AP Environmental Science: Unit – 1 - The Living Question 6

World: Ecosystems
What is the main factor that allows the Coastal Pacific
Question 1 Northwest to have temperate seasonal forest and
Temperate Rainforest rather than Taiga?
What is the correct equation for respiration?
A. The Latitude
A. CO2 + H2O + Energy = C6H12O6 + O2
B. The Altitude
B. O2 + C6H12O6 = Energy + Water + CO2
C. Warm Ocean Currents
C. CO2 + C6H12O6 = Energy + Water + O2
D. Cold Ocean Currents
D. O2 + H2O + Energy = CO2 + C6H12O6
Question 7
Question 2
What is the main factor that creates the rain shadow
In which cycle is limestone a key factor? effect?
A. Carbon A. Geology
B. Phosphorus B. Ocean Currents
C. Nitrogen C. Air Currents
D. Sulfur D. Topography
Question 3 Question 8
What process can be caused by lightning? You go to an area dominated by grasses with
scattered trees. There are distinct Wet and Dry
A. Nitrification
seasons. Based on the angle of the sunlight, you think
B. Denitrification you are near the equator. You are most likely in a:

C. Nitrogen Fixation A. Savanna

D. Precipitation B. Tropical Rainforest

Question 4 C. Temperate Grassland

Why does the phosphorus cycle not recycle from the D. Shrubland
oceans back to land as fast as the other cycles?
Question 9 What nutrients are most likely to cause
A. Phosphorus is not in fossil fuels so we don’t extract algae blooms?
it.
A. Nitrogen and Sulfur
B. There is no atmospheric component
B. Sulfur and Carbon
C. It is not washed off in runoff.
C. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
D. The bonds of atmospheric phosphorus are too
D. Sulfur and Phosphorus
strong.
Question 10
Question 5
What is the base of the food chain in large rivers?
Denitrifying bacteria are found in:
A. Phytoplankton and Algae
A. Anoxic environments like muddy soil.
B. Aquatic plants
B. toxic environments like muddy soil.
C. Decaying plant matter
C. Anoxic environments like a dry corn T.
D. Fish
D. Toxic environments like a dry cornfields.
Question 11 Question 16

Estuaries are known to be important nurseries for
many species of marine fish and shellfish. Select all of
the below that are estuaries.
A. Freshwater Marsh
Why does the phosphorus cycle not recycle from the
oceans back to land as fast as the other cycles?
A. Phosphorus is not in fossil fuels so we don’t extract
it.

B. Bogs B. There is no atmospheric component

C. Coral Reefs C. It is not washed off in runoff.

D. Mangrove Swamp D. The bonds of atmospheric phosphorus are too

strong.
E. Saltwater Marsh
Question 17
Question 12
The 10% rule states that:
Hydrothermal vents are areas where what happens?
A. 10% of energy is lost as you go up each trophic
A. Plants make energy using photosynthesis. level.
B. Plants make chemosynthesis. B. Only about 10% of energy moves up the trophic
level.
C. Bacteria make energy using photosynthesis.
C. The maximum amount of energy at the top of a
D. Bacteria make energy using chemosynthesis.
trophic pyramid is 10%
Question 13
D. 10% of organisms die at each trophic level.
Why does the salinity go back up as you go deeper
Question 18
than 1000 m?
Food chains show
A. Water with more salt is less dense
A. As many relationships as it can between species in
B. Water with more salt is more dense
an ecosystem
C. Water is saltier at the surface where there is
B. One pathway energy or matter could take through
evaporation.
an ecosystem
D. Water is less salty at the surface where there is
C. Which predators eat which prey species in an
more evaporation.
ecosystem
Question 14 If GPP is 10 and respiration is 3, NPP is
D. The amount of energy available at each trophic
A. 13 level

B. 7 Question 19

C. 10 Box turtles usually spend most of their lives living

within a mile or two from where they were born. This
D. 30 area would be considered the individual box turtle's
Question 15 A. Niche
Energy is lost as you go up each trophic level. It is B. Ecosystem
turned into
C. Habitat
A. CO2
D. Community
B. O2

C. Heat

D. Minerals
AP Environmental Science: Unit – 2 - The Living
World: Biodiversity Practice Test
Question 1
In an experiment, two groups of paramecium species
are grown together in a contained
E. Ecosystems are inherently valuable
Question 5
Which of the following is the measurement used by
ecologists to determine the biodiversity of a particular
area?

environment. P. aurelia continued to grow well after A. Species richness

18 days, while P. caudatum declined to extinction
over the course of 18 days. This result demonstrates B. Species evenness
which of the following?
C. Genetic diversity
A. Symbiotic relationship
D. Ecosystem diversity
B. Competition
E. Species diversity
C. Predation
Question 6
D. Competitive exclusion principle
Which evolutionary process takes place when
E. Resource partitioning disturbance causes a dramatic decrease in the
population size, causing the genetic composition of
Question 2 the survivors to substantially differ from the original
group?
Which of the following factors does NOT affect
species richness? A. Mutation

A. Latitude B. Genetic drift

B. Survivorship curves C. Founder effect

C. Time D. Immigration

D. Habitat size E. Bottleneck effect

E. Distance from other communities Question 7

Question 3 Which of the following factors allows organisms to

have a greater chance of adapting to environmental
Which of the following tree species is a pioneer changes?
species in North American forests?
A. Rapidly changing environments
A. Beech
B. Low genetic diversity
B. Fir
C. Small population size
C. Aspen
D. Long generation time
D. Maple
E. All the factors favor natural selection
E. Oak
Question 8
Question 4
What part of the United States gets the most acid
Which of the following statements represents the rain?
intrinsic value of an ecosystem?
A. Northeast
A. Ecosystems provide useful goods, such as lumber
and crops B. Northeast

B. Ecosystems help regulate environmental conditions C. Georgia

C. Ecosystems are beautiful D. Georgia

D. Ecosystems provide ingredients for medicine

Question 9 A. a species that is not native to a particular region

Acid Rain has multiple negative effects on the B. a newly discovered species in a particular region
environment, but what does it do that effects our clean
air? C. a genetically modified species in a particular region

A. Creates erosion D. a species that is native to a particular region

B. Melts Statues Question 15

C. Kills plants Succession that occurs in areas that previously didn't

support life, such as on rocks or ice
D. Harm animals
A. tangential succession
Question 10
B. primary succession
How does air pollution move during thermal
inversion? C. secondary succession

A. Thermal inversion makes pollution very still D. quaternary succession

B. Pollution travels very fast in cold air Question 16

C. There is no pollution during thermal inversion How many species are estimated to be living on
Earth?
Question 11
A. between 10,000 and 100,000
Biodiversity, aka biological diversity, usually refers to
B. between 1 and 2 million
A. the same species in a general location
C. between 500,000 and 1 million
B. the number of different species in a given area
D. between 10 and 50 million
C. the number of animal species in a given area
Question 17
D. the number of plant species in a given area
Currently sharks are on a rapid decline due to
Question 12Species that are clearly critical to the overfishing. If sharks go extinct will this affect the
functioning of an ecosystem are known as biodiversity of the ocean?

A. biodiversity A. No, sharks are not important.

B. keystone species B. No, sharks will only affect the seal populations.

C. main species C. Yes, it will disrupt the entire food chain in the
ocean.
D. native species
D. Yes, but only a little.
Question 13
Question 18
A species that is likely to become extinct if protective
measures are not taken Which of the following describes the importance of
biodiversity to an ecosystem?
immediately is known as
A. People like to be able to see all the different plants
A. threatened species and animals
B. endemic species B. If there aren’t all the different species, there will be
resources that aren’t being used
C. keystone species
C. Biodiversity is not as important as many people
D. endangered species
think
Question 14
D. Biodiversity can help minimize the effects of losing
An exotic species is a species.
Question 19 B. 5%

What affect will continued rise in global temperature C. 75%

most likely have on worldwide biodiversity?
D. 1.5%
A. It will have no effect as there is plenty of time for
organisms to adapt Question 5

B. It will increase due to warmer temperatures

C. It will increase due to greater plant production from

more CO2

D. It will decrease due to massive habitat destruction

AP Environmental Science: Unit – 3 -Population

Practice Test

Question 1

Which of the following leads to a decrease in

birthrates among women? In what year did exponential growth start to occur for
the population on the graph?
A. Higher Education
A. 1850
B. High Infant Mortality Rate
B. 1900
C. No Prenatal Care
C. 1825
D. No contraceptives
D. 1800
Question 2
Question 6
All of the following are characteristics of R selected
species except Which statement about human population growth is
LEAST likely to be correct?
A. No prenatal care
A. Modern medicine has allowed human populations
B. Short Lifespan
to extend well past the earth's carrying capacity, as
C. Early reproductive age more people survive for longer.

D. Few Offspring B. Technological advances in farming and medicine

will allow human populations to continue to grow
Question 3 without natural limits.

The number of individuals an environment can C. Advances in agriculture have allowed the world's
support is known as the food supply to expand dramatically in the last 100
years.
A. Total Fertility Rate
D. Worldwide, humans are reproducing more quickly
B. Exponential Growth than mortality is removing people from the population.
C. Limiting Factor Question 7
D. Carrying Capacity In a population of spiders there are three different
Question 4 sizes: small, medium, and large.

A small community started out with 10 people in year ---The large spiders are easily seen by predators.
1. During Year 1, they had 10 births and 5 deaths. ---Small spiders have a difficult time finding food.
What was this community's growth rate for Year 1?

A. 50%
What will most likely happen to this population of According to the population pyramid of this country, its
spiders after many generations? population is most likely

A. growing slowly.

B. growing rapidly.

C. decreasing.

D. not changing.
A. Small and large spiders will mutate Question 10
B. Medium spiders will be the most plentiful

C. Large spiders will learn to hide from predators

D. Small and medium spiders will be the least plentiful

Question 8

The habitat of a moth species included trees with both

light and dark colored bark. Therefore the moth
species included both light and dark colored variants.
Then the light-colored trees were wiped out by a
disease, and within a few years nearly all the moths in
this forest were dark colored. Which of the following
choices BEST explains what happened?

A. Exponential Growth

B. Stable Growth

C. Declining Growth

Question 11

A. The light moths that survived all had dark offspring
in order to adapt to the change.
B. The dark moths were less visible to predators, so
mostly light moths were eaten.
A variable that influences an individual’s probability of
survival and reproduction in a manner that depends
on the size of the population is known as
A. Carrying capacity

C. The few light moths that survived did not mate, and B. Limiting resource
therefore they had no offspring.
C. Density-independent factor
D. The light moths changed their wing pigments to
D. Density-dependent factor
darker colors to avoid being eaten.
E. Age structure
Question 9
Question 12

A country with a greater number of younger people

than older people have an age structure diagram that
resembles which of the following?

A. a pyramid

B. a column

C. an inverted pyramid

D. an inverted column
E. a kite Question 16

Question 13 Which of the following describes the shape of the

logistic growth model with time as the independent
According to the theory of demographic transition, a variable and population growth as the dependent
country in phase 1 demographic transition will variable?
experience which of the following?
A. Parabolic-shaped curve
A. declining population growth
B. J-shaped curve
B. stable population growth
C. S-shaped curve
C. rapid population growth
D. Straight line
D. slow population growth
E. U-shaped curve
E. slow population growth
Question 17
Question 14
Which of the following is an r-adapted species?

A. Elephants

B. Mice

C. Gorillas

D. Wolves
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the descriptions of survivorship curves provided E. Whales
above?
Question 18
A. Type I could represent a house mouse, which is a
The average number of offspring required to offset the
typical r-selected species.
average number of deaths in a population so that the
B. Type II could be the average of r-selected and K- population remains stable is referred to as:
selected species in a specific area.
A. Crude birth rate
C. Type II could represent elephants, which are
B. Crude death rate
typical K-selected species.
C. Replacement level fertility
D. Type I could represent an oak tree species that
experiences very low survivorship early and late in D. Total fertility rate
life.
E. Infant mortality
E. Type II could represent a coral species that exhibits
a constant decline in survivorship throughout its life. Question 19

Question 15 Refer to the graph below:

A country has a Net Immigration Rate of 3 per 1,000;

a Crude Birth Rate (CBR) of 9 per 1,000; and a Crude
Death Rate (CDR) of 11 per 1,000. What is the growth
rate of this country?

A. 0.1%

B. 0.2%

C. 0.5%

D. 1%

E. 2%
During which phase(s) of the demographic transition Question 4
does the death rate decline while the birth rate
remains high, and the population grows rapidly? Which body of water has been significantly reduced in
size due to water diversion?
A. Phase 1
A. The Baltic Sea
B. Phase 2
B. The Aral Sea
C. Phase 3
C. Lake Huron
D. Phase 4
D. Lake Huron
E. Phase 1 and 2
E. The Nile River

AP Environmental Science: Unit – 4 - Earth
Systems and Resources Practice Test
Question 1
Question 5
If a deep well pumps water from an aquifer more
rapidly than it can be regenerated, which of the
following may form?

An area beneath the ocean floor where tectonic plates A. Cone of depression
move away from each other is known as a
B. Saltwater intrusion
A. Subduction zone
C. Confined aquifer
B. Seafloor spreading
D. Unconfined aquifer
C. Divergent plate boundary
E. Flood plain
D. Convergent plate boundary
Question 6
E. Transform fault boundary
Which of the following lists the correct order of
Question 2 increasing organic content in soil?

Which of the following layers of the earth is entirely A. Young soil, Immature soil, Mature soil
liquid?
B. Immature soil, Young soil, Mature soil
A. Inner core
C. Mature soil, Immature soil, Young soil
B. Outer core
D. Mature soil, Young soil, Immature soil
C. Mantle
E. Young soil, Mature soil, Immature soil
D. Asthenosphere
Question 7
E. Lithosphere
Which type of plate interaction occurs when plates
Question 3 move sideways past each other?

The loss of some or all of a soil’s ability to support A. Fault zone

plant growth is called
B. Divergent plate boundary
A. Erosion
C. Convergent plate boundary
B. Soil degradation
D. Transform plate boundary
C. Physical weathering
E. Volcanoes
D. Chemical weathering
Question 8
E. Base saturation
Which type of rocks form when mud, sand or gravel is
compressed by overlying materials?
A. Intrusive igneous rock Question 13

B. Extrusive igneous rock The San Andrea's Fault in California is which type of
boundary?
C. Sedimentary rock
A. Convergent
D. Metamorphic rock
B. Divergent
E. Coal
C. Subductive Zone
Question 9
D. Transform
Where is the greatest amount of fresh water located
on Earth? Question 14

A. Water bodies, such as rivers, lakes and ponds Which horizon is made up of partially weathered
rocks?
B. The Atmosphere
A. Horizon A
C. Below the earth's surface
B. Horizon B
D. Oceans
C. Horizon C
E. Ice and glaciers
D. Horizon D or R
Question 10
Question 15
What is the most efficient agricultural irrigation
technique? In which layer do all the pressure, wind, and
precipitation changes occur?
A. Drip irrigation
A. Outer space
B. Furrow irrigation
B. stratosphere
C. Flood irrigation
C. troposphere
D. Spray irrigation
D. mesosphere
E. Mechanical irrigation
Question 16
Question 11
The Coriolis Effect is a result of the Earth's
Where is this biome located?
A. gravitation
A. Northern Hemisphere, Temperate
B. temperature
B. Northern Hemisphere, Tropical
C. rotation
C. Southern Hemisphere, Temperate
D. curvature
D. Southern Hemisphere, Tropical
Question 17
Question 12
The atmospheric zone where most weather events
Which statement is false? occur is the
A. The equator is a low pressure zone. A. Stratosphere
B. Winds are named by where they originate. B. Thermosphere
C. Deserts form near high pressure zones. C. Troposphere
D. Deserts are typically located around 60 degrees D. Mesosphere
north or south of the equator.
Question 18 E. Government policies

When an area of the Earth's surface becomes very Question 3

hot, the air above it
The federal government regulation passed in 1969
A. Condenses and cools that requires an environmental assessment of all
projects involving federal money or federal permits is
B. Warms, expands and rises known as the
C. Expands and sinks A. National Environmental Policy Act
D. Condenses and sinks B. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Question 19 C. Comprehensive Environmental Response,
Compensation, and Liability Act
Which of the following changes in eastern Pacific
Ocean food webs is typically associated with La Niña D. Clean Air Act
events?
E. Endangered Species Act
A. Decreased populations of squid
Question 4
B. Decreased populations of anchovies
What is bycatch?
C. Increased phytoplankton concentrations
A. An environmental problem caused by increased
D. Increased famine among sea lions and seals pesticide use.

B. Raising fish commercially in tanks or enclosures,

usually for food.
AP Environmental Science: Unit – 5 - Land and
Water Use Practice Test C. Unwanted fish and other marine creatures caught
during commercial fishing for a different species.
Question 1
D. A common side effect of genetic engineering.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of mono-
cropping? E. An industrial fishing method where a large net with
heavy weights is dragged across the seafloor,
I. Soil depletion
scooping up everything in its path.
II. Large expanses of land can be planted and then
Question 5
harvested
The phenomenon of urban blight has contributed to
III. Crops are more vulnerable to attacks by pests
which of the following?
A. I only
I. Degradation of the buildings and social environment
B. II only of the city

C. I and II only II. Migration to the suburbs

D. I and III only III. Racial segregation

E. I, II, and III A. I only

Question 2 B. II only

Which of the following is NOT a major cause of urban C. I and II only

sprawl in the United States?
D. I and III only
A. Automobiles and highway construction
E. I, II, and III
B. Living costs
Question 6
C. Smart growth
Which of the following is NOT an effective water
D. Urban blight conservation technique?
A. Using low flush toilets.
B. Xeriscaping.
C. Using showerheads that limit water flow to 4.5
gallons per minute.
D. Mulching around trees and plants.
E. Public outreach campaigns.
Question 7
The mining of stream bed deposits for minerals is
known as
A. Strip mining
B. Open-pit mining
C. Mountaintop removal
D. Placer mining
E. Subsurface mining
Question 8
The 2003 the United Nations List of Protected Areas
created six categories of protected public lands.
Which classification allows biological, mineral and
recreational resources to be used sustainably?
A. National Parks
B. Managed Resource Protected Areas
C. Habitat/Species Management Areas
D. Protected Landscapes and Seascapes
E. National Monuments
Question 9
Which of the following is a benefit of contour farming?
A. Allows vegetation of different heights to act as
windbreaks and catch soil that
might otherwise blow away
B. Prevents the same nutrients from being removed
from the soil year after year
C. Conserves soil and prevents erosion
D. Reduces carbon dioxide emissions
E. Minimizes the use of pesticides
Question 10
Which of the following is a benefit of genetic
engineering?
A. Genetic engineering decreases the likelihood of a
allergic reaction to a specific type of food
B. The favorable genes in the genetically modified
organism will spread to the wild varieties and increase
their ability to resist disease
C. Genetically modified organisms are healthier
because their genes have been selected to make the
crop more nutritious for humans
D. Genetically modified organisms taste better
E. Genetically modified organisms need less
pesticides because the plants have been developed
to resist pests
Question 11
Which of the following timber harvesting methods
involves cutting and removing only the largest and
best trees?
A. Clear-cutting
B. High grading
C. Seed-tree cutting
D. Selective cutting
E. Shelterwood cutting
Question 12
One way a local community might regulate a shared
and limited resource and reduce the tragedy of the
commons is to
A. eliminate ownership of the resources and make
them available to all
B. divide the resources into parcels and assign them
to individuals
C. offer subsides to users of the resources in the form
of tax breaks
D. reduce the cost of access to the resources
Question 13
Which of the following environmental effects would
most likely result from the clear-cutting of boreal
forests by industrial logging operations?
A. There will be an increase in atmospheric oxygen
concentration, which will improve air quality.
B. There will be an increase in farming on the cleared
areas of land, which will reduce incidences of
flooding.
C. There will be an increase in atmospheric carbon Question 17
dioxide concentration, which will contribute to climate
change.

D. There will be a decrease in the temperature of soil

and nearby bodies of water, which will increase
biodiversity.

Question 14

Which of the following would decrease with the

manufacture, application, and use of synthetic
fertilizers rather than organic fertilizers?

A. Recycling of organic matter

B. Groundwater pollution

C. Cultural eutrophication Which of the following methods of meat production

D. Use of fossil fuels
Question 15
Which of the following describes an unintended
consequence that results from large-scale agricultural
use of water from an aquifer?
A. The water table level rises too high, leading to
excessive flooding.
B. Much of the water becomes too salty for human
consumption because of saltwater intrusion.
C. Agricultural areas contribute to increased carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere, leading to global climate
change.
would provide the most likely explanation for the
information represented in the graph above?
A. Individual transferable quotas
B. Concentrated animal feeding operations
C. Free-range grazing
D. Organic meat production
Question 18
Which of the following is a direct economic advantage
associated with aquaculture?
A. Aquaculture reduces the number of fishing
operations in an area.

D. The rate of water use likely exceeds the rate of B. Aquaculture produces large amounts of seafood for
recharge, leading to lowering the water table. human purchase and consumption year-round.

Question 16 C. Aquaculture breeds genetically modified fish to

Which of the following best describes the advantages
and disadvantages of drip irrigation?
A. This method most efficiently delivers water directly
to plant roots compared with other methods, and
wastes less water, but it may be too costly for farmers
in developing countries to use.
B. This method is suitable for a range of topographies
and is easy to operate, but it requires a high initial
investment in machinery.
C. This method delivers water to the field by pipes
and water flows directly over the soil, but there is a
large amount of runoff.
D. This method delivers water to the field by pipes
and water flows directly over the soil, but there is a
large amount of runoff.
increase the amount of biodiversity in the population.
D. Aquaculture requires large bodies of water for its
operations.
Question 19
Environmentalists oppose the mining of Antarctic
mineral resources because
A. territorial claims to Antarctica are unresolved
B. the Antarctic environment is fragile and extremely
vulnerable to the disturbances
that would accompany development
C. currently known world reserves of important metals
and oils are considered inexhaustible
D. the existence of valuable mineral deposits in the
Antarctic environment is unlikely
 AP Environmental Science: Unit – 6 - Energy C. Spain
Resources and Consumption Practice Test
D. Japan
Question 1
E. France
What is geothermal energy?
Question 6
A. energy of moving water
Which of the following pairs is the predominant source
B. wind energy of fuel for electricity generation in the United States?

C. nuclear energy A. Natural Gas and Oil

D. heat energy from below Earth's surface B. Oil and Coal

Question 2 C. Nuclear fuels and Solar Power

Under normal circumstances, which kind of fuel does D. Coal and Natural Gas
NOT pollute the air?
E. Hydroelectric dams and Oil
A. coal
Question 7
B. oil
Which of the following is NOT a true advantage of
C. natural gas utilizing coal as an energy source?

D. nuclear A. Clean coal technology is a promising technology

that reduces the environmental
Question 3
impact of modern coal plants.
Which is (are) true about wind energy?
B. Coal is very energy-dense and has a high energy
A. It is less expensive than fossil fuels. yield.
B. It is difficult to utilize in areas with low wind C. Coal produces relatively low sulfur emissions when
availability. burned.
C. It is a renewable source of energy. D. Coal is abundant and confirmed reserves are
predicted to last three hundred years.
D. It utilizes small or large areas of land not previously
used. E. Coal can be extracted and processed domestically,
potentially reducing U.S. dependency on foreign oil.
Question 4
Question 8
The largest renewable source of electricity generation
in the United States is Which of the following pairs of factors have placed the
United States in a position of dependency on foreign
A. Wind
oil?
B. Solar
A. The environmental and labor regulations for oil
C. Biomass refining in the U.S. are more costly to firms than the
duties and tariffs from importing oil from less
D. Geothermal regulated countries.
E. Hydroelectric B. Disproportionately high demand for fossil fuels and
a low capacity to produce domestic petrol.
Question 5
C. Superior fuel quality from Middle Eastern-sourced
Which country has the greatest number of nuclear
petroleum and low import tariffs.
power plants on a per capita basis?
D. Most U.S. oil reserves have been exhausted and
A. England
most oil-rich Middle-Eastern nations are politically
B. United States very stable and offer reliable trade agreements.
E. Trade agreements made with OPEC and a per
capita demand that far outpaces much of the world.
Question 9
Hydraulic fracturing, also called "fracking," is
__________.
A. a way to extract oil from underground sources
B. the splitting apart of water molecules
C. a result of earthquakes
D. a method of deforestation used primarily in
Northern Europe
E. a tool used by humanitarian groups to disperse
water
Question 10
All of the following are true of fossil fuels EXCEPT for
which answer choice?
A. Fossil fuels are relatively cheap to extract.
B. Extracting fossil fuels creates jobs and boosts the
economy.
C. It takes a very long time for fossil fuels to form.
D. Fossil fuels are cleaner sources of energy than
geothermal energy.
E. At this point in history, fossil fuels are relatively
plentiful.
Question 11
The most common nuclear fuel used to produce a
fission chain reaction in a nuclear weapon is:
A. Uranium-238
B. Uranium-238
C. Plutonium-238
D. Plutonium-240
E. Uranium-235
Question 12
Which of the following is a pressing issue with the
production of nuclear energy?
A. Destruction as a result from frequent nuclear blasts
B. Where to store spent fuel waste
C. Prices for energy are too low for it to be profitable
D. Heavy air pollution
E. Various cancers afflicting local wildlife
Question 13
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of
building dams to generate hydro-electric power?
A. Dams often change the current and width of a
watershed, altering the riparian ecosystem.
B. Animals that rely on fish as sustenance may begin
to decline because the dam has permanently altered
fish habitat.
C. Dams can contribute to flooding and resulting
property damage.
D. The energy required to operate and maintain the
dam is often equal to the energy produced by the
dam.
E. Many fish populations (including salmon and trout)
are decimated because dams restrict access to
essential habitat.
Question 14
An important renewable energy source is solar power.
Solar power works by storing sunlight in batteries
using which type of cells?
A. Thermal cells
B. Eukaryotic cells
C. Photovoltaic cells
D. Radiation cells
Question 15
Scientists agree that this option holds the most
promise for an efficient, cheap, and environmentally
safe source of fuel.
A. Ethanol made from corn
B. Ethanol made from cellulosic plants
C. Agricultural wastes
D. Biodiesel made from corn
E. Proton pumps
Question 16
Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages
of natural gas as an energy source?
A. Burning it releases no pollutants.
B. It is efficient for cooking and home heating.
C. It can be used as a fuel for vehicles.
D. It is abundant. AP Environmental Science: Unit – 7 - Atmospheric
Pollution Practice Test
E. It can be stored and transported.
Question 1
Question 17
Which of the following is an example of a secondary
Currently, most high-level radioactive waste from pollutant?
nuclear reactors in the United States is
A. Ozone
A. stored in deep ocean trenches.
B. Carbon Monoxide
B. buried in Yucca Mountain.
C. Carbon Dioxide
C. reprocessed into new fuel pellets.
D. Sulfur Dioxide
D. chemically modified into safe materials.
E. Nitrogen Dioxide
E. stored at the power plant that produced it.
Question 2
Question 18Which of the following is true of passive
solar designs? Which of the following indoor air pollutants is a type of
radioactive gas that seeps into a home through cracks
A. These designs use mechanical and electrical in the foundation or soil, and may cause lung cancer?
devices for heating and cooling.
A. Asbestos
B. These designs have windows, walls, and floors that
are made to collect, store, and distribute solar energy B. Carbon monoxide
in the form of heat in the winter, and reject solar heat
in the summer. C. Radon

C. These designs have solar hot water systems which D. VOCs

use pumps or fans to circulate fluid.
E. Mercury
D. These designs use low-impact building materials
Question 3
and permeable concrete instead of conventional
concrete to enhance the replenishment of ground Which piece of legislation was the first that addressed
water. air pollution as a national problem and announced
that research and additional steps to improve the
E. These designs include onsite generation of
situation needed to be taken?
renewable energy through solar power, wind power,
hydro power, or biomass. A. Air Pollution Control Act
Question 19 B. Clean Air Act
Which of the following nonrenewable energy sources C. National Environmental Policy Act
produces less SO2 and NOx than other fossil fuels
when burned, leading to less of an impact on acid rain D. Pollution Prevention Act
and photochemical smog?
E. U.S.–Canada Air Quality Agreement
A. Coal
Question 4This form of smog tends to be sulfur-based
B. Oil (also known as grey-smog):

C. Natural gas A. organic smog

D. Nuclear power B. photochemical smog

E. Hydroelectric C. urban smog

D. industrial smog

E. none of the other answers are correct

Question 5 C. carbon monoxide

Which of the following has the EPA classified as D. tropospheric ozone

criteria air pollutants?
Question 10
A. carbon monoxide
Which of the following government agencies is
B. sulfur dioxide responsible for the Clean Air Act?

C. particulate matter A. the USGS

D. nitrogen dioxide B. the USDA

E. all of these are classified as criteria air pollutants C. the EPA

Question 6 D. the USDOJ

During prolonged periods of __________, air Question 11

pollutants build up and are trapped in a dense, cool
layer of air beneath a layer of less dense, warm air. Which two primary pollutants most often result in acid
rain?
A. Upwelling
A. sulfuric dioxide and nitric oxide
B. Photochemical smog
B. carbon monoxide and VOCs
C. Temperature inversion
C. ZEVs and VOCs
D. Front collision
D. carbonic acid and citric acid
Question 7
Question 12
Acidification of lake and reservoir surface waters is
caused by what type of pollutants? A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors,
which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.
A. Water pollutants only
A. Water droplets
B. Air & water pollutants
B. Allergens
C. Air pollutants only
C. Particulate matter
D. None of these
D. Combustibles
Question 8
Question 13
This primary pollutant creates a reddish-brown gas
creating photochemical smog and tropospheric ozone. The 3 main anthropogenic sources of gaseous air
pollutants in the US are
A. sulfuric acid
A. soil erosion, volcanoes, and forest fires
B. VOC
B. industry, transportation and agriculture
C. nitrogen dioxide
C. industry, transportation, and energy production
D. particulate matter
D. industry, transportation and agriculture
Question 9
Question 14
This atmospheric compound is critical to the planet in
its protection against UV radiation, but when found Which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air
close to the ground is part of photochemical smog that pollutants as specified under the Clean Air Act?
can cause serious health problems.
A. Pb, SO2, NOX, CO, PM, and tropospheric O3
A. particulate matter
B. Tropospheric O3, SO2, NOX, PM, Pb, and CO2
B. carbon monoxide
C. SO4, NOX, CO, PM, Pb, and tropospheric O3
D. SO2, NOX, CO, Hg, PM, and tropospheric O3 Question 19

Question 15 The sound level which is comfortable for the human

ear.
One of the negative effects of air pollution is that it
can cause problems in the ozone layer. Which class A. 80-85 decibels
of chemicals are known to deplete ozone?
B. 120-125 decibels
A. Methane
C. 60-65 decibels
B. Sulfur dioxide
D. 100-105 decibels
C. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

D. Carbon dioxide
AP Environmental Science: Unit – 8 - Aquatic and
Question 16 Terrestrial Pollution Practice Test

It is a complex mixture of air pollutants produced in Question 1

the lower atmosphere by the reaction of hydrocarbons
and nitrogen oxides under the influence of sunlight. Its Consumption of which hazardous material is known to
harmful components include ozone, peroxyacyl affect the thyroid gland?
nitrates and various aldehydes.
A. Lead
A. Temperature Inversion
B. DDT
B. Industrial Smog
C. Mercury
C. Photochemical Smog
D. Perchlorates
D. Indoor air pollution
E. PCBs
Question 17
Question 2
This phenomenon involves a layer of dense, cool air
The legislation that sets the national standards for
trapped under a layer of less dense, warm air. It
safe drinking water is known as the
prevents upward-flowing air currents from developing.
When prolonged, air pollution in the trapped layer may A. Clean Water Act
build up to harmful levels.
B. Safe Drinking Water Act
A. Thermal Inversion
C. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
B. Warm Front
D. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
C. Photochemical Smog
E. Water Quality Act
D. Greenhouse Gas
Question 3
Question 18
Which type of pollution is most likely to be present at
According to the study of World Health Organization, a coal mining site in rural Virginia?
among teenagers and young adults, aged 12-35 years
old, around 50% are exposed to unsafe levels of A. Light pollution
sound from _____.
B. Air pollution
A. damaging sounds of concerts
C. Thermal pollution
B. transportation sounds
D. Water pollution
C. daily exposure to television sound
E. Radiation
D. personal audio devices
Question 4 E. Vacuum and centrifuge

Transit Company A and Waste Company B were Question 8

contracted to transport and store hazardous industrial
waste products and it was found that their holding The process of recycling a product into the same
tanks were corroded and leaking hazardous contents. product is known as:
The disposal site is designated a superfund site and
A. solid waste recycling
will require federal funding for environmental cleanup.
Under which articles of federal legislation could this B. open-loop recycling
company be held financially liable for the cost of
cleanup? C. closed-loop recycling

A. ESA (Endangered Species Act) D. recombinant recycling

B. CWA (Clean Water Act) E. reuse recycling

C. FIFRA (Federal Insecticide Fungicide and Question 9

Rodenticide Act)
One of the big contributors to water pollution in the
D. CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental Great Lakes is eutrophication. Which of the following
Response Compensation and Liability Act) is least likely to cause eutrophication?

E. RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act) A. Agricultural runoff

Question 5 B. Lawn fertilizers

Which of the following is least likely to be a dangerous C. Stormwater runoff

consequence of leachate from a sanitary landfill?
A. The leachate can leak into nearby soils
B. The leachate can be classified as toxic waste and
have to be treated accordingly
C. The leachate can be at a high temperature
D. The leachate can contain toxic metal compounds
E. The leachate can leak into groundwater
Question 6
Eutrophication is due to an excess of what nutrients?
A. Carbon and Oxygen
B. Phosphorus and Sulfur
C. Nitrogen and Phosphorus
D. Nitrogen and Carbon
Question 7
D. Wetland habitat
Question 10
Many times eutrophication creates dead zones or
hypoxic zones in bodies of water. The most famous
dead zone in North America occurs where the
Mississippi River outflows into the Gulf of Mexico.
What important resource do dead zones not have?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Potassium
Question 11
Pollution is one of the major environmental issues
affecting humans today. Urbanization has created the
heat island effect. What type of pollution are heat
islands?

Which of the following is the most controversial A. Chemical pollution

method for oil spill cleanup?
B. Noise pollution
A. Contain the spill using booms, and collect the oil
C. Water pollution
from the surface of the water using skimmers
D. Thermal pollution
B. Use chemical dispersants to break down the oil

C. Add biological agents to the spill

D. Let the oil breakdown naturally

Question 12
Electronic waste such as cathode ray tube televisions
and computer monitors may contain this toxic metal.
A. Cadmium
B. Aluminum
C. Copper
D. Titanium
E. Silicon
Question 13
Which Act is the principal federal law governing the
disposal of solid waste and hazardous waste?
A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
B. Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act
C. Toxic Substances Control Act
D. Occupational Safety and Health Act
E. National Environmental Policy Act
Question 14
The increasing concentration of a toxic substance in
the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels
of the food chain is known as
A. Biomagnification
B. Bioaccumulation
C. Bio-dilution
D. Bioconcentration
E. Biocide
Question 15
Which of the following is considered a point source of
water pollution?
A. Sewage treatment plant discharging wastewater
form a pipe into the ocean
B. Erosion from agricultural areas
C. Storm runoff from parking lots
D. Fertilizers from a golf course
E. Excessive use of insecticides from a timber stand
Question 16
Which of the following sources of hazardous
substances contaminates water when drinking water
passes through pipes in older homes and can
potentially damage the nervous system and kidneys?
A. Arsenic
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Acid deposition
E. Synthetic Organic Compounds
Question 17
Tim is the Director of U.S. Operations atop a
multinational oil and petroleum company, Company X.
The United States refining facility is producing a liquid
byproduct and Tim has made the executive decision
to dispose of the waste products in the river that runs
alongside the facility. To abide by federal law,
Company X will need to apply for a discharge permit
through the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination
System (NPDES). Which specific federal law imposes
the permitting system for point-source discharge of
pollutants into "navigable waters"?
A. CWA (Clean Water Act)
B. CERCLA (Comprehensive Environmental
Response Compensation and Liability Act)
C. ESA (Endangered Species Act)
D. RCRA (Resource Conservation and Recovery Act)
E. NEPA (National Environmental Policy Act)
Question 18
Small, fish-eating bacteria and phytoplankton, which
both contain relatively high levels of mercury, is an
example of:
A. phytoextraction
B. phytoremediation
C. bioaccumulation
D. bioremediation
E. biomagnification
Question 19
During the process of sewage treatment, which stage
removes large objects, such as leaves, diapers,
tampons, and wet-wipes?
A. Pretreatment
B. Primary Treatment
C. Secondary Treatment Question 22

D. Tertiary Treatment This graph shows the sources of the nitrogen entering
the Gulf of Mexico as pollution. What is one
E. Autolysis conclusion you can make based on the information in
the graph?
Question 20

Fishermen have harvested certain fish to the point

where the population of that fish is decreasing. This
level of direct harvesting could cause

A. ecosystems to be improved for future generations

B. ecosystems to be severely damaged

C. the restoration of environmental stability

D. all other fish species to increase in number

Question 21

The diagram below shows the relationship between

some of the organisms in a marine food web. Which
of the following is MOST LIKELY to happen if a large
number of phytoplankton are killed from runoff
entering the ocean?
A. Nitrogen that comes from the atmosphere is more
harmful than nitrogen that comes from crops.

B. Most nitrogen pollution found in the Gulf of Mexico

comes from farming crops.

C. Corn and soybeans are the only crops associated

with nitrogen pollution.

D. Nitrogen is not a problem in the Gulf of Mexico.

Question 23

The tall wetland plant, purple loosestrife, was brought

A. The number of porpoises would probably stay the
same because porpoises are far removed from
phytoplankton in the food web.
from Europe to the United States in the early 1800s
as a garden plant. The plant's growth is now so
widespread across the United States that it is
crowding out a number of native plants. This situation
is an example of
A. an unintended effect of adding a species to an
ecosystem

B. The number of zooplankton would probably B. the results of the use of pesticides
increase because they wouldn’t have to compete with
phytoplankton for food. C. the recycling of nutrients

C. The number of salmon would probably decrease D. the flow of energy present in all ecosystems
because there would be less food available for
zooplankton and herring.
AP Environmental Science: Unit – 9 - Global
D. The Sun would probably not emit as much energy
Change Practice Test
because there would not be as many phytoplankton in
the ocean. Question 1

Which of the following has the greatest Global

Warming Potential (GWP)?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Chlorofluorocarbons — Fire extinguishers

B. Methane C. Nitrous oxide — Cellular respiration

C. Nitrous oxide D. Methane — Plastic manufacturing

D. Fluorinated gases E. Sulfur hexafluoride — Rice cultivation

E. Carbon monoxide Question 6

Question 2 Over the past 100 years, global temperatures have:

The melting of glaciers causes which of the following? A. increased steadily.

A. Landslides B. increased, with virtually of all the increase

occurring in the last 40 years.
B. Flash floods
C. fluctuated within a narrow range, with no net
C. Glacial lake overflow increase.
D. Displacement of people who depend on glacial D. increased, with most of the increase occurring from
melting as a water source 1940 to 1980.
E. All of the above E. decreased steadily, before a sharp increase in the
last 20 years.
Question 3
Question 7
The International Union for Conservation of Nature
uses five categories to define the status of a species. Which of the following agreements was designed to
Which category refers to a group of species that is protect the ozone layer by phasing out the global
widespread and abundant? production of numerous substances which cause
ozone depletion?
A. Data-deficient
A. Clean Air Act
B. Extinct
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Threatened
C. Paris Agreement
D. Near-threatened
D. Montreal Protocol
E. Least concern
E. Air Pollution Control Act
Question 4
Question 8
In the 1600s, honeybees (Apis melifera) were
introduced to North America to provide a source of This 1992 UN treaty to reduce greenhouse gases
honey for European colonists. This makes honeybees placed binding emission reduction
a(n):
targets on developed countries:
A. Native species
A. Clean Air Act
B. Exotic species
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Threatened species
C. Paris Agreement
D. Invasive species
D. Montreal Protocol
E. Invasive alien species
E. Air Pollution Control Act
Question 5

Which greenhouse gas is correctly paired with its

source?

A. Carbon dioxide — Burning coal and oil

Question 9 D. I, II & III

Which of the following is NOT a naturally occurring Question 12

greenhouse gas?
How do CFCs affect ozone production?
A. Methane
A. UV radiation frees a chlorine atom, which breaks
B. Nitrous oxide down ozone.

C. Chlorofluorocarbons B. Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which

breaks down ozone.
D. Carbon dioxide
C. UV radiation frees a fluorine atom, which breaks
E. Water vapor down ozone.
Question 10 D. Infrared radiation frees a chlorine atom, which
breaks down ozone.
A strategy for pollution control that involves
regulations and enforcement mechanisms is Question 13
known as the Which chemical that replaced CFCs in refrigerants is
now a concern as a major greenhouse gas?
A. command-and-control approach.
A. CFCs
B. incentive-based approach.
B. HFCs
C. green tax approach.
C. DDT
D. triple bottom line approach.
D. CFCl2
E. environmental justice approach.
Question 14
Question 11
Too many greenhouse gasses in the atmosphere may
Which is (are) True about the breakdown of
block heat from escaping into space and trap too
stratospheric ozone?
much heat next to the Earth’s surface causing
I. It can originate from the emission of _____________.
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
A. another ice age
II. It is catalyzed through a free chlorine (Cl) atom.
B. earthquakes
III. It prevents UV rays from reaching the earth’s
C. volcanic eruptions
surface.
D. global warming

Question 15

Antarctica has been losing about 134 billion metric

tons of ice per year since 2002. What is the reason of
this?

A. solar radiation that has bounced off the earth’s

surface

B. producing about two billion tons of CO2 every year

C. Coal-burning power plants

D. all of them
A. I only

B. I & II only

C. III only
Question 16 A. The Fossil Fuel Burning Act of 2000

Which isn’t a consequence of global warming? B. Congressional Bill 78655

A. more dramatic water shortages and increasing the C. The Endangered Species Act of 1973
risk of wildfires
D. Project Save
B. coastal flooding on the Eastern Seaboard,
especially in Florida, and in other areas such as the
Gulf of Mexico.

C. driving many plant and animal species to

extinction.

D. burning fossil fuels

Question 17

When taken to a new habitat, non-native plants often

threaten native plants of the new habitat. Why do they
do this?

A. Non-native plants are able to mutate rapidly

B. Non-native plants cause native animals to relocate

C. Non-native plants are able to be used for medicine

D. Non-native plants compete with native plants for

resources

Question 18

What effect will an invasive species have on the

carrying capacity of an ecosystem?

A. The carrying capacity will increase

B. The carrying capacity for everyone will decrease

C. The carrying capacity will only decrease for those

in competition for same resource

D. The carrying capacity for all animals will stay the

same

Question 19

The primary causes of extinction (and endangerment

and threatened status) is

A. polar ice cap melting

B. global warming

C. habitat loss and degradation

D. burning of fossil fuels

Question 20

The act to prevent extinction, recover imperiled plants

and animals, and protect

the ecosystems on which they depend upon is called