select issues to be brought up northeast council.
before it. 3. The Union Home Minister acts as
2. All advisory decisions should be the Chairman of each Zonal Council.
taken based on consensus.


How many of the above statements are EMERGENCY
correct?
129. Consider the following statements about
(a) Only one
the grounds for declaring a National
(b) Only two Emergency in India:
(c) All three 1. The Constitution employs the
(d) None expression proclamation of
emergency to denote an emergency
127. Regarding the composition of Zonal of this type.
Councils in India, consider the following 2. National emergency can be declared
statements: on the basis of internal disturbance
1. Each Zonal Council includes the or insurgency.
Chief Minister and two other 3. A National Emergency declared due
Ministers from each member state. to external aggression is known as
Internal Emergency.
2. The Union Territories are not
represented in Zonal Councils. How many of the above statements are
correct?
3. The Central Zonal Council
(a) Only one
comprises the States of Chhattisgarh,
(b) Only two
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and
Madhya Pradesh. (c) All three
How many of the above statements are (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one 130. Consider the following statements about
the effects of a National Emergency on
(b) Only two
fundamental rights:
(c) All three 1. Article 19 is automatically
(d) None suspended when a National
Emergency is declared on the basis
128. Consider the following statements about of war/external aggression.
the objectives of Zonal Councils in India: 2. Article 358 specifies that Article 19
1. Promoting national integration. can only be suspended during a
2. Resolving border disputes between National Emergency declared on the
states. grounds of war or external
aggression.
3. Fostering linguistic and regional
3. Proclamation of emergency can
diversity.
suspend right to move any court for
4. Coordinating and cooperating on the enforcement of Fundamental
development projects. Rights.
correct? correct?
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None


131. Consider the following statements 133. Consider the following statements about
regarding the declaration of a National the President's rule:
Emergency: 1. The President can impose President's
1. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 rule in a state only on the ground
added the provision that made the that there is a failure of
declaration of National Emergency constitutional machinery.
immune to judicial review. 2. During President's rule, the state
2. According to the constitution, assembly is automatically dissolved.
National Emergency can be 3. President's rule can be imposed in a
challenged in court on the grounds state without the Governor's
of malafide or based on wholly recommendation.
extraneous and irrelevant facts. How many of the above statements are
3. A proclamation of National correct?
Emergency can be extended (a) Only one
indefinitely by presidential order (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 134. Consider the following statements:
(c) All three 1. The constitution imposes an
(d) None obligation on the Union to protect
every State against external
132. Consider the following statements aggression and internal disturbance.
regarding President’s rule of the Indian 2. The manner in which the Union
Constitution: must protect a State is explicitly
1. The power given to the central outlined in the constitution.
government under Article 356 is 3. Article 356 provides provisions in
unique in liberal democratic case of the failure of constitutional
constitutions as it is completely machinery in States.
absent in the North American How many of the above statements are
Constitutions. correct?
2. Both India and Pakistan borrowed (a) Only one
Article 356 from the Government of (b) Only two
India Act, 1935. (c) All three
3. B.R. Ambedkar assured that Article (d) None
356 would remain a dead letter and
not be used. 135. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are the judicial review of proclamations of
correct? state emergency:
(a) Only one 1. The constitution has provided that
(b) Only two the validity of the proclamation
(c) All three issued by the President under Article
356 is subject to judicial review.
(d) None


2. When a prima facie case is made out 2. An elector can propose or second the
challenging the proclamation, the nomination of more than one
burden is on the Union Government candidate.
to prove the relevance of the 3. The nomination stage was
material. introduced Only in 1974 to prevent
3. The court can interdict the issuance frivolous candidates from contesting.
of the proclamation or the exercise How many of the above statements are
of any other power under the correct?
proclamation.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(d) None 138. Regarding the value of each vote in the
election of the Indian President, which of
the following statements is accurate?
136. Regarding the duration of a Financial
Emergency in India, which of the 1. All members of Lok Sabha can vote
following is true? in Presidential elections
1. Once approved by both Houses of 2. The value of each MLA's vote is
Parliament, a Financial Emergency calculated by dividing the population
continues indefinitely until it is of the State by the number of MLAs
revoked. and then multiplying by 1,000.
2. The proclamation of Financial 3. The population data of states used
Emergency automatically expires for the calculation for the
after six months if not renewed by presidential election is based on the
Parliament. 2001 Census figures.
3. The Financial Emergency can be How many of the above statements are
extended for a maximum period of correct?
two years at a time. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
correct?
(c) All three
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None 139. Which of the following is true regarding
the election of the Indian President?
137. Which of the following statements 1. The President is elected by a simple
regarding the nomination stage of the majority of the electoral college.
Indian Presidential election candidate is 2. The electoral college includes
correct? Members of Parliaments but not
1. The candidate needs to have 100 Members of Legislative Councils.
proposers and 100 seconders for 3. The value of an MLA's vote is the
their nomination. same in all states.


correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
140. Consider the following statements 142. Consider the following statements
regarding the re-election of the Indian regarding the President's right to defend
during the impeachment process:
President:
1. The President of India has the right
1. The Constitution puts a bar in
to defend themselves through an
making the president eligible for re-
authorised counsel during the
election.
impeachment process.
2. The Indian President can be re- 2. The President can choose to defend
elected for a maximum of one themselves or appoint any
additional term. person/lawyer of their choice.
3. The re-election of the Indian 3. The President cannot appoint the
President is subject to the approval Attorney General of India as their
of the Parliament and State defence counsel during the
Legislative Assemblies. impeachment process
correct? correct?
(c) All three
(d) None 143. Consider the following statements
regarding the powers of the President of
India:
1. The President can grant pardons,
regarding the impeachment of the
reprieves, respites, or remissions of
President of India:
punishment in all cases where the
1. According to the constitution, the punishment or sentence is by a Court
President can be removed from his Martial.
office before the expiry of his term 2. The President can suspend, remit, or
only on the grounds of violation of commute the sentence of any person
the constitution. convicted of an offence against any
2. The Constitution under Article 61 law relating to a matter to which the
defines the meaning of the phrase executive power of the Union
violation of the constitution. extends.
3. The resolution to impeach the 3. The President can suspend, remit, or
President must be passed by a commute a sentence of death
special majority not only in the exercisable by the Governor of a
originating house, but also in other State under any law for the time
house being in force.


How many of the above statements are 3. Inclusion of new members in the
correct? Electoral College requires a
(a) Only one constitutional amendment carried
(b) Only two out through a special majority in
(c) All three Parliament and ratification by over
(d) None 50% of the States.
correct?
144. . Consider the following statements about
the grounds for impeachment of the (a) Only one
President: (b) Only two
1. Unlike Indian President, A US (c) All three
President may be impeached for (d) None
high crimes and other
misdemeanours of the US VICE PRESIDENT
Constitution.
2. In the US, any member of the House 146. Consider the following statements related
of Representatives can introduce an to the Vice President of India:
impeachment resolution whereas in 1. The Vice President serves for a five-
India, either of the Houses may year term, but can continue to be in
prefer impeachment charges if office until the successor assumes
office.
signed by at least 1/4th members of
the preferring House. 2. The Vice President may resign his
office by submitting his resignation
3. Impeachment of the President is to the President of India, which
justiciable in both the US and India. becomes effective immediately.
How many of the above statements are 3. The Vice President can be removed
correct? from office by a resolution of the
(a) Only one Council of States (Rajya Sabha),
(b) Only two agreed to by the House of the People
(c) All three (Lok Sabha), after a notice of at least
(d) None 14 days.
correct?
(a) Only one
regarding the President's powers and
functions: (b) Only two
(c) All three
1. The provision that is the President is
bound by the advice of the Council (d) None
of Ministers headed by the Prime
Minister is enforced along with the 147. Consider the following statements
constitution. regarding the Vice President of India:
2. The framers of the constitution 1. The Vice President is the ex-officio
allowed the President to return a Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
matter once for reconsideration of 2. The Vice President can be removed
his ministers, to keep a check on from office by a resolution passed by
legislature a simple special majority (Two third
present and voting) in Rajya Sabha.


3. The Vice President is elected by an How many of the above statements are
electoral college consisting of correct?
members of both houses of (a) Only one
Parliament and state legislative (b) Only two
assembly members. (c) All three
correct?
(b) Only two the Prime Minister of India:
(c) All three 1. The Prime Minister is the head of
(d) None the Union Council of Ministers.
2. The Prime Minister can appoint the
PRIME MINISTER Chief Election Commissioner.
3. The Prime Minister's term is fixed at
five years.
regarding the Prime Minister of India:
1. The Prime Minister is responsible
correct?
for the administration of the
(a) Only one
government.
(b) Only two
2. The Prime Minister is appointed by
the President on the advice of the (c) All three
Council of Ministers. (d) None
3. The Prime Minister can be removed
from office by a vote of no COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
confidence in the Lok Sabha.
151. Which of the following statements about
correct?
the Council of Ministers (COM) in India
(a) Only one
is correct?
(b) Only two
1. According to the 91st amendment,
(c) All three
The COM can be larger than 15% of
(d) None the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
2. A minister who is not a member of
149. Consider the following statements Parliament for six consecutive
regarding the powers of the Prime months must cease to be a minister.
Minister of India: 3. The COM is collectively responsible
1. The Prime Minister can be from to the Parliament.
Rajya Sabha. How many of the above statements are
2. The Prime Minister represents India correct?
in international negotiations and (a) Only one
conducts diplomacy with foreign (b) Only two
countries.
(c) All three
3. The Prime Minister has the power to
(d) None
dismiss members of the Lok Sabha.


152. Consider the following statements about 3. The composition of cabinet
the individual responsibility of ministers committees in India typically
in India: consists of only Cabinet Ministers.
1. Ministers doesn’t hold office during How many of the above statements are
the pleasure of the President as they correct?
got mandate from the people to rule (a) Only one
till the confidence exist.
(b) Only two
2. The President can remove a minister
(c) All three
at any time on the Prime Minister’s
advice, even if the Council of (d) None
Ministers enjoys the confidence of
the Lok Sabha. 155. Consider the following statements
3. The Prime Minister can remove a regarding Cabinet committees in India:
minister without the President's 1. Cabinet committees are extra
approval. constitutional bodies and they are
How many of the above statements are established under the rules of
correct? business.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. All Cabinet committees in India are
(c) All three (d) None of a permanent nature.
3. Cabinet committees are set up by the
153. Which of the following statements about President of India.
the Cabinet Ministers in India is correct? How many of the above statements are
1. Cabinet Ministers head the important correct?
ministries of the Central (a) Only one
government, such as home, defence,
(b) Only two
and finance.
(c) All three
2. Cabinet is the chief policy
formulating body of the Central (d) None
government.
3. Cabinet Ministers can be given 156. Consider the following statements
independent charge of ministries. regarding the Cabinet Committee on
How many of the above statements are Economic Affairs:
correct? 1. The head of the Committee is the
(a) Only one (b) Only two Finance Minister.
(c) All three (d) None 2. It reviews rural development and the
Public Distribution System.
CABINET COMMITTEE 3. The Committee deals with industrial
licensing policies.
regarding Cabinet committees in India:
correct?
1. Cabinet committees are explicitly
(a) Only one
mentioned in the Indian
Constitution. (b) Only two
2. Ad hoc committees are of a (c) All three
permanent nature. (d) None


157. Consider the following statements 2. The committee is composed of
regarding the Cabinet Committee on cabinet ministers from various
Political Affairs: ministries with one of them as the
1. It deals with all policy matters head.
pertaining to domestic and foreign 3. It determines the guidelines for the
affairs. allotment of government
2. Matters with external or internal accommodation.
security implications are dealt with How many of the above statements are
by the Cabinet Committee on correct?
Political Affairs. (a) Only one
3. It scrutinises non-government (b) Only two
business and decides which official
(c) All three
Bills and resolutions are to be
presented. (d) None
correct? 160. Consider the following statements
(a) Only one regarding the Cabinet Committee on
(b) Only two Investment and Growth:
(c) All three 1. It prescribes time limits for giving
(d) None requisite approvals and clearances
by the ministries concerned in
identified sectors.
regarding the Cabinet Committee on 2. The head of the Committee is the
Security: Union Minister of commerce.
1. It deals with issues relating to atomic 3. The Committee deals with issues
energy. relating to law and order in SEZ
2. It considers cases involving capital zones.
defence expenditure more than Rs How many of the above statements are
1,000 crore. correct?
3. The head of the Committee is the (a) Only one
Union Home Minister. (b) Only two
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three SUPREME COURT
(d) None 161. With reference to the Indian judiciary,
159. Consider the following statements 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme
regarding the Cabinet Committee on Court of India can be called back to
Accommodation: sit and act as a Supreme Court judge
1. It can consider the allotment of by the Chief Justice of India with the
government accommodation from prior permission of the President of
the General Pool to Members of India.
Parliament.


2. A High Court in India has the power How many of the above statements are
to review its own judgement as the correct?
Supreme Court does. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above (b) Only two
is/are correct? (c) All three
(a) 1 only (d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 164. Consider the following statements about
(d) Neither I nor 2 the jurisdiction to order arrest in contempt
cases:
162. consider the following Statements. 1. The power to order arrest is a
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal punitive measure in contempt cases.
Committee, the Contempt of Courts 2. Subordinate courts can order the
Act, 1971 was passed. arrest of a person in a contempt case.
2. The Constitution of India empowers 3. Contempt of Court may involve
the Supreme Court and the High scandalising or lowering the
Courts to punish for contempt of authority of any court.
themselves. Which of the above statements are
3. The Constitution of India defines correct?
Civil Contempt and Criminal (a) Only one
Contempt. (b) Only two
4. In India, the Parliament is vested (c) Only three
with the powers to make laws on (d) None
Contempt of Court.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
regarding the Supreme Court:
(a) only one
1. The Supreme Court has original
(b) only two jurisdiction in disputes arising out of
(c) only three any pre-Constitution treaty,
(d) All four. agreement.
2. The Supreme Court has exclusive
163. Consider the following statements about original jurisdiction in inter-state
the power of the Supreme Court to punish water disputes.
for contempt of itself: 3. The Supreme Court can issue writs
1. The power of the Supreme Court to like habeas corpus, mandamus,
punish for contempt of itself is prohibition, quo-warranto, and
inherent in their sovereign judicial certiorari for the enforcement of
power. legal rights.
2. Truth cannot be pleaded as a defence How many of the above statements are
to a charge of contempt of court. correct?
3. Apart from the supreme court and (a) Only one
high courts, no other courts and (b) Only two
tribunals hold the inherent power to (c) All three
punish for contempt of itself. (d) None


166. Which of the following powers of the How many of the above statements are
Supreme Court allows it to declare correct?
legislative and executive actions contrary (a) Only one
to fundamental rights as void? (b) Only two
(a) Original Jurisdiction (c) All three
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction (d) None
(c) Writ Jurisdiction
(d) Power of granted by the Article 13 169. Which of the following statements
regarding the Supreme Court's advisory
167. Consider the following statements about jurisdiction is correct?
the Removal of Judges by impeachment in 1. The President is bound to accept the
the Supreme Court: advice given by the Supreme Court.
1. According to the constitution, a 2. The Supreme Court may refuse to
judge of the Supreme Court can be give its advice on questions of law
removed only for his misbehaviour or fact of public importance.
or incapacity. 3. This jurisdiction is limited to matters
2. The constitution provides for the arising after the Constitution came
impeachment process, leading to the into effect.
removal of Supreme Court judges. How many of the above statements are
3. Till now, the impeachment process correct?
was not initiated against any (a) Only one
Supreme Court judges. (b) Only two
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 170. The Supreme Court has the power to issue
(c) All three writs. Consider the following statements
(d) None regarding this power:
1. The Supreme Court's writ
168. Consider the following assertions about jurisdiction is exclusive, and High
the Supreme Court's appellate jurisdiction Courts cannot issue writs.
in criminal cases: 2. The Supreme Court can issue writs
1. The Supreme Court entertains for the enforcement of any legal
appeals against a High Court rights.
decision that awards death sentence 3. High Courts can issue writs for the
to the accused. enforcement of fundamental rights.
2. An appeal can be brought to the How many of the above statements are
Supreme Court if a case is correct?
withdrawn from a lower court to the (a) Only one
High Court. (b) Only two
3. Appeals in all criminal cases can be (c) All three
made to the Supreme Court without
(d) None
any certification from the High
Court


171. Which of the following matters fall under 3. Advisory Committees are concerned
the Supreme Court's appellate with bills and their procedures.
jurisdiction? How many of the above statements are
1. Appeals in civil cases involving correct?
disputes over property and marriage. (a) Only one
2. Appeals in criminal cases where a (b) Only two
death sentence has been awarded by (c) All three
the High Court. (d) None
3. Appeals in constitutional cases
certified by the High Court to
involve substantial questions of law.
regarding the Public Accounts Committee
(PAC):
correct?
1. PAC was first established under the
(a) Only one
provisions of the Government of
(b) Only two India Act of 1919.
(c) All three 2. PAC consists of 30 members elected
(d) None by proportional representation by
172. Under what circumstances can the means of the single transferable
Supreme Court grant special leave to vote.
appeal? 3. The Chairman of PAC is invariably
1. It is a matter of right. selected from the ruling party since
2. It can be granted only for final 1967.
judgments. How many of the above statements are
3. It can be related to any matter. correct?
4. It can be granted against any court. (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
175. Which limitation is imposed on the
(d) All four functioning of Departmentally-Related
Standing Committees (DRSC)?
PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES (a) They are not allowed to examine
annual reports of
ministries/departments.
Ad Hoc Committees: (b) They should not consider the matters
of day-to-day administration of the
1. Inquiry Committees are constituted
concerned ministries/departments.
by the Speaker / Chairman to inquire
into specific subjects. (c) They can suggest cut motions during
the consideration of demands for
2. Joint Committee on Bofors Contract
falls under the category of Advisory grants.
Committees. (d) They have the power to issue
binding orders to ministries.


176. Consider the following statements 3. The expert assistance for the Public
regarding the Estimates Committee: Accounts Committee is nominated
1. The chairman of the committee is by the Speaker.
always and at any circumstances, How many of the above statements are
from the ruling party. correct?
2. The committee examines budget (a) Only one
estimates before they are voted by (b) Only two
Parliament. (c) All three
3. The committee suggests 'economies' (d) None
in public expenditure.
correct?
(a) Only one parliamentary committees:
(b) Only two 1. The Public Accounts Committee and
(c) All three the Committee on Public
(d) None Undertakings consist of the same
number of members from both the
177. Consider the following statements about Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
the Committee on Public Undertakings: 2. The Departmental Standing
1. The committee examines the reports Committees have a Chairman
of the Comptroller and Auditor appointed from among Lok Sabha
General of India on the Public members by the Speaker.
Undertakings. 3. The Estimates Committee is the only
2. The Committee on Public committee in India that involves
Undertakings is primarily concerned expert assistance from the
with broader policy matters. Comptroller and Auditor General
3. The Committee on Public (CAG).
Undertakings has 15 members from How many of the above statements are
the Lok Sabha. correct?
(c) All three
(d) None 180. Consider the following statements
regarding the establishment of
178. Consider the following statements about parliamentary committees:
the expert assistance for the Public 1. The Committee on Public
Accounts Committee: Undertakings was established after
1. The Public Accounts Committee is the Departmental Standing
assisted by the CAG. Committees.
2. The expert assistance for the Public 2. The Estimates Committee was
Accounts Committee is provided by established under the Government of
members. India Act of 1919.


3. The Public Accounts Committee and How many of the above statements are
the Departmental Standing correct?
Committees were both established in (a) Only one
the same decade. (b) Only two
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 183. Consider the following statements
(c) All three parliamentary committees:
(d) None 1. The Committees on Public
Undertakings and Departmental
Standing Committees have the
181. Consider the following statements about authority to disallow expenditures.
parliamentary committees: 2. The Estimates Committee holds the
1. The Public Accounts Committee power to consider day-to-day
cannot question Parliament's policy administration matters of
but can intervene in day-to-day ministries/departments.
administration. 3. The Public Accounts Committee
2. The Estimates Committee is limited cannot disallow expenditures but can
issue orders regarding the same.
in the number of public undertakings
it can examine and lacks technical
correct?
expertise.
(a) Only one
3. The Departmental Standing
(b) Only two
Committees focus solely on public
(c) All three
expenditure and financial
(d) None
accountability.
correct? parliamentary committees
(a) Only one 1. Unlike the Public Account
(b) Only two committee, The Chairman of the
(c) All three Estimates Committee is usually from
(d) None the ruling party.
2. The Committee on Public
182. Consider the following statements about Undertakings involves expert
parliamentary committees: assistance for its proceedings.
1. The Estimates Committee has a 3. The Departmental Standing
Committees do not have a Chairman
longer term of office compared to
but involve expert assistance.
the Public Accounts Committee.
2. The Departmental Standing
correct?
Committees have a higher number of
(a) Only one
members than the Estimates
(b) Only two
Committee.
(c) All three
3. The term of office for all these
(d) None
committees is more than one year.


185. Consider the following statements about 3. Unstarred questions call for oral
parliamentary committees: replies on the floor of the House.
1. The Public Accounts Committee and How many of the above statements are
the Committee on Public correct?
Undertakings are the only single (a) Only one
committees under both the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (b) Only two
2. The number of Departmental (c) All three
Standing Committees differs under (d) None
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Departmental Standing Committees 188. Consider the following statements
cover a narrower scope than the regarding the allocation of time for
other committees. questions in Parliament:
1. Starred questions receive the highest
correct?
priority during question hour.
(c) All three (d) None 2. Unstarred questions are answered
immediately after the question hour.
PARLIAMENT 3. Short-notice questions are taken up
at the end of the question hour.
186. Consider the following statements How many of the above statements are
regarding the limitation on the number of correct?
questions asked in the Lok Sabha:
(a) Only one
1. Until the late 1960s, there was no
limit on the number of unstarred (b) Only two
questions an MP could ask in a day. (c) All three
2. The total number of questions asked (d) None
by mps in the starred and unstarred
categories are put in a random ballot 189. Consider the following statements about
for selection. starred questions in the Indian Parliament:
3. From the ballot in Lok Sabha, 20
1. Starred questions are answered in
starred questions are picked for
answering during Question Hour. writing.
How many of the above statements are 2. Members are not allowed to ask
correct? supplementary questions after the
(a) Only one (b) Only two answer is given.
(c) All three (d) None 3. Starred questions can pertain to
matters of public importance of an
187. Consider the following statements urgent character.
regarding the types of questions in the How many of the above statements are
Indian Parliament: correct?
1. Short-notice questions are answered (a) Only one
in writing and do not allow
(b) Only two
supplementary questions.
(c) All three
2. Starred questions are answered
orally and allow for supplementary (d) None
questions.


190. Consider the following statements about How many of the above statements are
short-notice questions in the Indian correct?
Parliament: (a) Only one
1. Short-notice questions are answered (b) Only two
in writing. (c) All three
2. Members can ask supplementary
(d) None
questions on short notice questions.
3. These questions are put in regard to
matters of public importance of an 193. Consider the following statements
urgent character. regarding Question Hour and Zero Hour
How many of the above statements are in the Parliament:
correct? 1. Question Hour allows MPs to ask
(a) Only one questions to ministers and seek
(b) Only two accountability.
(c) All three 2. Zero Hour is a formal part of the
(d) None rules of parliamentary procedure.
3. Unstarred Questions are answered
191. Consider the following statements orally on the floor of the House
regarding supplementary questions in the during Question Hour.
Indian Parliament: How many of the above statements are
1. Supplementary questions are correct?
allowed for unstarred questions. (a) Only one
2. Members can ask as many (b) Only two
supplementary questions as they (c) All three
wish. (d) None
3. These questions are asked to seek
further clarification on the primary
question.
regarding the No Confidence Motion:
correct? 1. No confidence motion is introduced
in the Lok Sabha only.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 2. The government is required to resign
if more than 50% of the members in
(c) All three
the Lok Sabha support the motion.
(d) None
3. A prior justification is not
mandatory for moving the No
Confidence Motion.
supplementaries to Parliament questions:
1. Supplementaries are allowed to
further probe the response given by correct?
the Minister. (a) Only one
2. Members can ask supplementaries (b) Only two
on any topic during Question Hour. (c) All three
3. Ministers can refuse to answer a (d) None
supplementary question.


195. Consider the following statements 3. These motions can be taken up in the
regarding amendments to resolutions or House at any time without prior
motions in the Parliament: notice.
1. Members may give notice of How many of the above statements are
amendments to resolutions or correct?
motions without a notice period. (a) Only one
2. The branch officer concerned is (b) Only two
responsible for preparing a (c) All three
supplementary note for amendments.
(d) None
3. Amendments to resolutions or
motions are not discussed in the
House. 198. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are Adjournment Motions in the Indian
incorrect? Parliament:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Adjournment motions require the
(c) All three (d) None support of at least 50 members to be
admitted.
2. The discussion on an adjournment
motion lasts for a minimum of two
Calling Attention Notices in the
Parliament: hours.
1. A member may give a notice to call 3. Adjournment motions are used to
attention to a matter of urgent public revive discussions on matters that
importance and request a Minister to have been previously discussed in
make a statement. the same session.
2. Copies of calling attention notices How many of the above statements are
are endorsed only to the Minister of correct?
Parliamentary Affairs. (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. When a calling attention notice is (c) All three (d) None
raised in the House, the Minister
concerned must make a lengthy 199. Consider the following statements about
statement. Subsidiary Motions in the Indian
How many of the above statements are Parliament:
correct? 1. Subsidiary motions can be used to
(a) Only one (b) Only two proceed with various kinds of
(c) All three (d) None parliamentary business.
2. Superseding motions are moved in
197. Consider the following statements about the course of debate on another
No-Day-Yet-Named Motions in the Indian issue.
Parliament: 3. Amendment motions can modify the
1. A No-Day-Yet-Named Motion is original motion in its entirety.
one for which no day for discussion How many of the above statements are
has been fixed. correct?
2. The number of copies of No-Day- (a) Only one (b) Only two
Yet-Named Motions to be sent to the
Parliament Secretariat may vary.


200. Consider the following statements about 3. Guillotine Closure is used when
Privilege Motions in the Indian there is an abundance of time
Parliament: available.
1. Privilege motions are concerned How many of the above statements are
with the breach of parliamentary correct?
privileges by a minister. (a) Only one
2. These motions are moved by a (b) Only two
member when they feel that a (c) All three
minister has withheld facts or (d) None
provided wrong information.
3. The purpose of privilege motions is 203. Consider the following statements about
to censure the concerned minister. private members' resolutions in the Indian
How many of the above statements are Parliament:
correct? 1. Private members' resolutions are not
(a) Only one subject to a notice period.
(b) Only two 2. Texts of private members'
(c) All three resolutions are not sent to the
(d) None Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
3. Private members' resolutions may be
201. Consider the following statements about opposed if members do not agree to
Calling Attention Motions in the Indian withdraw them.
Parliament: How many of the above statements are
1. Calling Attention Motions were correct?
introduced in the Parliament in 1954. (a) Only one
2. A member may give a notice to call (b) Only two
attention to a matter of recent public (c) All three
importance. (d) None
3. The discussion on Calling Attention
Motions can continue for as long as 204. Consider the following statements
needed. regarding Money Bills and Finance Bills:
How many of the above statements are 1. Money Bills exclusively deal with
correct? taxation matters and government
(a) Only one expenditure.
(b) Only two 2. Financial Bills are the sole
(c) All three prerogative of the lower house of the
(d) None legislature.
3. The upper house has the authority to
202. Consider the following statements about make amendments to Money Bills.
Closure Motion in the Indian Parliament: How many of the above statements are
1. Closure Motion is a motion to cut correct?
short the debate on a matter. (a) Only one
2. Kangaroo Closure is used to skip (b) Only two
over and pass important clauses of a (c) All three
bill or resolution. (d) None


205. Consider the following statements: 3. Both Money Bills and Finance Bill
1. Money bills can be introduced in deal with the revenue and
both the lower and upper houses of expenditure of the government.
the legislature. How many of the above statements are
2. The upper house has the power to correct?
make amendments to money bills. (a) Only one
3. Money bills are primarily related to (b) Only two
matters of taxation and government (c) All three
expenditure. (d) None
correct? 208. Which of the following is a subset of the
(a) Only one other?
(b) Only two (a) Money bill is a subset of financial
(c) All three bill
(d) None (b) Financial bill is a subset of money
bill
(c) Both Money bill and Financial bill
206. Consider the following statements:
are completely distinct and cannot
1. The Rajya Sabha can detain a
come in the same category
Money Bill for a maximum period of
(d) Both money bill and financial bill
6 months.
are subsets of each other.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a
Money Bill, it can only make
recommendations that must be
regarding quorum in Parliament:
accepted by the Lok Sabha
1. A quorum is one-tenth of the total
3. The Lok Sabha can approve a
number of members in each House.
Money Bill even if it is not approved
2. Quorum is required for the Lok
by the Rajya Sabha.
Sabha but not for the Rajya Sabha.
3. If there is no quorum during a
correct?
meeting of the House, the presiding
(a) Only one officer can vote to establish a
(b) Only two quorum.
(c) All three How many of the above statements are
(d) None correct?
(a) Only one
207. Consider the following statements about (b) Only two
the scope of Money Bills and Finance (c) All three
Bills: (d) None
1. Money Bills have a broader scope
and can encompass a wide range of 210. Consider the following statements
financial matters. regarding the languages in Parliament:
2. Finance Bill focus primarily on 1. Hindi and English are the only
fiscal matters and government languages for transacting business in
finances. Parliament.


2. A member can address the House in 213. Consider the following statements:
their mother tongue upon permission 1. The Leader of the House in the
of the presiding officer. Rajya Sabha is always the Prime
3. Simultaneous translation is not Minister.
provided in Parliament. 2. The Leader of the House in the Lok
How many of the above statements are Sabha is always the Prime Minister.
correct? 3. The Leader of the Opposition is
(a) Only one remunerated by the government.
(d) None (a) Only one (b) Only two
regarding the Leader of the Opposition: 214. Consider the following statements
1. The position of leader of opposition regarding the Chairman of the Rajya
was not existed in India until the end Sabha:
on 1970’s 1. The Chairman presides over a joint
2. The leader of the Opposition is sitting of the two Houses of
entitled to the same facilities as a Parliament.
cabinet minister. 2. The Chairman can be removed from
3. There is no leader of opposition in his office without affecting his role
current Lok Sabha as no party could as the Vice-President.
claim 10% of the total seats. How many of the above statements are
correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
215. Which of the following statements about
212. Consider the following statements the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
regarding the 'Whip': is correct?
1. The office of 'Whip' is mentioned in 1. The Deputy Chairman is elected by
the Constitution of India. the members of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Whip is responsible for ensuring 2. The Deputy Chairman can preside
the attendance of party members in over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha
Parliament. when a resolution for his removal is
3. Disciplinary action cannot be taken under consideration.
against members who do not follow 3. The Deputy Chairman is subordinate
the directives given by the Whip. to the Chairman.
correct? incorrect?
(d) None (d) None


216. Consider the following statements about House when the office of the
the election and term of the Speaker: Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is
1. The Speaker is elected by a simple vacant.
majority of members present and How many of the above statements are
voting in the Lok Sabha. correct?
2. When the No Confidence motion (a) Only one
passed, the term of speaker dissolved (b) Only two
along with Lok Sabha. (c) All three
3. The Speaker may be re-elected (d) None
during a dissolution of the Lok
Sabha. 219. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are the Speaker's role and powers in the Lok
correct? Sabha:
(a) Only one 1. The Speaker is an ex-officio
(b) Only two chairman of any parliamentary
(c) All three committee.
2. The Speaker has the authority to
(d) None
allow a 'secret' sitting of the House
at his discretion.
217. Consider the following statements about 3. The Speaker's salaries and
the Speaker of Lok Sabha: allowances are subject to the annual
1. The Speaker can be removed by a vote of Parliament.
resolution passed by a majority of all How many of the above statements are
the members of the Lok Sabha correct?
without any advance notice. (a) Only one
2. The Speaker presides at the sitting of (b) Only two
the House when a resolution for their (c) All three
removal is under consideration. (d) None
incorrect? 220. Consider the following statements
(a) Only 1 regarding the powers and functions of the
(b) Only 2 Speaker of the Lok Sabha India:
(c) Both 1 and 2. 1. The Speaker presides over a joint
(d) None of the statements are correct. sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament, summoned by the
President to settle a deadlock on a
bill.
218. Consider the following statement about 2. The Speaker can adjourn the House
Panel of Chairpersons of Lok Sabha: or suspend the meeting in the
1. The Speaker nominates a Panel of absence of one-tenth of the total
Chairpersons from amongst the strength of the House, called the
members of the Lok Sabha. quorum.
2. A Minister cannot be a member of 3. The Speaker casts a vote in the first
panel of Chairpersons. instance, and in the case of a tie,
3. The Key task of panel of resolves the deadlock with a Casting
Chairpersons is to preside over the Vote.


How many of the above statements are 223. Consider the following statements about
correct? the nomination of a panel of Chairmen by
(a) Only one the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
(b) Only two 1. The Speaker can nominate a panel of
(c) All three up to six Chairmen.
(d) None 2. The members of the panel of
Chairmen serve until a new panel is
221. Consider the following statements nominated.
regarding the Office of the Speaker in 3. The Deputy Speaker can also
India: nominate members to the panel of
Chairmen.
1. The Speaker is the final interpreter
of the provisions of the Constitution, How many of the above statements are
Rules of Procedure, and correct?
parliamentary precedents within the (a) Only one
House. (b) Only two
2. The Speaker is elected from among (c) All three
the members of Parliament (d) None
correct? 224. Consider the following statements about
(a) 1 Only the independence and impartiality of the
(b) 2 Only Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The Speaker can be removed by an
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ordinary majority vote of the Lok
Sabha.
222. Consider the following statements 2. The Speaker's conduct and work can
regarding the Speaker in the Indian be discussed in the Lok Sabha
Parliament: without the need for a substantive
motion.
1. The Speaker is responsible for
nominating the Chairmen of all 3. The Speaker's powers regarding the
Parliamentary Committees. regulation of procedure, conduct of
business, and maintenance of order
2. Committees like the Business
are not subject to the jurisdiction of
Advisory Committee, the General
the Courts.
Purposes Committee, and the Rules
Committee work under the Speaker's How many of the above statements are
direct supervision. incorrect?
3. The Speaker has the sole authority to (a) Only one (b) Only two
refer any question of privilege to the (c) All three (d) None
Committee of Privileges for
examination, investigation, and 225. Consider the following statements about
report. the election of the Deputy Speaker of Lok
How many of the above statements are Sabha in India:
correct? 1. The election of the Deputy Speaker
(a) Only one (b) Only two shall be held on such date as the
(c) All three (d) None Speaker may fix.


2. The provisions of rules governing 2. One of the key aims is to provide a
the election of the Speaker also platform for focused discussions on
apply to the election of the Deputy critical issues with a result-oriented
Speaker. approach.
3. The position of Deputy speaker is 3. First such Parliamentary forum was
above the other members in Lok established in 2014 following the
Sabha. Cauvery river water dispute.
correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
226. Consider the following statements 228. Consider the following statements about
regarding the Deputy Speaker of the Lok the Parliamentary forums:
Sabha: 1. Each Parliamentary forum consists
1. The Deputy Speaker is elected by of not more than 31 members.
the Lok Sabha members 2. They aim to sensitise members about
immediately after the Speaker's key areas of concern and the ground-
election. level situation.
2. The date for election of Speaker is 3. The term of office of members is 1
decided by the house through Simple year like Parliamentary committees.
voice Vote. How many of the above statements are
3. The Deputy Speaker has been correct?
traditionally elected from the ruling (a) Only one (b) Only two
party/alliance since the 11th Lok (c) All three (d) None
Sabha.
How many of the above statements are 229. Consider the following statements :
correct?
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-
(a) Only one officio President of all Parliamentary
(b) Only two Forums,
(c) All three 2. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya
(d) None Sabha is the ex-officio President of
the Parliamentary Forum on
PARLIAMENTARY FORUMS Population and Public Health.
3. The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is
227. Consider the following statements about the ex-officio Vice-President of all
the objectives behind the constitution of Forums.
Parliamentary forums: How many of the above statements are
1. The primary objective is to allow incorrect?
people directly to ask questions to (a) Only one (b) Only two
Parliamentarians and enhance the
accountability of the Parliament.


JUDICIAL REVIEW
JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
regarding Judicial Review: 232. Consider the following statements
1. Judicial Review prevents the tyranny regarding the methods of Judicial
of executives. Activism in India:
2. Judicial review limits the 1. Judicial activism emphasizes strict
functioning of the government and is adherence to judicial precedent.
only permissible to the extent of 2. Access to international statutes for
ensuring constitutional rights is a
finding if the procedure in reaching
method of judicial activism.
the decision has been correctly
3. Judicial restraint is synonymous with
followed but not the decision itself.
judicial activism.
3. The concept of separation of powers How many of the above statements are
is strictly adhered to in judicial correct?
review.. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 233. Consider the following statements
(d) None regarding Judicial Activism in India:
1. Judicial overreach is a milder form
of Judicial Activism.
2. Constitutional interpretation is not a
regarding the classification of Judicial method commonly associated with
Review: Judicial Activism
1. Reviews of Legislative Actions How many of the above statements are
involve ensuring that laws passed by correct?
the legislature comply with the (a) Only 1
provisions of the Constitution. (b) Only 2
2. Review of Administrative Actions is (c) Both 1 and 2.
a tool for enforcing constitutional (d) None of the statements are correct.
discipline over legislative decisions.
3. Judicial Review in India is limited to 234. Consider the following statements:
the higher courts like the Supreme 1. This theory provides that judges
Court and the High Courts. should hesitate to strike down laws
How many of the above statements are unless they are obviously
correct? unconstitutional
2. The principle which demands Judges
(a) Only one
to limit the exercise of their power.
(b) Only two 3. This Principle emphasises on
(c) All three Procedure established by law rather
(d) None than due process of law.


The above statements refer to which of the GOVERNOR
following theories?
(a) Judicial Review regarding the Governor's role in the
(b) Judicial Overreach legislative process:
(c) Judicial Activism 1. Like the President, The Governor
(d) Judicial Restraint may withhold assent to a bill
indefinitely without any
constitutional limitations.
2. The Supreme Court ruled that a bill
regarding the principles of Public Interest pending the Governor's assent lapses
Litigation (PIL): upon the dissolution of the House.
1. The common rule of locus standi is 3. The Governor has the discretion to
strictly applied in PIL cases. refer a bill to the President if its
2. PIL is essentially a type of litigation passage would infringe upon the
with an adversary character. powers of the High Court.
3. Disputes between two private parties
correct?
purely in the realm of private law are
allowed to be agitated as PIL.
correct? 238. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. NCRWC recommended a time limit
(b) Only two of four months for the Governor to
(c) All three decide on granting assent or
reserving a bill.
(d) None
2. The Commission proposed the
removal of the Governor's power to
236. Consider the following statements withhold assent, except in cases
regarding the principles of PIL: explicitly outlined in the
1. In PIL, the role held by the Court is Constitution.
passive rather than assertive. How many of the above statements are
2. The Court can only entertain a PIL correct?
when issues of public importance are (a) Only 1
raised. (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2.
3. Procedural laws apply in PIL cases,
(d) None of the statements are correct.
and the principles of res judicata
apply based on the nature of the
petition.
1. The Governor's discretion under
Article 163 is unlimited and cannot
correct?
be subject to judicial scrutiny.
(a) Only one 2. The Administrative Reforms
(b) Only two Commission (1968) emphasized that
(c) All three the Governor's report regarding the
(d) None President's rule should be subjective.


correct? correct?
(a) Only 1 (a) Only one
(b) Only 2 (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2. (c) All three
(d) None of the statements are correct. (d) None
240. Consider the following statements 242. Which of the following are the
regarding the Governor's discretionary discretionary powers given to the
powers: Governor of a State?
1. The Governor's discretionary powers 1. Sending a report to the President of
include inviting the leader of the India for imposing the President’s
largest party/alliance to form the rule
government post-election. 2. Appointing the Ministers
2. The Governors Committee (1971) 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the
laid down the responsibility on the State Legislature for consideration of
governor to ensure that the the President of India
administration of the State does not 4. Making the rules to conduct the
break down due to political business of the State Government
instability. Select the correct answer using the code
How many of the above statements are given below:
correct? (a) only one
(a) Only 1 (b) only two
(b) Only 2 (c) only three
(c) Both 1 and 2. (d) none of the above.
241. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the
regarding the appointment and removal of Governor:
Governors: 1. The Governor can nominate one
1. The "Punchhi Commission - 2010" member to the state legislative
recommended that there should be a assembly the Anglo-Indian
provision for the impeachment of the Community.
governor by the state legislature. 2. He can address the state legislature
2. According to the constitution, state only at the commencement of the
chief minister have a role in the first session after each general
governor’s appointment. election.
3. The Supreme Court ruled that 3. The Governor decides on the
Article 356 should be used in very question of disqualification of
rare cases when it becomes members of the state legislature in
unavoidable to restore the consultation with the Chief Election
breakdown of constitutional Commissioner.
machinery in the State.


How many of the above statements are CHEIF MINISTER
correct?
(b) Only two the oath, term, and salary of the Chief
Minister:
(c) All three
(d) None 1. The Chief Minister's term is fixed,
and he holds office for a specified
244. Consider the following statements duration.
regarding the ordinance-making power of 2. The governor has the freedom to
the Governor: appoint any person as the Chief
1. The governor can promulgate an Minister.
ordinance when one/ both Houses of 3. A person must prove his majority in
the state legislature are not in the legislative assembly before being
session. appointed as Chief Minister.
2. The ordinance-making power of the
governor is co-extensive with the
correct?
legislative power of the Parliament.
3. An ordinance issued by the governor (a) Only one
ceases to operate on the expiry of six (b) Only two
months from the reassembly of the (c) All three
state legislature. (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
regarding the appointment of Ministers in
(b) Only two
a State Council of Ministers:
(c) All three
1. The Speaker shall make rules for the
(d) None
allocation of business among
ministers.
regarding the appointment powers of the 2. The validity of an order or
Governor: instrument made and executed in the
1. The governor appoints the state name of the Governor shall not be
election commissioner and called into question.
determines his conditions of service 3. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003
and tenure of office. added the provision that a member
2. The governor appoints the chairman disqualified on the grounds of
and members of the state public defection cannot be appointed as a
service commission, removable by minister.
the governor.
correct? correct?


STATE LEGISLATURE 2. The members of the legislative
council are elected by the members
248. Consider the following statements of local bodies in the state.
regarding the duration of the state
3. The strength of the legislative
legislature:
council is fixed by Parliament.
1. The age qualification for the
legislative assembly is not less than How many of the above statements are
30 years. correct?
2. The legislative council is subject to (a) Only one
dissolution and operates (b) Only two
continuingly. (c) All three
3. The term of the legislative assembly (d) None
can be extended during a national
emergency for one year at a time. 251. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are regarding the:
correct?
1. The reservation of seats for
(a) Only one
Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
(b) Only two Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the state
(c) All three legislative assembly is based on
(d) None population ratios.
2. Originally, the reservation was to
249. Consider the following statements operate for ten years, but it has been
regarding the composition of the state extended until 2020.
legislature:
3. A member of SC or ST can only
1. The maximum strength of the
contest a seat reserved for them.
legislative assembly is fixed at 500.
2. The governor can nominate one
correct?
member from the Anglo-Indian
community to the legislative council. (a) Only one
(a) Only 1 (d) None
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2. 252. Consider the following statements
(d) None of the statements are correct. regarding the vacation of seats in the State
Legislature:
1. A member may resign his seat by
250. Consider the following statements writing to the Governor.
regarding the composition of the state 2. A member can be expelled from the
legislative council: House for promoting enmity
1. The maximum strength of the between different groups.
legislative council is fixed at one- 3. A person vacates his seat if his
fourth of the total strength of the election is declared void by the
legislative assembly. court.


How many of the above statements are 255. Consider the following statements
correct? regarding the sessions of the State
(a) Only one Legislature:
(b) Only two 1. The governor summons each House
of the State Legislature from time to
(c) All three
time at his discretion.
(d) None
2. The maximum gap between two
sessions of the State Legislature
253. Consider the following statements cannot be more than four months.
regarding the composition of the State 3. A session of the State Legislature
Legislative Assembly: consists of a fixed number of
1. The minimum strength of the sittings.
legislative assembly is fixed at 40 How many of the above statements are
members. correct?
2. In the states of Arunachal Pradesh, (a) Only one
Sikkim, and Goa, the minimum (b) Only two
number is fixed at 30 members. (c) All three
(d) None
correct?
HIGH COURT
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 256. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2. 1. The Chief Justice of a high court is
(d) None of the statements are correct. appointed by the President after
consulting with the Chief Justice of
India and the Chief Minister of the
254. Consider the following statements state concerned.
regarding the duration of the State 2. The President determines the
Legislative Council: strength of a high court, and the
1. The legislative council is a Constitution specifies the minimum
continuing chamber and is subject to and maximum number of judges for
dissolution. each high court.
2. One-third of the members of the How many of the above statements are
legislative council retire at the correct?
expiration of every third year. (a) Only 1
3. The term of the legislative council (b) Only 2
can be extended during a national (c) Both 1 and 2.
emergency by a law of Parliament. (d) None of the statements are correct.
correct?
regarding the qualifications of a person to
(a) Only one be appointed as a judge of a high court:
(b) Only two 1. The Constitution prescribes a
(c) All three minimum age for appointment as a
(d) None judge of a high court.


2. A person can be appointed as a 260. Consider the following statements:
judge of a high court if they have 1. The President can appoint an acting
been an advocate of a high court for judge of a high court when the chief
ten years. justice is temporarily absent.
How many of the above statements are 2. An acting judge holds office until
correct? the permanent judge resumes his
(a) Only 1 statement is correct office.
(b) Only 2 statements are correct 3. The chief justice of a high court can
(c) Both statements are correct request a retired judge to act as a
(d) None of the statements are correct. judge of the high court for a
temporary period with the consent of
258. Consider the following statements the governor.
regarding the tenure of a judge of a high How many of the above statements are
court: correct?
1. A judge of a high court holds office (a) Only one
until the age of 62. (b) Only two
2. The governor can remove a judge of (c) All three
a high court on the grounds of (d) None
incapacity and proven misbehavior.
3. A judge of a high court can resign
SUBORDINATE COURT
from office by writing to the Chief
Justice of India. 261. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are regarding the appointment of District
correct? Judges:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. The appointment, posting, and
(c) All three (d) None promotion of district judges in a
state are made by the governor of the
259. Consider the following statements state in consultation with the high
regarding the jurisdiction and powers of a court.
high court in India: 2. A person to be appointed as a district
1. The jurisdiction and powers of a judge should have been an advocate
high court can be changed only by or a pleader for ten years.
the Parliament. 3. The control over district courts and
2. The Constitution explicitly lists the other subordinate courts, including
detailed provisions for the the posting, promotion, and leave of
jurisdiction and powers of a high persons belonging to the judicial
court. service, is vested in the governor.
correct? correct?


262. Consider the following statements related 2. The Administrative Tribunals Act of
to the appointment of district judges: 1985 authorizes the Central
1. The appointment, posting, and government to establish the Central
promotion of district judges in a state Administrative Tribunal (CAT) for
are made by the governor of the state in the entire country.
consultation with the high court. 3. The Central Administrative Tribunal
2. The governor of the state can make (CAT) exercises jurisdiction over all
appointments of persons (other than service matters, including those
district judges) to the judicial service related to members of the defense
of a state without consulting the forces.
State Public Service Commission.
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only 1
(b) Only two
(b) Only 2
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2.
(d) None
263. Consider the following statements regarding 265. Consider the following statements:
the structure of subordinate courts: 1. The CAT exercises original
1. The district judge is the highest jurisdiction over recruitment and all
judicial authority in the district, service matters of public servants
possessing original and appellate covered by it.
jurisdiction only in criminal matters. 2. The CAT consists of a Chairman,
2. The Governor may direct that the Vice-Chairman, and members.
provisions related to persons in the 3. Appeals against the orders of the
state judicial service would apply to CAT can be directly made to the
any class or classes of magistrates in Supreme Court.
the state. How many of the above statements are
(a) Only 1 (b) Only two
(b) Only 2
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2.
(d) None
TRIBUNALS
1. Administrative Tribunals were
264. Consider the following statements recommended by the Swaran Singh
regarding Administrative Tribunals in Committee in 1976.
India: 2. Administrative Tribunals are bound
1. Administrative Tribunals were by the strict rules of procedure and
originally included in the evidence set out in the Civil
Constitution, and the 42nd Procedure Code (CPC).
Amendment Act of 1976 added 3. The Chairman of CAT must be a
provisions related to them. retired judge of the Supreme Court.


correct? correct?
(c) All three
267. Consider the following statements (d) None
regarding the provisions related to
Tribunals under Article 323 B of the 269. Consider the following statements
Indian Constitution: regarding the composition of the Central
1. Tribunals under Article 323 B can be Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
established only by Parliament. 1. The CCPA has a Chief
2. Tribunals under Article 323 B cover Commissioner and two other
matters such as administration, commissioners—one dealing with
taxation, foreign exchange, and goods and the other with services.
industrial and labor disputes. 2. The Investigation Wing of the
3. Unlike Article 323 A, Article 323 B CCPA is headed by a Director
allows for the establishment of a General.
hierarchy of tribunals. How many of the above statements are
correct? (a) Only 1
(a) Only one (b) Only 2
(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2.
(c) All three (d) None of the statements are correct.
(d) None
NATIONAL CONSUMER DISPUTES regarding the National Consumer Disputes
REDRESSAL COMMISSION Redressal Commission (NCDRC) as per
the provisions of the Consumer Protection
Act, 2019:
268. Consider the following statements about 1. NCDRC has jurisdiction over cases
the National Consumer Disputes where the value of goods or services
Redressal Commission (NCDRC): paid as consideration exceeds 1
1. The NCDRC was established in crore rupees.
1988 under the Consumer Protection 2. The Consumer Protection Act
Act of 1986. establishes a three-tier quasi-judicial
2. The Commission is headed by the mechanism for the redressal of
Minister in charge of the Department consumer disputes, with NCDRC
of Consumer Affairs in the Central being the highest tier.
Government. How many of the above statements are
3. The Consumer Protection Act correct?
mandates the establishment of (a) Only 1
Consumer Protection Councils at the (b) Only 2
Centre, in each State, and District for
(c) Both 1 and 2.
consumer awareness.


271. Consider the following statements about 273. Consider the following statements
the pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer regarding the Election Commission of
commissions under the Consumer India:
Protection Act, 2019: 1. The tenure of election
1. District Commissions have commissioners is prescribed by the
jurisdiction for cases where the Indian Constitution.
value of goods or services paid does 2. The Chief Election Commissioner
not exceed one- to five crore rupees.
can be removed only by a resolution
2. State Commissions can entertain passed by a simple majority in both
complaints where the value of goods
houses of Parliament.
or services paid exceeds five to ten
3. The Election Commission conducts
crore rupees.
elections at the state and local levels.
3. National Commission has
jurisdiction over cases with a value How many of the above statements are
of goods or services paid exceeding correct?
10 crore rupees. (a) Only one (b) Only two
How many of the above statements are (c) All three (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one 274. Which of the following features are
(b) Only two associated with the Election Commission
(c) All three of India?
(d) None 1. Allotting the same symbol to two
regional political parties in different
states.
ECI 2. Prohibiting the publication of voting
trends that seek to influence voters
by opinion polls.
regarding the Election Commission of
India: 3. Setting limits on the amount of
1. The Election Commission is money a candidate can spend during
responsible for conducting elections election campaigns.
for panchayats and municipalities in How many of the above statements are
all states. correct?
2. The Chief Election Commissioner (a) Only one (b) Only two
and other Election Commissioners (c) All three (d) None
have different powers and salaries.
3. The President of India appoints 275. Which of the following statements is
regional commissioners to assist the correct regarding postal voting in India?
Election Commission.
1. Postal voting is allowed for all
eligible voters in India.
correct?
2. Postal votes are counted after the
(a) Only one
votes from Electronic Voting
(b) Only two
Machines (EVMs).
(c) All three
3. Prisoners are eligible to use postal
(d) None voting.


correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
276. Consider the following statements UPSC

regarding the Election Commission of 278. Consider the following statements
India: regarding the appointment of the
1. The Election Commission acts as a Chairman and members of the Union
court for settling disputes related to Public Service Commission:
granting recognition to political 1. The President has the authority to
parties and allotment of election determine the number of members of
symbols. the Commission and their conditions
2. It can determine whether elections of service.
can be held in a state under the 2. The Chairman or any other member
President's rule to extend the period of the Commission can be removed
of emergency after one year. by the President on the grounds of
3. The Election Commission prepares "misbehaviour" after a Supreme
the roster for the publicity of the Court inquiry.
policies of political parties on radio 3. Members of the Union Public
and TV during non-election periods. Service Commission can hold any
How many of the above statements are other employment outside the duties
of their office during their term of
correct?
office.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) Only one
(d) None (b) Only two
(c) All three
277. Consider the following statements about (d) None
the Election Commission's efforts to curb
the influence of money during elections: 279. Consider the following statements
1. The commission has reduced the regarding the functions of the UPSC:
campaign period for Lok Sabha and 1. The UPSC conducts examinations
Assembly elections. for appointments to all-India
2. The Election Commission appoints services, Central services, and public
expenditure observers from the services of the centrally
Indian Revenue Service. administered territories.
3. Candidates are required to give 2. The UPSC is consulted on
details of their expenditure within 45 disciplinary matters, including
days of the declaration of results. censure, withholding of promotions,
and removal from service.


3. The UPSC confers the right to the FINANCE COMMISSION
post upon the candidate selected by
it. 282. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are regarding the Finance Commission:
correct? 1. The Chairman of the Finance
(a) Only one Commission must have specialized
knowledge of finance and accounts
(b) Only two
of the government.
(c) All three
2. The Finance Commission submits its
(d) None report to the Parliament.
SPSC correct?
(a) Only 1
280. Consider the following statements (b) Only 2
regarding the limitations of SPSC: (c) Both 1 and 2.
1. The SPSC is consulted while making (d) None of the statements are correct.
reservations for backward classes.
2. The state government can exclude 283. Consider the following statements
posts, services, and matters from the regarding the recommendations of the
purview of the SPSC. 15th Finance Commission:
3. The SPSC cannot make regulations 1. The Finance Commission is
specifying matters where its responsible for determining the
consultation is not necessary. method and formula for distributing
How many of the above statements are tax proceeds only among the states.
correct? 2. Performance-based incentives
(a) Only one recommended by the Commission
(b) Only two are solely based on population
(c) All three control efforts.
(d) None 3. Horizontal devolution is based on
factors such as income distance,
281. Consider the following statements related area, and population.
to the annual performance report of SPSC: How many of the above statements are
1. The SPSC presents its annual correct?
performance report to the President. (a) Only one (b) Only two
2. The President places the report (c) All three (d) None
before the state legislature.
3. The UPSC can serve the needs of a
state at the request of the state
the composition of the Goods and
governor.
Services Tax Council:
1. The Council includes the Chief
correct?
Ministers of all states as members.
(a) Only one
2. The Chairperson of the Central
(b) Only two Board of Excise and Customs
(c) All three (CBEC) is a permanent voting
(d) None member of the Council.


3. The Union Finance Minister serves How many of the above statements are
as the Vice-Chairperson of the correct?
Council. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 287. Consider the following statements about
(d) None the GST Council's functions:
1. The Council recommends the
285. Consider the following statements threshold limit of turnover below
regarding the decisions made by the which goods and services may be
Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council in exempted from GST.
its 50th meeting: 2. The Council recommends the date
1. The GST laws will be amended to on which GST may be levied on
explicitly include online gaming petroleum crude, high-speed diesel,
within the tax framework. motor spirit, natural gas, and
2. The GST Council decided to exempt aviation turbine fuel.
cancer-related drugs, medicines for 3. The Council is responsible for
rare diseases, and food products for determining the compensation to the
special medical purposes from GST. states for seven years due to the
How many of the above statements are introduction of GST.
(a) Only 1 correct?
(b) Only 2 (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2. (b) Only two
(d) None of the statements are correct. (c) All three
(d) None
regarding the functions of the GST NCSC
Council:
1. The Council is mandated to make 288. Consider the following statements
recommendations on the taxes, regarding the National Commission for
cesses, and surcharges levied by the Scheduled Castes (SCs):
center, states, and local bodies that 1. The National Commission for SCs is
would be merged into GST. a statutory body established by an
2. The Council has the authority to act of Parliament.
recommend special rates for a 2. The 89th Constitutional Amendment
specified period to raise additional Act of 2003 bifurcated the combined
resources during any natural National Commission for SCs and
calamity or disaster. STs into two separate bodies.
3. The Council is responsible for 3. The National Commission for SCs
adjudicating disputes between the presents an annual report to the
centre and one or more states. Parliament.


correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
289. Consider the composition of the National 291. Consider the composition of the National
Commission for SCs: Commission for STs:
1. The Commission has to investigate 1. The National Commission for SCs
all matters relating to the and STs came into being consequent
constitutional and other legal upon passing of the 65th
safeguards for the OBCs and the Constitutional Amendment Act of
Anglo-Indian Community 1990.
1. The Central government appoints the 1. The President appoints the
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and chairperson, vice-chairperson, and
members. members.
2. The conditions of service and tenure 2. The conditions of service and tenure
of office of the Commission are of office of the Commission are
determined by the Parliament. determined by the Parliament.
correct? correct?
(c) All three
NCBC
(d) None
NCST regarding the structure of the National
Commission for Backward Classes
290. Consider the following statements (NCBC):
regarding the National Commission for 1. The NCBC consists of seven
sts: members, including a Chairperson
1. The National Commission for STs and Vice-Chairperson.
was established under Article 338-A 2. The conditions of service and tenure
of the Constitution. of office of the Chairperson, Vice-
2. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Chairperson, and other Members are
Act of 2003 resulted in the creation determined by the Central
of a separate National Commission Government.
for STs . How many of the above statements are
3. The Commission consists of a correct?
chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and (a) Only 1
three other members appointed by (b) Only 2
the central government on
(c) Both 1 and 2.
recommendation of a high-powered
panel. (d) None of the statements are correct.


NCBC: correct?
1. The commission investigates and (a) Only one
monitors all matters relating to the (b) Only two
safeguards provided for the socially (c) All three
and educationally backward classes (d) None
under the Constitution or any other
law to evaluate the working of such
safeguards.
regarding the role of the Commissioner
2. It participates and advises on the for Linguistic Minorities:
socio-economic development of the
1. The Commissioner handles
socially and educationally backward
representations for the redress of
classes and evaluates the progress of
grievances related to the safeguards
their development under the Union
for religious and linguistic
and any State.
minorities.
3. NCBC has to discharge such other
2. The Commissioner's 10-point
functions about the protection,
program focuses on preserving the
welfare, development and
language and culture of linguistic
advancement of the socially and
minorities.
educationally backward classes as
the President may, subject to the How many of the above statements are
provisions of any law made by correct?
Parliament, by rule specify. (a) Only 1
How many of the above statements are (b) Only 2
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2.
(a) Only one (d) None of the statements are correct.
(b) Only two
(c) All three CAG
(d) None
regarding the Comptroller and Auditor
LINGUISTIC OFFICERS General of India (CAG) as per the
provisions of the Constitution of India:
regarding the Commissioner for Linguistic 1. The CAG is appointed by the
Minorities and the provisions related to President.
the office: 2. The CAG holds office for a term of
1. The Constitution of India initially six years or sixty-two whichever is
had provisions for the Special earlier.
Officer for Linguistic Minorities. 3. The CAG can be removed by a
2. The Commissioner for Linguistic resolution passed by both Houses of
Minorities is appointed by the Parliament with a simple majority.
President of India. How many of the above statements are
3. The Constitution specifies the correct?
qualifications, tenure, salaries, and (a) Only one (b) Only two
allowances for the Commissioner. (c) All three (d) None


297. Consider the following statements 3. The AG must advise the
regarding the role of the Comptroller and Government of India in cases
Auditor General of India (CAG): referred to him by the President.
1. The CAG has control over the issue How many of the above statements are
of money from the Consolidated correct?
Fund of India. (a) Only one
2. The CAG's role is limited to legal (b) Only two
and regulatory audits.
(c) All three
3. The CAG is accountable to the
executive government. (d) None
(a) Only one (b) Only two the Attorney General of India:
(c) All three (d) None 1. The Attorney General must have
been a judge of a high court for ten
298. Consider the following statements: years.
1. The CAG submits three audit reports 2. The AG can advise any ministry
to the President, including reports on with the need for a reference through
appropriation accounts, finance the Ministry of Law and Justice.
accounts, and public sector How many of the above statements are
undertakings. correct?
2. The primary function of Public (a) Only 1
Accounts Committee (PAC) is to (b) Only 2
conduct the audit of various (c) Both 1 and 2.
government entities independently.
3. The CAG assists the PAC in the
examination of reports, ensuring
accountability in the financial ADVOCATE GENERAL
administration of the government.
the Advocate General of the State:
(c) All three (d) None 1. The Advocate General is appointed
by the President of India.
2. The term of office of the advocate
ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA
general is fixed by the Constitution.
299. Consider the following statements about 3. The advocate general holds office at
the duties of the Attorney General of the pleasure of the President.
India: How many of the above statements are
1. The AG can defend accused persons correct?
in criminal prosecutions without (a) Only one
government’s permission.
(b) Only two
2. The President assigns specific duties
(c) All three
to the AG through an executive
order. (d) None


PANCHAYATI RAJ 304. Consider the following statements
regarding the PESA Act:
1. The State Legislature shall ensure
regarding the applicability of the PESA
that Panchayats at the appropriate
Act:
level and the Gram Sabha are
1. The provisions of Part IX of the
endowed specifically with powers to
Constitution relating to Panchayats
control local plans and resources for
are automatically applicable to Fifth
Schedule areas. such plans, including tribal sub-
plans.
2. The Parliament can extend these
provisions to Fifth Schedule areas 2. The State Government has complete
with modifications. authority over the planning and
3. All ten states with Fifth Schedule implementation of projects in
Areas have implemented the PESA Scheduled Areas without consulting
Act by amending their Panchayati the Gram Sabha.
Raj Acts. 3. The Act stipulates the reservation of
How many of the above statements are all seats of Chairpersons of
correct? Panchayats at all levels for
(a) Only one Scheduled Tribes.
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
303. Consider the following statements (c) All three
regarding Gram Sabha under the PESA (d) None
Act:
1. The Gram Sabha consists only of 305. Consider the following statements
persons involved in electoral rolls concerning the financial aspects of
for Panchayats at the village level. Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):
2. Gram Sabha has the authority to 1. Panchayats across India primarily
safeguard and preserve cultural rely on state government and
identity and community resources.
internal resource generation for their
3. State legislation on the Panchayats financial sustenance.
in the Scheduled Areas shall agree
2. The Gram Panchayats have a more
with the customary law, social and
diverse tax domain compared to
religious practices, and traditional
intermediate and District
management practices of community
resources. Panchayats.
correct? correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only 1
(b) Only two (b) Only 2
(c) All three (c) Both 1 and 2.
(d) None (d) None of the statements are correct.


306. Consider the following statements 2. Indirect elections to the post of
regarding the powers conferred to chairperson of panchayats at the
Panchayats in the Scheduled Areas: intermediate and district levels.
1. Panchayats in Scheduled Areas have 3. Direct elections to all the members
the authority to manage village of village level panchayat
markets. How many of the above statements are
2. The Act gives Panchayats control correct?
over institutions across all social
(a) Only one
sectors.
(b) Only two
3. Panchayats in Scheduled Areas have
the power to regulate alcohol (c) All three
consumption. (d) None
correct? 309. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. A municipal corporation is
(c) All three (d) None designated for the administration of
smaller urban areas.
307. Consider the following statements about 2. Nagar panchayats are established for
voluntary provisions of the 73rd transitional areas.
Constitutional Amendment Act 3. A municipal council governs larger
concerning Panchayats: urban areas.
1. Granting financial powers to How many of the above statements are
panchayats to levy taxes is a correct?
mandatory provision.
(a) Only one
2. Providing for the constitution of
(b) Only two
funds for crediting all money of the
panchayats is a voluntary provision. (c) All three
3. Endowing the Gram Sabha with (d) None
powers and functions at the village
level is a mandatory provision. 310. Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are regarding the disqualifications for
correct? members of Municipalities in India:
(a) Only one 1. Disqualifications for being a
(b) Only two member of a municipality are solely
(c) All three governed by the Parliament.
(d) None 2. Any disqualification related to
municipal elections can be appealed
308. Consider the following statements about directly to the High Court.
compulsory provisions of the 73rd How many of the above statements are
Constitutional Amendment Act regarding correct?
Panchayats: (a) Only 1
1. Fixing the minimum age of 25 years (b) Only 2
for contesting elections to (c) Both 1 and 2.
panchayats.


311. Consider the following statements 2. State Finance Commissions are
regarding the Metropolitan Planning responsible for suggesting measures
Committee (MPC) in India: to enhance the financial position of
1. Two-thirds of the MPC members are Municipalities.
elected by municipal representatives 3. The Central Finance Commission
in the metropolitan area. provides recommendations for the
2. MPC's primary function is to augmentation of the consolidated
oversee the day-to-day fund of states to support
administrative tasks of the Municipalities.
metropolitan region. How many of the above statements are
3. The mayor of the town will be correct?
chairperson and heads the MPC. (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) None
LOKADALATS
regarding the Township model of urban 314. Consider the following statements
local government in India: regarding Lok Adalats:
1. Township members are appointed by 1. Lok Adalats have jurisdiction over
the local government through an cases pending before any court and
electoral process. disputes at a pre-litigation stage.
2. Townships function as elected 2. Lok Adalats can settle disputes
bodies managing civic amenities for related to offences that are non-
specific public enterprises' staff and compoundable under any law.
workers. 3. Lok Adalats consists of retired
3. Township members are elected by judicial officers, lawyers, and social
the residents living within the workers.
township area. How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two (c) All three
(d) None
313. Consider the following statements about regarding the jurisdiction of Lok Adalats:
the role of Finance Commissions in 1. Lok Adalats have the authority to
Municipalities: decide cases on merits in the absence
1. State Finance Commissions for of a compromise or settlement
Municipalities review the financial between the parties.
status every five years and provide 2. Lok Adalats lack jurisdiction over
recommendations to the President. disputes related to non-
compoundable offences.


3. Lok Adalats exercise jurisdiction How many of the above statements are
over matters concerning land correct?
acquisition cases and labour (a) Only one
disputes. (b) Only two
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(c) All three regarding the unique features of Union
(d) None Territories in India:
1. Union Territories were created for
316. Consider the following statements only on administrative
regarding the nature of Lok Adalats: considerations.
1. Lok Adalats function under strict 2. The only Union Territories of Delhi
adherence to the procedural laws and Jammu kashmir has its own
like the Civil Procedure Code and separate High Court.
the Evidence Act. Which of the above statements is/are
2. Lok Adalats have the authority to correct?
summon witnesses and enforce their (a) Only 1
attendance for examination. (b) Only 2
3. Lok Adalats' awards are subject to (c) Both 1 and 2.
appeal in higher courts. (d) None of the statements are correct.
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two regarding the legislative powers of Union
(c) All three (d) None Territories in India:
1. The legislative assembly of
UNION TERRITORIES Puducherry can make laws on
subjects of the State List and the
317. Consider the following statements Concurrent List.
regarding the administration of Union 2. Delhi's legislative assembly can
Territories in India: legislate on matters of the State List
1. The Union Territories of except public order, police, and land.
Puducherry, Delhi, Chandigarh and 3. The legislative assembly of Jammu
Jammu and Kashmir are provided and Kashmir has complete autonomy
with a legislative assembly and a to legislate on matters of the State
council of ministers. List and the Concurrent List.
2. The Central government can appoint How many of the above statements are
the Governor of a state as the correct?
administrator of an adjoining Union
(a) Only one
Territory.
(b) Only two
3. The Parliament can establish a high
court for a Union Territory or put it (c) All three
under the jurisdiction of another (d) None
high court


320. Consider the following statements 2. The executive power of the state
regarding the executive head in Union extends fully to the scheduled areas
Territories in India: without any limitations.
1. Their executive head is known by 3. The governor can direct that any
various designations – administrator particular act of Parliament or the
or lieutenant governor or chief state legislature does not apply to a
commissioner. scheduled area unilaterally.
2. An administrator is an agent of the How many of the above statements are
Central government. correct?
3. An administrator holds (a) Only one
constitutional authority. (b) Only two
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(c) All three regarding the Tribal Areas under the Sixth
Schedule of the Constitution:
(d) None
1. Autonomous districts can organize
their regional councils without the
321. Consider the following statements governor's approval.
regarding legislative authority in Union
2. The acts of Parliament and state
Territories in India:
legislature apply without
1. Parliament cannot make laws on any modifications or exceptions in
subject of the state list in relation to autonomous regions.
the Union Territories. 3. The district councils within their
2. Parliament can make laws on any territorial jurisdictions can impose
subject of the three lists in relation to taxes independently.
the Union Territories. How many of the above statements are
3. Parliament requires extraordinary correct?
circumstances to legislate on Union (a) Only one
Territories. (b) Only two
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(c) All three regarding the Tribes Advisory Council in
(d) None scheduled areas:
1. The Tribes Advisory Council must
322. Consider the following statements comprise at least half of its members
regarding the Scheduled Areas under the as representatives from the
Fifth Schedule of the Constitution: scheduled tribes.
1. The president can declare an area to 2. The Tribes Advisory Council is
be a scheduled area with mandatory in all states with
consultation with the governor. scheduled tribes, irrespective of
whether they have scheduled areas.


3. The Tribes Advisory Council's role Which of the above statements are
is solely advisory and does not correct?
influence the administration of (a) Only 1
scheduled areas. (b) Only 2
How many of the above statements are (c) Both 1 and 2.
correct? (d) None of the statements are correct.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 327. Consider the following statements:
(c) All three 1. Autonomous districts within the four
(d) None north-eastern states are outside the
executive authority of the concerned
325. Consider the following statements about state governments.
the president's role in the administration of 2. The Tribes Advisory Council has a
scheduled areas: mandatory representation of the
1. The president is empowered to scheduled tribes' members only from
appoint a commission to report on the state legislative assembly.
the administration of scheduled areas 3. The Tribes Advisory Council's
only after 20 years of the primary role is limited to advising
Constitution's commencement. the state government and doesn’t
2. The president's assent is mandatory for influence policy decisions.
regulations made by the governor How many of the above statements are
regarding a scheduled area, ensuring a correct?
check on unilateral decision-making. (a) Only one
3. The president has the authority to (b) Only two
rescind an order designating an area (c) All three
as a scheduled area without (d) None
consulting the governor.
correct?
regarding the functioning of the district
(a) Only one councils in the Sixth Schedule areas:
(b) Only two 1. The district councils possess
(c) All three legislative powers without the
(d) None Governor's assent.
2. Autonomous regions within a district
326. Consider the following statements can be formed by the Governor.
regarding the Sixth Schedule of the 3. The district councils can establish
Constitution: primary schools, hospitals,parks
1. The governor has the authority to without any restrictions.
dissolve a district council solely on the How many of the above statements are
recommendation of a commission correct?
appointed by the president. (a) Only one
2. Autonomous regions within an (b) Only two
autonomous district can make laws (c) All three
on specified matters without the
(d) None
governor's assent.


the recent changes in the Inner Line correct?
Permit (ILP) system: (a) Only one
1. The ILP regime has been extended (b) Only two
to all north-eastern states. (c) All three
2. The ILP system was established (d) None
under the 1853 Charter Act.
correct? regarding the Tribal Advisory Council:
(a) Only 1 1. States with Tribal Areas establish a
(b) Only 2 Tribal Advisory Council.
(c) Both 1 and 2. 2. TheTribal Advisory Council has up
to 10 members representing ST
welfare matters.
3. The Tribal Advisory Council advises
330. Consider the features of the Autonomous the Chief Minister on administrative
District Councils (ADCs) under the Sixth affairs.
Schedule: How many of the above statements are
1. ADCs are entirely autonomous correct?
bodies not subjected to the (a) Only one
jurisdiction of the State Legislature. (b) Only two
2. The tenure of ADC members is (c) All three
flexible and can extend beyond five (d) None
years based on performance
evaluations.
3. ADCs have the authority to regulate 333. Consider the following statements
money lending and trading activities regarding the criteria for identifying
without the governor's assent. Scheduled Areas in India:
How many of the above statements are 1. Areas with 30% or more tribal
correct? population according to the 1951
(a) Only one (b) Only two Census are considered for
(c) All three (d) None designation as Scheduled Areas.
2. The Bhuria Committee
331. Consider the following statements recommended the extension of
regarding the Panchayats (Extension to panchayat raj to Scheduled Areas,
which has been effectively
Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) of 1996:
implemented in all designated areas.
1. It empowers state government with
substantial authority through direct
correct?
democracy.
(a) Only 1
2. Bhuria Committee suggested the
(b) Only 2
inclusion of these villages under
(c) Both 1 and 2.
PESA.
3. The President of India has no role in
the notification of Scheduled Areas.


NITI AAYOG How many of the above statements are
correct?
334. Consider the following initiatives (a) Only one
associated with NITI Aayog:
(b) Only two
1. Atal Innovation Mission
(c) All three
2. School Education Quality Index
(d) None
3. India Export Promotion Index
correct?
(a) Only one
regarding the NHRC:
(b) Only two
1. The Commission's investigations are
(c) All three limited to matters that occurred
(d) None within six months of the alleged
NHRC human rights violation.
2. It is empowered to take action
against human rights violations
335. Consider the following statements about committed by members of the armed
the composition of the NHRC:
forces.
1. The National Human Rights 3. NHRC has punitive powers to
Commission is a Constitutional penalize violators of human rights.
body.
2. The chairman must have retired or correct?
serving as a judge in the Supreme
(a) Only one
Court.
(b) Only two
3. The appointment of the chairman
and members is by the President on (c) All three
aid and advice of council ministers. (d) None
(a) Only one regarding NHRC's jurisdiction:
(b) Only two 1. NHRC has limited powers in
(c) All three addressing human rights violations
committed by private entities.
(d) None
2. NHRC can only utilize the services
of state government officers for
336. Consider the following statements about investigating complaints.
the powers of the NHRC:
3. NHRC's jurisdiction extends to all
1. The NHRC proceedings hold a matters related to human rights
purely advisory nature. violations.
2. It has the authority to penalize How many of the above statements are
individuals for human rights correct?
violations.
(a) Only one
3. NHRC can investigate cases beyond
(b) Only two
one year from the date of
occurrence. (c) All three
(d) None


SHRC (STATE HUMAN RIGHTS 2. The tenure of the Chairperson and
COMMISSION) Members of the NCW is three years.
3. The Central Government can remove
339. Consider the following statements a Member if they refuse to act
regarding the State Human Rights during their term.
Commission (SHRC):
1. The SHRC operates at inter state correct?
level.
(a) Only one
2. State Human Rights Commission
(b) Only two
has the power to inquire into
violations only if they are listed in (c) All three
List II of the State List or List III of (d) None
the Concurrent List.
3. The SHRC has authority equivalent 342. Consider the responsibilities of the
to a civil court for judicial National Commission for Women:
proceedings. 1. Reviewing existing laws to suggest
How many of the above statements are improvements for women's
correct? conditions only at the national level.
(a) Only one (b) Only two 2. The Act specifies that the NCW can
(c) All three (d) None take up cases based on complaints
on Suo moto notice, not solely
340. Consider the following statements about without any complaint lodged.
the members of the State Human Rights Which of the above statements are
Commission (SHRC): correct?
1. The SHRC members can only be (a) Only 1
removed by the Governor.
(b) Only 2
2. The Chairperson and members are
appointed for a fixed term of six (c) Both 1 and 2.
years or sixty two years whichever is (d) None of the statements are correct.
earlier.
3. The qualifications for a member (NCPCR) NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR
include a minimum of five years of PROTECTION OF CHILD RIGHTS
experience as a District Judge.
correct? regarding the composition of the National
(a) Only one (b) Only two Commission for Protection of Child
(c) All three (d) None Rights (NCPCR):
1. The Chairperson of the Commission
NCW must be a person of eminence who
has made significant contributions to
341. Consider the tenure and removal process child welfare.
of members in the National Commission 2. The Commission consists of 6
for Women: members, with a mandatory
1. The Chairperson of the NCW can be provision for at least half of women
removed only by the President of members.
India. 3. Members of the Commission can
serve for a maximum of two terms.


correct? regarding the responsibilities of the
(a) Only one Central and State Governments towards
(b) Only two the reports and recommendations of the
(c) All three National Commission for Minorities
(NCM):
(d) None
1. The Central Government is required to
present a report to Parliament along
344. Consider the powers and investigative
with a memorandum explaining the
abilities of the NCPCR:
actions taken on the recommendations
1. The Commission holds the power to relating to the Union.
summon and examine any person
2. The State Government concerned must
across the country but cannot
present a report to the Legislature,
enforce their attendance on oath.
explaining the actions taken on
2. The Commission can recommend recommendations relating to the State.
interim relief to victims but lacks the
3. The Central Government must
power to approach the Supreme
follow the recommendations of the
Court or High Court for directions.
NCM without any exceptions.
correct?
correct?
(a) Only 1
(a) Only one
(b) Only 2
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2.
(c) All three
(d) None
NCM (NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR

CHIEF INFORMATION COMMISSIONER
MINORITIES)
regarding the Central Information
regarding the National Commission for
Commission (CIC):
Minorities (NCM) and its composition:
1. The Chief Information
1. The Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson,
Commissioner and Information
and five Members are nominated by
Commissioners are eligible for
the Central Government from
reappointment.
amongst the minority communities.
2. The composition of the Commission
2. The term of each member is five
includes a minimum of six
years from the date of entering the
Information Commissioners, besides
office.
the Chief Information
3. The President can remove the Commissioner.
Chairperson or any other member if
3. The Central Government has the
they engage in any paid employment
authority to remove the Chief
outside their office duties.
Information Commissioner or any
How many of the above statements are Information Commissioner on
correct? grounds of misbehaviour or
(a) Only one (b) Only two incapacity.


How many of the above statements are (SIC) STATE INFORMATION
correct? COMMISSIONERS
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 350. Consider the following statements related
(c) All three to the State Information Commission
(d) None (SIC):
1. The Governor appoints the State
348. Consider the following statements about Chief Information Commissioner
the powers and functions of the Central (SCIC) and State Information
Information Commission (CIC): Commissioners (SIC).
1. The Commission has the authority to 2. Members of Parliament or Member
summon and enforce the attendance of the Legislature of any State
of persons and compel them to give orUnion Territory can be the
oral evidence but lacks the power to member of SIC
receive evidence on affidavit.
2. The Appointments Committee for
2. It can inquire into matters solely
the appointment of SIC is headed by
based on reasonable grounds and
lacks suo-moto power to order an the State Chief Minister.
inquiry. How many of the above statements are
3. The Commission can recommend correct?
steps to public authorities for (a) Only one
conforming to the provisions of the (b) Only two
Right to Information Act. (c) All three
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
(c) All three regarding the qualifications of State
(d) None Information Commissioners:
1. State Information Commissioners
349. Consider the following statements: can serve up to 70 years of age.
1. The tenure of the Chief Information 2. The state government has the
Commissioner and Information exclusive authority to remove a State
Commissioners is fixed at 5 years. Chief Information Commissioner.
2. The amendments made in 2019 to 3. The Commission entertains
the RTI Act extended the tenure of complaints pertaining only to
Commissioners to 70 years. government offices
3. The tenure of Commissioners is
decided by the Central Government
correct?
and can be extended if necessary.
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None (d) None


CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION 354. Consider the following statements:
(CVC): 1. The CVC consists of a Chairperson
and at least two Vigilance
Commissioners.
352. Consider the following statements related 2. The appointment of the Chairperson
to the Central Vigilance Commission and members is made by the
(CVC): President on the advice of a
1. The CVC was initially established Committee.
through a parliamentary enactment 3. The President can remove a member
in 1964. if the Supreme Court advises so after
2. The CVC exercises complete control an inquiry.
over the Central Bureau of How many of the above statements are
Investigation (CBI). correct?
3. The CVC oversees the vigilance (a) Only one
administration of the various Central
(b) Only two
Government Ministries,
Departments, and organizations of (c) All three
the Central Government. (d) None
(a) Only one regarding the CVC:
(b) Only two 1. The CVC presents its Annual Report
(c) All three to the president.
(d) None 2. The President has the authority to
reject the advice of the CVC.
353. Consider the following assertions
correct?
regarding the Central Vigilance
Commission (CVC): (a) Only 1
1. The CVC is accountable to the (b) Only 2
Parliament. (c) Both 1 and 2.
2. The CVC has the authority to (d) None of the statements are correct.
appoint the Director of Prosecution
in the Central Bureau of CENTRAL BUREAU OF
Investigation (CBI). INVESTIGATION (CBI)
3. The CVC's term of office for the
Chairperson and members is five 356. Consider the following statements related
years from the date of assuming to the establishment of the Central Bureau
office. of Investigation (CBI):
How many of the above statements are 1. The CBI was established by a
correct? resolution of the Ministry of Home
Affairs and later transferred to the
(a) Only one
Ministry of Personnel, Public
(b) Only two Grievances, and Pensions, currently
(c) All three functioning as an attached office.
(d) None


2. Its establishment was recommended How many of the above statements are
by the Santhanam Committee on the correct?
Prevention of Corruption. (a) Only one
3. The CBI operates under the DSPE (b) Only two
Act, of 1946. It is a statutory body. (c) All three
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
concerning CBI's interaction with State
(c) All three
Governments:
(d) None
1. The consent of the state government
to CBI can be either case-specific or
“general”.
regarding the CBI's jurisdiction and
operational challenges: 2. The absence of general consent
1. The CBI requires prior permission necessitates the CBI to seek
from the Central Government for permission for individual cases from
inquiries into offences committed by the state government.
officers of joint secretary rank and 3. General consent is an implicit
above. approval, allowing the CBI to
2. In the CBI vs. CBI case, the SC initiate investigations without
vested the power to remove the CBI specific permissions.
Director solely in the central How many of the above statements are
government. correct?
(a) Only 1 (c) All three
(b) Only 2 (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2.
LOKPAL
358. Consider the following statements about 360. Consider the following statements
the appointment of the Director of CBI: regarding Lokpal and Lokayukta Act,
1. The Central Government appoints 2013:
the Director of CBI based on the 1. The Act necessitates that 33 percent
recommendation of a three-member of Lokpal members should belong to
committee. specific communities, including
2. The committee comprises the Prime SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities, and
Minister, the Leader of the women.
Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and 2. Salaries and allowances for Lokpal
the Chief Justice of India. members are equivalent to those of
3. In case there's no recognized Leader Supreme Court judges.
of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the 3. These bodies hold constitutional
committee composition will be status as per the provisions of the
created by the Speaker of Lok Indian Constitution.
Sabha.


correct? correct?
(c) All three
361. Consider the provisions of the Lokpal and (d) None
Lokayuktas (Amendment) Act, 2016:
1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas 363. Consider the following statements about
(Amendment) Act, 2016 mandates the National Investigation Agency (NIA):
public servants to declare assets and
1. The NIA primarily investigates
liabilities within 60 days of
assuming office. offenses involving the smuggling of
arms, drugs, and counterfeit
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas
currency.
(Amendment) Act, 2016 requires
declarations of assets and liabilities 2. NIA's jurisdiction does not cover
of public servants, their spouses, and persons in the service of the
dependent children. government of India outside India.
3. Dr. L. M. Singhvi coined the term 3. NIA's origin lies in response to the
Lokpal and Lokayukta in 1963 2002 Indian Parliament attack.
How many of the above statements are Options:
(a) Only one (b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
NATIONAL INVESTIGATION AGENCY (c) All three
(NIA) (d) None
362. Consider the following statements about NDMA
the changes made under the NIA
Amendment Act, 2019:
the National Disaster Management
1. The NIA (Amendment) Act 2019
Authority's responsibilities:
expanded the scope of offenses that
the NIA can investigate to include 1. NDMA provides support to other
crimes committed within India and countries affected by major
outside India. disasters.
2. Special Courts to try cases under the 2. India has hosted disaster
Act can now be designated solely by management exercises within the
the central government. BIMSTEC, SAARC etc..
3. The central government has the How many of the above statements are
authority to designate Sessions correct?
Courts as Special Courts for trying (a) Only 1
scheduled offenses under the Act (b) Only 2
after consulting with the relevant
(c) Both 1 and 2.
High Court Chief Justice.


365. Consider the following statements 3. The BCI's decision focuses on
regarding NDMA: reciprocal rights for foreign lawyers
1. NDMA is chaired by the Home to practice in India.
Minister. How many of the above statements are
2. State Disaster Management correct?
Authority has been created under the (a) Only one
Chairmanship of Chief Minister of (b) Only two
the State
(c) All three
2. NDMA is responsible for the
implementation of state-level (d) None
disaster plans.
How many of the above statements are LAW COMMISSION
correct?
(a) Only one
the Law Commission of India:
(b) Only two
1. The first Law Commission in India
(c) All three
was established during the British
(d) None
Raj era in 1834.
2. The commission is constituted by a
BAR COUNCIL OF INDIA notification of the Government of
366. Consider the following statements about India, Ministry of Law & Justice,
the Bar Council of India's funds and their Department of Legal Affairs
purposes: 3. The Law Commission is a statutory
1. The Bar Council of India cannot body constituted by the Government
receive grants, donations, or gifts for of India.
welfare schemes for advocates. How many of the above statements are
2. BCI manages and invests the funds correct?
of the State Bar Council (a) Only one
(a) Only one
(d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
369. Regarding the composition of the Law
(d) None
Commission of India:
1. The commission includes a
367. Consider the following statements related
minimum of four full-time members,
to the Bar Council of India's decision on
including the chairperson.
foreign lawyers practicing in India:
2. It functions as an executive body
1. Foreign lawyers and law firms can
practice Indian law upon registration under the Ministry of Law and
with the BCI. Justice.
2. Indian lawyers working with foreign 3. The commission conducts research
law firms are exempt from in law and reviews existing laws
restrictions imposed on foreign only on references made by the
lawyers. Central Government.


correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
DELIMITATION COMMISSION COOPERATIVE SOCIETY
370. Consider the following statements related

to the Delimitation Commission: 372. Consider the following statements
1. The last delimitation exercise that regarding the Multi-State Cooperative
altered the Lok Sabha's state-wise Societies (Amendment) Bill 2022:
composition was completed in 1976. 1. The Bill necessitates concurrent
2. Its primary function of Delimitation audits for all multi-state cooperative
Commission is to ensure the societies.
concentration of seats for Scheduled 2. The Cooperative Election Authority
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in oversees elections in single-state
regions with a relatively larger cooperative societies as well.
population of these communities. 3. The administrative and financial
3. The Delimitation Commission Act control of these societies is
mandates a periodic review after predominantly under state
every ten years. government officials' jurisdiction.
correct? correct?
(d) None (d) None
371. Consider the following statements about 373. Consider the following statements:
the Delimitation Commission: 1. The International Cooperative
1. When the orders of the Delimitation Alliance (ICA) defines Cooperative
Commission are laid before the Lok Societies as autonomous
Sabha or State Legislative associations without any joint
Assembly, they cannot effect any ownership of enterprises.
modification in the orders. 2. The Government of India Act, 1935,
2. The 87th Amendment Act of 2003 granted provinces the authority to
empowered the government to formulate their own cooperative
undertake readjustment based on the laws.
1991 census. 3. Cooperative Societies came into
3. The orders of the Delimitation existence primarily post-
Commission cannot be challenged in independence and were integral to
a Court of Law. the First Five-Year Plan.


How many of the above statements are 376. Consider the following statements about
correct? the Eighth Schedule and Classical
(a) Only one Languages:
(b) Only two 1. All Classical Languages in India are
(c) All three listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
(d) None Constitution.
2. Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule
OFFICIAL LANGUAGE mandates that a language must have
a recorded history of over 1000
years.
1. The Official Language Commission
is constituted by the central 3. The guidelines for Classical
government. Languages stipulate that literature
2. Official Language Commission should not have any influence from
consists of members representing all other linguistic communities.
languages mentioned in the Eighth How many of the above statements are
Schedule. correct?
3. The Official Language Commission (a) Only one
makes recommendations to the
(b) Only two
Parliament on language use for
official purposes. (c) All three
correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two 377. Consider the following statements about
(c) All three (d) None the language of the Judiciary:
1. Any judgment or order made in a
375. Consider the provisions under regarding language other than English must be
the language of the Judiciary: accompanied by an English
1. The judgments, decrees, and orders translation.
of High Courts must always be in
2. The use of Hindi in courts, with the
English.
President's prior consent, overrides
2. The Governor can authorize the use
the necessity for an English
of Hindi or any other language, with
the President's consent, for official translation.
purposes in High Courts. 3. The Governor's consent is required
3. State legislatures can mandate using for the use of Hindi or the official
languages other than English, with language of the State, in addition to
its translation in English. English, in court proceedings.
correct? correct?
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None


PUBLIC SERVICES RIGHTS AND LIABILITIES
378. Consider the following statements 380. Consider the following statements
regarding the features of All-India regarding the Rights and Liabilities of the
Services: Government:
1. Members of All-India services 1. All property and assets vested in the
belong to different state cadres, and Dominion of India or an Indian
the Centre maintains its own cadre princely state before the
for these services. commencement of the Constitution
2. The ultimate control of All-India became vested in the Union.
services lies with the state 2. Any property in India that would
governments, while the Central have accrued to the King of England
government exercises immediate or ruler of an Indian princely state
control. by escheat, lapse, or bona vacantia,
3. All-India Services Act of 1951 without a rightful owner, would vest
authorizes the Central government in the Union or the state, as
alone to take disciplinary action applicable.
against officers belonging to these 3. The territorial waters extend to a
services. distance of 20 nautical miles from
How many of the above statements are the appropriate baseline.
(a) Only one (b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
379. Consider the following statements (c) All three
regarding the safeguards to civil servants (d) None
in India:
1. The All-India Services Act of 1951 381. Consider the following statements
authorizes the Central government regarding governmental liability in India:
alone to take disciplinary action 1. The Union government can be sued
against officers belonging to these for torts committed by its officials in
services. sovereign functions.
2. The constitution empowers the 2. State governments are immune from
President to dismiss or remove civil legal liability in respect of their
servants with without providing any official contracts.
specific reasons. 3. Civil servants are exempt from any
3. State services are exclusively legal liability for their official
classified into four categories: class contracts.
I, class II, class III, and class IV. How many of the above statements are
(b) Only two (c) All three
(d) None


POLITICAL PARTIES How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
the criteria for a political party:
(b) Only two
1. A political party can qualify as a
(c) All three
national party if its candidates secure
at least 6% of total valid votes in at (d) None
least 4 states during the latest Lok
Sabha or Assembly elections, and REGIONAL PARTIES
the party has at least 4 MPs in the
last LS polls to be recognized as a 384. Consider the following statements
national party in India. regarding the features of Indian Regional
Parties:
2. A party can be declared a state party
if it wins 3% of seats in the 1. Indian Regional Parties primarily
Legislative Assembly at a general operate at a national level with broad
election to the legislative assembly electoral bases.
of the state concerned or 3 seats in 2. Regional parties often neglect
the assembly (whichever is more). cultural, linguistic, or ethnic
3. The recognised national party is affiliations in their campaigns.
allotted a symbol exclusively 3. Indian Regional Parties primary goal
reserved for its use throughout the is to expand control over the central
country for a period of 5 years. government.
correct? correct?
(c) All three
(d) None 385. Consider the following statements about
the role of Regional Parties in politics:
383. Consider the following statements 1. Indian Regional Parties limit the
concerning the privileges accorded to choice for voters in parliamentary
recognized political parties in India: and assembly elections.
1. A recognized party has the right to 2. Indian Regional Parties contribute to
use a symbol exclusively reserved the successful functioning of
for its use throughout the country, parliamentary democracy.
even in states where it is not 3. The rise of regional parties is solely
contesting elections. due to the failure of national politics
2. Every national party is allotted 40 to meet regional aspirations.
"star campaigners" during the time How many of the above statements are
of elections, whereas registered- correct?
unrecognized parties are allowed to (a) Only one
have 20 "star campaigners." (b) Only two
3. State parties are allowed to use their (c) All three
allotted symbol only in the state/s in (d) None
which they are recognized.


ELECTROL REFORM 2. The Election Commission of India
(ECI) is mandated to store and
386. Consider the following statements: maintain the Aadhaar numbers in its
1. Political parties are required to database.
report contributions above ₹20,000 3. The Aadhaar number linkage with
to claim income tax relief. Voter ID requires mandatory consent
2. The Election Commission allocates from the elector and allows
equitable sharing of time to political withdrawal of consent at any time.
parties on electronic media based How many of the above statements are
solely on their past performance. correct?
3. Exit polls and their results are (a) Only one
prohibited during Lok Sabha and State (b) Only two
Legislative Assemblies elections.
(c) All three
(d) None
correct?
(c) All three (d) None COALITION GOVERNMENTS

387. Consider the following statements: 1. Coalition governments are always
1. The spending limit for Assembly formed post-elections.
constituencies was hiked from Rs 20 2. Coalition governments are
lakh-Rs 28 lakh to Rs 28 lakh-Rs 40 characterized by a static and
lakh. unwavering approach to policy
2. Candidates must submit their formulation.
expenditure statement to the ECI 3. Coalition governments invariably
within 60 days of the completion of have a large, singular Steering
the elections. Committee overseeing governmental
3. The Supreme Court in 2013 Lily decisions.
Thomas Case mandated a three- How many of the above statements are
month time limit for submitting a correct?
case of corrupt practice for (a) Only one
disqualification. (b) Only two
correct?
(d) None
390. Consider the following:
1. Coalition politics relies heavily on
ELECTION LAWS ideological rigidity and
388. Consider the following statements: uncompromising principles.
1. The Election Laws (Amendment) 2. The underlying principle of coalition
Act, 2021, mandates Electoral politics is a temporary convergence
Registration Officers to collect of specific interests.
Aadhaar numbers compulsorily for 3. Coalition governments primarily
all existing and prospective electors. focus on securing absolute power
through political adjustments.


How many of the above statements are PRESSURE GROUPS
correct?
(a) Only one 393. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two 1. Pressure groups contest elections to
capture political power.
(c) All three
(d) None 2. Pressure groups never resort to
illegitimate methods in influencing
government policies.
ANTI DEFECTION
3. In order to influence the government,
391. Consider the following statements: there should be at least 10 members in
1. The Tenth Schedule, introduced in a particular pressure group.
1985, focuses on the disqualification How many of the above statements are
of elected members on grounds of correct?
defection. (a) Only 1
2. The law allows a merger of political (b) Both 1 and 2.
parties when at least one-third of the (c) All of the above.
elected members decide to join
another party.
3. The 91st Constitutional Amendment
Act, 2003, mandates that at least 394. Consider the types of pressure groups in
two-thirds of the members of a party India:
must be in favor of a "merger" for its 1. Associational Interest Groups
validity. include political parties and
How many of the above statements are legislatures.
correct? 2. Institutional Interest Groups consist
(a) Only one of professionally employed
(b) Only two individuals and are not part of the
(c) All three government machinery.
(d) None 3. Non-Associational Interest Groups
articulate interests based on kinship
392. Consider the following aspects related to and lineage structures.
the implications of the Anti-Defection How many of the above statements are
Law: correct?
1. It disallows legislators disqualified (a) Only one (b) Only two
under the law from standing for (c) All three (d) None
elections from any political party.
2. A nominated member can join a
FOREIGN POLICY
political party after 6 months.
3. An elected independent member 395. Consider the following statements related
cannot join a political party after the to India's Look East Policy:
expiry of six months. 1. The Act East Policy, unlike its
How many of the above statements are predecessor, focused solely on
correct? political cooperation with Southeast
(a) Only one (b) Only two Asian nations.


2. The Look East Policy primarily How many of the above statements are
emphasised India's engagement with correct?
countries in South Asia. (a) Only 1
3. India-US Act East Forum works in (b) Only 2
line with India’s Act East Policy and (c) Both 1 and 2.
USA’s vision for a Free and Open (d) None of the statements are correct.
Indo-Pacific.
correct?
regarding the Voting Rights under the
(a) Only one Representation of the People Act (RPA),
(b) Only two 1950:
(c) Only three 1. Voting rights were extended to
(d) None of the statements are correct. citizens of India living abroad in
2014.
396. Consider the following statements 2. The extension of voting rights to
regarding India's Neighbourhood First citizens abroad was enacted under a
Policy: constitutional amendment.
1. India shares its maritime boundaries How many of the above statements are
only with Indonesia, Maldives, and correct?
Sri Lanka. (a) Only 1
2. The Neighbourhood First Policy (b) Only 2
emphasises solely on economic and (c) Both 1 and 2.
trade relations with neighbouring (d) None of the statements are correct.
countries.
3. The policy solely prioritises
neighbouring countries based on
regarding the Delimitation Commissio.
their geographic proximity to India.
1. The Delimitation Commission
How many of the above statements are demarcates boundaries of
correct?
Parliamentary Constituencies as per
(a) Only one provisions of the Delimitation Act
(b) Only two after every census.
(c) All three 2. The present constituencies are based
(d) None on the 2001 census figures and will
RPA continue until the first census after
2026.
397. Consider the following statements: 3. The Parliament enacts the
1. The Representation of the People Delimitation Act in consultation
Act (RPA), 1950 Act provides with the Election Commission of
reservation of seats for Scheduled India (ECI) after every census.
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the How many of the above statements are
Lok Sabha only. correct?
2. The ECI determines the (a) Only one (b) Only two
constituencies to be reserved for
scheduled tribes in all states.


400. Consider the following statements 3. Electoral Bonds have a validity
regarding the Chief Electoral Officer period of 30 days from the date of
(CEO) as per the Representation of the issue.
People Act (RPA), 1950: How many of the above statements are
1. The CEO of each state is nominated correct?
or designated by the President on
recommendation of the Election
commission of India in consultation (c) All three (d) None
with the state government.
2. The CEO oversees election work 403. Consider the following statements
only in states and not in Union regarding Electoral Bonds' eligibility
Territories (UTs). criteria for political parties in India:
3. The District Election Officer (DEO) 1. Only parties securing more than 2%
operates independently of the CEO’s of the votes in the previous general
control. elections are eligible to receive
How many of the above statements are Electoral Bonds.
correct? 2. Regional parties securing not less
(a) Only one (b) Only two than 1% of the votes in the last
(c) All three (d) None general elections are eligible to
receive Electoral Bonds.
401. Consider the following statements related 3. Parties must be registered under the
to the right to vote as per the RPA, 1951: Representation of the People Act,
1. RPA, 1951 ensures that every person 1951, to qualify for receiving
in the electoral roll of that Electoral Bonds.
constituency is entitled to vote.
2. If a person is confined in a prison
correct?
under a sentence of imprisonment,
they are eligible for voting. (a) Only one (b) Only two
3. The Act disallows individuals under (c) All three (d) None
preventive custody from exercising
their right to vote. 404. Consider the following statements about
How many of the above statements are the utilization of funds received through
correct? Electoral Bonds by political parties in
(a) Only one (b) Only two India:
(c) All three (d) None 1. Political parties are mandated to
disclose their bank account details to
402. Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India
Electoral Bonds in India: (ECI).
1. Electoral Bonds are interest-bearing 2. Donations received through
instruments issued by the State Bank Electoral Bonds are exempt from
of India (SBI). scrutiny regarding their usage.
2. Electoral Bonds are available in
3. Parties are required to explain the
denominations ranging from Rs
utilization of funds received through
1000 to Rs 10 crore.
Electoral Bonds.


correct? regarding the functions of the
(a) Only one Enforcement Directorate under the
(b) Only two Prevention of Money Laundering Act,
(c) All three 2002 (PMLA):
(d) None 1. The ED is responsible for
conducting investigations into
suspected contraventions of foreign
ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE (ED) exchange laws and regulations.
405. Consider the following statements: 2. The ED can provisionally attach the
1. ED was established under the property derived from proceeds of
Ministry of Home Affairs. crime under PMLA.
2. The ED Director is appointed by the 3. PMLA was enacted based on the
President. recommendations of the Financial
3. ED has the authority to undertake Action Task Force (FATF).
search, seizure, and arrest actions How many of the above statements are
against violations under PMLA correct?
(c) All three
(d) None
******
1. The President of India issued two
ordinances allowing the tenure of the
Director of ED to be extended from
two years to up to five years.
2. The recruitment of officers in the
Enforcement Directorate is only
from IRS (Indian Revenue Services).
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2.

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