IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

s TEST FORM NUMBER Maximum Marks : 100

b Total Questions : 100
o
j Time Allowed : 60 Min.
t INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
v
o Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt Maximum
G Marks
the questions. :
This booklet contains 100 Questions in all comprising the following three parts. 100
s Total Questions :
r Part-(I) : Reasoning Aptitude (35 Questions)
e 100
p Part-(II) : Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions) Time Allowed : 90 Min.
a
P
Part-(III) : English Language (30 Questions)
sle All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
rd
io Before you start to attempt the questions, you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages and find
aM
f that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, you must get it replaced immediately.
f Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
A
You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll number,
t
n Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start attempting the
e questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be
r
r fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
u
d
ca Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant
o question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
y
ll
n A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/ different
iw
ao from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
d
d The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
s Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be deemed
r fit.
i
a Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not
f spend too much time on any question.
f
A Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates
t are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their
n own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action
e
r will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
r
u No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.
c No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.
x
i
s
NAME OF CANDIDATE:...........................................
t
s DATE :......................... CENTRE CODE :.................
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l ROLL No ..................................................................

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks : 100
Total Questions : 100 Nine persons- F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N are working in a
Time Allowed : 90 Min. company in different designations- CEO, MD, HR, Manager,
Marketing manager, Assistant manager, Supervisor, TL and
Reasoning Aptitude Trainee where CEO is the seniormost designation and Trainee
is the juniormost designation.
Direction (01-05): Study the following information carefully Only four persons are designated between K and G, who is
and answer the questions given below. junior to assistant manager. As many persons senior to K as

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
junior to I. L, who is junior to N and three persons senior to I.
As many persons designated between L and F as between F 9. As many boxes kept above box V as below_____.
and H. J is senior to M but junior to N, who is not working as (A) Box K (B) Box A
the seniormost position. (C) Box T (D) Box R
s (E) Box C
r 1. As many persons designated between H and J as
i between __ and __. 10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with
a (A) F G (B) M J respect to the final arrangement?
f
f (C) N L (D) K G I. Only one box is kept below box T
A (E) F H II. Boxes P and C are not kept adjacent to each other
III. Box K is kept immediately above box A
t 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (A) Only I (B) Only II
n
e based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which (C) Only I and III (D) Only II and III
r one of the following does not belong to the group? (E) All I, II and III
r (A) FL (B) JM
u
c (C) LM (D) FH Direction (11-13): Study the following information and answer
(E) JG the questions given below:
y
l
i 3. Who among the following person is designated as T is the maternal grandmother of S and has one son and
a marketing manager? daughter. U is the sister of V and the mother of S. T is the
d (A) J (B) L mother-in-law of R, who is female and does not have any
(C) N (D) F siblings. W is the son-in-law of P and brother-in-law of V. Q is
s (E) G the nephew of U and grandson of X. X is the father-in-law of V.
r
i 4. Who among the following person is three persons 11. How many females are there in the family?
a senior to I? (A) Three (B) Four
f (A) The one who is a manager (C) Two (D) One
f
A (B) J (E) Cannot be determined
(C) K
t (D) M 12. How is the wife of V related to P’s daughter?
n
e (E) The one who is two persons junior to F (A) Brother in law (B) Sister
r (C) Sister in law (D) Mother
r 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with (E) Brother
u
c respect to the final arrangement?
(A) Three persons are designated between M and J 13. If Y is the wife of X then who among the following is
y (B) As many persons senior to F as junior to G the son-in-law of Y?
l (C) The one who is HR is immediately senior to N (A) Q (B) W
h
t (D) Both A and B (C) S (D) V
n (E) Both B and C (E) None of these
o
M
Direction (06-10): Study the following information carefully 14. If in the word “VOCABULARY” all the consonants are
and answer the questions given below. arranged first as per the alphabetical order from the left
followed by all the vowels arranged as per the alphabetical
Ten boxes – A, C, F, H, K, P, R, T, V and Z are kept one above order, then how many letters will remain unchanged in their
the other in a stack,but not necessarily in the same order. position?
Only two boxes are kept between boxes A and C. Box H is (A) Two (B) One
kept two boxes above box C. Only three boxes are kept (C) Three (D) Four
between boxes H and V, which is not kept adjacent to box (E) None
A.Only one box is kept between boxes V and T. Box Z is kept
immediately below box T. The number of boxes kept between 15. Study the following statements and then decide which
boxes C and Z is one more than the number of boxes kept of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
between boxes P and A.Only two boxes are kept between statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
s boxes R and K, which is kept above box P. Not more than Statements: Some buttons are clips
r three boxes are kept between boxes F and R. Only a few clips are band
e No band is rubber
p
a 6. How many boxes are kept between box K and the box Some rubbers are synthetic
P which is fourth from the top? Conclusions: I. All synthetic can be clips
(A) Three (B) Five II. No button is rubber
l
e (C) One (D) Two (A) If only conclusion I follows
d
q (E) None (B) If only conclusion II follows
o
cM (C) If either conclusion I or II follows
m 7. Which of the following box is kept two boxes above (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
s box F? (E) If both conclusions I and II follow
r (A) The box which is kept immediately below box A
i (B) Box T 16. Study the following statements and then decide which
a (C) The box which is kept two boxes below box R of the given conclusions logically follow from the given
f
f (D) Box Z statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
A (E) None of these Statements: Only a few iPhones are tab
All iPhones are mobile
t 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as No tab is laptop
n
e per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Find the one All laptops are PC
r who does not belong to that group? Conclusions: I. All PC cannot be mobile
r (A) AR (B) PF II. Some iPhones are not PC
u
c (C) FZ (D) KH III. Some laptops are mobile is a possibility.
(E) RT (A) Only conclusion I follows

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(B) Only conclusion II follows 23. Who among the following person sits at the extreme
(C) Only conclusion III follows end of the row?
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow (A) The one who works in RIL
s (E) Both conclusions II and III follow (B) M
r (C) N
i
a 17. If in the given number “562598467”, the even digits (D) The one who works in LIC
f are increased by one and the odd digits are decreased by two, (E) Both A and C
f then what is the sum of the digits which are fourth from the left
A
end and fifth from the right end? 24. How many persons are sitting between the one who
t (A) 10 (B) 15 works in HUL and M?
n (C) 13 (D) 14 (A) Four (B) Three
e (E) 16 (C) Two (D) One
r
r (E) No one
u Direction (18-20): Study the following information carefully
c and answer the questions given below. 25. Who among the following person sits adjacent to the
y one who works in RIL?
l A person from point D walks towards west for 12m to reach (A) O (B) J
h point E. Then, he walks towards south from point E for 10m to (C) P (D) M
t
n reach point F, where he takes left turn and walks 8m to reach (E) N
o point H. He again walks for 5m after taking a right turn to reach
M point L. Again he turns to his right and walks for 13m to reach Direction (26-30): Study the following information carefully
point O. He then walks for 20m after taking a right turn at point and answer the questions given below.
O and reaches point M. He finally stops at point N, which is 5m
to the east of point M. Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a
circular table in such a way that some are facing towards the
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as center while some of them are facing away from the center.
per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the S sits third to the right of T, who is not facing Q. Both S and T
one that doesn’t belong to that group. face the same direction. One person sits between T and U,
(A) OE (B) FD who is not sitting adjacent to S. P sits immediate right of U. W
t (C) ME (D) OF and R are facing each other. As many persons sit between U
s (E) LD and Q as between Q and V, who sits adjacent to R. Both V and
e P face opposite direction of W, who sits immediate right of Q.
t 19. If point X is 8m east of point N, then the distance
e between points M and X is equal to which of the following 26. If all the persons are facing the opposite direction of
n points? the actual direction, then who sits second to the right of the
i (A) ED (B) OM – EF one who sits immediate left of W?
l (C) FH (D) LH (A) R (B) V
n
o (E) FH + HL (C) S (D) T
(E) Q
e 20. What is the shortest distance between N and D? 27. Who among the following person sits third to the left
e
r (A) 10m (B) 13m of R?
sf (C) 8m (D) 9m (A) The one who faces T
r (E) 5m (B) T
i (C) W
a Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully (D) U
f
f and answer the questions given below. (E) The one who sits immediate right of S
A Seven persons- J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting in a linear
row facing the north direction. All of them are working in 28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
t
n different organizations viz., ESIC, L&T, LIC, HUL, RIL, SBI and based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which
e BOI but not necessarily in the same order. one of the following does not belong to the group?
r Only two persons sit between P and N who works in L&T, (A) U (B) S
r either of them sits at one of the extreme ends. K sits immediate (C) Q (D) R
u
c right of P. The one who works in HUL sits three places away (E) T
from K. J and the one who works in HUL sit adjacent to each
y other. At least two persons sit to the left of J who doesn’t work 29. In which of the following option, third person is sitting
l
i in BOI. Only two persons sit between the one who works in SBI exactly between the first and the second person?
a and the one who works in BOI but neither of them sits at the (A) RUT (B) VRS
d extreme ends. M sits to the right of O. The one who works in (C) QUW (D) PVT
ESIC sits immediate left of M. Only two persons sit between (E) QSR
the one who works in LIC and L who sits to the left of O.
30. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order
21. Who among the following person sits second to the from P in a clockwise direction, then how many persons remain
left of the one who works in ESIC? in the same place (Excluding P)?
(A) The one who works in HUL (A) One (B) Two
(B) L (C) Three (D) More than three
(C) The one who works in SBI (E) None
(D) M
(E) None of the above Direction (31-33): Study the following information carefully
s and answer the questions given below.
r 22. M works in which of the following organization?
e
p (A) ESIC (B) SBI Six persons- P, Q, R, S, T and U sold different number of
a (C) RIL (D) BOI bikes, but not necessarily in the same order.
P (E) L&T Only two persons sold more bikes than P. Q sold less bikes
l than P and S. S sold four bikes which is one-third of the person
e who sold the highest number of bikes. U sold less bikes than
d
o
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
R. U sold five bikes more than S. As many persons sold less
bikes than R as more bikes than T. 36. Find the difference between the total marks obtained
by C and the total marks obtained in the reasoning section by
31. If S and P together sold nine bikes, then what is the B and C together?
difference between the bikes sold by R and P? (A) 10 (B) 3
(A) Two (B) One (C) 5 (D) 8
(C) Seven (D) None (E) None of these
(E) Three
37. The number of wrong question answered in the
32. Who among the following person sold the least reasoning section by C is what percentage of the number of
number of bikes? questions answered correctly by B in the quants section?
(A) T (B) P (A) 10% (B) 7%
(C) R (D) S (C) 8% (D) 5%
(E) None of the above (E) None of these
u
r
u 33. If the difference between the bikes sold by U and Q is 38. The total number of questions answered correctly by
g six, then what may be the bikes sold by U and T together? E is 86 and E answered 9 questions wrongly in the reasoning
(A) Twelve (B) Eight section, If E attended all the question in exam then, find the
m
at (C) Seven (D) Eleven marks obtained by E in the quants section?
xs (E) None of the above (A) 42.5 (B) 40
E
e (C) 45 (D) 47.5
t
d 34. In the given question, the relationship between (E) None of these
ak different elements is shown in the statements followed by three
o conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true. 39. If A failed in the quants section by 3 marks and A
cl
o
n Statements: S ≥ Q = W ≥ M < U; L < H = W ≥ P > Z; I ≥ X ≥ Q scored 5 marks more than the cut off mark in the reasoning
m
w Conclusions: I. L ≤ Q section, then find the sum of the cut-off marks in the quants
o II. I > P and the reasoning section?
ed
n III. S ≥ H (A) 60 (B) 70
sil (A) Only conclusion I is true (C) 68 (D) 75
rn (B) Both conclusions I and III are true (E) None of these
io (C) Only conclusion III is true
a
f (D) Both conclusions II and III are true 40. Find the ratio of the marks obtained in the reasoning
f (E) All I, II and III are true section by B to D?
A (A) 7:5 (B) 1:1
t 35. In each question, the relationship between different (C) 2:1 (D) 3:4
n elements is shown in the statements. The statements are (E) None of these
e followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the
r given statements and select the appropriate answer. Direction (41-45): Study the following information carefully
r
u Statements: S < T = Y ≤ K; M ≥ N > O ≥ P; J > K > N ≥ L; and answer the questions given below.
c Conclusions: I. S < N
II. M ≥ P The given bar graph shows the total number of recipes [veg +
x
i III. L ≤ Y non veg] prepared in five different hotels namely A, B, C, D
s (A) Only conclusion I is true and E respectively and also given the total number of veg
(B) Only conclusion II is true recipes prepared in five hotels.
t (C) Only conclusion III is true
s 140
a (D) None is true
120
l (E) None of these
120
Quantitative Aptitude 100 90
Direction (36-40): Read the following information carefully and
answer the questions.
80
60
60 50
The given table shows the total marks obtained in a test by
40 40 40
four persons A, B, C and D and also given the marks obtained 40 30 30
in quants section by these four persons. The test consists of
two sections namely quants and reasoning. Each section 20 10
consists of 50 questions and each question carries 1 mark. For
every wrong question, 0.5 marks is deducted. All the persons 0
were attended all questions in their exam.
A B C D E
Total Marks obtained in quants Total number of recipes
marks
obtained Total number of veg recipe
A 70 A answered 12 wrong questions in 41. Selling price of each non veg recipe prepared in hotel
quants section A is ₹120. Then find the total revenue earned by hotel A by
B 76 B answered wrong questions in selling all non veg recipes.
t quants section is 4 more
s (A) 12000 (B) 14200
e C 85 Marks obtained by C in quants (C) 10800 (D) 13200
T section is 38 (E) 10250
D 80.5 The number of wrong questions
e
n answered by D in quants section is 42. Find the difference between the number of veg
i 1 more than the number of wrong recipes prepared in hotels B and C together and the number of
l questions answered by B in
n non veg recipes prepared in hotels D and E together?
O reasoning section (A) 32 (B) 20

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(C) 10 (D) 30
(E) 60 49. Number of under graduates students in city F is the
average of the number of under graduate students in cities A
43. In hotel F, the number of veg recipes prepared is 40% and D together. The total number of students in city F is 4820,
more than the number of veg recipes prepared in hotel D. If then find the number of post graduate students in city F.
totally 40 recipes are prepared in hotel F, then find the total (A) 3020 (B) 3240
number of non veg recipes prepared in F? (C) 3620 (D) 2580
(A) 24 (B) 26 (E) None of these
t (C) 22 (D) 36
s (E) None of these 50. Find the ratio between the total number of under
e graduate and total number of post graduate students in all
td 44. Find the ratio between the total number of non veg cities together?
ae recipes prepared in hotels A, B and C together and the total (A) 3:2 (B) 2:5
o
n
li number of recipes prepared in hotels D and E together. (C) 2:1 (D) 5:4
n (A) 16:9 (B) 17:9 (E) None of these
lw
n (C) 9:16 (D) 9:17
o
o
d (E) None of these Direction (51-55): What value should come in the place of (?)
in the following number series?
es
er 45. Out of the total number of veg recipes prepared in
ri hotel C, 55% are paneer items. Find the number of paneer 51. 10, 23, 73, 297, 1491, ?
fa recipes prepared in hotel C. (A) 8990 (B) 8953
f (A) 22 (B) 21 (C) 8900 (D) 8876
f (C) 25 (D) 28 (E) 8820
A
(E) None of these
t 52. 45, 110, 195, 303, 437, ?
n Direction (46-50): Study the following information carefully (A) 720 (B) 700
e and answer the questions given below. (C) 780 (D) 600
r
r (E) 640
u The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the
c total number of students in four different cities i.e., A, B, C and 53. 16, 32, 128, 768, 6144, ?
x D. (A) 61440 (B) 62000
i (C) 62080 (D) 61800
s (E) 61200
t
s 54. 220, 200, 234, 218, 248, ?
a (A) 230 (B) 246
l (C) 236 (D) 255
(E) 280

55. 100, 300, 516, 757, 1034, ?

(A) 1300 (B) 1320
(C) 1280 (D) 1260
(E) 1360

Direction (56-60): What value should come in the place of (?)

in the following questions?
Note: Total number of students in all four cities together is
56. 1720 –32 × 25 - ? × 4 = √1600
10000. The ratio of the number of under graduate to post (A) 170 (B) 200
graduate students in each city is 3:2. [Total number of students
(C) 220 (D) 100
= total number of under graduate students + total number of
(E) 140
post graduate students]
57. 36% of 2000 – 25% of 1200 = ? + 150
46. Total number of under graduate students in city E is
(A) 220 (B) 310
20% more than the number of under graduate students in A
(C) 100 (D) 270
and the number of post graduate students in E is 20% less
(E) 150
than the number of post graduate students in D. Find the total
number of students in E.
58. √(132 + 604 + 3√1331) ÷ 7 = 2?
(A) 3250 (B) 3620
s (A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 3040 (D) 3120
b (C) 1 (D) 3
o (E) 3320
(E) 5
j
47. Find the difference between the total number of under
t 59. √1024 + √576 - 3√729 = ?2 - √289
v graduate students in cities A and B together and the number of
(A) 6 (B) 7
o post graduate students in cities C and D together? (C) 10 (D) 5
G (A) 320 (B) 300
(E) 8
(C) 350 (D) 360
(E) None of these 60. 1040 ÷ 65 × 1500 ÷ 12 = ? × 50 ÷ 2
(A) 25 (B) 90
u 48. Number of under graduate students in city ______ is (C) 65 (D) 75
r _____ more than the number of post graduate students in city
u (E) 80
g D.
Which of the following pairs satisfy the blanks?
61. A and B entered into a business with an investment of
m (A) C,500 (B) A,400
a ₹4000 and ₹3200. After 8 months A left the business and B
(C) B,300 (D) D,720
x increased the investment by 25% and C joined the business
E (E) None of these

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
with an investment of ₹6000. If at the end of one year, the English Language
profit obtained by C is ₹3000, then find the total profit
obtained? Direction (71-77): Read the passage carefully and answer the
(A) ₹11880 (B) ₹11000 questions below.
(C) ₹12200 (D) ₹10000
(E) None of these Planning is necessary to promote the sustainable development
of marine habitats, just as there has long been spatial planning
62. 4 years ago, the ratio of the age of Malar to Valar is for operations on land. Researchers from the University of
11:8. After 8 years, the ratio of their age becomes 14:11. Find Gothenburg and other institutions are now demonstrating that
the difference between the present age of Malar and Valar? marine planning must take climate change into account, which
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years it does not at the moment. According to the researchers’
s (C) 12 years (D) 10 years calculations, temperature and salt content changes may affect
r (E) None of these ecosystems and species more than all other environmental
e factors combined.
p 63. A container contains a 90 Liters mixture of milk and A computer tool called Symphony has been around for a while.
a
P water. The ratio of milk and water is 5:4. M Liters of milk and N The distribution of significant ecosystems and species
Liters of water are added to the mixture, then the ratio of milk throughout Sweden’s coastlines is depicted using GIS maps,
l to water in the container is 7:5. If (M-N)=10, then find the value along with how environmental disturbances like nutrient
e
d of M% initial quantity of milk in the mixture. pollution, boat traffic, and fishing affect them in various regions.
o (A) 2N (B) N+3 The maps are intended to help public authorities and other
M (C) N-2 (D) N+5 parties involved in marine planning define priorities and take
(E) N various actions.
The current iteration of Symphony has the drawback of not
64. A can complete a work in (x+3) days and B completed taking future climate change into account. Researchers
the same work in (x+8) days. A and B together can complete working on the ClimeMarine project have now examined what
the work in 6 days, then find the part of work completed by B in occurs when the tool is adjusted to account for anticipated
u 5 days? variations in temperature and salt content.
r (A) 2/3 (B) 5/7 According to Per Jonsson, a researcher at the University of
u (C) 1/3 (D) 3/5 Gothenburg and co-author of the study, “It indicated that the
g (E) 5/9 projected climate changes will raise the total environmental
m impact by at least fifty per cent, and in some locations, as
a 65. Ratio of upstream speed to downstream speed is much as several hundred per cent.”
x 7:15. Boat covers (x+40) km downstream in 6 hours and the The GIS maps show how the effects of climate change vary for
E
boat covers (x-1) km upstream in 7 hours. Find the value of x. different geographical areas.
(A) 50 (B) 35 It is a clear indicator that additional influences may need to be
t (C) 40 (D) 49 minimized in order to lower the total rate of impact in some
s (E) None of these regions. According to Jonsson, we might consider, for
e instance, rerouting a shipping line or capping the expansion of
T
66. The ratio of the radius to the height of the cylinder is marinas and recreational boating in areas with rare eelgrass
e 7:10 and the volume of the cylinder is 12320 cm3. Find the total meadows.
n surface area of the cylinder. Additionally, the method enables the identification of areas that
i
l (A) 1848 cm2 (B) 2464 cm2 are anticipated to be less impacted by climate change, such as
n (C) 3520 cm2 (D) 2992 cm2 so-called upwelling areas like those off the coast of Gotland,
O (E) None of these where deep, cold water rises and cools the water at the
s surface. These areas can act as climate refugees, ensuring the
r 67. A car covers certain distance in x hours and a truck survival of threatened species.
i
a covers certain distance in 8 hours and the ratio of the distance According to Per Jonsson, these projections are prone to
f covered by the car to truck is 5:6. If the ratio of the speed of flaws. Future temperature and salt content predictions are
f the car to truck is 2:3 and the truck covers 600 km in x hours, made using mathematical models that are always being
A
then find the speed of the car? updated and enhanced. In the future, we are unsure of what
t (A) 28 km/hr (B) 40 km/hr will happen to our carbon dioxide emissions. It’s challenging to
n (C) 30 km/hr (D) 36 km/hr evaluate this political issue.
e (E) None of these
r
r 71. Planning is necessary to promote the sustainable
u 68. Speed of the boat is 33.33% more than the speed of development of marine habitats, just as there has long been
c the stream. Boat covers 84 km downstream in 4 hours. Find spatial planning for operations on land.
the time taken by the boat to cover 36 Km upstream? What do you understand by the above highlighted statement?
(A) 12 (B) 10 a) As much the operations are planned on land, the same level
(C) 8 (D) 7 of operations should be planned for marine habitats.
(E) None of these b) For sustainable development, marine habitats planning is
more important than the operations are planned for land
69. A bag contains 3 blue balls, 4 black balls and 5 red c) Just as the operations are planned for land, marine habitats
balls. Find the approximate probability of getting first one is planning for sustainable development is also important
blue ball, then black ball, then red ball, when three balls are (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
picked up one after one without replacement. (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b)
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.36 (E) Both (a) and (c)
(C) 0.32 (D) 0.04
(E) 0.33 72. What is/are the factor(s) affect the marine
ecosystem?
70. Perimeter of the isosceles triangle is 72 m and the a) Ocean currents move organisms around in the ocean and
base of the isosceles triangle is 32 m. Find the area of the can affect the food chain
isosceles triangle? b) Marine ecosystem is affected by temperature and salt
(A) 108 m2 (B) 180 m2 content in the water
2
(C) 120 m (D) 192 m2 c) Currents can also circulate warm water and impact the
(E) None of these ecosystem through oxygen levels

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) 80. Select the phrase / connector out of three phrases/
(C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b) connector given, which can be used in the beginning to form a
(E) Both (b) and (c) single sentence without altering the meaning of the given
statements.
73. What is/are reason (s) behind the usage of GIS working as a doctor he also writes novels in his spare time
maps? (a) Truly working as a doctor…
a) GIS can help with risk management and analysis by (b) Besides working a doctor…
d displaying which area is likely to be prone to natural or (c) Finally he also writes…
a manmade disasters (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b)
o b) GIS can detect and estimate the changes in the land use or (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b)
l
n land cover pattern within specified time (E) Both (b) and (c)
w c) GIS is used to analyze geographical distribution of water
o
td resources by helping in marine planning 81. In the following questions two columns are given
s (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) containing three Sentences/phrases each. In first column,
es (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (c) sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column
T
r (E) Both (b) and (c) the sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase
ie
an from the first column may or may not connect with another
fi 74. What is /are revealed by GIS maps? sentence/phrase from the second column to make a
fl a) Maps reveal where the climate change has its more or less grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each
A
n impacts question has five options, four of which display the
O
t b) It helps to find less impacted areas, where survival of sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to
n threatened species can be ensured form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If
e c) It helps to find marine reserves, where rising temperature none of the options given forms a correct sentence after
r
r and salt concentration do not affect combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer.
u (A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) Column I Column II
c (C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b) a) We are on track to d) 1,700 journalists
x (E) Both (b) and (c) becoming the world's reporting from 160
i fifth biggest newspaper countries
s 75. Why it is said in the passage “According to Per b) When the Hindi e) largest newspaper
t Jonsson, these projections are prone to flaws”? heartland newspapers readership, overtaking
s a) Due to changing climate, it is difficult to demonstrate how expanded in the late China by 2025
a emissions will impact marine environment 1990s and
l b) It is easier for us to comprehend the degree to which various c) The eight states in f) early 2000s to reach
ecosystems and species are vulnerable to climate change the Northeast are likely villages, they
c) To comprehend, what occurs as the temperature rises and to be covered by pioneered the
the salt concentration falls, experimental experiments are extensive use of citizen
required stringers
(A) Only (a) (B) Only (b) (A) Only (a-e) (B) Only (b-f)
(C) Only (c) (D) Both (a) and (b) (C) Only (c-d) (D) Only (b-d)
(E) Both (b) and (c) (E) None of these

76. In context to the passage, which of the following is Direction (82-86): A passage has been given below. It has five
antonym of ‘iteration’? blanks in various sentences. There are options below the
(A) Refrain (B) Repetition passage for each blank to make the passage meaningful.
(C) Replay (D) Renewal Complete the passage by selecting the most appropriate
(E) Reprise words.

77. In context to the passage, which of the following is The ____(A)____ idea of the Rendanheyi model is to create
synonym of ‘anticipated’? “zero distance” with users in order to address their needs
(A) Doubt (B) Preview better. Instead of creating a product and then pushing it in the
(C) Foretell (D) Insight market, Haier aims to understand users’ needs first. In the age
(E) Discern of Internet of Things (IoT) where interconnectedness between
people, between things, and between people and things has
78. In the questions given below, a phrase or a part of the resulted in an abundance of data, it can be ____(B)____ to get
s sentences has been underlined. Choose the best option that a deeper insight into user needs.
b replaces the underlined portion to make the sentence correct. The “Ren” or the employees play a pivotal role in the
o If no replacement is needed, mark (e) No Improvement needed Rendanheyi model. Haier achieves its “zero distance” with
j as your answer. users through its employees who directly face users. This is
st I get over my fear of heights after I started trekking. made possible by replacing the ____(C)____ management
ev (A) Get over the fear (B) Got over my fear
io model with Ecosystem Micro Communities (EMCs). An EMC is
rG (C) Got the fear under (D) Got across my fear a community of Microenterprises (MEs), which are further
e (E) Get the fear under composed of 7-8 employees who interact with users and cater
s
to their needs. They have the right to make decisions, the right
t 79. In each question given below, a part of the sentence to hire talent, and the right to distribute compensation.
s has been highlighted as it might need an improvement. You Meanwhile, the functional departments merged into a single,
e must read the same carefully and choose an option that can
t shared services platform, provide finance, HR, legal, and IT
best replace the highlighted part. services to the MEs. In this way, employees become
e The BMC authorities would be less indulgent, and must not entrepreneurs who create value for users and get paid by the
n exercise as much cautions as Mr Rane’s own staff would. users ____(D)____ to the degree of value they are able to
i (A) still might not exercise as much caution as
l create for them. By connecting employee remuneration directly
n (B) and will not exercise as much caution as with the user value they create, the Rendanheyi model creates
o (C) and might not exercise as much caution as a fair incentive structures for ____(E)____ efficiency and
(D) and might not exercise so much caution as thereby, enhances employee wellbeing.
(E) No improvement needed

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
82. Which of the following words would fill the blank (A) 92. Vodafone Idea owes (a)/ nearly Rs 1.5 lakh-crore for
above? the government (b)/that included deferred spectrum(c)/
(A) Bosom (B) Principle payment, and adjusted gross (d)/ revenue (AGR) dues (e).
(C) Core (D) Elemental (A) a (B) b
(E) None of these (C) c (D) d
(E) e
83. Which of the following words would fill the blank (B)
above? 93. The restrictions on the (a)/ districts have been
(A) Exploited (B) Capitalising on imposed (b)/on the basis of these (c)/categories which has not
(C) Leveraged (D) Held (d)/shown expected results yet (e).
(E) None of these (A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d
84. Which of the following words would fill the blank (C) (E) e
above?
u (A) Linear (B) Swerving 94. The members reaffirmed that (a)/there is no military
r
u (C) Horizontal (D) Lateral solution to the (b)/conflict, and declare (c)/ that they do not
g (E) None of these support (d)/the restoration of the Islamic Emirate (e).
(A) a (B) b
m
a 85. Which of the following words would fill the blank (D) (C) c (D) d
xs above? (E) e
E
r (A) Commiserate (B) Commensurate
i (C) Comparable (D) Equals 95. The tiny-tots would much rather (a)/ have lollipops
a (E) None of these than spaghetti (b)/ during their break (c) / or in any other time
f
f (d) / No error (e)
A 86. Which of the following words would fill the blank (E) (A) a (B) b
above? (C) c (D) d
t (A) Handling (B) Driving (E) e
n
e (C) Operating (D) Pushing
r (E) None of these 96. In the following questions, a sentence is given with
r two highlighted words; these highlighted words may or may not
u
c Direction (87-90): The given questions carry two blanks each be used on its correct position. You have to swap the correct
which should be filled with a pair of words given below each combination of words to make the sentence grammatically and
sentence in the options. You are required to read each contextually correct.
sentence carefully and choose the most appropriate option as Strict parents who are brushed off (A) in their child’s success
t your answer. are endlessly (B) as ‘tiger parents’. Those who give their
s
e children a wide berth are invested (C) as ‘jellyfish parents’,
t 87. Offline schooling in the post-pandemic _______ has permissive and derided (D) flexible
e not only affected students but it has also taken a _______ on (A) Only (A-C)
n teachers and parents equally. (B) Only (B-D)
i (A) Times, beating (B) Epoch, testing (C) Both (A-C) and (B-D)
l (C) Era, toll (D) World, duty (D) Both (A-D) and (B-C)
n
o (E) None of the above (E) No correction required
88. Popular Turkish singer Melek Mosso was seen
e _________ Iranian protests ________ the death of 22-year-old Direction (97-100): In the following questions, a small
e Mahsa Amini. paragraph is divided into five parts, and arranged into a
r
f (A) Solidarity, for (B) Supporting, over jumbled order, in which only one part of the sentence is fixed
(C) Jumping, by (D) Carrying, for and that is the last part of the paragraph. You have to arrange
q (E) None of the above the remaining parts of the sentence so that, a meaningful
c paragraph can be formed.
m
89. Dearness Allowance is an _______ paid by the
s central government to its employees for ________ the impact 97. P). Such as spraying pesticides and preventing
r of inflation on their households. stagnation of water are the most effective ways of preventing
i (A) Extension,handling (B) Addition, bearing dengue.
a
f (C) Emolument,spending (D) Amount, offsetting Q). Such spikes are common in the monsoons
f (E) Sum, sparing R). There has been a rise in vector-borne diseases like dengue
A S). Extensive vaccination along with civic measures are
t 90. To ________ its employees to lose weight and get fit, needed
n the profitable unicorn has offered them a reward of Rs 10 lakh, T). Newer technology must also be deployed to control the
e among other _______. surge in infections
r (A) Inspire, emoluments (B) Invoke, penalties (A) QPSR (B) RQSP
r
u (C) Provoke, perks (D) Induce,payment (C) PSRQ (D) SPQR
c (E) Motivate, incentives (E) No arrangement required

Direction (91-95): The following questions have sentences 98. P). The dislike button has since been disabled by
divided into five parts. One of the parts may contain an error in YouTube
it. The option containing the erroneous part is your answer. Q). The teaser of The Little Mermaid has already garnered
over 100 million views on the video-sharing platform, YouTube
91. The 23-year-old Chopra became (a)/ the first Indian R). Many people expressed outrage at a Black actor playing
javelin thrower to enter (b)/ the finals of the Games with a big the role of the iconic mermaid
(c)/ throw of 86.65m that put him on (d)/ top of the Group A S). However, it also got over a million ‘dislikes’
qualification (e). T). The backlash against the film began in 2019 when the
(A) a (B) b casting of Bailey was announced
(C) c (D) d (A) SRPQ (B) PQSR
(E) e (C) QSPR (D) RPQS
(E) No arrangement required

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

99. P). About three quarters (73%) of all road traffic

deaths occur among young males under the age of 25 years,
Q). Moreover, males accounted for 92 percent of the road
crash death victims,
R). Which are almost three times as likely to be killed in a road
traffic crash as young females
S). From a young age, males are more likely to be involved in
road traffic crashes than females.
T). Whereas females accounted for 8 percent only
(A) SPRQ (B) QRPS
(C) RSPQ (D) PQSR
t (E) No arrangement required
s
e 100. P). Inadequate space or lack of it – prisons in India
T
are swelling,
e Q). But also completely lack the facilities of prisons for women
n convicts and under-trials
i
l R). But the state of womens’ prisons are more worrisome as
n according to current NCRB data,
O S). Many Indian states not only have a shortage of space
T). The report also highlights how children who accompany
their mothers to prison are forced to live in a dismal state
impacting their development.
(A) QRSP (B) SPRQ
(C) RQPS (D) PRSQ
s (E) No arrangement required
b
o
j
t
v
o
G

su
rr
iu
ag
f
fm
A
a
xt
E
n
e
r
r
u
c
y
l
h
t
n
o
M

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

Reasoning Aptitude Direction (18-20):

Direction (01-05):
Designations Persons
CEO H
MD K
HR F
Manager N
M.Manager L
Ass.Manager J
Supervisor G
s TL I
r
e Trainee M
p 1. Answer: (D)
a 18. Answer: (C)
2. Answer: (D)
P (In the given option, the first person is senior to second person, (First point is to the south-west of second point except option
c)
ls except in option d)
19. Answer: (E)
er 3. Answer: (B)
d
io 4. Answer: (E)
20. Answer: (B)
aM Direction (21-25):
5. Answer: (A)
f
f Direction (06-10):
A Boxes
K
t
n A 21. Answer: (C)
e H 22. Answer: (D)
r R 23. Answer: (E)
r
u C 24. Answer: (B)
c P 25. Answer: (A)
y V Direction (26-30):
l F
i T
a Z
d
6. Answer: (D)
7. Answer: (C)
8. Answer: (E)
(Only one box is kept between both boxes except in option e)
9. Answer: (D)
10. Answer: (C)
Direction (11-13):

26. Answer: (B)

27. Answer: (E)
t
s 28. Answer: (D)
e (In the given options, all the persons are facing away from the
T centre, except in option d)
e 29. Answer: (C)
n 30. Answer: (A)
iq 11. Answer: (E)
Direction (31-33):
lc 12. Answer: (C)
R(12) > U(9) > P > S(4) > Q > T
n
m 13. Answer: (D)
O 31. Answer: (C)
14. Answer: (B)
s 32. Answer: (A)
V O C A B U L A R Y
r B C L R V Y A A O U
33. Answer: (D)
i 34. Answer: (C)
a Letter “A” remains unchanged.
f S ≥ Q = W ≥ M < U; L < H = W ≥ P > Z; I ≥ X ≥ Q
15. Answer: (A)
f Conclusions:
A I. L ≤ Q (Q = W = H > L) -> False
II. I > P (I ≥ X ≥ Q = W ≥ P) -> False
t
n III. S ≥ H (S ≥ Q = W = H) -> True
e Hence, option c is correct
r 35. Answer: (D)
r Hence, option a is correct I.S < N (S < T = Y ≤ K > N) -->False
u
c 16. Answer: (C) II. M ≥ P (M ≥ N > O ≥ P) -->False
III. L ≤ Y (L ≤ N < K ≥ Y) -->False

Quantitative Aptitude
17. Answer: (A) Direction (36-40):
562598467 A:
373379575 Total marks obtained = 70
The desired sum = 7 + 3 = 10 Let the total number of wrong questions answered be x.

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o
l
n IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
w
o 100 – x – x × 0.5 = 70 Cut-off marks in reasoning section = 38 – 5 = 33
d
30 = 1.5x Required sum = 35 + 33 = 68
s x = 20 40. Answer: (B)
r Number of wrong questions answered in quants section = 12 Required ratio = 41:41 = 1:1
i Marks obtained in quants section = 50 – 12 – 12 × 0.5 = 32 Direction (41-45): The total number of recipe prepared in hotel
a
f Number of wrong questions answered in the reasoning section A is 120
f = 20 – 12 = 8 The number of non veg recipes prepared in hotel A
A Marks obtained in reasoning section = 70 – 32 = 38 = 120-30=90
t B: Similarly, we can calculate the other value also.
n Total marks obtained = 76 Hotel Total number of veg Total number of non
e Let the total number of wrong questions answered be x. recipe prepared veg recipe prepared
r 100 – x – x × 0.5 = 76
r A 30 90
u 24 = 1.5x B 40 50
c x = 16 C 40 20
x Number of wrong questions answered in the quants section = D 10 30
i (16 + 4)/2 = 10 E 30 20
s Number of wrong questions answered in the reasoning section 41. Answer: (C)
= 16 – 10 = 6 Total revenue = 90×120=₹10800
t
s Marks obtained in quants section = 50 – 10 – 10 × 0.5 = 35 42. Answer: (D)
a Marks obtained in reasoning section = 50 – 6 – 6 × 0.5 = 41 Required difference = [40+40]-[30+20]= 30
l C: 43. Answer: (B)
Total marks obtained = 85 The total number of non veg recipes prepared in hotel F = 40-
Let the total number of wrong questions answered be x. 10×140/100=26
100 – x – x × 0.5 = 85 44. Answer: (A)
15 = 1.5x Required ratio = [90+50+20] : [40+50] = 160:90=16:9
x = 10 45. Answer: (A)
Marks obtained in quants section = 38 The total paneer recipe prepared in hotel C
Let the total number of wrong questions answered in quants = 40×55/100=22
section be y. Direction (46-50): The total number of students in city A
50 – y – y × 0.5 = 38 = 10000×28/100=2800
12 = 1.5y The number of under graduate students in city A
y=8 = 2800×3/5=1680
Number of wrong questions answered in the quants section = 8 The number of post graduate students in city A
Number of wrong questions answered in the reasoning section = 2800-1680=1120
= 10 – 8 = 2 Similarly, we can calculate other cities also.
Marks obtained in reasoning section = 85 – 38 = 47 City Total Total Total
D: number of number of number of
Total marks obtained = 80.5 students under post
s Let the total number of wrong questions answered be x.
r graduate graduate
i 100 – x – x × 0.5 = 80.5 students students
a 19.5 = 1.5x
A 2800 1680 1120
f x = 13
f Number of wrong questions answered in the quants section = 6 B 1500 900 600
A +1=7 C 2500 1500 1000
t Number of wrong questions answered in the reasoning section D 3200 1920 1280
n = 13 – 7 = 6
e 46. Answer: (C)
r Marks obtained in quants section = 50 – 7 – 7 × 0.5 Total number of student in E = 1680×120/100 +
r = 39.5 1280×80/100=2016+1024= 3040
u Marks obtained in reasoning section = 50 – 6 – 6 × 0.5 = 41 47. Answer: (B)
c Marks Marks Number Number Required difference = [(1680+900) - (1000+1280)
obtained obtained of wrong of wrong = 300
s
e in quants in questions questions 48. Answer: (B)
i reasoning answered answered The number of post graduate students in city D is 1280.
r in quants in The number of under graduate students in city A is 1680
e section reasoning
s So, Required difference = 1680-1280=400
section 49. Answer: (A)
t A 32 38 12 8 Number of post graduate students in city F
s B 35 41 10 6
e = 4820-[1680+1920]/2=3020
t C 38 47 8 2 50. Answer: (A)
D 39.5 41 7 6 Required ratio = 10000×3/5 : 10000×2/5
e 36. Answer: (B)
n = 6000:4000= 3:2
i Required difference = (41 + 47) – 85 = 88 – 85 = 3 51. Answer: (B)
l 37. Answer: (D) 10 × 2 + 3 = 23
n Number of questions answered correctly by B in the quants 23 × 3 + 4 = 73
o
section = 50 – 10 = 40 73 × 4 + 5 = 297
Required percentage = 2/40 × 100 = 5% 297 × 5 + 6 = 1491
38. Answer: (A) 1491 × 6 + 7 = 8953
Total number of wrong questions answered by E 52. Answer: (D)
= 100 – 86 = 14
Number of wrong questions answered by E in the quants
section = 14 – 9 = 5
Marks obtained by E in the quants section
= 50 – 5 – 5 × 0.5 = 50 – 7.5 = 42.5
t 39. Answer: (C) 53. Answer: (A)
s Cut-off marks in quants section = 32 + 3 = 35
e 16 × 2 = 32
T
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
32 × 4 = 128 So, x=7,-6
128 × 6 = 768 B completed whole work in = 7+8 = 15 days.
768 × 8 = 6144 So, B completes in 5 days 5/15=1/3rd of work.
6144 × 10 = 61440 65. Answer: (A)
s 54. Answer: (C) Let upstream speed is 7a and downstream speed is 15a.
r So, (x+40)/15a=6 and (x-1)/7a=7
i (x + 40)/(15 × 6) = (x – 1)/(7×7)
a By solving the above equations, we get x=50
f
f 66. Answer: (D)
A 22/7 × (7x)2 × 10x = 12320
55. Answer: (E)
49x2 × 10x = 12320 × 7/22
t x3 = 560 × 7/(49 × 10)
n
e x3 = 8
r x=2
r The radius of the cylinder = 7 × 2 = 14 cm
u
c The height of the cylinder = 10 × 2 = 20 cm
56. Answer: (C) The total surface area of the cylinder = [2 × 22/7 × 142]+[2 ×
y 1720 – 32 × 25 - ? × 4 = √1600 22/7 × 14 × 20] = 1232 + 1760
l 1720 – 800 - ? × 4 = 40
i = 2992 cm2
a ? × 4 = 920 – 40 67. Answer: (B)
d ? = 880/4 Distance covered by the car = 5y km
? = 220 Distance covered by the truck = 6y km
57. Answer: (D) Speed of the car = 2z km/hr
s 36% of 2000 – 25% of 1200 = ? + 150
r Speed of the truck = 3z km/hr
i 720 – 300 = ? + 150 2z = 5y/x
a 420 = ? + 150 z = 5y/2x --- (1)
f ? = 270 3z = 6y/8
f
A 58. Answer: (A) z = y/4 --- (2)
√(132 + 604 + 3√1331) ÷ 7 = 2? From (1) and (2),
t √(169 + 604 + 11) ÷ 7 = 2? 5y/2x = y/4
n
e √784 ÷ 7 = 2? x = 10
r 28 ÷ 7 = 2? Speed of the truck = 600/x = 600/10 = 60 km/hr
r 2? = 22 Speed of the car = 60 × 2/3 = 40 km/hr
u ?=2
c 68. Answer: (A)
59. Answer: (E) Let the speed of the stream is 3x and the speed of the boat is
y √1024 +√576 - 3√729 = ?2 - √289 4x.
l 32 + 24 – 9 = ?2 – 17 So, 84/7x=4
h
t ?2 = 64 Or, x=3
n ?2 = 82 Speed of boat is 4×3= 12 km/hr and speed of stream is 3×3=9
o ?=8 km/hr.
M 60. Answer: (E) So, required time = 36/(12-9)=12 hours.
1040 ÷ 65 × 1500 ÷ 12 = ? × 50 ÷ 2 69. Answer: (D)
16 × 500 ÷ 4 = ? × 25 Required probability = (3C1/12C1)×( 4C1/11C1) ×(5C1/10C1)
4 × 500 ÷ 25 = ?
? = 80 =(3/12)×(4/11)×(5/10)=0.04
61. Answer: (C) 70. Answer: (D)
Profit ratio of A, B and C = (4000 × 8) : (3200 × 8) + (4000 × 4) Perimeter of the isosceles triangle = 72 m
q : (6000 × 4) = 20:26:15 2a + 32 = 72
c Total profit obtained = 3000 × (20 + 26 + 15)/15 2a = 40
m a = 20 m
= 3000 × 61/15 = ₹12200
s 62. Answer: (C) Height of the isosceles triangle = √(202 – 322/4)
r (11x + 4 + 8)/(8x + 4 + 8) = 14/11 = √(400 – 256) = √144 = 12 m
i Area of the isosceles triangle = 1/2 × 32 × 12
a (11x + 12) × 11 = (8x + 12) × 14
f 121x + 132 = 112x + 168 = 192 m2
f 9x = 36
A x=4 English Language
t The present age of Malar = 11 × 4 + 4 = 44 + 4
n = 48 years 71. Answer: (C)
e The present age of Valar = 8 × 4 + 4 = 32 + 4 The context of the sentence says that planning of operations is
r not only important for land but also important for marine
r = 36 years
u Required difference = 48 – 36 = 12 years habitats.
c 63. Answer: (E) Option (a) – The context of the sentence doesn’t talk about the
Milk in the mixture = 90×5/9=50 same level of planning for land and marine habitats. According
Water in the mixture = 90×4/9=40 to the context of the sentence planning of operations is also
(50+M)/(40+N)=7/5 required for marine habitats. So, the option is eliminated.
250+5M=280+7N Option (b) – it states “marine habitats planning is more
5M-7N=30 important than the planning of operations on land“, which
M-N=10 doesn’t support the context of the sentence. So, the option is
By solving the above equations, we get M=20 and N=10 eliminated.
So, the required value = 50×20/100=10 Option (c) - it supports the context of the statement. So, this is
64. Answer: (C) the correct option
One day’s work of A is 1/(x+3) and one day’s work of B is 72. Answer: (B)
1/(x+8) Options (a) and (c) - Both the options talks about the “ocean
s So, 1/(x+3) + 1/(x+8) = 1/6 currents“, which is out of context. So, both the options are
b eliminated
o Or, x2+8x+3x+24=12x+66
j Or, x2-x-42=0
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
Option (b) - it is mentioned in the passage. So, this is the
correct option
(According to the researchers’ calculations, temperature and
salt content changes may affect ecosystems and species more
s than all other environmental factors combined)
r 73. Answer: (C)
i Option (a) – the option is out of context, it is not mentioned in
a the passage that GIS helps to determine disasters. So, the
f
f option is eliminated
A Option (b) – This option is also out of context. No such
information is mentioned in the passage. So, the option is
t eliminated
n
e Option (c) - it is mentioned in the passage. So, this is the
r correct option
r (The maps are intended to help public authorities and other
u
c parties involved in marine planning define priorities and take
various actions)
y 74. Answer: (D)
l
i Option (c) – this option is out of context. It is not mentioned in
a the passage. So, the option is eliminated
d Option (a) – it is mentioned in the passage (The GIS maps
show how the effects of climate change vary for different
geographical areas)
Option (b) - it is mentioned in the passage (Additionally, the
method enables the identification of areas that are anticipated
to be less impacted by climate change, such as so-called
upwelling areas like those off the coast of Gotland, where
deep, cold water rises and cools the water at the surface.
t These areas can act as climate refugees, ensuring the survival
s of threatened species)
e
t
d 75. Answer: (A)
ak Option (b) – it is opposite to the context of the passage,
o according to the passage due to future uncertainty it is difficult
cl
o to comprehend this challenging issue. So, the option is
n grammatically inapt and Option (d) is a misfit both ways…
m
w eliminated
o Option (c) - this is an incorrect option, it doesn’t serve answer
ed to the question, it talks on some other subject. So, the option is
n
sil eliminated
rn Option (a) – it is mentioned in the passage, where the flaws
io are
a (Future temperature and salt content predictions are made
f
f using mathematical models that are always being updated and
A enhanced. In the future, we are unsure of what will happen to
our carbon dioxide emissions. It’s challenging to evaluate this
t political issue)
n
e 76. Answer: (A)
r Meaning of ‘iteration’ – the repetition of a process or utterance
r Only option (A) ‘refrain’ is its antonym
u
c ‘Refrain’ – to stop yourself from doing something
Meaning of other words ‘Renewal’ – the process of starting
x again
i ‘Reprise’ – to repeat a set of actions
s
77. Answer: (C)
t Meaning of ‘anticipated’ – to realize beforehand; foresee
s Only option (C) ‘foretell’ is its synonym
a
l ‘Foretell’ – predict the future or future event
Meaning of other words ‘Preview’ – a preliminary introduction
or inspection of something
‘Insight’ – an accurate or deep understanding
‘Discern’ – recognize or find out
78. Answer: (B)
The sentence talks about something that has already been
done. The fear has been overcome. So, ‘Got’ will be preferred
to ‘Get’. This rules out options (a) and (e).
Get across --> convey a message or an idea clearly. This
doesn’t fit the context of the sentence.
Get under --> to move underneath or below something like a
s bedcover or something, so this is also not intended in the
r sentence.
i Get over in option (b) means pull through or recover from an
a
f ailment, trauma, or a phobia. This is the best option for us we
f are talking about overcoming the fear of heights.
A 79. Answer: (C)
t There is a scope of improvement in the given portion as one, it
n uses ‘must’ which sounds like command for the BMC
e
r
r www.todaysprint.com
u
authorities which is not. Two, it uses cautions after much which
is also wrong.
Looking at the options, (a) gets cancelled for the unnecessary
use of ‘still’ in the same. The second gets eliminated as it says
BMC will not do something which is wrong as the sentence
simply wants to say that it will not need to exercise caution.
The third option is correct. The fourth option uses ‘so much
attention as’ which is an incorrect usage.
Thus, the best option would be (c).
80. Answer: (B)
The above sentences provide additional information, he is not
only a doctor but, he also writes novels
Only option (b) ‘besides’ supports the context. ‘Besides’ – in
addition to; as well
The sentence is - Besides working as a doctor, he also writes
novels in his spare time.
‘Truly’ – in a truthful way
‘Finally’ means – after a long time
81. Answer: (B)
The statement is – (b-f) - When the Hindi heartland
newspapers expanded in the late 1990s and early 2000s to
reach villages, they pioneered the extensive use of citizen
stringers
Other options either contextually or grammatically cannot form
a correct statement
82. Answer: (C)
Option (a) does not fit in contextually. Option (b) would have
been correct if it were ‘principal’. Option (d) appears to be
correct as it fits in grammatically but its meaning here is not
apt.
83. Answer: (C)
The correct answer is option (c) as it means ‘utilised to the
optimum capacity’. Option (a) ‘exploited’ has a negative
sense, option (b) appears correct contextually but it is
84. Answer: (A)
The correct answer is option (a) as options (b), (c) and (d) are
similar in meaning and hence, subsided. The word ‘linear’
provides complete meaning that management that earlier used
to have a vertical (linear) authority has now changed into Micro
Communities which enables a better communication with the
employees.
85. Answer: (B)
The correct answer is option (b) which means ‘proportionate’ is
the correct adjective for the payments to employees being
discussed there. Option (a) ‘commiserate’ which means ‘to feel
pity for someone’ is a commonly confused word here. Option
(d) ‘equals’ is grammatically incorrect and option (c) is inapt
contextually.
86. Answer: (B)
The correct answer is option (b). ‘Driving’ makes exact sense
here as it means consistently maintaining and increasing the
efficiency of employees. The other options do not fit in that
well.
87. Answer: (C)
The first blank can fit the first words given in all the options as
all the words would be contextually okay.
The second blank however can decide the correct option as;
beating would be an extreme word. Testing and Duty would be
contextually incorrect. And, toll means the amount of damage
done.
So, the best would be to mark option (c) as the answer.
88. Answer: (B)
The best words that fill the given blanks would be supporting
and over that will complete the sentence which means that a
famous singer was seen supporting the Iranian protests over
the death of the 22-year-old Iranian girl.
So, the best would be to mark option (b) as the answer.
89. Answer: (D)
The given sentence explains what the author means by
Dearness Allowance and defines it as the amount paid by the
central government in simple words.
The second blank correctly takes the word offsetting because
it means to make the effect of something less strong or
noticeable.
13
o
l
n IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
w
o Together the sentence means that the government makes a teaser gathered millions of views, on other side it also got this
d
provision for the government employees to help them mitigate dislikes
s the extra cost due to the changes in inflation. After statement (S), statement (P) will come; it further talks
r So, the best would be to mark option (d) as the answer. about the dislike button
i 90. Answer: (E) After statement (P), statement (R) will come; it further explains
a
f The given sentence says that the company has announced a the reason behind the dislike
f reward of 10 lakh along with other benefits in case their The final sequence is – QSPR
A employees lose weight and get fit. This reward will encourage 99. Answer: (A)
t the staff to get fit and lose weight. The final sequence is – SPRQ
n So, the words that would fit grammatically and contextually After reading all the sentences carefully, we can say that,
e have been given in option (e). statement (S) is the introductory statement; it introduces the
r 91. Answer: (E) topic, which talks about the involvement of males in road traffic
r
u The word ‘the’ is missing before ‘top’ crashes
c On the top --> of something, like here (on the top of Group A After treatment (S), statement (P) will come; it further explains
x qualification list) occurrence of road deaths in males
i On top --> the highest point of something After statement (P), statement (R) will come; 'which' is used to
s Though the two phrases are similar, there is a slight change in point out the occurrence of deaths in males
the usage as mentioned above. After statement (R), statement (Q) will come; 'moreover' is
t
s So, option (e) is the correct answer. used to give additional information about the deaths caused in
a 92. Answer: (B) males
l The correct phrasal verb is ‘owe to’ which means being under The final sequence is – SPRQ
a moral obligation. Vodafone Idea is under an obligation to pay 100. Answer: (D)
money to the government. The final sequence is – PRSQ
In part (b) ‘for’ should hence be replaced by ‘to’ as it is a After reading all the sentences carefully, we can say that
preposition in continuation to ‘owe’ which is used in part (a). statement (P) is the introductory statement; it introduces the
93. Answer: (D) topic, which talks about the inadequate space in prisons
The error is in part (d). After statement (P), statement (R) will come; 'but' is used to
The verb ‘has’ is wrongly used as it has been used for show contrast, on one side, where lack of space in prison,
‘categories’ which is a plural subject. other side, women prisoners conditions are more worrisome
The correct usage would be; ‘categories which have not’ After statement (R), statement (S) will come; it further talks
94. Answer: (C) about the data of NCRB
Following the rule of parallelism; After statement (S), statement (Q) will come; "Not only... But
s As the first part uses the word ‘reaffirmed’ in the third form, the also" is a conjunction, so, after using 'not only' in statement (S),
r
i verb ‘declare’ being used in part (c) should also be in the third statement (Q) further explains it
a form. The final sequences – PRSQ
f The correct usage would be --> conflict, and declared.
f The formation of the sentence goes like --> ‘……
A
reaffirmed…… and declared’
t 95. Answer: (C)
n The sentence is correct and needs no improvement.
e
r 96. Answer: (C)
r (A-C) – the context of the sentence says that, strict parents are
u those who invested in their child’s success, to make the
c sentence contextually correct ‘brushed off’ will be replaced by
y ‘invested’
l ‘Brushed off’ – to treat something as not important
h ‘Invested’ – give a lot of time or effort in something
t
n (B-D) – according to the context of the sentence, jellyfish
o parents are endlessly flexible, so to make the sentence
M contextually correct ‘derided’ will be replaced by ‘endlessly’
‘Derided’ – to express
‘Endlessly’ – in a way that is endless
The correct sentence is – Strict parents who are invested in
their child’s success are derided as ‘tiger parents’. Those who
s give their children a wide berth are brushed off as ‘jellyfish
r parents’, permissive and endlessly flexible.
i 97. Answer: (B)
a The final sequence is – RQSP
f
f After reading all the sentences carefully, we can say that,
A statement (R) is the introductory statement, it introduces the
topic which talks about the rise in vector- borne diseases
t After statement (R), statement (Q) will come; it further explains
n
e the rise of vector-borne diseases is common in monsoons
r After statement (Q), statement (S) will come; it further talks
r about the measures to control diseases
u
c After statement (S), statement (P) will come; it further explains
the types of measures need to be taken to prevent dengue
y The final sequence is – RQSP
l 98. Answer: (C)
i
a The final sequence is - QSPR
d After reading all the sentences carefully, we can say that,
statement (Q) is the introductory statement; it introduces the
topic, which talks about the teaser of The Little Mermaid
After statement (Q), statement (S) will come; 'however' is used
to show contrast to the statement (Q), on one side, where the

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