BATCH - CLAT ACHIEVERS 2024

Mock Test [CLAT 2024] #04

[with Hints and Solutions]
DATE:1/07/2023

Duration: 120 Minutes Candidate Name: _______________

Max. Marks: 120 Admit Card No. : _______________

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. The question booklet (QB) contains 120 multiple-choice questions.

2. Write your Admit Card No. on the first page of the QB before starting the test.
3. Use the separate carbonized Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Response Sheet to
answer all the questions. Make sure to read the detailed instructions provided
with the OMR Response Sheet before starting the test.
4. If you notice any discrepancy in the QB, request the invigilator to replace both
the QB and OMR Response Sheet. Do not use the previous OMR Response
Sheet with the new QB.
5. During the test, write the QB No., OMR Response Sheet No., and sign in the
designated space/column on the Attendance Sheet provided.
6. Keep your Admit Card signed by the Invigilator, as it will be required during
the admissions process.
7. The QB for the Undergraduate Five-Year Integrated Programme is worth 120
marks. Each correct answer earns 1 mark, and each wrong answer results in
a deduction of 0.25 marks. There are no deductions for unanswered
questions.
8. You can keep the QB and the candidate's copy of the OMR Response Sheet
after the test.
The use of any unfair means, including the possession of electronic devices
such as mobile phones, headphones, and digital watches, is strictly prohibited
during the test. Impersonation or any other fraudulent practice may be a
criminal offense and will lead to disqualification and possible legal action.

[ 1]
 CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. Nos. Page No.

English Language 1 – 25 3–7
Logical Reasoning 1 - 25 8 – 14
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge 1 - 30 15 –20
Legal Reasoning 1 - 30 21– 28
Quantitative Techniques 1 - 10 29 - 30
Answer Key 1-120 31
Hints & Solution 1-120 32- 59

[ 2]
 English Language
PASSAGE I
Legal language, also known as legalese, is often
criticized for being convoluted and difficult to
understand. Legalese employs a specialized
vocabulary, Latin expressions, and formal diction that
can present significant challenges for individuals
outside of the legal profession. However, the use of
such language is crucial to ensure the precision and
clarity of legal communication and documentation.
Legal language is used to make legal distinctions and
define legal concepts with absolute precision. In a
contractual agreement, for example, the use of exact
terminology and unambiguous language is crucial in
defining the rights and obligations of the parties
involved. The purpose of legalese is to minimize
confusion and misunderstandings regarding the
precise meaning of legal documents and the concepts
they convey.
However, the use of legalese can also have negative
consequences. The complex terminology and formal
diction used in legal language can make legal
communication and documents inaccessible to
individuals who lack legal expertise, training, or
fluency in the English language. This can create an
uneven playing field where individuals who have
access to legal expertise are at an advantage over
those who do not. Moreover, the use of legalese can
lead to confusion and uncertainty among non-lawyers,
which can ultimately undermine the legitimacy of the
legal system.
To address these challenges, efforts have been made
to simplify legal language and make it more
accessible to non-lawyers. The Plain English
movement, for instance, advocates for the use of clear,
simple, and concise language in legal documents and
communication. Legal professionals are also
recognizing the importance of communicating legal
concepts and documents in a manner that is
understandable to the general public.
In conclusion, while legalese is an integral aspect of
legal language, it can present challenges for
individuals outside of the legal field. While precision
and clarity are essential in legal communication and
documentation, it is crucial to ensure that legal
language does not become an impediment to access to
justice. By simplifying legal language and making it
more accessible, we can promote greater
understanding and transparency within the legal
system, and thus, increase access to justice.
1. According to the passage, what is the primary purpose
of using legalese in legal communication and
documentation?
(A) To create confusion and uncertainty among non-
lawyers.
(B) To undermine the legitimacy of the legal system.
(C) To ensure the precision and clarity of legal
concepts and documents.
(D) To promote access to justice for individuals who
lack legal expertise.
2. Which of the following statements best describes the
impact of legalese on individuals outside of the legal
profession?
(A) Legalese can make legal communication and
documents inaccessible to individuals who lack
legal expertise, training, or fluency in the English
language.
(B) Legalese can promote access to justice for
individuals who have access to legal expertise.
(C) Legalese can ensure that legal documents are
understood equally by all parties involved.
(D) Legalese can minimize confusion and
misunderstandings among non-lawyers regarding
legal concepts.
3. Which of the following statements about legal
language is NOT supported by the passage?
(A) Legalese is often criticized for being convoluted
and difficult to understand
(B) Legal language employs a specialized
vocabulary, Latin expressions, and formal
diction.
(C) The use of legalese can create an uneven playing
field in legal proceedings.
(D) The use of legalese is necessary to make legal
communication and documentation accessible to
non-lawyers.
4. Based on the passage, which of the following words is
closest in meaning to "convoluted"?
(A) Straightforward (B) Complicated
(C) Simple (D) Easy
5. What is the central idea of the passage?
(A) Legal language is complex and inaccessible to
non-lawyers, which can create an uneven playing
field and undermine the legitimacy of the legal
system.
(B) The use of precise and unambiguous legal
language is crucial to avoid confusion and
misunderstandings in legal communication and
documentation.
(C) Legal language is a tool for making legal
distinctions and defining legal concepts with
absolute precision, but it can also have negative
consequences.
[ 3]
 (D) Efforts have been made to simplify legal
language and make it more accessible to non-
lawyers in order to increase access to justice.
PASSAGE II
Way back in 1964, when the then US surgeon general
linked cigarettes to cancer and heart disease, his report
went on to impact healthcare policies all around the
world. Today‘s surgeon general Vivek Murthy‘s
advisory is that loneliness is as dangerous as smoking,
and significantly raises the risks of heart disease as
well as stroke. But it‘s likely to move only a few rich
countries to shift a little expenditure towards social
connection targets. This is not at all because ―the
epidemic of loneliness and isolation‖ is frozen at the
rich west‘s boundaries. Neither poverty nor geography
provide any immunity at all.
Still, measuring loneliness is widely seen as inherently
imprecise. Variations such as the interview‘s location
and the interviewer‘s characteristics can majorly
swing responses, which in any case can reveal more
about normative desires than what the respondent
feels. Countries like India anyway lack the kind of
deep associative data that Murthy can cite, which is
reflective of a larger healthcare deficit here. In the
most populous state of UP, out-of-pocket estimates
are an eye-watering 71% of total health expenditure.
In the US, on the other hand, even if monies were
allocated for schemes Murthy recommends, what he
doesn‘t address is how these would sidestep the
―polarisation‖ that has unhealthily shrunk discussion
networks in the first place.
Finally, and most importantly in the Indian context,
solitude as a choice should not get extinguished before
it has even lived. Remember how the forced domestic
confinement of Covid was nightmarish for many, even
if many others felt acutely thankful for how family
held them through the pandemic.When the U.S.
surgeon general at the time made the connection
between smoking and cancer and he art disease in
1964, his findings had a huge impact on global health
care policies and increased the risks of both heart
disease and stroke. When the court orders a feared
criminal to be kept in solitary confinement, it is meant
for them to face acute loneliness without payroll,
which is amount to capital punishment against the
brutal forces. Even the feared criminal would have
fear of falling prey to Law enforcement agencies to be
transferred to a prison cell or loneliness.
Consequently, Surgeon General Vivek Murthy's latest
discovery has those in positions of authority must take
precautions against healthy risks to the entity and
society because loneliness and isolation are equally as
harmful as cigarettes. This argument may be in its
early stages, but more research is required to
determine its effects before coming to a logical
conclusion.
6. What is the author's main argument in the passage?
(A) Loneliness is a significant health risk, but
governments may not take adequate measures to
address it.
(B) Loneliness is a universal problem that affects rich
and poor countries equally.
(C) Healthcare deficits are the reason that countries
like India lack sufficient data on loneliness.
(D) Solitude should be a choice for everyone, and
intergenerational family cohesion may not be
desirable for some
7. What is the reason that measuring loneliness is
considered imprecise?
(A) The interview location and interviewer's
characteristics can affect responses.
(B) Loneliness is a subjective experience that cannot
be quantified.
(C) Variations in healthcare policies can affect
loneliness levels.
(D) Poverty and geography provide immunity to
loneliness.
8. According to the passage, why might Vivek Murthy's
recommendations for addressing loneliness face
challenges in the US?
(A) Polarisation has unhealthily shrunk discussion
networks in the US.
(B) US healthcare policies do not allocate sufficient
funding for social connection schemes..
(C) Solitude as a choice is not desirable in the US.
(D) The US lacks sufficient data on loneliness.
9. Which of the following statements best summarizes
the author's opinion on loneliness?
(A) Loneliness is a universal problem that needs to be
addressed urgently, but there are no effective
solutions currently available.
(B) Loneliness is a serious issue, but it is difficult to
measure and addressing it may require re-
evaluating our values and priorities.
(C) Loneliness is not as dangerous as smoking, and it
is largely a personal choice that should be
respected.
(D) Loneliness is a problem that is confined to certain
geographic regions and socio-economic groups,
and it can only be addressed through community-
led initiatives.
10. What is the tone of the passage?
(A) Cynical
(B) Optimistic
(C) Indifferent
(D) Cautionary
PASSAGE III
Aaron Rodgers chatter has overtaken the NFL, the
most popular sports enterprise in America, in recent
years. Whether it was his MVP-play or eye-popping
contract extension or feud with his coach in Green
Bay or COVID vaccine skepticism or use of
psychedelics or his entry into a darkness retreat this
[ 4]
 offseason, Rodgers, 39, has given more than enough
grist for every sports radio and TV shoutfest across
the land. Now, the future Hall of Fame quarterback
and all-time NFL lighting rod is headed to New York
City, the media capital of the United States. The
Green Bay Packers and New York Jets have agreed to
a deal that sends Rodgers along with Green Bay‘s first
round pick (No. 13 overall) and fifth round pick (No.
170) in the 2023 draft to the Jets in exchange for their
2023 first round pick (No. 15 overall), a 2023 second-
round pick (No. 42), a 2023 sixth-round pick (No.
207) and a conditional 2024 second-round pick that
becomes a first-round pick if Rodgers plays at least
65% of New York‘s offensive snaps this season.
Rodgers arrives in the Big Apple just in time to steal
New Yorkers‘ attention away from this week‘s NFL
Draft, the New York Knicks‘ strong playoff
performance, the New York Rangers-New Jersey
Devils NHL playoff series, the sudden firings of two
prominent cable news anchors, the city‘s rat issues,
and on and on and on. Rodgers has an aptitude for
stirring pots. Many Jets fans, however, are just plain
giddy that he‘ll be wearing green—without Packer
gold—this upcoming season. And who can blame
them? The team‘s latest in a long line of would-be
franchise quarterback saviors—Zach Wilson, the No.
2 overall selection in the 2021 NFL Draft—was
benched last season, due to poor play. The Jets
finished 7-10 in 2022, but have some strong pieces.
The team‘s defense was ranked No. 4 in the NFL a
season ago. Jets wide receiver Garrett Wilson was the
NFL‘s offensive rookie of the year. Another rookie,
running back Breece Hall, was on the verge of a
breakout campaign before an ACL injury ended his
season. Rodgers will reunite with his top target in
Green Bay from a year ago, Allen Lazard, who signed
a free agent deal with the Jets last month.
11. What can be inferred about Aaron Rodgers from the
passage?
(A) He has never won the MVP award in the NFL.
(B) He has had a conflict with his coach in Green
Bay.
(C) He has never been traded to another team before
(D) He has never shown any interest in alternative
medicine or therapy.
12. Why are many Jets fans excited about Aaron Rodgers
joining their team?
(A) Because he is known for being a quiet and
reserved player.
(B) Because he will bring a lot of attention to the
team.
(C) Because he has a reputation for being a bad
teammate.
(D) Because he has a lot of experience playing in
New York City.
13. What can be inferred about the Jets' performance in
the previous NFL season?
(A) They had a losing record.
(B) They had the best defense in the NFL.
(C) They had a successful season overall.
(D) They had a difficult season due to injuries.
14. What can be inferred about Allen Lazard?
(A) He played for the Jets before joining the Green
Bay Packers.
(B) He is the most talented wide receiver in the NFL.
(C) He is a free agent who has not yet signed with a
team.
(D) He has played with Aaron Rodgers before.
15. Which sentence correctly demonstrates subject-verb
agreement in the passage?
(A) Aaron Rodgers and the Jets was making
headlines.
(B) The Jets, along with their draft picks, was
exchanged for Rodgers and Green Bay‘s draft
picks.
(C) Rodgers, as well as his teammates, was excited
about the trade.
(D) Green Bay and the Jets have agreed to a deal that
send Rodgers to New York.
PASSAGE IV
The textbook revisions that have been recently
undertaken by the National Council of Educational
Research and Training (NCERT) have evoked mixed
reactions among educationists and commentators
alike. For example, the editorial comment by Krishna
Kumar in the current issue of EPW has raised many
important issues that suggest an inadequacy of the
revisions in a vital sense. The comment rightly argues
that the claim to rationalise the syllabus and
curriculum for reducing the burden of the
schoolchildren is only going to intensify another kind
of burden on them. Taking a cue from the editorial
comment, one could further argue that the deletion of
certain topics from the syllabi would make both
students and teachers hamstrung. The comment makes
a reference to conceptual incomprehension as being a
cognitive burden; however, it is not the fault of these
concepts but of those who have made it their business
to transact with them. In other words, the knowledge
in textbooks that is now sought to be ―rationalised‖
not only leads to a conceptual incomprehension but
also creates a moral–social burden for those who
refuse to confront its source emanating from, say,
their lack of knowledge about caste, untouchability,
and communalism. It is an irony that the NCERT
revisions would like to solve the problem by removing
such concepts and chapters that are perceived to be
burdensome on the students, intellectually as well as
socially. The collective consequence of such a
conceptual incomprehension, as has been pointed out
in the comment, and the decision to drive out some
[ 5]
 concepts and chapters from the classroom altogether,
tends to produce the same result in the name of
rationalisation. The deletion of certain topics
pertaining to the freedom struggle, social movements
against caste and untouchability, etc, would make it
correspondingly non-compelling for the framers of the
revisions of textbooks to take the concepts of justice
and equality on board for classroom discussions.
Deletions would make it unnecessary for the teachers
to communicate these concepts‘ social significance
through classroom discussions. Thus, the deletion of
such knowledge from the syllabi has far more serious
consequences for not just the concepts and chapters
being deleted but, more importantly, for the project of
shaping the normative character of our society. The
deletion of topics would lead to the elimination of the
discussion and/or persuasion through deliberation of
normative concepts such as justice, equality, and
secularism, which are all core constitutional values.
The acts of deletion render these concepts devoid of
textual as well as institutional context that are so
necessary for making students aware about the
infirmities of society.
16. What is the consequence of the NCERT's decision to
remove certain concepts and chapters from the syllabi,
as per the passage?
(A) It intensifies cognitive burden on students.
(B) It makes it non-compelling for the framers of the
revisions of textbooks to take the concepts of
justice and equality on board for classroom
discussions.
(C) It leads to the elimination of discussion and/or
persuasion through deliberation of normative
concepts such as justice, equality, and secularism.
(D) It creates a moral-social burden on those who
refuse to confront the source of conceptual
incomprehension..
17. What is the main concern of the passage regarding the
NCERT textbook revisions?
(A) The cognitive burden on students due to
conceptual incomprehension.
(B) The deletion of topics pertaining to the freedom
struggle and social movements against caste and
untouchability.
(C) The inadequacy of the revisions in rationalizing
the syllabus and curriculum.
(D) The elimination of normative concepts such as
justice, equality, and secularism from classroom
discussions.
18. According to the passage, what is the collective
consequence of conceptual incomprehension and the
decision to remove certain concepts and chapters from
the classroom altogether?
(A) A non-compelling knowledge base for students
and teachers.
(B) An intensification of cognitive burden on
students.
(C) The production of the same result in the name of
rationalization.
(D) The creation of a moral-social burden on students
and teachers.
19. What is the main argument presented about the recent
textbook revisions by NCERT?
(A) The revisions have successfully reduced the
burden on schoolchildren.
(B) The revisions have resulted in a conceptual
incomprehension and a moral-social burden on
students.
(C) The revisions have made the classroom
discussions more compelling and effective..
(D) The revisions have made the normative concepts
like justice and equality redundant..
20. What does the word "hamstrung" mean in the
passage?
(A) Confused (B) Impeded
(C) Strengthened (D) Encouraged
PASSAGE V
On 12 April 2023, the University Grants Commission
published its draft guidelines for incorporating Indian
knowledge in higher education curricula. These
guidelines, drafted in line with the National Education
Policy (NEP) 2020 mandate to promote research and
instruction in Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), at all
levels of education, by preparing and teaching new
courses/programmes at the undergraduate and
postgraduate levels. Students both at the
undergraduate and postgraduate programmes are to
gather at least 5% of their mandated credits from IKS
courses. At least half of these credits are to be sourced
from IKS courses related to the student‘s major
discipline of specialisation. Students of medicine, for
instance, are expected to read a foundation course in
Indian systems of medicine followed by another
elective course on a similar theme in the subsequent
semester. The model curricula appended in the
guidelines, therefore enlist IKS foundational courses,
presumably compulsory for all students, delineating
contributions of early Indians in disciplines ranging
from architecture, metallurgy, health sciences to fine
arts and economy. What runs like a red thread through
[ 6]
 the guidelines is the emphasis on an uninterrupted
knowledge tradition right into the 19th century (see,
for instance, the injunction ―Highlight the continuity
of the Indian astronomical tradition [1400 BCE–19th
century CE],‖ p 22), the rupture sourced ostensibly to
the introduction of Western education. The guidelines
picture an amalgamation of fundamental IKS concepts
into modern textbooks as well as classroom-based
teaching–learning activities. Indeed, the release was
bookended by guidelines for training/orientation of
faculty in IKS (first opened for comments in
December 2022) uploaded on 13 April 2023 to
―facilitate a seamless integration of Indian traditional
knowledge with modern subjects.‖ However, one is
unsure of the relationship envisaged with existing
―modern‖ curricula since subjects like Indian music,
Indian philosophy or even ayurveda, traditionally seen
as part of the IKS, are denounced for teaching
―Western epistemologies and methodologies‖ (p 8);
seemingly tainted by non-Indian perspectives and in
need of an overhaul. This, despite, by the now well-
known understanding, that Western knowledge has
long been permeated by non-Western knowledge
streams, and these cultural exchanges stretch back to
the period much before the West achieved relative
dominance. Interestingly, the guidelines acknowledge
and commend the spread (―outflow,‖ p 14) of science,
technology, medical pharmacopoeia, and literature
from ancient India to Asia and Europe from ancient to
modern times, although the reverse/inflow remains
unacknowledged.
21. What is the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020
mandate?
(A) To promote research and instruction in Indian
Knowledge Systems (IKS) at all levels of
education
(B) To reduce the number of IKS courses in higher
education
(C) To focus on Western knowledge systems in
higher education
(D) To eliminate IKS courses from the higher
education curriculum
22. According to the passage, what is the implied reason
behind the guidelines' emphasis on highlighting the
continuity of Indian knowledge systems right into the
19th century?
(A) To create a sense of pride in India's ancient
knowledge systems
(B) To encourage students to study IKS courses and
discourage Western knowledge systems
(C) To show the long-standing history and
contributions of Indian knowledge systems
(D) To prove that Indian knowledge systems are
superior to Western knowledge systems
23. Which of the following best describes the reason
behind the UGC's draft guidelines for incorporating
Indian knowledge in higher education curricula?
(A) To replace existing modern curricula with
traditional Indian knowledge systems
(B) To promote research and instruction in Indian
knowledge systems at all levels of education
(C) To encourage students to take elective courses
related to Indian systems of medicine
(D) To highlight the contributions of Western
education to Indian knowledge systems
24. What is the tone of the passage?
(A) Neutral (B) Celebratory
(C) Cynical (D) Condescending
25. What is the central idea of the passage?
(A) The University Grants Commission has drafted
guidelines to promote the integration of Indian
knowledge systems into higher education
curricula.
(B) Indian knowledge systems are superior to
Western knowledge systems.
(C) The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 aims
to replace Western knowledge systems with
Indian knowledge systems.
(D) The introduction of Western education in India
caused a rupture in the continuity of Indian
knowledge systems.
[ 7]
 Logical Reasoning
PASSAGE I
Over the past few decades, fewer and fewer ballots
have been cast at precinct polling places on Election
Day, more and more via mail, early voting, or other
methods of convenience voting. The US is
something of an outlier, but other democracies have
also seen increased interest in postal voting, and it
has been common in Switzerland for decades.
To the extent that there has been public debate about
this shift, it has largely centred on questions related
to security and accessibility. While these qualities
are essential, they do not exhaust the considerations
we should use to assess election administration.
Elections are not merely information-gathering
exercises. They also shape citizens‘ attitudes toward
democracy and their role within it. And popular
elections structure the political environment in
which interest groups and social movements
organise and mobilise for collective action. For
these functions, the experience of voting and the
optics of elections matter a great deal.
I argue that three key features define the democratic
practice of popular voting. First, vote-counting
procedures exhibit formal equality: they weigh votes
equally regardless of who casts them. Second,
prominent elections garner uniquely widespread
participation. For example, One of the United
Kingdom‘s biggest television events of recent years,
Queen Elizabeth II‘s funeral, garnered around 30
million UK viewers. Meanwhile, approximately 32
million people voted in the 2019 UK general
election. In today‘s democracies, people expect the
majority of their fellow citizens to vote, and wonder
what has gone wrong when they don‘t.
Third and finally, occasions for voting are
momentous. I mean this in two senses: they are
time-bound, occurring in a defined political
moment; and they are attention-grabbing, disrupting
our normal routines. At the same time, though, these
momentous occasions recur regularly. They create a
rhythm to political life in which the ordinary,
delegated and diffuse business of politics is
punctuated by extraordinary moments of mass
participation. Rituals of voting, such as congregating
at a local polling place, reinforce the
momentousness of the occasion for those who
participate in and witness it.
Together these features constitute a practice that
manages to make multiple democratic values salient
at the same time. The values of individual dignity,
political equality, and large-scale collective action –
which are often felt to be in tension with one another
– are all on display at election time. The confluence
of democratic values helps citizens to appreciate
their role in a democracy.
1. Which of the following statements accurately
summarizes the argument made in the passage?
(A) The shift towards alternative voting methods in
democracies has undermined the democratic
values of individual dignity, political equality,
and large-scale collective action.
(B) The practice of popular voting, characterized by
formal equality, widespread participation, and
momentous occasions, effectively highlights
and promotes democratic values.
(C) The increasing use of postal voting in
democracies has led to a decline in citizens'
appreciation of their role in a democracy.
(D) The rituals of voting, such as congregating at a
local polling place, are no longer necessary in
modern democracies as they disrupt citizens'
normal routines.
2. Based on the information provided in the passage,
which of the following assumptions can be made?
(A) The shift towards alternative voting methods
has resulted in a decline in the number of
citizens participating in elections.
(B) The practice of popular voting is universally
embraced by all democracies around the world.
(C) The confluence of democratic values during
election time increases citizens' trust in the
democratic process.
(D) The use of postal voting is the most secure and
accessible method of voting in modern
democracies.
3. Which of the following statements, if true, would
most strengthen the argument that the practice of
popular voting effectively highlights and promotes
democratic values, as described in the passage?
(A) Research studies have shown that citizens who
personally participate in the act of casting their
votes develop a stronger sense of civic duty and
engagement with democratic processes,
supporting the confluence of democratic values
during election time.
(B) Countries that have implemented strict voter
identification requirements have seen an
increase in voter turnout and public trust in the
electoral system, reinforcing the formal
[ 8]
 equality and widespread participation aspects of
popular voting.
(C) Public opinion surveys consistently indicate
that citizens perceive election day as a
significant event that holds symbolic value and
reinforces their belief in the democratic system,
reinforcing the momentousness and large-scale
collective action aspects of popular voting.
(D) Democracies that prioritize convenience voting
methods, such as mail-in ballots, have
experienced a decline in political apathy among
their citizens, strengthening the citizens'
appreciation of their role in a democracy and
the importance of widespread participation.
4. Which of the following most accurately identifies a
flaw in the argument made in the passage?
(A) The argument assumes that the shift towards
alternative voting methods is solely responsible
for the decline in citizens' appreciation of their
role in a democracy.
(B) The argument overlooks the fact that the
momentousness of voting occasions can be
intimidating for some citizens, leading to their
disengagement from the democratic process.
(C) The argument fails to consider that widespread
participation in prominent elections may not
necessarily translate into a better understanding
of democratic values by the citizens.
(D) The argument assumes that the confluence of
democratic values during election time is the
only effective way to shape citizens' attitudes
toward democracy and their role within it.
5. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken
the argument that the experience of voting and the
optics of elections play a significant role in shaping
citizens' attitudes toward democracy and their role
within it, as presented in the passage?
(A) Recent studies have shown that citizens'
attitudes toward democracy are primarily
shaped by their interactions with political
leaders and participation in political campaigns,
rather than the act of voting itself.
(B) Surveys indicate that citizens who vote via
mail-in ballots or early voting methods have
similar levels of engagement and appreciation
for democracy as those who vote at precinct
polling places, suggesting that the experience of
voting is not a determining factor in shaping
citizens' attitudes.
(C) In countries where voting is mandatory,
citizens' attitudes toward democracy and their
role within it are influenced more by the
obligation to vote rather than the experience of
voting or the optics of elections.
(D) Research has shown that citizens' attitudes
toward democracy and their role within it are
primarily shaped by their socio-economic status
and education level, with voting experiences
having a minimal impact on their perceptions.
PASSAGE II
The arrest of former Prime Minister Imran Khan at
the Islamabad High Court on May 9 triggered
massive protests across Pakistan, leading to
unprecedented violence. Mobs, including supporters
of the Pakistan Tehreek-e-Insaf party, targeted army
and paramilitary installations, which is a departure
from the public's usual fear of the army. This has
raised speculation about a potential "Pakistan
Spring," although its success and impact on the
country's future remain uncertain. The status quoists
may exploit the ongoing economic crisis to suppress
the movement. The events unfolding in Pakistan,
along with the humanitarian crisis in Afghanistan,
are causes for concern
While some believe that the Pakistan army will
remain united against the hostility, others argue that
Imran Khan, who previously benefited from the
army's support, has tapped into anti-army sentiment
for his own opportunistic agenda. They suggest that
taking firm action against Khan could restore the
army's image as a unifying force and bring an end to
the chaos.
The changing dynamics in Pakistan reflect the
broader geopolitical reality. Since the US troop
withdrawal, the army has faced increasing threats.
Tehreek-e-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) and Baloch
groups have launched numerous attacks on the
armed forces, with the TTP expanding its influence
in Balochistan and Punjab. Clashes with the Taliban
along the Afghanistan border have also intensified.
The army's involvement in the China-Pakistan
Economic Corridor (CPEC) has contributed to
public resentment against Chinese investments,
particularly in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and
Balochistan. However, the army's political weakness
and security challenges make it unlikely to engage
in further political misadventures.
Imran Khan's actions have further undermined the
army's stature. Protesters gained access to military
installations, including General Headquarters
[9]
 (GHQ), and targeted army patrols and installations
in cities.
The outcome of this internal conflict is uncertain,
but the possibility of international intervention to
prevent instability in Pakistan exists. The instability
in Afghanistan already affects Pakistan, and further
destabilization could have a spillover effect.
Military courts, Khan's potential choices, and the
involvement of the ruling PDM party and higher
judiciary indicate that the battle has just begun, and
its resolution may depend on the actions of the
people, global powers, and events in Afghanistan.
6. Which of the following is a key factor contributing
to the uncertainty surrounding the outcome of the
internal conflict in Pakistan?
(A) The potential for international intervention to
prevent instability in Pakistan.
(B) Imran Khan's previous alliance with the
Pakistan army.
(C) The public resentment against Chinese
investments in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and
Balochistan.
(D) The ongoing security challenges faced by the
army, including attacks by the Tehreek-e-
Taliban Pakistan (TTP) and Baloch groups.
7. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken
the argument presented in the passage that the
changing dynamics in Pakistan reflect a broader
geopolitical reality and that the outcome of the
internal conflict is uncertain?
(A) The protests in Pakistan were largely peaceful
and did not result in significant violence or
disruption.
(B) Imran Khan's arrest was supported by a
majority of the political parties in Pakistan
(C) The neighboring countries have expressed their
commitment to non-interference in Pakistan's
internal affairs.
(D) The internal conflict in Pakistan has been
effectively resolved, leading to a period of
stability and unity.
8. Based on the information provided in the passage,
which of the following courses of action would be
most appropriate to address the situation in
Pakistan?
(A) Increase military presence and engage in a
stronger crackdown on protests to restore
stability.
(B) Seek international intervention to resolve the
internal conflicts and prevent further
destabilization.
(C) Implement economic reforms and address the
grievances driving the protests to alleviate the
crisis.
(D) Allow for peaceful protests and engage in
dialogue with different factions to find a
peaceful resolution.
9. Which of the following best represents the main
argument presented in the passage?
(A) The protests and violence in Pakistan have
raised concerns about a potential "Pakistan
Spring" and uncertainty about the country's
future.
(B) Imran Khan's arrest and the targeting of army
and paramilitary installations indicate a
significant shift in public sentiment towards the
military in Pakistan.
(C) The changing dynamics in Pakistan, along with
the humanitarian crisis in Afghanistan, call for
vigilance and potential international
intervention to prevent further destabilization.
(D) The economic crisis and grievances driving the
protests in Pakistan require the implementation
of economic reforms to restore stability and
address the underlying issues.
10. Which of the following options presents a paradox
based on the information provided in the passage?
(A) The protests in Pakistan reflect a departure
from the public's usual fear of the army, yet the
arrest of Imran Khan has the potential to restore
the army's image as a unifying force.
(B) The changing dynamics in Pakistan and the
humanitarian crisis in Afghanistan call for
vigilance, yet international intervention to
prevent further destabilization is unlikely.
(C) The violence and targeting of military
installations in Pakistan indicate a significant
shift in public sentiment towards the military,
yet the outcome of the internal conflict remains
uncertain.
(D) The economic crisis and grievances driving the
protests in Pakistan require economic reforms
to restore stability, yet implementing such
reforms could exacerbate the ongoing
instability.
PASSAGE III
By holding the meeting of the ―G-7‖, or the so-
called group of the world‘s most industrialised
nations, in Hiroshima, Japanese Prime Minister
Fumio Kishida, who belongs to the city, wanted to
send out a message of global solidarity for peace.
The G-7 members issued a separate statement on
Ukraine, hitting Russia with more sanctions, but
[10]
 failed to highlight a path towards dialogue and
ending the war. Despite the invitation of countries
such as India, Brazil, Indonesia and Vietnam with a
less black-and-white view of the world, and Mr.
Kishida making pertinent references to the views of
the Global South, the summit‘s statements reflected
a much more polarised view of the world — that of
G-7 members alone.
If the G-7 grouping wishes to broaden its prism, it
must recognise that it is grossly unrepresentative of
the world today. While members together represent
more than half the world‘s net wealth, the G-7
accounts for less than a third of the global GDP, and
just over a tenth of the world‘s population. Apart
from Japan, the G-7 membership comprises an
essentially Euro-American worldview, and is not
discussing expanding that view soon. It has actually
contracted, after it expelled Russia over its
annexation of areas of Georgia in 2008 and then
Crimea in 2014. It is also hard to justify an
economic grouping that does not include some of
the world‘s largest economies (China and India) or
the fastest growing GDPs, or biggest global energy
providers. While some efforts were made in
Hiroshima to recognise the G-7‘s role in, for
example, promoting transparent financing and debt
sustainability for the developing world, or in
compensating for the developed world‘s
contribution to global warming and greenhouse gas
emissions, the summit failed to propose concrete
measures to help defray these responsibilities. As
the spotlight shifts to the G-20 summit later this year
in Delhi, it is hoped the grouping will work towards
a more inclusive outlook and help in building a
more comprehensive global consensus on some of
the bigger challenges the world faces today.
11. Based on the passage, which of the following
statements can be inferred?
(A) The G-7 summit in Hiroshima aimed to address
the concerns of the Global South countries.
(B) The G-7's exclusion of Russia and limited
representation raises questions about its ability
to effectively address global challenges.
(C) The G-7 countries have made significant
progress in addressing the economic concerns
of developing nations.
(D) The G-20 summit in Delhi is expected to be
more inclusive and comprehensive in
addressing global challenges than the G-7
summit.
12. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken
the argument that the G-7's limited representation
hinders its effectiveness in addressing global
challenges?
(A) The G-7 summit in Hiroshima resulted in
significant commitments from member
countries to address global challenges.
(B) The G-7's exclusion of certain countries is a
deliberate strategy to ensure a more focused
and effective decision-making process.
(C) The G-20 summit in Delhi is expected to have
limited participation from developing nations,
similar to the G-7 summit.
(D) The G-7's limited representation does not
hinder its ability to collaborate with other
international organizations to address global
challenges effectively.
13. Which of the following assumptions is necessary for
the argument that the limited representation of the
G-7 hinders its effectiveness in addressing global
challenges?
(A) The perspectives and inputs of countries
outside the G-7 are crucial for understanding
and effectively addressing global challenges.
(B) The G-7 countries have not been successful in
addressing global challenges in the past due to
their limited representation.
(C) The exclusion of certain countries from the G-7
significantly impacts the diversity of
perspectives and expertise in addressing global
challenges.
(D) The G-20, with its broader representation, has
proven to be more effective in addressing
global challenges compared to the G-7.
14. Which of the following courses of action is most
supported by the information presented in the
passage?
(A) The G-7 should immediately expand its
membership to include China and India to
ensure a more representative global outlook.
(B) The G-7 should focus on promoting transparent
financing and debt sustainability for the
developing world to address the imbalances in
the global economic landscape.
(C) The G-7 should work towards reinstating
Russia's membership to enhance its credibility
in addressing global challenges.
(D) The G-20 summit should prioritize building a
more comprehensive global consensus on major
challenges, considering its broader
representation.
[11]
15. Which of the following most accurately captures the
main argument presented in the passage?
(A) The G-7's limited membership undermines its
ability to address global challenges effectively
and hinders the representation of diverse
viewpoints.
(B) The G-7's exclusionary approach in
membership selection promotes a Euro-
American worldview and perpetuates polarized
views of the world.
(C) The G-7's focus on economic influence and
political stability in membership criteria
neglects the perspectives and interests of
countries from the Global South.
(D) The G-7's smaller population and GDP
representation compared to its wealth
representation diminishes its influence on
global economic decisions and calls for a more
inclusive outlook.
PASSAGE IV
‗There is nothing outside the text,‘ wrote Jacques
Derrida in 1967. Like most everything Derrida said,
this notorious declaration becomes more difficult to
interpret as one examines its context and the context
of its context. But it aptly captures the flavour of
academic philosophy at the time it appeared, which
was also the year of Richard Rorty‘s anthology The
Linguistic Turn, which embodied an argument that
the most important philosophy of the 20th century
was linguistic philosophy. By then, everyone but a
few reactionaries would have agreed with that
assessment. Philosophy had for decades been
relentlessly emphasising the nature of language.
There was some dispute about whether there could
be any genuine philosophical questions that were
not questions about language.
Looking back on it from here, the convergence on
questions of language – indeed, the relentless,
almost-exclusive focus on it as central to our
experience, by thinkers otherwise so different that
they could not or did not care to enter into dialogue
– seems remarkable. It is one of the signal aspects of
20th-century intellectual history and a useful lens
through which to view the development of
philosophy during that time.
In the 20th century, Western philosophy split into
two discourses, each with its own canon and jargon,
usually referred to as ‗analytic‘ and ‗continental‘.
Mastering them simultaneously (getting a solid
handle on both Martin Heidegger and Bertrand
Russell, for example, or both Willard Van Orman
Quine and Michel Foucault), was a very
intimidating prospect, and few had the motivation.
Almost certainly, if one was housed, one was
housed in a department that did only one or the
other. And almost certainly, whichever side the
department was on, it was abusive toward the other.
Analysts held that continental philosophy was not
philosophy at all, but meaningless yet relativistic
babble, something of substantially less than no
value. Continentalists characterised analytic
philosophy as useless punctilious logic-chopping
and scientism for its own sake, with no possibility of
cultural critique or even meaningful connection to
human life as it is actually conducted.
It is not surprising, however, that the lines of
discourse had more in common than the participants
in the ridicule thought they did. Analytic and
continental philosophy emerged at the same time in
the Western academy, out of a shared intellectual
history. The rivalry was as professional as it was
conceptual, and the contest was always to see which
side could get rid of the others‘ professors. But in a
thousand ways through the whole century, they were
embedded in the same zeitgeist. They had a lot of
the same obsessions, as well as a lot of the same
drawbacks, even if, by 1967, they also had entirely
different vocabularies.
16. What is the main idea conveyed in the passage?
(A) The convergence on questions of language in
20th-century philosophy.
(B) The rivalry and animosity between analytic and
continental philosophy.
(C) The influential role of Jacques Derrida in
academic philosophy.
(D) The shift towards linguistic philosophy in the
20th century.
17. Which assumption is implicit in the passage?
(A) Analytic and continental philosophy have no
common ground or shared intellectual history.
(B) Linguistic philosophy is the most important
branch of philosophy in the 20th century.
(C) Both analytic and continental philosophy have
limitations and drawbacks.
(D) The participants in the ridicule of the other side
fully understood the similarities between
analytic and continental philosophy.
18. What flaw can be identified in the reasoning
presented in the passage?
(A) The passage does not provide enough evidence
to support the claim that analytic and
continental philosophy emerged at the same
time.
(B) The passage assumes that the convergence on
questions of language is the sole defining
aspect of 20th-century intellectual history.
(C) The passage overgeneralizes the perspectives of
analytic and continental philosophy, failing to
[12]
 acknowledge the diversity within each
discourse.
(D) The passage fails to address the impact of
linguistic philosophy on other branches of
philosophy, such as the nature of reality,
goodness, or beauty.
19. Which statement would strengthen the argument
presented in the passage?
(A) Linguistic philosophy was widely embraced by
all philosophers in the 20th century.
(B) The rivalry between analytic and continental
philosophy hindered the progress of philosophy
as a discipline.
(C) The convergence on questions of language led
to groundbreaking insights and advancements
in philosophical thought.
(D) Jacques Derrida's declaration about the
centrality of language in philosophy was widely
contested and disregarded.
20. Which inference can be made based on the
information provided in the passage?
(A) Linguistic philosophy completely replaced
other branches of philosophy in the 20th
century.
(B) The linguistic turn in philosophy sparked a new
era of interdisciplinary dialogue.
(C) The focus on language in philosophy had little
impact on cultural critique or practical
applications.
(D) Understanding both analytic and continental
philosophy was a rare achievement due to their
divergent vocabularies and perspectives.
PASSAGE V
It‘s the ‗yeah, yeah, yeah‘ in the Beatles‘ ‗She Loves
You‘, the guitar riff in Blur‘s ‗Song 2‘, or the
ascending vocal in ‗Kill Bill‘ where SZA sings: ‗I
might kill my ex.‘ For many listeners, each of these
serves as a hook: a musical or lyrical moment that
both stands out and is easily remembered. This
definition, based on one put forth in the 1980s, is a
useful way to think about what hooks can be. Pop
music is full of hooks, but there are plenty of them
in other kinds of music, too – whether it‘s the motif
at the start of Beethoven‘s 5th Symphony (da-da-da
DAH), or Bill Evans‘s descending piano chords at
the beginning of Miles Davis‘s version of ‗On Green
Dolphin Street‘. A hook can come in many forms,
from a particular beat or series of notes to the lyrics
or other elements at a certain point in a piece of
music – any feature, or combination of features, that
stands out and sticks in a person‘s memory. A hook
is supposed to be heard and noticed easily. For
example, the intended hook in ‗Who Let the Dogs
Out‘ is obvious: it‘s the bit where Baha Men chant:
‗Who let the dogs out? Who, who, who, who?‘
Whether you like the song or not, there is something
in this part of it – its rhythm, its simplicity, the
sound of the voices, or perhaps its repetitiveness –
that seems to transcend personal taste. It is easily
remembered to the extent that it can enter into your
consciousness and stay there, whether you like it or
not (making it what psychologists call an
‗earworm‘).
Much of modern pop could be described as a hook-
delivery device: ‗Bad Romance‘ by Lady Gaga or
‗Shake It Off‘ by Taylor Swift, for example, are
packed full of musical moments that stand out to the
listener and are easily remembered. Jay Brown, the
CEO of the Roc Nation entertainment company,
once suggested that modern pop songs need a hook
in every section to hold a listener‘s attention.
Producers certainly seem to know this. From the
‗rah rah‘ and ‗ooh la la‘ vocables in ‗Bad Romance‘
to the part in ‗Shake It Off‘ when the saxophone line
kicks in, the plan appears to be, essentially: if one
hook doesn‘t get you, another will.
So what makes a part of a song a hook? Well, a
hook is not just a musical moment; it is a musical
moment that is interacting with the listener‘s mind.
In particular, it is a product of the interaction
between the music and the listener‘s capacities for
attention and memory.
21. Which option best summarizes the main idea of the
passage?
(A) Hooks in music are memorable and attention-
grabbing moments that stick in a person's
memory.
(B) Pop music relies heavily on hooks to capture
listeners' attention.
(C) Hooks can be found in various forms of music,
from pop to classical.
(D) Hooks are musical elements that interact with the
listener's mind and memory.
22. Which option can be inferred as an assumption
underlying the discussion of hooks in music?
(A) Hooks are intentionally created by musicians to
make their songs more popular.
(B) All listeners have the same reaction and
perception of hooks in music.
[13]
 (C) Hooks play a significant role in making a song
memorable and appealing to listeners.
(D) The concept of hooks in music originated in the
1980s.
23. Which option can be inferred from the passage?
(A) Hooks in music are solely based on the lyrics
and vocal elements.
(B) All pop songs require hooks in every section to
hold listeners' attention.
(C) Hooks have the ability to transcend personal
taste and stick in a person's memory.
(D) Hooks in classical music are primarily based on
complex melodies and harmonies.
(D) Hooks in music are designed to cater to
individual preferences and personal taste.
25. Which option must be true based on the information
provided in the passage?
(A) All listeners remember and appreciate the same
hooks in music.
(B) Hooks in music are limited to pop songs and
cannot be found in other genres.
(C) Hooks are musical moments that interact with
the listener's attention and memory.
(D) Hooks in music are solely defined by catchy
lyrics and memorable melodies.

24. Which option strengthens the argument presented in

the passage?
(A) Many successful pop songs rely heavily on
hooks to capture and retain listeners' attention.
(B) Hooks in music are solely dependent on the
skill and creativity of the musicians.
(C) All listeners have the same level of attention
and memory capacity when it comes to hooks.

[14]
 GK and Current affairs
PASSAGE I
India abstained in the U.N. General Assembly on a
resolution that asked the International Court of
Justice for its opinion on the legal consequences of
Israel‘s ―prolonged occupation‖ and annexation of
the Palestinian territory.
The draft resolution ‗Israeli practices affecting the
human rights of the Palestinian people in the
Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East
Jerusalem‘ was adopted by a recorded vote on
Friday, with 87 votes in favour, 26 against and 53
abstentions, including by India.
The resolution decided to request the UN's highest
judicial body to ―render an advisory opinion‖ on
―what are the legal consequences arising from the
ongoing violation by Israel of the right of the
Palestinian people to self-determination, from its
prolonged occupation, settlement and annexation of
the Palestinian territory occupied since (X),
including measures aimed at altering the
demographic composition, character and status of
the Holy City of Jerusalem, and from its adoption
of related discriminatory legislation and measures.‖
It also asked the Assembly ―how do the policies
and practices of Israel… affect the legal status of
the occupation, and what are the legal consequences
that arise for all States and the United Nations from
this status?‖
The (Y) and Israel voted against the resolution
while Brazil, Japan, Myanmar, and France were
among those that abstained.
Before the vote, Israel's Ambassador to the United
Nations Gilad Erdan said that the ―outrageous
resolution‖ calling for the advisory opinion of the
International Court of Justice is a ―moral stain on
the U.N. and every country that supports it. No
international body can decide that the Jewish
people are ―occupiers‖ in their own homeland. Any
decision from a judicial body which receives its
mandate from the morally bankrupt and politicised
UN is completely illegitimate.‖
Mr. Erdan added that the decision to hold a vote
that deals with Israel on Shabbat is another example
of the ―moral decay‖ of the U.N., which prevents
Israel's position from being heard in a vote whose
results are predetermined.
Following the vote, World Jewish Congress
President Ronald S. Lauder said in a statement that
the vote at the United Nations exemplifies an
ongoing pattern of bias against Israel, and ―we
applaud those 26 countries, including the United
States, who voted against this shameful resolution
that seeks to isolate and demonise the Jewish state.
Lauder further said the ―Measure is a direct
outgrowth of the biased Commission of Inquiry on
Israel, whose commissioners have made anti-
semitic comments and who have been unabashed
critics of Israel. Referral of this issue to the ICJ is
yet another barrier to dialogue between Israelis and
Palestinians.‖
World Jewish Congress is an international
organisation representing Jewish communities in
more than 100 countries to governments,
parliaments and international organizations.
1. When did Israel occupy Gaza Strip and the West
Bank, replaced by (X) in the passage?
(A) 1962 (B) 1967
(C) 1970 (D) None of the Above
2. Which was one of the countries which voted against
the resolution accompanied by Israel, replaced by
(Y) in the passage
(A) United States of America
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) Australia
3. When was the International Court of Justice
Established?
(A) 1940 (B) 1945
(C) 1955 (D) None of the Above
4. Which of the below following facts are true about
the stand about Israel?
(A) It was stated that holding a vote on Israel on
Shabbat is another example of the United
Nations' "moral decay," which prevents Israel's
position from being heard in a vote whose
outcome is predetermined.
(B) During the United Nations General Assembly
High-Level Week in September 2021,
Palestinian Authority President Mahmoud
Abbas stated in his remarks that if Israel did
not withdraw to the 1967 lines within a year,
the Palestinians would turn to The Hague.
Hence, it was stated that today's vote fulfills
Abbas' ultimatum.
(C) Both Option A and Option B are true.
(D) None of the above options are true.
[15]

5. Which of the below following people is the
representative of India at United Nations?
(A) Syed Akbaruddin
(B) Nirupam Sen
(C) Hardeep S Puri
(D) Ruchira Kamboj
PASSAGE II
National Commission for Indian System of
Medicine (NCISM) and Central Council for
Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) under
ministry of Ayush on Monday launched ‗(X),
SMART‘- scope for mainstreaming ayurveda
research in teaching professionals programme.
―The programme aims to boost scientific research
in healthcare research areas through ayurveda
colleges and hospitals," the Ministry of Ayush said
in a statement.
The programme was launched by NCISM,
chairman, Vaidya Jayant Deopujari and CCRAS,
director general, Rabinarayan Acharya in the
presence of NCISM, president, board of ayurveda,
BS Prasad and other senior officials.
While talking about the initiative, NCISM,
chairman, Vaidya Jayant Deopujari said, ―I am
confident that this program has the potential to
transform clinical research in Ayurveda. It was
observed that the research potential of the large
community of Ayurveda teachers remains under
utilised mostly. Therefore, the ‗SMART‘ program
will have a deep long term rejuvenating impact on
research in the field of Ayurveda and it will be a
great service to the nation, I congratulate CCRAS
for this initiative and ensure all support on behalf of
NCISM."
Speaking about the SMART programme, NCISM,
president, Board of Ayurveda, BS Prasad said, ―The
large network of Ayurveda colleges and hospitals
across the country is an asset for the country in
terms of its healthcare needs. This network has not
only been offering healthcare services in hardest
times, but it also has contributed significantly in
terms of healthcare research in the country.
6. Correctly abbreviate the term "SMART" replaced
by (X) in the passage
(A) Scope for Maintaining Ayurveda in Research
Technologies
(B) Scope for Maintaining Ayurveda Record in
Teaching Professionals
(C) Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research
in Health Associations
(D) Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research
in Teaching Professionals
7. Which of the below following components is not a
part of Ayush?
(A) Ayurveda
(B) Naturopathy
(C) Hospitality
(D) All of the Above components are under
AYUSH.
8. Who is the current minister of AYUSH?
(A) Prahaldh Joshi
(B) Narendra Modi
(C) Dharmendra Pradhan
(D) Sarbananda Sonowal
9. Which of the facts are true about the SMART
Scheme?
(A) SMART aims to identify, support and promote
innovative research ideas in healthcare
research areas including Osteoarthritis, Iron
Deficiency Anaemia, Chronic Bronchitis,
Dyslipidemia, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Obesity,
Diabetes Mellitus, Psoriasis, Generalised
Anxiety Disorder, Non-alcoholic fatty liver
disease (NAFLD).
(B) The program will motivate doctors for taking
up projects in designated areas of healthcare
research and create a large database.
(C) Both A and B are true
(D) Neither A nor B is true
10. Which of the following facts are true about
National Ayush Mission?
(A) The scheme involves expansion of the
AYUSH sector to promote holistic health of
Indians.
(B) He was launched in 2014 by the Department of
AYUSH under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare, during the 12th Plan for
implementation through States/UTs
(C) The scheme involves expansion of the
AYUSH sector to promote holistic health of
Indians.
(D) All of the Above
PASSAGE III
Taliban representatives met with Indian and
Pakistani special envoys and officials amongst a
number of international diplomats this week, in an
effort by the Norwegian Government to break the
[16]
impasse in talks on the sidelines of a peace
conference in Oslo. The talks, which came in for
criticism from Afghan diaspora groups, including in
Norway, for ―legitimising‖ the insurgent group that
took control of Kabul in August 2021, are the first
time India and Pakistan were invited to a European
country for the talks, although they have been part
of similar efforts at the Moscow format hosted by
Russia, and in Doha hosted by Qatar. ―Isolating
Afghanistan now will be unfortunate, both for the
Afghan people and for us. It could worsen the
situation for the Afghan people and it could lead to
terrorist groups such as IS (Islamic State) building
up in the country,‖ Norwegian Foreign Minister
Anniken Huitfeldt told local media, confirming that
three Afghanistan civil servants, and not ―top
leadership‖ were participating in the Oslo Forum
and speaking about the ―major challenges‖ in the
country. Afghanistan faces a humanitarian crisis
with acute food shortages, and continuing human
rights violations including denial of education and
employment to females by the Taliban.
However, Afghan diplomats opposed to the Taliban
rule said that Norway was using dialogue and
conflict resolution as an ―excuse‖ to engage with
the Taliban, which hasn‘t kept its promises.
―Norway must end these failed efforts and instead
work multilaterally to help rationalize the
dangerous status quo in Afghanistan. This begins
with steps to resume intra-Afghan talks for a
sustainable political settlement that forms an
inclusive government acceptable to all Afghans, ―
said Ashraf Haidari, the Afghan Ambassador to Sri
Lanka appointed by the previous government. The
Taliban representatives present declined to
comment on the meetings. ―There‘s no moral
dilemma with speaking to the Taliban because they
do run the country...If you just boycott or ignore
them, nothing is going to be resolved,‖ Michael
Vatikiotis, a senior advisor at the Centre for
Humanitarian Dialogue that co-hosted the Oslo
Forum told The Hindu, when asked about the
criticism. Among those who spoke at the event held
under Chatham House rules, which focussed on a
number of global conflicts, were Norwegian Prime
Minister Jonas Gahr Støre, Indonesian Foreign
Minister Retno Marsudi, Colombian Foreign
Minister M. Álvaro Leyva Durán; Prosecutor of the
International Criminal Court Karim A.A. Khan KC;
and Bangladesh‘s State Minister for Foreign Affairs
Shahriar Alam.
11. What kind of initiatives can India continue
supporting in Afghanistan despite the Taliban
takeover?
(A) Development Initiatives that benefit
Afghanistan
(B) Military initiatives against the Taliban
(C) Diplomatic initiatives to engage with the
Taliban
(D) Initiatives that benefit only citizens in
Afghanistan
12. What is the Oslo process?
(A) A peace process aimed at resolving the Israeli-
Palestinian conflict
(B) A diplomatic initiative to resolve the Syrian
civil war
(C) Series of negotiations between Iran and the
P5+1 countries
(D) An international effort to promote peace
13. What should India do to handle the situation in
Afghanistan?
(A) Adopt a balanced approach in its dealings with
Afghanistan
(B) Provide support and aid from Afghanistan
(C) Align itself completely with Afghanist
(D) Development initiatives for the people of
Afghanistan
14. What is the name of the peace conference held in
Oslo to break the impasse in talks between the
Taliban and international diplomats?
(A) Oslo Accords
(B) Oslo Summit
(C) Oslo Peace Forum
(D) Oslo Process
15. What is the name of India's development initiative
in Afghanistan?
(A) New Silk Road
(B) SAGAR Mala
(C) Chabahar Port Project
(D) Reconstruction Opportunity Zones
PASSAGE IV
Communication and transactions in the digital
ecosystem are fuelled by the collection and
processing of enormous amounts of ‗personal data‘
of billions of users and even non-users. It is further
classified as ‗Personally Identifiable Information‘
(PII) and ‗Personally Sensitive Information‘ (PSI),
even as boundaries blur. Notwithstanding the
[17]
 country of incorporation or principal operations, an
entity can be fined under GDPR up to ‗four per cent
of global revenue‘ for significant harm due to loss,
breach, or misuse of personal data of European
residents. Actual fines can be as little as €2,000 or
even the record €1.2 billion fine on Meta last week.
Small hospitals and even football clubs are listed
alongside marquee names like Google, WhatsApp,
British Airways and Marriott. Most BigTech
companies are headquartered in the US and
frequently transfer the personal data of users in
other countries to the US for storage and
processing. After the 2015 invalidation of the long-
standing Safe Harbor agreement between the EU
and the US, ‗Privacy Shield‘ was formalised in
2016 but even that was found inadequate in 2020.
Following the 2022 in-principle agreement, the new
EU-US framework is yet to be concluded
Being a major data fiduciary and processor, the
government must become a role model in the realm
of data protection. Hence, an independent and
empowered data protection board with
parliamentary or judicial oversight is sine qua non,
On the other hand, overtly prescriptive and severely
restrictive norms would stifle innovation and
restrict trade by retarding, if not, inhibiting cross-
border data flows. A comprehensive framework for
digital governance, however, goes beyond data
protection which is just one piece of the jigsaw
where it must snugly sit alongside frameworks for
cyber security, competition, artificial intelligence,
etc. The Indian policies must be cognisant of the
social milieu, political economy, technical prowess,
and market maturity as well as be compatible with
the business allocation rules, resources and
capabilities. Even the proposed Digital India Act
may not cover all these aspects. Hence, first, we
need a comprehensive national framework for
digital governance that in turn should guide and
inform all other components — including, but not
limited to, the data protection law.
16. Which country has a comprehensive data protection
law for the processing of personal data?
(A) United States
(B) China
(C) India
(D) European Union
17. What is the name of the committee appointed by
the Indian government in August 2017 for data
protection?
(A) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Committee
(B) Personal Data Protection Committee
(C) Digital India Committee
(D) B.N. Srikrishna Committee
18. What is the name of the Chinese law that came into
effect in November 2021 to prevent the misuse of
personal data?
(A) Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL)
(B) Data Security Law (DSL)
(C) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
(D) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
19. What is the name of the Indian board that will be
established to adjudicate non-compliance with the
provisions of the Personal Data Protection Bill?
(A) Digital India Board
(B) Data Protection Board of India
(C) Personal Data Protection Authority
(D) IT Amendment Board
20. What is the name of the Indian act that has privacy
provisions in place under it ?
(A) Personal Data Protection Bill
(B) IT Amendment Act, 2008
(C) Digital India Ac
(D) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of
India
PASSAGE V
The size of China‘s nuclear arsenal increased from
350 warheads in January 2022 to 410 in January
2023, and it is expected to keep growing, according
to estimations by Stockholm International Peace
Research Institute (SIPRI). ―Depending on how it
decides to structure its forces, China could
potentially have at least as many intercontinental
ballistic missiles (ICBMs) as either the U.S. or
Russia by the turn of the decade, the Stockholm-
based think tank said in its annual assessment
released on Monday said. The key finding in SIPRI
Yearbook 2023 is that the number of operational
nuclear weapons started to rise as countries‘ long-
term force modernisation and expansion plans
progressed. ―China has started a significant
expansion of its nuclear arsenal. It is increasingly
difficult to square this trend with China‘s declared
aim of having only the minimum nuclear forces
needed to maintain its national security,‖ Hans M.
[18]
 Kristensen, Associate Senior Fellow with SIPRI‘s
Weapons of Mass Destruction Programme, said in a
statement issued by SIPRI.
India, which has a no-first-use policy for the use of
nuclear weapons and has completed its nuclear triad
with the fielding of two ballistic missile nuclear
submarines, is in the process of upgrading its
ballistic missiles. While a submarine-launched
intermediate-range ballistic missile is under
development, a new generation ballistic missile,
‗Agni Prime‘, with a range between 1,000 km-
2,000 km, is close to being inducted, which will
replace older Agni missiles in this range. India has
also inducted Agni-5, which has a range of over
5,000 km. The nine nuclear-armed states —the
United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France,
China, India, Pakistan, the Democratic People‘s
Republic of Korea (North Korea) and Israel—
continue to modernise their nuclear arsenals and
several deployed new nuclear-armed or nuclear-
capable weapon systems in 2022, SIPRI said.
21. What impact could China's potential possession of
as many ICBMs as the US or Russia have on global
nuclear politics ?
(A) It could lead to increased arms control
concerns
(B) It would lead to greater transparency and
dialogue between nations
(C) It would reduce the likelihood of nuclear war
(D) It would lead to a decrease in the total global
inventory of warheads
22. How might India's focus on longer-range nuclear
weapons impact its relationship with China?
(A) It could lead to increased tensions between
India and China
(B) It would likely improve relations between
India and China
(C) It would lead to lesser cooperation between
India and China
(D) It would have major impact on the relationship
between India and China
23. What is the significance of Russia and the United
States possessing almost 90% of all nuclear
weapons?
(A) It demonstrates that these countries are
committed to increasing their nuclear arsenals
(B) It shows that other countries are interested in
developing nuclear weapons
(C) It highlights the global imbalance of power in
terms of weapons
(D) It indicates that these contries is becoming more
peaceful
24. What are some potential consequences of India's
expansion of its nuclear arsenal?
(A) Increased arms control concerns and regional
instability
(B) Greater transparency and dialogue between
nations
(C) A decrease in the total global inventory of
warheads
(D) Straining relations with neighboring countries
25. What is the total global inventory of warheads
estimated at as of January 2023?
(A) 12,365 (B) 12,512
(C) 12,569 (D) 12,986
PASSAGE VI
In a major milestone, ISRO today successfully hot
tested 'Cryo CE 20' Engine for a flight duration of
640 seconds, with the space agency Chairman A S
Kirankumar describing the feat as a Phenomenal
achievement in the shortest time."
The test was completed successfully at ISRO
Propulsion Complex (IPRC) at Mahendragiri today
at 17.15 hrs, an ISRO press release said here. This
engine is identified for Cryogenic stage hot tests
according to the release. The engine has already
undergone two short duration tests and
demonstrated repeatability of engine ignition
characteristics and steady state performance, it said.
The test was conducted with Mixture Ratio
Controller (MRC) in closed loop mode for the flight
duration of 640 seconds, according to ISRO.
Kirankumar, in his address to the gathering present
at Mahendragiri, described it as "a phenomenal
achievement in the shortest time".
The Fully indigenous cryogenic engine
development is a major step towards the launch of
GSLV MkIII in December, the release said.
Mahendragiri is in Tirunelveli district of Tamil
Nadu.
26. Chandrayan 3 plays a vital role in the booming
Indian Space sector. Which of the following is not
correct in the context of Chandrayan 3?
(A) It would consist of a lander and a rover similar
to the Chandrayaan-2 but would not have an
orbiter.
(B) The Chandrayaan-3 lander will be equipped
with a Laser Doppler Velocimeter (LDV).
(C) Chandrayaan 3 spacecraft is the 3rd lunar
exploration expedition, outlined by the ISRO.
[19]
 (D) Chandrayan 3 explores the southern part of the 29. What is the use of hot test of CE-20 cryogenic
moon contains larger shadowed areas than the engine?
northern pole, which says possibly has a (A) It will power the lander capacity to specific
permanent source of oxygen.
landing.
27. Which of the following are correctly related to the (B) It will help to ensure the satellite subsystem in
Isro missions? the space environment.
I. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also called (C) The CE-20 cryogenic engine, which will
Mangalyaan, is a Spacecraft orbiting Mars since power the Cryogenic Upper Stage of the
2014. It is India's first interplanetary mission. LVM3.
II.ASTROSAT is the first dedicated Indian Earth (D) None of the above
observatory satellite mission launched by ISRO on
30. S. Somanth is the present Secretary of ISRO, Who
28 September 2015.
was secretary during the mission of Chandrayan 2?
III. ESA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
(A) S kiran Kumar
is a joint project between ESA and ISRO to co-
(B) Shailesh Nayak
develop and launch a dual-frequency synthetic (C) K sivan
aperture radar satellite. (D) S. somanth
(A) I (B) I, II
(C) II, III (D) II

28. Which specific lunar region has been identified as

the intended landing site for the Chandrayaan-3
mission?
(A) Mare Imbrium
(B) Aitken Basin
(C) Sinus Iridum
(D) Copernicus Crater

[20]
 Legal Reasoning
PASSAGE I
The Supreme Court observed that 'common
intention' for the purpose of Section 34 IPC can be
formed at the spur of the moment and during the
occurrence itself.
For Section 34 of the IPC to apply, there should be
common intention among the co-perpetrators,
which means that there should be community of
purpose and common design, the bench of Justices
Sanjiv Khanna and Sudhanshu Dhulia said.
In this case, the prosecution case against Gurbachan
Singh and others was that they came armed with
'lathi', 'toka', axe, and 'gandasi' respectively, and
had beaten and inflicted injuries on one Teja Singh,
who died on the spot. The Trial Court convicted
them for murder under Section 302 IPC. The High
court partly allowed the appeal filed by Gurbachan
Singh on the ground that common intention could
not be inferred from his conduct, as he was only
armed with 'lathi' and had struck only on the feet of
Teja Singh.
In appeal, the Apex court disagreed with this
finding of the High Court and observed that the
common intention to inflict injuries and cause the
death of Teja Singh, can be gathered from the
conduct and action of Gurbachan Singh. In this
context, it observed:
―Section 34 of the IPC makes a co-perpetrator, who
had participated in the offence, equally liable on the
principle of joint liability. For Section 34 of the IPC
to apply, there should be common intention among
the co-perpetrators, which means that there should
be community of purpose and common design.
Common intention can be formed at the spur of the
moment and during the occurrence itself. Common
intention is necessarily a psychological fact and as
such, direct evidence normally will not be
available. Therefore, in most cases, whether or not
there exists a common intention, has to be
determined by drawing inference from the facts
proved. Constructive intention, can be arrived at
only when the court can hold that the accused must
have preconceived the result that ensued in
furtherance of the common intention."
Reappreciating the evidence on record, the court
observed that, all of the accused, including
Gurbachan Singh, would be responsible for the
offence under Section 302 of the IPC, irrespective
of the part played by them. Therefore, it allowed the
appeal and restored conviction of Gurbachan Singh
under Section 302 IPC.
1. Which of the following are correct according to the
Supreme Court‘s observation in the above case?
I. Common Intention can be developed even at the
very spur of the moment.
II. Common Intention does not make the co-
perpetrators equally liable.
III. In normal circumstances, direct evidence of
common intention will not be found.
(A) I and II are correct
(B) II and III are correct
(C) I and III are correct
(D) All are correct
2. Which of the following statements is correct in
relation to the difference between common
intention and similar intention?
(A) The intention of the accused and co-accused
can be inferred from the facts and
circumstances of each case.
(B) Under common intention, it is considered that
all the accused have jointly committed the
offence themselves and are jointly liable.
(C) Each accused is liable for the offence he has
actually committed, if the common intention
cannot be proved.
(D) All of the above.
3. Why did the High Court allow the appeal filed by
Gurbachan Singh against his conviction by the Trail
Court?
(A) Because they were armed with 'lathi', 'toka',
axe, and 'gandasi' respectively, and had beaten
and inflicted injuries on one Teja Singh, who
died on the spot.
(B) Because the common intention could be
inferred from his conduct.
(C) Because he was only armed with 'lathi' and had
struck only on the feet of Teja Singh and the
common intention could not be inferred from
his conduct.
(D) None of the above.
4. Why did the Apex Court disagree with the findings
of the High Court?
(A) Because Gurbachan Singh was armed with
'lathi', 'toka', axe, and 'gandasi' respectively.
(B) Because the common intention can be gathered
from the conduct and action of Gurbachan
Singh.
(C) Because the common intention could not be
inferred from his conduct, as he was only
armed with 'lathi' and had struck only on the
feet of Teja Singh.
(D) None of the above.
[21]
5. Which of the following is not correct regarding
‗Common Intention‘ according to Section 34 of
IPC?
(A) There must be two or more persons doing a
criminal act or omission in order to establish
common intention.
(B) In common intention, each person is liable as if
he has done the act alone.
(C) Common Intention is not different from same
or similar intention.
(D) None of the above.
PASSAGE II
Statutory Rape is defined in Section 375 of Indian
Penal Code, (amendment of 2013) which states that
―any male, who does an intercourse with any
female who is below the age of 18, with or without
her consent will constitute a Statutory Rape‖. This
offence is created to save the exploitation of the
minor by the adults since they are incompetent to
take decisions for themselves. In this kind of rape,
the adult will get punished if he had any kind of
physical interaction with a woman/girl, in the age
of 18 years or below, no matter if she has
voluntarily participated in the act or not. Statutory
Rape is always in a shadow as the voice of victims
goes unheard or they will not get any support from
the society and our system. The age of consent and
the legal age of marriage in India is 18 years old.
The age of consent is the minimum age at which an
individual is considered legally old enough to
consent to participate in sexual activity. The Statute
for this offence is The Protection of Children
against Sexual offences Act, 2012 (POCSO) but it
is regulated by the Section 375 of IPC. The consent
of the victim is immaterial in these types of
offences. The aim of statutory rape laws is to
protect young minor females from males who might
exploit them and do not take responsibility by
giving support for the child. This rationale is to
preserve the marriageability of the minor girl and to
stop their unwanted teenage pregnancy.
6. Moina, a 16-year-old girl fell in love with an 18-
year-old boy Kunal and intended to marry him as
soon as she turns 18. Moina‘s mother was against
their marriage since Moina and Kunal practiced
different religions. On facing resistance from her
mother, Moina decided to run away with Kunal and
marry him on attaining majority. Moina and Kunal
started living in an apartment together. They
engaged in sexual intercourse before marriage. On
getting to know about this, Miona‘s mother moved
to the police station contending that the intercourse
was criminal in nature and that Moina and Kunal
must be put in jail. Decide.
(A) Moina and Kunal consented to engage in
sexual intercourse and made a conscious
choice by exercising their right to freedom and
liberty.
(B) Moina and Kunal were intending to marry on
attaining majority and engaging in consented
sexual intercourse prior to that is not an
offence.
(C) Moina was a minor and her consent to engage
in any kind of sexual intercourse is immaterial
and cannot be used as a defence to counter her
charges of statutory rape
(D) Kunal was a major and could righteously
consent to engage in sexual intercourse despite
Moina‘s minority and the act was not
exploitative in nature.
7. Facts in continuation: Kunal was unaware of the
Moina‘s age and assumed that she was a major.
Moina‘s agreement to marriage and further
engaging in sexual intercourse was an indicator that
Moina was eligible to do so. Kunal did not force
Moina into it since Moina initiated the intercourse.
Kunal is arguing that the act was not forced and
Moina‘s actions indicated that she was a major. Can
Kunal argue the same?
(A) It was Moina‘s duty to disclose her age to
Kunal before engaging in sexual intercourse
and the fact that she chose not to do so shreds
any criminal liability on Kunal.
(B) Moina actions and intentions of consenting to
the sexual intercourse and marrying Kunal in
the future were not an indicator of the law and
Kunal should have known the consequences of
his actions.
(C) Any expectations and indication of marriage
does not legalise their actions of running away
for marriage and engaging in sexual
intercourse.
(D) In addition, the consent for marriage, Moina‘s
consent to sexual intercourse shifts the
criminal liability to her shoulders and she must
prove that Kunal was aware of her age.
8. Kusha, a girl and Deepak, a boy belonged to a
backward village in Andhra Pradesh where child
marriages were still prevalent. Both are 16 years
old are forcefully married by their families.
[22]
 Furthermore, Kusha and Deepak are emotionally
coerced to consummate their marriage and bear a
male child and start a family. Kapil, a women‘s
rights activist, took the case to the police claiming
that that act was statutory rape and the accused may
be charged accordingly. Decide upon the said facts.
(A) Kusha and Deepak both have committed
statutory rape since both the parties were
minors and were not capable of giving consent
for the act.
(B) Deepak is criminally liable of statutory rape
since both Kusha and Deepak were 16 years old
and so, law was violated by Deepak.
(C) Kusha being a minor was incapable to
consenting to the act and Deepak‘s act fed by
his family‘s coercion violated the law on
statutory rape.
(D) Deepak may be liable of statutory rape but Kapil
being unrelated to the minor woman cannot take
the case to the police as his word is immaterial.
9. The Marriage Age Bill, 2022 redefines marriage
and decreases the age of marriage from 18 to 16 for
women and retains the marriage age for men at 18.
Madhav is a major of 21 years and Mira is 16 years
old. Their intended marriage was originally planned
in 2024 when Mira attains marriage age. However,
Madhav and Mira have preponed their marriage to
next week with their ages remaining 21 and 16
respectively. They find the marriage to be proper
and legal. After consummation of marriage, Mira
gets pregnant at 17 years of age. Reflect on the
legality of their situation.
(A) Madhav and Mira were both eligible to get
married and their consummation of marriage is
in consonance with the age limit as prescribed
by the new law.
(B) Madhav and Mira could not have preponed the
marriage since Mira was not eligible to
consummate the marriage according to the old
marriage law.
(C) Madhav and Mira could not have
consummated the marriage that was preponed
under the new law and thus, they violated the
law.
(D) Madhav and Mira were not eligible to get
married and their act of consummation of
marriage was illegal.
10. Which of the following statements are in
consonance with the law established in the
passage?
(A) Since statutory rape is illegalised to curtail
forcible child marriages, the law should
enforce stronger penalties on child marriages
and the minimum age of child marriage must
be increased.
(B) The age of consent and the age of marriage
should be the same so that the issue of
statutory rape and the child marriage is
tackled simultaneously.
(C) The consent of the minor woman is
considered immaterial and any engagement
in sexual intercourse is illegal so that single
minor girl does not have to bear the burden
of raising a child.
(D) The agenda of illegalisation of statutory rape
is to decrease unwilling and involuntary
engagement in sexual activities leading to
pregnancies for women who are eligible to
marry.
PASSAGE III
Joint liability is a term used for people who have
committed an act in pursuance of a common
intention, where each of the persons is liable in the
same manner, as this act was done by them alone.
Section 34 IPC, states the joint liability of partners
in crime. The section only provides for the
constitution of joint liability, not the punishment.
This section is only a rule of evidence and does not
constitute a substantive offence. It provides for the
principle of constructive liability.
There are a few principles that guide the application
of the concept of common intention. It is necessary
that there has been a prior conspiracy relating to
that act. When the offence is proved only on the
basis of circumstantial evidence, the allegations of
common intention cannot be established in the
absence of meeting of minds. One of the basic most
requirements is that there must be some criminal
act. Such a criminal act must be done by ―several
persons.‖ Such a criminal act however would not
include acts which are merely invalid in the law. An
example would be a minor man marrying a minor
woman for the marriage is merely void and not a
crime. The common intention doctrine states that
there should be an antecedent to the occurrence. A
clear distinction is made between common intention
and common object is that common intention
denotes action in concert and necessarily postulates
[23]
 the existence of a pre-arranged plan implying a
prior meeting of the minds, while common object
does not necessarily require proof of prior meeting
of minds or pre-concert. Common intention has to
be ascertained in the investigations, however, it is
not necessary that it happens before the occurrence
only. It might happen during the occurrence of the
act as well. The intention is curated at any given
point in the action. Usually, an overt act would be
sufficient to show that there is common intention;
however the absence of the same also does not
vitiate the applicability of common intention. The
law requires that the accused must be present on the
spot during the occurrence of the crime and take
part in its commission; it is enough if he is present
somewhere nearby.
11. A, B and C decided to commit burglary. They
broke into a locked house. However, before they
had finished their work, a domestic servant
appeared from the out-house and started shouting.
A, B and C left the house and started running away.
They were pursued by a small crowd. A, on being
caught by X, one of the persons pursuing them,
stabbed him with a knife kept at road side and ran
away. By the time B and C had disappeared. X died
on account of the stab wounds. Later, the police
arrested all the three. They were charged for
attempted burglary and murder of X.
(A) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of
murder because A stabbed X in furtherance of
common intention.
(B) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of
murder because A, at the time of stabbing X,
was acting on behalf of B and C and he wanted
to save not only himself but B and C as well.
(C) A alone is guilty of murder because though
there was common intention to commit the
offence of burglary, there was no common
intention to commit the offence of murder.
(D) None of these.
12. Please refer to the facts above. While A was
stabbing X, B stood next to A in a jeep honking for
A to come in jeep after stabbing, do a clean job and
run as soon as possible. Decide the liability of A
and B.
(A) Along with A, B and C are also guilty of
murder because A stabbed X in furtherance of
common intention
(B) A alone is guilty of murder because though
there was common intention to commit the
offence of burglary, there was no common
intention to commit the offence of murder
(C) Along with A, B is also liable for the offence
as he stood next to A in a jeep waiting to rescue
A from the crowd.
(D) None of these
13. Abhishek, Boru and Chetan conspire to rob Peter‘s
house for he had an affair with Abhishek‘s sister.
When they were committing such robbery, they
were caught and thus they had to run. During such
running Abhishek was caught by Rathore. He
stabbed Rathore. Boru was waiting right next to the
place of murder on a jeep. After Abhishek stabbed
Rathore, he went away along with Boru in the jeep.
On their way they found Chetan running and they
took Chetan along with them to run away quicker.
Decide
(A) All of Abhishek, Boru and Chetan are liable
for murder. The very fact that they escaped
together shows that common intention was
present in all the 3.
(B) Abhishek alone is guilty of murder because
though there was common intention to commit
the offence of burglary, there was no common
intention to commit the offence of murder
(C) The three had only run to save their lives from
the mob. They acted in self-defence and hence
are not liable
(D) Abhishek and Boru are liable. Chetan joining
them in their jeep after the murder had been
committed does not show common intention.
14. A has romantic attachment with B for the past 25
years. Both of them want to marry each other but
their parents are not agreeing to the same. A, along
with his friends C and D decides to run away with
B and marry in the nearby temple. Decide
(A) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for there is
presence of common intention
(B) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for
there is nothing showing pre-meditation
(C) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for the
four should have spoken to their parents
(D) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for no
criminal act has been committed
15. Please refer to the facts above. A is 20 years of
age and B is 17 years of age. Both of them go and
marry in the nearby temple. Decide
(A) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for there is
presence of common intention
(B) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for
there is nothing showing pre-meditation
[24]
 (C) Elements of Section 34 are satisfied for the
four should have spoken to their parents
(D) Elements of Section 34 are not satisfied for no
criminal act has been committed
PASSAGE IV
The tort of trespass to a person has developed as it
is today as a result of many changes and
modifications. Interference, however slight with a
person‘s elementary civil right to security of
person, and self-determination in relation to his
own body, constitutes trespass to the person.
Trespass may be done intentionally, deliberately or
negligently. The fundamental principle of plain and
incontestable law is that every person‘s body is
inviolate. Any unreasonable interference with a
person without any lawful justification amounts to
trespass on a person. Interference, however slight
with a person‘s elementary civil right to security of
person, and self-determination in relation to his
own body, constitutes trespass to the person.
Trespass may be done intentionally, deliberately or
negligently. The fundamental principle of plain and
incontestable law is that every person‘s body is
inviolate. Trespass to a person may be categorised
as 1. Assault, which is "any act of such a nature as
to excite an apprehension of battery"; 2. Battery, "
intentional and unpermitted contact with the
plaintiffs‘ person or anything attached to it and
practically identified with it" and 3. False
imprisonment, is the "unlawful obstruction or
deprivation of freedom from restraint of movement
The basic idea behind trespass to a person is that
every person‘s body is inviolate. A person in order
to establish a suit for trespass to a person needs to
prove just one thing whether there was an intention
to commit the trespass or not. An act does not
constitute trespass to a person unless it is done with
intention. Thus intention is the chief criterion for
trespass to a person. If there is an intention behind
committing a trespass then it is actionable per se
and the plaintiff need not prove any specific or
particular damage. In negligent commission of
trespass to a person, the plaintiff needs to prove that
the injuries so complained of are reasonably
foreseeable. In case of direct trespass or intentional
trespass, proof of actual damage is not necessary
but in negligent torts, proof of damage becomes
essential. Defences against trespass to body
Contributory negligence: In law, behaviour that
contributes to one's own injury or loss and fails to
meet the standard of prudence that one should
observe for one's own good; Necessity could also
amount to defence to a claim for false
imprisonment. The test for deciding whether
measures falling short of arrest could lawfully be
taken against individuals was whether there was a
reasonable suspicion that an individual was
presenting a particular threat. Self-defence: A
person, to protect himself from an unruly element
or any other such person or incidents, can trespass
on the property to preclude the act from
consummation.
16. Ram and Shyam were playing basketball in a park
and during their game, Shyam threw the ball which
hit an old lady sitting on a bench in the park,
causing her injury.
Can Shyam be held liable for the offence of
trespass against the lady?
(A) Yes, as Shyam should have been careful while
playing in a public park.
(B) No, he did not have the intention to hit the old
lady with the ball.
(C) Yes, as the old lady suffered an injury due to
the hitting of the ball.
(D) No, as Shyam while playing did not notice
anyone sitting on the bench.
17. Which of the following statements regarding the
defences to trespass can be inferred from the
passage?
(A) Behaving in a manner which contributes to
one's own loss or injury by the plaintiff can be
used as a defence against trespass by the
accused.
(B) Trespassing on the property of another person
while protecting oneself from an unruly
element or any other person is a defense
against trespass
(C) Necessity cannot be taken up as a defence by
the accused.
(D) Both A and B
18. Ayush and Neha were walking on the road and
Neha saw a bus approaching their direction at a
great speed and pushed Ayush, who was not paying
attention in the opposite direction. However, Ayush
hit the pole and died. Is Neha liable for trespass?
(A) Yes, as Neha pushed Ayush intentionally.
(B) No, as Neha did not know that Ayush would
die due to hitting the pole.
(C) No, as Neha acted out of necessity.
(D) Yes, as Neha did not act consciously.
[25]
19. Which of the following statements can be inferred
from the passage?
STATEMENT 1: No person acting in good faith
can be liable for trespass to a person.
STATEMENT 2:Trespass includes apprehension of
unreasonable interference with one‘s person and
body.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Ishaan and Hardik are neighbours who do not get
along and are always fighting over different issues.
One day, while arguing with each other Ishaan
threw a glass of cold water at Hardik.
Can he be liable for trespass?
(A) Ishaan's act of throwing water at Hardik was
intentional and thus, he can be held liable for
trespass.
(B) No damage due to the throwing of water can
be caused to a person, thus Ishaan is not liable.
(C) Both of them are fighting with each other,
therefore Ishaan, alone cannot be held liable.
(D) It was a petty fight and thus Ishaan cannot be
held liable.
PASSAGE V
‗Who will police the police‘ is a big question for
which the world could not give any answer till
today. But SC gave the answer - Cameras can
police the police. The possibility of a watch either
by the citizen through RTI or judiciary through
footage of camera recording will prevent the
phenomenon of hurting the person to confess or
admit a crime. Transparency is the system that
helps police not to resort to third-degree methods to
extract crime-related information. Supreme Court
asked the government to fix cameras in every
possible place where the Police interrogate the
persons. To avoid efforts or difficulties of
investigation, the police mostly use the easy technic
of torture to extract the information and then collect
evidence. The technology available could be
effectively used for the prevention of violation of
Human Rights by police. The Madras High Court
directed the state to make police
transparent towards the family of the victim of
custodial violence and also gave specific guidelines
to the judicial magistrates and session judges.
Supreme Court went into details and ordered that
the CCTV camera footage should be stored in
digital video recorders and/or network video
recorders. Importantly, the recording system should
be such that the data stored therein is preserved for
18 months, and said: "If the recording equipment,
available in the market today, does not have the
capacity to keep the recording for 18 months but for
a lesser period of time, it shall be mandatory for all
states, union territories and the Central government
to purchase one which allows storage for the
maximum period possible". The top court has
rightly recognized the role of State Human Rights
Commissions and directed the setting up of District
level Human Rights Courts as prescribed under
Section 30 of the Human Rights Act. The court said
in case of serious injury and/or custodial deaths, the
injured persons shall be free to complain to the
State Human Rights Commission as also to Human
Rights Courts. The constitution of Oversight
Committees in accordance with the Supreme Court
Order dated 03.04.2018 should be done at the State
and District levels. The State Level Oversight
Committee (SLOC) must consist of (i) The
Secretary /Additional Secretary, Home Department;
(ii) Secretary /Additional Secretary, Finance
Department; (iii) The Director General /Inspector
General of Police; and (iv) The
Chairperson/member of the State Women's
Commission. It shall be the duty of the SLOC to
see that the directions passed by this Court are
carried out. Amongst others, the duties shall consist
of a) Purchase, distribution and installation of
CCTVs and their equipment; b) Obtaining the
budgetary allocation for the same; c) Continuous
monitoring of maintenance and upkeep of
CCTVs and their equipment; d) Carrying out
inspections and addressing the grievances received.
Similarly, the
District Level Oversight Committees should also be
constituted with similar obligations.
21. What can be considered as a rationale behind the
rule formulated by the court that CCTVs should be
installed in places of police interrogation?
(A) The technology available could be effectively
used for the prevention of violation of Human
Rights by police.
(B) CCTV recordings will prevent the police from
torturing a person to make him confess the
crime.
(C) The rule was formulated so that it could be
ascertained whether the police official is
present to fulfil his duty or not.
[26]
 (D) Both A and B
22. Anuj is a Secretary of the Finance Department in
the oversights committee which is formed at the
District Level in Rajasthan. He refused to purchase
and distribute the CCTVs when he was asked to do
so saying that it was not his duty to do the same.
Is Anuj's reason justified?
(A) No, the reason is unjustified as the oversight
committee does not deal with CCTVs at any
stage.
(B) Yes, the reason is justified as the role of the
oversight committee is just to purchase and
distribute the CCTVs.
(C) No, the reason is unjustified because the
oversights committee has to purchase and
distribute the CCTVs.
(D) No, the reason is unjustified as there is no
requirement for CCTVs at the district level.
23. Many cases of human rights violations by the police
were being reported in X district. Due to this, the
state decided to establish a Human Rights Court at
the district level which was objected by many
people saying that there is no authority to form such
a court.
In light of this, which of the following statement is
correct?
(A) No department other than the High Court has
the authority to establish a district human
rights court.
(B) The state government under Section 30 of the
Human Rights Act, has the power to establish
district human rights courts.
(C) No department other than the Supreme Court
has the authority to establish a district human
rights court.
(D) Respective High Courts of the states can
establish Human Rights Commissions when
required.
24. Which of the following statement/s is incorrect as
per the information provided in the passage?
(A) The family of the injured person is free to
complain to the State Human Rights
Commission and Human Rights Courts in
cases of custodial deaths.
(B) According to the guidelines by the Supreme
Court, CCTV footage can be stored in any
recording system wherein data is preserved
forever.
(C) CCTV camera footage should be stored in
digital video recorders and/or network video
recorders according to the Supreme Court.
(D) None of the above
25. Two friends were doing a research project on the
functioning of a police station. While doing field
research, that many people were beaten up and
tortured while in custody by the police. they filed a
complaint that the rules of the Supreme Court are
not being followed in those police stations due to
no CCTVs being in place there.
In light of this, which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) It is mandatory to install CCTVs at all the
entry and exit points of a police station.
(B) CCTVs have to be installed only in prisons and
not in police stations.
(C) As per the guidelines of the Supreme Court,
CCTVs are to be installed in places where the
police conduct interrogation and the police
station is such a place.
(D) Police stations are not compulsorily asked to
install CCTVs it is up to their discretion.
PASSAGE VI
In the Criminal law, whoever, intending to take
dishonestly any moveable property out of the
possession of any person without that per­son‘s
consent, moves that property in order to such
taking, is said to commit theft.
Theft is defined under section 378 of Indian Penal
Code. Section 378 of Indian Penal Code states:
Explanation 1.—A thing so long as it is attached to
the earth, not being movable property, is not the
subject of theft; but it becomes capable of being the
subject of theft as soon as it is severed from the
earth.
Explanation 2.—A moving effected by the same act
which affects the severance may be a theft.
Explanation 3.—A person is said to cause a thing to
move by removing an obstacle which prevented it
from moving or by sepa-rating it from any other
thing, as well as by actually moving it.
Explanation 4.—A person, who by any means
causes an animal to move, is said to move that
animal, and to move everything which, in
consequence of the motion so caused, is moved by
that animal.
Explanation 5.—The consent mentioned in the
definition may be express or implied, and may be
[27]
 given either by the person in possession, or by any
person having for that purpose authority either
express or implied.
26. Mr. X found a gold bracelet at a birthday party at
his friend, Mr. Y‘s house. He thought to steal it.
The moment he was leaving the party, Mr. Y got to
know that he has lost his bracelet. And asked
everyone to search it. Mr. X got panicked and
stashed the necklace under the cover of a chair and
fancifully started searching it. Has Mr. X
committed theft?
(A) No, as he left the necklace in Mr. Y‘s own
house
(B) Yes, as he moved the ring with dishonest
intention amounting to theft.
(C) No, because he didn‘t left the party with the
necklace
(D) Yes, because he had dishonest intention of
owning the necklace without the consent of
Mr. Y.
27. One night a woodcutter went to Mr. Y‘s
Farmhouse after crossing seven feet boundary wall
and cut down a sandalwood tree to sell it. When the
logs of Sandalwood tree touched the ground and
due the noise of which, the Watchman awakes and
lit the light of farmhouse. The woodcutter ran away
leaving the logs of Sandalwood tree. Has the
woodcutter committed theft?
(A) Yes, as trees are nature‘s gift to everybody it
can‘t be stolen.
(B) No, because trees are immovable property and
hence cannot be the subject matter of theft
(C) Yes, cutting trees on land of another person
with the intention to sell it is theft
(D) None of the above.
28. Mrs. V in good faith, goes to house of Mr. D and
takes a valuable glasspot she honestly believes to be
the property of Mr. K and returns it to Mr. K, he
accepts it. Has Mrs. V committed theft?
(A) Yes, but actual thief is Mr.K who acceoted the
glaspot without Mr.D‘s consent, by using Mrs.
V‘s good faith.
(B) No, because the consent can be implied and
Mrs. V thought she has the permission to do
so.
(C) No, because Mrs. V did not have any dishonest
intention behind taking the property, hence it‘s
not theft.
(D) Yes, as Mrs. V has taken glasspot without the
consent of Mr. D
29. Mrs. Lata pawned her diamond earing in exchange
for cash to Tanishq jwells. One day she was going
by the Tanishq jewells and when nobody was
watching, she took her diamond earing and went to
home. Considering she was title bearer of the
earing, has she committed theft ?
(A) No, as it was her earing, she cannot be held
dishonest in her intention to take it back.
(B) Yes, though she was the owner of earing but
the earing was not in her possession.
(C) No, as she was owner of earing and she can
move her earing as per her will.
(D) Yes, because she had not taken consent of the
jewels before taking her earing.
30. A meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He
drives the bullock in a certain direction, in order
that he may dishonestly take the treasure. Has A
committed theft?
(A) No, A has not committed theft just because he
driven the bullock in a certain direction.
(B) No, as A had not taken anything in his
possession from the bullock.
(C) Yes, because A had dishonest intention to take
the treasure.
(D) Yes, as soon as A moved the bullock in a new
direction dishonestly, A has committed theft.
[28]
 Quantitative Techniques
PASSAGE I (C) 9: 4
Directions (1 to 5): Study the following data (D) 4: 9
carefully and answer the questions given below. 5. What is the average marks obtained by Aman,
Three friends Aman, Baman and Chaman are Baman and Chaman in Science?
studying in the same class. Each of them takes five (A) 113.33
subjects English, Hindi, Science, History and Art. (B) 105.5
The college conducted half yearly examination and (C) 107.5
college decided the maximum marks for each (D) 101.33
subject is 150. The average marks obtained by
Aman in all subjects is 100. The percentage of PASSAGE II
marks obtained by Aman in English, Hindi, Science Directions (6 to 10): The following line graph
and History are 60%, 80%, 90% and 50% represent the ratio of selling price and cost price
respectively. Baman scored average marks in all of five different article and table chart represent
the marked price of the article.
subjects 95. The marks obtained by Baman in
Hindi, Science, History and Art are 115, 125, 80
and 70 respectively. The average marks of Chaman
in all five subjects is 80. The average marks
obtained by Chaman in first three subject English,
Hindi and Sciences is 60 and last three subject
Science, history and Art is 110.

1. What is the ratio of marks obtained by Aman in Art

to the marks obtained by Baman in English?
(A) 8: 7
(B) 16 : 17
(C) 6: 7
(D) 7: 9 Article Marked price
A 1250
2. If Chaman scored in history 45 marks more than the B 1580
marks scored by Baman in History, then find the C 1640
percentage of marks obtained by Chaman in D 2450
History. E 2750
(A) 60%
(B) 75% 6. If article C and D sold at the marked price, then the
(C) 80% approximate difference between profit earned on C
(D) 90% and profit earned on D was:
(A) Rs 552
3. If Chaman scored in history 45 marks more than (B) Rs 542
the marks scored by Baman in History then what is (C) Rs 612
the ratio of marks obtained by Baman in Hindi to (D) Rs 632
the marks obtained by Chaman in Art?
(A) 2: 3 7. If the ratio between cost price of article A and E
(B) 11: 15 was 3: 5 and the marked price of article E was Rs
(C) 23: 25 250 more than selling price of article E, then the
(D) 23: 26 selling price of article A was:
(A) Rs 750
4. If Marks obtained by Chaman in Hindi is 60, then (B) Rs 650
what is the ratio of marks obtained by Chaman and (C) Rs 850
Aman in English? (D) Rs 770
(A) 1: 2
(B) 9: 5
[29]
8. If the ratio between selling price of article B and D 10. If the discount percentage on article D and E are
was 3:2 and the discount given on article D was 20% and 10% respectively, then the ratio between
20%, then the cost price of article B was: cost price of article D and E was:
(A) Rs 2460 (A) 2336: 3455
(B) Rs 2140 (B) 3226: 3355
(C) Rs 2260 (C) 3136: 4455
(D) Rs 2450 (D) 3126: 4425

9. If the cost price of article C and E was 50% and

80% less than their marked price. Then the
approximate discount percent given on article C
and D together was:
(A) 67.66%
(B) 65.66%
(C) 72.8 %
(D) 74.42%

[30]
 Answer Key
Section I 6. (A) 12. (A) 13. (D)
1. (C) 7. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D)
2. (A) 8. (C) 14. (B) 15. (D)
3. (D) 9. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B)
4. (B) 10. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D)
5. (B) 11. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C)
6. (A) 12. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C)
7. (A) 13. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
8. (A) 14. (D) 20. (B) 21. (D)
9. (B) 15. (A) 21. (A) 22. (C)
10. (A) 16. (A) 22. (A) 23. (B)
11. (B) 17. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B)
12. (B) 18. (C) 24. (A) 25. (C)
13. (A) 19. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B)
14. (D) 20. (D) 26. (D) 27. (C)
15. (B) 21. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C)
16. (C) 22. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A)
17. (D) 23. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
18. (C) 24. (A) 30. (C)
19. (B) 25. (C) Section V
20. (B) Section IV 1. (B)
21. (A) Section III 1. (C) 2. (C)
22. (C) 1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D)
23. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D)
24. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A)
25. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B)
5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A)
Section II 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D)
1. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C)
2. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
3. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
4. (B) 10. (D) 11. (C)
5. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C)

[31]
 Hints & Solutions
Section I communication and documentation. The other
PASSAGE I options are mentioned in the passage but are not the
central idea of the passage.
1. Correct Option C
(H & S) PASSAGE II
The passage states that the use of legalese is crucial 6. Correct Option A
to ensure the precision and clarity of legal (H & S)
The author argues that loneliness is a significant
communication and documentation.
health risk that can be as dangerous as smoking. The
passage suggests that governments may not take
2. Correct Option A adequate measures to address this issue, even though
it affects people in both rich and poor countries. The
(H & S)
author also argues that measuring loneliness is
Legalese can minimize confusion and imprecise, and that solitude as a choice should not be
misunderstandings among non-lawyers regarding extinguished. However, the author's main argument
legal concepts. is that loneliness is a significant health risk that may
not receive the attention it deserves from
policymakers.
3. Correct Option D
(H & S) 7. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The passage argues that while the use of legalese is
The passage suggests that measuring loneliness is
necessary for precision and clarity in legal imprecise because variations such as the interview's
communication and documentation, it can also create location and the interviewer's characteristics can
majorly swing responses. In addition, responses may
challenges for non-lawyers. Therefore, statement D,
reveal more about normative desires than what the
which asserts that legalese is necessary to make legal respondent actually feels. The passage does not
communication and documentation accessible to suggest that poverty and geography provide
immunity to loneliness, and it is not stated that
non-lawyers, is not supported by the passage.
loneliness is a subjective experience that cannot be
quantified.
4. Correct Option B
(H & S) 8. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The passage describes legal language as
The passage suggests that even if monies were
"convoluted" which means complicated, intricate, or allocated for schemes that Vivek Murthy
difficult to understand. Therefore, the closest word in recommends, it is not clear how these would sidestep
the "polarisation" that has unhealthily shrunk
meaning to "convoluted" is Option B, Complicated.
discussion networks in the first place. The passage
does not suggest that US healthcare policies do not
allocate sufficient funding for social connection
schemes, that solitude as a choice is not desirable in
5. Correct Option B
the US, or that the US lacks sufficient data on
(H & S) loneliness.
The passage discusses the use of legal language and
its importance in communicating legal concepts and 9. Correct Option B
documents with precision and clarity. The central (H & S)
idea of the passage is that the use of precise and Throughout the passage, the author presents a
unambiguous legal language is crucial to avoid nuanced perspective on loneliness. While
confusion and misunderstandings in legal acknowledging that it is a serious problem with

[32]
 significant health consequences, the author also
highlights the challenges of measuring and
addressing loneliness. Additionally, the author
argues that personal autonomy and choice should be
respected in efforts to combat loneliness. Option b)
best captures this complexity and ambiguity of the
author's opinion on loneliness.
10. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The passage takes a critical stance on the issue of
loneliness, noting that while the surgeon general's
advisory may have important implications, it is
unlikely to be acted upon by many countries. The
author also points out flaws in measuring loneliness
and raises concerns about potential unintended
consequences of addressing the issue. Overall, the
tone of the passage is somewhat skeptical and
critical, which aligns with the definition of "cynical."
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) He has had a conflict with his coach in
Green Bay. This is implied in the statement "feud
with his coach in Green Bay," indicating that there
has been tension or disagreement between Rodgers
and his coach.
12. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) Because he will bring a lot of attention
to the team. This is implied in the statement
"Rodgers arrives in the Big Apple just in time to
steal New Yorkers‘ attention away," indicating that
Rodgers will bring a lot of media coverage and
public interest to the Jets.
13. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A) They had a losing record. This is
implied in the statement "The Jets finished 7-10 in
2022," indicating that they did not have a winning
record in the previous season.
14. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D) He has played with Aaron Rodgers
before. This is implied in the statement "Rodgers
will reunite with his top target in Green Bay from a
year ago, Allen Lazard," indicating that Lazard and
Rodgers have played together on the Green Bay
Packers team in the past.
15. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Explanation: In this sentence, the subject (The Jets,
along with their draft picks) is singular, and the verb
(was exchanged) agrees with it in number. This
demonstrates proper subject-verb agreement. The
other options have errors in subject-verb agreement:
A) should be "Aaron Rodgers and the Jets were
making headlines," C) should be "Rodgers, as well
as his teammates, were excited about the trade," and
D) should be "Green Bay and the Jets have agreed to
a deal that sends Rodgers to New York."
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation: The passage states that the deletion of
such knowledge from the syllabi has serious
consequences for the project of shaping the
normative character of our society, leading to the
elimination of discussion and/or persuasion through
deliberation of normative concepts such as justice,
equality, and secularism.
17. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Explanation: The passage discusses the serious
consequences of the deletion of normative concepts
such as justice, equality, and secularism from
classroom discussions, which are core constitutional
values.
[33]
18. Correct Option C 23. Correct Option B
(H & S) (H & S)
Explanation: The passage states that the collective The passage clearly mentions that the UGC's draft
consequence of conceptual incomprehension and the guidelines aim to promote research and instruction in
decision to remove certain concepts and chapters Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), at all levels of
from the classroom altogether tends to produce the education, by preparing and teaching new
same result in the name of rationalization. courses/programmes at the undergraduate and
postgraduate levels. The guidelines picture an
19. Correct Option B amalgamation of fundamental IKS concepts into
(H & S) modern textbooks as well as classroom-based
It argues that the revisions would intensify a teaching–learning activities. Therefore, option B is
different kind of burden on students, create the correct answer. Option A is incorrect as the
conceptual incomprehension and moral-social guidelines do not aim to replace existing modern
burden, and affect the normative character of society. curricula with traditional Indian knowledge systems.
Option C is only a part of the guidelines, and the
20. Correct Option B guidelines are not limited to promoting Indian
(H & S) systems of medicine. Option D is clearly mentioned
"Hamstrung" means impeded or hindered in the to be a rupture in Indian knowledge systems sourced
passage.. from the introduction of Western education, and
therefore, cannot be the reason behind the draft
PASSAGE V guidelines.
21. Correct Option A
(H & S) 24. Correct Option B
Solutions (H & S)
The NEP 2020 mandate is mentioned in the passage, The passage celebrates the National Education
and it states that it is aimed at promoting research Policy (NEP) 2020 mandate to promote research and
and instruction in Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS) instruction in Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS) at all
at all levels of education. levels of education. It highlights the efforts made by
the University Grants Commission to prepare and
22. Correct Option C teach new IKS courses/programs at the
(H & S) undergraduate and postgraduate levels. The passage
Solutions also commends the spread of Indian science,
The guidelines mention the emphasis on highlighting technology, medical pharmacopoeia, and literature to
the continuity of Indian knowledge systems right Asia and Europe from ancient to modern times.
into the 19th century. This can be interpreted as an Overall, the tone of the passage is celebratory of
effort to showcase the long-standing history and Indian knowledge systems and the efforts made to
contributions of Indian knowledge systems. integrate them into modern education.

[34]
25. Correct Option A their role in a democracy. Option B captures the
(H & S) essence of the argument by stating that the practice
The passage discusses the draft guidelines published of popular voting effectively highlights and
by the University Grants Commission to promote the promotes democratic values.
integration of Indian knowledge systems (IKS) into Option A is incorrect because the passage does not
higher education curricula. The guidelines aim to argue that the shift towards alternative voting
incorporate IKS courses/programs at the methods has undermined democratic values. It rather
undergraduate and postgraduate levels and require acknowledges the shift but focuses on the
students to earn at least 5% of their mandated credits importance of the three defining features of popular
from IKS courses. The guidelines highlight the voting.
contributions of early Indians in various fields and Option C is incorrect because the passage does not
emphasize the continuity of the Indian knowledge explicitly mention a decline in citizens' appreciation
tradition. The passage does not suggest that Indian of their role in a democracy due to the increasing use
knowledge systems are superior to Western of postal voting. It emphasizes the significance of
knowledge systems or that the NEP 2020 aims to the three key features of popular voting in shaping
replace Western knowledge systems with Indian citizens' attitudes.
knowledge systems. While the passage does mention Option D is incorrect because the passage
the rupture caused by the introduction of Western emphasizes the importance of rituals of voting and
education, this is not the central idea of the passage. their role in reinforcing the momentousness of the
occasion for participants and witnesses. It does not
Section II argue that such rituals are no longer necessary in
PASSAGE I modern democracies.
1. Correct Option B Hence Option B is the right answer.
(H & S)
Solutions 2. Correct Option C
Answer: B) The practice of popular voting, (H & S)
characterized by formal equality, widespread Answer: C) The confluence of democratic values
participation, and momentous occasions, effectively during election time increases citizens' trust in the
highlights and promotes democratic values. democratic process.
Explanation: Option B accurately summarizes the Explanation: The passage does not provide direct
argument made in the passage. The passage evidence for any of the assumptions mentioned,
highlights three key features that define the making this a challenging logical reasoning question
democratic practice of popular voting: formal that requires careful analysis of the passage.
equality in vote-counting procedures, widespread Option A is incorrect because the passage does not
participation in prominent elections, and the state that the shift towards alternative voting
momentousness of voting occasions. These features methods has resulted in a decline in the number of
are seen as essential in promoting and emphasizing citizens participating in elections. While it
democratic values such as individual dignity, acknowledges the shift, it primarily focuses on the
political equality, and large-scale collective action. features that define the democratic practice of
The passage argues that the confluence of these popular voting.
values during election time helps citizens appreciate

[35]
 Option B is incorrect because the passage
acknowledges that the United States is an outlier in
terms of the shift towards alternative voting
methods. It does not make a claim about the
universal embrace of the practice of popular voting
by all democracies worldwide.
Option C is the correct assumption based on the
passage. The passage argues that the confluence of
democratic values during election time, which
includes formal equality, widespread participation,
and momentous occasions, helps citizens appreciate
their role in a democracy. It suggests that the
experience of voting and the optics of elections play
a significant role in shaping citizens' attitudes toward
democracy and their trust in the democratic process.
Option D is incorrect because the passage does not
make any explicit claims about the security and
accessibility of postal voting in comparison to other
voting methods. While the passage mentions
increased interest in postal voting in the US and its
long-standing use in Switzerland, it does not provide
a basis for determining whether postal voting is the
most secure and accessible method in modern
democracies.
Hence, Option C is the right answer.
3. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer: C) Public opinion surveys consistently
indicate that citizens perceive election day as a
significant event that holds symbolic value and
reinforces their belief in the democratic system,
reinforcing the momentousness and large-scale
collective action aspects of popular voting.
Explanation: In this question, we are looking for the
statement that, if true, would provide the strongest
support for the argument that the practice of popular
voting effectively highlights and promotes
democratic values, as described in the passage.
Option A strengthens the argument by providing
research evidence that citizens who personally
participate in casting their votes develop a stronger
sense of civic duty and engagement with democratic
processes, which supports the confluence of
democratic values during election time. However,
option C provides more direct support for the
specific aspects of popular voting mentioned in the
argument.
Option B introduces the concept of strict voter
identification requirements, which is not directly
addressed in the passage. While it claims an increase
in voter turnout and public trust, it does not directly
strengthen the argument regarding the defining
features of popular voting as described in the
passage.
Option C is the correct answer as it directly supports
the argument made in the passage. The passage
emphasizes the momentousness and symbolic value
of election day in reinforcing citizens' belief in the
democratic system. If public opinion surveys
consistently indicate that citizens perceive election
day as a significant event that holds symbolic value
and reinforces their belief in the democratic system,
it strengthens the argument that the practice of
popular voting effectively highlights and promotes
democratic values.
Option D introduces the concept of convenience
voting methods and claims a decline in political
apathy. While this may be a positive outcome, it
does not directly strengthen the argument regarding
the defining features of popular voting as described
in the passage. Option C provides more direct
support for the argument.
Hence, option C is the right answer
4. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: B) The argument overlooks the fact that the
momentousness of voting occasions can be
[36]
 intimidating for some citizens, leading to their
disengagement from the democratic process.
Explanation: Option B correctly identifies a flaw in
the argument made in the passage. The argument
emphasizes the momentousness of voting occasions
and their role in shaping citizens' attitudes toward
democracy. However, it fails to consider that the
same momentousness can be intimidating for some
citizens, leading to their disengagement from the
democratic process. By overlooking this possibility,
the argument presents a one-sided view of the impact
of momentous voting occasions and does not
acknowledge the potential negative consequences it
may have for certain individuals.
Option A is incorrect because the argument does not
solely attribute the decline in citizens' appreciation
of their role in a democracy to the shift towards
alternative voting methods. While it acknowledges
the shift, it focuses on the defining features of
popular voting rather than assigning sole
responsibility for the decline.
Option C is incorrect because the argument does not
directly address the understanding of democratic
values by citizens. It focuses on the importance of
the defining features of popular voting and their
impact on citizens' attitudes and appreciation of their
role in a democracy.
Option D is incorrect because the argument does not
assume that the confluence of democratic values
during election time is the only effective way to
shape citizens' attitudes toward democracy and their
role within it. It emphasizes the significance of
popular voting and its defining features in achieving
this, but it does not exclude other potential factors or
methods.
Hence, option B is the right answer.
5. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) Surveys indicate that citizens who vote
via mail-in ballots or early voting methods have
similar levels of engagement and appreciation for
democracy as those who vote at precinct polling
places, suggesting that the experience of voting is
not a determining factor in shaping citizens'
attitudes.
Explanation: Option B is the correct answer because
it weakens the argument by providing evidence that
challenges the role of the voting experience in
shaping citizens' attitudes toward democracy. If
surveys indicate that citizens who vote via mail-in
ballots or early voting methods have similar levels of
engagement and appreciation for democracy as those
who vote at precinct polling places, it suggests that
the experience of voting itself may not be the
determining factor in shaping citizens' attitudes as
argued in the passage.
Option A is not the correct answer because it
introduces a different factor, the interactions with
political leaders and participation in political
campaigns, as the primary driver of citizens' attitudes
toward democracy. It does not directly address the
impact of the voting experience on citizens' attitudes.
Option C is not the correct answer because it
introduces mandatory voting as a factor influencing
citizens' attitudes toward democracy. While it
provides an alternative explanation, it does not
directly challenge the role of the voting experience
or the optics of elections.
Option D is not the correct answer because it
suggests that citizens' attitudes toward democracy
are primarily shaped by socio-economic status and
education level, minimizing the impact of the voting
experience. However, it does not directly challenge
the role of the voting experience or the optics of
elections.
In summary, option B weakens the argument by
presenting evidence that citizens who vote via
alternative methods have similar levels of
engagement and appreciation for democracy as those
who vote at precinct polling places, suggesting that
[37]
 the voting experience may not be the determining external influences can significantly impact the
factor in shaping citizens' attitudes. resolution of the conflict, adding to the uncertainty
Hence, Option B is the right answer. surrounding its outcome.

PASSAGE II 7. Correct Option A

6. Correct Option A (H & S)
(H & S) Answer: A) The protests in Pakistan were largely
Answer: A) The potential for international peaceful and did not result in significant violence or
intervention to prevent instability in Pakistan. disruption.
Explanation: Option A is the correct answer as it Explanation: Option A is the correct answer as it
identifies a key factor contributing to the uncertainty weakens the argument presented in the passage. The
surrounding the outcome of the internal conflict in argument emphasizes the significance of the protests
Pakistan. The passage mentions that the possibility and the public's actions against army and
of international intervention to prevent instability in paramilitary installations in reflecting the changing
Pakistan exists. This indicates that external factors dynamics in Pakistan. However, if it is true that the
and the involvement of global powers could play a protests were largely peaceful and did not result in
significant role in shaping the outcome of the significant violence or disruption, it undermines the
conflict, adding to the uncertainty. argument's claim about the extent and impact of the
Option B is incorrect because while the passage internal conflict.
mentions Imran Khan's previous alliance with the Option B is incorrect because the argument does not
Pakistan army and how his actions have undermined rely on the support of political parties for Imran
the army's stature, it does not explicitly state that this Khan's arrest. The focus of the argument is on the
is a key factor contributing to the uncertainty broader implications of the events and the
surrounding the outcome of the conflict. uncertainty surrounding the outcome of the internal
Option C is incorrect because although the passage conflict.
mentions public resentment against Chinese Option C is incorrect because the argument does not
investments in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and mention the neighboring countries' commitment to
Balochistan, it does not suggest that this factor is non-interference in Pakistan's internal affairs.
directly linked to the uncertainty surrounding the Therefore, this option does not directly weaken the
outcome of the internal conflict. argument presented in the passage.
Option D is incorrect because while the passage Option D is incorrect because the argument asserts
mentions the ongoing security challenges faced by that the outcome of the internal conflict in Pakistan
the army, including attacks by the Tehreek-e-Taliban is uncertain, implying that it has not been effectively
Pakistan (TTP) and Baloch groups, it does not resolved. This option contradicts the argument and
specifically state that this factor contributes to the does not weaken it.
uncertainty surrounding the outcome of the conflict. Hence, option A weakens the argument by
Hence, option A correctly identifies the potential for suggesting that the protests were largely peaceful
international intervention to prevent instability in and did not result in significant violence or
Pakistan as a key factor contributing to the disruption. This challenges the argument's claim
uncertainty surrounding the outcome of the internal about the magnitude and consequences of the events,
conflict. The involvement of global powers and casting doubt on the broader geopolitical

[38]
 implications and the uncertainty of the internal
conflict in Pakistan.
8. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Answer: C) Implement economic reforms and
address the grievances driving the protests to
alleviate the crisis.
Explanation: Option C is the most appropriate course
of action based on the information provided in the
passage. The passage highlights the protests
triggered by the arrest of former Prime Minister
Imran Khan and the resulting violence and instability
in Pakistan. It also mentions the ongoing economic
crisis and the fact that the protests may be driven by
economic grievances. Therefore, implementing
economic reforms and addressing the grievances that
are fueling the protests would be a logical step to
alleviate the crisis and restore stability in the
country.
Option A, increasing military presence and engaging
in a stronger crackdown on protests, may lead to
further violence and escalate the situation rather than
resolving it. The passage does not suggest that a
stronger military response is necessary or
appropriate.
Option B, seeking international intervention, is not
supported by the information provided in the
passage. While it mentions the possibility of
international intervention to prevent instability, it
does not indicate any specific actions or intentions of
the international community. Therefore, it is not a
course of action that can be reliably inferred from the
passage.
Option D, allowing for peaceful protests and
engaging in dialogue with different factions, may be
a desirable approach in general, but the passage does
not provide information to support this specific
course of action. It mentions the violence and
disruption caused by the protests but does not
suggest that peaceful protests and dialogue are the
appropriate means to address the situation.
Hence, the correct option is C as the most
appropriate course of action would be to implement
economic reforms and address the grievances driving
the protests to alleviate the crisis in Pakistan.
9. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: A) The protests and violence in Pakistan
have raised concerns about a potential "Pakistan
Spring" and uncertainty about the country's future.
Explanation: Option A best represents the main
argument presented in the passage. The passage
discusses the protests triggered by the arrest of
former Prime Minister Imran Khan and the
subsequent violence and targeting of military
installations. It mentions the speculation about a
potential "Pakistan Spring" and the uncertainty
surrounding the country's future as a result of these
events. This argument focuses on the concerns and
uncertainties arising from the protests and their
implications for Pakistan.
Option B is not the main argument of the passage,
although it is mentioned as part of the discussion.
The targeting of army and paramilitary installations
is presented as a departure from the public's usual
fear of the military, but it is not the central point of
the passage.
Option C is also mentioned in the passage, but it is
not the main argument. While the changing
dynamics in Pakistan and the humanitarian crisis in
Afghanistan are discussed, the argument does not
revolve around the need for international
intervention or vigilance. These factors are
mentioned as additional causes for concern but are
not the primary focus of the passage.
Option D addresses the economic crisis and
grievances driving the protests, which are discussed
in the passage. However, it does not capture the main
[39]
 argument of the passage, which is centered on the
protests, violence, and uncertainty about Pakistan's
future.
Hence, option A best represents the main argument
of the passage, emphasizing the concerns raised by
the protests and violence in Pakistan and the
resulting uncertainty about the country's future.
10. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A) The protests in Pakistan reflect a
departure from the public's usual fear of the army,
yet the arrest of Imran Khan has the potential to
restore the army's image as a unifying force.
Explanation: Option A presents a paradox based on
the information provided in the passage. The passage
states that the protests in Pakistan, including the
targeting of military installations, represent a
departure from the public's usual fear of the army.
However, it also suggests that the arrest of Imran
Khan, which is seen as a potential opportunity to
restore the army's image as a unifying force, could
contradict this departure. The paradox lies in the
contradiction between the protests reflecting a shift
in public sentiment towards the military and the
possibility of the army being seen as a unifying force
through Khan's arrest.
Option B does not present a paradox. While the
passage mentions the need for vigilance and the
potential for international intervention to prevent
further destabilization in light of the changing
dynamics in Pakistan and the humanitarian crisis in
Afghanistan, it does not suggest that such
intervention is unlikely.
Option C is not a paradox but rather a statement of
fact based on the information provided in the
passage. The violence and targeting of military
installations indicate a significant shift in public
sentiment towards the military, while the outcome of
the internal conflict remains uncertain.
Option D does not present a paradox. The passage
acknowledges the economic crisis and grievances
driving the protests and suggests that economic
reforms are necessary to restore stability. It does not
suggest that implementing such reforms would
exacerbate the ongoing instability.
Hence, option A presents a paradox by highlighting
the contradiction between the protests reflecting a
departure from the public's usual fear of the army
and the potential for Imran Khan's arrest to restore
the army's image as a unifying force.
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B) The G-7's exclusion of Russia and
limited representation raises questions about its
ability to effectively address global challenges.
Explanation: The passage suggests that the G-7
summit failed to highlight a path towards dialogue
and ending the war in Ukraine, despite issuing
sanctions against Russia. It also mentions that the G-
7 is unrepresentative of the world today and does not
include some of the largest economies, fastest-
growing GDPs, or biggest global energy providers. It
further states that the G-7's contraction by expelling
Russia raises questions about its ability to effectively
address global challenges. Therefore, it can be
inferred that the G-7's exclusion of Russia and
limited representation raises questions about its
ability to effectively address global challenges.
Option A is incorrect because the passage does not
explicitly state that the G-7 summit aimed to address
the concerns of the Global South countries. While
the passage mentions Prime Minister Kishida
making references to the views of the Global South,
it does not indicate that the summit specifically
addressed those concerns.
Option C is incorrect because the passage mentions
that while some efforts were made to recognize the
G-7's role in promoting transparent financing and
[40]
 debt sustainability for the developing world, the
summit failed to propose concrete measures to help
defray these responsibilities. Therefore, it does not
suggest significant progress in addressing the
economic concerns of developing nations.
Option D is incorrect because the passage does not
provide information about the expected inclusivity
and comprehensiveness of the G-20 summit in Delhi.
While it mentions the hope for a more inclusive
outlook and comprehensive global consensus, it does
not explicitly state that the G-20 summit will be
more inclusive and comprehensive than the G-7
summit.
Hence option B is the correct option.
12. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D) The G-7's limited representation does
not hinder its ability to collaborate with other
international organizations to address global
challenges effectively.
Explanation:
Option D weakens the argument by stating that the
G-7's limited representation does not hinder its
ability to collaborate with other international
organizations effectively. This implies that despite
its limited membership, the G-7 can still engage in
fruitful collaborations with other entities to address
global challenges. If this is true, it challenges the
argument's claim that the G-7's limited
representation hinders its effectiveness in addressing
global challenges.
Option A states that the G-7 summit in Hiroshima
resulted in significant commitments from member
countries to address global challenges. While this
information may highlight the positive outcomes of
the summit, it does not directly address the
argument's claim about the G-7's limited
representation and its impact on effectiveness.
Option B suggests that the G-7's exclusion of certain
countries is a deliberate strategy to ensure a more
focused and effective decision-making process.
Although this information provides a potential
rationale for the limited representation, it does not
directly weaken the argument's claim that the limited
representation hinders effectiveness.
Option C mentions that the G-20 summit in Delhi is
expected to have limited participation from
developing nations, similar to the G-7 summit.
While this may provide a comparison between the
two summits, it does not specifically address the
argument's claim about the G-7's limited
representation and its impact on effectiveness.
Hence, option D weakens the argument by
suggesting that the G-7's limited representation does
not hinder its ability to collaborate effectively with
other international organizations. This challenges the
argument's assertion that the G-7's limited
representation hinders its effectiveness in addressing
global challenges.
13. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A) The perspectives and inputs of countries
outside the G-7 are crucial for understanding and
effectively addressing global challenges.
Explanation:
In this question, the assumed argument is that the
limited representation of the G-7 hinders its
effectiveness in addressing global challenges. To
weaken this argument, we need to identify the
assumption underlying it. Option A is the correct
answer because it assumes that the perspectives and
inputs of countries outside the G-7 are crucial for
understanding and effectively addressing global
challenges. If this assumption is false, then the
limited representation of the G-7 may not necessarily
hinder its effectiveness, as it implies that the G-7
countries can adequately address global challenges
without the involvement of non-G-7 countries.
[41]
 Option B assumes that the G-7 countries have not
been successful in addressing global challenges in
the past due to their limited representation. While
this may be a possible assumption, it is not necessary
for the argument. The argument focuses on the
limited representation itself as the hindrance,
regardless of past successes or failures.
Option C assumes that the exclusion of certain
countries from the G-7 significantly impacts the
diversity of perspectives and expertise in addressing
global challenges. Although this assumption is
related to the argument, it is not necessary for the
argument to hold true. The argument could still
assert that the limited representation itself hinders
effectiveness without explicitly mentioning the
impact on diversity.
Option D assumes that the G-20, with its broader
representation, has proven to be more effective in
addressing global challenges compared to the G-7.
While this may be true, it is not necessary for the
argument. The argument focuses on the limited
representation of the G-7 and does not directly
compare its effectiveness to the G-20.
Hence, option A is the correct answer as it captures
the necessary assumption for the argument that the
perspectives and inputs of countries outside the G-7
are crucial for understanding and effectively
addressing global challenges.
14. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D) The G-20 summit should prioritize
building a more comprehensive global consensus on
major challenges, considering its broader
representation.
Explanation: In this course of action question, we
need to identify the most supported course of action
based on the information presented in the passage.
The passage discusses the limitations and
unrepresentative nature of the G-7, emphasizing the
need for a broader perspective in addressing global
challenges. Option D is the correct answer because it
aligns with the passage's suggestion that the G-20
summit, with its broader representation, should
prioritize building a more comprehensive global
consensus on major challenges.
Option A suggests that the G-7 should immediately
expand its membership to include China and India.
While this could be a possible course of action, the
passage does not explicitly recommend immediate
expansion or specify China and India as the only
countries to be included.
Option B focuses on promoting transparent financing
and debt sustainability for the developing world.
While the passage mentions efforts in Hiroshima to
recognize the G-7's role in these areas, it does not
provide strong support for this course of action as
the most appropriate response to the G-7's
limitations.
Option C proposes reinstating Russia's membership
in the G-7 to enhance its credibility. However, the
passage mentions the expulsion of Russia due to its
actions in Georgia and Crimea, and there is no
indication or suggestion in the passage that
reinstating Russia is a supported course of action.
Option D suggests that the G-20 summit, which is
mentioned in the passage as the next major event,
should prioritize building a comprehensive global
consensus considering its broader representation.
This aligns with the passage's focus on the
limitations of the G-7's representation and the hope
for a more inclusive outlook at the G-20 summit.
Hence, option D is the most supported course of
action as it corresponds to the passage's emphasis on
the G-20 summit and the need for a broader
representation to address global challenges
effectively.
15. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A) The G-7's limited membership
undermines its ability to address global challenges
[42]
effectively and hinders the representation of diverse
viewpoints.
Explanation: The main argument presented in the
passage is that the G-7's limited membership has
several detrimental effects, including its inability to
effectively address global challenges and the lack of
representation of diverse viewpoints. Let's break
down the options and explain why option A
accurately captures the main argument:
Option A: The G-7's limited membership
undermines its ability to address global challenges
effectively and hinders the representation of diverse
viewpoints. This option accurately summarizes the
main argument presented in the passage. The
passage argues that the G-7's limited membership,
consisting mainly of countries with similar
backgrounds, renders it unrepresentative of the
global community. This limited representation
hampers the G-7's effectiveness in tackling global
challenges as it overlooks diverse perspectives and
expertise from countries that are not included in the
group.
Option B: The G-7's exclusionary approach in
membership selection promotes a Euro-American
worldview and perpetuates polarized views of the
world. While the passage mentions the Euro-
American worldview of the G-7, it does not
explicitly argue that this approach perpetuates
polarized views of the world. Option B goes beyond
the scope of the passage and introduces a new
concept that is not fully supported by the argument.
The argument in the passage focuses on the lack of
representativeness and inclusivity of the G-7 rather
than the direct perpetuation of polarized views. The
passage highlights the fact that the G-7's
membership does not include countries from the
Global South, and it calls for a more comprehensive
global consensus on global challenges. The primary
concern expressed is the need to broaden the G-7's
prism and include perspectives from countries with
different viewpoints and backgrounds.
Option C: The G-7's focus on economic influence
and political stability in membership criteria neglects
the perspectives and interests of countries from the
Global South. Although the passage highlights the
lack of representation of countries from the Global
South in the G-7, it does not specifically mention the
membership criteria based on economic influence
and political stability. Option C introduces a new
element that is not explicitly discussed in the
passage.
Option D: The G-7's smaller population and GDP
representation compared to its wealth representation
diminishes its influence on global economic
decisions and calls for a more inclusive outlook.
While the passage does mention the smaller
population and GDP representation of the G-7, it
does not argue that this diminishes its influence on
global economic decisions. Option D adds the notion
of calling for a more inclusive outlook, which is not
the primary focus of the passage.
Therefore, option A accurately captures the main
argument presented in the passage by highlighting
the negative consequences of the G-7's limited
membership on its effectiveness and representation
of diverse viewpoints.
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option A
(H & S)
The correct option is (A) The convergence on
questions of language in 20th-century philosophy.
Explanation: The passage discusses the convergence
on questions of language as a central theme in 20th-
century philosophy. It highlights the shift towards
linguistic philosophy and the emphasis on the nature
of language in philosophical inquiry during that
time.
Option B is incorrect option. While the author does
mention about such rivalry, this point appears to be
only a supporting information and not the main idea
of the passage.
[43]
 Option C is incorrect option. This option is very
close to Option A. The passage does talks about
Jacques Derrida's role in academic philosophy, it
also brings other aspects onto the table.
Option D is incorrect option. This option is factually
incorrect as there was a split and not a shift in the
20th century.
Hence, the correct option is A.
17. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is (C) Both analytic and
continental philosophy have limitations and
drawbacks.
Explanation: The passage mentions that both
analytic and continental philosophy had similar
obsessions and drawbacks, indicating that there were
limitations inherent to both approaches. This
suggests the assumption that both branches of
philosophy have their own drawbacks.
Option (A) is incorrect because negating this option
would not affect the passage in any way whatsoever.
Option (B) is incorrect because this appears to be
more of an inference and less of an assumption. We
can eliminate this option.
Option (D) is incorrect because negating this option
would not affect the passage.0020
Hence, the correct option is C.
18. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is (C) The passage
overgeneralizes the perspectives of analytic and
continental philosophy, failing to acknowledge the
diversity within each discourse.
Explanation: The passage describes the rivalry
between analytic and continental philosophy and
presents their perspectives in a contrasting manner.
However, it overlooks the fact that there is diversity
within each discourse, and not all philosophers
within those traditions share the same perspectives.
Option A is incorrect as the passage does provide
enough information and evidence to support the
claim that analytic and continental philosophy
emerged at the same time.
Option B is incorrect because the passage doesn't
overgeneralise the information.
Option D is incorrect because these aspects are not
relevant to our discussion.
Hence, the correct option is C.
19. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Solutions
The correct option is (C) The convergence on
questions of language led to groundbreaking insights
and advancements in philosophical thought.
Explanation: The passage discusses how the focus on
language in philosophy during the 20th century had a
significant impact. Choosing option (C) strengthens
the argument by acknowledging that the emphasis on
language yielded valuable insights and
advancements in philosophical thought.
Option A and Option C are very close to correct
options. However, Option C gives a more detailed
information in comparison to Option A. Therefore,
Option A is eliminated.
Option B is incorrect because this would not affect
the passage in any way. This option is out of scope
of discussion.
Option D is incorrect this would rather weaken
contention instead of strengthening it.
Hence, the correct option is C.
20. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Solutions
The correct option is (D) Understanding both
analytic and continental philosophy was a rare
achievement due to their divergent vocabularies and
perspectives.
[44]

Explanation: The passage mentions that analytic and
continental philosophy were separate discourses,
each with its own jargon and canon. It also implies
that mastering both was challenging, and few
individuals had the motivation to do so. Therefore, it
can be inferred that understanding both analytic and
continental philosophy was a rare achievement due
to their divergent vocabularies and perspectives.
Option A is incorrect because this information is in
contradiction with the information in the passage and
therefore cannot be inferred.
Option B is incorrect because we cannot defend this
contention with 100% surety that this outcome did
happen.
Option C is incorrect because this is again in
contradiction with the information present in the
passage.
Hence, the correct option is D.
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option A
(H & S)
A) Hooks in music are memorable and attention-
grabbing moments that stick in a person's memory.
Explanation: The passage discusses hooks in music
as memorable and attention-grabbing moments that
stand out and are easily remembered by listeners. It
explains the concept of hooks and provides examples
from various genres of music. This option
summarizes the main idea of the passage accurately.
Incorrect options:
B) Pop music relies heavily on hooks to capture
listeners' attention - This is incorrect because the
passage acknowledges that hooks are prevalent in
pop music, but it also highlights hooks in other kinds
of music, such as classical.
C) Hooks can be found in various forms of music,
from pop to classical - This is incorrect because
although the passage mentions hooks in various
forms of music, this option does not capture the main
focus of the passage, which is the nature and
significance of hooks in music.
D) Hooks are musical elements that interact with the
listener's mind and memory - This is incorrect
because this option only captures a specific aspect
discussed in the passage but does not encompass the
broader main idea.
Hence, option A is correct
22. Correct Option C
(H & S)
C) Hooks play a significant role in making a song
memorable and appealing to listeners.
Explanation: The passage emphasizes the role of
hooks as memorable and attention-grabbing
moments in music. It discusses how hooks are
intended to stick in a person's memory and transcend
personal taste. This assumption underlies the
discussion of hooks in music, suggesting that they
contribute to the song's memorability and appeal to
listeners.
Incorrect options:
A) Hooks are intentionally created by musicians to
make their songs more popular - This is incorrect
because the passage does not explicitly mention that
hooks are created with the intention of making songs
more popular, although hooks do contribute to a
song's appeal.
B) All listeners have the same reaction and
perception of hooks in music - This is incorrect
because the passage acknowledges that hooks can be
subjective and may vary in their impact on different
individuals.
D) The concept of hooks in music originated in the
1980s - This is incorrect because the passage
mentions that the definition of hooks is based on one
put forth in the 1980s, but it does not suggest that
hooks themselves originated in that era.
Hence, Option C is correct.
[45]

23. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Solutions
C) Hooks have the ability to transcend personal taste
and stick in a person's memory.
Explanation: The passage discusses how hooks in
music can transcend personal taste and be easily
remembered by listeners. It mentions examples of
hooks that stand out and stick in a person's memory,
regardless of individual preferences. This supports
the inference that hooks have the ability to transcend
personal taste and leave a lasting impression.
Incorrect options:
A) Hooks in music are solely based on the lyrics and
vocal elements - This is incorrect because the
passage mentions that hooks can come in many
forms, not solely based on lyrics and vocal elements.
B) All pop songs require hooks in every section to
hold listeners' attention - This is incorrect because
the passage mentions Jay Brown's suggestion that
modern pop songs need hooks in every section, but it
does not generalize this requirement to all pop songs.
D) Hooks in classical music are primarily based on
complex melodies and harmonies - This is incorrect
because the passage provides examples of hooks in
classical music that are not necessarily based on
complex melodies and harmonies. It mentions
Beethoven's 5th Symphony and Bill Evans's
descending piano chords as examples of hooks in
classical music.
Hence, option C is correct.
24. Correct Option A
(H & S)
A) Many successful pop songs rely heavily on hooks
to capture and retain listeners' attention.
Explanation: This option strengthens the argument
presented in the passage by emphasizing the role of
hooks in capturing and retaining listeners' attention
in successful pop songs. The passage mentions
examples like "Bad Romance" by Lady Gaga and
"Shake It Off" by Taylor Swift, which are packed
with musical moments that stand out and are easily
remembered. This option aligns with the evidence
provided in the passage.
Incorrect options:
B) Hooks in music are solely dependent on the skill
and creativity of the musicians - This is incorrect
because the passage does not discuss the sole
dependence of hooks on the skill and creativity of
musicians. It acknowledges that hooks can come in
various forms and can be subjective.
C) All listeners have the same level of attention and
memory capacity when it comes to hooks - This is
incorrect because the passage does not make any
claims about the uniformity of listeners' attention
and memory capacity when it comes to hooks. It
acknowledges that hooks can have different impacts
on individuals.
D) Hooks in music are designed to cater to
individual preferences and personal taste - This is
incorrect because the passage discusses hooks as
moments that can transcend personal taste and have
an impact regardless of individual preferences. It
does not suggest that hooks are specifically designed
to cater to personal taste.
Hence, option A is correct.
25. Correct Option C
(H & S)
C) Hooks are musical moments that interact with the
listener's attention and memory.
Explanation: This option must be true based on the
information provided in the passage. The passage
defines hooks as memorable and attention-grabbing
moments in music that stick in a person's memory. It
also mentions that hooks are a product of the
interaction between the music and the listener's
capacities for attention and memory. Therefore, it
can be concluded that hooks are musical moments
that interact with the listener's attention and memory.
[46]
 Incorrect options:
A) All listeners remember and appreciate the same
hooks in music - This is incorrect because the
passage acknowledges that hooks can vary in their
impact on different individuals and can be
subjective.
B) Hooks in music are limited to pop songs and
cannot be found in other genres - This is incorrect
because the passage provides examples of hooks in
various genres, including pop, classical, and film
music. It does not limit the presence of hooks to a
specific genre.
D) Hooks in music are solely defined by catchy
lyrics and memorable melodies - This is incorrect
because the passage mentions that hooks can come
in many forms, including beats, series of notes,
lyrics, or other elements in a piece of music. It does
not restrict the definition of hooks to catchy lyrics
and melodies only.
Hence, Option C is correct.
Section III
PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Option B
In the 1967 war, Israel occupied these territories
(Gaza Strip and the West Bank) including East
Jerusalem, which was subsequently annexed by
Israel. The war brought about a second exodus of
Palestinians, estimated at half a million.
2. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Option A
The U.S. and Israel voted against the resolution
while Brazil, Japan, Myanmar, and France were
among those that abstained.
3. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Option B
ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations
charter and started working in April 1946. It is the
principal judicial organ of the United Nations,
situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague
(Netherlands). Unlike the six principal organs of the
United Nations, it is the only one not located in New
York (USA). It settles legal disputes between States
and gives advisory opinions in accordance with
international law, on legal questions referred to it by
authorized United Nations organs and specialized
agencies. It has 193 state parties.
4. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option C
Isreal's stand was:
1. Before the vote, Israel's Ambassador to the United
Nations Gilad Erdan said that the "outrageous
resolution" calling for the advisory opinion of the
International Court of Justice is a "moral stain on the
U.N. and every country that supports it.
2. No international body can rule that Jews are
"occupiers" in their own country. Any decision made
by a judicial body with a mandate from the morally
bankrupt and politicized UN is completely
illegitimate."
3. It was stated that holding a vote on Israel on
Shabbat is another example of the United Nations'
"moral decay," which prevents Israel's position from
being heard in a vote whose outcome is
predetermined.
4. During the United Nations General Assembly
High-Level Week in September 2021, Palestinian
Authority President Mahmoud Abbas stated in his
remarks that if Israel did not withdraw to the 1967
lines within a year, the Palestinians would turn to
[47]
 The Hague. Hence, it was stated that today's vote
fulfills Abbas' ultimatum
5. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option D
The Permanent Representative of India to the United
Nations is India's foremost diplomatic representative
to the United Nations. The permanent Representative
is the head of the Permanent Mission of India to the
United Nations in New York City. Currently Ruchira
Kamboj is the Permanent Representative of India to
the United Nations.
PASSAGE II
6. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option D
National Commission for Indian System of Medicine
(NCISM) and the Central Council for Research in
Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS), the two prominent
institutions under the Ministry of Ayush, have
launched ‗SMART‘ program. The SMART (Scope
for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research in Teaching
Professionals) program aims to boost scientific
research through Ayurveda colleges and hospitals. It
was observed that the research potential of the large
community of Ayurveda teachers remains
underutilized mostly. Therefore, the ‗SMART‘
program will have a deep long term rejuvenating
impact on research in the field of Ayurveda and it
will be a great service to the nation.
7. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option C
Ayush is Traditional & Non-Conventional Systems
of Health Care and Healing which includes
Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and
Homoeopathy. The positive features of the Indian
systems of medicine namely their diversity and
flexibility; accessibility; affordability, a broad
acceptance by a large section of the general public;
comparatively lesser cost and growing economic
value, have great potential to make them providers of
healthcare that the large sections of our people need.
8. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Solutions
Option D
The Ministry of Ayush, a ministry of the
Government of India, is responsible for developing
education, research and propagation of traditional
medicine systems in India. Shri Sarbananda Sonowal
is the Hon'ble Cabinet Minister, Ministry of Ayush
& Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
9. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Option B
It was observed that the research potential of the
large community of Ayurveda teachers remains
underutilized mostly. Therefore, the ‗SMART‘
program will have a deep long term rejuvenating
impact on research in the field of Ayurveda and it
will be a great service to the nation. It aims to
identify, support and promote innovative research
ideas in healthcare research areas including
Osteoarthritis, Iron Deficiency Anaemia, Chronic
Bronchitis, Dyslipidemia, Rheumatoid Arthritis,
Obesity, Diabetes Mellitus, Psoriasis, Generalised
Anxiety Disorder, Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
(NAFLD). The program will motivate teachers for
taking up projects in designated areas of healthcare
research and create a large database.
10. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option D
It was launched in September 2014 by the
Department of AYUSH under the Ministry of Health
[48]
 and Family Welfare, during the 12th Plan for
implementation through States/UTs. Now, it is
implemented by the Ministry of Ayush.The scheme
involves expansion of the AYUSH sector to promote
holistic health of Indians. The Mission addresses the
gaps in health services through supporting the efforts
of State/UT Governments for providing AYUSH
health services/education in the country, particularly
in vulnerable and far-flung areas.
Components of the National AYUSH Mission:
Obligatory Components:
1. AYUSH Services.
2. AYUSH Educational Institutions.
3. Quality Control of ASU&H (Ayurveda, Siddha
and Unani & Homoeopathy) Drugs.
4. Medicinal Plants.
Flexible Component
1. AYUSH Wellness Centres comprising Yoga and
Naturopathy,
2. Tele-medicine,
3. Innovations in AYUSH including Public Private
Partnership,
4. IEC (Information, Education and Communication)
activities,
5. Voluntary certification scheme: Project based, etc.
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. Development initiatives that benefit the
Afghan people directly, such as infrastructure
development, healthcare, education, and capacity
building.
Explanation: Despite the Taliban takeover, India
could continue supporting development initiatives
that benefit the Afghan people directly, such as
infrastructure development, healthcare, education,
and capacity building
12. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. A peace process aimed at resolving the
Israeli-Palestinian conflict
Explanation: The Oslo Process is a peace process
aimed at resolving the Israeli-Palestinian conflict. It
began after secret negotiations in Oslo, Norway,
resulting in both the recognition of Israel by the PLO
and the recognition by Israel of the PLO as the
representative of the Palestinian people and as a
partner in bilateral negotiations.
13. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: A. Adopt a balanced approach in its
dealings with Afghanistan
Explanation: To handle the situation in Afghanistan,
India should adopt a balanced approach in its
dealings with Afghanistan, avoiding excessive
alignment or confrontation, while expressing
concerns about human rights, terrorism, and the
treatment of minorities.
14. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B. Oslo Summit
Explanation: Recently, Taliban representatives met
Indian and Pakistani special envoys amongst a
number of international diplomats, in an effort by the
Norwegian Government to break the impasse in talks
on the sidelines of a peace conference in Oslo.
15. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D. Reconstruction Opportunity Zones
Explanation: Reconstruction Opportunity Zones
(ROZs) is a development initiative proposed by the
United States and supported by India to promote
economic growth and stability in Afghanistan.
[49]
PASSAGE VI
16. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Answer: D. European Union (EU)
Explanation: The European Union's General Data
Protection Regulation (GDPR) focuses on a these provisions are largely specific to certain
comprehensive data protection law for processing
personal data. The GDPR's strict norms regarding
data transfers to third countries have had a profound
influence on data protection frameworks beyond the
EU.
17. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: D. B.N. Srikrishna Committee
Explanation: The Indian government appointed a
committee of experts for data protection under the
chairmanship of Justice B.N. Srikrishna in August
2017, which submitted its report in July 2018 along
with a draft Data Protection Bill.
18. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. Personal Information Protection Law
(PIPL)
Explanation: The Personal Information Protection
Law (PIPL) came into effect in November 2021 in
China, which gives Chinese data principals new
rights as it seeks to prevent the misuse of personal
data.
19. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: B. Data Protection Board of India
Explanation: The central government will establish
the Data Protection Board of India to adjudicate non-
compliance with the provisions of the Personal Data
Protection Bill.
20. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Answer: B. IT Amendment Act, 2008
Explanation: India has some privacy provisions in
place under the IT (Amendment) Act, 2008, although
situations, such as restrictions on publishing the
names of juveniles and rape victims in the media.
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. It could lead to increased arms control
concerns
Explanation: According to the given text, China
could potentially have as many Intercontinental
Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) as the US or Russia by
the end of the decade. This could lead to increased
arms control concerns.
22. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. It could lead to increased tensions
between India and China
Explanation: According to the given text, India's
nuclear deterrent is placing growing emphasis on
longer-range weapons capable of reaching targets
across China. This could lead to increased tensions
between India and China.
23. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: C. It highlights the global imbalance of
power in terms of nuclear weapons
Explanation: According to the given text, Russia and
the United States possess almost 90% of all nuclear
weapons. This highlights the global imbalance of
power in terms of nuclear weapons.
[50]
24. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Answer: A. Increased arms control concerns and
regional instability
Explanation: According to the given text, India's
nuclear arsenal is expanding, which could lead to
increased arms control concerns and regional
instability.
25. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Solutions
Answer: B. 12,512
Explanation: According to the Stockholm
International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), as of
January 2023, the total global inventory of warheads
is estimated at 12,512.
PASSAGE VI
26. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Ans-d) Option A- Chandrayan 3 would consist of a
lander and a rover similar to the Chandrayaan-2 but
would not have an orbiter like Chandrayan 2. The
Propulsion module will carry the lander and rover
configuration till 100 km lunar orbit.
Option B- The Chandrayaan-3 lander will be
equipped with a Laser Doppler Velocimeter (LDV).
LDV sensors will be useful as they will help directly
measure the velocity from the height of about 20km.
Option C- Chandrayaan 3 spacecraft is the 3rd lunar
exploration expedition, outlined by the ISRO. The
first lunar is Chandrayan 1 launched in 2008 and the
second is Chandrayan 2 which failed to reach the
targeted area in 2019.
Option D- One key reason to target the Moon‘s
southern pole with Chandrayaan 3 is that it contains
larger shadowed areas than the northern pole.
Scientists believe that these areas on the lunar
surface possibly have a permanent source of water,
not oxygen. In addition, scientists also have a keen
interest in the craters present in the southern pole.
They believe these cold traps may contain
mysterious fossil records of the early planetary
system.
Hence Option D is correct.
27. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Ans-a) I. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also called
Mangalyaan, is a spacecraft orbiting Mars since 24
September 2014. It was launched on 5 November
2013 by the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO). It is India's first interplanetary mission and
ISRO has become the fourth space agency to reach
Mars, after the Soviet space program, NASA, and
the European Space Agency. India is the first Asian
nation to reach Mars orbit, and the first nation in the
world to do so in its first attempt. It is correct.
II. ASTROSAT is the first dedicated Indian
Astronomy satellite mission not earth observatory
launched by ISRO on 28 September 2015, which
enabled multi-wavelength observations of the
celestial bodies and cosmic sources in X-ray and UV
spectral bands simultaneously. It is not correct.
III. NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
is a NASA-ISRO collaboration to co-develop and
deploy a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar
satellite for remote sensing not European space
agency ESA. It holds the distinction of being the first
dual-band radar imaging satellite.
Hence option A
28. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Solutions
Ans-b) Chandrayaan-3 rover will touch down in the
lunar south pole‘s Aitken basin. It is of particular
interest as it is thought to host numerous deposits of
subsurface water ice – a vital component for any
future sustainable lunar habitation.
[51]
29. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Ans c) The CE-20 cryogenic engine, which will
power the Cryogenic Upper Stage of the LVM3, a
flight acceptance hot test that was successfully
completed. A 25-second hot test was performed at
the ISRO Propulsion Complex in Mahendragiri,
Tamil Nadu.
30. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Ans c) K Sivan was the chairman of Isro from 2018-
2022. He also contributed to Chandrayan 2 and 3.
Chandrayan 2 eventually failed.
Section IV
PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option C.
Explanation: In the observation given by the Apex
Court,I and III are mentioned in the following lines:
―Common intention can be formed at the spur of the
moment and during the occurrence itself.‖
―Common intention is necessarily a psychological
fact and as such, direct evidence normally will not be
available.‖
Hence the correct option is C.
2. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option D.
Explanation: All the options are correct and can be
inferred from the passage.
Option A can be inferred from this line of the
passage- "Common intention can be formed at the
spur of the moment and during the occurrence itself.
Common intention is necessarily a psychological
fact and as such, direct evidence normally will not be
available."
Option B can be inferred from this line of the
passage- "Section 34 of the IPC makes a co-
perpetrator, who had participated in the offence,
equally liable on the principle of joint liability."
Optiom C can be inferred from this line of the
passage- "The High court partly allowed the appeal
filed by Gurbachan Singh on the ground that
common intention could not be inferred from his
conduct, as he was only armed with 'lathi' and had
struck only on the feet of Teja Singh."
Hence the correct option is D.
3. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option C.
Explanation: This can be inferred from the following
given in the passage: ―The High court partly allowed
the appeal filed by Gurbachan Singh on the ground
that common intention could not be inferred from his
conduct, as he was only armed with 'lathi' and had
struck only on the feet of Teja Singh.‖
Hence the correct option is C.
4. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Option B.
Explanation: This can be inferred from the following
given in the passage: ―the Apex court disagreed with
this finding of the High Court and observed that the
common intention to inflict injuries and cause the
death of Teja Singh, can be gathered from the
conduct and action of Gurbachan Singh.‖
Hence the correct option is B.
5. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option C.
Explanation: Common Intention is different from the
same or similar intention.
Hence the correct option is C.
[52]
PASSAGE II
6. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Option a – Statutory rape law is violated in
circumstance where an individual engages himself in
the sexual activity with a person under age of 18.
The law mandates that although she willingly engage
in sexual activity, the sex isn‘t consensual.
Option b – Intention to marry or any other plans are
immaterial to statutory rape. The law mandates that
although he or she willingly engage in sexual
activity, the sex isn‘t consensual.
Option c – Statutory rape law is violated in
circumstance where an individual engages himself in
the sexual activity with a person under age of 18.
The law mandates that although he or she willingly
engage in sexual activity, the sex isn‘t consensual.
Option d – Major partner‘s consent to the act is
immaterial and the aim of statutory rape laws is to
protect young minor females from males who might
exploit them.
Hence the correct option is C.
7. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Explanation:
Option a – The law does not talk about any
disclosure of age and does not place any burden on
the minor since they are incapable to taking
decisions for themselves. Thus, it was not Moina‘s
duty to disclose her age.
Option b – The only condition for statutory rape is
involvement of a minor woman in the intercourse.
This condition is fulfilled and no actions or
intentions are relevant to disprove statutory rape.
Option c – The bone of contention is not the
intended marriage on attaining majority but the act
of engaging in sexual intercourse with a minor.
Option d – The law does not talk about any liability
shift and the same cannot be assumed. Additionally,
her consent for sexual intercourse is immaterial.
Thus, the criminal liability cannot shift to Moina
since she has no legal obligation to prove anything.
Hence the correct option is B.
8. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation:
Option a – Kusha and Deepak both did not commit
statutory rape under the law in India. Only Deepak
committed the offence of statutory rape since Kusha
was a minor woman incapable of giving consent.
Option b – Deepak is criminally liable of statutory
rape but only because Kusha was a minor woman
and Deepak‘s age is immaterial to the case. His
minority does not negate his criminal offence.
Option c – Statutory rape law is violated in
circumstance where an individual engages himself in
the sexual activity with a person under age of 18.
Only Kusha was a victim of statutory rape and only
her consent is immaterial. The cause of Deepak‘s
acts does not save him from any criminal liability.
Option d – The passage does not talk about the
informant. Further, it does not bar 3rd parties from
informing the police.
Hence the correct option is C.
9. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation:
Option (a)– the age of consent and majority are not
dependent on the age of marriage. The age of
consent and majority remains 18 even if the law
regarding the age of marriage changes. Thus,
although Madhav and Mira were eligible to get
married under the new law, the consummation of
marriage remains illegal since Mira was 16 and had
not attained the age of majority.
Option (b) – the preponement of marriage of
marriage was legal since they were legally eligible to
be married under the same law. However, they could
not consummate the marriage until Mira has attained
[53]
 the age of majority. Thus, there is no relation of the
legality of preponement of marriage with the consent
age.
Option (c) – this option highlights the illegality of
the consummation of marriage and does not
formulate any relationship between the two ages.
Option (d) – Madhav and Mira were eligible to get
married under the new marriage law though their act
of consummation of marriage was illegal.
Hence the correct option is C.
10. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation:
Option (a) – It applies extra legal knowledge not
provided on the passage.
Option (b) – It applies extra legal knowledge not
provided on the passage.
Option (c) – Refer to ―The aim of statutory rape laws
is to protect young minor females from males who
might exploit them and do not take responsibility by
giving support for the child‖. Thus, it is a protection
against men leaving the minor girl after
impregnating them thus, leaving the burden of
raising the child on her.
Option (d) – It is inconsistent with the facts and
applies extra legal knowledge.
Hence the correct option is C.
PASSAGE III
11. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation: There is nothing in the facts that
suggests that all the three accused had the chance to
pre-arrange or a chance so that there could be a
meeting of minds. Thus, it cannot be said that there
was common intention. Thus, option C is correct. On
the same reasoning as there was no pre meeting of
mind thus options A and B stands incorrect. As C is
the correct answer with correct reasoning hence
option D is eliminated.
Hence the correct option is C.
12. Correct Option C
(H & S)
Explanation: Option A is incorrect as in the question
liability of A and B is asked. 2nd para last 5th line
states that it might happen during the occurrence of
the act as well. The intention is curated at any given
point in the action. Usually, an overt act would be
sufficient to show that there is common intention.
Last line also states that the law requires that the
accused must be present on the spot during the
occurrence of the crime and take part in its
commission; it is enough if he is present somewhere
nearby. On this reasoning Along with A, B shall also
be liable for the very fact that B was waiting for A to
stab and then run away with him in a jeep shows that
there was a meeting of minds and thus common
intention was formed. Thus option C is correct and
on same reasoning option B is incorrect.
Hence the correct option is C.
13. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Solutions
Explanation: Option D is correct, para last 5th line
states that it might happen during the occurrence of
the act as well. The intention is curated at any given
point in the action. Usually, an overt act would be
sufficient to show that there is common intention.
Last line also states that the law requires that the
accused must be present on the spot during the
occurrence of the crime and take part in its
commission; it is enough if he is present somewhere
nearby. On this reasoning it cannot be said that mere
joining of Chetan in the escape jeep amounts to
meeting of minds or pre-meditation. There was no
chance of a common intention being developed with
Chetan who was not aware of the stabbing in this
case. Thus option A is incorrect. On the same
[54]
 reasoning the correct answer is (d). Option B is
incorrect as Boru was waiting right next to the place
of murder on a jeep so that they can run away so
common intention was formed on the spot during the
occurrence of the crime. Hence option B is incorrect.
Option C does not provide appropriate legal
reasoning and passage is silent on self –defence.
Thus it stands cancelled.
Hence the correct option is D.
14. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option D.
Explanation: Since both A and B were adults (as
they loved each other for 25 years now), they had the
right to run away and marry each other. Thus, no
criminal act had been committed in the instant
case.The correct answer is option (d).Options A and
C are incorrect as 4th line of the 2nd para clearly
states that for common intention one of the basic
most requirements is that there must be some
criminal act. In present situation there is no criminal
act thus stands incorrect. Option B is incorrect as the
reasoning is not correct. They both have plannedto
get marry which shows pre-meditationbut getting
married is not a criminal act so it stands incorrect.
15. Correct OptionD
(H & S)
Option D.
Explanation: 4th line of the 2nd para of the passage
clearly states that one of the basic most requirements
is that there must be some criminal act. Such a
criminal act must be done by ―several persons.‖ Such
a criminal act however would not include acts which
are merely invalid in the law. An example would be
a minor man marrying a minor woman for the
marriage is merely void and not a crime. The
principle pertaining to the Marriage only renders a
marriage void. It does not state that marrying in such
manner is an offence. Thus, there is not a constituted
criminal act for common intention to apply. As a
result The correct answer is (d). on the same
reasoning Options A and C are incorrect. Option B is
incorrect as the reasoning is not correct. They both
have planned to get marry which shows pre-
meditation but getting married is not a criminal act
so it stands incorrect.
PASSAGE IV
16. Correct Option B
(H & S)
The correct option is b- No, he did not have the
intention to hit the old lady with the ball.
To hold a person liable for trespass, it is important to
establish that he had the intention of doing that act.
In this case, the intention is not there and thus
Shyam cannot be helped liable for trespass.
Option d is not consistent with the facts of the
situation and options a and c are not complying with
the information in the passage. Hence, options a,c
and d are incorrect.
Hence the correct option is B.
17. Correct Option D
(H & S)
Option a is a case of contributory negligence and
option b is a case of self-defence. Both of these can
be used as defences as inferred from the passage.
Option c is incorrect as a necessity can be taken up
as a defence as inferred from the passage.
Hence the correct option is D.
18. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is C- No, as Neha acted out of
necessity.
Even though Neha had the intention of pushing
Ayush, she did the act out of necessity, which is a
defence for trespass.
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 Thus, option C is correct and option A is incorrect.
Options b and d cannot be inferred from the passage
and are thus incorrect.
Hence the correct option is C.
19. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is C- Both 1 and 2.
Both the statements can be inferred from the passage
as trespass to person is the causing of apprehension
of unreasonable interference with one‘s person and
body as well as a third person and includes usage of
force causing damage and
impairment in the body. The trespasser, with an
ulterior intention, transgresses the right of another
and makes an alteration in it with the objective to
cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain as the case
may be.
20. Correct Option A
(H & S)
Solutions
The correct option is A- Ishaan's act of throwing
water at Hardik was intentional and thus, he can be
held liable for trespass002E
A is correct as intention is the main element for
establishing the tort of trespass. If there is an
intention behind committing a trespass then it is
actionable per se and the plaintiff need not prove that
any damage has been caused to him due to the act of
the accused. Thus, option B is incorrect. Option C is
incorrect as no trespass was done on the part of
Hardik and option D cannot be inferred from the
passage.
PASSAGE V
21. Correct Option D
(H & S)
The correct option is D- Both a and b.
Both the statements- a and b can be inferred from the
passage whereas option c cannot be inferred from the
passage.
22. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is C- No, the reason is unjustified
because the oversights committee has to purchase
and distribute the CCTVs.
Thus, options a, b and d are incorrect.
23. Correct Option B
(H & S)
The correct option is b- The state government under
Section 30 of the Human Rights Act, has the power
to establish district human rights courts.
Option b has been observed in the passage whereas it
has been stated that the Supreme Court and the High
Court do not have the authority to establish district
human rights courts. Tus, options a, c and d are
incorrect.
24. Correct Option B
(H & S)
The correct option is B- According to the guidelines
by the Supreme Court, CCTV footage can be stored
in any recording system wherein data is preserved
forever.
This statement is incorrect as according to the
Supreme Court, the recording has to be preserved for
a period of 18 months and not forever.
All other statements can be inferred from the
passage. Thus, options a, c and d are incorrect.
25. Correct Option C
(H & S)
The correct option is C- As per the guidelines of the
Supreme Court, CCTVs are to be installed in places
where the police conduct interrogation and the police
station is such a place.
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 treasure, it fulfils all the essential of theft. So, A
Option A is incorrect as CCTVs have to be installed liable for theft
in places where interrogation is conducted. Options b
and d are incorrect as it is necessary to install Section V
CCTVs in police stations. PASSAGE I
1. Correct Option B
PASSAGE VI (H & S)
26. Correct Option B English Hindi Science History Art
(H & S) Aman 90 120 135 75 80
Hence, the correct option is (B)The moment Mr. X
Baman 85 115 125 80 70
moved the bracelet from it‘s original position with
Chaman 40 60 80 120 130
the intention to steal it , he has committed theft ,
regardless of consent of Mr. Y or the fact that the
The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects = 90
necklace has not been moved out of Mr.Y‘s house
Total marks of Aman  5  100  500

27. Correct Option C Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500 - 420 =80

(H & S) Total marks obtained by Baman = 5  95  475

Hence, the correct option is (C)The farm house has Marks obtained by Baman in English

high walls, so taking something without consent be it = 475 - 115 – 125 – 80 - 70 = 85

be natural thing severed from the tree without Total marks obtained by Chaman = 5  80  400

consent , it amounts to theft, Marks obtained by Chaman in Science =

 3  60  3  100  400  480  400  80

28. Correct Option C 80: 85 =16: 17

(H & S)
Hence, the correct option is (C) Mrs. V is not liable 2. Correct Option C
for theft because mens rea or dishonest intention is (H & S)
one of the necessary ingredient to prove theft. Her English Hindi Science History Art
intentions were bonafide in nature ,her act doesn‘t Aman 90 120 135 75 80
amount to theft.
Baman 85 115 125 80 70

Chaman 40 60 80 120 130

29. Correct Option B
(H & S)
Hence, the correct option is (B) Mrs. Lata The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects = 90

dishonestly taken something out of the possession of Total marks of Aman  5  100  500

someone else, the jewels being the authority in this Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500 - 420 =80

case, would amount to act of theft. Total marks obtained by Baman = 5  95  475
Marks obtained by Baman in English

30. Correct Option D = 475 - 115 – 125 – 80 - 70 = 85

(H & S) Total marks obtained by Chaman = 5  80  400

Hence, the correct option is (D) As A dishonestly Marks obtained by Chaman in Science =
moves the bullock in a certain direction to take the  3  60  3  100  400  480  400  80

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Marks scored by Chaman in history = 75 + 25 =120 Marks obtained by Chaman in Science =
Percentage of marks scored by Chaman in history  3  60  3  100  400  480  400  80

120 Marks obtained by Chaman in Englsih =

= 100  80% 3  60  80  60  40
150
Required ratio = 40: 90 =4: 9
3. Correct Option D
(H & S) 5. Correct Option A
English Hindi Science History Art (H & S)

Aman 90 120 135 75 80 English Hindi Science History Art

Baman 85 115 125 80 70 Aman 90 120 135 75 80

Chaman 40 60 80 120 130 Baman 85 115 125 80 70

Chaman 40 60 80 120 130

The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects = 90
Total marks of Aman  5  100  500
Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500 - 420 =80
Total marks obtained by Baman = 5  95  475
Marks obtained by Baman in English
= 475 - 115 – 125 – 80 - 70 = 85
Total marks obtained by Chaman = 5  80  400
Marks obtained by Chaman in Science =
 3  60  3  100  400  480  400  80
Marks obtained by Chaman in Art =
3  110  80  120  130
Required ratio =115: 130 =23: 26
The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects = 90
Total marks of Aman  5  100  500
Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500 - 420 =80
Total marks obtained by Baman = 5  95  475
Marks obtained by Baman in English
= 475 - 115 – 125 – 80 - 70 = 85
Total marks obtained by Chaman = 5  80  400
Marks obtained by Chaman in Science =
 3  60  3  100  400  480  400  80
135  125  80 340
Required average =    113.33
3 3
PASSAGE II

4. Correct Option D 6. Correct Option B

(H & S) (H & S)

English Hindi Science History Art Selling price of article C = Marked price =1640
Ratio between selling price and cost price of article
Aman 90 120 135 75 80
C= 1.5 = 15/10= 3:2
Baman 85 115 125 80 70
2
Cost price of article C =  1640  1093.33 =1093
Chaman 40 60 80 120 130 3
approx.

The average marks obtained by Aman in all subjects = 90 Profit on C = 1640 -1093 = 547

Total marks of Aman  5  100  500 Selling price of article D = Marked price =2450
Marks obtained by Aman in Art = 500 - 420 =80 Ratio between selling price and cost price of article
Total marks obtained by Baman = 5  95  475 D= 1.8 =18/10=9:5

Marks obtained by Baman in English 5

Cost price of article C =  2450  1361 approx.
= 475 - 115 – 125 – 80 - 70 = 85 9

Total marks obtained by Chaman = 5  80  400 Profit on D = 2450 – 1361 =1089

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 Required difference =1089 -547 =542 Discount on C =1640 – 1230 = 410
The cost price of article E =0.20  2450 =490
7. Correct Option A The ratio between selling price and cost price of
(H & S) article E=1.6 =16/10=8:5
Selling price of article E = 2750 -250 =2500 8
The selling price of article E =  490  784
Ratio between selling price and cost price of article 5
E =1.6 =16/10 =8: 5 Discount on E =2750 -784 =1966
5 Total discount on article C and E together
Cost price of article E =  2500  1562.5
8 =1230 + 1966 = 3196
The ratio between cost price of article A and E = 3: 5 Total marked price of article C and E together
=1640 + 2750 =4390
3
Cost price of article A = 1562.5  937.5
5 3196
Required discount % = 100  72.8%
4390
Ratio between selling price and cost price of article
A =0.8= 8/10= 4:5

4 10. Correct Option C

Selling price of article A =  937.5  750
5 (H & S)
8. Correct Option D Selling price of article D = 0.8  2450 =1960

(H & S) Ratio between selling price and cost price of article

D =1.8 =18/10 =9: 5
Selling price of article D =0.8 x 2450 =1960
3 5
Selling price of article B =  1960  2940 Cost price of article D =  1960
2 9
Ratio between selling price of article B and cost Selling price of article E = 0.90  2750 =2475
price =1.2 =6: 5 Ratio between selling price and cost price of article
2940 E =1.6 =16/10 = 8:5
Cost price of article B =  5  2450
6 5
Cost price of article E =  2475
8
9. Correct Option C 5 5
Required ratio = 1960 :  2475 =3136: 4455
(H & S) 9 8
The cost price of article C =0.5  1640 =820
The ratio between selling price and cost price of
article C=1.5= 15: 10 =3: 2

3
Selling price of article C =  820  1230
2

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