DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

FF
CHLAA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

1. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the Answer ( 4 )

complex [Ni(CO)4] are
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
(3) Square planar geometry and
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
paramagnetic
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
Answer ( 2 )
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
4. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
Configuration would be :
[CoCl2(en)2] is
3
sp -hybridisation (1) Geometrical isomerism
(2) Coordination isomerism
×× ×× ×× ××
(3) Ionization isomerism
CO CO CO CO
(4) Linkage isomerism
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
Answer ( 1 )
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral
CO
geometry.

Ni
CO
OC
CO
2. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
(1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear geometrical isomerism.
(3) Trinuclear (4) Dinuclear 5. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
Answer ( 2 ) the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the correct code :
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
Column I Column II
present in a complex, they are classified
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
so on.
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
Hence, option (2) should be the right v. 15 BM
answer.
a b c d
3. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
(1) iv v ii i
transition and paramagnetism as well?
(2) i ii iii iv
(1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O72–
(3) iv i ii iii
(3) MnO4– (4) MnO42–
(4) iii v i ii
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Answer ( 1 ) 9. Which of the following statements is not true

for halogens?
S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM (2) All are oxidizing agents
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
states
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
enthalpy
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5 Answer ( 3 )

Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2 Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
HOF.
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM 10. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
6. Which one of the following elements is unable
(1) One (2) Two
to form MF63– ion?
(3) Four (4) Three
(1) Ga (2) Al
Answer ( 2 )
(3) B (4) In S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
 
Answer ( 3 )

 

 
F
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence  
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond  
F Cl
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.  
BF63(–).
 

 
F
Hence, the correct option is (3).  

7. The correct order of N-compounds in its The number of lone pair of electrons on
decreasing order of oxidation states is central Cl is 2.
11. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl elements is
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
5 2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl Sol.
3 4

Hence, the correct option is (1). Elements B Ga Al In Tl

Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
8. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
12. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
following metals can be used to reduce
also gives m-nitroaniline because
alumina?
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
(1) Fe (2) Zn goes to only m-position.
(3) Mg (4) Cu (2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive.
Answer ( 3 )
(3) In absence of substituents nitro group
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' always goes to m-position.
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
correct option. present as anilinium ion.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Answer ( 4 ) 15. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic

acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
NH2 NH3 gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
H at STP will be
Sol.
(1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
Anilinium ion
(3) 2.8 (4) 4.4
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para Answer ( 3 )
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
Conc.H2 SO4
also formed in significant yield. S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1
13. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, 2.3 g or  mol  mol
 20  20
which of the following statements is
incorrect? Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
(1) They contain covalent bonds between mol mol
COOH 20 20
various linear polymer chains.  1 
4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
monomers. Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
(3) Examples are bakelite and melamine. absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
their polymer chains. is
Answer ( 4 ) 2
 28  2.8 g
20
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers So, the correct option is (3)
and contain strong covalent bonds between 16. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite, nature?
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
(1) MgO (2) BeO
cross-linking.
(3) BaO (4) CaO
So option (4) should be the correct option.
Answer ( 2 )
14. The difference between amylose and S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
amylopectin is

(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
Basic character increases.
1 6 -linkage
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
(2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
-linkage oxides are basic.
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and 17. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
1  6 -linkage NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and smell.
galactose
A and Y are respectively
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of - (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
and 1  6 -linkages. (2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2

So option (1) should be the correct option.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
CH – CH3 and I2 in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
(3) boiling point increases and become more
OH than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
CH3 and alcohols of comparable molecular
masses.
(4) CH3 OH and I2 20. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
Answer ( 3 ) left to right atoms?
S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on (1) HC  C – C  CH
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone (2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and (3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate. (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O Answer ( 2 )
sp2 sp2 sp sp
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH

OH O Number of orbital require in hybridization

(A) Acetophenone = Number of -bonds around each carbon
atom.
I2 21. Which of the following carbocations is
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
Iodoform
expected to be most stable?
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
18. In the reaction NO2 NO2
– +
OH O Na


CHO (1) (2)

+ CHCl3 + NaOH 
Y H Y H
The electrophile involved is
NO2 NO2
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  
 H 
(2) Formyl cation CHO  
 (3) H (4) Y

 
 Y 
(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2

(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2  Answer ( 3 )

S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
Answer ( 4 )
with increase in distance. In option (3)
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
positive charge present on C-atom at
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
the following reaction
is minimum and stability is maximum.
.–.
CHCl3  OH– 
 CCl3  H2 O 22. Which of the following is correct with respect
.–.
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
CCl3   : CCl2  Cl– (1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
Electrophile
(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
19. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points (3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
Answer ( 1 * )
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(2) Formation of carboxylate ion S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
acid via van der Waals force of attraction –I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding *Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
Answer ( 1 ) however option (2) may also be correct answer.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

23. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common 26. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
due to natural and human activity? Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(1) N2O5 (2) NO2 hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
(3) N2O (4) NO atoms. (A) is
Answer ( 1 ) (1) CH  CH (2) CH2  CH2
S o l . Fact (3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH4
24. The compound A on treatment with Na gives Answer ( 4 )
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are Br2/h
in the order S o l . CH4 CH3Br
(A) Na/dry ether
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
Wurtz reaction
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH CH3 — CH3
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Hence the correct option is (4)
Answer ( 4 )
27. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
C2H5O Na+
Na following sequence of reactions:
S o l . C2H5OH
(B) Anhydrous
(A) AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
PCl5
(i) O2
C2H5Cl P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
(C) P Q R
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
C2H5OC2 H5 CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
(B) (C)
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
So the correct option is (4)
25. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions: CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C (2) , ,
The product 'C' is
(1) m-bromotoluene CH(CH3)2 OH
(2) o-bromotoluene (3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3

(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(4) p-bromotoluene OH
Answer ( 1 ) CH(CH3)2
(4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
3Cl 2 Br2 Answer ( 4 )
Sol.  Fe
Br Cl
(C7H8) (A) (B)
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2
Zn HCl
Cl Cl
CH3
+ 1, 2–H + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation)
Br Cl
(C)
–
So, the correct option is (1) AlCl3

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Now, 30. Which one of the following conditions will

favour maximum formation of the product in
CH3
the reaction,
CH – CH3
 X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2 (1) Low temperature and high pressure
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(P)
(3) High temperature and high pressure
CH3 (4) High temperature and low pressure
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H Answer ( 1 )
O
+
H /H2O  X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) 
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
(R) (Q) direction where pressure decreases i.e.
forward direction.
28. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion? On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide
So, high pressure and low temperature
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Glycine favours maximum formation of product.
Answer ( 4 ) 31. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
  reaction
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–

(Zwitterion form) (1) Is halved

pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 (2) Is doubled
H2N – CH2 – COO– (3) Is tripled
29. For the redox reaction (4) Remains unchanged
Answer ( 2 )
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
S o l . Half life of zero order
The correct coefficients of the reactants for [A0 ]
the balanced equation are t 1/2 
2K
MnO4 C2 O24 H+ t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
(1) 16 5 2 concentration.
32. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
(2) 2 5 16 XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
(3) 2 16 5 formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(4) 5 16 2
(1) 200 kJ mol–1
Answer ( 2 ) (2) 100 kJ mol–1
Reduction (3) 800 kJ mol–1
+7 +3 +4
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+ (4) 400 kJ mol–1
Mn + CO2 + H2O
Answer ( 3 )
Oxidation
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)

n-factor of MnO4  5
1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
n-factor of C2 O24 2 2 2
 X
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2 Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
respectively
 The balanced equation is
X X
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O  H      X  200
2 4
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA
On solving, we get (1) b (2) a
(3) d (4) c
X X
   200 Answer ( 4 )
2 4
1
 X = 800 kJ/mole Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
5
33. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
1
equation corresponds to • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5
(1) Density of the gas molecules • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
(2) Volume of the gas molecules • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
10 1
(3) Electric field present between the gas = 
molecules 100 10
 1
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
molecules  10 
36. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
Answer ( 4 ) at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
 V 
2
 (1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies (2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
intermolecular forces of attraction.
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
34. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 (4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
Answer ( 1 )
3.59, which one of the following gases is most
easily liquefied? 2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
(1) NH3 (2) H2 233
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
(3) O2 (4) CO2
 Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s) 
Answer ( 1 ) s s

Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
intermolecular forces of attraction. = (1.04 × 10–5)2

• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be = 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
the liquefaction of gas. 37. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend?
35. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
alone
different concentrations :
(2) Size of the ion alone
M M (3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10 the ion
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
M M Answer ( 3 )
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge
M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH present (positive or negative) on colloidal
5 5
particles as well as on its size.
M M • Coagulating power of an electrolyte
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 depends on the magnitude of charge
present on effective ion of electrolyte.
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

8
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

38. The correct difference between first and o

Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
second order reactions is that
o o
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
depend on reactant concentrations; the
rate of a second-order reaction does = 1.595 – 1.5
depend on reactant concentrations
= 0.095 V = + ve
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a 40. In which case is number of molecules of
second-order reaction does depend on water maximum?
[A]0
(1) 18 mL of water
(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a (2) 0.18 g of water
second-order reaction cannot be
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
catalyzed
273 K
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does (4) 10–3 mol of water
depend on reactant concentrations; the Answer ( 1 )
rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g

Answer ( 2 ) 18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  , = NA
k
0.18
which is independent of initial (2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
concentration of reactant. 18
= 10–2 NA
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  , 0.00224
k[A0 ] (3) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
which depends on initial concentration of
reactant. Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
39. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values 41. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
as shown in the diagram below : character is
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
–
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Answer ( 1 )
Then the species undergoing S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
disproportionation is group metallic character of metals increases
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
(1) BrO3 (2) BrO4
Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
(3) Br2 (4) HBrO 42. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
Answer ( 4 ) an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
1 0 the simplest formula for this compound is
o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V (1) Mg2X3
2

(2) MgX2
1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V (3) Mg2X
BrO3 /HBrO
(4) Mg3X2
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Answer ( 4 ) 10  5
BO =  2.5
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration 2
1s2 2s2 2p3 CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
So, valency of X will be 3. = (2py)2,(2pz)2
Valency of Mg is 2.
10  4
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will BO = 3
2
be Mg3X2.
43. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to = (2py)2,(2pz)1
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming 9 4
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains BO =  2.5
2
constant with temperature) is
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
3 4 3 = (2py)2
(1) (2)
2 3 2
8 4
BO = 2
3 3 1 2
(3) (4)
4 2 2
Hence, option(2) should be the right answer.
Answer ( 3 ) 45. Which one is a wrong statement?
4r (1) Total orbital angular momentum of
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a  electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
3
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers
 ZM  (3) The electronic configuration of N atom is
 N a3 
d25C  A  BCC 1s2 2s2
1
2px
1
2py
1
2pz
 
d900C  ZM 
 N a3 
 A  FCC
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
3 Answer ( 3 )
2  2 2 r 3 3
  
4 4r   4 2  S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
 
 3  multiplicity, the correct electronic
configuration of N-atom is
44. Consider the following species :
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond
order? 1s2 2s2 2p3
(1) NO
OR
(2) CN–
(3) CN+
(4) CN
2 2 3
Answer ( 2 ) 1s 2s 2p

S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 ,

(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0  Option (3) violates Hund's Rule.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA
46. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and
progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
stimuli.
47. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) is an IUD.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Receptor modulation.
48. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
11
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule.
49. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
(2) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
(4) ectoderm and endoderm
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
endoderm in inner side.
50. In a growing population of a country,
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
than the reproductive individuals.
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the
post-reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an
increasing population.
51. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except
(1) Wildlife safari parks
(2) Sacred groves
(3) Botanical gardens
(4) Seed banks
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
 Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups.
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

52. Which one of the following population Answer ( 4 )

interactions is widely used in medical science S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
for the production of antibiotics? intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
be absorbed easily and used during
(3) Parasitism (4) Amensalism erythropoiesis.
Answer ( 4 ) Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
pernicious anaemia.
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
56. Match the items given in Column I with those
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
in Column II and select the correct option
harm other microbes (eg : given below :
Staphylococcus)
Column I Column II
 It has no effect on Penicillium or the a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
organism which produces it. b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
53. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain c. Albumin (iii) Defence
the drug “Smack”? mechanism
(1) Flowers (2) Latex a b c
(3) Roots (4) Leaves (1) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer ( 2 )
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is (4) (ii) (iii) (i)
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is Answer ( 4 )
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
Poppy plant. coagulation. These strands forms a network
54. Match the items given in Column I with those and the meshes of which are occupied by
in Column II and select the correct option blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
given below : Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
Column-I Column-II of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation responsible for BCOP.
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient 57. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
enrichment contraction because it
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
of active sites on actin for myosin.
a b c d
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
(1) ii i iii iv it.
(2) i iii iv ii (3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
(3) iii iv i ii filament.
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
(4) i ii iv iii the myosin cross bridges and the actin
Answer ( 3 ) filament.
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient Answer ( 1 )
enrichment S o l .  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
many folds in the sarcoplasm.
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation (troponin "C") which is masking the active
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation site on actin filament and displaces the
55. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly sub-unit of troponin.
help in erythropoiesis?  Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate
(1) Chief cells (2) Mucous cells
contraction by sliding the actin over
(3) Goblet cells (4) Parietal cells myosin.

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58. Which of the following is an occupational 62. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
respiratory disorder? characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis digestive system
(3) Botulism (4) Emphysema (1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Aves (4) Osteichthyes
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica Answer ( 3 )
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
breaking industries. chambers in their digestive system as crop
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation and Gizzard.
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
lung damage.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
crush food grain.
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a 63. Which of the following animals does not
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are undergo metamorphosis?
damaged due to which respiratory surface is (1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
decreased. (3) Moth (4) Starfish
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused Answer ( 1 )
by Clostridium botulinum.
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
59. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in larva into adult.
(1) using flagella for locomotion Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing to have indirect development.
excess water
In earthworm development is direct which
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey means no larval stage and hence no
(4) having two types of nuclei metamorphosis.
Answer ( 4 ) 64. Which one of these animals is not a
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in homeotherm?
having two types of nuclei. (1) Macropus (2) Chelone
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. (3) Camelus (4) Psittacula
macronucleus & micronucleus.
Answer ( 2 )
60. Which of the following features is used to
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
identify a male cockroach from a female
constant body temperature, irrespective of
cockroach?
surrounding temperature.
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
(2) Presence of caudal styles Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina
(4) Presence of anal cerci 65. The similarity of bone structure in the
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
Answer ( 2 )
of
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
(1) Homology
styles which are absent in females.
(2) Analogy
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
segment in male cockroach. (3) Convergent evolution
61. Which of the following organisms are known (4) Adaptive radiation
as chief producers in the oceans? Answer ( 1 )
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Euglenoids are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
Answer ( 2 ) different way as per their adaptation, hence
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean. example of homology.

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66. In which disease does mosquito transmitted Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
lymphatic vessels? autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
acetylcholine.
(3) Ringworm disease (4) Amoebiasis
70. Among the following sets of examples for
Answer ( 1 ) divergent evolution, select the incorrect
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, option :
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
Culex mosquito. (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
67. Conversion of milk to curd improves its (3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A Answer ( 4 )
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
Answer ( 3 ) structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
vertebrates which have developed along
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
different directions due to adaptation to
 It has enriched presence of vitamins different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
specially Vit-B12. and man are examples of analogous organs
68. Which of the following characteristics showing convergent evolution.
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in 71. Match the items given in Column I with those
humans? in Column II and select the correct option
a. Dominance given below :
b. Co-dominance Column I Column II
c. Multiple allele a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
uric acid in joints
d. Incomplete dominance
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
e. Polygenic inheritance salts within the
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c kidney
(3) b, d and e (4) a, c and e c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
Answer ( 2 ) glomeruli
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
nephritis glucose urine
relationship
a b c d
 IAIB - Codominance
(1) iii ii iv i
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(2) i ii iii iv
forms of a gene
(3) ii iii i iv
(multiple allelism)
(4) iv i ii iii
69. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
Answer ( 4 )
disease?
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
(1) Psoriasis urine. This is observed when blood glucose
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
(3) Alzheimer's disease is called renal threshold value for glucose.
(4) Vitiligo Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
in the joint.
Answer ( 3 )
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
disorder in which antibodies are produced kidney.
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also condition of glomerulus characterised by
characterised as autoimmune disorder. proteinuria and haematuria.

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72. Match the items given in Column I with those 74. Which of the following terms describe human
in Column II and select the correct option dentition?
given below: (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
Column I Column II (2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(Function) (Part of Excretory (3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
system)
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
Answer ( 2 )
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
S o l . In humans, dentition is
of urine
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
urine  Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
urine corpuscle
teeth.
v. Proximal  Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
convoluted tubule of different types of teeth namely incisors,
a b c d canine, premolars and molars.

(1) iv v ii iii 75. Many ribosomes may associate with a single

mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(2) iv i ii iii simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(3) v iv i ii termed as
(4) v iv i iii (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Plastidome (4) Nucleosome
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine Answer ( 1 )
particles having molecular weight less than S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle. ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
Concentration of urine refers to water formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result ergasomes.
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by 76. Which of these statements is incorrect?
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder mitochondrial matrix
through ureter.
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of (3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
urine. supplied with NAD that can pick up
73. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of hydrogen atoms
(1) Proteins and lipids (4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
(2) DNA and RNA outer mitochondrial membrane

(3) Nucleic acids and SER Answer ( 4 )

(4) Free ribosomes and RER S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
mitochondrial membrane.
Answer ( 4 )
77. Which of the following events does not occur
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
even extend into the dendrite but absent in
(1) Protein folding
axon and rest of the neuron.
(2) Protein glycosylation
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for (3) Cleavage of signal peptide
protein synthesis. (4) Phospholipid synthesis

15
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Answer ( 4 ) a b c
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in (1) iii ii i
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are (2) i iii ii
involved in lipid synthesis.
(3) ii iii i
78. Select the incorrect match :
(4) iii i ii
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
Answer ( 3 )
chromosomes
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes developing, hence, called follicular phase.
(3) Submetacentric – L-shaped
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
chromosomes chromosomes
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
(4) Polytene – Oocytes of by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
chromosomes amphibians the endometrium maintained by
Answer ( 4 ) progesterone.
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary Menstruation occurs due to decline in
glands of insects of order Diptera. progesterone level and involves breakdown of
79. All of the following are part of an operon overgrown endometrial lining.
except 82. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(1) an operator of evolution is
(2) structural genes (1) Multiple step mutations
(3) an enhancer (2) Saltation
(4) a promoter (3) Phenotypic variations
Answer ( 3 ) (4) Minor mutations
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in Answer ( 2 )
eukaryotes. S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
80. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be saltation.
inherited by 83. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(1) Only daughters strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(2) Only sons
mRNA?
(3) Only grandchildren
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(4) Both sons and daughters
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT
Answer ( 4 )
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU
Sol. • Woman is a carrier
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA
• Both son & daughter inherit
Answer ( 1 )
X–chromosome
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
• Although only son be the diseased
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
81. Match the items given in Column I with those ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
in Column II and select the correct option
given below : 84. Which of the following is an amino acid
derived hormone?
Column I Column II
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
(3) Estradiol (4) Estriol
endometrial
Answer ( 1 )
lining
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase catecholamine.
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

85. Which of the following structures or regions is 88. Which of the following options correctly
incorrectly paired with its functions? represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration emphysema, respectively?
and cardiovascular (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
reflexes. respiratory surface
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre (2) Increased number of bronchioles;
tracts that Increased respiratory surface
interconnect (3) Increased respiratory surface;
different regions of Inflammation of bronchioles
brain; controls (4) Decreased respiratory surface;
movement. Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Hypothalamus : production of Answer ( 1 )
releasing hormones S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
and regulation of wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
temperature, bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
hunger and thirst. in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased.
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and 89. Match the items given in Column I with those
right cerebral in Column II and select the correct option
hemispheres. given below :
Column I Column II
Answer ( 2 )
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls and left ventricle
all emotions in our body but not movements.
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
86. Which of the following hormones can play a ventricle and
significant role in osteoporosis? pulmonary artery
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone atrium and right
ventricle
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
a b c
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (1) iii i ii
Answer ( 3 ) (2) i iii ii
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast (3) i ii iii
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female (4) ii i iii
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of Answer ( 1 )
estrogen. Parathormone promotes S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. between right atrium and right ventricle.
Excessive activity of parathormone causes Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
87. The transparent lens in the human eye is held are present at the openings of aortic and
in its place by pulmonary aorta.
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body 90. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
given below:
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
Column I Column II
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
body
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
Answer ( 1 ) volume
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary volume
body. d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

a b c d 94. Sweet potato is a modified

(1) iii ii i iv (1) Stem
(2) iii i iv ii (2) Adventitious root
(3) i iv ii iii (3) Tap root
(4) iv iii ii i (4) Rhizome
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
expired during normal respiration. It is for storage of food
approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem
volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve from the redicle
volume is additional volume of air a person 95. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
can be expired by a forceful expiration. This are produced by
averages 1000 – 1100 mL. (1) Apical meristems
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in (2) Vascular cambium
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
averages 1100 – 1200 mL. (3) Phellogen

91. Casparian strips occur in (4) Axillary meristems

(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle Answer ( 2 )

(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
Answer ( 4 ) • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
and secondary phloem towards outsides.
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
and inner tangential wall. • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
produced than secondary phloem.
• It is suberin rich.
92. Plants having little or no secondary growth 96. Which of the following statements is correct?
are (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
(1) Grasses gymnosperms
(2) Deciduous angiosperms (2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous
(3) Conifers
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(4) Cycads
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Answer ( 1 )
Cycas and Cedrus
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
do not have secondary growth. Answer ( 1 )

Palm like monocots
secondary growth.
93. Pneumatophores occur in
(1) Halophytes
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Carnivorous plants
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
Answer ( 1 )
have anomalous Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
97. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans

Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
pneumatophores. cell in all kingdoms except Monera
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots Answer ( 3 )
having lenticels called pneumathodes to S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
uptake O2. sarcodines (Amoeboid)

18
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

98. Match the items given in Column I with those 100. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
in Column II and select the correct option are produced exogenously in
given below: (1) Neurospora
Column I Column II (2) Alternaria
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a (3) Agaricus
collection of preserved
(4) Saccharomyces
plants and animals
Answer ( 3 )
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates
methodically all the Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
species found in an area basidiospores or meiospores are
with brief description produced exogenously.
aiding identification  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
produces ascospores as meiospores but
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
endogenously inside the ascus.)
and pressed plant
specimens mounted on  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
sheets are kept does not produce sexual spores.
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a  Saccharomyces (Unicellular
list of characters and ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
their alternates which endogenously.
are helpful in 101. Which one is wrongly matched?
identification of various (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
taxa.
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
a b c d
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer ( 1 )
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) where asexual spores and gametes are
Answer ( 4 ) non-motile or non-flagellated.
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
specimen matched
• Key – Identification of various
taxa 102. Which of the following elements is responsible
• Museum – Plant and animal for maintaining turgor in cells?
specimen are preserved (1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of (3) Potassium (4) Calcium
species Answer ( 3 )
99. Winged pollen grains are present in S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
(1) Mustard cells.
(2) Cycas 103. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
(3) Mango by
(4) Pinus (1) Green sulphur bacteria
Answer ( 4 ) (2) Nostoc
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It (3) Cycas
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to (4) Chara
form the wings of pollen. It is the Answer ( 1 )
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
not winged shaped. O2.

19
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

104. Double fertilization is Answer ( 1 * )

(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
tube with two different eggs ions. (According to NCERT)
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
nuclei Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
109. The stage during which separation of the
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
Answer ( 4 ) (3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon Answer ( 2 )
that occur in angiosperms only. S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
105. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth, 110. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
where none of the two can complete its life (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cycle without the other? cells
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca (2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3) It takes part in spindle formation
(3) Banana (4) Viola
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Answer ( 2 )
synthesis
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a Answer ( 4 )
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
106. Pollen grains can be stored for several years and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 111. The Golgi complex participates in
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C (1) Fatty acid breakdown
(3) –196°C (4) –160°C (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
Answer ( 3 ) (3) Respiration in bacteria
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years (4) Activation of amino acid
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C Answer ( 2 )
(Cryopreservation) S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
107. What is the role of NAD + in cellular secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
respiration? 112. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis?
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
(1) ATP (2) NADH
(2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(3) NADPH (4) Oxygen
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. Answer ( 2 )
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
anaerobic respiration. reaction, while NADH is a product of
Answer ( 2 ) respiration process.
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron 113. Stomatal movement is not affected by
carrier. (1) Temperature
108. In which of the following forms is iron (2) Light
absorbed by plants? (3) O2 concentration
(1) Ferric (4) CO2 concentration
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Ferrous
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
(3) Free element
affect opening and closing of stomata while
(4) Both ferric and ferrous they are not affected by O2 concentration.
20
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

114. Which among the following is not a 118. The experimental proof for semiconservative
prokaryote? replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium (1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
(3) Nostoc (4) Oscillatoria (3) Plant (4) Virus
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
(unicellular fungi)
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Mycobacterium – a bacterium Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
119. Offsets are produced by
115. The two functional groups characteristic of
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions
sugars are
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl (3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis
(2) Carbonyl and methyl Answer ( 2 )
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl by mitosis.
Answer ( 4 ) – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote cells.
carbohydrate. – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, embryo from ovum or egg without
ketone or their derivatives, which means they fertilisation.
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups. – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
116. Stomata in grass leaf are fertilisation, (generally seedless)
(1) Dumb-bell shaped 120. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(2) Kidney shaped life-time?
(3) Rectangular (1) Bamboo species
(4) Barrel shaped (2) Jackfruit
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Mango
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell (4) Papaya
shaped stomata in their leaves.
Answer ( 1 )
117. Select the correct match
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
generally only once in its life-time after 50-
pneumoniae
100 years.
(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
Martha Chase i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum their life-time.
and F. Stahl 121. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon preserving pollen as fossils?
Jacques Monod (1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Oil content (4) Sporopollenin
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
Answer ( 4 )
model of gene regulation known as operon
model/lac operon. S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
technique. helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – pollen grain known as intine made up
Proved DNA as genetic material not cellulose & pectin.
protein Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.

21

122. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
matched?
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
determination
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
pleiotropic gene.
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
matched.
123. Select the correct statement
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
mode of replication.
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
and Laderberg.
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
124. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(I) Denaturation
(II) Primer annealing
(III) Extension of primer
125. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing
genetically modified organisms for public use
is
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC)
22
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee) which will make decisions
regarding the validity of GM research and
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT).
126. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes?
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid
(3)  phage (4) pBR 322
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte.
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
a functional gene is introduced by using a
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
127. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
its people is called
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy
(3) Biodegradation (4) Bioexploitation
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
of bioresources by multinational companies
and other organisation without proper
authorisation from the countries and people
concerned with compensatory payment
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
128. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to
(1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Basmati
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
of Basmati are grown in India.
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
novelty.
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
of wheat.
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

129. Select the correct match 133. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid (1) 5th June
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross (2) 21st April
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction (3) 16th September
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) 22nd April
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
acid. S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
September.
130. Niche is
5th June - World Environment Day
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's
environment 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
(2) the physical space where an organism 22nd April - National Earth Day
lives 134. What type of ecological pyramid would be
(3) the range of temperature that the obtained with the following data?
organism needs to live
Secondary consumer : 120 g
(4) the functional role played by the organism
Primary consumer : 60 g
where it lives
Answer ( 4 ) Primary producer : 10 g

S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It (1) Inverted pyramid of biomass

refers the functional role played by the (2) Pyramid of energy
organism where it lives.
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
131. Which of the following is a secondary
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
pollutant?
(1) CO Answer ( 1 )

(2) CO2 Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted

pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(3) SO2
aquatic ecosystem.
(4) O3
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
Answer ( 4 )
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
are not possible, as the data depicts
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
primary producer is less than primary
CO – Quantitative pollutant consumer and this is less than secondary
CO2 – Primary pollutant consumers.
SO2 – Primary pollutant 135. In stratosphere, which of the following
132. Natality refers to elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(1) Death rate
(2) Birth rate (1) Carbon

(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (2) Cl

(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat (3) Fe
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Oxygen
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. Answer ( 2 )
• Death rate – Mortality S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
• Number of individual – Immigration chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
entering a habitat is method converting into oxygen
• Number of individual – Emigration Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
leaving the habital ozone layer depletion
23
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

136. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 2

V 
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth S o l . Pav   RMS  R
 Z 
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to 2
 1 
Z  R2   L   56 
C 
slide down by flowing a current through it

when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
acting on it in the vertical direction. The 2
 
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary 10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
is
  
 2 56 

(1) 7.14 A (2) 5.98 A 139. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
(3) 14.76 A (4) 11.32 A sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
Answer ( 4 ) applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
S o l . For equilibrium,
° (1) 40  (2) 25 
B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s (3) 250  (4) 500 
co
llB Answer ( 3 )
mg °
I tan30
30 30° llB S o l . Current sensitivity
lB n
si NBA
g IS 
0.5  9.8 m 30° C
  11.32 A
0.25  3 Voltage sensitivity
137. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically NBA
between the poles of an electromagnet. When VS 
CRG
the current in the electromagnet is switched
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out So, resistance of galvanometer
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the IS 51 5000
RG     250 
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The VS 20  103 20
work required to do this comes from
140. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
(1) The current source from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance
(2) The magnetic field
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the
(3) The lattice structure of the material of the displacement of the image will be
rod
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror
(4) The induced electric field due to the (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
changing magnetic field
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror
Answer ( 1 )
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
Answer ( 2 )
into potential energy of the rod.
Sol.
138. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a f = 15 cm
resistor 50  are connected in series across
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power O 40 cm
loss in the circuit is
(1) 0.79 W
(2) 0.43 W
1 1 1
 
(3) 2.74 W f v1 u
(4) 1.13 W 1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40
Answer ( 1 )

24
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

1 1 1 S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be

   normally incident on silvered face.
v1 –15 40
v1 = –24 cm
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
30°
mirror.
M 60°
Now,
i 30°
u2 = –20

1 1 1
 
f v2 u2  2

1 1 1
 –
–15 v2 20 Applying Snell's law at M,
1 1 1
 – sin i 2
v2 20 15 
sin30 1
v2 = –60 cm
So, image shifts away from mirror by 1
 sin i  2 
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm. 2
141. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
 1
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating 143. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
magnetic field of the em wave will be along certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
(1) –z direction (2) +z direction
inductance
(3) –y direction (4) –x direction
(1) 0.138 H
Answer ( 2 )
(2) 138.88 H
  
Sol. E  B  V (3) 1.389 H

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej) (4) 13.89 H

 Answer ( 4 )
So, B  Bkˆ
S o l . Energy stored in inductor
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
142. The refractive index of the material of a 1 2
U Ll
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. 2
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
1
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver 25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2
coating. A beam of monochromatic light 2
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the 25  2  106  10–3
L
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on 3600
the prism is
(1) 60° (2) 45° 500

36
(3) 30° (4) Zero
Answer ( 2 ) = 13.89 H

25
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

144. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input Answer ( 4 )

voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
values of IB, IC and  are given by
will increase, so overall resistance of diode
20 V will change.

RC 4 k Due to which forward biasing and reversed

biasing both are changed.
C
RB 146. In the combination of the following gates the
Vi
500 k B output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
E and B as

A
B
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 Y
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 (1) A  B
Answer ( 4 )
(2) A  B  A  B
S o l . VBE = 0
(3) A  B  A  B
VCE = 0
Vb = 0 (4) A  B
20 V Answer ( 2 )

IC RC = 4 k A
Sol. A AB
RB B
Vi Vb B Y
Ib 500 k
A

AB
B

(20  0) Y  (A  B  A  B)
IC 
4  103 147. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA plane surface of a material of refractive index
Vi = VBE + IBRB ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
Vi = 0 + IBRB perpendicular to each other. Which of the
20 = IB × 500 × 103 following options is correct for this situation?
20 (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
IB   40 A
500  103 electric vector parallel to the plane of
incidence
IC 25  103
   125 (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
Ib 40  106
electric vector perpendicular to the plane
145. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature of incidence
due to heating
 1
(1) Affects only reverse resistance (3) i  sin1  

(2) Affects only forward resistance
 1
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction (4) i  tan1  

(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction Answer ( 2 )

26
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays

f0
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large.

D
i Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22

So, objective should have large focal length

 (f0) and large diameter D.
150. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
atom, is
148. In Young's double slit experiment the
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
distance D between the screen and slits is
Answer ( 2 )
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe S o l . KE = –(total energy)
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
separation between the slits needs to be
changed to 151. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity

(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.9 mm V  V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field
(3) 2.1 mm (4) 1.7 mm

Answer ( 2 ) E  –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-

S o l . Angular width  Broglie wavelength at time t is
d
0  eE0 
(1) (2) 0  1  t
  eE0   mV0 
0.20  …(i) 1 t
2 mm  mV 0 
(3) 0t (4) 0

0.21  …(ii) Answer ( 1 )
d
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm 0 
h
...(i)
mV0
 d = 1.9 mm
E0
149. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high F V0
angular resolution, when it has an objective
lens of Acceleration of electron
(1) Small focal length and large diameter eE0
a
(2) Large focal length and small diameter m
(3) Large focal length and large diameter Velocity after time ‘t’
(4) Small focal length and small diameter  eE0 
V   V0  t
Answer ( 3 )  m 

27
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

h h 1
So,    h(50 )  h0  mv22
mV  eE  2
m  V0  0 t
 m  1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
h 0 2
  …(ii)
 eE0   eE0  Divide (i) by (ii),
mV0 1  t 1  t
 mV0   mV0 
1 v12
Divide (ii) by (i), 
4 v22
0
 v1 1
 eE0  
1  t v2 2
 mV0 
154. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
152. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 a glass tube. The length of the air column in
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
disintegration of 450 nuclei is resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
(1) 20 (2) 10 of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
(3) 30 (4) 15
air at 27ºC is
Answer ( 1 )
(1) 330 m/s
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
(2) 339 m/s
n
N  1 (3) 350 m/s

N0  2 
(4) 300 m/s
t
150  1  t 1/2 Answer ( 2 )

600  2  S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]

2
t = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
 1  1  t 1/2
2  2 = 339.2 ms–1
   
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 = 339 m/s

= 20 minute 155. The electrostatic force between the metal

plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
153. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is C having a charge Q and area A, is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
(1) Independent of the distance between the
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
plates
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the (2) Linearly proportional to the distance
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from between the plates
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is (3) Proportional to the square root of the
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 distance between the plates
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 (4) Inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 )
1 2
S o l . E  W0  mv S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
2
1 Q2
h(20 )  h0  mv12 Fplate 
2 2A0
1 F is Independent of the distance between
h 0  mv12 …(i)
2 plates.

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

156. An electron falls from rest through a vertical S o l . We know,

distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. The direction of max T  constant (Wien's law)
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
fall from rest in it through the same vertical
3 0
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in  0 T  T
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is 4

(1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater 4

 T  T
3
(3) 10 times greater (4) Equal
4 4
Answer ( 1 ) P2  T   4 256
So,     
P1  T  3 81
1 eE 2
Sol. h  t 159. Two wires are made of the same material and
2 m
have the same volume. The first wire has
2hm
 t cross-sectional area A and the second wire
eE has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
proton.
the socond wire by the same amount?
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
(1) 9 F
smaller time.
(2) 6 F
157. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely (3) 4 F
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. (4) F
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
Answer ( 1 )
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
position. The time period of oscillation is S o l . Wire 1 :
(1) 2 s (2)  s F
A, 3l
(3) 2 s (4) 1 s
Wire 2 :
Answer ( 2 )
F
S o l . |a| = 2y 3A, l
 20 = 2(5) For wire 1,
  = 2 rad/s
 F 
2 2 l    3l …(i)
T  s  AY 
 2
158. The power radiated by a black body is P and For wire 2,
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
F l
If the temperature of the black body is now Y
changed so that it radiates maximum energy 3A l
3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it  F 
4  l   l …(ii)
becomes nP. The value of n is  3AY 

3 4 From equation (i) & (ii),

(1) (2)
4 3
 F   F 
l    3l   3AY  l
256 81  AY   
(3) (4)
81 256
Answer ( 3 )  F  9F

29
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

160. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a For t = 0 to t = 1 s,

viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
1
due to viscous force. The rate of production of S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
velocity, is proportional to
1
(1) r3 (2) r2 S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
(3) r5 (4) r4 For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
Answer ( 3 ) 1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
2 2
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
VT  r 2
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
 Power  r 5 3
161. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and Total distance travelled = 9 m
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 9
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at Average speed   3 ms 1
3
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
163. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
sample, is
in the figure. The wedge is given an
(1) 104.3 J (2) 208.7 J acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and  for the block to
(3) 42.2 J (4) 84.5 J
remain stationary on the wedge is
Answer ( 2 )
A
S o l . Q = U + W m

 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)

a
 U = 208.7 J

162. A toy car with charge q moves on a C B
frictionless horizontal plane surface under  g g
the influence of a uniform electric field E . (1) a  (2) a 
 cosec  sin 
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At (3) a = g cos  (4) a = g tan 
that instant the direction of the field is Answer ( 4 )
reversed. The car continues to move for two Sol. N cos
more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed N
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
respectively 
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s ma N sin
(pseudo) 
(3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
Answer ( 2 )
mg a

Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2 In non-inertial frame,
A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0 N sin  = ma ...(i)
C –a
t=3 N cos  = mg ...(ii)
–1
v = –6 ms
a
tan  
60 g
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1 a = g tan 

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

164. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at Answer ( 2 )
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
by momentum,
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ (2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ mv  4m  0  4mv  0
(3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ (4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ v
v 
Answer ( 4 ) 4

Sol. Y v
Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
F
1
r  r0 e  0.25
A 4
P
167. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
r0 frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
r
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
O X
   
  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
  ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k) h
B

 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
A
ˆi ˆj kˆ
 3
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ (1) D (2) D
2
4 5 6
7 5
165. A student measured the diameter of a small (3) D (4) D
5 4
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and Answer ( 4 )
zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If Sol.
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is h
B
(1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm
(3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.529 cm vL
A
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Diameter of the ball As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
energy will remain constant
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004) T.M.EI =T.M.EF
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
1
= 0.529 cm 0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
166. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The vL2
h
lighter block comes to rest after collision. 2g
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
(e) will be
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.25 5gR 5 5
h  R D
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4 2g 2 4

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

168. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 170. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
have the same mass M and radius R. They all sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
spin with the same angular speed  about Which of the following physical quantities
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of would remain constant for the sphere?
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would (1) Angular velocity
satisfy the relation
(2) Moment of inertia
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WB > WC
(3) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) WB > WA > WC (4) WA > WC > WB (4) Angular momentum
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . ex = 0
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
dL
W = KE So, 0
dt
i.e. L = constant
1 2
W  I So angular momentum remains constant.
2
171. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
W  I for same  elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
2 1 the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
5 2
figure. Then

2 1
= : :1 B
5 2
A C
= 4 : 5 : 10 S

 WC > WB > WA

169. Which one of the following statements is (1) KA < KB < KC (2) KA > KB > KC
incorrect? (3) KB < KA < KC (4) KB > KA > KC

(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding Answer ( 2 )

friction. Sol. B
VC
perihelion
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
A C
proportional to normal reaction. S
aphelion
VA
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative
motion. Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
So, VA > VB > VC
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length. So, KA > KB > KC
172. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
Answer ( 4 )
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
dimension. energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
f = sN (1) 7 : 10 (2) 5 : 7
(3) 10 : 7 (4) 2 : 5
f
 s 
N Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

1 175. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

S o l . Kt  mv 2
2 with its temperature (T), as shown in the
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
2 the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   change from state A to state B, is
2 2 2 25  r 

7
 mv2
10

Kt 5
So, 
Kt  Kr 7
2 2
173. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller (1) (2)
5 3
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the 1 2
following is not correct? (3) (4)
3 7
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Walking on the ground would become S o l . Given process is isobaric
more difficult
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the dQ  n Cp dT
Earth would decrease
5 
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change dQ  n  R  dT
2 
Answer ( 4 )
dW  P dV = n RdT
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
ten times, then G = 10 G
dW nRdT 2
So, acceleration due to gravity increases. Required ratio   
dQ 5  5
n  R  dT
i.e. (4) is wrong option. 2 

174. At what temperature will the rms speed of 176. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
(Given :
pipe is
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
(1) 13.2 cm
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(2) 8 cm
(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) 12.5 cm
(3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K (4) 16 cm
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
3v

3kB T 4l
So,  11200 m/s
mO2
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
On solving,
v

T = 8.360 × 10 K 4 2l 

33
 NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-FF) CHLAA

Given, 179. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,

are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
3v v and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn

4l 2l  is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in
parallel to the same battery. Then the current
4l 2l
 l   drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
32 3 'n' is
2  20 (1) 10 (2) 11
  13.33 cm
3 (3) 20 (4) 9
177. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working Answer ( 1 )
between the freezing point and boiling point of E
Sol. I  ...(i)
water, is nR  R
E
(1) 26.8% 10 I  ...(ii)
R
R
(2) 20% n
Dividing (ii) by (i),
(3) 6.25%
(n  1)R
(4) 12.5% 10 
1 
 n  1 R
Answer ( 1 )  
After solving the equation, n = 10
 T  180. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1  2  identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
 T1 
each) which are connected in series. The
T2 : Sink temperature terminals of the battery are short-circuited
and the current I is measured. Which of the
T1 : Source temperature graphs shows the correct relationship
between I and n?
 T 
%   1  2   100
 T1 
I I

 273  (1) (2)

  1   100
 373 
O O
n n
 100 
   100  26.8%
 373  I I
178. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
(3) (4)
marked with rings of different colours for its
identification. The colour code sequence will O O
n n
be
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver n 
Sol. I  
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver nr r
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold  I
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
O
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver n
‰ ‰ ‰
34