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Current Affairs Weekly Q&A PDF – April 2024 1st Week
(1 - 8)
NATIONAL AFFAIRS
1. In which city of Gujarat, Kutch Copper Limited, a subsidiary of Adani Enterprises Limited
(AEL) has recently (in March’ 24) commissioned the first unit of its greenfield copper refinery
project?
1) Ahmedabad
2) Surat
3) Vadodara
4) Jamnagar
5) Mundra
Answer- 5) Mundra
Explanation:
Kutch Copper Limited, a subsidiary of Adani Enterprises Limited (AEL) led by Gautam Adani,
commissioned the first unit of its greenfield copper refinery project at Mundra, Gujarat, by
dispatching the maiden batch of cathodes to customers.
i. Adani Enterprises invested nearly USD 1.2 billion to set up a 0.5 million tonnes per annum (MTPA)
copper smelter in the first phase.
ii. The plant is set to achieve a full-scale capacity (1 MTPA) by Financial Year 2028-29 (FY29) (March
2029).
iii. 15% capital allocation for environmental protection.
2. Which of the following Centres /schools have recently (in March’ 24) organised 'Meghayan-
24', the Meteorological and Oceanographic(METOC) seminar?
1) School of Naval Oceanology and Meteorology
2) Indian Naval Meteorological Analysis Centre
3) Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Answer- 4) Both 1 & 2
Explanation:
On 28th March 2024, Meghayan-24, the Meteorological and Oceanographic(METOC) seminar was
organised by the School of Naval Oceanology and Meteorology (SNOM) and the Indian Naval
Meteorological Analysis Centre (INMAC) at the Southern Naval Command.
i. The seminar, organised as a part of the World Meteorological Day (WMD) 2024, was based on the
theme “At the Frontline of Climate Action” (the theme of WMD 2024).
ii. The seminar witnessed the launch of INDRA (Indian Naval Dynamic Resource for Weather
Analysis), an indigenous mobile application developed by BISAG (Bhaskaracharya National
Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics).

3. Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), along with United Nations Children’s Fund
(UNICEF) India and International Institute of Health Management Research (IIHMR) Delhi has
recently (in March’ 24) launched ‘Digital Health Enterprise Planning Course’?
1) IIT Madras
2) IIT Delhi
3) IIT Kanpur
4) IIT Kharagpur
5) IIT Bombay
Answer- 5) IIT Bombay
Explanation:
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) India, International Institute of Health Management
Research (IIHMR) Delhi, and the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay (Mumbai,
Maharashtra) have jointly launched, ‘Digital Health Enterprise Planning Course’, a comprehensive
10-week health course.
i. The course aims to enhance healthcare delivery by utilising digital technologies in line with the
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and the GIDH.
ii. The Startup Incubation and Innovation Centre (SIIC) at the IIT-Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh-UP), signed
a Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) agreement with Gliders India Limited, a Public Sector
Undertaking (PSU), under the Ministry of Defence(MoD), to spearhead innovation in the healthcare
sector.
4. In April 2024, which state received Geographical Indication (GI) tags status for 19 traditional
crafts including Sarthebari Metal Craft?
1) Assam
2) Tripura
3) Meghalaya
4) Nagaland
5) Mizoram
Answer- 1) Assam
Explanation:
The Government of India’s (GoI) Geographical Indication Registry granted Geographical Indication
(GI) tags to 19 traditional crafts of Assam, 2 from Tripura, and 4 from Meghalaya.
i. Apart from the Six GI tags, thirteen Assamese products associated with the Bodo people, the state’s
largest indigenous population, have also been granted GI tags.
• Sarthebari Metal Craft: Handmade bell metal utensils with socio-cultural and religious
significance, part of ritual practices in Assam.
ii. Tripura’s Rignai Pachra textile, Tripureswari temple’s ‘Pera’ get GI tag.
iii. Meghalaya also secured 4 GI tags- Meghalaya Garo Dakmanda Textile, Meghalaya Lyrnai Pottery,
Meghalaya Chubitchi (Rice Liquor) & Lakadong Turmeric. Click here to read more.
5. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has re-imposed ALMM [Approved List of
Models & Manufacturers] for Solar Photovoltaic (PV) Modules with effect from ___________.
1) 1st May 2024
2) 1st April 2024
3) 1st June 2024

4) 1st July 2024
5) 1st August 2024
Answer- 2) 1st April 2024
Explanation:
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has re-imposed ALMM [Approved List of Models
& Manufacturers] for Solar Photovoltaic (PV) Modules with effect from 1st April 2024.
i. ALMM enlistment is subjected to valid Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) registration.
ii. ALMM will apply to government-supported schemes and projects from where electricity discoms
procure electricity.
iii. The schemes include the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Utthan Mahabhiyan (PM-
KUSUM) Scheme and the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.
6. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)’s ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag‘ norm to
discourage the practice of using a single FASTag for multiple vehicles or linking multiple
FASTags to one vehicle has come into force from _________.
1) 1st May 2024
2) 1st July 2024
3) 1st June 2024
4) 1st April 2024
5) 1st August 2024
Answer- 4) 1st April 2024
Explanation:
The National Highways Authority of India’s (NHAI)‘One
Vehicle, One FASTag‘ norm to discourage the practice of
using a single FASTag for multiple vehicles or linking
multiple FASTags to one vehicle has come into force from
1 April 2024.
i. Minister Nitin Gadkari, Ministry of Road Transport and
Highways (MoRTH) announced a new satellite-based
toll collection system will be introduced to replace the existing toll collection system in India.
7. Name the company that has recently (in March ‘24) signed a MoU with National Power
Training Institute (NPTI) to establish a Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Research & Development
(R&D) in the Energy Domain.
1) SJVN Limited
2) THDC India Limited
3) NEEPCO Limited
4) NHPC Limited
5) PTC India Limited
Answer- 5) PTC India Limited
Explanation:
On 28th March 2024, the National Power Training Institute (NPTI), under the Ministry of Power
and PTC India Ltd. Signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to establish a Centre of
Excellence (CoE) for Research & Development (R&D) in the Energy Domain.

i. The collaboration aims to address pressing challenges in the energy domain while aligning with
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
8. Which company has recently (in March ‘24) signed a contract with the Hindustan
Aeronautics Limited to supply 6 sets of LM2500 gas turbines (GT) & GT Auxiliaries (GTAE),
tools for Indian Navy’s Next Generation Missile Vessel (NGMV) project?
1) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
2) Cochin Shipyard Limited
3) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers
4) Goa Shipyard Limited
5) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
Answer- 2) Cochin Shipyard Limited
Explanation:
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has signed a contract worth Rs 1,173 .42 crore with Cochin
Shipyard Limited (CSL), Kochi(Kerala), to supply 6 sets of LM2500 gas turbines (GT) and GT
Auxiliaries (GTAE), spares, tools for Indian Navy’s Next Generation Missile Vessel (NGMV) project.
i. The domestic contract will be slated for execution between FY26 to FY29.
9. Which company has recently (in March ‘24 ) launched the portal “Samman” for its former
employees to manage medical claims, view personal profiles and application status online?
1) Bharat Electronics Limited
2) NMDC Limited
3) Steel Authority of India Limited
4) NLC India Limited
5) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Answer- 2) NMDC Limited
Explanation:
NMDC Limited launched “Samman” , a portal for its former employees to manage medical claims,
view personal profiles, dependent details and application status online.
i. The portal was launched by Amitava Mukherjee, Chairman and Managing Director (CMD)
(Additional Charge) at the event organised at NMDC headquarters in Hyderabad, Telangana.
ii. NMDC Limited, formerly National Mineral Development Corporation, is a Navratna Public Sector
Enterprise(PSE) under the Ministry of Steel.
10. Name the programme that has recently (in March ‘24) launched by Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO) to encourage youngsters to choose the field of space science and
technology.
1) YUVIKA 2024
2) BAL SCIENTIST 2024
3) START 2024
4) YOUNGSTER 2024
5) UGPG 2024
Answer- 3) START 2024

Explanation:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has launched ‘Space Science and Technology Awareness
Training (START)’, a new introductory-level online training programme to encourage youngsters to
choose the field of space science and technology.
i. The START 2024 programme will be conducted during April and May 2024.
• The programme targets students doing postgraduate (PG) and final year undergraduate
courses in physical science and technology.
11. According to the data released by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) in April 2024, the Indian
defence sector has recorded the highest ever defence exports of _________ crore in FY (2023-
2024).
1) Rs. 21,083
2) Rs. 20,066
3) Rs. 19,094
4) Rs. 23,053
5) Rs. 22,097
Answer- 1) Rs. 21,083
Explanation:
As per the data released by the Ministry of Defence (MoD), the Indian defence sector has recorded the
highest ever defence exports of Rs. 21,083 crore i.e. approximately USD2.63 billion in FY (2023-
2024).
i. The data shows a growth of 32.5% compared to last fiscal (FY 2022-2023), when defence export
was recorded Rs15,920 crore.
ii. The latest figures indicate that the defence exports have grown by 31 times in the last decade over
the FY 2013-2014.
12. The new Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024(EMPS 2024) under the Ministry of
Heavy Industries, Government of India came into effect on 1st April, 2024
What is the total outlay for EMPS 2024?
1) Rs. 400 Crore
2) Rs. 500 Crore
3) Rs. 350 Crore
4) Rs. 800 Crore
5) Rs. 750 Crore
Answer- 2) Rs. 500 Crore
Explanation:
The new Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024(EMPS 2024) under the Ministry of Heavy
Industries, Government of India came into effect on 1st April, 2024 and will continue till the end of
July 2024.
i. Under the FAME scheme, subsidies will be eligible for e-vehicles sold till 31st March or till the time
funds are available.
ii. Ministry of Heavy Industries introduced EMPS 2024 scheme on 13th March, 2024.
iii. The scheme has set the budget outlay of Rs 500 crore and will replace FAME-II scheme.
iv. It offers subsidies for e-2w and e-3w including registered e-rickshaws and carts, and L5 (e-3w).

13. In which state, the Indian Air Force (IAF) has recently (in April ‘24) launched ‘Gagan Shakti-
2024’, a 10-day war exercise?
1) Gujarat
2) Maharashtra
3) Rajasthan
4) Arunachal Pradesh
5) Uttarakhand
Answer- 3) Rajasthan
Explanation:
The Indian Air Force (IAF) has launched a 10-day war
exercise named ‘Gagan Shakti-2024’ from April 1 to April
10, 2024, to display its prowess in executing high-intensity
operations across India.
i. The Pokhran Field Firing Range in Jaisalmer,
Rajasthan; Bhuj in Gujarat; Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh;
and other locations nationwide will host the exercise.
ii. Fighter planes and helicopters will engage pseudo targets at Pokhran Field Firing Ranges.
iii. The Indian Army is providing logistical support, including passenger trains named Sanyukta
Express.
14. Which state’s Department of Posts has recently (in April ‘24) released a ‘Special Cover’ to
commemorate 250 years of the release of ‘Copper Ticket’, the world’s first postal ticket?
1) Odisha
2) Bihar
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Maharashtra
5) Gujarat
Answer- 2) Bihar
Explanation:
The Department of Posts in Bihar has decided to release a ‘Special Cover’ to commemorate 250 years
of the release of ‘Copper Ticket’, the world’s first postal ticket from Patna, Bihar.
i. The Copper ticket is a symbol of adventure and wonder that has captured the hearts and
imaginations of generations. It stands for the ability of storytelling to captivate our attention and take
us to imaginative places.
Note: The Copper ticket was first issued from Azimabad, Patna (Bihar) in March 1774.
15. Name the organization that has recently (in April ‘24) signed an MoU with the Quality
Council of India (QCI) to enhance the awareness and participation in the MSME Competitive
Lean Scheme (MCLS).
1) Laghu Udyog Bharati
2) Allied Council for Commerce and Logistics
3) United Way India
4) National Commerce Olympiad Foundation
5) Akanksha Foundation
Answer- 1) Laghu Udyog Bharati

Explanation:
The Quality Council of India (QCI) has signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Laghu
Udyog Bharati (LUB) to enhance the awareness and participation in the Ministry of Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MSME) Competitive Lean Scheme (MCLS) among the members of Laghu Udyog
Bharati.
i. A selected nodal officer from each organization will serve as a single point of contact for all MCLS-
related issues in order to facilitate a seamless implementation.
16. Which company has recently partnered with the Press Trust of India (PTI), under its third-
party fact-checking program in India, to establish a dedicated fact-checking unit?
1) Google
2) Meta Platforms Inc.
3) Microsoft Corporation
4) Apple Inc.
5) Capgemini Technology Services India Limited
Answer- 2) Meta Platforms Inc.
Explanation:
Meta Platforms Inc. (formerly Facebook, Inc.) has partnered with Press Trust of India (PTI), India’s
largest news agency, under its third-party fact-checking program in India, to establish a dedicated
fact-checking unit.
i. Under this partnership PTI will identify, review, and rate content for misinformation across Meta
platforms.
17. Which Ministry has recently (in April ‘24) mandated the linking of the Central Government
Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiary ID with the Ayushman Bharat Health Account(ABHA) ID,
with effect from 1st April 2024?
1) Ministry of Home Affairs
2) Ministry of Human Resource Development
3) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
4) Ministry of Women & Child Development
5) Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
Answer- 3) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Explanation:
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) mandates the linking of the Central
Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiary ID with the Ayushman Bharat Health Account(ABHA)
ID, with effect from 1st April 2024.
i. The MoHFW stated that all existing beneficiaries must complete the linking process within 30 days.
18. Which State/Union Territory’s Municipal corporation has recently (in April ‘24) extended
the last date for geo-tagging of properties until 30th June 2024?
1) Bihar
2) Karnataka
3) Pondicherry
4) Delhi
5) Maharashtra

Answer- 4) Delhi
Explanation:
The Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD), a civic body of Delhi, has extended the last date for
geo-tagging of properties until 30th June 2024 to provide taxpayers another opportunity to register
their properties with MCD.
Taxpayers failing to geo-tag their properties by 30 June cannot avail of the rebate on lump-sum tax
payments for the current financial year (2024-25).
19. Name the Institute that has recently (in April ‘24) partnered with HP India to empower
students in navigating the intricacies of Environmental–Social – Governance (ESG)
frameworks.
1) Indian Institutes of Science Education and Research
2) Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research
3) Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research
4) Nansen Environmental Research Centre India
5) Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs
Answer- 5) Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs
Explanation:
The Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) has partnered with HP India to launch the “HP
Future Impact Leaders – IICA Certified Environmental – Social – Governance (ESG) Professional
Programme” to promote sustainability and empower corporate social responsibility (CSR)
professionals to emerge as leaders in navigating the intricacies of ESG frameworks.
i. Under this programme, 100% scholarships will be offered to 75 candidates to pursue advanced
education in ESG.
20. Which Indian Institute of Management (IIM) has recently (in April ‘24) prepared the report
‘Synchronizing Energy Transitions Toward Possible Net Zero for India: Affordable and Clean
Energy for All ‘to achieve India’s net-zero Targets?
1) IIM Ahmedabad
2) IIM Visakhapatnam
3) IIM Mumbai
4) IIM Bangalore
5) IIM Tiruchirappalli
Answer- 1) IIM Ahmedabad
Explanation:
On April 3, 2024, a report titled ‘Synchronizing Energy Transitions Toward Possible Net Zero for
India: Affordable and Clean Energy for All‘ prepared by IIM-A (Indian Institute of Management-
Ahmedabad) Gujarat, under the sanction of the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the
Government of India (GoI) was launched during a meeting held in New Delhi, Delhi. It was launched
by Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the GoI.
i. The reports part-funding (one-third) is from Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd (NPCIL).
• The report aims to analyze the energy transition necessary for achieving a net-zero energy
basket for India.

21. In April 2024, the Government of India announced a plan to build its first privately
managed Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) by __________________.
1) 2025-26
2) 2029-30
3) 2028-29
4) 2027-28
5) 2026-27
Answer- 2) 2029-30
Explanation:
India, the world’s third biggest oil importer and consumer, plans to build its first privately managed
Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) by 2029-30.
i. Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Ltd. (ISPRL), a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), was created by
the government of India under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2004 to maintain
strategic petroleum reserves in India.
ii. It has invited bids for constructing 2.5 million tonnes of underground storage at Padur in
Karnataka.
iii. It was set up in two phases : The first phase, ISPRL constructed a strategic petroleum reserve in
three locations: Visakhapatnam (1.33 million tonnes)Andhra Pradesh, Mangalore (1.5 million
tonnes)Karnataka, and Padur (2.5 million tonnes) Karnataka.
22. In April 2024, the President of India Droupadi Murmu launched India‘s first home-grown
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy namely ‘NexCAR19 (Actalycabtagene
autoleucel)’ for cancer treatment.
Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), along with Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH), Mumbai,
developed the NexCAR19?
1) IIT Guwahati
2) IIT Delhi
3) IIT Bombay
4) IIT Kharagpur
5) IIT Madras
Answer- 3) IIT Bombay
Explanation:
On April 4, 2024, the President of India Droupadi Murmu launched India‘s first home-grown
Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy namely ‘NexCAR19 (Actalycabtagene autoleucel)’
for cancer treatment during the event held at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay in Mumbai,
Maharashtra.
i. India is now one of the first developing countries to have its indigenous CAR-T and gene therapy
platform.
ii. It developed through collaboration between IIT, Bombay and Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH),
Mumbai in association with industry partner Immunoadoptive Cell Therapy Private Limited
(ImmunoACT).

23. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) become the first company to surpass 10,000
megawatts (MW) of renewable energy capacity in its operational portfolio?
1) JSW Energy Limited
2) Adani Green Energy Limited
3) Suzlon Energy Limited
4) Reliance Power Limited
5) Tata Power Company Limited
Answer- 2) Adani Green Energy Limited
Explanation:
Adani Green Energy Limited (AGEL) has become the country’s first company to surpass 10,000
megawatts (MW), or 10 gigawatts (GW), of renewable energy capacity in its operational portfolio.
i. AGEL achieved this feat after it commissioned 2,000 MW of solar capacity at Khavda in Kutch,
Gujarat.
ii. With the aim of building a 45 GW renewable energy capacity by 2030, AGEL is building a 30,000
MW solar plant, the world’s largest renewable energy plant in Khavda, Gujarat.
24. In which State/UT, a two-day coastal security exercise ‘Sagar Kavach 01/24’ was conducted
in April 2024?
1) Pondicherry
2) Gujarat
3) Lakshadweep
4) Andaman and Nicobar Island
5) Kerala
Answer- 3) Lakshadweep
Explanation:
Sagar Kavach 01/24, a two-day coastal security exercise involving all maritime security agencies was
conducted in the Union Territory (UT) of Lakshadweep from 1st to 2nd April 2024.
• The assets of the Indian Navy(IN), Indian Coast Guard(ICG), Marine Police, Fisheries, Customs
and other security agencies were involved in the exercise.
i. The first edition of 2024’s State Level Biannual Coastal Security Exercise Sagar Kavach (01/24) for
Kerala and Mahe (a part of the UT of Pondicherry) was held from 20 to 21 March 2024.
25. Name the company that has recently (in April ‘24) signed an MoU with Bharat Electronics
Limited (BEL) to develop an indigenous Train Control Management System (i-TCMS).
1) BEML Limited
2) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works
3) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
4) Indian Railway Finance Corporation Limited
5) Titagarh Wagons Limited
Answer- 1) BEML Limited
Explanation:
BEML Limited (formerly Bharat Earth Movers Limited) signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) to jointly develop an indigenous Train Control
Management System (i-TCMS).

i. The partnership between BEML and BEL aims to promote innovation and foster self-reliance in the
domain of train control management systems.
26. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) signed an MoU with ACME Cleantech Solutions
Private Limited (ACME) to purchase and supply about 200,000 Metric tons (MT) of ammonia
produced using renewable energy?
1) Chambal Fertilizers and Chemicals Limited
2) Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited
3) Coromandel International Limited
4) Krishak Bharati Cooperative Limited
5) Rashtriya Chemicals & Fertilizers Limited
Answer- 2) Indian Farmers Fertilizer Cooperative Limited
Explanation:
The Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO), the world’s largest fertiliser
cooperative, has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with ACME Cleantech Solutions
Private Limited (ACME) for the purchase and supply of about 200,000 Metric Ton (MT) of ammonia
produced using renewable energy.
i. As per the MoU, the ammonia will be produced using a renewable energy source at ACME’s facility
in Gopalpur, Odisha.
27. In April 2024, which state received Geographical Indication (GI) tags for Miraj Tanpura and
Miraj Sitar?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Uttarakhand
3) Maharashtra
4) Bihar
5) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- 3) Maharashtra
Explanation:
The Chennai (Tamil Nadu)-headquartered Geographical Indications Registry under the Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), the Ministry of Commerce and Industry
awarded geographical indication (GI) tags to Miraj Tanpura and Miraj Sitar of Maharashtra and
Bundelkhand Kathiya Gehu (Wheat) of Uttar Pradesh (UP).
28. Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) has recently (in April ‘24) signed an MoU with
SJVN Limited to utilize the advanced geological models in tunneling projects?
1) IIT Kharagpur
2) IIT Delhi
3) IIT Kanpur
4) IIT Patna
5) IIT Bombay
Answer- 4) IIT Patna

Explanation:
SJVN Limited has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Institute of
Technology Patna (IIT Patna), Bihar, to utilise the advanced geological models in tunnelling projects
of SJVN.
i. Under this partnership, predictive analytics algorithms leveraging integrated geotechnical data will
be developed. This will predict potential risks and offer early warning systems tailored for tunnelling
projects.
INTERNATIONAL AFFAIRS
1. Name the global Network of Laboratory that has recently (in March ‘24) launched by the
World Health Organisation (WHO) to Monitor Emerging Coronaviruses of public health
importance?
1) CoViNet
2) CoVidNetwork
3) CoronaNetwork
4) NetworkCovid19
5) Covid-19Net
Answer- 1) CoViNet
Explanation:
The World Health Organisation (WHO) has launched the
Coronavirus Network (CoViNet), a global network which
will ensure timely detection, monitoring, and assessment
of coronaviruses of public health importance.
i. CoViNet includes 36 laboratories from 21 countries
across all 6 WHO regions. This includes 3 Indian
laboratories.
• Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Environmental Engineering Research
Institute (CSIR-NEERI), Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
• Indian Council of Medical Research-National Institute of Virology (ICMR-NIV), Pune,
Maharashtra.
• Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), Faridabad, Haryana.
2. According to the 38th annual World’s Billionaires list released by Forbes in April 2024,
India’s Mukesh Ambani secured _______ rank globally, while ___________ topped the list with a net
worth of USD 233 Billion.
1) 9th, Elon Musk
2) 10th, Mark Zuckerberg
3) 9th, Bernard Arnault
4) 10th, Elon Musk
5) 8th, Bill Gates
Answer- 3) 9th, Bernard Arnault
Explanation:
On April 2, 2024, Forbes released its 38th annual World’s Billionaires list – ‘Forbes World’s
Billionaires List: The Richest in 2024‘ in partnership with J.P. Morgan Bank. Bernard Arnault

(France), Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of LVMH Moët Hennessy Louis Vuitton (LVMH ) topped the list
with a net worth of USD 233 Billion.
• He is followed by Elon Musk, CEO of Tesla Motors with a net worth of USD 195 Billion and Jeff
Bezos, founder & Former CEO of Amazon with USD 194 Billion at 3rd place.
i. Mukesh Ambani, Chairman And Managing Director(CMD) of Reliance Industries Limited (RIL),
ranked 9th globally with a net worth of USD 116 Billion, becomes the richest man in India. He is the
only Indian to feature among the top 10.
• He also became the first Asian to break into the USD 100 billion club. Click here to read more.
3. Which of the following countries has partially joined the Schengen area, Europe’s ID-check-
free travel zone in March 2024?
1) Romania
2) Bulgaria
3) Slovakia
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Explanation:
As of 31st March 2024, Romania and Bulgaria became the newest Member States to partially join the
Schengen area, Europe's ID-check-free travel zone. With this any person crossing the internal air and
sea borders will no longer be subject to checks.
• With this, the Schengen area now has 29 members.
4. According to the Business Environment Rankings (BER) 2024 report released by the
Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) in April 2024, India secured __________ rank in the list,
while_________ (country) tops the position for the 16th consecutive year.
1) 55th; Singapore
2) 51st; Finland
3) 55th; Denmark
4) 51st; Singapore
5) 79th; Denmark
Answer- 4) 51st; Singapore
Explanation:
The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released its Business Environment Rankings (BER) 2024,
assessing 82 countries across 91 crucial indicators across 11 categories to determine the best places
for conducting business.
i. Singapore retains its top position for the 16th consecutive year, followed by Denmark and the
United States (US) at 2nd and 3rd place respectively in the world for conducting business.
ii. India ranked 51 in the list with a score of 1.08.

5. As per the“Economic and Social Survey of Asia and the Pacific 2024: Boosting affordable and
longer-term financing for Governments” report released by the United Nations Economic and
Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) in April 2024, India is expected to lose
approximately _________of daily working hours due to increasing temperatures by 2030.
1) 6%
2) 4.9%
3) 9%
4) 7.4%
5) 5.8%
Answer- 5) 5.8%
Explanation:
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) released a
report titled “Economic and Social Survey of Asia and the Pacific 2024: Boosting affordable and
longer-term financing for Governments”.
i. As per the report, India is expected to lose approximately 5.8% of daily working hours due to
increasing temperatures by 2030.
ii. The report mentioned that climate change may lead to larger agricultural subsidies, as farm
subsidies account for 20% of total farm incomes in India. Click here to read more.
6. Which International Organisation has recently (in April ‘2024) released a report, ” Small
Island Digital States: How Digital Can Catalyse SIDS Development” highlighting the
transformative potential of digital for Small Island Developing States (SIDS)?
1) United Nations Development Programme
2) World Bank
3) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
4) Asian Development Bank
5) International Monetary Fund
Answer- 1) United Nations Development Programme
Explanation:
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) released a report, ” Small Island Digital
States: How Digital Can Catalyse SIDS Development,” highlighting the transformative potential of
digital for Small Island Developing States (SIDS). The report emphasises the pivotal role of
digitalization in the development of SIDS.
i. UNDP conducted comprehensive Digital Readiness Assessments in over 15 SIDS to identify key
digital opportunities and priorities.
GOVT SCHEMES
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VISITS
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BANKING AND FINANCE
1. As per the data released by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in March 2024, the Net claims of
non-residents on India declined by USD ________ during October-December 2023 to USD 370.4
billion as at end-December 2023.
1) 10.50 Billion
2) 11.10 Billion
3) 8.90 Billion
4) 12.2 Billion
5) 17.1 Billion
Answer- 4) 12.2 Billion
Explanation:
As per the latest data released by Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s International Investment
Position (IIP) as of December 2023 showed a decline in net claims of Non-Residents on India by
USD12.2 billion during the period from October to December 2023 to USD 370.4 billion as the end of
December 2023.
i. Main reason for the decline is the increase in reserve assets, surging by USD34.8 billion during Q3
FY24.
ii. As per RBI data, the ratio of India’s international financial assets to international financial liabilities
increased from 70.9%, a quarter ago to 72.4% in December 2023.
2. In March 2024, GoI approved a simple reversionary bonus for the Postal Life Insurance (PLI)
Scheme and Rural Postal Life Insurance (RPLI) Scheme for the fiscal year 2024-25 (FY25)
without changing the bonus rate.
Under the Bonus Rate of PLI Scheme, the rate of bonus will be at __________ (amount) per
thousand of sum assured For Whole Life Assurance (WLA/Suraksha).
1) Rs.76
2) Rs.90
3) Rs.81
4) Rs.95
5) Rs.99
Answer- 1) Rs.76
Explanation:
The Government of India (GoI) has approved a simple reversionary bonus for the Postal Life
Insurance (PLI) Scheme and Rural Postal Life Insurance (RPLI) Scheme for the fiscal year 2024-25
(FY25) without changing the bonus rate.
i. The rates of bonus for the FY25 will be applicable from 1st April 2024.
ii. Bonus Rate of PLI Scheme: For Whole Life Assurance (WLA/Suraksha), the rate of bonus will be
at Rs.76 per thousand of sum assured.
iii. Bonus Rate of RPLI Scheme: The bonus rate for WLA will be Rs.60 per thousand of sum assured
and for Endowment Assurance (EA) (including children policy) the rate is fixed at Rs.48 per thousand
of sum assured. Click here to read more.

3. Which bank has recently (in March '24) raised Rs 600 crores through Qualified Institutional
Placement (QIP) share alloment?
1) Bandhan Bank
2) Karur Vysya Bank
3) Karnataka Bank
4) City Union Bank
5) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Answer- 3) Karnataka Bank
Explanation:
Karnataka Bank has approved the allotment of shares pursuant to the Qualified Institutional
Placement (QIP), at a price of Rs 227 per equity share, which includes premium of Rs 217 per share.
This amounts to an aggregate of up to Rs 600 crores.
i. The QIP opened on 21st March 2024 and closed on 27th March 2024.
ii. The capital rise includes QIP of Rs 600 crores, with the preferential issues of Rs 800 crores in
October 2023 allotment and Rs 100 crores in February 2024 allotment.
4. Name the company that has recently (in March’ 24) received 25 million Euro from OeEB –
Oesterreichische Entwicklungsbank AG (Development Bank of Austria) to support its energy
expansion plan.
2) Reliance Power Limited
3) Suzlon Energy Limited
4) JSW Energy Limited
5) AmpIn Energy Transition Private Limited
Answer- 5) AmpIn Energy Transition Private Limited
Explanation:
AmpIn Energy Transition Private Limited received 25 million Euro investment from OeEB –
Oesterreichische Entwicklungsbank AG (Development Bank of Austria) in a long term financing to
support the energy expansion plans of AmpIn Energy. This will also support AmpIn to establish a local
1-Gigawatt(GW) solar cell and module production facility in Odisha.
i. AmpIn Energy aims to build a renewable energy portfolio of 10 GW by 2030
5. In March 2024, L&T Finance Holdings Ltd (LTFH) received approval from the Registrar of
Companies (RoC) to be renamed as ____________.
1) L&T Capital Limited
2) L&T Capital Financial Services Limited
3) L&T Finance Corporation Limited
4) L&T Finance Limited
5) L&T Investment and Finance Company Limited
Answer- 4) L&T Finance Limited
Explanation:
L&T Finance Holdings Ltd (LTFH), a subsidiary of Larsen & Toubro (L&T) Limited, has received
approval from the Registrar of Companies (RoC) to change its name to “L&T Finance Limited(LTF)”
with effect from 28th March 2024.

• In December 2023, LTFH(now LTF) completed the merger of its subsidiaries, namely L&T
Finance Ltd., L&T Infra Credit Ltd., and L&T Mutual Fund Trustee Ltd., with itself to create a
“Single Lending Entity”.
6. Which regulatory body has recently (in March ‘24) announced a plan to establish a Digital
India Trust Agency (DIGITA) to combat the proliferation of illegal lending apps?
1) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
2) Small Industries Development Bank of India
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India
4) Reserve Bank of India
5) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Answer- 4) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will establish a Digital India Trust Agency (DIGITA) to combat the
proliferation of illegal lending apps.
i. The RBI has provided a list of 442 digital lending apps to Google for whitelisting, over 2,200 apps
were removed from the PlayStore.
ii. Google now enforces a policy allowing only RBI-regulated entities (REs) or their partners to publish
apps on the PlayStore.
7. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) announced final
rules on surrender value for traditional endowment policies effective from April 1, 2024.
The surrender value is expected to remain the same or lower if policies are surrendered
within the initial ___________ years
1) 2
2) 3
3) 1
4) 4
5) 5
Answer- 2) 3
Explanation:
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) announced final rules on
surrender value for traditional endowment policies effective from April 1, 2024.
i. The surrender value is expected to remain the same or lower if policies are surrendered within the
initial 3 years. Click here to read more.
8. As of March 2024, which company has emerged as the top-performing large cap on the
Nifty50 in the Financial year 2023-24 (FY24)?
1) Tata Motors
2) Coal India Limited
3) Zomato
4) Uber
5) Bajaj Auto
Answer- 5) Bajaj Auto

Explanation:
Indian financial markets finished the Financial year 2023-24 (FY24) on a positive note with domestic
equity indices: Nifty50 and Sensex achieving their most robust performance in three fiscal years.
i. Bajaj Auto, Tata Motors and Coal India Limited emerged as the Top 3 Index Performers in FY24.
ii. Bajaj Group emerged as the top-performing large cap on the Nifty50 in FY24. It shows an
exceptional return of 142.52% on investments made over the last 12 months. Its market cap surged
by 120% which amounts to Rs 2,54,000 crore as of 1st April, 2024. Click here to read more.
9. Which of the following companies has recently (in April ‘24) entered into a strategic deal
worth Rs 2,001 crore with Prestige Group to develop residential projects across 4 cities in
India?
1) Abu Dhabi Investment Authority
2) Kotak Alternative Investment Fund
3) Mahindra & Mahindra Financial Services Limited
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 1 & 3
Explanation:
Prestige Group through its subsidiaries has entered into a strategic deal worth Rs 2,001 crore with
Abu Dhabi Investment Authority(ADIA) and Kotak AIF(Alternative Investment Fund) to develop
residential projects in prominent locations across 4 cities in India.
• The investment will be made in developing Greenfield residential projects across cities like
Bengaluru, Mumbai, Goa and Delhi NCR(National Capital Region) with a combined Gross
Development Value(GDV) of over Rs 18,000 crore.
10. Which regulatory body has recently (in April ‘24) launched SCORES 2.0 to strengthen
complaint resolution?
2) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
3) Forward Markets Commission
5) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Answer- 4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
Explanation:
On April 1, 2024, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched the new version of
SCORES (SEBI Complaint Redressal System), i.e., SCORES 2.0. This will enhance investor complaint
resolution in the securities market by auto routing and auto-escalation, monitoring by designated
bodies, and reducing timelines.
i. It establishes uniform timelines for complaint resolution across the securities market: 21 calendar
days from complaint receipt.
ii. Brickwork Ratings (BWR) has resumed its business and client onboarding following SEBI’s order
dated March 26, 2024.

11. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) launched “Travel Guard Plus“, a comprehensive
travel insurance product aimed at redefining complete coverage for travelers?
1) TATA AIG General Insurance Company Limited
2) Reliance General Insurance Company Limited
3) Aditya Birla Sun Life Insurance Company Limited
4) SBI General Insurance Company Limited
5) Kotak Mahindra General Insurance Company Limited
Answer- 1) TATA AIG General Insurance Company Limited
Explanation:
TATA AIG General Insurance Company Limited, a leading general insurance provider, has launched
“Travel Guard Plus“, a comprehensive travel insurance product aimed at redefining complete
coverage for travelers.
i. This product caters to the diverse travel needs of people, with a wide range of plans, where 41
different types of covers have been packaged ensuring a stress-free experience.
12. Prime Minister Narendra Modi addressed the opening ceremony of RBI@90 in Mumbai,
Maharashtra on 1 April 2024, organised to mark the 90 years of the establishment of Reserve
Bank of India (RBI).
The coin weighs about _______
1) 90 grams
2) 100 grams
3) 75 grams
4) 60 grams
5) 40 grams
Answer- 5) 40 grams
Explanation:
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi addressed the opening ceremony of RBI@90, as the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) marked its 90th year on April 1, 2024. The ceremony took place at the National
Centre for the Performing Arts in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
i. A special Rs 90 coin was unveiled by Prime Minister Narendra Modi to commemorate 90 years of
RBI.
ii. The coin is made from pure silver and it weighs about 40 grams.
iii. On the observer side the RBI emblem is embossed at the centre of the coin, below which “RBI@90”
is inscribed.
iv. The Reverse Side Showcases the Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar with the national motto “Satyamev
Jayate” (Truth Alone Triumphs) inscribed in Devanagari script below. Click here to read more.
13. According to Worldline India Digital Payments Report H2 2023 released in April 2024, the
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions volume in the second half of 2023 increased by
_________to 65.77 billion.
1) 56%
2) 77%
3) 44%
4) 38%
5) 45%

Answer- 1) 56%
Explanation:
According to Worldline India Digital Payments Report H2 2023 the Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) transactions volume in the second half (H2) of 2023 (July 2023 – December 2023) increased by
56% to 65.77 billion from 42.09 billion in H2 2022.
i. The value of transactions increased by 44% from Rs 69.36 Lakh Crore to Rs 99.68 lakh crore.
ii. The Average Ticket Size (ATS) of UPI transactions reduced by 8% to Rs 1515 from Rs 1648 in H2
2022.
iii. The volume of Online transactions via mobile phone apps increased by 38% to 62.95 billion (H2
2023) from 45.58 billion(H2 2022). Click here to read more.
14. Which bank has recently (in April ‘24) launched a healthcare loan product, Heal, to cover
hospitalization expenses beyond insurance limits?
1) Bank of Maharashtra
2) Canara Bank
3) Punjab National Bank
4) Bank of Baroda
5) Union Bank of India
Answer- 2) Canara Bank
Explanation:
On 3rd April 2024, Canara Bank launched a range of innovative products aimed at enhancing
financial inclusivity and addressing healthcare needs.
i. Canara Heal: A healthcare loan product to cover hospitalization expenses beyond insurance limits,
available at competitive interest rates.
ii. Canara Angel: A custom savings account for women with unique features like cancer care policy.
iii. Canara ReadyCash, a pre-approved personal loans
iv. Canara MyMoney, an online loan against term deposit product. Click Here to read more
15. Name the Insurance company that has recently (in April ‘24) partnered with PhonePe to
offer customers health insurance with a monthly and annual payment option.
1) Care Health Insurance Limited
2) Niva Bupa Health Insurance Co. Limited
3) Aditya Birla Health Insurance Co. Limited
4) Star Health and Allied Insurance Company Limited
5) Reliance Health Insurance Limited
Answer- 4) Star Health and Allied Insurance Company Limited
Explanation:
PhonePe has partnered with Star Health and Allied Insurance Company Ltd. (Star Health
Insurance), India’s largest retail health insurance Company, to offer customers health insurance with a
monthly and annual payment option.
i. This will enable users to avail ‘Star Comprehensive Insurance Policy’ on the PhonePe app with
coverage up to Rs 1 Crore.

16. In April 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deferred the implementation of Exchange
Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCD) regulations to _____________to curb speculative trading.
1) 3rd June 2024
2) 3rd May 2024
3) 3rd July 2024
4) 3rd August 2024
5) 3rd September 2024
Answer- 2) 3rd May 2024
Explanation:
On 4th April 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) deferred the implementation of Exchange
Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCD) regulations by a month to May 3, 2024 to curb speculative
trading. This is in view of the feedback received from the market and the recent developments.
i. Indian stock exchanges, including the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and BSE (formerly Bombay
Stock Exchange), have directed member brokers to adhere to RBI notifications, restricting currency
derivative trades to hedging purposes after April 5, 2024.
17. Which of the following points is/are ‘correct’ with respect to the 1st Bi-monthly Monetary
Policy of Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April
2024?
A) The Repo Rate was retained at 6.5% for the 7th consecutive time.
B) The Bank Rate is kept unchanged at 6.25%.
C) India’s real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth at 7% for FY25.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Answer- 4) Only A & C
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) met on April 3-5, 2024, and
released 1st Bi-monthly Monetary Policy of Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25) i.e. ‘Monetary Policy
Statement, 2024-25 Resolution of the MPC‘ which kept India’s real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
growth at 7% for FY25 with FY25’s Q1 (April-June) at 7.1%, Q2 (July-September) at 6.9%, Q3
(October-December) at 7%, and Q4 (January-March) at 7%.
i. The MPC kept the policy rates unchanged.
Category Rates
Policy Repo Rate 6.50%
Fixed Reverse Repo Rate 3.35%

Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate 6.75%
Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) Rate 6.25%
Bank Rate 6.75%
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 4.50%
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) 18%
ii. RBI kept the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% for the 7th consecutive time to reduce inflation and
make sure people expect lower prices while ensuring it works effectively. Click here to read more
18. Which of the following Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)’s Certificate of

Registration (CoR) was not cancelled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2024?
1) Ujjivan Financial Services Limited
2) Kundles Motor Finance Private Limited
3) Jiwanjyoti Deposits and Advances Limited
4) Nithya Finance Limited
5) Bhatia Hire Purchase Private Limited
Answer- 1) Ujjivan Financial Services Limited
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India(RBI) has cancelled the Certificate of Registration(CoR) of Four Non-
Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in the exercise of powers conferred on it under Section 45-IA
(6) of the RBI Act, 1934.
i. The 4 NBFCs are,
• Kundles Motor Finance Private Limited (Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh-UP)- CoR cancelled with effect
from 12th March 2024.
• Nithya Finance Limited (Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu-TN) – CoR cancelled w.e.f 14th March 2024.
• Bhatia Hire Purchase Private Limited (Bathinda, Punjab) – CoR cancelled w.e.f 19th March
2024.
• Jiwanjyoti Deposits and Advances Limited (Hamirpur, Himachal Pradesh) – CoR cancelled w.e.f
21st March 2024.
Note: Following the cancellation of CoR the NBFCs shall not transact the business of a Non-Banking
Financial Institution(NBFI) as defined in clause (a) of Section 45-I of the RBI Act, 1934.
19. In April 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of Rs. 1 Crore
on _________(Banks) for non-compliance with certain directions issued by RBI.
1) HDFC Bank
2) IDFC First Bank

3) RBL Bank
4) Tamilnad Mercantile Bank
5) UCO Bank
Answer- 2) IDFC First Bank
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a monetary penalty of Rs 1 crore on IDFC First Bank
Limited for non-compliance with certain directions issued by RBI on ‘Loans and Advances – Statutory
and Other Restrictions’.
• The penalty was imposed in the exercise of the power vested in RBI under the provisions of
section 47 A (1) (c) read with sections 46 (4) (i) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
i. RBI has imposed a monetary penalty of Rs 49.70 lakhs on LIC Housing Finance Limited for non-
compliance with certain provisions of ‘Non-Banking Financial Company – Housing Finance Company
(Reserve Bank) Directions, 2021’.
• The penalty was imposed in exercise of powers vested in RBI conferred under section 52A of
the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
20. Which bank has recently (in April ‘24) signed an MoU with Paymart India Pvt Ltd to launch
an innovative Virtual Automated Teller Machine (ATM) (VATM) facility?
1) Punjab National Bank
2) Bank of Maharashtra
3) RBL Bank
4) Jammu & Kashmir Bank
5) Karnataka Bank
Answer- 4) Jammu & Kashmir Bank
Explanation:
Jammu & Kashmir Bank Limited (J&K Bank) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Paymart India Pvt Ltd to launch an innovative Virtual Automated Teller Machine (ATM)(VATM)
facility. The collaboration aims to introduce cardless cash withdrawals for the Bank’s customers
through local merchants in the neighbourhood.
• Customer’s smartphone with the J&K Bank’s mobile app “mPAY – Delight” serves as the Virtual
Card and the merchant’s smartphone with the app acts as the VATM.
21. Name the regulatory body/Government agency that has recently (in April ‘24) received the
International Organization for Standardization/ International Electrotechnical Commission
(ISO/IEC) 27001:2022 certification.
1) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
2) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
3) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
5) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
Answer- 4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has received the International Organization for
Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001:2022 certification for
its

• Information Security Management System (ISMS) at the Primary Data Centre,
• ISMS at the Disaster Recovery site, and
• Security Operations Control (SOC) and Network Operations Control (NOC) Operations.
i. SEBI received this certification following an audit by the certification body under the accreditation
of the National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB), a member of the International
Accreditation Forum (IAF).
22. Which bank has recently (in April ‘24) raised USD 500 million from Dubai International
Financial Centre (DIFC) to fund overseas business growth?
1) Bank of Baroda
2) Canara Bank
3) Karnataka Bank
4) Andhra Bank
5) Union Bank of India
Answer- 5) Union Bank of India
Explanation:
The Union Bank of India (UBI), has raised USD 500 million (about Rs 4,200 crore) from foreign
markets to fund overseas business growth.
i. The fund was arranged by Dubai International Financial Centre (DIFC), Dubai Branch, United Arab
Emirates (UAE).
• There would be two tranches of a USD 500 million syndicated term loan with terms of three
and five years each (USD 400 million and USD 100 million for Green Shoe).
• Note: The first tranche of USD 100 million was drawn on 3rd April 2024.
23. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) launched the new Metal Corporate Platinum
Card?
1) Mastercard
2) SBI Card
3) American Express
4) Discover Card
5) Visa
Answer- 3) American Express
Explanation:
On April 5 2024, American Express launched the new Metal Corporate Platinum Card, designed to
meet the changing needs of business owners and entrepreneurs in India.
• The card offers best-in-class advantages including Taj Epicure Plus Membership and Gold Elite
Status at Marriott Bonvoy.
ECONOMY AND BUSINESS
1. Which companies have recently (in March’ 24) signed an MoU with Tejas Networks Limited
and Telecom Egypt (TE) to replicate its experience of implementing the Bharatnet (Rural
Broadband Project) and National Knowledge Network (NKN) projects in Egypt?
1) ITIDA (Information Technology Industry Development Agency)
2) NTI (National Telecom Institute)

3) AT&T (American Telephone and Telegraph)
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 1 & 3
Explanation:
Tejas Networks Limited signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Telecom Egypt (TE),
ITIDA (Information Technology Industry Development Agency), and NTI (National Telecom Institute)
to replicate its experience of implementing the Bharatnet (Rural Broadband Project) and NKN
(National Knowledge Network) projects in Egypt.
i. Telecom Egypt is the 1st ever telecom operator in Egypt which provides all telecom services to its
customers. The company owns a 45% stake in Vodafone Egypt.
2. Which country’s Satellite Communications Association, ABRASAT has recently (in March ‘24)
signed an MoU with SatCom Industry Association of India (SIA-India) to boost advancement in
the space sector?
1) France
2) Germany
3) Singapore
4) Saudi Arabia
5) Brazil
Answer- 5) Brazil
Explanation:
The SatCom Industry Association of India (SIA-India) has signed a Memorandum of
Understanding(MoU) with the Brazilian Association of Satellite Telecommunications Companies
(ABRASAT -Associação Brasileira das Empresas de Telecomunicações por Satélite ) to boost
advancement in the space sector.
i. The MoU aims to foster collaboration and drive innovative ventures and technological cooperation
between India and Brazil.
3. In March 2024, A joint venture between the Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) and Salasar
Techno Engineering Limited (STEL) received a Rs 60 crore transmission project in ___________
(country).
1) Egypt
2) Rwanda
3) Nigeria
4) Angola
5) Brazil
Answer- 2) Rwanda
Explanation:
A Joint Venture (JV) between the Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) and Salasar Techno
Engineering Limited (STEL), the private steel manufacturer, has bagged “Rwanda Transmission
System Reinforcement and Last Mile Connectivity project (TSRLMC)”, a transmission project of
Rwanda in Central Africa.
• The project is valued at about Rs 60 crore (USD 7.152 million).

i. The order, secured from the Energy Development Corporation Limited (EDCL), is set to be executed
by the STEL in 18 months.
• RVNL owns 51% stake in the joint venture, while STEL owns the remaining 49%.
4. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) signed a multi-year deal worth USD 100 million
with an Airbus Atlantic group entity to supply 2300 varieties of metallic components?
1) Tata Advanced Systems Limited
2) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
3) BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited
4) Lockheed Martin India Private Limited
5) Mahindra Aerostructures Private Limited
Answer- 5) Mahindra Aerostructures Private Limited
Explanation:
Mahindra Aerostructures Private Limited (MASPL) has signed a multi-year deal worth USD 100
million with an Airbus Atlantic group entity.
i. As per the deal, Mahindra Aerostructures will supply nearly 2300 varieties of metallic
components to Airbus Atlantic in France from its manufacturing unit in India.
ii. MASPL will manufacture and deliver metallic components and small assemblies for the entire
Airbus commercial aircraft family, including the A320 series.
5. As of April 2024, the Indian government has raised Rs. ___________in 2023-24 by selling its
stakes in about 10 state-run companies.
1) Rs. 16,500 crores
Answer- 1) Rs. 16,500 crores
Explanation:
In the fiscal year 2023-24, the Indian government has raised Rs. 16,500 crores through stake sales
in about 10 state-run companies. This amount however fell short by about 9% compared to the
internal target of Rs 18,000 crore.
i. Despite lower stake sale receipts, the government received higher dividends from state-run
companies, totaling about Rs 63,000 crore in 2023/24, surpassing the target of Rs. 50,000 crore.
6. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) signed a binding term sheet with Japan’s
Panasonic Energy to manufacture cylindrical lithium-ion cells in India?
1) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
2) Reliance Industries Limited
3) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
4) Nayara Energy Limited
5) Numaligarh Refineries Limited
Answer- 3) Indian Oil Corporation Limited

Explanation:
State-owned refiner Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) and Japan’s Panasonic Energy Co. Ltd., a
Panasonic Group company have signed a binding term sheet for a proposed joint venture (JV) to
manufacture cylindrical lithium-ion cells in India for 2-and 3-wheel vehicles and energy storage
systems.
i. Through the partnership with Panasonic Energy, IOCL aims to address environmental challenges,
such as reducing carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.
7. According to the World Bank(WB)’s South Asia Development Update in April 2024, India’s
economy is projected to grow by _____ in 2024.
1) 8.1%
2) 7.5%
3) 9.1%
4) 11.8%
5) 12.7%
Answer- 2) 7.5%
Explanation:
World Bank(WB)’s South Asia Development Update April 2024 – Jobs for Resilience, stated that
India’s economy is projected to grow by 7.5% in 2024, a revision of 1.2% from 6.3% estimated in the
October 2023 report.
i. India’s output growth is forecasted to reach 7.5% in FY 2023-24 (FY24) before moderating to 6.6%
in FY25, primarily due to a deceleration in investments.
ii. South Asia is projected to maintain its status as the fastest-growing Emerging Market and
Developing Economy (EMDE) region globally for the next two years, with growth anticipated at 6.1%
in 2025.
iii. The WB in its semi-annual economic outlook titled ‘East Asia and Pacific April 2024 Economic
Update, April 2024: Firm Foundations of Growth‘ projected East Asia and Pacific’s (EAP) growth to
ease to 4.5% in 2024 from 5.1% in 2023, with developing EAP excluding China expected to pick up to
4.6% from 4.4% in 2023. Click here to read more.
8. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) signed an agreement with the Bayerische
Motoren Werke (BMW) Group to establish an Automotive Software and Information
Technology (IT) development hub in Pune, Bengaluru, and Chennai?
1) Tech Mahindra Limited
2) Wipro Limited
3) Infosys Technologies Private Limited
4) Tata Technologies Limited
5) Hindustan Computers Limited
Answer- 4) Tata Technologies Limited
Explanation:
The Bayerische Motoren Werke (BMW) Group, and Tata Technologies Limited, a subsidiary of Tata
Motors Limited, have signed an agreement to form a Joint Venture (JV) to establish an Automotive
Software and Information Technology (IT) development Hub in Pune(Maharashtra), Bengaluru
(Karnataka) and Chennai(Tamil Nadu).

i. Bengaluru and Pune will be the main centres of operations and development. In Chennai, the
primary focus would be on business IT solutions.
9. NTPC Limited has declared permanent closure of its Barauni Thermal Power Station Stage-I
(2×110 megawatt) in ________ from March 31, 2024.
1) Odisha
2) Maharashtra
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Bihar
5) Gujarat
Answer- 4) Bihar
Explanation:
NTPC Limited (formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation), India’s leading power
utility, officially declared the permanent closure of its Barauni Thermal Power Station Stage-I
(2×110 megawatt (MW)) in Bihar from March 31, 2024.
• The closure encompasses 2 units (Units 6 & 7), along with all Auxiliary systems except CHP,
Switchyard, Ash Dyke, and Township.
i. NTPC established in 1975, boasts a total installed capacity of 75,418 MW (including Joint Ventures
(JVs)) and aims to achieve a capacity of 130 gigawatts (GW) by 2032.
MoU’s AND AGREEMENTS

-------------
APPOINTMENTS AND RESIGNATIONS
1. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief
Executive Officer of Axis Capital Limited?
1) Parag Gude
2) Atul Mehra
3) Rajesh Kumar
4) Rakesh Sharma
5) Amith Patel
Answer- 2) Atul Mehra
Explanation:
Axis Capital Limited (Erstwhile ENAM Securities Private Limited) has appointed Atul Mehra as its
Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO), succeeding Salil Pitale, who held the
interim MD & CEO position from 2018-2024.
i. Axis Capital has also appointed Parag Gude as the Chief Operating Officer (COO) of Institutional
Equities and Dhaval Desai as Head of Cash Equities.
2. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the Managing Director (MD) of Tata
International Limited (TIL)?
1) Ajay Rathore
2) Ashwini Kumar

3) Rajeev Singhal
4) Uthhav Singh
5) Rakesh Chandra
Answer- 3) Rajeev Singhal
Explanation:
On April 1 2024, The Tata International Limited (TIL), the global trading and distribution arm of Tata
Group, appointed Rajeev Singhal as its Managing Director (MD).
i. Rajeev Singhal succeeded Anand Sen, who attained retirement on March 31, 2024.
ii. Prior to his appointment he was serving as the Executive Director (ED) and Chief Operating Officer
(COO) at TIL.
3. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the first woman Prime Minister of the
Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC)?
1) Irene Esambo
2) Gertrude Kitembo Mpala
3) Wivine Mumba Matipa
4) Judith Suminwa Tuluka
5) Chantal Safu
Answer- 4) Judith Suminwa Tuluka
Explanation:
Felix Tshisekedi, President of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), appointed Judith
Suminwa Tuluka as the first woman Prime Minister of the DRC.
i. She succeeded Jean-Michel Sama Lukonde who served as the Prime Minister of DRC since 2021.
4. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the Chief Secretary of Assam?
1) A P Das Joshi
2) Ravi Kota
3) Ravi Shankar Prasad
4) Tej Pradad Bhusal
5) Biswajit Pegu
Answer- 2) Ravi Kota
Explanation:
Ravi Kota, Senior Indian Administrative Service (IAS)Officer took charge as the new Chief Secretary
of Assam, succeeding Paban Kumar Borthakur.
i. Dr. Ravi Kota, an IAS officer of the 1993 batch of Assam-Meghalaya cadre, previously served as the
Additional Chief Secretary of Assam’s Finance, Industry, and Trade section, as well as the Public
Institutions Department.
• He continued to hold charge of Public Enterprises, Industries, and Commerce after assuming
the office of Chief Secretary, even though departed from the Finance Department.
5. In April 2024, ________________ won the Egyptian Presidential election for the 4th term.
1) Ahmed Safiq Sisi
2) Moussa Moustafa
3) Moustafa Madbouly
4) Abdel Fattah Al-Sisi

5) El Sayyid El- Badawi
Answer- 4) Abdel Fattah Al-Sisi
Explanation:
Abdel Fattah Al-Sisi has taken oath as the President of Egypt for the third term in the New
Administrative Capital of the country. The 69-year-old former army chief will continue with his
presidential powers until 2030 that followed constitutional amendments that extended presidential
terms to six years allowing him to stand for a third election.
i. He won the election in December 2023 with 89.6% of the votes and with no major challengers.
6. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the President of the Associated Chambers
of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)?
1) Ajay Singh
2) Aditya Ghosh
3) Sanjiv Kapoor
4) Vineet Agar
5) Sanjay Nayar
Answer- 5) Sanjay Nayar
Explanation:
Sanjay Nayar, the Founder and Chairman of Sorin Investment Fund has taken over as President of the
Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), India’s oldest apex Industry
chamber, for 2024-25. Previously, he served as the Vice President of ASSOCHAM.
i. Sanjay Nayar replaced Ajay Singh, Chairman & Managing Director(CMD) of Spicejet, who served as
ASSOCHAM’s President for 2023-24.
7. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) nominated as a member of the Athletic Commission of
the Asian Athletics Association (AAA) for four years (2024–2028)?
1) G. V. Dhanalakshmi
2) M. D. Valsamma
3) Vandana Rao
4) Shiny Kurisingal Abraham Wilson
5) Kutty Saramma
Answer- 4) Shiny Kurisingal Abraham Wilson
Explanation:
Former Indian track and field athlete Shiny Kurisingal Abraham Wilson was nominated as a
member of the Athletic Commission of the Asian Athletics Association (AAA) for four years (2024–
2028).
• She was nominated as a member in a virtual meeting led by the Chairman of the Athletic
Commission, Mohammad Suleiman (Qatar).
ii. She became the first Indian woman to be the flagbearer for the Indian contingent at the 1992
Barcelona Olympics.
iii. Shiny Wilson was awarded the Padma Shri in 1998 in the field of sports and also received the
Arjuna Award in 1985

8. In April 2024, Ousmane Sonko was appointed as the Prime Minister (PM) of ________
(Country).
1) Ghana
2) Morocco
3) Tanzania
4) Cameroon
5) Senegal
Answer- 5) Senegal
Explanation:
The Senegal President Bassirou Diomaye Faye appointed Ousmane Sonko as the Prime Minister
(PM) of Senegal in his first act as President.
i. Ousmane Sonko replaced Sidiki Kaba as the new prime minister. Sidiki Kaba was appointed as the
prime minister by former President Macky Sall in March 2024.
ii. Bassirou Diomaye Faye was newly appointed as the President of Senegal on April 2 2024.
9. Who has recently (in April ‘24) taken charge as the Principal Director General (PDG) of the
Press Information Bureau (PIB)?
1) Sheyphali B. Sharan
2) Durga Shakti Nagpal
3) Usha Padhee
4) Preethi Raj
5) Rajni Sekhri Sibal
Answer- 1) Sheyphali B. Sharan
Explanation:
On April 1, 2024, Sheyphali B. Sharan took charge as the Principal Director General (PDG) of the
Press Information Bureau (PIB) by succeeding Manish Desai, who attained retirement on March 31,
2024.
i. Sheyphali Sharan, an Indian Information Service (IIS) Officer of 1990 batch, became the fifth
woman officer to head PIB.
ii. She has also served as the Director of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (Department of
Traditional Systems of Medicine/AYUSH) from 2002 to 2007 and the Ministry of Finance (Department
of Economic Affairs 2013 to 2017).
10. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the 8th Executive Secretary of the
Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?
1) Anja Karliczek
2) Annegret Kramp
3) Renate Künast
4) Christine Lambrecht
5) Astrid Schomaker
Answer- 5) Astrid Schomaker
Explanation:
António Guterres, Secretary-General (SG) of the United Nations (UN), appointed Astrid Schomaker of
Germany as the 8th Executive Secretary of the Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD).

i. With this appointment, She becomes the CBD’s first Executive Secretary from Germany.
• David Cooper of the United Kingdom (UK), Acting Executive Secretary of CBD (since February
2023), will continue his role until Schomaker assumes her functions.
• David Cooper succeeded Elizabeth Maruma Mrema, who was appointed as Deputy Executive
Director of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
11. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as a member of the Economic Advisory
Panel of the World Bank Group (WBG)?
1) Rakesh Mohan
2) Chandran
3) Amit Patel
4) Shaktikanta Das
5) Raghuram Rajan
Answer- 1) Rakesh Mohan
Explanation:
The World Bank has appointed Rakesh Mohan, Former Deputy Governor (DG) of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) as a member in the Economic Advisory Panel of World Bank Group (WBG).
• Nicholas Stern, IG Patel Professor of Economics and Government at the London School of
Economics, United Kingdom (U.K.) will be the chairman of Economic Advisory Panel of WBG
• Indermit Gill, Chief Economist of the World Bank Group (WBG) and Senior President for
Development Economics will co-chair the panel.
• The panel members will have a tenure of two years.
12. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as the Presiding Officer of the Securities
Appellate Tribunal (SAT) for 4 years?
1) Justice V.M. Shyam Kumar
2) Justice M.A Abdul Hakkim
3) Justice Devendra Kumar Upadhyaya
4) Justice Pratinidhi Srinivasacharya Dinesh Kumar
5) Justice S. Vaidyanathan
Answer- 4) Justice Pratinidhi Srinivasacharya Dinesh Kumar
Explanation:
The Ministry of Finance has appointed Justice Pratinidhi Srinivasacharya (PS) Dinesh Kumar,
former Chief Justice (CJ) of Karnataka High Court(HC) as the Presiding Officer of the Securities
Appellate Tribunal (SAT) for 4 years, or until he attains the age of 70 years.
• PS Dinesh Kumar succeeds Justice Tarun Agarwala, Who served as the Presiding Officer of SAT
from December 2018 to December 2023.
i. Dheeraj Bhatnagar, former Principal Chief Commissioner of Income Tax (Delhi), was appointed as
a Technical Member of SAT for 4 years, or until he attained the age of 60 years.
• Dheeraj Bhatnagar succeeds Justice MT Joshi, who served as a member of SAT from March
2019 to February 2023.

13. Who has been recently (in April ‘24) selected as the Chairman of the National Cooperative
Dairy Federation of India Limited (NCDFI)?
1) T Nandakumar
2) Dilip Rath
3) Meenesh Kumar Champaklal Shah
4) Milind Rathore
5) Ashish Shukla
Answer- 3) Meenesh Kumar Champaklal Shah
Explanation:
Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), Dr.
Meenesh Kumar Champaklal Shah has been unanimously elected as the Chairman of the National
Cooperative Dairy Federation of India Ltd. (NCDFI) in the Board elections held on 5 April 2024. He
represents the Jharkhand Milk Federation on the board.
i. Dr. Meenesh Shah replaced Mangal Jit Rai, who served as Chairman of NCDFI for 2 terms from 2017
to 2024. Click here to read more.
14. Which of the following personalities have been recently (in April ‘24) appointed as part-
time members of the Governing Board of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)?
1) M.P. Ram Mohan
2) Dinabandhu Mohapatra
3) Sidhil Sasi
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Explanation:
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has appointed M.P. Ram Mohan, a Professor at the Indian
Institute of Management (IIM) Ahmedabad(Gujarat), and Dinabandhu Mohapatra, a Non-Executive
Independent Director at Indiabulls Housing Limited, as part-time members of the Governing Board of
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI).
• The appointment came into effect on 19th February 2024. They will hold the post for a period
of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 or until further orders.
AWARDS AND RECOGNITIONS
1. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the Hockey India 6th Annual
Awards 2023 held at New Delhi, Delhi in March 2024?
A) Indian Field Hockey Player & Vice- captain of the Indian Hockey men’s team, Hardik Singh
was honoured with the Hockey India Balbir Singh Senior award for Player of the Year 2023
(Men)
B)Indian field hockey player Salima Tete was honoured with the Hockeyg India Balbir Singh
Senior award for the Player of the year 2023 ( women).
C) Ashok Kumar won the prestigious Hockey India Major Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement
Award for the Year 2023.
1) All A, B & C

2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only A
Answer- 1) All A, B & C
Explanation:
Indian Field Hockey Player & Vice- captain of the Indian Hockey men’s team, Hardik Singh was
honored with the Hockey India Balbir Singh Senior award for Player of the Year 2023 (Men) at the
Hockey India 6th Annual Awards 2023 event held in New Delhi, Delhi.
i. Indian field hockey player Salima Tete was honoured with the Hockeyg India Balbir Singh Senior
award for the Player of the year 2023 ( women).
• The Balbir Singh Senior award for Player of the year (both men and women) carries a cash
prize of Rs 25,00,000.
ii. Ashok Kumar won the prestigious Hockey India Major Dhyan Chand Lifetime Achievement
Award for the Year 2023, with a cash prize of Rs 30 Lakh and a trophy. Click here to read more.
2. Which of the following points is/are “correct” with respect to the 20th edition Young Global
Leaders Community: The Class 2024 released by World Economic Forum (WEF) in April 2024?
A) A total of 11 members were named in the South Asia category in the Young Global Leaders
Community: The Class 2024, of which 7 were Indians.
B) Shashwat Goenka, Vice Chairman of RP Sanjiv Goenka Group was among the 4 Indians
selected from the business category in the list of Young Global Leaders(YGL).
C) Sharad Vivek Sagar, Founder and CEO, Dexterity Global named in the “Social Entrepreneur”
category.
1) Only A
2) Only A & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) All A, B & C
Explanation:
The World Economic Forum (WEF) released the 20th edition of “Young Global Leaders Community:
The Class 2024” in Geneva, Switzerland. This year, a total of 11 members were named in the South
Asia category, of which 7 were Indians.
• Shashwat Goenka , Vice Chairman of RP Sanjiv Goenka Group was among the 4 Indians selected
from the business category in the list of Young Global Leaders(YGL). List of Indians Named in
the Young Global Leaders List 2024.
• Sharad Vivek Sagar, Founder and CEO, Dexterity Global in the “Social Entrepreneur” category.
3. Name the company that has recently (in April ‘24) received the Achievement Award for
Creating Social Development and Impact at the 15th CIDC Vishwakarma Awards (VKA) (2024).
1) SJVN Limited
2) NTPC Limited
3) NMDC Limited
4) THDC India Limited

5) NHPC Limited
Answer- 1) SJVN Limited
Explanation:
SJVN Limited, a hydroelectric power generation company, received the Achievement Award for
Creating Social Development and Impact at the 15th CIDC Vishwakarma Awards (VKA) (2024)
instituted by the Construction Industry Development Council(CIDC).
i. The award recognizes its contribution towards positive change through its Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR) initiatives. SJVN Ltd has secured the award for the 3rd consecutive time.
ii. SJVN also received the CIDC Partners in Progress Trophy 2024.
SUMMITS, CONFERENCES
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COMMITTEE AND MEETING

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INDEX
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ACQUISITION AND MERGERS
1. Which of the following statements is/are “correct” with respect to the recent (in April ‘24)
approvals given by the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?
A) CCI has approved the acquisition of up to approximately 8% share capital, 8.70% of the
voting and economic rights, of MG Motor India along with certain rights by IndoEdge India
Fund- Large Value Fund (LVF) schemes.
B) CCI approved the acquisition of Nagarjuna Fertilizers and Chemicals Limited(NFCL) assets
and 100% shareholding of Greenko ZeroC Private Limited (ZeroC) by AMG India.
C) CCI has approved the acquisition of 10.39% shareholding of Annapurna Finance Private
Limited(AFPL) and subscription to its certain debentures by Piramal Alternatives Trust Fund.
1) All A, B & C
2) OnlyA & B
3) Only B & C
4) Only A & C
5) Only C
Explanation:
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the following proposals on 2nd April 2024.
i. CCI has approved the acquisition of up to approximately 8% share capital, 8.70% of the voting and
economic rights, of MG Motor India(Target) along with certain rights by IndoEdge India Fund- Large
Value Fund (LVF) schemes(Acquirer).
ii. CCI approved the acquisition of Nagarjuna Fertilizers and Chemicals Limited(NFCL) assets and
100% shareholding of Greenko ZeroC Private Limited (ZeroC) by AMG India using proceeds of

investments received from the AMG Entities, Baker Street Investment Pte. Ltd. (BSI), Gentari
International Renewables Pte. Ltd. (Gentari), and Platinum Rock B 2014 RSC Limited.
iii. CCI has approved the acquisition of 10.39% shareholding of Annapurna Finance Private
Limited(AFPL) and subscription to its certain debentures by Piramal Alternatives Trust Fund. Click
here to read more.
2. In April 2024, The Liberty Media Corporation(Liberty Media) signed an agreement to

acquire approximately ________of Dorna Sports, S.L.
1) 77%
2) 86%
3) 65%
4) 39%
5) 83%
Answer- 2) 86%
Explanation:
The Liberty Media Corporation(Liberty Media) has signed an agreement to acquire approximately
86% of Dorna Sports, S.L.(Dorna), the exclusive commercial and television rights holder of
MotoGP(Grand Prix motorcycle racing), from Bridgepoint and Canada Pension Plan Investment Board
(CPP Investments).
i. The equity consideration comprises 65% cash, 21% in shares of Series C Liberty F1 common stock.
ii. Dorna management retains ~14% of their equity in the business and the transaction reflects an
enterprise value for MotoGP of 4.2 billion Euro and an equity value of 3.5 billion Euro with the existing
debt balance at MotoGP.
DEFENCE
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SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
1. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) collaborated with OpenAI to invest USD 100
billion for Stargate, an Artificial Intelligence (AI) supercomputer data centre project?
1) Microsoft Corporation
2) Oracle Corporation
3) Apple Inc.
4) International Business Machines
5) Google
Answer- 1) Microsoft Corporation
Explanation:
Microsoft Corporation and OpenAI announce a joint plan for Stargate, an AI (Artificial Intelligence)
supercomputer data centre project in the U.S., estimated to cost upto USD 100 billion and set for
launch in 2028.
i. Stargate will be the fifth phase of a supercomputer series, with the fourth phase expected by 2026.

2. Which International Organisation has recently (in April ‘24) unveiled S.A.R.A.H., a generative
artificial intelligence (AI)?
1) World Trade Organisation
2) United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
3) World Health Organization
4) World Food Programme
5) International Council on Monuments and Sites
Answer- 3) World Health Organization
Explanation:
On 2nd April 2024, The World Health Organization (WHO) unveiled S.A.R.A.H. (Smart AI Resource
Assistant for Health), its first digital health promoter prototype with enhanced empathetic response
powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
i. The digital health promoter was launched ahead of World Health Day 2024 (7th April 2024)
observance focused on ‘My Health, My Right’.
ii. S.A.R.A.H., also known as Sarah, is supported by Biological AI technology of Soul Machines Limited.
3. Which Ministry has recently (in April ‘24) launched the myCGHS app to advance healthcare
accessibility for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries?
2) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
3) Ministry of Finance
4) Ministry of Women & Child Development
5) Ministry of Science and Technology
Answer- 2) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Explanation:
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) launched the myCGHS app for the iPhone
Operating System (iOS) devices to advance in healthcare accessibility for Central Government
Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries.
i. The app is designed to enhance access to Electronic Health Records, information, and resources for
CGHS beneficiaries.
ii. The myCGHS iOS app is developed by the technical teams of the National Informatics Centre (NIC)
Himachal Pradesh and the NIC Health Team.
4. Which Company has recently (in April ‘24) tested the lunar rover prototype, the Flexible
Logistics and Exploration (FLEX) rover in Mojave Desert, California?
1) Xona Space Systems
2) Umbra Lab Inc
3) Venturi Astrolab Inc
4) Turion Space
5) Viridian Space Corporation
Answer- 3) Venturi Astrolab Inc
Explanation
Venturi Astrolab Inc, a Los Angeles, United States (US)-based startup, has successfully tested a
groundbreaking lunar rover prototype, the Flexible Logistics and Exploration (FLEX) rover, in
California’s Mojave Desert.

i. Piloted by retired Canadian astronaut Chris Hadfield and MIT (Massachusetts Institute of
Technology) aerospace graduate student Michelle Lin, the FLEX rover demonstrated agility and
capabilities, including setting up a vertical solar array.
ii. It is designed for National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)’s Artemis program.
5. Which country’s defence force has recently (in April ‘24) received two Dornier 228 planes
from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)?
1) France
2) Uruguay
3) Ecuador
4) Guyana
5) Argentina
Answer- 4) Guyana
Explanation:
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) delivers two Dornier 228 planes to Guyana Defence Force
(GDF) via Boeing C-17 Globemaster military transport planes at Cheddi Jagan International Airport
(CJIA).
i. The Dornier 228 aircraft is known for its versatility and reliability. It is suitable for diverse
military and civilian applications such as surveillance, reconnaissance, medical evacuation, and
transport operations.
6. Which Army Forces Command, along with Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) has recently (in April ‘24) conducted the flight test of the New Generation Ballistic
missile Agni-Prime (Agni-P) from the coast of Odisha?
1) Western Command
2) Strategic Forces Command
3) Army Training Command
4) Southern Command
5) Special Forces Command
Answer- 2) Strategic Forces Command
Explanation:
On 3rd April 2024, Strategic Forces Command (SFC) and Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the flight test of the New Generation Ballistic missile
Agni-Prime (Agni-P) from Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.
i. It is a two-stage surface-to-surface, canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile, has a range
between 1000 km to 2000km.
ii. It is the 6th variant of Agni series missiles developed under Integrated Guided Missile
Development Program (IGMDP).
7. In April 2024, the Indian Army commenced the induction of the indigenous ‘Akashteer
Control & Reporting Systems’ to enhance air defence capabilities.
Which company developed the Project ‘Akashteer’?
1) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
2) Munitions India Limited
3) Bharat Electronics Limited

4) Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
5) Bharat Dynamics Limited
Answer- 3) Bharat Electronics Limited
Explanation:
The Indian Army has commenced the induction of the indigenous ‘Akashteer Control & Reporting
Systems’ to enhance its air defence capabilities. This will enable the Indian Army’s defence units to
operate in an integrated manner.
i. The project was developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) under the Atmanirbhar Bharat
initiative.
8. Which country’s superconducting fusion device, artificial sun, has recently (in April ‘24) set a
new world record in the nuclear fusion experiment by sustaining a plasma loop to 100 million
degrees Celsius for 48 seconds?
1) Japan
2) France
3) China
4) South Korea
5) Germany
Answer- 4) South Korea
Explanation:
South Korea’s superconducting fusion device, the Korea Superconducting Tokamak Advanced
Research (KSTAR), also known as the “artificial sun” at the Korea Institute of Fusion Energy (KFE),
set a new world record in the nuclear fusion experiment by sustaining a plasma loop to 100 million
degrees Celsius for 48 seconds.
• Tests conducted between December 2023 and February 2024 showcased the sustained high
temperatures, beating the previous record of 30 seconds set in 2021. This is 7 times hotter
than the core of the sun.
i. KSTAR aims to sustain plasma temperatures of 100 million degrees for 300 seconds by 2026.
9. In April 2024, The Indian Air Force (IAF) received the delivery of the first indigenously
designed and developed Crash Fire __________ (CFT).
1) Transform
2) Tender
3) Technology
4) Technique
5) Taper
Answer- 2) Tender
Explanation:
On 3rd April 2024, The Indian Air Force (IAF) received the delivery of the first indigenously
designed and developed Crash Fire Tender (CFT).
i. It was manufactured by a Noida(Uttar Pradesh-UP)-based Indian Micro, Small & Medium
Enterprises (MSME) firm, against the contract worth Rs 291 crores. The CFT was delivered within 14
months of contract.

SPORTS
1. Name the Indian Badminton Player who has recently (in March’ 24) won the women’s singles
title of the Orlen Polish Open 2024 in Poland.
1) Tanya Hemanth
2) Anupama Upadhyaya
3) Ashwini Ponnappa
4) Pragya Jaiswal
5) Jwala Gutta
Answer- 2) Anupama Upadhyaya
Explanation:
India’s Anupama Upadhyaya defeats Tanya Hemanth (India) to win the women’s singles title of the
Orlen Polish Open 2024, held from 20th to 24 March 2024 in Wilanow Sports Centre, Warsaw,
Poland.
• It was Anupama’s fifth international women’s singles title.
i. The Indian pair M.R. Arjun and Dhruv Kapila won the men’s doubles title by defeating Denmark’s
William Kryger Boe and Christian Faust Kjær in the finals.
ii. Denmark’s Victor Ørding Kauffmann won the men’s singles title by defeating Jia Heng Jason Teh
(Singapore) in the finals.
2. How many medals were recently (in March ‘24) won by India in the Youth World Boxing Cup
2024 held in Montenegro?
1) 28
2) 30
3) 26
4) 39
5) 47
Answer- 3) 26
Explanation:
The Indian boxing contingent won 26 medals (5 gold, 9 silver, and 12 bronze) in the Youth World
Boxing Cup 2024 (33rd Adriatic Pearl tournament) held at the Hotel Splendid Conference & Spa
Resort in Budva, Montenegro, from 3rd to 11th March 2024.
i. Russia topped the medal tally with eight gold medals. India finished second with five gold medals,
while Poland was in the third position with three gold medals.
ii. Chanchal Chaudhary won a gold medal in the Women’s Youth Light Fly (50kg) category by
defeating Valeria Amparan of Mexico. Click here to read more.
3. Name the tennis player who has recently (in April ‘24) won the Men’s Singles title at the
Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP) Miami Open 2024 held in the United States of
America(USA).
1) Alexander Zverev (Germany)
2) Jannik Sinner (Italy)
3) Carlos Alcaraz (Spanish )
4) Daniil Medvedev (Russian)
5) Djokovic Novak (Serbian)

Answer- 2) Jannik Sinner (Italy)
Explanation:
Italian tennis player Jannik Sinner won the Men’s Singles title at the Association of Tennis
Professionals (ATP) Miami Open 2024 by defeating Grigor Dimitrov of Bulgaria in the finals held at
the Hard Rock Stadium, Miami Gardens, Florida, the United States of America(USA).
• He became the first Italian to win the Miami Open.
i. Daniel Collins of the USA won the Miami Open 2024 Women’s singles title by defeating World No. 4
Elena Rybakina of Kazakhstan. This marks her first career WTA 1000 title and 3rd WTA Tour Singles
title.
ii. India’s Rohan Bopanna and Australia’s Matthew Ebden won the 2024 Miami Open men’s doubles
title defeating Croatia’s Ivan Dodig and USA’s Austin Krajicek. Click here to read more.
4. In April 2024, _____________became the only Indian weightlifter to qualify for the Paris
Olympics 2024 , after finishing third in Group B of the women’s 49kg division and 12th overall
with a total lift of 184 Kg at the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF) World Cup 2024.
1) Saikhom Mirabai Chanu
2) Gyaneshwari Yadav
3) Bindyarani Devi
4) Akanksha Vyavahare
5) Punam Yadav
Answer- 1) Saikhom Mirabai Chanu
Explanation:
Saikhom Mirabai Chanu became the only Indian weightlifter to qualify for the Paris Olympics
2024 after finishing third in Group B of the women’s 49kg division and 12th overall with a total lift of
184 kg (81 kg snatch + 103 kg clean and jerk) at the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF)
World Cup 2024.
i. The 2024 IWF World Cup is being held from 31st March to 11th April 2024 in Phuket, Thailand.
ii. Indian weightlifter Bindyarani Devi Sorokhaibam won a bronze medal in the non-Olympic women’s
55kg category at the IWF World Cup 2024. Kang Hyon Gyong(Democratic People’s Republic of Korea)
won the gold medal while Mihaela Cambei (Romania) won the silver medal.
BOOKS AND AUTHORS

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OBITUARY
1. In March 2024, the renowned Oscar-winning American Visual Effects(VFX) pioneer, Tim
McGovern passed away.
He received an Oscar Award in the ________ (Year) for the film Total Recall.
1) 1993
2) 1990
3) 1991
4) 1995
5) 1998

Answer- 3) 1991
Explanation:
Tim McGovern, the renowned Oscar winning American Visual Effects(VFX) pioneer passed away at
the age of 68 in Washington, the United States of America(USA). He was born on 24th June 1955 in
Chicago, Illinois, USA.
i. Tim McGovern won the Academy Award (Oscar) – Special Achievement Award (Visual Effects) in
1991 for the film ‘’Total Recall’’. He shared the award with Eric Brevig, Rob Bottin and Alex Funke.
ii. He was named recipient of the 2023 VES Founders Award and he was also honoured with Lifetime
VES memberships.
2. Which American veteran actress recently (in April ‘24) passed away and was also the
recipient of the Golden Globe Award in the ‘New Star of the Year’ category (1954) for ‘It Came
from Outer Space’?
1) Brittany Murphy
2) Suzanne Somers
3) Staci Keanan
4) Barbara Rush
5) Joyce DeWitt
Answer- 4) Barbara Rush
Explanation:
Veteran American actress Barbara Rush passed away at the age of 97 in Los Angeles, California, the
United States of America (USA). She was born on 4th January 1927, in Denver, Colorado, USA.
i. She won a Golden Globe Award in the ‘New Star of The Year’ (actress) category in 1954 for her role
in ‘It Came from Outer Space’.
IMPORTANT DAYS
1. When was the International Transgender Day of Visibility (TDOV) 2024 observed across the
globe?
1) 30th March 2024
2) 31st March 2024
3) 28th March 2024
4) 27th March 2024
5) 26th March 2024
Answer- 2) 31st March 2024
Explanation:
International Transgender Day of Visibility (TDOV) 2024 observed across the globe on 31 March
2024 to celebrate transgender, nonbinary, and gender expansive/gender non-conforming individuals
and the contributions of trans people and the nonbinary community.
i. The Day aims to draw attention toward eliminating poverty, violence, and discrimination based on
gender identity faced by the community.
ii. The Transgender Pride Flag was created by American trans woman Monica Helms in 1999. Click
here to read more.

2. When was the United Nations (UN) World Autism Awareness Day (WAAD) 2024 observed
across the globe?
1) 1st April 2024
2) 2nd April 2024
3) 30th March 2024
4) 31st March 2024
5) 28th March 2024
Answer- 2) 2nd April 2024
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN) World Autism Awareness Day (WAAD) 2024 observed across the globe
on 2nd April 2024 to raise awareness about Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and promote the
realisation of human rights and basic freedoms for autistic individuals on an equal basis with others.
i. 2 April 2024 marks the observance of the 17th annual World Autism Awareness Day. Click here to
read more.
3. When was the International Children’s Book Day (ICBD) 2024 observed across the globe?
1) 2nd April 2024
2) 1st April 2024
3) 30th March 2024
4) 31st March 2024
5) 28th March 2024
Answer- 1) 2nd April 2024
Explanation:
International Children’s Book Day (ICBD) 2024 observed across the globe on 2nd April 2024 , the
birth anniversary of Danish author Hans Christian Andersen, known for his fairy tales, to foster a love
for reading among children and highlight the importance of children’s books.
i. International Board on Books for Young People (IBBY) Japan (JBBY) is the official sponsor of ICBD
2024, under the theme “Cross the Seas on the Wing of your Imagination“.
• “Imagination” is the keyword for ICBD 2024. Click here to read more.
4. When was the Raising Day of the Army Medical Corps (AMC), celebrated by the Indian Army?
1) 3rd April 2024
2) 2nd April 2024
3) 30th March 2024
4) 31st March 2024
5) 1st April 2024
Answer- 1) 3rd April 2024
Explanation:
On 3 April 2024, the Indian Army celebrated the 260th Raising Day of the Army Medical Corps
(AMC), a specialist corps in the Indian Army that provides medical services to all serving and veteran
army personnel, as well as their families.
i. The Raising Day of AMC commemorates the founding day of the AMC and pays tribute to the medical
personnel who have sacrificed their lives in the line of duty.
ii. Motto of AMC: “Sarve Santu Niramaya,” translates to “Let all be free from disease and disability,”
embodying its mission. Click here to read more.

5. When was the United Nations (UN) International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in
Mine Action 2024 observed across the globe with the theme of ‘Protecting Lives, Building
Peace’?
1) 4th April 2024
2) 3rd April 2024
3) 2nd April 2024
4) 1st April 2024
5) 31st March 2024
Answer- 1) 4th April 2024
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN)’s International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action
2024 was observed across the globe on 4th April 2024 with the theme of ‘Protecting Lives,
Building Peace’ to raise awareness and encourage the establishment and development of national
mine-action capacities in affected countries.
i. 4th April 2024 marks the observance of the 19th International Day for Mine Awareness and
Assistance in Mine Action.
ii. The annual observance is led by the United Nations Mine Action Service (UNMAS). Click here to
read more.
6. When was the National Maritime Day (NMD) 2024 observed across India with the theme of
“Sustainable Shipping: Challenges and Opportunities”?
1) 2nd April 2024
2) 5th April 2024
3) 1st April 2024
4) 3rd April 2024
5) 4th April 2024
Explanation:
National Maritime Day (NMD) 2024 observed across India on 5th April 2024 with the theme of
“Sustainable Shipping: Challenges and Opportunities” to highlight the significance of the national
maritime sector in the development of the Indian economy, global trade, and economic exchange
across countries.
i. 5 April 2024 marks the observance of the 61st National Maritime Day.
ii. Merchant Navy Week 2024 (National Maritime Week) is celebrated alongside National Maritime
Day 2024 from 30th March 2024 to 5th April 2024. Click here to read more.
7. The 5th International Day of Conscience (IDC) 2024 observed across the globe on
_____________.
1) 4th April 2024
2) 3rd April 2024
3) 2nd April 2024
4) 5th April 2024
5) 1st April 2024

Explanation:
The United Nations (UN)’s International Day of Conscience (IDC) 2024 observed across the globe on
5th April 2024 to raise awareness about the importance of building a culture of peace with love and
conscience, through the customs of the local, national, and regional communities.
i. 5th April 2024 marks the observance of the 5th International Day of Conscience.
ii. The 1st ever International Day of Conscience was observed on 5 April 2020. Click here to read
more.
8. When was the United Nations (UN) International Day of Sport for Development and Peace
(IDSDP) 2024 observed across the globe with the theme of “Sport for the Promotion of Peaceful
and Inclusive Societies”?
1) 2nd April 2024
2) 5th April 2024
3) 3rd April 2024
4) 4th April 2024
5) 6th April 2024
Explanation:
The United Nations (UN) International Day of Sport for Development and Peace (IDSDP) 2024
observed across the globe on 6th April 2024 with the theme of “Sport for the Promotion of
Peaceful and Inclusive Societies” to recognise the positive roles of sport and physical activity in
global communities and the lives of people worldwide.
i. 6 April 2024 marks the observance of the 11th edition of the IDSDP. Click here to read more.
ENVIRONMENT
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CURRENT STATIC BANKING
1. Which of the following is ‘Not’ a five development institutions of the World Bank?
1) Institute for Capacity Development
2) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
3) International Development Association
4) International Finance Corporation
5) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
Answer- 1) Institute for Capacity Development
Explanation:
About World Bank:
Together, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and International
Development Association (IDA) form the World Bank.
i. The World Bank Group consists of five development institutions: IBRD, IDA, International Finance
Corporation (IFC), Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) & International Centre for
Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).

2. Which company’s merchant banker registration has been recently (in March’ 24) cancelled
by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for breach of eligibility criteria?
1) Abaci Investments Limited
2) Agrani Equity and Investment Ltd
3) Karvy Investor Services Ltd
4) BMSL Investment Ltd
5) Banco Finance and Investment Ltd
Answer- 3) Karvy Investor Services Ltd
Explanation:
Capital markets regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) cancelled the registration of
Karvy Investor Services Ltd. (KISL) as a merchant banker for breach of eligibility criteria.
• The order came after the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) conducted an
inspection of Karvy Investor Services during March 15-17, 2023 and in the onsite inspection,
the regulator found that the merchant banker was not functioning or operational both at the
registered as well as in the correspondence address.
3. NEFT is a nationwide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer.

In NEFT, what does ‘E’ stand for?
1) Exchange
2) Electronic
3) E-commerce
4) Earned
5) Equity
Answer- 2) Electronic
Explanation:
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system facilitating one-to-one
funds transfer.
i. Under this Scheme, individuals, firms and corporates can electronically transfer funds from any
bank branch to any individual, firm or corporate having an account with any other bank branch in the
country participating in the Scheme.
4. What is the Tagline of the Bank of India?

1) Always You First
2) Relationship Beyond Banking
3) We value you
4) We Understand Your World
5) Support All the Way
Answer- 2) Relationship Beyond Banking
Explanation:
About Bank of India:
Managing Director(MD) and Chief Executive Officer(CEO) – Rajneesh Karnatak
Headquarters – Mumbai, Maharashtra
Established in – 1906
Tagline – Relationship Beyond Banking

5. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is a _______ digit code used to identify the
particular branch of a particular bank.
1) 8
2) 9
3) 11
4) 12
5) 10
Answer- 2) 9
Explanation:
Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) is a unique code used to identify the particular branch of
a particular bank. It is used mainly by the banking industry to ease the processing and clearance of
cheques and other documents. It is a 9-digit code.
i. The first three digits represent the city code of the bank branch – generally the pin code initials, The
next three digits represent the bank code, and The last three digits represent the bank branch.
6. What is the legal status of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
1) Registered Society
2) Not for Profit Company
3) Statutory Body
4) Constitutional Body
5) Independent body
Answer- 3) Statutory Body
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India(SEBI) was established by the Government of India on 12
April 1988 as an interim administrative body to promote orderly and healthy growth of the securities
market and for investor protection.
• It was to function under the overall administrative control of the Ministry of Finance of the
Government of India. The SEBI was given statutory status on 30 January 1992 through an
ordinance.
• The ordinance was later replaced by an Act of Parliament known as the Securities and
Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
7. In SWIFT code, the 1st four alphabetic characters represent _______.

1) User Name
2) Branch Code
3) Location Code
4) Country Name
5) Bank Name
Answer- 5) Bank Name
Explanation:
SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) is a 8 to 11 Alphabetic code
that is a combination of various kinds of letters and are used to identify the branch codes of the
banks.
• It is approved by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
i. The components of SWIFT code are:

• The first four alphabetic characters representing the bank name,
• The next two alphabetic characters represent the country name
• The next two letters or digits represent the location code, and
• The last 3 letters or digits represent the branch code.
• Example: SWIFT Code of a branch of Punjab National Bank in Delhi is PUNBINBBDRG.
8. Let’s Make Money Simple is the tagline of __________ (Bank).

1) ICICI Bank
2) Federal Bank
3) Axis Bank
5) IDFC FIRST Bank
Answer- 4) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Explanation:
About Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited (KMBL):
Headquarters– Mumbai, Maharashtra
Founded in– 2003
Tagline– Let’s Make Money Simple
9. Which bank has recently (March’ 24) acquired 100% paid-up capital of Sonata Finance
Limited for Rs 537 crore?
2) HDFC Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) Axis Bank
5) Federal Bank
Answer- 1) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Explanation:
On March 28 2024, Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited acquired 100 percent of the issued and paid-up
capital of Sonata Finance Private Limited for a total consideration of approximately Rs. 537 crore.
• With this acquisition, Sonata has become a wholly-owned subsidiary of the bank.
10. Which bank, along with Toronto Dominion (TD) Bank Group has recently (in March ‘24)
announced an expanded pact to support Indian students to study in Canada?
1) Axis Bank
2) HDFC Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) Bank of Baroda
5) City Union Bank
Answer- 2) HDFC Bank
Explanation:
On March 21 2024, HDFC Bank and Toronto Dominion (TD) Bank Group announced an expanded
pact supporting Indian students planning to study in Canada.
• TD and HDFC Bank have announced a new referral programme where Housing Development
Finance Corporation (HDFC Bank) will refer students planning to study in Canada to TD’s

International Student GIC Program, which enables students to comply with the Government
of Canada’s Student Direct Stream (SDS) study permit pathway.
11. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is a unique ________digits number that is
used to identify a device on a mobile network.
1) 15
2) 10
3) 9
4) 7
5) 12
Answer- 1) 15
Explanation:
The Department of Telecom has asked telecom operators to deactivate USSD-based call forwarding
with effect from April 15 2024 and move to alternative methods to re-activate it.
i. Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD) is a communications protocol used in Global
System for Mobile Communications (GSM) networks for sending short text messages.
• It is used to display balance deduction in mobile phones where a message pops-up on the
device screen after a call or outgoing SMS.It is also used for checking IMEI numbers of mobiles.
ii. The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is a unique number that is used to identify a
device on a mobile network. It has 15 digits, and is like your phone’s unique identity.
12. What is the maximum maturity period of Treasury bills?

1) 120 days
2) 265 days
3) 91 days
4) 364 days
5) 182 days
Answer- 4) 364 days
Explanation:
Treasury bills are issued when the government needs money for a short period. These bills are
issued only by the central government, and the interest on them is determined by market forces.
i. Treasury bills, or T-bills, have a maximum maturity period of 364 days.
ii. At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day and 364-day.
• Individuals, trusts, institutions and banks can purchase T-Bills. But they are usually held by
financial institutions.
• They have a very important role in the financial market beyond investment instruments.
13. “Yogakshemam Vahamyaham” is the tagline of ______________ .

3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
4) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
5) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Answer- 5) Life Insurance Corporation of India

Explanation:
“Yogakshemam Vahamyaham” is the tagline of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC). “Your
welfare is our responsibility” is the English translation of the tagline.
25. What is the tagline of Punjab National Bank?
1) Together We Can
2) The name you can bank upon
3) Your Perfect Banking Partner
4) Good People to Grow With
5) Live more, Bank less
Answer- 2) The name you can bank upon
Explanation:
About Punjab National Bank (PNB):
Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive Officer(CEO) – Atul Kumar Goel
Headquarters – New Delhi, Delhi
Established in – 1894
Tagline – The name you can bank upon
14. Reduction in the value of domestic currency by the government is called _________.
1) Devaluation
2) Revaluation
3) Appreciation
4) Depreciation
5) Democratic
Answer- 1) Devaluation
Explanation:
In a fixed exchange rate system, when some government action increases the exchange rate ,thereby
making domestic currency cheaper (reduction) is called Devaluation.
• On the other hand, a Revaluation is said to occur, when the Government decreases the
exchange rate thereby, making domestic currency costlier (Increased).
15. Which of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument as per the Negotiable Instrument Act,
1881?
1) Bank Note
2) Fixed Deposit Receipt
3) Bill of exchange
4) Promissory Note
5) Cheque
Answer- 2) Fixed Deposit Receipt
Explanation:
A negotiable instrument is a piece of paper that entitles a person to a sum of money and which is
transferable from one person to another under the Negotiable Instrument Act 1881. A negotiable
instrument means a promissory note, bill of exchange, Cheque. Bank Note, Bank Draft, Circular Note,
Dividend Warrant.

16. What is the tagline of Canara Bank?
1) Good People to Bank With
2) Together We Can
3) Good People to Grow With
4) Banking On More
5) Your Perfect Banking Partner
Answer- 2) Together We Can
Explanation:
About Canara Bank:
The Canara Bank, established in 1906, was nationalized in 1969.
MD & CEO– K Satyanarayana Raju
Headquarters– Bengaluru, Karnataka
Tagline– Together We Can
17. The Scheduled Commercial Bank (SCB) has been included in ___________ schedule of the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
1) Second
2) Fourth
3) First
4) Third
5) Sixth
Answer- 1) Second
Explanation:
A Scheduled Commercial Bank (SCB) is a commercial bank which has been included in the Second
Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act).
• Conditions for inclusion in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act are as stated in section 42(6)(a)
of the RBI Act.
i. Every SCB enjoys two types of principal facilities: -
• It becomes eligible for debts/loans at the bank rate from the RBI
• It automatically acquires the membership of a clearing house. SCBs include Public Sector
Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Scheduled Payments Banks,
Scheduled Small Finance Banks and Scheduled Co-operative Banks.
18. Who is the present (as of April ‘24) Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer
(CEO) of Star Health and Allied Insurance?
1) Ashok Ojha
2) Atish Mathur
3) Ajay Kumar
4) Praveen Sharma
5) Anand Roy
Answer- 5) Anand Roy
Explanation:
About Star Health and Allied Insurance Co Ltd. (Star Health Insurance):
Star Health Insurance commenced operations in 2006 as India’s first Standalone Health Insurance
Company.

Managing Director (MD) & Chief Executive Officer (CEO)– Anand Roy
Headquarters– Chennai, Tamil Nadu
19. ____________is an account that is used to hold shares and securities in electronic format.
1) Money market account
2) Fixed Deposit account
3) Demat account
4) Recurring Deposit account
5) Dormant account
Answer- 3) Demat account
Explanation:
Demat Account is an account that is used to hold shares and securities in electronic format. The full
form of Demat account is a dematerialised account.
• The purpose of opening a Demat account is to hold shares that have been bought or
dematerialised (converted from physical to electronic shares), thus making share trading easy
for the users during online trading.
Recently, The number of dematerialised (demat) accounts required to hold shares and other
securities in electronic format crossed the 150-million mark for the first time in March 2024.
• In March 2024, 3.12 million new demat accounts were added despite a spike in market
volatility, taking the total count to 151.4 million.
20.Who is the present (as of April ‘24) Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
1) Dinesh Kumar Khara
2) Arundhati Bhattacharya
3) Shanti Lal Jain
4) Shaktikanta Das
5) Devdutt Chand
Answer- 4) Shaktikanta Das
Explanation:
On April 5 2024, The new website and mobile application of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was
released by Governor Shaktikanta Das.
• The new website can be accessed using the URL https://website.rbi.org.in or through the QR
code.
• The new mobile application of Reserve Bank of India can be downloaded from Play store for
Android users and App Store for iOS users.
21. MDR is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers
through credit and debit cards in their establishments.
In MDR, what does D stand for?
1) Decreased
2) Decedent
3) Deferred
4) Discount
5) Debit
Answer- 4) Discount

Explanation:
Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments
from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments.
i. MDR compensates the card-issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment
gateways such as Mastercard or Visa for their services.
22. Which of the following facilities cannot be provided by Payment Banks in India?
1) Credit Card
2) ATM Card
3) Debit Card
4) Net banking
5) Mobile banking
Answer- 1) Credit Card
Explanation:
RBI has taken an advanced step to push our financial inclusions by providing the guidelines for
licensing differentiated banks such as Payment Banks and Small Finance Banks.
• The main objective of the payment bank is providing small savings accounts and payments or
remittance services to low income households,small businesses,other unorganized sector
entities and other users.
i. These banks are able to operate current accounts and saving accounts.They can issue ATM or Debit
cards, Net Banking and Mobile Banking facilities to their customers.
ii. The payment banks can take restricted deposits which are currently limited to Rs. 1 lakh per
customer.
iii. They can distribute the non-risk financial products such as mutual funds and insurance.
iv. They don’t have rights to provide lending services such as credit cards and issue loans facilities.
23. _____________ is a situation in an economy where inflation and unemployment are at higher
levels.
1) Disinflation
2) Inflation
3) Deflation
4) Stagflation
5) Hyperinflation
Answer- 4) Stagflation
Explanation:
Stagflation is a situation in an economy where inflation and unemployment both are at higher levels.
Stagflation occurs when the economy isn’t growing but prices are going up. Stagflation is basically a
combination of high inflation and low growth.
24. Which committee recommended the introduction of a Liquidity adjustment facility in

India?
1) Narasimham Committee
2) Rangarajan Committee
3) Basel Committee
4) SS Tarapore Committee

5) A K Khandelwal Committee
Answer- 1) Narasimham Committee
Explanation:
Narasimham Committee was set up in 1998 on structural reforms, recommending merger of banks
to solve the problem of NPA.
i. It recommended the introduction of a Liquidity adjustment facility in India.
CA STATIC GK
1. Name the Badminton Players who have recently (in March’ 24) broken the record of Saina
Nehwal's for the most weeks in the Badminton World Federation (BWF) ranking by an Indian.
1) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
2) Chirag Shetty
3) Prannoy H. S
4) Both 1 & 2
5) Both 2 & 3
Explanation:
Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, the men's doubles team from India, have surpassed
Saina Nehwal's record for the most weeks spent at the top of the Badminton World Federation (BWF)
world rankings by an Indian
• Rankireddy and Shetty, known for their powerful play and strategic prowess on the court, have
held the coveted number one ranking for an impressive 10 weeks.
• Nehwal's previous record of nine weeks at the top, which she achieved from August 18 to
October 21, 2015.
2. Which healthcare company recently (in March’ 24) announced a plan to invest Rs 8,000
crore for 5 years to increase local manufacturing and research and development (R&D)
initiatives?
1) Wipro GE Healthcare
2) Aster DM Healthcare
3) Kokilaben Dhirubhai Ambani Healthcare
4) P.D. Hinduja Hospital and Medical Research
5) Fortis Healthcare
Answer- 1) Wipro GE Healthcare
Explanation:
Wipro GE Healthcare Leading innovator in digital solutions, diagnostics, and medical technology,
wants to see a rise in localization in the nation's manufacturing from the current 50–80% to 70–80%.
ii. Wipro GE Healthcare will invest over Rs 8,000 crore in India over the next five years to increase
local manufacturing and research and development (R&D) initiatives.
• The company, a leading global medical technology, pharmaceutical diagnostics, and digital
solutions provider, announced as a part of the investment, its 'Made in India'.
• Additionally, locally produced Revolution Aspire CT, Revolution ACT and MR breast coils will
be manufactured 'In India for the World'.

3. In which state Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary is located?
1) West Bengal
2) Punjab
3) Jharkhand
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Odisha
Answer- 2) Punjab
Explanation:
About Punjab:
Chief Minister – Bhagwant Singh Mann
Governor – Banwarilal Purohit
Wildlife Sanctuary – Takhni-Rehmapur Wildlife Sanctuary, Abohar Wildlife Sanctuary
Zoological Park – Mahendra Chaudhary Zoological Park, Tiger safari zoo
4. In which state Kamlang Tiger Reserve is located?

2) Assam
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Sikkim
5) Uttar Pradesh
Answer- 1) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Kamlang Tiger Reserve is a wildlife sanctuary located in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It
was established in 1989 and covers an area of approximately 783 square kilometers.
i. The reserve is home to a variety of flora and fauna, including tigers, elephants, clouded leopards, and
several species of birds.
5. The Unique Identification Authority of India is a statutory authority under ____________

(Ministry).
1) Ministry of Science and Technology
2) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
3) Ministry of Rural Development
4) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Answer- 2) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Explanation:
Aadhaar is a Unique Identification number (UID) issued by the Unique Identification Authority of
India (UIDAI), which is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 (“Aadhaar Act
2016”).
i. UIDAI was established on 12 July 2016 by the Government of India, under the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).

6. Who is the current (as of March ‘24) Director General of the Confederation of Indian Industry
(CII)?
1) Atish Mathur
2) Chandrajit Banerjee
3) Sanjiv Bajaj
4) R Dinesh
5) Sanjiv Puri
Answer- 2) Chandrajit Banerjee
Explanation:
About Confederation of Indian Industry (CII):
Director General– Chandrajit Banerjee
Headquarters– New Delhi, Delhi
Established in– 1895
7. Where is the Headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) located?

1) Paris, France
2) Vienna, Austria
3) Geneva, Switzerland
4) Rome, Italy
5) London, United Kingdom
Answer- 3) Geneva, Switzerland
Explanation:
About World Trade Organization (WTO):
Director-General- Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
Headquarters- Geneva, Switzerland
Established – 1995
8. Who is the present (as of March ‘24) Chief of the Army Staff?
1) General Manoj Pande
2) General Kanwal Jeet Singh Dhillon
3) General Rajiv Atma Ram
4) General H Dharmarajan
5) General Deepak Bhardwaj
Answer- 1) General Manoj Pande
Explanation:
General Manoj Pande is the present Chief of the Army Staff.
i. The Army Commanders’ Conference 2024, the first for the year 2024, will be organised in a hybrid
mode. The conference will commence in virtual mode on 28 March 2024, followed by a physical
gathering in New Delhi on 01 and 02 April 2024.
• The first part of the Army Commanders’ Conference 2024 will be held on March 28, 2024, and
the second part in physical mode on April 1, 2024, in New Delhi.
• The Army Commanders’ Conference 2024 will focus on key agendas related to the field army
and veterans’ welfare, including the evolving geopolitical landscape and its ramifications for
national security.

9. Name the state that has observed its 89th foundation day on 1st April 2024.
1) Odisha
2) Uttar Pradesh
3) West Bengal
4) Gujarat
5) Andhra Pradesh
Answer- 1) Odisha
Explanation:
Odisha Day, also known as Utkal Divas and Utkala Dibasa, was observed on 1st April 2024 to
commemorate the struggle for a separate political identity for the state that was once part of Kalinga,
ruled by emperor Ashok.
i. Odisha became an independent province on April 1, 1936, following a three-century battle. The year
2024 the state marks its 89th foundation day.
ii. Utkala Diwas, also known as the Odisha Diwas, is the foundation day of Odisha, a state located in
the eastern part of India.
10. In which state, the World's First Om-Shaped Temple was inaugurated in March 2024?
1) Odisha
2) Bihar
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) West Bengal
Explanation:
The world’s first-ever temple designed in the iconic Om shape has been inaugurated in the village of
Jadan, Pali district of Rajasthan.
• The ‘Om Aakar’ temple, following the Nagara style commonly seen in North India. It is Shaped
like the Om symbol, the temple covers an area of around half a kilometre. It can hold 1,008
idols of Lord Mahadev and 12 Jyotirlingas within its sacred boundaries.
11. Name the Indian tennis player who has recently (as of April ‘24) reached career-high of 95
in Association of Tennis Professionals (ATP) singles ranking.
1) Mahesh Bhupathi
2) Ramanathan Krishnan
3) Vijay Sundar Prashanth
4) Sriram Balaji,
5) Sumit Nagal
Answer- 5) Sumit Nagal
Explanation:
Ace Indian tennis player Sumit Nagal achieved a career-high ranking of 95 in the Association of
Tennis Professionals (ATP) singles ranking, following impressive results in recent times.
• His previous best was 97 in February, which he had attained after winning the Chennai Open,
an ATP Challenger series event.

12. In which state AshfaqUllah Khan Zoological Park is located?
1) Uttar Pradesh
2) Maharashtra
3) Odisha
4)West Bengal
5) Karnataka
Answer- 1) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
The oldest lioness maryam passed away at 20 in AshfaqUllah Khan Zoological Park in Gorakhpur,
Uttar Pradesh.
• Mariam was brought to AshfaqUllah Khan Zoological Park from Etawah Safari Park on
February 28, 2021.
13. As of 31st March 2024, _____________ become the oldest World No. 1 in Association of Tennis
Professionals (ATP) Rankings history.
1) Roger Federer
2) Holger Rune
3) Casper Ruud
4) Andrey Rublev
5) Novak Djokovic
Answer- 5) Novak Djokovic
Explanation:
Novak Djokovic, the 24-time Grand Slam champion, continues to break records on the Association of
Tennis Professionals (ATP) Tour.
• On 31st March 2024, Djokovic will surpass Roger Federer’s record and become the oldest
World No. 1 in ATP Rankings history at the age of 36 years and 321 days.
• The Serbian player has won an impressive 31 tour-level titles, including 12 Grand Slams, 10
ATP Masters 1000 victories, and two ATP Finals triumphs.
14. Which of the following is India’s First AI-based movie that has been planned to release on
4th April 2024?
1) IRAH
2) AIRA
3) GPT
4) TAU
5) EXAI
Answer- 1) IRAH
Explanation:
India’s First AI-based movie "IRAH," unfolded in Mumbai. The movie boasts a stellar cast including
Rohit Bose Roy, Rajesh Sharma, Karishma Kotak and Rakshith Bhandarry in prominent roles.
i. Produced by Big Films Media and directed by Sam Bhattacharjee, "IRAH" is set to hit nationwide
theaters on April 4th through Iamplex Digital Theatrical Distribution.

15. Which country has recently (in March ‘24) declared a state of emergency due to a volcano
eruption in Reykjanes Peninsula?
1) Indonesia
2) Guatemala
3) Papua New Guinea
4) Iceland
5) Japan
Answer- 4) Iceland
Explanation:
In March 2024, A volcano erupted in Reykjanes Peninsula in Iceland, marking the fourth eruption
since December, 2023.
As a result, a state of emergency has been declared in southern Iceland, prompting an evacuation of
nearby areas including renowned tourist attraction, Blue Lagoon.
• Reykjanes Peninsula is located in Iceland
16. Who has recently (in March ‘24) sworn in as Additional Judge of the High Court of Jammu
and Kashmir and Ladakh?
1) Rekha Kapoor
2) Altaf Hussain Khan
3) Mohammad Yousuf Wani
4) Mayank Gupta
5) Rayaz Ahmed Choudhary
Answer- 3) Mohammad Yousuf Wani
Explanation:
Justice Mohammad Yousuf Wani was administered the oath of office as an Additional Judge of the
High Court of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. The oath was administered by Chief Justice N.
Kotiswar Singh in Srinagar.
17. Who is the current (as of April ‘24) President of India Energy Storage Alliance (IESA)?
1) Bhupesh Verma
2) Rahul Walawalkar
3) Ashok Thakur
4) Netra Kumar
5) Debi Prasad
Answer- 2) Rahul Walawalkar
Explanation:
Rahul Walawalkar, who is the President of India Energy Storage Alliance (IESA).
i. India Energy Storage Alliance (IESA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding with
Bhubaneswar City Knowledge Innovation Cluster (BCKIC) Foundation, Bhubaneswar, Odisha, to
strengthen knowledge exchange and promote innovations in the cleantech, critical minerals, and
energy sector in India.
18. In which state ‘Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary’ is located?

1) Rajasthan
2) Maharashtra

3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Jharkhand
Explanation:
The Tal Chhapar Sanctuary is situated on the border of the Great Indian Thar Desert, Rajasthan.
• Tal Chhapar is a distinctive shelter of the most graceful Antelope seen in India, “the Blackbuck”.
• It was given the status of a sanctuary in 1966.
• Tal Chhapar was a hunting reserve of the erstwhile royal family of Bikaner.
19. In which state, Kulik bird sanctuary is located?

1) Jharkhand
2) Odisha
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) West Bengal
5) Uttar Pradesh
Answer- 4) West Bengal
Explanation:
Raiganj Wildlife sanctuary also popularly known as Kulik bird sanctuary. It is located near Raiganj
in Uttar Dinajpur district in the state of West Bengal.
• The bird sanctuary is home to 164 species of birds and some 90,000 to 1,00,000 migratory
birds visit the sanctuary every year.
20. Where is the Headquarters of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) located?
1) Paris, France
2) Manila, Philippines
4) Vienna, Austria
5) New York, United States of America (USA)
Answer- 5) New York, United States of America (USA)
Explanation:
About United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):
Executive Director– Catherine M. Russell
Headquarters– New York, United States of America (USA)
Established in– 1946
21. In which state Gorumara National Park is located?

1) Odisha
2) West Bengal
3) Bihar
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Karnataka

Explanation:
About West Bengal:
Chief Minister- Mamata Banerjee
Governor – C.V. Ananda Bose
National Parks – Gorumara National Park, Sundarban National Park, Jaldapara National Park
22. In which state Palamu Tiger Reserve is located?

1) Madhya Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Jharkhand
4) Maharashtra
5) Andhra Pradesh
Answer- 3) Jharkhand
Explanation:
Palamau Tiger Reserve (PTR) is located in Jharkhand which is spread over an area of about 1,230
sq km, was made a tiger reserve in 1973 and had a good number of the animal, which came down to
three in the 2014 census and zero in the latest report.
23. Who is the current (as of April ‘24) Chairman of Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDAI)?
1) Rakesh Joshi
2) S. N. Rajeswari
3) Parmod Kumar Arora
4) Suchindra Misra
5) Debasish Panda
Answer- 5) Debasish Panda
Explanation:
About Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
IRDAI is a statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance.
It was established in 1999, following the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee report. It was
incorporated as a statutory body in April 2000.
Chairman– Mr Debasish Panda
Headquarters– Hyderabad, Telangana
24. Which port has recently (April’ 24) emerged as India's largest major port in terms of cargo
volumes by clocking 145.38 million tonne cargo in FY 2023-24?
1) Mormugao Port
2) Paradip Port
3) Mumbai Port
4) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
5) Deendayal Port
Answer- 2) Paradip Port

Explanation:
State-owned Paradip Port in Odisha has emerged as India's largest major port in terms of cargo
volumes by clocking 145.38 million tonne cargo throughput in FY 2023-24, surpassing Deendayal Port
Authority in Gujarat.
• For the first time in the 56 years history of operation, PPA has surpassed previous records, set
by Deendayal Port. Paradip Port has also recorded growth of 10.02 million metric tonnes
(7.4%) of traffic on YoY basis.
25. In which of the following states, the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located?
1) Madhya Pradesh
2) Mizoram
3) Bihar
4) Uttarakhand
5) Gujarat
Answer- 4) Uttarakhand
Explanation:
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (NDBR), the second biosphere reserve of the country, is spread
across three districts of Uttarakhand viz. Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Bageshwar.
• There are two core zones, namely Nanda Devi National Park (NDNP) and Valley of Flower
National Park (VoFNP). Both the National Parks were inscribed World Heritage Sites by
UNESCO in 1988.
26. What is the capital of Democratic Republic of Congo?

1) Kigali
2) Kinshasa
3) Berlin
4) Bangkok
5) Ottawa
Answer- 2) Kinshasa
Explanation:
About Democratic Republic of Congo
President – Félix Antoine Tshisekedi Tshilombo
Capital – Kinshasa
Currency – Congolese Franc
27. In which state, the Mudumalai National Park is located?

1) Tamil Nadu
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Maharashtra
4) Assam
5) Telangana
Answer- 1) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
Moyar valley or Maayar (invisible river) valley extends from Gudalur through the core area of
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Tamil Nadu.

• This entire stretch of nearly 85 km is a wildlife haven and important biome in the Nilgiri
Biosphere Reserve, sheltering several vital species like tiger and elephant and the critically
endangered Gyps vulture.
• It is the only region in peninsular India where you have the biggest nesting colony of Gyps
vultures in the wild.
• Mudumalai National Park is a protected area located in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, India. It
is situated at the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala.
28. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) had been established under Article ________ of the
Constitution, which was introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
1) 270-B
2) 250-A
3) 315-C
4) 134-B
5) 323-A
Answer- 5) 323-A
Explanation:
The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) had been established under Article 323 -A of the
Constitution, which was introduced by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
i. It adjudicates of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other
authorities under the control of the Government
• There are 19 Benches and 19 Circuit Benches in the CAT in India.
• At present (April 2024), CAT is headed by Hon'ble Chairman Sh. Justice Ranjit Vasantrao
More, retired Chief Justice, Meghalaya High Court.
29. In which state, the Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Telangana
4) Odisha
5) Jharkhand
Answer- 1) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
About Andhra Pradesh:
Chief Minister– YS Jagan Mohan Reddy
Governor–S. Abdul Nazeer
National Park– Sri Venkateswara National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary– Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary; Krishna Wildlife sanctuary
30. The Adichunchanagiri Peacock Sanctuary is located in __________(State).

1) Karnataka
2) Kerala
3) Gujarat
4) Andhra Pradesh

5) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- 1) Karnataka
Explanation:
About Karnataka:
Governor – Thawar Chand Gehlot
WildLife Sanctuary – Talacauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, Thimlapura Wildlife Sanctuary, Yadahalli
Chinkara Wildlife Sanctuary
Bird Sanctuary-Adichunchanagiri Peacock Sanctuary, Attiveri Bird Sanctuary, Ghataprabha Bird
Sanctuary.
31. In which year the International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established?
1) 1965
2) 1948
3) 1944
4) 1974
5) 1961
Answer- 3) 1944
Explanation:
About International Monetary Fund (IMF):
Managing Director – Kristalina Georgieva
Headquarters– Washington D.C, United States of America (USA)
Establishment– 1944
32. In which state the Simlipal National Park is located?

1) Tamil Nadu
2) Odisha
4) Assam
5) Karnataka
Answer- 2) Odisha
Explanation:
About Odisha:
Chief Minister (CM) – Naveen Patnaik
Governor – Raghubar Das
National Park – Bhitarkanika National Park, Simlipal National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary – Satkosia Gorge sanctuary, Nandankanan sanctuary
33. Which company has recently (in April ‘24) received a contract from Hindustan Aeronautics
Ltd for Rs. 56 crores to supply, testing and commissioning of the Precision Approach Radar
(PAR) system?
1) Astra Microwave Products Ltd
2) Paras Defence and Space
3) MTAR Technologies Limited
4) Avantel Ltd
5) Zen Technologies Ltd.

Answer- 1) Astra Microwave Products Ltd
Explanation:
Astra Microwave Products Ltd has received a contract from Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd for Rs. 56
crore
• The contract pertains to the supply, installation, testing and commissioning of the Precision
Approach Radar (PAR) system. It is to be executed in ten months. Astra Microwave Products
stock rose 4.62 per cent on the NSE to trade at Rs. 624.
• Meanwhile, HAL stock rose by 2.76 per cent on the NSE to trade at Rs. 3,418.85.
34. The world’s oldest man Juan Vicente Perez Mora, who died recently in (April’ 24) belongs to
which country?
1) Colombia
2) Venezuela
3) Japan
4) South Korea
5) New Zealand
Answer- 2) Venezuela
Explanation:
Venezuelan Juan Vicente Perez Mora, the oldest man in the world, certified by Guinness World
Records in 2022 died at the age of 114 on April 2 2024.
• Perez was officially confirmed as the oldest man alive on February 4, 2022, when he was 112
years and 253 days old.
35. In which state, Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Kerala
3) Gujarat
4) Haryana
5) Madhya Pradesh
Answer- 4) Haryana
Explanation:
About Haryana:
Governor – Bandaru Dattatreya
Zoological Park – Mini Zoo and Rohtak Zoo
National Park- Sultanpur National Park, Kalesar National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary – Chhilchhila Wildlife Sanctuary, Nahar Wildlife Sanctuary
36. The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has recently (April’ 24) celebrated
its ____________ (years) of entrepreneurship, innovation, and economic growth in India.
1) 50 years
2) 34 years
3) 76 years
4) 25 years
5) 15 years
Answer- 2) 34 years

Explanation:
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) proudly commemorates 34 years of fostering
entrepreneurship, innovation, and economic growth in India.
• SIDBI has played a significant role in changing the financing and development environment for
Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME)'s in the nation.
• It was established under the SIDBI Act of 1989.
37. Which of the following renewable energy companies recently (April’ 24) has become India’s
first company to have 10,000 MW renewable energy capacity?
1) Tata Power Solar Systems
3) Websol Systems
4) ReNew Energy
5) Sterling and Wilson Renewable Energy
Answer- 2) Adani Green Energy Limited
Explanation:
Adani Green Energy Limited has become India’s first company to have 10,000 MW renewable
energy capacity.
• Adani Green Energy Ltd has reached a milestone with 2,000 MW solar capacity at Khavda solar
park, surpassing 10,000 MW total renewable energy capacity. The company aims to achieve 45
GW of renewable energy by 2030.
38. In April 2024, Centre approved the extension to the _________ ‘s (State/UT) Chief
Secretary Nitin Kareer till June 30, 2024.
1) Telangana
2) Puducherry
3) Maharashtra
4) Chandigarh
5) Kerala
Explanation:
The Centre has approved the extension to the Maharashtra Chief Secretary Nitin Kareer, an IAS officer
1988 batch, for three months from April 1 to June 30, 2024.
• The state government had sought a three-month extension for Kareer as the Chief Secretary in
view of the ongoing Lok Sabha election.
39. Which country, along with India, has recently (in April ‘24) set up a study center to conduct
research and arrange the publication of Sanskrit scriptures?
1) Myanmar
2) Bangladesh
3) Nepal
4) Thailand
5) Indonesia
Answer- 3) Nepal

Explanation:
Nepalese and Indian Sanskrit scholars have proposed to organize an International Sanskrit
Conference every year and set up a study center to conduct research and arrange publication of
Sanskrit scriptures, especially the manuscripts found in the Himalayan nation.
• It is estimated that there are around five lakh unpublished Sanskrit manuscripts preserved at
Nepal’s Department of Archaeology.
• The participants also adopted a resolution to provide support for the development of gurukuls
in Nepal with the collaboration of Maharshi Sandipani Veda Vidya Pratisthan, Ujjain.
40. In which State, the Sanjay Gandhi Biological Park is located?

1) Bihar
2) Gujarat
3) Haryana
4) Assam
5) Karnataka
Answer- 1) Bihar
Explanation:
About Bihar:
Chief Minister– Nitish Kumar
Wildlife Sanctuaries– Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary, Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary
Zoological Parks– Sanjay Gandhi Biological Park
41. The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) had been established under the
Article __________.
1) 250-A
2) 315-C
3) 338-B
4) 134-A
5) 240-C
Answer- 3) 338-B
Explanation:
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is an Indian constitutional body under the
jurisdiction of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India, established
through Constitution Act, 2018 (also known as the 102nd Amendment Act).
• This act amends the Indian Constitution by designating the NCBC as a constitutional body
under Article 338B.
• The main work of the commission is to participate and advise actively on the socio-economic
development of the socially backward classes (OBCs) along with evaluating the progress of
their development.
41.Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in ____________ (State).

1) Jharkhand
2) Maharashtra
3) Odisha
4) Haryana

5) Karnataka
Explanation:
About Maharashtra:
Capital – Mumbai
Chief Minister – Eknath Shinde
Tiger Reserves – Melghat Tiger Reserve, Sahyadri Tiger Reserve
42. In which of the following (State/UT), Vettangudi birds Sanctuary is located?

1) Kerala
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Andhra Pradesh
5) Chandigarh
Explanation:
About Tamil Nadu:
Chief Minister - M.K.Stalin
Governor – Ravindra Narayana Ravi
Bird Sanctuary – Vettangudi birds Sanctuary, Karikili Birds Sanctuary
Festival – Pongal, Thiruvaiyaru Festival, Thaipusam
43. In March 2024, The inaugural Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction announced its shortlist of six
books, including “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI” by Indian-British journalist,
___________.
1) Rajdeep Sardesai
2) Madhumita Murgia
3) Shamsuddin Bulbul
4) Rajini Vaidyanathan
5) Poonam Joshi
Answer- 2) Madhumita Murgia
Explanation:
The inaugural Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction has announced its shortlist of six books, including
“Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI” by Indian-British journalist and commentator
Madhumita Murgia.
i. The other shortlisted books cover a wide range of subjects:
• “Thunderclap: A Memoir of Art and Life and Sudden Death” by Laura Cumming
• “Doppelganger: A Trip Into the Mirror World” by Naomi Klein
• “A Flat Place” by Noreen Masud
• “All That She Carried: The Journey of Ashley’s Sack, a Black Family Keepsake” by Tiya Miles
• “How to Say Babylon: A Jamaican Memoir” by Safiya Sinclair

44. In March 2024, PTC India received shareholders approval for selling 100 per cent equity
stake in its arm PTC Energy to Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) Ltd for Rs__________.
1) 2,021 crore
2) 1,899 crore
3) 3,409 crore
4) 4,500 crore
5) 5,200 crore
Answer- 1) 2,021 crore
Explanation:
Power trading solutions provider PTC India received shareholders approval for selling 100 per cent
equity stake in its arm PTC Energy to state-owned ONGC Ltd for an enterprise value of Rs 2,021
crore.
• As much as 93.61% of votes were in favour of the special resolution to approve the proposal
for 100 per cent disinvestment (by way of sale, transfer or otherwise) in its wholly-owned
subsidiary PTC Energy Ltd.
45. As of April 2024, India is the _________ largest importer of ethane from the US in 2023.
1) 5th
2) 1st
3) 2nd
4) 3rd
5) 4th
Answer- 3) 2nd
Explanation:
India was the second largest importer of ethane from the US, after China, last year (2023) aided by
rising demand for petrochemicals, lower prices of the commodity in the US and growing tanker
capacity.
• China imported 45 percent of US ethane exports in 2023, followed by India (16 per cent),
Canada (14 per cent) and Norway (10 per cent).
• Ethane is used to produce plastics, antifreeze and detergents.
46. Who has recently (in April’ 24) appointed as the brand ambassador of Asian Paints’s Neo
Bharat Latex Paint?
1) Priyanka Chopra
2) Rohit Sharma
3) Virat Kohli
4) PV Sindhu
5) Sachin Tendulkar
Answer- 3) Virat Kohli
Explanation:
Asian Paints, India's foremost paint and decor company, announced the onboarding of cricketing
icon, Virat Kohli as the brand ambassador for their upcoming new launch - Neo Bharat Latex Paint.
• Neo Bharat Latex Paint is revolutionary in every way as it comes equipped with special
polymer technology that provides superior finish, higher coverage, and better washability

47. In April 2024, The Centre Court Capital launched _________ crores maiden fund for sports
and gaming.
1) Rs 270
2) Rs 500
3) Rs 450
4) Rs 150
5) Rs 350
Answer- 5) Rs 350
Explanation:
On April 4 2024, Centre Court Capital, a venture capital firm for sports and gaming, announced the
launch of its maiden Rs 350 crore fund to “back founders bringing innovative tech and pushing the
boundaries of the sports and gaming ecosystem.
• The fund has already raised Rs 200 crore in commitments from investors that include the
Jindal family, Small Industries Development Bank of India, Premji Invest, USK Capital, GMR
Sports, and SG Sports.
48. Which of the following companies were recently (in April’ 24) selected by National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) to develop technologies for a Lunar Terrain
Vehicle (LTV)?
1) SpaceX, Intuitive Machines and Lunar Outpost
2) Intuitive Machines, Blue Origin and Venturi Astrolab
3) Blue Origin, Bellatrix Aerospace and SpaceX
4), Intuitive Machines, Lunar Outpost and Venturi Astrolab
5) Astroscale, Interstellar Lab and SpaceX
Answer- 4) Intuitive Machines, Lunar Outpost and Venturi Astrolab
Explanation:
The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) selected three companies —
Intuitive Machines, Lunar Outpost, and Venturi Astrolab to develop technologies for a Lunar
Terrain Vehicle (LTV), the successor to the iconic buggy.
• The Lunar Roving Vehicle was a battery-powered vehicle used on the Moon by astronauts of
the Apollo 15, 16 and 17 missions.
• NASA plans to use LTV for the Artemis 5 mission, and it will have to be able to handle the
extreme conditions at the Moon’s South Pole.
49. What is the capital of Romania?

1) Warsaw
2) Bern
3) Helsinki
4) Bucharest
5) Tirana
Answer- 4) Bucharest
Explanation:
About Romania:
Capital– Bucharest

President– Klaus Iohannis
Currency– Romanian Leu (RON)
50. As of April 2024, Which is the current base year for the Index of Industrial Production
(IIP)?
1) 2004-05
2) 2008-09
3) 2000-01
4) 2014-15
5) 2011-12
Answer- 5) 2011-12
Explanation:
The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is an index which shows the growth rates in different
industry groups of the economy in a stipulated period of time.
• The IIP index is computed and published by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO),
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation on a monthly basis.
• Currently, the IIP figures are calculated considering 2011-12 as the base year.
51. In which state, the Atapaka Bird sanctuary located?

1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Mizoram
3) Jharkhand
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Kerala
Answer- 1) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
Atapaka Bird Sanctuary is situated on the Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh. It is the home to a vast
repertoire of birds, especially known for sheltering Pelicans. It spans over an area of 673 square
kilometers with wetland marsh habitat extending across two districts namely West Godavari and
Krishna.
• It was officially declared as a sanctuary in the year 1999 by the Andhra Pradesh government. It
is also known as a bird’s paradise.
• The common species that can be found in the sanctuary include Cormorants, Common
Redshanks, Pied Avocets, Black-winged Stilts, Red-crested Pochards etc.
52. Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?

1) Jharkhand
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Odisha
4) West Bengal
5) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation:
The Forest Department conducted the annual wildlife census at Point Calimere Wildlife Sanctuary,
located in Kodikkarai, Tamil Nadu. It is also known as Cape Calimere, situated on the Coromandel
Coast, about 9 km south of Vedaranyam.
• Around 11 students from Thiru Vi Ka College in Tiruvarur district and officials of the Forest
Department were involved in the wildlife census.
53. Match the following Tiger Reserves with their respective state:
i. Palamau Tiger Reserve a. Maharashtra
ii. Sariska Tiger Reserve b. Uttarakhand
iii. Sahyadri tiger reserve c. Jharkhand
iv. Rajaji Tiger Reserve d. Rajasthan
1) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
2) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
3) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
5) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
Answer- 4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
Explanation:
Palamau Tiger Reserve- Jharkhand
Sariska Tiger Reserve- Rajasthan
Sahyadri tiger reserve- Maharashtra
Rajaji Tiger Reserve- Uttarakhand
54. In which state ‘Madhav National Park ’ is located?

1) Madhya Pradesh
2) West Bengal
3) Gujarat
4) Uttar Pradesh
5) Bihar
Answer- 1) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation:
About Madhya Pradesh (MP):
Chief Minister (CM) – Mohan Yadav
Governor – Mangubhai Patel
National Parks – Panna National Park; Pench National Park & Madhav National Park
Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) – Gangau Wildlife Sanctuary; Ghatigaon wildlife sanctuary
55. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) was
launched under ___________ (Ministry).
1) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2) Ministry of Rural Development
3) Ministry of Law and Justice
4) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
5) Ministry of Labour and Employment

Answer- 2) Ministry of Rural Development
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme under the Ministry of Rural
Development was initiated to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100
days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year, to every household whose adult members
volunteer to do unskilled manual work. It was launched in 2006.
56. In which year, the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM)
was established?
1) 1920
2) 1942
3) 1930
4) 1946
5) 1952
Answer- 1) 1920
Explanation:
About the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM):
President- Sanjay Nayar
Headquarters- New Delhi, Delhi
Establishment- 1920
57. Which port has recently (in April’ 24) set an all-time record, by handling 66.4 Million
Metric Tonnes (MMT) of Cargo in the fiscal year 2023-24?
1) Haldia Port
2) Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port
3) Deendayal Port
4) Mormugao Port
5) Paradip Port
Answer- 2) Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port
Explanation:
The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port in Kolkata has reported a profit of Rs 501.73 crore for FY24,
marking a 65 per cent jump compared to the previous fiscal year (2022-23).
• In its 154-year history, Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, Kolkata (SMP Kolkata) including
Kolkata Dock System (KDS) and Haldia Dock Complex (HDC), achieved a milestone in the fiscal
year 2023-24 by handling 66.4 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) of Cargo, marking a 1.11%
increase from the previous record of 65.66 million tonnes moved in 2022-23.
58. The World Economic Forum(WEF) was established in _________( year).

1) 1971
2) 1950
3) 1964
4) 1989
5) 1999
Answer- 1) 1971

Explanation:
About World Economic Forum(WEF):
Founder and Executive Chairman: Prof. Klaus Schwab
Managing Director(MD): Saadia Zahidi
Headquarters: Cologny, Geneva Canton, Switzerland
Established: 1971
59. In which state, the Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

1) Maharashtra
2) Odisha
3) Telangana
4) Gujarat
5) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is a proposed protected area located along the area straddling
both the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in the Erode District of Tamil Nadu.
• It was notified by the Government of Tamil Nadu in March 2023 and became the 18th wildlife
sanctuary in Tamil Nadu.
• It connects the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) to the Male Mahadeshwara Hills Tiger
Reserve and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary, and plays a crucial role in maintaining a viable
tiger population.
60. Name the chess player who has replaced five-time world champion Viswanathan Anand as
the highest-ranked Indian in the official FIDE rating list in April 2024.
1) Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa
2) Arjun Erigaisi
3) Vidit Gujrathi
4) Vaishali Ramesh Babu
5) Gukesh D
Answer- 2) Arjun Erigaisi
Explanation:
On April 1 2024, GM Arjun Erigaisi replaced five-time world champion Viswanathan Anand as the
highest-ranked Indian in the official FIDE rating list.
• Arjun is placed seventh in the world rankings with a live rating of 2758.3.
• Arjun became only the second Indian after D Gukesh to surpass Anand as the India No. 1 on a
published FIDE Rating list.
• He is also the fourth Indian after Anand, Pentala Harikrishna and Gukesh to enter the top 10 in
world rankings.
61. In which state, Nameri National Park is located?

1) Kerala
2) Gujarat
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Assam

5) Punjab
Answer- 4) Assam
Explanation:
About Assam:
Governor – Gulab Chand Kataria
Chief Minister – Himanta Biswa Sarma
National Parks – Manas National Park, Nameri National Park
Wildlife Sanctuaries – Bornadi Wildlife Sanctuary, Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary
62. The Silent Valley National Park is located in which (State/UT)?

1) Chandigarh
2) Kerala
3) Assam
4) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
5) Karnataka
Answer- 2) Kerala
Explanation:
About Kerala:
Chief Minister– Pinarayi Vijayan
Governor– Arif Mohammad Khan
National Parks– Eravikulam National Park, Silent Valley National Park, Pampadum Shola National
Park
63. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Environment Programme

(UNEP) located?
1) Paris, France
3) Vienna, Austria
4) Nairobi, Kenya
5) London, United Kingdom
Answer- 4) Nairobi, Kenya
Explanation:
About the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
Executive Director– Inger Andersen
Establishment – 1972
Headquarters – Nairobi, Kenya
64. In which state, the Malyadi bird sanctuary is located?

1) Assam
2) Gujarat
3) Karnataka
4) Jharkhand
5) West Bengal
Answer- 3) Karnataka

Explanation:
Malyadi bird sanctuary, man made wetland and attracts a lot of migratory water birds is located
in Kundapur, Karnataka.
• Malyadi bird sanctuary has numerous sightings of the birds – Whistling Teals, Purple Moorhen,
White Ibis, Comb duck, Cormorants and Darters.
• This place, spread over 1.5 sq. kms, is actually an abandoned clay quarry.
65. Who is the current (as of April ‘24) Managing Director of Indian Farmers Fertiliser
Cooperative Limited (IFFCO)?
1) Abhay Kumar Singh
2) Pankaj Kumar
3) Manjeet Kumar Razdan
4) Udai Shanker Awasthi
5) Sanjai Kumar
Answer- 4) Udai Shanker Awasthi
Explanation:
About Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO):
Managing Director – Dr Udai Shanker Awasthi
Headquarters – New Delhi, Delhi
Establishment – 3 November 1967.
66. In which state, the Buxa Tiger Reserve is located?

1) West Bengal
2) Haryana
3) Andhra Pradesh
4) Gujarat
5) Maharashtra
Explanation:
About West Bengal:
Chief Minister– Mamata Banerjee
Governor– Dr. C.V. Ananda Bose
National Parks– Singalila National Park; Neora Valley National Park
Tiger Reserve– Buxa Tiger Reserve; Sundarban Tiger Reserve.
67. The Bandli Wildlife Sanctuary is located in ______________(State/UT).

1) Assam
2) Goa
3) Himachal Pradesh
4) Chhattisgarh
5) Chandigarh
Answer- 3) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
About Himachal Pradesh:
Chief Minister (CM)– Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu

Governor– Shiv Pratap Shukla
National Parks– Great Himalayan National Park; Pin Valley National Park
Wildlife Sanctuaries–Bandli Wildlife Sanctuary; Chail Wildlife Sanctuary
68. In which State/UT, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport is located?

2) West Bengal
3) Karnataka
4) Jammu and Kashmir
5) Uttar Pradesh
Answer- 5) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
About Uttar Pradesh (UP):
Chief Minister (CM) – Yogi Adityanath
Governor – Anandiben Patel
Zoological Park – Shaheed Ashfaq Ullah Khan Prani Udyan; Sarnath Deer Park
Airports – Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport; Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport
69. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change(IPCC) was established in the year _______.
1) 1990
2) 1971
3) 1950
4) 1988
5) 1964
Answer- 4) 1988
Explanation:
About Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change(IPCC):
Chairman- Jim Skea
Headquarters- Geneva, Switzerland
Established- 1988
Members- 195 member states
70. In March 2024, External Affairs Minister, Jaishankar co-chaired the review meeting of the
Inter-Governmental Commission (ICG) with Dmytro Kuleba, the Minister of Foreign Affairs of
__________ (country) to strengthen bilateral cooperation.
1) Lithuania
2) Ukraine
3) Poland
4) China
5) Finland
Answer- 2) Ukraine
Explanation:
On March 29 2024, The External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar co-chaired the review meeting of the
Inter-Governmental Commission (ICG) with Ukrainian counterpart, Dmytro Kuleba, to strengthen
bilateral cooperation across all domains.

• The Perspectives on trade, health, S&T, and agriculture cooperation were discussed and agreed
to prepare for the 7th IGC meeting later this year (2024).
• In the year 2021-22, India's total export of agricultural and allied commodities to Ukraine was
around USD 85.49 million, which was 0.3 percent lower than the previous year (USD 85.76
million in 2020-2021).
• The total import of the same commodities from Ukraine in 2021-2022 was of the order of USD
2,117.38 million, approximately 23 per cent higher than the previous year (2021-22),
according to the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
71. Who is the current (as of April’ 24) Union Minister of Electronics and Information
Technology?
1) Arjun Munda
2) Ashwini Vaishnaw
3) Rajnath Singh
4) Piyush Goyal
5) Virendra Kumar
Answer- 2) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Explanation:
Ashwini Vaishnaw is the current Union Minister of Railways, Communications, and Electronics and
Information Technology.
A committee involving members from different central ministries has recommended setting up an
inter-ministerial body to supervise Artificial Intelligence (AI) regulation.
• In March 2024, a report was submitted to the government in which the committee
recommended a “whole-of-government approach” to regulating AI wherein every ministry has
a role apart from the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (Meity).
• The submissions by the committee propose a disclosure provision for companies in cases
where the AI platform/model causes harm to the user.
72. In April 2024, Researchers introduced the world’s first refrigerator which cools with
artificial muscles made of _________________.
1) Red gold
2) Nitinol
3) Duralumin
4) Nichrome
5) Manganin
Answer- 2) Nitinol
Explanation:
On April 3 2024, Researchers have introduced the world’s first refrigerator which cools with
artificial muscles made of nitinol – a nickel-titanium alloy.
• The refrigerator developed by the team at Saarland University and the Center for
Mechatronics and Automation Technology (ZeMa) is a small, compact prototype
showcasing the new cooling technology.
• The system works based on the elastocaloric principle: heat is removed from an area by
stretching wires and releasing them again. The shape-memory wires composed of super-elastic

nitinol, also called “artificial muscles,” collect heat within the cooling chamber and release it
into the surrounding air.
73. Which company recently (April’ 24) has signed an agreement with the United States (US)
Navy for repairing its vessels?
1) Cochin Shipyard Ltd
2) Hindustan Shipyard Ltd
3) Hooghly Dock & Port Engineers Ltd
4) Mazagon Dock Ltd
5) The Dredging Corporation of India
Answer- 1) Cochin Shipyard Ltd
Explanation:
On April 8 2024, Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), a fully-owned govt company in Kochi which undertakes
the manufacturing and repair of ships, has signed an agreement with the United States (US) Navy for
repairing its vessels.
• The US Navy has entered into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MSRA) with CSL and
the pact will help US Navy vessels in the Indian Ocean region to dock at CSL for repair works.
• The MSRA is a non-financial agreement and is effective from April 05, 2024. This will
facilitate repair of US Naval vessels under Military Sealift Command in CSL.
74. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) celebrated its _______ anniversary on 4th
April 2024.
1) 25th
2) 50th
3) 80th
4) 30th
5) 75th
Answer- 5) 75th
Explanation:
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) celebrated its 75th anniversary on 4 April (2024).
• NATO was originally founded by 12 countries, including the United States, Canada, and several
Western European nations.
• The alliance, which was established in 1949, will celebrate this milestone with a special
celebration in Brussels, Belgium.
• Finland became the 31st member in April 2023. Sweden has also been accepted as the 32nd
member, and Hungary is in the process of ratifying its accession.
75. In April 2024, _____________ became the 14th airport in India to launch the Digi Yatra system.
1) Manohar International Airport
2) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport
3) Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport
4) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
5) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
Answer- 1) Manohar International Airport

Explanation:
The Manohar International Airport in Mopa, Goa, has become the 14th airport in India to launch
the Digi Yatra system.
• The Digi Yatra system is already operational in 13 other Indian airports, including Delhi,
Bengaluru, Varanasi, Hyderabad, Kolkata, and Mumbai, among others.
• This biometric-enabled system uses facial recognition technology to automate the entry and
verification of passengers at various airport checkpoints, making the travel experience more
seamless and convenient.
76. Which of the following States is ‘Not’ mentioned in the sixth schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
1) Manipur
2) Assam
3) Meghalaya
4) Tripura
5) Mizoram
Answer- 1) Manipur
Explanation:
The sixth schedule contains provisions related to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States
of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• The Sixth Schedule provides for the administration of certain tribal areas as autonomous
entities.
• The provisions of the sixth schedule are provided under Articles 244(2) and 275(1) of the
Indian Constitution.
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18. Which of the following Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)’s Certificate of

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