MICROBIOLOGY DPP

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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
STERILIZATION 9. What is the optimum temperature in an
1. Which of the following is a method of autoclave to achieve sterility?
killing microorganisms with their spores? (a) 34°C for 30 minutes
(a) Sterilization (b) 60°C for 30 minutes
(b) Disinfection (c) 121°C for 30 minutes
(c) Flaming (d) 27°C for 20 minutes
(d) Incineration 10. Who among the following devised the
2. The best and safest method of autoclave used for sterilization?
sterilization is: (a) Charles Chamber land
(a) Immersion in chemical germicide (b) Robert Koch
(b) Flaming (c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(c) Autoclaving (d) Edward Jenner
(d) Boiling for 30 minutes 11. Gloves are sterilized by autoclaving for:
3. Autoclaving a means of sterilization will (a) 20 minutes at 250°F to 254° F
destroy (b) 30 minutes at 200°F to 204° F
(a) All microorganisms (c) 20 minutes at 200° F to 204° F
(b) Pathogenic microorganisms (d) 30 minutes at 250° F to 254° F
(c) Non-pathogenic microorganisms 12. For effective sterilization in the
(d) Just yeasts and molds autoclave, the temperature should be
4. Autoclave is a method of sterilization by: how much?
(a) Filtration (a) 121 deg F
(b) Moist heat (b) 121 deg C
(c) Dry heat (c) 100 deg F
(d) Radiation (d) 100 deg C
5. Lethal effect of moist heat is due to: 13. Time required for autoclaving at 15 lbs.
(a) Denaturation of proteins per square inch pressure & 121°C
(b) Cutting off of nutrient supply temperature is
(c) Toxic to mitochondria (a) 15 minutes
(d) Damage to DNA (b) 30 minutes
6. Unfolding of a protein is known as: (c) 20 minutes
(a) Degradation (d) 25 minutes
(b) Oxidation 14. Pressure set into autoclave for
(c) Phosphorylation sterilization is
(d) Denaturation (a) 15 lb
7. The following are the types of autoclave, (b) 5 lb
EXCEPT: (c) 10 lb
(a) Simple iron jacketed (d) 20 lb
(b) Low pressure low temperature 15. Which of following suture materials can
(c) High pressure High vacuum be autoclaved for sterilization?
(d) High pressure low vacuum (a) Silk & Linen
8. What are the values of temperature and (b) Catgut & Polyglactin
time employed for autoclave in a routine (c) PDS & Polyester
bacteriological laboratory? (d) Polyglycolic acid & Collagen
(a) 132°C for 8 minutes 16. Sterilization of surgical equipment is
(b) 140°C for 25 minutes done by
(C) 110°C for 30 minutes (a) Autoclave
(d) 121°C for 15 minutes (b) Formaldehyde
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
(c) Seitz filter (b) Phenols
(d) Radiation (c) Acids
17. Methods of sterilization for articles used (d) Aldehydes
into dressing 25. Which of the following chemical is most
(a) Hot air oven powerful disinfectant?
(b) Autoclave (a) Dettol
(c) Filtration (b) Phenol
(d) Chemical sterilization (c) Lysol
18. Which of the following destroys HIV? (d) KMnO4
(a) Savlon 26. Agent which kill pathogenic bacteria is
(b) Sodium hypochlorite called
(c) Lysol (a) Asepsis
(d) Dettol (b) Disinfectant
19. The solution used to disinfect the bed (c) Fomite
linen of HIV positive patient is: (d) Bacteriostat
(a) Dettol 27. Complete destruction of all
(b) Lysol microorganisms is affected by the use of
(c) Savlon (a) Antiseptic
(d) Sodium hypochlorite (b) Sterilant
20. HIV contaminated waste products can be (c) Disinfectant
de contaminated by the following agents (d) Detergent
except: 28. An agent that kills micro-organism is
(a) Sodium hypochlorite (a) Antiseptic
(b) Formaldehyde (b) Bacteriostatic
(c) Glutaraldehyde (c) Dettol
(d) Methanol (d) Bactericidal
21. Which of the following is used to destroy 29. ........are agents that prevent
HIV contamination caused by body fluids multiplication/ growth of bacteria.
of HIV patient? (a) Disinfectants
(a) Dettol (b) Bacteriostat
(b) Savlon (c) Antiseptics
(c) Sodium hypochlorite (d) Bactericides
(d) Lysol 30. Which of these paint is applied on skin as
22. To make an instrument free of HIV virus, antiseptic:
it is kept in (a) Gentian violet paint
(a) Spirit for 24 hours (b) Mandl's paint
(b) 2% Glutaraldehyde solution (c) Glycerine paint
(c) Savlon solution (1:100 strength) (d) Burger paint
(d) Hydrogen peroxide 31. Eusol is used for:
23. Recommended disinfectant used for (a) To stop cough
handling spills is: (b) To prevent jaundice
(a) 10% sodium hypochlorite (c) Dressing
(b) 1% sodium Hypochlorite (d) To dissolve medicines
(c) 5% Bleach Solution 32. Which of following is not a chemical
(d) 2% Bleach Solution disinfectant?
24. Cresol, Lysol and chloroxylenol are: (a) Glutaraldehyde
(a) Halogens (b) Lysol
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
(c) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Corynebacterium diphtheria
(d) Ethylene oxide (c) Spores of Mucor
33. Endoscopic instruments/catheters are (d) Bordetella pertussis
sterilized by: 41. Red heat is used for sterilization of:
(a) Autoclaving (a) Inoculating wires and loops
(b) Hot air oven (b) All-glass syringes
(c) Boiling (c) Soiled dressings
(d) 2% Glutaraldehyde (d) Glass slides
34. After doing all procedures the 42. Inoculating loop is sterilized by
instruments are sterilized, dry (a) Hot air oven
sterilization is used for: (b) Autoclave
(a) Cutting instruments and glass ware (c) Flaming
(b) Gauze and swabs (d) Radiation
(c) Gloves and syringes 43. The process by which, medium is placed
(d) Bed sheets and linen at 100°C in flowing steam for 30 minutes
35. Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one each on 3 successive days is:
hour is used for sterilization of: (a) Steam under pressure
(a) All-glass syringes (b) Autoclave
(b) Oils and jellies (C) Tyndallization
(c) Swab sticks (d) Inspissation
(d) All of the above 44. Natural agent for disinfection is:
36. Glass-wares are sterilized by hot air oven (a) Burning
at: (b) Boiling
(a) 110 C for 1 hour (c) Sunlight
(b) 120 C for 1 hour (d) Radiation
(c) 100 C for 1 hour 45. Best method to sterilize catheters
(d) 160 C for 1 hour (a) Fumigation
37. Sterilization of glass wares is done (b) Hot air sterilization
through (c) By ultra violet rays
(a) Dry heat (d) Boiling
(b) Fumigation 46. The best method that can be used to
(c) Moist heat sterilize a catheter is:
(d) Disinfection (a) Autoclave
38. The best method of sterilization of (b) Boiling
syringe is: (c) Fumigation
(a) Autoclave (d) Radiation
(b) Boiling 47. To sterilize disposable syringes, the
(c) Hot air oven method of sterilization used is:
(d) Radiation (a) Ethyloxide Autoclavation
39. The best method of sterilization of (b) Infra-red radiation
dressing powder is (c) Ultraviolet radiation
(a) Autoclaving (d) Gamma radiation
(b) Inspissation’s 48. Disposable syringes are sterilized by
(c) Hot air oven (a) Boiling
(d) Chemical method (b) Ultraviolet radiation
40. Efficiency of dry heat is tested using: (c) Electromagnetic radiation
(a) Clostridium tetani (d) Ethylene oxide
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
49. The gas used for fumigation of operation 57. Boiling water helps in killing all
theatres and ward is organisms except one
(a) CO2 (a) Fungi
(b) O2 (b) Bacteria
(c) Formaldehyde (c) Protozoa
(d) Nitrogen (d) Spores
50. Which substance is used in Fumigation? 58. A condition of being free from pathogenic
(a) Potassium Permanganate organisms or infection:
(b) Hydrogen Peroxide (a) Asepsis
(c) Bleaching Powder (b) Antisepsis
(d) Povidone iodine (c) Apathogenesis
51. Fumigation is sterilization by means of: (d) Disinfection
(a) UV rays 59. Which of the following is a commonly
(b) Steam used ' antiseptic?
(c) Dry heat (a) Savlon
(d) Gases (b) Cidex
52. Fumigation with formalin vapor is (c) Sodium chloride
commonly used to sterilize and disinfect (d) Phenol
(a) Operation room
(b) Scrubbing room 1. [a] 2. [c] 3. [a] 4. [b] 5. [a]
(c) Nursing room 6. [d] 7. [d] 8. [d] 9. [c] 10. [a]
(d) Sterilization room 11. [a] 12. [b] 13. [a] 14. [a] 15. [a]
53. Which method is not use in sterilization 16. [a] 17. [b] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [d]
of syringes and needles?
21. [c] 22. [b] 23. [a] 24. [b] 25. [b]
(a) Antiseptic solutions
26. [b] 27. [c] 28. [a] 29. [b] 30. [a]
(b) Autoclaving
(c) Boiling 31. [c] 32. [d] 33. [d] 34. [a] 35. [a]
(d) Steam sterilization 36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [c] 39. [c] 40. [a]
54. Which of the following item is NOT 41. [a] 42. [c] 43. [c] 44. [c] 45. [c]
sterilized by antiseptic solution? 46. [d] 47. [d] 48. [a] 49. [c] 50. [a]
(a) Suction Catheter 51. [d] 52. [a] 53. [a] 54. [c] 55. [b]
(b) Enema tube 56. [a] 57. [d] 58. [a] 59. [a]
(C) Surgical scissor
(d) Nasogastric tube
55. Sharp instruments should not be
sterilized by
(a) Autoclaving
(b) Boiling
(c) Hot air oven
(d) Antiseptic solution
56. What is the minimum contact period for
sterilization of AMBU bag with 2%
Glutaraldehyde?
(a) 6 hrs.
(b) 12 hrs.
(c) 24 hrs.
(d) 48 hrs.
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
MICROORGANISM (d) Robert Koch
1. Mycology is the study of 9. Who discovered vibrio cholera?
(a) Fungi (a) Robert Koch
(b) Virus (b) Ronald Ross
(c) Bacteria (c) A Necholaier
(d) Nucleic acid (d) Alexander Fleming
5. Organism which are responsible to 10. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was
produce disease, are known as: identified by
(a) Pathogen (a) Van Helmholtz
(b) Glycogen (b) Robert Koch
(c) Lactogenic (c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Nitrogen (d) Van Lueowenhock
3. Most microbial structures and enzymes in 11. Robert Koch discovered the etiologic
human beings are composed of agent of
(a) Lipids (a) Typhoid
(b) Proteins (b) Small pox
(c) Carbohydrates (c) Tuberculosis
(d) Minerals (d) Polio
4. The total genetic material of an organism 12. Who found the link between cholera and
is known as contaminated water?
(a) Gene (a) Louis Pasteur
(b) Genetic (b) Ronald Ross
(c) Genotype (c) Edward Jenner
(d) Genome (d) John Snow
5. Father of genetics is: 13. Life cycle of malaria parasite was first
(a) Mendel described by:
(b) Darwin (a) Ronald Ross
(c) Muller (b) Robert Koch
(d) Bateson (c) Louis Pasteur
6. The father of Microbiology is: (d) Banting and Best
(a) Louis Pasteur 14. One of the following scientist
(b) Lister demonstrated transmission of malarial
(c) A.V. Leeuwenhoek parasites by bite of Anopheles mosquito
(d) Robert Koch is:
7. Germ cell theory was proposed by (a) E. von Behring
(a) Robert Koch (b) Ziehl-Neelsen
(b) Ronald Ross (c) Sir, Ronald Ross
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Elberth
(d) Walter Reed
8. Which of the following pioneers of 1. [a] 2. [a] 3. [b] 4. [d] 5. [a]
Microbiology is credited with the 6. [a] 7. [c] 8. [a] 9. [a] 10. [b]
discovery of microorganisms using high 11. [c] 12. [d] 13. [a] 14. [c]
quality magnifying lenses (early
microscopes)?
(a) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Robert Hooke
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
VIROLOGY
1. Who discovered virus in biology?
(a) Robert Koch
(b) Dmitri Ivanovsky
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Edward Jenner
2. Viruses require ..............for growth
(a) Plants
(b) Bacteria
(c) Living cells
(d) Animals
3. Growth of influenza virus is identified by
(a) Cytopathic effects only
(b) HeLa cells only
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these
4. A person shows production of interferon
in his body. The possibility is that he has
got an infection of:
(a) Tetanus
(b) Typhoid
(c) Measles
(d) Malaria
5. Cytokines are chemical messengers
which
(a) Kill microorganisms
(b) Promote inflammation
(c) Cause severe pain
(d) Produce antibodies
6. Which one is a DNA VIRUS?
(a) Hepatitis-B
(b) Rhabdovirus
(c) Arbovirus
(d) None of above
7. Which one of the following is a DNA
virus?
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Hepatitis D

1. [b] 2. [c] 3. [c] 4. [c] 5. [b]

6. [a] 7. [b]

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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
BACTERIOLOGY 8. Which phase is maximum multiplication
1. Which among following bacteria is resulting in increased population of
consider as a link between bacteria and bacteria with reduced generation time?
virus? (a) Lag phase
(a) Mycoplasma (b) Decline phase
(b) Spirochetes (c) Log phase
(c) Actinomycetes (d) Stationary phase
(d) Vibrio’s 9. All of the following occur in the
2. Which of the following organism lacks the stationary phase of bacterial growth
cell wall? curve except
(a) Staphylococci (a) Cells show uniform and regular staining
(b) Mycoplasma (b) Cells show presence of intra-cellular
(c) Spirochetes storage granules
(d) Actinomycetes (c) Spores are seen
3. The following factors influence microbial (d) Exotoxins are formed
growth except – 10. Genera that needs pyridoxal for growth
(a) Temperature is.
(b) Moisture (a) Pedi coccus
(c) Darkness (b) Aero coccus
(d) Disinfection (c) Granulicatella
4. Which of the following is needed by all (d) Enterococcus
the pathogens to multiply? 11. A rapid grower among the following is:
(a) Moisture (a) Mycobacterium abscesses
(b) Light (b) Mycobacterium avium
(c) A Host (c) Mycobacterium gordonae
(d) Oxygen (d) Mycobacterium bovis
5. The optimum temperature for the growth 12. A cluster of polar flagella is called
of most pathogenic bacteria is (a) Lophotrichous
(a) 25° C (b) Amphitrichous
(b) 30°C (c) Monotrichous
(c) 37°C (d) Peritrichous
(d) 42° C 13. Which among the following is a
6. Thermophilic bacteria grow at following filamentous bacteria?
minimum temperature: (a) Mycoplasma
(a) 20°C (b) Spirochetes
(b) 35°C (c) Actinomycetes
(c) 55°C (d) Vibrio’s
(d) 85° C 14. The organ of adhesion is:
7. The correct order of the phases in the (a) nucleus
bacterial growth curve is: (b) Fimbriae
(a) Lag → exponential decline → stationary (c) Mitochondria
(b) Lag-exponential/logstationary → decline (d) Flagella
(c) Lag → decline → exponential stationary 15. Which of the following structures
(d) Lag → stationary → exponential → contains genes for enzymes and
decline antibiotic resistance?
(a) Plasmid
(b) Pilus
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
(c) Capsule (c) Gentamycin
(d) Plasma Membrane (d) Vancomycin
16. The most common method of 23. All green plants and bacteria which can
reproduction of bacteria is synthesize their food by photosynthesis
(a) Binary fission come under the category of
(b) Budding (a) Decomposers
(c) Sexual (b) Intakers
(d) Spore formation (c) Producers
17. Image obtained in a compound (d) Food givers
microscope is which of the following? 24. When cold temperature prohibits the
(a) Real growth and reproduction of bacteria is
(b) Real inverted known as:
(c) Virtual (a) Bacteriostatic
(d) Virtual inverted (b) Bactericidal
18. The principle structural component of cell (c) Aerobic
wall in bacteria is (d) Anaerobic
(a) Simple protein 25. Which of the following is non-pathogenic
(b) Peptidoglycan organism?
(c) Glycoprotein (a) Mycobacterium bovis
(d) Complex polysaccharide (b) Mycobacterium avium
19. Rod-shaped bacteria are called: (c) Mycobacterium sinegmatis
(a) Cocci (d) Mycobacterium intracellular
(b) Clusters 26. Which of the following microorganisms
(c) Spirochetes stain well?
(d) Bacillus (a) Escherichia coli
20. A client is diagnosed with MRSA infection (b) Legionella pneumophila
of surgical wound, which type of isolation (c) Treponema
is most appropriate for the client? (d) Chlamydia
(a) Contact isolation 27. Which of the following is not a gram-
(b) Standard precautions negative bug?
(c) Reverse isolation (a) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Respiratory isolation (b) Vibrio cholerae
21. The term MRSA in bacteriology stands (c) Bordetella pertussis
for: (d) Escherichia coli
(a) Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus 28. One of the following bacteria have
aureus capability to form spores is:
(b) Methicillin Reactive Staphylococcus (a) Diplococci
aureus (b) Neisseria
(c) Multidrug Resistant Staphylococcus (c) Vibrio
aureus (d) Clostridium
(d)Methicillin resistant Streptococcus 29. Which among the following is a Gram
anginosus positive organism?
22. The drug of choice for methicillin (a) Clostridium Botulinum
resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) (b) Klebsiella Pneumoniae
is: (c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(a) Clindamycin (d) Acinetobacter baumannii
(b) Erythromycin
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
30. Which of the following pathogens causes 37. Most commonly used bacterium for
gas gangrene? genetic engineering is
(a) Mycoplasma (a) E. Coli
(b) Clostridium perfringens (b) Klebsiella
(c) Enterovirus (c) Proteios
(d) Vibrio cholerae (d) Serratia
31. Which is an example of gram negative 38. Depending upon their oxygen
organisms? requirement and metabolism Cholera
(a) Staphylococcus aureus species are
(b) Listeria monocytogenes (a) Obligate aerobes
(c) Vibrio cholerae (b) Facultative anaerobes
(d) Streptococcus pneumonia (c) Microaerophilic
32. In following which is a gram positive (d) Obligate anaerobes
bacilli 39. All of the following diseases are caused
(a) Corynebacterium by anaerobic bacteria except
(b) Proteus (a) Tetanus
(c) Pseudomonas (b) Gas gangrene
(d) E. coli (c) Diphtheria
33. Greenish color of pus from ulcer is due to (d) Food poisoning
infection by 40. Klebs Loffler bacillus is name given to
(a) Proteus which bacteria
(b) Clostridium (a) Clostridium Tetany
(c) Staphylococcus (b) Haemophilus influenza
(d) Pseudomonas (c) Corynebacterium diphtheria
34. Non digestible food ingredients that (d) Lactobacillus
stimulate the growth and activity of 41. Which one of the disease is not caused by
certain bacteria in the colon are called: an Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB)
(a) Insoluble fiber (a) Leprosy
(b) Probiotics (b) Tuberculosis
(c) Prebiotic (C) Nocardiasis
(d) Cellulose (d) Typhoid
35. Products that contain live 42. An acid-fast bacillus which is pathogenic:
microorganisms in sufficient numbers to (a) Bacillus pertussis
alter intestinal microflora and promote (b) Coryne bacterium diphtheria
intestinal microbial balance are known (c) Mycobacterium leprae
as: (d) Salmonella typhi
(a) Antibiotics 43. One of the following organisms causes
(b) Fruits and vegetables food intoxication in milk, meat and
(c) Probiotic FES cheese:
(d) Digestive enzymes (a) Streptococcus
36. Which of the following is not true (b) Salmonella
concerning Staphylococcus aureus? (c) Clostridium Botulinum
(a) S. aureus is related to inflammation. (d) Staphylococcus
(b) S. aureus can cause pneumonia 44. Enterotoxin food poisoning mainly
(c) S. aureus can lead to acute bacterial caused by
endocarditis (a) Salmonella
(d) S. aureus does not make coagulase (b) Staphylococcus
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
(c) Streptococci (c) After blood is taken for culture
(d) Pseudomonas (d) After morning hygiene
45. Food intoxication due to canned food is 52. Client who has highest risk of
caused by: bacteraemia is:
(a) Staphylococcus (a) Client with peripherally inserted central
(b) Clostridium Botulinum catheter
(c) Streptococcus (b) Client with Central Venous Catheter
(d) Salmonella (c) Client with Peripheral cut down
46. Common source of infection for botulism (d) Client with Peripherally inserted I/V line
(a) Infected egg 53. The following statement are TRUE in
(b) Contact with infectious animal reference to endotoxins, EXCEPT
(c) Contaminated water (a) They are lipopolysaccharides in nature
(d) Bottle packed vegetables (b) They are released from the bacterial
47. The client presents to the emergency surface by natural Lysis
department with acute poisoning (c) They are heat liable proteins
suspected to be botulism poisoning after (d) Their toxicity depends in the lipid
eating at a fast food restaurant. Which component
nursing problem is the highest priority 54. Endotoxins produced by gram negative
for their client? bacteria are usually:
(a) Fluid volume loss (a) Proteins
(b) Risk for respiratory paralysis (b) Fatty acids
(c) Abdominal pain (c) Lecithin
(d) Anxiety (d) Lipopolysaccharide
48. Bacillus cereus food poisoning is 55. Why EDTA is not suitable for calcium
commonly associated with the estimation?
consumption of: (a) It will destroy calcium
(a) Green beans (b) Binds the calcium which is needed for
(b) Bottled honey coagulation
(c) Fried rice (c) Calcium concentration will increase
(d) Baked potato (d) All of these
49. Signs of a local infection include 56. Allergic reactions caused by
(a) Redness, pain, swelling and decreased environmental allergens is known as
temperature (a) Anaphylactic reactions
(b) Increase and decreased blood pressure (b) Atopic reactions
(c) Redness, pain and swelling of the area (c) Cytotoxic reactions
(d) Increased temperature, pain, redness (d) Immune complex reactions
and decreased urine output 57. Tissue injury followed by acute
50. Septicaemia is: inflammation and marked neutrophil
(a) Spread of organism in blood stream reaction leads to
(b) Invasion and multiplication of bacteria in (a) Resolution
blood stream (b) Fibrosis
(c) Spread of toxic product in blood stream (c) Suppuration
(d) Process of pus formation (d) Chronic inflammation
51. When should prescribed antibiotics be 58. The process of neutrophilic infiltrate in
administered to septicemic patient? tissue and necrosis formation is known as
(a) After admission (a) Septicaemia
(b) After getting blood culture result (b) Bacteraemia
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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
(c) Cellulitis
(d) Abscess formation
59. Pseudo-hyphae are seen in:
(a) Penicillium
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Candida
60. All are parts of light microscope EXCEPT
(a) Condenser
(b) Eye-piece
(c) Slide with cover slip
(d) Objective lens

1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [a] 5. [c]

6. [c] 7. [b] 8. [c] 9. [b] 10. [c]
11. [a] 12. [a] 13. [c] 14. [b] 15. [a]
16. [a] 17. [d] 18. [b] 19. [d] 20. [a]
21. [a] 22. [d] 23. [c] 24. [a] 25. [c]
26. [a] 27. [a] 28. [d] 29. [a] 30. [b]
31. [c] 32. [a] 33. [d] 34. [c] 35. [c]
36. [d] 37. [a] 38. [b] 39. [c] 40. [c]
41. [d] 42. [c] 43. [d] 44. [b] 45. [b]
46. [d] 47. [b] 48. [c] 49. [c] 50. [a]
51. [a] 52. [b] 53. [c] 54. [d] 55. [b]
56. [b] 57. [c] 58. [d] 59. [d] 60. [c]

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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
STAINING
1. The bacteria that retain the stain in
Gram's Method of staining is a:
(a) Gram negative bacteria.
(b) Spores of bacteria.
(c) Broad spectrum bacteria.
(d) Gram positive bacteria.
2. Which stain used to identify acid fast
bacilli (AFB)
(a) Leishman's
(b) Ziehl-Neelsen
(c) Gram's
(d) Right's
3. Which of the following stain is used to
detect Mycobacterium species?
(a) Gram stain
(b) Capsule stain
(c) Acid fast stain
(d) Endospore stain
4. Staining technique used in RNTCP:
(a) Ziehl Nelson Stain
(b) Gram stain
(c) PAS
(d) Ghensa stain
5. Which condition is identified by Ziehl
Neelsen technique?
(a) Typhoid
(b) Syphilis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Malaria

1. [d] 2. [b] 3. [c] 4. [a] 5. [c]

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MICROBIOLOGY DPP
MICROBIAL CULTURE 1. [a] 2. [b] 3. [d] 4. [c] 5. [c]
& CULTURE MEDIA 6. [a]
1. The nurse is obtaining a sample from
wound for culture. The patient asks what
a culture is. Which of the following is the
best response by the nurse to explain
what a culture is?
(a) A culture identifies presence of
pathogens
(b) It is for measuring antibiotic levels
(c) It identifies antibiotic's effect on
pathogen
(d) It determines appropriate medication
dosage
2. Growth and multiplication of
microorganism is known as:
(a) Staining
(b) Culture
(c) Isolation
(d) Autoclaving
3. What is the name of the medium that
changes colour when bacterium grows in
it?
(a) Enriched medium
(b) Enrichment medium
(c) Selective medium
(d) Indicator medium
4. Antibiotic sensitivity is usually done on
(a) Mac Conkey Agar
(b) Blood agar
(c) Mueller- Hinton Agar
(d) Chocolate agar
5. The media used to grow fastidious
bacteria is
(a) Peptone water
(b) Tetrathhionate broth
(c) Chocolate agar
(d) Meat extract broth
6. A chemically defined determinant that
change into complete antigen on
combining with a carrier molecule is:
(a) Haptens
(b) Complement
(c) Phagocytes
(d) Epitope

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