IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

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r TEST FORM NUMBER Maximum Marks : 100
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c Total Questions : 100
y Time Allowed : 60 Min.
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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
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Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to attempt the questions.
s This booklet contains 100 Questions in all comprising the following three parts.
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i Part-(I) : English Language (30 Questions)
Maximum Marks :
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f Part-(II) : Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions) 100
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A Part-(III) : Reasoning Aptitude (35 Questions) Total Questions :
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n All the questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. 100
e Before you start to attempt the questions, you must explore this booklet and ensure that it contains all the pages and find
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r that no page is missing or replaced. If you find any flaw in this booklet, you must get it replaced
Time immediately.
Allowed : 90 Min.
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c Each question carries negative marking also as 0.25 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
You will be supplied the Answer-sheet separately by the invigilator. You must complete the details of Name, Roll number,
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d Test name/Id and name of the examination on the Answer-Sheet carefully before you actually start attempting the
ah questions. You must also put your signature on the Answer-Sheet at the prescribed place. These instructions must be
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ln fully complied with, failing which, your Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and you will be awarded ‘ZERO’ mark.
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w Answer must be shown by completely blackening the corresponding circles on the Answer-Sheet against the relevant
o question number by pencil or Black/Blue ball pen only.
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A machine will read the coded information in the OMR Answer-Sheet. In case the information is incompletely/ different
s from the information given in the application form, the candidature of such candidate will be treated as cancelled.
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i The Answer-Sheet must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the Examination Hall.
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f Failure to comply with any of the above Instructions will make a candidate liable to such action/penalty as may be deemed
f fit.
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Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others easy. Do not
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n spend too much time on any question.
e Mobile phones and wireless communication device are completely banned in the examination halls/rooms. Candidates
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r are advised not to keep mobile phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching it off, in their
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c own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be considered as using unfair means in the examination and action
will be taken against them including cancellation of their candidature.
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i No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet.
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No candidate can leave the examination hall before completion of the exam.
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l NAME OF CANDIDATE:...........................................
DATE :......................... CENTRE CODE :.................
ROLL No ..................................................................

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Maximum Marks : 100

English Language and meaningful sentences. Choose the correct option as
your answer.
Total
Direction (1 – 5): The Questions :
given sentences 100been broken into
have
parts which need to be rearranged in order to form complete
Time Allowed : 90 Min.
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
1. them feel more respected, while it also helps (A)/ with citizen the right to wear any dress of his or her choice. When
the drivers during commute makes (B)/ It can be said that Mahatma Gandhi was asked to remove his Gujarati turban while
interacting (C)/ in keeping us engaged during the long travel entering a court in South Africa, he resisted it on the advice of his
time (D). Muslim employer, as mentioned in his autobiography, My
(A) ADCB (B) CBAD Experiments with Truth. Gandhiji was well within his rights in
(C) BCAD (D) BDCA South Africa as are the girls in question in Karnataka!
(E) CABD
6. Why has the phrase ‘as chalk and cheese’ been used
2. to notice the concern of people (A)/ and memes keep by the author in the given passage?
bringing (B)/ Social media messages (C)/ searching hard for a (A) To explain the story from where the phrase has come
room in the city (D). (B) To talk about the way in which these things are different
(A) ABDC (B) CDBA (C) As a simile that explains the difference between a hijab and a
(C) BDCA (D) CBAD burqa
ss (E) No rearrangement needed (D) To cite an example of another issue that gained attention
rb (E) Both (B) and (D)
io 3. Notably Russia and China demurred, (A)/ arguing that
aj
f the G-20 was not the forum (B)/ for settling security issues, 7. Which of the following can be the best title for the
ft though conceding (C)/ that war can indeed cause global passage given above?
A economic crises (D). (A) The Burqa Row
v
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tG (A) ABDC (B) CDBA (B) The politics of attire getting dirty
n (C) BDAC (D) CABD (C) Schools and Religion
e (E) No rearrangement needed (D) Education more important than headdress
r (E) The Court’s intervention in Education
r
u 4. manner, from which it is yet to recover (A)/ when it was
c pursued in a questionable (B)/ a huge setback during the 8. Which of the given options would best replace the word
Emergency, (C)/ The family planning programme suffered (D). ‘Meanwhile’ as used in the passage?
y (A) DCBA (B) ABDC (A) As though (B) Nearly
l
h (C) BACD (D) CDBA (C) Since (D) However
t (E) No rearrangement needed (E) No replacement needed
n
o
M 5. low-lying countries being submerged (A)/ Research 9. Which of the given statement/s is/are true as per the
documents warn of several (B) under rising sea waters as a given passage?
result of (C)/ the relentless rise in global temperatures (D). (A) The Constitution gives the citizen the right to wear only the
(A) BACD (B) ABDC specific uniforms of the institutions
(C) CBDA (D) ACBD (B) The courts ordered that it is mandatory that every citizen
(E) No rearrangement needed wears a mask to school
s (C) Mahatma Gandhi was once revered as he entered a court in
r Direction (6 – 12): The following passage has been given South Africa due to his turban
i
a below which is followed by questions based on the same. (D) The girls were forced to sit in a different room while writing
f Few words or sentences have also been highlighted in the their exams in a school in Udipi
f same. You are required to read the same carefully and (E) All the statements are false
A
answer the questions that follow.
t 10. What does the phrase ‘kick up a shindy’ convey in the
n Whoever had planned to kick up a shindy over the hijab at context of the passage?
e Udupi in Karnataka seems to have succeeded in their sinister (A) To kick someone out
r
r attempt. When the colleges reopened, the authorities concerned (B) Raise a voice against injustice
u in not only Udupi but elsewhere too, prevented girls wearing the (C) Make a forceful complaint
c headdress from entering the college premises. In those colleges (D) Create a ruckus
y where they were allowed to enter, they were forced to sit in a (E) Both (b) and (c)
l separate room and while away their time. Some students who
i had to appear for examinations had to skip them for the 11. Choose the option that is nearly same in meaning to the
a authorities concerned strictly followed the relevant word ‘stern’ as used in the passage
d
orders. Meanwhile, a strict reading of the orders issued by the (A) Strict (B) Forgiving
government and the high court suggests that the ban on (C) Flimsy (D) Lenient
headdress is applicable only to undergraduate colleges, where (E) Liberal
students have to follow a dress code known as uniform. Uniforms
are, generally speaking, not prescribed in graduate colleges. (A) 12. Choose the correct sequence of the parts in the
students are not allowed to wear any / (B) dress that reveals sentence highlighted above that makes a coherent sentence
their religious identity / (C) the court’s order says (A) ABCD (B) CDAB
t specifically /(D) that till it gives its final order. What about the (C) ABDC (D) BDAC
s bindi, the turban, the tilak and the kada (steel bangle) that some (E) DACB
e students wear? Are they not part of the dress that reveals the
t religious identity of the students concerned? Direction (13 – 17): In the passage given below, five words
k The state home minister has given a stern warning to the have been highlighted which shows that these words might
c students wearing the hijab that the government will henceforth be have been wrongly used in the given context. Choose the
o strict in enforcing its ban. Nobody questions his determination to words from the options that can make the paragraph
m
prevent girls from wearing the hijab. Many people think that the contextually correct and meaningful.
e hijab and the burqa are the same. They are as different as chalk
n and cheese. The hijab is used to cover only the head and the The continuous increase in the WPI by double digits also
i neck. It is the government which has ordered every person to signifies that manufacturers have restrained their pricing power,
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n wear a mask to fight the pandemic. A combination of the hijab which was lost during the pandemic. But the mirror image is also
o and the mask may give the impression of the burqa but it is not that input costs have gone up, which means that the same
the wearer’s fault. The point is that not only Muslims but also products as raw materials add to cost, which has been passed
conservative Hindu women in states like Haryana use their sari- on to the consumer. Therefore, it is not surprising that it has
end to cover their head and even face. The Constitution gives the turned out to be a doom for all commodity-based industries. The

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
global economic downtrend has been sharp, which also means (E) All correct
that the demand for metals, oils, crude and fertilisers has gone
up. This has led to a sharp increase in prices and cited the fall 23. In each question given below, there are parts of
witnessed in the pandemic. sentences that have been given in columns and three connectors
below the table have been given. You are required to choose the
13. Which of the following words will replace the combinations that make a complete sentence after joining.
word ‘cited’ as used in the passage? Column I Column II
(A) Oppose (B) Countered A.There are many D.inter-state
t (C) Support (D) Encouraged coaches who can teach transmission charges will
s (E) No replacement needed you skill, be waived for 25 years.
e
t B.Both divorcees tied the E.The woman caught the
14. Choose the word that will best replace the knot in 2015. cabbie popping pills at
k word ‘restrained’ as used in the paragraph above home after which he
c (A) Got (B) Accepted admitted being HIV
o (C) Regained (D) Achievement
m positive.
(E) No replacement needed C.As part of National F.Dhoni is the one who
e Hydrogen Mission's first can explain the mindset
n 15. The word ‘input’ as given in passage if doesn’t make
i phase,zones will be set
l sense should be replaced by? up to manufacture green
n (A) Producing (B) Specific hydrogen
o (C) Procurement (D) Additional I. And II. But
(E) No replacement needed III. Since
(A) B-III-D, A-I-E (B) A-I-D, B-III-E
16. Which of the following words should replace the (C) A-II-F, C-I-D (D) B-I-D, A-II-E, C-III-F
word ‘doom’ as used in the passage? (E) None matches
(A) Precious (B) Rewarding
(C) Bane (D) Boon 24. In each question given below, there are parts of
(E) No replacement needed sentences that have been given in columns and three connectors
below the table have been given. You are required to choose the
s 17. Which of the following words would replace the combinations that make a complete sentence after joining.
b word ‘downtrend’ as used in the passage above? Column I Column II
o (A) Lapse (B) Recovery
j A. Gadkari was speaking D. relaxations in timings in
(C) Recession (D) Both (a) and (c)
at Vijayawada other areas of the city.
t (E) No replacement needed
B. The restrictions on E. laying the foundation
v
o timings of stone for 51 road projects.
Direction (18 – 22): The following questions have four words
G that have been highlighted as they might either be wrongly
204 gardens in Pune
continue to be in force,
spelt or inappropriate in context. Choose the same from the
C. It's not that I have bet F. I have mortgaged my
others to mark as your answer.
my life wife's
u on it jewellery and done it.”
18. We have reports that (A) rair species of (B) migratory
r I. Or II. Despite
u birds have been (C) spotted at some places," said S Sudhakar,
g Gaya Forest (D) Division Conservator. III. After
(A) A-II-F, C-III-E (B) B-I-D, A-II-F
sm (A) Migratory (B) Division
ea (C) Rair (D) Spotted (C) A-I-F, B-II-D, C-III-E (D) A-III-E, B-II-D, C-I-F
ix (E) All correct (E) None matches
rE
e 25. In each question given below, there are parts of
s 19. The CEPA is (A) exposed to raise the total trade up to
$100 billion in the next 5-years and will cut duties(B) import on sentences that have been given in columns and three connectors
t below the table have been given. You are required to choose the
s various (C) products while boosting the export of jewellery
e and. (D) apparel. combinations that make a complete sentence after joining.
t (A) Import (B) Products Column I Column II
(C) Apparel (D) Exposed A. In the first case, the D. the US recently deployed
e
n (E) All correct teenager was dragged troops in response to
i by a leopard from the Ukrainian crisis.
l 20. With a (A) concontration of Russian troops around Western Coalfields
n Limited ground.
o Ukraine, I am deeply concerned about (B) heightened tensions
and (C) increased (D) speculation about a military conflict in B. The relations E. the second victim, a 55-
Europe. between France and year-old
(A) Heightened (B) Concontration Mali deteriorated woman was killed by a tiger
(C) Increased (D) Speculation in Kosambi village
(E) All correct C. Austin is on a visit to F. junta reneged on an
Poland, agreement to hold elections
21. Two Bengaluru-based (A) entrepreneurs, John in February.
Kuruvilla & Gautam, are (B) aiming for a world (C) record for I. Meanwhile II. After
distance (D) covered on electric bikes. III. Where
(A) Entrepreneurs (B) Aiming (A) A-I-E, B-II-F, C-III-D (B) B-I-D, C-III-E
(C) Record (D) Covered (C) A-III-F, B-I-D, C-II-E (D) B-II-E, C-III-F
(E) All correct (E) None matches

22. Five such centres were (A) operated in the city, (B) 26. The questions given below carry sentences which have
catering to patients who did not have sufficient home (C) been divided into parts. One of these parts might be erroneous
isolation space and resources for (D) treatment. and need an improvement. You must choose the same as your
(A) Operated (B) Catering answer.
(C) Isolation (D) Treatment (A) If the experiment (B) works, it will

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(C) be representing a (D) quantum leap forward 35. Alice and Briar together invested in a business in the
(E) for pharmaceutical chemistry. ratio of 5 : x respectively. At the end of 4 months, Briar withdraws
50% of his initial investment. At the end of 1 year, Briar's share in
27. The questions given below carry sentences which have profit was 60% more than that of Alice. What was the value of x?
been divided into parts. One of these parts might be erroneous (A) 9 (B) 18
d and need an improvement. You must choose the same as your (C) 12 (D) 10
a answer. (E) None of these
o (A) The old man and (B) his stick which are
l (C) always present at the (D) party were conspicuous 36. A lady bought a total number of (Pink, Blue and Brown)
n (E) by their absence today 20 clips for Rs.152. The cost of each pink clip is Rs.10, each blue
w
o clip is Rs. 6 and each Brown clip is Rs.8. How many pink clips
d 28. The questions given below carry sentences which have did she buy, if she bought 4 brown clips?
s been divided into parts. One of these parts might be erroneous (A) 9 (B) 6
rs and need an improvement. You must choose the same as your (C) 5 (D) 10
ib answer. (E) None of these
ao (A) She already closed
fj
f (B) the door behind her when 37. The speed of a man in still water is 5 km/hr and the
A (C) it occurred to her that she speed of the stream is 1.5 km/hr. A man rows to a place at a
t
v (D) wasn’t able to get back in later. distance of 45.5 km and comes back to the starting point, find the
to (E) No Error total time taken by him.
n
G
e (A) 22 hours (B) 15 hours
r 29. The questions given below carry sentences which have (C) 25 hours (D) 20 hours
r been divided into parts. One of these parts might be erroneous (E) None of these
u
c and need an improvement. You must choose the same as your
answer. 38. The length of the rectangle is 3/2 of the side of a
x (A) The manager (B) and assistant of square. The radius of the circle is equal to the side of the square.
i (C) Mr. Bhandari were (D) present at the party The circumference of the circle is 88cm. What is the area of the
s
(E) No Error rectangle, if the breadth of the rectangle is 34cm?
t (A) 700 cm2 (B) 824 cm2
s 30. The questions given below carry sentences which have (C) 714 cm 2
(D) 744 cm2
a
l been divided into parts. One of these parts might be erroneous (E) None of these
and need an improvement. You must choose the same as your
answer. 39. Two trains running in opposite directions at the speed of
(A) Bournvita shared that 50kmph and 40 kmph respectively and crossed each other in 6
(B) as a society, we often force seconds. Find the sum of length of the trains.
(C) kids to follow particular (A) 120 m (B) 150 m
(D) career paths, overlooking (C) 180 m (D) 90 m
(E) there natural potential. (E) None of these

Quantitative Aptitude Direction (40 – 44): Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions.
31. In an election, a candidate got 62% of the votes who
was elected as a leader by a majority of 1332 votes. What is the The given line graph shows 50% of the total number of pizzas
total number of votes obtained by defeated candidate, if all (cheese and meat) sold in four different pizza huts i.e. A, B, C
casted votes are valid? and D on Monday and also given 80% of the number of cheese
(A) 3100 (B) 950 pizzas sold in four different pizza huts on Monday.
(C) 2109 (D) 2009
(E) None of these

32. A sum of Rs.2250 is divided into two parts such that the
interest obtained on the first part at 7% simple interest per
annum for 1 year and the interest obtained on the other part at
8% simple interest per annum for 1 year are equal. What is the
u interest obtained on first part in Rs.?
r (A) 80 (B) 84
u (C) 72 (D) 78
g
(E) None of these
m
a 33. The ratio of men and women in an office was 3 : 4.
xs
E When 20 women resigned, the ratio of men and women becomes
r equal. In what ratio, 160 men and women should have joined the
i
a office before resigning of the women to make the number of
f women 50% less than that of men?
f (A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 7
A
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 7 : 1
t (E) None of these
n
e 34. P, Q, R can finish a work in 14, 21, 28 days
r
r respectively. P work till the work is completed, But Q leaves the 40. If the total number of pizzas sold in pizza hut F is 12.5%
u work 3 days before its completion and R leaves the work 5 days more than that of pizza hut B and the number of cheese pizzas
c before its completion. In what approximate time, the work sold in pizza hut F is 5/2 of the number of cheese pizzas sold in
finished? pizza hut C, then find the number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut
(A) 8.5 days (B) 9.5 days F?
(C) 7.8 days (D) 8.9 days (A) 620 (B) 390
(E) None of these (C) 470 (D) 550
(E) None of these

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
52. I. 4x2 – 21 = 123 II. y2 - 18y + 80 = 0
41. The number of cheese pizzas sold in pizza hut D is how (A) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
much more/less than the number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut (B) x < y (C) x > y
B? (D) x ≥ y (E) x ≤ y
(A) 90 less (B) 50 more
(C) 70 less (D) 80 more 53. I. (157 + 73) / 4 = x3 II. y2 - 2y - 80 = 0
(E) None of these (A) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
d (B) x ≤ y (C) x > y
a 42. In pizza hut A, the ratio of the number of cheese pizzas (D) x ≥ y (E) x < y
o sold on Monday to Tuesday is 3:4 and the ratio of the number of
l
n meat pizzas sold on Monday to Tuesday is 9:8. Find the total 54. I. x = √576 II. y2 + 23y - 50 = 0
w number of pizzas sold in pizza hut A on Tuesday? (A) x ≥ y (B) x ≤ y
o
td (A) 650 (B) 440 (C) x > y
s (C) 390 (D) 510 (D) x = y or relationship can’t be determined
es (E) None of these (E) x < y
T
r
ie
an 43. If the average number of cheese, meat and pepperoni Direction (55 – 59): Study the following information carefully
fi pizzas sold in pizza hut E is 110 more than the number of cheese and answer the questions given below.
fl pizzas sold in pizza hut B and the ratio of the number of cheese,
A
n meat and pepperoni pizzas sold in pizza hut E is 5:3:4 There are three types of houses i.e., huts, villas and apartments
O
t respectively, then find the number of pepperoni pizzas sold in liked by certain number of town people. 150 people like both huts
n pizza hut E? and villas but not apartment, 200 people like only apartments,
e (A) 240 (B) 480 100 people like all kinds of house, 110 people like both villas and
r
r (C) 360 (D) 520 apartments but not huts, 125 people like both huts and
u (E) None of these apartments but not villas. In total, 500 people like huts. Number
c of people who like only villas is 35 less than the number of
x 44. The number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut A is what people who like only huts.
i percentage less than the number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut
s D? 55. In total, how many people like villas?
t (A) 32% (B) 48% (A) 420 (B) 375
s (C) 10% (D) 25% (C) 250 (D) 450
a (E) None of these (E) None of these
l
Direction (45 – 49): Find out the wrong number in the 56. What is the ratio of the number of people who like all
following number series. house types to the number of people who like only apartments?
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
45. 10, 9, -18, -143, -484, -1215 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 1
(A) -18 (B) -484 (E) None of these
(C) -1215 (D) 9
(E) -143 57. What is the difference between the number of people
who like huts and apartments?
46. 59, 76, 95, 116, 140, 164 (A) 64 (B) 54
(A) 76 (B) 95 (C) 35 (D) 60
(C) 140 (D) 116 (E) None of these
(E) 164
58. Number of people who like only villas is what percent of
47. 3, 8, 4 ,26, 5.55, 54.5 the number of people who like huts?
q (A) 8 (B) 54.5 (A) 20% (B) 28%
c
m (C) 26 (D) 5.55 (C) 15% (D) 18%
(E) 4 (E) None of these
s
r 48. 0.25, 0.125, 0.125, 0.25, 1 , 8, 125 59. How many people are there in the town?
i
a (A) 1 (B) 0.25 (first) (A) 900 (B) 850
f (C) 8 (D) 0.25 (second) (C) 700 (D) 990
f (E) 125 (E) None of these
A
t 49. 18000, 17984, 17952, 17888, 17770, 17504 60. A joint family contains parents, three children and their
n (A) 17770 (B) 17984 grandparents. The average age of parents is 31 years and the
e
r (C) 18000 (D) 17504 average age of children is 5 years and that of the grandparents is
r (E) 17888 58 years. What is the average age of the family?
u (A) 30.50 years (B) 20.85 years
c Direction (50-54): Following question contains two equations (C) 25.75 years (D) 27.50 years
as I and II. You have to solve both equations and determine (E) None of these
the relationship between them and give answer.
Direction (61 – 65): Study the following information carefully
50. I. x2 – 29x + 168 = 0 II. y2- 38y + 240 = 0 and answer the questions.
(A) x > y (B) x ≥ y
(C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined The given table chart shows the total number of watches (Quartz
(D) x < y (E) x ≤ y and Rolex) manufactured in five different months i.e. January,
February, March, April and May and also given the percentage of
s 51. I. 3x2 + 5x - 22 = 0 II. 2y2 – 3y - 5 = 0 the number of Quartz watches manufactured in five different
r (A) x = y or relationship can’t be determined months.
e (B) x ≥ y (C) x > y Months The total number of % of the number
p
a (D) x < y (E) x ≤ y watches of Quartz
P manufactured watches
l
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d
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
manufactured (A) 35gm (B) 10gm
January 2500 64% (C) 38gm (D) 22gm
February 1600 30% (E) 30gm
March 720 25%
April 1200 65% Direction (69 – 72): Study the following information carefully
May 650 40% and answer the questions given below.

61. If the total number of watches manufactured in August In a certain coded language
is five times the number of Quartz watches manufactured in “Diwali purchase rate are high” means “qs hz wl oj
March and the number of Quartz watches manufactured in bg”
August is 260 more than that of Rolex watches, then find the “High quality sweets for Diwali” means “hz pm yp wl tr”
number of Rolex watches manufactured in August? “Crackers and dresses are quality” means “yp nc ay bg dk”
(A) 320 (B) 440 “High rate dresses and sweets” means “dk hz qs tr ay”
u (C) 510 (D) 380
r (E) None of these 69. What is the phrase for the code “nc ay yp” in the given
u coded language?
gq 62. Find the ratio of the number of Quartz watches (A) Quality and dress
cm manufactured in February to the number of Rolex watches (B) Crackers and quality
m (C) Dresses quality crackers
a manufactured in April?
xs (A) 1:1 (B) 5:4 (D) Crackers high rate
E
r (E) Can’t be determined
(C) 8:7 (D) 3:2
i (E) None of these
a 70. What is the code for the phrase “Sweets for purchase”
f
f 63. Out of the number of Rolex watches manufactured in from the given coded language?
A January and March, 40% and 25% of the watches are unsold (A) tr qs oj (B) pm yp qs
respectively. Find the total number of Rolex watches sold in (C) oj tr pm (D) oj qs bg
t (E) pm tr hz
n January and March together?
e (A) 810 (B) 945
r 71. If “Love my dresses” is coded as “jl ay kz” and “My tasty
r (C) 680 (D) 720
u (E) None of these dish” is coded as “iy kz cq”, then what is the code for the phrase
c “Love and Diwali” in the given code language?
64. The number of Rolex watches manufactured in (A) kz dk hz (B) wl dk iy
February is what percentage of the number of Quartz watches (C) jl ay qs (D) dk jl wl
s (E) Can’t be determined
r manufactured in January?
i (A) 65% (B) 100%
a (C) 25% (D) 70% 72. What is the phrase for the given code “qs bg hz” in the
f given coded language respectively?
f (E) None of these
A (A) Purchase rate high (B) Quality are high
65. If the number of Quartz and Rolex watches (C) High rate are (D) Quality rate Diwali
t manufactured in June is 340 and 90 more than that of the (E) Rate are high
n
e previous month respectively, then find the ratio of the number of
r Quartz to Rolex watches manufactured in June. Direction (73 – 77): Study the following information carefully
r (A) 5:4 (B) 2:1 and answer the questions given below.
u
d
ca (C) 8:7 (D) 9:5
(E) None of these Eight persons – I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P completed their
o graduation in different years – 1983, 1990, 1994, 2003, 2006,
y
ll
n Reasoning Aptitude 2013, 2017 and 2020 but not necessarily in the same order.
iw The difference between the years of completion of O and K is
ao
d Direction (66 – 68): Study the following information carefully eleven. The number of persons completed the graduation after O
d
and answer the questions given below. is one more than the number of persons completed the
s graduation before N, who completed the graduation before 2010.
r Six persons went to the jewellery shop for purchasing the gold at P completed the graduation seven years after M. Only one
i person completed the graduation between M and I. L completed
a different weights. A purchased the gold less than E but not less
f than both C and F. D purchased less than B but more than F, the graduation before J, who completed the graduation in an odd
f who is not purchased at the least weight. D purchased the gold numbered year.
A
at the third highest weight. The person who purchased the gold
t at the third lowest weight purchased 40gm of gold. 73. Who completed his graduation in 1990?
n (A) J
e (B) The one who completed his graduation two persons before N
r 66. If F purchased half the weight of gold purchased by A
r and E purchased triple the weight of gold purchased by F but not (C) K
u at the highest weight. Then what may be the quantity of gold (D) The one who completed his graduation four years before O
c purchased by B? (E) The one who completed his graduation exactly between K
x (A) 50gm (B) 30gm and I.
i (C) 55gm (D) 70gm
s (E) 59gm 74. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as
per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one
t
s 67. How many persons purchased less weight of gold than who does not belong to the group.
a E? (A) The one who completed his graduation immediately before P.
l (A) Two (B) Three (B) I
(C) Four (D) Five (C) The one who completed his graduation three years after I.
(E) Can’t be determined (D) The one who completed his graduation three persons after O
68. If the average weight of gold purchased by D, A and F is (E) K
40gm and the difference between the weight of gold purchased
by D and A is 20gm, then what may be the weight of gold 75. If N is related to L and I is related to K, then M is related
purchased by C? to who among the following person?

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
(A) I (C) A (D) X
(B) The one who completed the graduation immediately before J. (E) Y
(C) P
(D) The one who completed his graduation two persons after K. 84. If all the digits in the odd position in the number
(E) The one who completed the graduation immediately after I “367128539641” are decreased by two and all the digits in the
even positions are increased by one, then the number is
q 76. Who among the following person completed the arranged in decreasing order from left to right, then which of the
c graduation twelve years before N? following is third to the right of the digit which is tenth from the
m
(A) L (B) O right end?
s (C) K (D) I (A) 5 (B) 4
r (E) P (C) 3 (D) 2
i (E) 7
a
f 77. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with
fd respect to the final arrangement? 85. In each of the following questions, the relationship
A
a (A) Three persons completed the graduation before I between different elements is shown in the statements followed
o (B) Only two years between the years of completion of O and M by three conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
tl
n
n (C) N completed the graduation eleven years after J. Statements: P > Q ≤ R = S > T; O > Q = V > Y ≥ Z; U < X ≤ V <
ew (D) Both a and b W
ro
rd (E) Both b and c Conclusions: I. O > Z II. U < S
u III. W > T
cs Direction (78 – 82) : Study the following information carefully (A) If only conclusion I is true.
r and answer the questions given below. (B) If only conclusion II is true.
i (C) If only conclusion III is true.
a
f Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a (D) If both conclusions I and II are true.
f rectangular table in such a way that four of them sit at the (E) If both conclusions II and III are true.
A corners and face outside the center while four of them face the
t sides. are sitting in the middle and facing the centre. 86. In each of the following questions, the relationship
n E, who sits second to the right of G and three places away from between different elements is shown in the statements followed
e A. A is not an immediate neighbor of G. Two persons sit between by three conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
r G and F. As many persons sit between D and B as between B Statements: I < J < K > L; Q > N ≤ R = S; P ≤ O < J = M ≤ N
r
u and C, who sits adjacent to F. H sits in the middle of the side. Conclusions: I. I < S II. Q > L
c III. P ≤ R
78. Who sits third to the left of H? (A) If only conclusion I is true.
x
i (A) The one who sits opposite to E (B) If only conclusion II is true.
s (B) C (C) If only conclusion III is true.
(C) B (D) If both conclusions II and III are true.
t (D) The one who sits second to the right of G (E) If both conclusions I and III are true.
s
a (E) G
l 87. In each of the following questions, the relationship
79. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way between different elements is shown in the statements followed
based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which by three conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely true.
one of the following does not belong to the group? Statements: E ≤ F = G > H < I; L < H ≥ J < K ; O < L ≥ M = N > P
(A) GD (B) BC Conclusions: I. O ≤ K II. I > P
(C) AH (D) FB III. F < N
(E) CD (A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
80. In which of the following option, first person sits exactly (C) If only conclusion III is true.
between the second and third person? (D) If both conclusions II and III are true.
(A) GBD (B) EFC (E) If both conclusions I and III are true.
(C) CEA (D) ADF
(E) HGD Direction (88 – 92): Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below.
81. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order
starting from A in an anti-clockwise direction, then how many of Six water bottles-A, B, C, D, E and F are kept in a rack numbered
them remain in the same position (excluding A)? 1 to 6 from bottom to top respectively. Each water bottle is filled
(A) None (B) One with different juice varieties- Pepsi, Slice, Fanta, Sprite, Frooti
(C) Two (D) three and 7up, but not necessarily in the same order.
(E) More than three Bottle B is neither filled with Fanta nor 7up. F is kept three racks
above the bottle which has Frooti. Only one bottle is kept
82. Which of the following statement is true with respect to between the bottle which has Frooti and D. As many bottles kept
the final arrangement? above D as below the bottle which has slice, which is not kept in
u (A) A sits at the corner of the table top-most rack. The bottle which has Slice and Sprite are kept in
rs
u
rg (B) Only two persons sit between D and F,when counted from the adjacent racks. As many bottles are kept between the bottle
i the right of D which has Sprite and A is the same as between A and E which
am (C) B sits second to the left of H does not have sprite. Three bottles are kept between E and the
fa (D) All the given statement is true bottle which has Fanta. A is not filled with 7up.
fx
A (E) All the given statement is false
E 88. Which bottle is kept in rack numbered four?
t 83. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with third, (A) F
n sixth, ninth and tenth letters of the word “LITERATURE”, then (B) The bottle which is filled with Fanta
e
r which would be the third letter of the meaningful word thus (C) The bottle which is kept two racks above B
r formed? If more than two such words are formed, then give X as (D) The bottle which is filled with Sprite
u the answer. If no such word is formed, then give Y as your (E) E
c
answer.
y (A) R (B) T
l
i
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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
89. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with (E) South-west
respect to the final arrangement?
(A) Two bottles are kept between F and B 95. The shortest distance between the points L and H is
(B) The bottle which is filled with Slice is kept three bottles below equal to the distance between __ and __?
C (A) DC (B) LK
(C) F is filled with 7up and is kept in even numbered rack. (C) DE (D) EL
(D) All the statements are true (E) None of these.
(E) All the statements are false
Direction (96 – 100): Study the following information
90. Which of the following combination is true with respect carefully and answer the questions given below.
to the final arrangement?
(A) C-Sprite (B) D-Slice Nine persons viz., I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a
(C) E-Frooti (D) B-7up linear row in such a way that some of them are facing north while
(E) A-Fanta some of them are facing south.
u P, who is not sitting adjacent to L and sits third from one of the
r
u 91. Which bottle is kept two racks below the bottle which is extreme ends. L sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits
gq filled with 7up? between P and M and both are facing opposite directions. Q is
cm (A) The bottle which is kept immediately above F an immediate neighbour of L. The number of persons sitting
m (B) The bottle which is filled with Frooti between Q and O is one more than the number of persons sitting
a
xs (C) D between O and K. N sits second to the right of K. J sits
E
r (D) The bottle which is kept three bottles below C immediate left of N. O and L are facing the same direction as N.
i (E) None of these M and J are facing the same direction as I, who sits second to
a the right of Q, who faces north.
f
f 92. If the rate of the bottles which are kept in odd numbered
A racks is Rs.25 and even numbered rack is Rs.35, then what is 96. Who sits second to the right of I?
the total rate of the bottles which are filled by Sprite, Pepsi and (A) Q
t Fanta? (B) The one who sits third to the right of N
n
e (A) Rs.85 (B) Rs.95 (C) J
r (C) Rs.75 (D) Rs.105 (D) The one who sits second to the left of K
r (E) Rs.115 (E) L
u
c
Direction (93 – 95): Study the following information carefully 97. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
and answer the questions given below. based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which
one of the following does not belong to the group?
Abi started walking from point A towards the south, she walks for (A) K (B) Q
s 5m to reach point B, from there she takes two consecutive left (C) M (D) O
e turns and walked for 3m and 14m to reach the points C and D (E) I
i respectively. From point D, she turned 135˚ clock-wise directions 98. Which of the following statement is true with respect to
r
e and walks for some distance to reach point E. From point E, she the final arrangement?
s walks for 11m in east direction to reach point F. (A) L sits fifth to the left of P
Arun started walking from point H towards west and walks for (B) No one sits to the right of Q
t
s 10m to reach point I. Then he takes left turn and walks for 5m to (C) Only two persons sit between I and M
e reach point J. Then he takes right turn and walks for 6m to reach (D) All the given statements are true
t point K. From point K, he takes 270˚anti clock-wise direction and (E) All the given statements are false
e walks for 17m to reach point point L. From point L, he takes left
n turn and walks for 9m to reach point F. 99. As many persons sit between N and M as between __
i and __?
l 93. If point E is 15m east of point A, then what is the (A) L and K (B) M and I
n
o distance between the points D and E? (C) K and J (D) L and N
(A) 12m (B) 14m (E) Q and P
(C) 15m (D) 19m
(E) Can’t be determined. 100. Which of the following will fill the blank space: J, ___, K,
I.
94. What is the direction of point K with respect to point C? (A) N (B) P
(A) South-east (B) North-west (C) O (D) L
(C) East (D) North-east (E) Q

t Space for rough work

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
English Language
1. Answer: B
The correct sentence after rearrangement will be:
It can be said that interacting with the drivers during commute
makes them feel more respected, while it also helps in keeping
us engaged during the long travel time.
Therefore, the best would be to mark option (b) as the answer.
2. Answer: E
The sentence after rearrangement is:
Social media messages and memes keep bringing to notice the
concern of people searching hard for a room in the city.
t Thus, the correct answer is option (e).
s 3. Answer: E
e The given parts are already in their proper order.
T
So, the correct answer is option (e).
e 4. Answer: A
n The sentence after rearrangement is:
i
l The family planning programme suffered a huge setback during
n the Emergency, when it was pursued in a questionable manner,
O from which it is yet to recover.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (a).
5. Answer: A
The sentence after rearrangement is:
Research documents warn of several low-lying countries being
su submerged under rising sea waters as a result of the relentless
rr rise in global temperatures.
iu Thus, the best answer would be option (a).
ag
f 6. Answer: C
fm In the first few lines of the second paragraph, the burqa is said
A have understood by some people as same as the hijab but, the
a
txE line next to it says that they are as different as chalk and cheese
n which means they have they have nothing in common. The same
e idea is being explained in few lines further.
r Therefore, the best option that can be marked as the answer is
r
u (c).
c 7. Answer: D
y Option (a) can be cancelled as it is not the burqa that is under
l question.
h The second option makes the whole issue general by using the
t word ‘attire’ which can be any dress and not just the one being
n
o discussed.
M Options (c) and (e) are going vague and are too general as
compared to the fourth option that gives an exact idea of the
passage.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
8. Answer: D
The sentence before the one where the word has been used tells
us that the authorities were strict and did not allow students and,
in the line, following the same, the author says that the order has
been passed for the undergraduate students only. This shows a
contrast or a contradiction.
t For such a situation, ‘however’ is a better connector which must
s
e be used.
t So, the correct answer is option (d).
9. Answer: E
e
n The given statements have all been modified and hence they do
i not match the exact ideas in the passage.
l The first sentence doesn’t say what is given but, the right to wear
n any dress of his or her choice so this makes option (a) incorrect.
o
Not the courts but the government has mandated wearing a
e mask anywhere one goes so this option can also be eliminated.
e Mahatma Gandhi wasn’t respected instead he was restrained or
r
f stopped so even (c) is wrong.
And in (d), the girls of the college and not school were made to
sit in a different room due to their hijab and not because it was
their exams.
Since none of the given statements is correct, we shall mark
option (e) as the correct answer.
10. Answer: D
The given phrase means create a chaos or an issue over
something. As, the sentence where the phrase has been used
means whoever started this chaos with whatever intention has
been able to achieve it.
Therefore, the option that should be marked as the answer is (d).
www.todaysprint.com
11. Answer: A
The sentence means that ‘strict’ or ‘severe’ rules have been
announced.
The word from the options that is similar to the one asked is
‘strict’ as options (b), (d) and (e) are all antonyms of stern. The
word flimsy means dirty and this doesn’t fit the context.
So, the correct answer is option (a).
12. Answer: B
The parts after being re-arranged in a sequence will look
like:
The court’s order says specifically that till it gives its final order,
students are not allowed to wear any dress that reveals their
religious identity.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
13. Answer: B
The word in place of cited should be a word that reflects an
opposite sense to increase. It goes like; ‘increase in price will cut
(counter) the fall’
The words oppose and support will be grammatically
inappropriate so these can be ruled out. Encouraged will be
opposite to the context.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).
14. Answer: C
The tone of the sentence goes like; with an increase in the WPI
the manufacturers have gained their pricing power again. So, the
word that reflects this meaning is ‘regained’.
Achievement is grammatically incorrect so this can be ruled out.
‘Got’ and ‘Accepted’ will be contextually inappropriate.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (c).
15. Answer: E
The word ‘input’ indirectly means the price of the raw materials or
the production cost. So, it doesn’t need any change to make
sense.
Therefore, the best answer is option (e).
16. Answer: D
The passing of the extra cost to the consumers has prevented
the manufacturers from bearing the brunt of the extra costs. This
comes to them as a gift or a blessing.
The word that would replace ‘doom’ will be ‘boon’
Therefore, the correct answer is option (d).
17. Answer: B
The sentence towards the end talks about the demand of the
metals etc going up which indicates that the word in place of
downtrend should indeed be a positive word that hints at
economic growth. So, the word ‘recovery’ will fit the best over
here.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
18. Answer: C
The correct spelling for the word is ‘rare’ which means something
that cannot be found quite often. Such species of birds…
Therefore, the correct answer is (c).
19. Answer: D
‘Exposed’ is not the correct word in the context.
The word that should be used instead is ‘expected’
Therefore, the correct answer is option (d).
20. Answer: B
The word ‘concentration’ has wrongly been spelt as
‘concontration’
Therefore, the correct answer is (b).
21. Answer: E
The given words have been correctly spelt and hence the answer
should be (e).
22. Answer: A
The word ‘operated’ has been incorrectly used in the context of
the sentence.
The correct usage should be ‘operating’ and hence, option (a) is
the correct answer.
23. Answer: C
We can see that A and F have a connection as they both talk
about mentoring and coaching in a way. Also, A talks about skill
and F talks about mindset which are two different things. So,
these sentences can be connected through ‘but’ which changes
the track in the coming sentence and hence, A-II-F is one pair.
10
 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
Now C talks of a mission for which two things will be done. One 0.24x = 1332
is mentioned in C and the other in D. ‘And’ connects the two x = 5550
parts very well. Number of votes obtained by defeated candidate = 38/100 ×
However, B and E don’t connect grammatically with since and 5550 = 2109
hence, the correct answer is option (c). 32. Answer: B
24. Answer: D Principal P = Rs.2250
A-III-E→ Gadkari was speaking at Vijayawada after laying the x be first part of sum and (2250 – x) be second part of sum
foundation stone for 51 road projects. x × 7 × 1 / 100 = (2250 – x) × 8 / 100
B-II-D→ The restrictions on timings of 204 gardens in Pune 7x = 18000 – 8x
continue to be in force, despite relaxations in timings in other x = 1200
areas of the city. Interest obtained on first part = 1200 × 7/100 = 84
C-I-F → It's not that I have bet my life on it or I have mortgaged 33. Answer: D
t my wife's jewellery and done it. Let number of men be 3x and number of women be 4x
s Therefore, the correct combinations can be found in option (d). When 20 women resigned,
e 25. Answer: D 3x / (4x – 20) = 1/1
T
The correct sentences after joining can be written as: x = 20
e A-I-E→ In the first case, the teenager was dragged by a leopard New ratio is 2 : 1
n from the Western Coalfields Limited ground. Meanwhile, the 60 + a / 80 + b = 2 / 1
i
l second victim, a 55-year-old woman was killed by a tiger in a – 2 b = 100 ---> (1)
n Kosambi village. a + b = 160 ---> (2)
O B-II-F→ The relations between France and Mali deteriorated a = 140; b = 20
s after junta reneged on an agreement to hold elections in Required ratio = 140 : 20 =>7 : 1
r February. 34. Answer: A
i
a C-III-D→ Austin is on a visit to Poland, where the US recently Let the work be finished in x days
f deployed troops in response to Ukrainian crisis. x/14 + (x-3)/21 + (x-5)/28 = 1
f Therefore, the best answer is option (d). x/14 + x/21 – 3/21 + x/28- 5/28 = 1
A 26. Answer: C 13x/84 = 111/84
t The third part of the given sentence carries an error in it as, ‘will x = 111/13 = 8.5 days
n be representing’ is the wrong usage. Rather, it should be used 35. Answer: C
e as ‘will represent’ Briar's share in profit = 60% more than that of Alice
r
r The correct answer hence, is option (c). Then ratio = 5 : 8
u 27. Answer: B New ratio =>
c Which should be replaced by that in the second part of the (5×12) / (4x + 0.5 × 8x) = 5/8
sentence. 96 = 4x + 4x
"That" is used to indicate a specific object, item, person, x = 12
t condition, etc., while "which" is used to add information to 36. Answer: B
s objects, items, people, situations, etc. Let x, y and z be number of pink, blue and brown clip
e The above sentence simply indicates at the old man and his stick respectively
t
which on being absent got noticed. x + y + z = 20
e Therefore, the best would be to mark option (b). x+y = 20-4
n 28. Answer: A x + y = 16---> (1)
i
l Past perfect tense is used to make it clear that one event 10x + 6y + 8×4 = 152
n happened before another in the past. 10x + 6y = 152-32 = 120
o In the sentence, the person has already closed the door before 10x + 6y = 120 --->(2)
e she realised that she is unable to come out. Solving (1) and (2),
e This makes the first option incorrect. It should rather be; ‘she we get x = 6 and y = 10
r had already closed’ Number of pink clips = 6
f Thus, the most appropriate answer choice would be (a). 37. Answer: D
29. Answer: C Let u be speed of a man in still water and v be speed of stream
The verb were should be replaced with was. The manager and Upstream speed = u - v = 5 - 1.5 = 3.5 km/hr
assistant as per the sentence is the same person on two Time = 45.5/3.5 = 13 hours
positions. So, the verb corresponding to that one person should Downstream speed = u + v = 5 + 1.5 = 6.5 km/hr
be singular. However, had there been two different people in two Time = 45.5/6.5 = 7 hours
different positions, both would have carried article ‘the’ before Total time = 13 + 7 = 20 hours
s them. 38. Answer: C
r The correct sentence could be either of the two given below: Circumference = 88
e
p →The manager and the assistant of Mr. Bhandari were present 2∏r = 88
a at the party. r = 14 cm
P →The manager and assistant of Mr. Bhandari was present at Side of the square = 14 cm
l the party. Length of the rectangle = 3/2 × 14 = 21
e Thus, the best would be to mark option (c) as the answer. Area of the rectangle = 21 × 34 = 714 cm2
d 30. Answer: E 39. Answer: B
o The pronoun “their” is needed in the above sentence as it Length of two trains x and y respectively
M
corresponds to the noun kids. In the sentence, ‘there’ has been x + y = (40 + 50) × 5/18 × 6 = 150 m
given which makes it incorrect. 40. Answer: C
Thus, the best would be to go with option (e) as the answer. Pizza hut A:
The total number of pizzas sold = 210 × 100/50 = 210 × 2 = 420
Quantitative Aptitude The number of cheese pizzas sold = 120 × 100/80 = 120 × 5/4 =
150
31. Answer: C The number of meat pizzas sold = 420 – 150 = 270
Let total number of votes polled be x Pizza hut B:
Votes polled for defeated candidate = (100 – 62)% of x = 38% of The total number of pizzas sold = 320 × 100/50 = 640
x The number of cheese pizzas sold = 200 × 100/80 = 250
To find value of x, The number of meat pizzas sold = 640 – 250 = 390
62% of x – 38% of x = 1332 Pizza hut C:
0.62 x – 0.38 x = 1332

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
The total number of pizzas sold = 190 × 100/50 = 380 x(x - 8) -21(x – 8) = 0
The number of cheese pizzas sold = 80 × 100/80 = 100 x = 8, 21
The number of meat pizzas sold = 380 – 100 = 280 y2 - 38y + 240 = 0
Pizza hut D: y2 - 30y – 8y + 240 = 0
The total number of pizzas sold = 330 × 100/50 = 660 y(y – 8) – 30(y-8) = 0
The number of cheese pizzas sold = 240 × 100/80 y = 30, 8
= 300 Hence, the relationship can’t be determined
The number of meat pizzas sold = 660 – 300 = 360 51. Answer: A
Pizza The total The The 3x2 + 5x - 22 = 0
s huts number of number of number of 3x2 + 11x – 6x - 22 = 0
r pizzas cheese meat 3x(x-2) + 11(x – 2) = 0
i x= 2, -11/3
a sold pizzas pizzas
f sold sold 2y2 – 3y - 5 = 0
f A 420 150 270 2y2 + 2y – 5y - 5 = 0
A 2y(y + 1) – 5(y +1) = 0
B 640 250 390
t C 380 100 280 y = -1, 5/2
n Hence, relationship can’t be determined
e D 660 300 360
52. Answer: B
r The total number of pizzas sold in pizza hut F = 640 ×
r 4x2 – 21 =123
u 112.5/100 = 640 × 9/8 = 720 4x2 = 123 + 21 = 144
c The number of cheese pizzas sold in pizza hut F = 100 × 5/2 = x2 = 36
250 x = 6, -6
The number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut F = 720 – 250 = 470 y2 -18y + 80 = 0
41. Answer: A y2 -10y – 8y + 80 = 0
Required difference = 390 – 300 = 90 less y(y -10) – 8(y – 10) = 0
42. Answer: B y = 10, 8
The number of cheese pizzas sold in pizza hut A on Tuesday = Hence, x < y
t 150 × 4/3 = 200 53. Answer: A
s The number of meat pizzas sold in pizza hut A on Tuesday = 270 (157 + 73) / 4 = x3
e × 8/9 = 240 500/4 = x3
T Required total = 200 + 240 = 440 x=5
e 43. Answer: C y2 - 2y - 80 = 0
n The average number of cheese, meat and pepperoni pizzas sold y2 - 10y + 8y - 80 = 0
i in pizza hut E = 250 + 110 = 360
l y(y-10) + 8(y-10) = 0
n The total number of cheese, meat and pepperoni pizzas sold in y = 10 , -8
O pizza hut E = 360 × 3 = 1080 Hence, relationship can’t be determined
The number of pepperoni pizzas sold in pizza hut E = 1080 × 54. Answer: D
4/(5 + 3 + 4) = 1080 × 4/12 = 360 x = √576
44. Answer: D x = 24 , -24
Required percentage = (360 – 270)/360 × 100 = 90/360 × 100 = y2 + 23y - 50 = 0
25% y2 + 25y - 2y - 50 = 0
u 45. Answer: B
r y(y-2) + 25(y-2) = 0
u 10 – 13 = 9 y = -25, 2
g 9 – 33 = -18 Hence, relationship can’t be determined
-18 – 53 = -143 55. Answer: D
m -143 – 73 = -486
a
x -486 – 93 = -1215
E 46. Answer: C
82 – 5 = 59
s 92 – 5 = 76
r 102 – 5 = 95
e
p 112 – 5 = 116
a 122 – 5 = 139
P 132 – 5 = 164
l 47. Answer: D
e 3×2=6+2=8
d 8÷4=2+2=4
o
M 4 × 6 = 24 + 2 = 26
26 ÷ 8 = 3.25 + 2 = 5.25 500 people like huts
5.25 × 10 = 52.5 + 2 = 54.5 Number of people who like only huts => x + 150 + 100 + 125 =
48. Answer: E 500
0.25 × 1/2 = 0.125 Number of people who like only huts, x = 125
0.125 × 1 = 0.125 Number of people who like only villas = 35 less than the number
0.125 × 2 = 0.25 of people who like only huts
0.25 × 4 = 1 Number of people who like only villas = 125 -35 = 90
1×8=8
8 × 16 = 128
49. Answer: A
18000 – 17984 = 16
17984 – 17952 = 32
17952 – 17888 = 64
17888 – 17760 = 128
17760 – 17504 = 256
50. Answer: C
x2 – 29x+ 168 = 0
x2 – 21x - 8x + 168 = 0

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
y
March 720 180 540
April 1200 780 420
May 650 260 390
61. Answer: A
The total number of watches manufactured in August = 180 × 5 =
900
The number of Rolex watches manufactured in August = (900 –
260)/2 = 640/2 = 320
62. Answer: C
Required ratio = 480:420 = 8:7
63. Answer: B
Number of people who like villas = 110 + 100 + 150 + 90 = 450 The number of Rolex watches sold in January = 900 × (100 –
u 40)/100 = 900 × 60/100 = 540
56. Answer: B
r The number of Rolex watches sold in March = 540 × (100 –
Required ratio = 100 : 200 => 1 : 2
u 25)/100 = 540 × 75/100 = 405
g 57. Answer: C
Required total = 540 + 405 = 945
Number of people who like huts = 150 + 100 + 125 + 125 = 500
m Number of people who like apartments = 100 + 125 + 110 + 200 64. Answer: D
a = 535 Required percentage = 1120/1600 × 100 = 70%
x 65. Answer: A
E Required difference = 535 – 500 = 35
The number of Quartz watches manufactured in June = 260 +
58. Answer: D
340 = 600
Required % = 90 × 100 / 500 = 18%
The number of Rolex watches manufactured in June = 390 + 90
59. Answer: A
Required total = 150 + 100 + 125 + 125 + 90 +110 +200 = 900 = 480
s Required ratio = 600:480 = 5:4
sb 60. Answer: D
ro Parent's age = 31 × 2 = 62
Reasoning Aptitude
ij Children's age = 5 × 3 = 15
at Grandparent's age = 58 × 2 = 116
fv 66. Answer: D
fo Required average = (62 + 15 + 116) / (2 + 3 + 2) = 193 / 7 = 27.5
A purchased the gold less than E but not less than both C and F.
A years
G E > A > C,F
t Answer (61 – 65): D purchased less than B but more than F, who did not purchase
n The given table chart shows the total number of watches (quartz at the least weight of gold.
e and rolex) manufactured in five different months i.e. January, B>D>F>_
r February, March, April and May and also given the percentage of
r D purchased the third highest weight of gold.
u the number of quartz watches manufactured in five different The person who purchased at the third lowest weight of gold is
c months Has gone. purchased for 40gm.
y Months Total number of % of number of
l watches quartz watches
i manufactured manufactured
a 67. Answer: E
d January 2500 64%
february 1600 30% 68. Answer: B
march 720 25% 69. Answer: E
april 1200 65%
May 650 40%
January:
q The number of Quartz watches manufactured = 2500 × 64/100 =
c
m 1600
The number of Rolex watches manufactured = 2500 – 1600 =
s 900
r
i February:
a The number of Quartz watches manufactured = 1600 × 30/100 =
f 480
f 70. Answer: C
A The number of Rolex watches manufactured = 1600 – 480 = 71. Answer: D
1120 72. Answer: E
t March: 73. Answer: D
n The number of Quartz watches manufactured = 720 × 25/100 =
e Final arrangement:
r 180
r The number of Rolex watches manufactured = 720 – 180 = 540
u April:
c
The number of Quartz watches manufactured = 1200 × 65/100 =
780
The number of Rolex watches manufactured = 1200 – 780 = 420
May:
The number of Quartz watches manufactured = 650 × 40/100 =
260
The number of Rolex watches manufactured = 650 – 260 = 390
Months The total The The number of
number number of Rolex watches
of Quartz manufactured
watches watches
manufact manufactu
ured red
January 2500 1600 900 The one who completed his graduation four years before O
Februar 1600 480 1120 74. Answer: C

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 IBPS PO Prelims Model Papers
In the given options, all the persons completed the graduation in
an odd year, except in option c.
75. Answer: D
76. Answer: B
77. Answer: E So, answer is, the one who sits third to the right of N.
78. Answer: D 97. Answer: D
Final arrangement: In the given options, all the persons are facing north, except in
option d.
98. Answer: E
All the given statements are false
99. Answer: C
K and J
t 100. Answer: A
s
e N
T
s
re
in The one who sits second to the right of G.
ai 79. Answer: B
fl In the given options, Both persons facing the same direction,
fn except in option B.
A
O 80. Answer: E
t HGD
n 81. Answer: A
e
r None
r 82. Answer: C
u B sits second to the left of H.
c 83. Answer: D
y LITERATURE -> T, A, R, E -> Tear, Rate, Tare
l 84. Answer: B
h 367128539641-> 175209347722-> 977754322210
t
n 85. Answer: D
o I. O > Z -> O > Q = V > Y ≥ Z -> True
M II. U < S -> U < X ≤ V = Q ≤ R = S -> True
III. W > T -> W > V = Q ≤ R = S > T -> False
86. Answer: A
I. I < S -> I < J = M ≤ N ≤ R = S -> True
II. Q > L -> Q > N ≥ M = J < K > L -> False
III. P ≤ R -> P ≤ O < J = M ≤ N ≤ R -> False
87. Answer: B
q I. O ≤ K -> O < L < H ≥ J < K -> False
c II. I > P -> P < N = M ≤ L < H < I -> True
m
III. F < N -> F = G > H > L ≥ M = N -> False
s 88. Answer: D
r Final arrangement:
i
a
f
f
A
t
n
e
r
r
u
c

89. Answer: B
90. Answer: C
91. Answer: D
92. Answer: B
t
s 93. Answer: C
e
t
k
c
o
m
e
n
i
l
n
o 94. Answer: A
95. Answer: D
96. Answer: B
Final arrangement:

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