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Sample Question Paper - Set 1 DSR
Sample Question Paper - Set 1 DSR
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and
are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History
(2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.
10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for
competency-based questions.
4. Following are the features of communal politics. Identify the incorrect one.
a) when state favors a particular religion
c) when the demand for only one religion is accepted
b) It occurs when religion is not expressed in politics
d) one religion is presented superior to other
Codes :
a) (a) - (i), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii). (d) - (i)
c) (a) - (i),. (b) - (iv). (c) - (ii). (d) - (iii)
d) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv). (c) - (i). (d) - (iii)
9. Bird Heilgers & Co. Andrew Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co, are the biggest
a) Europe Managers and Agents
b) African Management Companies
c) European Managing Agencies
d) Eastern Indian Companies
10. Match the following:
Column A Column B
(a) An Organization that monitors the i. Self Help Group
banks in maintaining a cash balance
(b) An Organization that works as ii. Cheque
building blocks for the rural boor
(c) Means of payment iii. Double coincidence of vants
(d) An essential feature in a barter system iv. RBI
12. Assertion (A): Power-sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
Reason (R): Imposing the will of the majority community over others is attractive.
Option
a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
13. Given chart gives an estimate of reserves of crude oil. Read the given data and find out which
region can use the reserves for the maximum number of years.
Region/Country Reserve (2017) (Thousand 'Number of years Reserves
Million Barrels) will last
14. A group of friends was discussing the facets of the administrative system and its functions in a
democratic country when one of them began to talk about an organ of the government which plays
the role of an umpire in a nation. He gave his friends some clues to guess its functions.
Which of the following clues can help this group of friends guess the name of this institution?
Clues:
I. It resolves disputes between the states and state and centre.
II. It interprets the constitution of the country.
III. It keeps a check on International governments.
IV. It represents India in the International Court of Justice.
V. It metes out justice to the citizens of the country against the state and other citizens.
a) Clue I and V
b) Clue I, II and V
c) Clue I and II
d) Clue III and IV
15. Read the given data and find out which states are NOT equal contributors to the production of
limestone.
Production of Limestone in 2016-17 Percentage
Andhra Pradesh 11
Chhattisgarh 10
Gujarat 8
Karnataka 10
Madhya Pradesh 11
Rajasthan 21
Telangana 7
Tamil Nadu 8
17. ____________ is an important element in BJP's conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
a) Political nationalism
b) Religious secularism
c) Cultural nationalism
d) Cultural secularism
19. Choose the correct statement with respect to Gandhi's urge to join the Khilafat
Movement by the Congress.
1. He saw this as an opportunity to bring the Muslims under a unified national movement.
2. He knew that only Muslims can launch a broad based movement.
3. He knew that only Hindus can launch a broad-based movement.
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 only
d) 1 only
20. Which party is inspired from the ideas and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar
Ramaswami Naicker, and Babasaheb Ambedkar?
a) Bhartiya Janta Party
b) Communist Party of India - Marxist
c) Bahujan Samaj party
d) Nationalist Congress Party
SECTION-B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 2X4=8
SECTION-C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 3 X 5 = 15
25. What steps have been adopted under the Indian Wildlife Act to protect endangered species of
animals?
26.Justify the reasons behind the rise of tertiary sector in the India economy.
OR
How are the three sectors of economy interdependent? Explain with suitable examples.
27. Examine any four reasons for the strained relationship between the Sinhala and the Tamil
communities.
28. State any three differences between the local government before and after the constitutional
Amendment in 1992.
29. "Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens". Justify
the statement.
SECTION-D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS 5 X 4 = 20
30. Describe the conditions which lead to technological and institutional reforms in India.
OR
Which are the two major Wheat producing states of North India? Describe geographical conditions
required for the growth of cotton.
31. How would you justify that the Act of Union was a major setback to the Scottish Identity?
OR
Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated
revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient". Analyse the
statement with arguments.
32. Democracy is best suited to produce better results. Examine the statement.
OR
What are the demerits of democracy?
33.A farmer has borrowed money from her brother at a high rate of interest. As she could not pay
back the money, she was forced to borrow from another landlord to settle the amount at a much
higher rate. State the consequences she may face in this situation.
OR
"The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India and holds significant importance in the
country's economic and financial landscape." It originally served as a shareholder's bank until 1949
when it was nationalized. The RBI had a key role in the development of the nation's economy
beyond just monetary and fiscal policy. Its development policies extended to other sectors, such as
agriculture. It also helped set up a number of key national institutions.
According to the source, what is the role of RBI in India? Substantiate your answer.
SECTION-E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS 4 X 3 = 12
34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election Commission as 'State
parties'. These are commonly referred to as regional parties. Yet these parties need not be regional in
their ideology or outlook. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded
only in some states.. ...over the last three decades, the number and strength has expanded. This
made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. As a result, the national parties are
compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has
got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has
contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.
(34.1) What is a State party? Name four state parties popular in India. 2
(34.2) What has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country? 2
35. Read the given source and answer the following questions:
Air pollution is caused by the presence of a high proportion of undesirable gasses, such as Sulphur
dioxide and Carbon monoxide. Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles
like dust, sprays mist and smoke. Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in - big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects. Are you aware of the
Bhopal Gas tragedy that occurred? Air pollution adversely affects human health, animals, plants,
buildings and the atmosphere as a whole.
37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place where Indian National Congress session was held in 1927
B. The place associated with the Movement of Indigo Planters.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any four of the following with suitable
Symbols. (any three)
I. Kandla - Major Sea. Port
II. Gandhinagar - Software Technology Park
III. Talcher - Coal Field
IV. Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
V. Raja Sansi - International Airport.