1. When is the revised penal code took effect?

a) January 3, 1932
b) January 1, 1932
c) January 5, 1932
d) January 7, 1935

ANSWER: b) January 1, 1932

2. What book of the revised penal code that provides the general provisions on the
application of the law, and the general principles of criminal law?

a) Revised penal code book three

b) Revised penal code book four
c) Revised penal code book one
d) Revised penal code book two

ANSWER: c) REVISED PENAL CODE BOOK ONE

3. What book of revised penal code on the other hand defines the specific crimes and the
penalties imposable under each crime?

a) Revised penal code book one

b) Revised penal code book two
c) Revised penal code book three
d) Revised penal code book four

ANSWER: b) REVISED PENAL CODE BOOK TWO

4. It is the general penal laws of the Philippines.

a) The revised penal code

b) Republic act
c) Felony
d) Crime

ANSWER: a) THE REVISED PENAL CODE

5. The following are crimes against the law of nation except one?

a) Inciting to war giving motives for reprisal (Art. 118)

b) Flight to enemies country (Art. 121)
c) Treason (Art. 114)
d) Violation of neutrality (Art. 119)

ANSWER: c) TREASON
6. It is the branch of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes
allegiance to it.

a) Misprision of treason (Art. 116)

b) Treason (Art. 114)
c) Espionage (Art. 117)
d) Violation of neutrality (Art. 119)

ANSWER: b) TREASON (Art. 114)

7. It is defined as the physical activity, that deed that constitutes rendering of aid or
comfort.
a) Covert
b) Overt
c) Dolo
d) Culpa

ANSWER: b) OVERT

8. It is the offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information respecting the national

defense with intent or reason to believe that the information is to be used to the injury of
the Republic of the Philippines or to the advantage of foreign nation.

a) Treason (Art. 114)

b) Violation of neutrality (Art. 119)
c) Direct assault (Art. 148)
d) Espionage (Art. 117)

ANSWER: d) ESPIONAGE

9. What is Art.124 of the revised penal code book two?

a) Delaying Release
b) Rape
c) Arbitrary detention
d) Adultery

ANSWER: c) ARBITRARY DETENTION

10. It is an order writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by a
judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property
described therein and bring it before the court.

a) Arrest
b) Warrant of arrest
c) Search warrant
d) Alias warrant

ANSWER: c) SEARCH WARRANT

11. It is a taking of person in custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of offense.

a) Bench warrant
b) Alias warrant
c) Arrest
d) Warrant of arrest

12. It is a judge order to law enforcement officers to arrest and bring to jail a person
charged with a crime.

a) Alias warrant
b) Arrest without warrant
c) Search warrant
d) Warrant of arrest

ANSWER: d) WARRANT OF ARREST

13. It is a court order authorizing the seizure of a person in order for them to appear in
court.

a) Bench warrant
b) Alias warrant
c) Search warrant
d) Warrant of arrest

ANSWER: a) BENCH WARRANT

14. Are those religious acts performed outside of a church, such as procession and special
prayer \s for burying dead person

a) Ceremonies
b) Party
c) Birthday
d) Religious Ceremonies

ANSWER: d) RELIGIOUS CEREMONIES

15. This committed by rising publicly and taking arms against the government for the
purpose of removing from the allegiance ti said government or its laws, the territory of
the Republic of the Philippines or any part thereof, or any body of the land, naval or other
armed forces, or depriving the chief executive or the legislature , wholly or partially, of
any their powers or prerogatives.

a) Coup d'etat
b) Rebellion or insurrection
c) Treason
d) Murder

ANSWER: b) REBELLION OR INSURRECTION

16. The raising of commotions or disturbance in the state.

a) Treason
b) Sedition
c) Rebellion
d) Insurrection

ANSWER: b) SEDITION

17. The following are Crimes against person except one.

a) Abduction
b) Parricide
c) Murder
d) Mutilation

ANSWER: a) Abduction

18. Any person who shall kill his father, mother, or child, whether legitimate or
illegitimate, or any of his ascendants descendants, or his spouse, shall be guilty of
WHAT?

a) Murder
b) Infanticide
c) Parricide
d) Homicide

ANSWER: c) PARRICIDE

19. It is the unlawful killing of a person, which is not parricide or infanticide.

a) Homicide
b) Murder
c) Abortion
d) Mutilation
ANSWER: b) MURDER

20. It is the unlawful killing of a person, which neither parricide, murder nor infanticide.

a) Murder
b) Homicide
c) Parricide
d) Abortion

ANSWER: b) HOMICIDE

21. It is the d4eath of a person brought about by a lawful act performed with proper care
and skill, and without homicidal intent.

a) Homicide
b) Parricide
c) Intentional Homicide
d) Accidental homicide

AMSWER: d) ACCIDENTAL HOMICIDE

22. W hat is Corpus delicti?

a) Intent to betray
b) Adherence of the law
c) Actual Commission of the crime charged.
d) Carnal knowledge

ANSWER: c) ACTUAL COMMISSION OF THE CRIME CHARGED

23. It is the willful killing f the foetus in the uterus, or the violent expulsion of the foetus
from the maternal womb which results the death of the foetus.

a) Intentional Abortion
b) Unintentional abortion
c) Abortion
d) Infanticide

ANSWER: c) ABORTION

24. It is a formal or regular combat previously concerted between two parties in the
presence of two or more seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the selection of
arms and fix all the other conditions of the fight.

a) Duel
b) Insurrection
c) Treason
d) Rebellion

ANSWER: a) DUEL

25. It is the means of the lopping or the clipping off of some parts of the body.

a) Physical injury
b) Mutilation
c) Homicide
d) Mutiny

ANSWER: b) MUTILATION

26. It is committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man
not her husband and by the man has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married,
even if the marriage be subsequently declared void.

a) Concubinage
b) Bigamy
c) Adultery
d) Seduction

ANSWER: c) ADULTERY

27.What is R.A 8353?

a) Child abuse
b) Malicious mischief
c) Anti-Rape Law of 1997
d) Abduction

ANSWER: c) ANTI-RAPE LAW OF 1997

27. What is R.A 7610?

a) Rape
b) Murder
c) Abortion
d) Child Abuse

ANSWER: d) CHILD ABUSE

28. Any husband who shall keep a mistress in the conjugal dwelling, or shall have sexual
intercourse, under the scandalous circumstances, who woman who is not his wife, or shall
cohabit with her in any other place.
a) Abduction
b) Seduction
c) Bigamy
d) Concubinage

ANSWER: d) CONCUBINAGE

29. It is means enciting a woman to a unlawful sexual intercourse by promise of marriage

or other means of persuasion without used of force.

a) Rape
b) Seduction
c) Qualified seduction
d) Simple Seduction

ANSWER: d) SEDUCTION

30. Is the taking away of a woman from her house opr the place where she may be for the
purpose of carrying her to another place with intent to marrynor corrupt her.

a) Forcible abduction
b) Consented Abduction
c) Abduction
d) Simple Abduction

ANSWER: c) ABDUCTION

31. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether the is sufficient ground to engender

a well founded belief that crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.

A preliminary investigation C. civil action

B procedure D. warrant

A:PELIMINARY INVESTIGATION
32. when an accused is released on recognizance he promises to the court that he will
attend all required judicial proceedings and will not engage in illegal activity or other
prohibited conduct as set by the court.
A. recognizance C. judgent
B tial D pre-tial
A:RECOGNIZANCE
33. a third party agrees to be responsible for the debt or obligation of the defendant. In
many jurisdictions this service is provided commercially by a bail bondsman where the
agent will receive 10% of the bail amount up front and will keep that amount regardless
of whether the defendant appears in court.
A surety C civil action
B appeal D pocedure
A:SUETY
34. the accused or a person acting on his behalf pledges real property having a value at
least equal to the amount of the bail. If the principal fails to appear for trial the state can
levy on the property to recover the bail.
A property C confidential record
B cash D propety bound
A: PROPERTY
35. typically "cash-only," where the only form of bail that the Court will accept is cash
A cash C bail
B popety bound D arrest
A: CASH
36. courts often allow defendants to post cash bail or bond, and then impose further
conditions, as mentioned below, to protect the community or ensure attendance.
A combination Ccondition of elease
B mittimus D cash
A: COMBINATION
37. many varied non-monetary conditions and restrictions on liberty can be imposed by a
court to ensure that a person released into the community will appear in court and not
commit any more crimes.
A condition of release C mittimus
B bench warrant D statute
A:CONDITION OF RELEASE

38. is a writ issued by a court or magistrate directing the sheriff or other executive officer
to convey the person named in the writ to a prison or jail, and directing the jailor to
receive and imprison the person.
A mittimus C outstanding aest warant
B bench warrant D civil code
A: MITTIMUS
39. is a variant of an arrest warrant, which authorizes the immediate on-sight arrest of the
individual subject to the bench warrant. Typically, judges issue bench warrants for
persons deemed to be in contempt of court
A bench warrant C trial
B civil action D hearing
A: BENCH WARRANT
40. is the preliminary hearing typically taking place before arraignment and before a
serious crime goes to trial
A probable cause hearing C civil code
B hearing D civil law
A: POBABLE CAUSE HEARING
41. is a statute in a common law legal system that sets forth the maximum period of time,
after certain events, that legal proceedings based on those events may be initiated. In civil
lawsystems, similar provisions are usually part of the civil code or criminal code and are
often known collectively as "periods of prescription" or "prescriptive periods."
A statute of limitation C prescriptive peiods
B combination D criminal code
A: STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS
42. (also known as an act or writ of attainder) is an act of the legislature declaring a
person or group of persons guilty of some crime and punishing them without benefit of a
trial.
A bill of attainde C tial
B legislatue D criminal code
A: BILL OF RIGHTS
43. is a legal action, or writ through which a person can seek relief from the unlawful
detention of him or herself, or of another person. It protects the individual from harming
him or herself, or from being harmed by the judicial system
A habeas copus C ciminal charge
B judicial system D prosecutor
A: HABEAS CORPUS
44. is a formal criminal charge made without a grand jury indictment by a prosecutor in a
document called an information.
A information C plea
B Prosecutor D criminal charge
A: INFORMATION
45. is a formal reading of a criminal complaint in the presence of the defendant to inform
the defendant of the charges against him or her. In response to arraignment, the accused
is expected to enter a plea. Acceptable pleas vary among jurisdictions, but they generally
include "guilty", "not guilty", and the peremptory pleas (or pleas in bar) setting out
reasons why a trial cannot proceed
A arraignment C arrest
B plea D criminal complaint
A: ARRAIGNMENT
46. is a "class" of civil and political rights that apply to a person accused of a crime from
when he or she is arrested and charged to when he or she is either convicted or acquitted
A right of the accused C arrest
B crime D charge
A: RIGHT OF THE ACCUSED
47. is a legal right that the accused in criminal trials has in many modern countries. The
burden of proof is thus on the prosecution, which has to collect and present enough
compelling evidence to convince the trier of fact, who are restrained and ordered by law
to consider only actual evidence and testimony that is legally admissible, and in most
cases lawfully obtained, that the accused is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt
A presumption of innocence C tial
B buden of poof D arrest
A: PESUMPTION OF INNOCENCE
48. is when parties come together to a dispute present information (in the form of
evidence) in a formal setting, usually a court, before a judge jury or other designated
finder of fact, in order to achieve a resolution to their dispute.
A trial C jury
B evidence D judge
A: TIAL
49. is designed to resolve accusations brought by the government against a person
accused of a crime. In common law systems, most criminal defendants are entitled to a
trial held before a jury.
A criminal trial C defendants
B crime D common law
A. CRIMINAL TRIAL
50. is generally held to settle a dispute between private parties, (although the government
can both sue and be sued in a civil capacity, in some countries).
A civil trial C judge
B jury D burden of poof
A: CIVIL TRIAL
51. is a process for requesting a formal change to an official decision.
A appeal C information
B plea D court
A: APPEAL
52. is a legal procedure used in many civil law and common law legal systems whereby
police or other authorities and their agents, who suspect that a crime has been committed,
do a search of a person's property and confiscate any relevant evidence to the crime.
A Search and seizure C Seizure

B. Search D civil law

A: SEARCH AND SEIZUE

53. , is the party who initiates a lawsuit (also known as an action) before a court By doing
so, the plaintiff seeks a legal remedy, and if successful, the court will issue judgment in
favor of the plaintiff and make the appropriate court order (e.g., an order for damages).

A. complainant, C legal remedy

B Cort order D court

A: COMPLAINANT

54. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and
provides for their punishment.

criminal behavior b.criminal crime c. criminal law

Answer: C. criminal law

55. it a taken of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer the
omission of an offense
arrest b. warrant c. warrant of arrest

Answer: A. Arrest

56.The validity of a warrant is until?

10 days b. 30 days c. 20 days

Answer: A. 10 Days

57.An act or omission punishable by law?

criminal law b. felonies c. crime

Answer: B. Felonies

58.Is the crime that covers some of the more serious acts of disloyalty to one's sovereign
or nation.

Treason b. Conspiracy c.rebellion

Answer: A. Trison

59. involves an individual obtaining information that is considered secret or confidential

without the permission of the holder of the information.

a. Treason b. Conspiracy c. Espionage

Answer: C Espionage

32. 60.as the breach of one or more rules or laws for which some governing authority via
mechanisms such as "police power" may ultimately prescribe a conviction.
33. a.crime b.law c.criminal

34. 8.which of the following is not crimes against person?

35. parricide b. murder c. conspiracy

36. Answer: C Conpiracy

37. 9. is a term of law which refers to overt conduct, such as speech and organization,
that is deemed by the legal authority as tending toward insurrection against the
established order.

38. conspiracy b.sedition c. rebellion

39. 10. when revised penal code effective?

40. january 29 1932 b. january 1 1932 c.january 15 1935

41. Answer: B January 1 1932

42. 11. the act of murdering one's father, mother or other close relative, but usually not
children.
43. murder b. homiside c.parricide

44. Answer: C Parricide

45. 12. are those where the act of a person is said to be in accordance with law, so that
such person is deem not to have transgerssed the law and is free from both criminal and
civil liability.
46. mitigating circumstances b.justifing circumstance c. exepting circumstances

47. Answer: B Justifing circumstances

48. 13. are those grounds for exeption punishment because there is wanting in the agent
of the condition which make the act voluntary or negligent.
49. mitigating circumstances b.justifing circumstance c. exepting circumstances
50. Answer: C Exepting circumstances

51. 14. the mental capacity of a minor between 9 and 15 years of age to appreciate the
consequences of his unlawful act.
52. A. descernment B. Unlawful Act C. Minor one
53. 15. Are those which if present in the commission of the crime, do not entirely free the
actor from criminal liability, but serve only to reduse the penalty
54. mitigating circumstances b.justifing circumstance c. exepting circumstances

55. Anwer: A Mitigating Circumstances

56. 16. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the
crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide

57. Answer: B Parricide

58. 17. 1. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was
the crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Parricide
c. Homicide
d. Qualified Homicide

59. Anwer: B. Parricide

60. 18. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter's will on suspicion
that Totoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3
Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Usurpation Of Authority
d. Forcible Trespassing

61. Answer: A Trespass to Dwelling

62. 19. jerom and Liza had been married for more than six months. They live together
with the children of liza from her first husband. Jerom had sexual relationship with Jen,
the 12 year old daughter of Liza. Jen love Jerom very much. What was the crime
committed by Jerom, if any?
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction
c. Consented Abduction
d. Rape

63. Answer: D Rape

64. 20. Prof. Dabcat gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two met
the following day, Sixto slapped Prof. Dabcat on the face. What was the crime committed
by Sixto?
a. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Assault
c. Slight Physical Injuries
d. Grave Coercion

65. Answer: B Direct assault

66. 21. The meaning of factum probans.

a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. sufficiency of evidence

67. Answer: C Evidential fact

68. 22. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.
a. jurisdiction b. jurisprudence
b. venue d. bench
69. Answer: A Jurisdiction
70. 23. The taking of another person's personal property, with intent to gain, by means of
force and intimidation.
a. qualified theft b. robbery
b. theft d. malicious mischief

71. Answer: B robbery

72. 24. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or
intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat b. grave coercion
b. direct assault d. slander by deed

73. Answer: D Slander by deed

74. 25. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to
annoy and insult.
a. tumultuous b. charivari
b. sedition d. scandal

75. Answer: scandal

76. 26. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change
his residence.
a. violation of domicile b. arbitrary detention
b. expulsion d. direct assault

77. Answer: C Expaltion

78. 27. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal
grounds.
a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention
b. forcible abduction d. forcible detention

79. Answer: C Forcible abduction

80. 28. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man
not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later declared
void.
a. concubinage b. bigamy
b. adultery d. immorality

81. Answer: c. adultery

82. 29. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

a. 15-18 years old b. 18-70 years old
b. 9 years old and below d. between 9 & 15 years old

83. Answer: 9 years old and below

84. 29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the
commission of a crime.
a. gang b. conspiracy
b. band d. piracy

85. Answer: c. band

86. 30. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be
entered for him?
a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty
b. a plea of mercy d.plea of surrender

87. Answer: a. a plea of not guilty

88. 31. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a
bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the
conditions specified by law.
a. subpoena b. recognizance
b. bail d. warrant

89. Answer: a. subpoena

90. 32. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of
the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.
a. trial b. arraignment
b. pre-trial d. judgment
91. Answer: b. pre-trial

92. 33. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the
offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for
by law on the accused.
a. trial b. pre-trial
b. arraignment d. judgment

93. Answer: c. arraignment

94. 34. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is
sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed
and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial b. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation d. plea bargaining
95. Answer: c. preliminary investigation

96. 35. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional
symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence b.testimonial evidence
b. material evidence d. real evidence

97. Answer: a. documentary evidence

98. 36. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence b.corroborative evidence
b. secondary evidence d. negative evidence

99. Answer: b.corroborative evidence

100. 37. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus
before the natural time of birth which results in death.
a. abortion b. infanticide
b. murder d. parricide

101. Answer: a. abortion

102. 38. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

a. 36 hours b. 24 hours
b. 48 hours d. 72 hours

103. Answer: d. 72 hours

104. 49. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the
offended party , any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
a. subpoena b. information
b. complaint d. writ

105. Answer: b. information

106. 40. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended
not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an
innocent person.
a. right to due process of law
b. presumption of innocence
c. right to remain silent
d. right against self-incrimination

107. Answer: b. presumption of innocence