PRETEST

Science

This Science Pretest is designed to introduce you to this section of the GED®
test and to give you a good idea of your current skill level in this subject
area.
This test has 40 items. The questions are in the same formats as the ones
on the real exam and are designed to measure the same skills. Many of the
questions are based on short reading passages on science topics. Some are
based on scientific illustrations, diagrams, or other graphics. Most of the
questions are in multiple-choice format, but you will also see questions that
ask you to draw a line, indicate a point on a diagram, or fill in a blank. On
the real GED® test, you will indicate your answers by clicking on the
computer screen. For this paper-and-pencil practice test, mark your answers
directly on the page. You may use a calculator.
To get a good idea of how you will do on the real exam, take this test
under actual exam conditions. Complete the test in one session and follow the
given time limit. If you do not complete the test in the time allowed, you will
know that you need to work on improving your pacing.
Try to answer as many questions as you can. There is no penalty for
wrong answers, so guess if you have to. In multiple-choice questions, if you
can eliminate one or more answer choices, you can increase your chances of
guessing correctly.
After you have finished the test, check your answers in the Answers and
Explanations section that follows the pretest. Then use the Evaluation Chart
at the end of the Answers and Explanations section to determine the skills
and content areas in which you need more practice.
Now turn the page and begin the Science Pretest.

PRETEST
Science

40 questions | 90 minutes

Use the table for Items 1 and 2:

Surface Temperature Ranges per Star Class

&
1. Using the information in the table, which color star is produced by the
widest range of surface temperatures?
A. white
B. yellow
C. orange
D. blue-white

2. Write the appropriate class from the table in the blank.

The Sun is classified as a Class __________________
yellow star because it
has a surface temperature of approximately 5778 K.

Use the following passage for Items 3 and 4:

Blood calcium levels are tightly regulated in the human body by the
hormones calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH). When calcium levels
become too high or low, the thyroid or parathyroid gland produces the
appropriate hormone to return the body to homeostasis. The diagram shows
the feedback mechanism for regulating blood calcium levels.
3. Which food is most likely to cause the greatest increase in calcitonin
production when eaten?
A. rice, because it is an easily digested carbohydrate
B. orange, because it is a good source of vitamin C
C. yogurt, because it is high in bone-strengthening minerals
 D. squash, because it is a rich source of vitamins and fiber

4. The ability to maintain blood calcium homeostasis depends on the

interactions of several different body systems. Draw a line to connect
each body system to the role it plays in maintaining calcium homeostasis.

5. The diagram below shows the skulls of two different animals. One of the
animals is an herbivore, and the other is a carnivore. The skulls’ teeth
provide evidence about the type of diet each animal ate. Write your
answers in the blanks.
Skull A is that of a/an __________________.
Carnivore

Skull B is that of a/an __________________.

Herbivore
Use the passage and diagram for Items 6 through 8:

The following diagram identifies homologous structures in the forelimbs of

seven different species.
The term homologous means similar. Scientists use homologous structures
as evidence of common ancestry. Through the process of natural selection,
structures inherited from a common ancestor become modified to allow each
descendant species to best adapt to its unique environment.

6. The homologies in the seven species’ forelimbs result from similarities

in
A. metabolism.
 species that share common

ancestors will have similarities

in their DNA , which stores the

B. genetic code. genetic code

.
The species similar
genetic code produce the homologous
C. environments. structure
.

D. reproductive strategies.

7. Considering the homologies shown in the diagram, humans likely share

the most recent ancestor with which species?
A. cat
B. bat
C. bird
D. whale

8. Which one of the following adaptations allows bat wings to fan out to
support flying?
A. carpals
B. additional phalanges
C. reduced phalanges
D. specialized phalanges

Use the passage for Items 9 and 10:

Photosynthesis is the chemical process of using the energy in sunlight to

produce glucose. Respiration is the chemical process of converting glucose
to energy that can be used by the cell. The chemical equations for both
processes are shown below.
9. Write the appropriate number from the photosynthesis equation in each of
the blanks.
Photosynthesis requires __________________
6 molecules of carbon
dioxide and __________________
6 molecules of water to produce
1 molecule of glucose.

10. Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the

processes of photosynthesis and respiration?
A. The reactants of photosynthesis are also used as the reactants for
respiration.
B. The energy produced by respiration is used to fuel the photosynthesis
reaction.
C. Photosynthesis and respiration are two different processes for
producing glucose.
D. The chemical products of photosynthesis are used as the reactants for
respiration.

Use the maps for Items 11 and 12:

In areas where natural hazards occur frequently, specific precautions are

often taken to reduce the impact when natural hazards do occur. Examine
the areas in the maps with the highest incidence of each type of natural
hazard.

11. Draw a line to connect each state to the precaution that would be most
useful.
12. Using the information in the maps, which state most likely lies closest to
a tectonic plate boundary?
A. Colorado
B. Louisiana
C. New Jersey
D. Washington

Use the passage for Items 13 and 14:

The carbon cycle describes the constant exchange of carbon among the
atmosphere, land, and ocean. The following diagram depicts carbon
cycle processes. The numbers on the diagram represent the approximate
number of gigatons of carbon located in different portions of the cycle.

13. On the diagram, indicate the process that removes the greatest proportion
of carbon from the atmosphere.
14. Using the information in the diagram, how many gigatons (GT) of carbon
are estimated to be stored in fossil fuel deposits?
A. 7 GT
B. 300 GT
C. 2000 GT
D. 2300 GT

Use the passage for Items 15 through 18:

Newton’s Second Law of Motion states that an object’s acceleration is

proportional to the total net force acting on the object, or force = mass ×
acceleration.
Acceleration can be calculated using the following formula:

Velocity is defined as an object’s speed in a given direction. Velocity is

positive when an object is moving forward, and negative when the object
is moving in reverse. Acceleration is the change in an object’s velocity
over time.
A race car driver is practicing on a linear track. The following graph
tracks the race car’s velocity, in meters per minute, during the practice
session.
Speed (scalar quantity) > only magnitude

velocity (vector quantity) > direction and magnitude

V
, = + 12m/s
constant velocity
vz = -

12 m/s &

decelerate
a c e l e r a te
&
X

15. Using the information in the passage, mark an X on the graph at the point
where the race car changes direction from forward to reverse. (Note:
On the real GED® test, you will click on the graph to mark the point.)

16. According to the graph, what is the race car’s acceleration between 0
and 10 minutes?
6000 0 (m/min) Speed and velocity= time
n
A. 600 m/min v
-

a =
I

10 (min)
acceleration
=

B. 600 m/min2 600 e

m/min
=
?

C. 600 m2/min2
D. 600 (m/min)2

17. An object traveling at a constant velocity has no acceleration. According

to the graph, the race car’s velocity was constant between 10 and 15
minutes. Which statement best describes the forces acting on the race car
during this period? F = ma

A. The forces acting on the race car were balanced. netorce

B. Gravity was the only force acting on the race car.
C. No forces were acting on the race car during this period. Fi E2
net force =
Fi-F2

D. The race car’s force was greater than the force of friction. a = G = constant
F= ma

F = m(0) = 0

net force = 0
18. A driver applies the brakes of a car to exert a constant force. Which type
of velocity-time graph would best describe the car’s acceleration?
A. Straight line graph with a slope of zero
B. Exponential line that curves downward with a generally negative
slope slope-slope
+

C. Straight line graph with a negative slope

deceleration
acceleration

D. Exponential line that curves upward with a generally positive slope

Use the following passage and diagram for Item 19:

Centrifugation is the process of spinning a solution at high speed to

separate the solution’s components by density. Centrifugation is often
used to isolate the specific components of a blood sample for further
analysis.
19. According to the diagram, which component has the highest density?
A. plasma
B. whole blood density-massse
C. red blood cells
D. white blood cells

Use the diagram for Item 20:

20. Which statement describes a weakness in the model of a carbon atom?
A. The electrons are drawn smaller than the protons.
B. Protons and neutrons are shown in the atom’s nucleus.
C. The electrons are shown on fixed paths around the nucleus.
D. The numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons are the same.

Use the passage for Item 21:

A 70% concentration of isopropyl alcohol is often used as a disinfectant

for medical equipment such as thermometers and stethoscopes. The
initial volume of 90% isopropyl alcohol needed to produce a batch of
70% isopropyl alcohol can be calculated using the following formula:
(90%)(initial volume) = (70%)(final volume)
Y X

21. How many milliliters of 90% isopropyl alcohol are needed to create 1
liter of 70% isopropyl alcohol?
final volume
milli = 10-3

A. 0.00129 mL 1L 10-2
=

centi
70(x)
=

90(y) =

B. 0.78 mL Y = 0

=c 0 78L - mL
C. 1.29 mL
= .

Y
= 0 78 L
D. 780 mL 70C u
.

= 0 . 78
Y = 0 78 L mL
10-3
.

0 78 .

1000
= 0 . 78 x 1000

= 780 mL
Use the chart and graph for Item 22:

22. The concentration of substances in a mixture can be expressed in

multiple formats. Using the information in the table and graph, what
percent of the atmosphere’s total volume is made up of hydrogen?
A. 0.00005% 0 5 .

= 0 00005
.
%
10 ,
B. 0.5%
000

C. 5.0%
D. 50.0%

Use the passage for Item 23:

Ocean currents are streams of water that flow in continuous, directed

paths within the ocean. Currents moving through the upper 400 meters of
the ocean are classified as surface currents. Currents that flow at greater
depths are classified as deep water currents.
23. Which type(s) of currents can be better understood by studying the paths
of global wind patterns?
A. surface currents
B. deep water currents
C. both surface and deep water currents
D. neither surface nor deep water currents

Use the passage for Item 24:

Work is done when a force applied to an object causes the object to

move a distance. The amount of work done can be determined by
multiplying the force applied by the distance moved (W = f × d).

24. Sliding a box up a ramp into the back of a moving van requires the same
amount of work as lifting the box from the ground into the van. If the
amount of work is the same, what benefit does using a ramp provide?
A. increasing the force required to move the box
B. decreasing the force required to move the box
C. decreasing the total distance moved by the box
D. increasing the total distance moved by the box

Use the two diagrams below for Items 25 and 26:

25. Which type of radiation can have a wavelength larger than a human?
A. radio
B. microwave
C. visible light
D. gamma ray

26. Sunscreen lotions and sprays are designed to provide a barrier against
UVA and UVB rays only. What information in the diagrams explains why
sunscreens are not designed to protect against UVC rays?
A. UVC is extremely dangerous.
B. UVA and UVB cause skin cancer.
C. UVC is blocked by the ozone layer.
D. UVA and UVB have higher wavelengths.

27. Energy stored in chemical bonds is called chemical energy. Which of the
following objects stores chemical energy?
 A. light bulb
B. solar panel
C. alkaline battery
D. electrical outlet

Use the diagram for Item 28:

28. Restaurant health and safety guidelines require poultry to be cooked to a

minimum internal temperature of 165 degrees. On which temperature
scale is this guideline based?
A. Kelvin
B. Celsius
 C. Fahrenheit
D. none of these

Use the table for Item 29:

Chemical processes can be categorized as endothermic or exothermic.

Examples of each type of process are listed in the following table.

29. Which generalization can be made based on the examples in the table?
A. A reaction that releases heat is endothermic.
B. A reaction that releases energy is exothermic.
C. Exothermic reactions have a net increase in energy.
D. Endothermic reactions neither absorb nor release heat.

Use the following information for Items 30 through 32:

Relationships Within an Ecosystem

 The European woodwasp is an invasive species that is thought to have
been accidentally introduced into the United States in a wood shipment in
2004. The European woodwasp feeds on pine trees. It can also carry a
fungus that kills pine trees.

30. What type of relationship exists between the European woodwasp and
pine trees?
A. commensalism
B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predation

31. The introduction of the European woodwasp is most likely to disrupt

pine forest ecosystems in which way?
A. increased competition among consumers
B. loss of habitat for tree-dwelling organisms
C. water contamination by decaying pine trees
D. disease transmission to other insect species

32. A bee and a flower are an example of which type of relationship?

A. commensalism
 B. mutualism
C. parasitism
D. predation

Use the passage for Item 33:

A genetic carrier is an individual who has one copy of the gene for a
recessive genetic disease and one healthy gene. Since two copies of the
disease gene are required to produce the disease, a carrier does not have
the disease but can pass on the gene to children.

33. After undergoing genetic screening, a pregnant woman learns that she is
a carrier for two genetic diseases: cystic fibrosis and spinal muscular
atrophy. Her husband is not a carrier for either disease. What is the
probability that the couple’s child will be a carrier for at least one of the
two diseases?
A. 0% & x 100 = 75 %

B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

Use the passage and the diagram for Item 34:

Mitosis is the process of dividing a cell’s nuclear material to produce

two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the cell contains two
copies, or pairs, of each chromosome. These chromosome pairs line up
and then separate, so that each new daughter cell will receive one
complete set of chromosomes. The diagram shows the major stages of
mitosis.
34. According to the diagram, chromosome pairs separate during which
stage of mitosis?
A. prophase
B. anaphase
C. telophase
D. metaphase
35. Essential functions of life are those functions that must be carried out by
all living things. Which function is not essential to all life?
A. growth
B. metabolism
C. reproduction
D. thermoregulation

Use the two diagrams below for Items 36 and 37:

36. What percentage of the energy available at the producer level is
transferred all the way to the tertiary consumer level?
A. 0%
B. 0.1%
C. 10%
D. 25%

37. Which of the following members of the ecosystem would be considered

a secondary consumer?
A. mice because they feed on a producer
B. rabbits because they have two food sources
C. grasshoppers because they have two predators
D. birds because they feed on a primary consumer

38. The equation for photosynthesis is shown below.

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Which of these correctly identifies the products in the equation?
A. glucose, oxygen
B. carbon dioxide, water
C. oxygen, carbon dioxide
the leads to hormone secretion
pressure

that evolves a response (muscle contraction)

that furthers the increased more pressure.