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MOST PROBABLE QUESTIONS

Made by Digraj Singh Rajput

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER


SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)
CLASS X – SESSION 2023-24

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80


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General Instructions :

1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words

5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History
(2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for
competency-based questions.

All the best!!


SECTION-A
MCQs 1 X 20 = 20

1. Which of the following are regarded as the most valuable forest?


a) Open forest
b) Unclassed forest
c) Protected forest
d) Reserved forest

2. Which soil is known as regur soil?


a) Red soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Black soil
d) Sandy soil

3. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:

Which of the following aspects best represents the image?


a) The fallen Marianne
b) The fallen Mother India
c) The fallen Mother Albania
d) The fallen Germania

4. Following are the features of communal politics. Identify the incorrect one.
a) when state favors a particular religion
c) when the demand for only one religion is accepted
b) It occurs when religion is not expressed in politics
d) one religion is presented superior to other

5. The exchange of goods for goods is known as:


a) E-banking
b) Banking
c) Barter exchange
d) Promissory bills
6. Find the odd one out from the following options:
i. Opening a cold storage
ii. Setting food processing unit
iii. Starting honey collection centers
iv. Opening college and university
a) Option (iv)
b) Option (i)
c) Option (iii)
d) Option (ii)

7. Banks in India hold about 15% of deposits as cash as the provision:


a) To maintain ATM'S
b) To distribute the money as charity
c) To pay depositors who come to withdraw their money
d) To pay the staff's salaries

8. Match the following:


Column A Column B
(a) Iron ore exporting port . (i) Mica

(b) The largest bauxite producing state. (ii) Marmagao


(c) The most indispensable minerals used (iii) Limestone
in the electric and electronic industries.

(d) A mineral that is found in sedimentary (iv) Odisha


rocks of most geological formation.

Codes :
a) (a) - (i), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii). (d) - (i)
c) (a) - (i),. (b) - (iv). (c) - (ii). (d) - (iii)
d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv). (c) - (i). (d) - (iii)

9. Bird Heilgers & Co. Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co, are the biggest
a) Europe Managers and Agents
b) African Management Companies
c) European Managing Agencies
d) Eastern Indian Companies
10. Match the following:
Column A Column B
(a) An Organization that monitors the i. Self Help Group
banks in maintaining a cash balance
(b) An Organization that works as ii. Cheque
building blocks for the rural boor
(c) Means of payment iii. Double coincidence of vants
(d) An essential feature in a barter system iv. RBI

a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)


b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii). (d) - (i)
c) (a) - (i),. (b) - (iv). (c) - (ii). (d) - (iii)
d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv). (c) - (ii). (d) - (i)

11. It led to a decline in the child sex ratio of the country.


a) Poor economic background
b) Threat from the society
c) Sex-selective abortion
d) Family burden

12. Assertion (A): Power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
Reason (R): Imposing the will of the majority community over others is attractive.
Option
a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.

13. Given chart gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Read the given data and find out which
region can use the reserves for the maximum number of years.
Region/Country Reserve (2017) (Thousand 'Number of years Reserves
Million Barrels) will last

Middle East 808 70

United States of America 50 10.5

World 1697 50.2


a) Middle East
b) United States of America
c) World
d) None of these

14. A group of friends was discussing the facets of the administrative system and its functions in a
democratic country when one of them began to talk about an organ of the government which plays
the role of an umpire in a nation. He gave his friends some clues to guess its functions.
Which of the following clues can help this group of friends guess the name of this institution?
Clues:
I. It resolves disputes between the states and state and centre.
II. It interprets the constitution of the country.
III. It keeps a check on International governments.
IV. It represents India in the International Court of Justice.
V. It metes out justice to the citizens of the country against the state and other citizens.

a) Clue I and V
b) Clue I, II and V
c) Clue I and II
d) Clue III and IV

15. Read the given data and find out which states are NOT equal contributors to the production of
limestone.
Production of Limestone in 2016-17 Percentage

Andhra Pradesh 11
Chhattisgarh 10
Gujarat 8
Karnataka 10
Madhya Pradesh 11
Rajasthan 21
Telangana 7
Tamil Nadu 8

a) Tamil Nadu and Gujarat


b) Telangana and Rajasthan
c) Karnataka and Chhattisgarh
d) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
16. Who among the following is the writer of 'Gulamgiri' ?
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) E.V. Periyar
c) Jyotiba Phule
d) Ram Mohan Roy

17. ____________ is an important element in BJP's conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
a) Political nationalism
b) Religious secularism
c) Cultural nationalism
d) Cultural secularism

18. Read the conversation between a farmer, a shopkeeper, and a shoemaker:


Shoemaker to a farmer: I'LL GIVE YOU SHOES FOR YOUR WHEAT.
Farmer to a shoemaker: I DON'T NEED SHOES. I NEED CLOTHES.
Shopkeeper: I WANT SHOES. BUT I DON'T HAVE WHEAT.
What kind of problem is faced by a farmer, a shopkeeper, and a shoemaker?
a) Lack of terms of credit
b) Lack of medium of exchange
c) Lack of double coincidence of wants
d) Lack of collateral security

19. Choose the correct statement with respect to Gandhi's urge to join the Khilafat
Movement by the Congress.
1. He saw this as an opportunity to bring the Muslims under a unified national movement.
2. He knew that only Muslims can launch a broad based movement.
3. He knew that only Hindus can launch a broad-based movement.

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 1 only

20. Which party is inspired from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker, and Babasaheb Ambedkar?
a) Bhartiya Janta Party
b) Communist Party of India - Marxist
c) Bahujan Samaj party
d) Nationalist Congress Party
SECTION-B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 2X4=8

21. Highlight the concept of Joint Forest Management.


22. Observe the given picture and highlight the primary objective of the organization, which is
associated with this logo.

23. Why is the issue of sustainability important for development?


24. Pooja Borrowed from a friend Explain two features of each a sum of Rs 10,00,000 while Sameer
borrowed the same amount from the bank. Explain two features of their loans.

SECTION-C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3 X 5 = 15

25. What steps have been adopted under the Indian Wildlife Act to protect endangered species of
animals?
26.Justify the reasons behind the rise of tertiary sector in the India economy.
OR
How are the three sectors of economy interdependent? Explain with suitable examples.

27. Examine any four reasons for the strained relationship between the Sinhala and the Tamil
communities.
28. State any three differences between the local government before and after the constitutional
Amendment in 1992.
29. "Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens". Justify
the statement.

SECTION-D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 5 X 4 = 20

30. Describe the conditions which lead to technological and institutional reforms in India.
OR
Which are the two major Wheat producing states of North India? Describe geographical conditions
required for the growth of cotton.
31. How would you justify that the Act of Union was a major setback to the Scottish Identity?
OR
Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated
revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient". Analyse the
statement with arguments.

32. Democracy is best suited to produce better results. Examine the statement.
OR
What are the demerits of democracy?

33.A farmer has borrowed money from her brother at a high rate of interest. As she could not pay
back the money, she was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount at a much
higher rate. State the consequences she may face in this situation.
OR
"The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India and holds significant importance in the
country's economic and financial landscape." It originally served as a shareholder's bank until 1949
when it was nationalized. The RBI had a key role in the development of the nation's economy
beyond just monetary and fiscal policy. Its development policies extended to other sectors, such as
agriculture. It also helped set up a number of key national institutions.
According to the source, what is the role of RBI in India? Substantiate your answer.

SECTION-E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS 4 X 3 = 12

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as 'State
parties'. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in
their ideology or outlook. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded
only in some states.. ...over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This
made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are
compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has
got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has
contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.

(34.1) What is a State party? Name four state parties popular in India. 2
(34.2) What has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country? 2
35. Read the given source and answer the following questions:
Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gasses, such as Sulphur
dioxide and Carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles
like dust, sprays mist and smoke. Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in - big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects. Are you aware of the
Bhopal Gas tragedy that occurred? Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants,
buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.

(i) What is meant by the term 'Air borne'? 1


(ii) What are the negative impacts of air pollution ? 1
(iii) Mention two ways to reduce air pollution? 2

36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:


For centuries, silk and spices from China flowed into Europe through the silk route. in the eleventh
century, Chinese paper reached Europe via the same route. Paper made possible the production of
manuscripts, carefully written by scribes. Then, in 1295, Marco Polo, a great explorer, returned to
Italy after many years of exploration in China.
China already had the technology of woodblock printing. Marco Polo brought this knowledge back
with him. Now Italians began producing books with woodblocks, and soon the technology spread to
other parts of Europe. Luxury editions were still handwritten on very expensive vellum, meant for
aristocratic circles and rich monastic libraries which scoffed at printed books as cheap vulgarities.
Merchants and students in the university towns bought the cheaper printed copies.
The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for
books. Copying was an expensive, laborious and time-consuming business. Manuscripts were
fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be carried
around or read easily. Their circulation, therefore, remained limited. With the growing demand for
books, woodblock printing gradually became more and more popular.
I. Despite the introduction of print-culture, why were luxurious editions still handwritten? 1
II. Describe any two drawbacks of handwritten manuscripts in comparison to printed material. 1
III. What was Marco Polo's contribution to print culture? 2
SECTION-F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1927
B. The place associated with the Movement of Indigo Planters.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
Symbols. (any three)
I. Kandla - Major Sea. Port
II. Gandhinagar - Software Technology Park
III. Talcher - Coal Field
IV. Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
V. Raja Sansi - International Airport.

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