EE2007 Merged

2012 Question Booklet Code A
EE : ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that the Question Booklet Code
printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with the Booklet Code on the ORS,
exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 20 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks
questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The
answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then
the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
8. Questions Q.56 – Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2 marks each.
9. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
10. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
11. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
question paper for rough work.
12. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration Number EE
EE-A 1/20
2012 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING - EE
Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Two independent random variables X and Y are uniformly distributed in the interval [–1,1]. The
probability that max[X, Y] is less than 1 2 is
(A) 3 4 (B) 9 16 (C) 1 4 (D) 2 3

Q.2 If x   1 , then the value of x isx
(A) e  / 2 (B) e / 2 (C) x (D) 1

Q.3 Given
1 2
f ( z)   . If C is a counterclockwise path in the z-plane such that z  1  1 , the value
z 1 z  3
1
of 
2 j C
f ( z ) dz is
(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2

Q.4 In the circuit shown below, the current through the inductor is
j1 W
1W
1 0A
1 0V 1 0V
- + + -
1 0A
- j1 W 1W
2 1 1
(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) 0 A
1 j 1 j 1 j
Q.5 The impedance looking into nodes 1 and 2 in the given circuit is
ib
1kW 99ib
9kW
1
100W
2
(A) 50 W (B) 100 W (C) 5 kW (D) 10.1 kW

Q.6 A system with transfer function
( s 2  9 ) ( s  2)
G( s) 
( s  1) ( s  3) ( s  4)
is excited by sin ( t ) . The steady-state output of the system is zero at
(A)   1 rad/s (B)   2 rad/s
(C)   3 rad/s (D)   4 rad/s
EE-A 2/20
Q.7 In the sum of products function f ( X , Y , Z )  (2, 3, 4, 5) , the prime implicants are
(A) X Y , X Y (B) X Y , X Y Z , X Y Z
(C) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y (D) X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z , X Y Z
If x [n]  (1 / 3)  (1 / 2) n u[n] , then the region of convergence (ROC) of its Z-transform in the
n
Q.8
Z-plane will be
(A) 1
3
 z 3 (B) 1
3
 z  1
2
(C) 1
2
 z 3 (D) 1
3
 z
Q.9 The bus admittance matrix of a three-bus three-line system is

 13 10 5 
Y  j 10  18 10 

 
 5 10  13
If each transmission line between the two buses is represented by an equivalent network, the
magnitude of the shunt susceptance of the line connecting bus 1 and 2 is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
Q.10 The slip of an induction motor normally does not depend on

(A) rotor speed (B) synchronous speed
(C) shaft torque (D) core-loss component
Q.11 A two-phase load draws the following phase currents: i1 (t )  I m sin( t  1 ) ,

i2 (t )  I m cos( t  2 ) . These currents are balanced if 1 is equal to
(A)  2 (B) 2 (C) ( / 2  2 ) (D) ( / 2  2 )
Q.12 A periodic voltage waveform observed on an oscilloscope across a load is shown. A permanent
magnet moving coil (PMMC) meter connected across the same load reads
v(t)
10V
5V
0 10 12 20
time (ms)
-5V
(A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 8 V (D) 10 V
Q.13 The bridge method commonly used for finding mutual inductance is
(A) Heaviside Campbell bridge (B) Schering bridge
(C) De Sauty bridge (D) Wien bridge
EE-A 3/20
Q.14 With initial condition x(1)  0.5 , the solution of the differential equation
dx
t  x  t is
dt
(A) x  t 
1
(B) x  t 2 
1 t2 (D) x 
t
(C) x 
2 2 2 2
1
Q.15 The unilateral Laplace transform of f (t) is . The unilateral Laplace transform of t f (t ) is
s  s 1
2
s 2s  1
(A)  (B) 
( s  s  1) 2
2
( s  s  1) 2
2
s 2s  1
(C) (D)
( s  s  1) 2
2
( s  s  1) 2
2
Q.16 The average power delivered to an impedance (4  j3) Wby a current 5cos(100 t  100) A is
(A) 44.2 W (B) 50 W (C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W
Q.17 In the following figure, C1 and C2 are ideal capacitors. C1 has been charged to 12 V before the ideal
switch S is closed at t = 0. The current i(t) for all t is
S t =0
C1 C2
i(t)
(A) zero (B) a step function

(C) an exponentially decaying function (D) an impulse function
Q.18 The i-v characteristics of the diode in the circuit given below are
 v  0.7
 A, v  0.7 V
i   500

 0 A, v  0.7 V
The current in the circuit is
1kW
i
+ +
v
- 10V -
(A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA (C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA
Q.19 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2-bit input A is greater than the 2-bit
input B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1, is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-A 4/20
Q.20 Consider the given circuit.

A
CLK
B
In this circuit, the race around
(A) does not occur (B) occurs when CLK = 0
(C) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 1 (D) occurs when CLK = 1 and A = B = 0
Q.21 The figure shows a two-generator system supplying a load of PD = 40 MW, connected at bus 2.
Bus 1 Bus 2
G1 G2
PG2
PG1
PD = 40 MW
The fuel cost of generators G1 and G2 are :
C1 ( PG1 )  10,000 Rs / MWh and C2 ( PG 2 )  12,500 Rs / MWh
and the loss in the line is Ploss( pu)  0.5 PG21 ( pu) , where the loss coefficient is specified in pu on a
100 MVA base. The most economic power generation schedule in MW is
(A) PG1 = 20, PG2 = 22 (B) PG1 = 22, PG2 = 20
(C) PG1 = 20, PG2 = 20 (D) PG1 = 0, PG2 = 40
Q.22 The sequence components of the fault current are as follows: Ipositive = j1.5 pu, Inegative = –j0.5 pu,
Izero = –j1 pu. The type of fault in the system is
(A) LG (B) LL (C) LLG (D) LLLG
Q.23 A half-controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an R-L load. It is operated at a firing
angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the freewheeling diode
conducts is
(A) 1
2

(B) 1  
  (C) 
2
(D) 

Q.24 The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A thyristor is

(A) 5.0
(B) 2.0
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.5
EE-A 5/20
Q.25 For the circuit shown in the figure, the voltage and current expressions are
v(t )  E1 sin ( t )  E3 sin (3 t ) and i (t )  I1 sin ( t  1 )  I 3 sin (3 t  3 )  I 5 sin (5 t ) .
The average power measured by the Wattmeter is
i(t)
+ Wattmeter
Load
v(t)
1 1
(A) E1 I 1 cos1 (B) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E1 I 3 cos3  E1 I 5 ]
2 2
1 1
(C) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E3 I 3 cos3 ] (D) [ E1 I 1 cos1  E3 I 1 cos1 ]
2 2
Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 Given that
 5  3 1 0
A  and I    , the value of A 3 is
2 0 0 1 
(A) 15 A + 12 I (B) 19 A + 30 I
(C) 17 A + 15 I (D) 17 A + 21 I
Q.27 The maximum value of f ( x)  x 3  9 x 2  24 x  5 in the interval [1, 6] is
(A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 41 (D) 46
Q.28 If VA  VB  6 V, then VC  VD is
R VA 2W VB R
R -
R R
10 V
R 1W R
+
R
+ - VC VD
5V 2A
(A) –5 V (B) 2 V (C) 3 V (D) 6 V
EE-A 6/20
Q.29 The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is

13.7 Volts
12kW
C vo
100kW
C
b=100
vi 10kW
(A) Av  200 (B) Av  100 (C) Av  20 (D) Av  10
Q.30 The state transition diagram for the logic circuit shown is
2-1 MUX
D Q
X1
Y
CLK X0
Q Select
A=1 A=0 A=0 A=0
A=1 A=1
(A) (B)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=0 A=1
A=0 A=1 A=1 A=1
A=0 A=0
(C) (D)
Q=0 Q=1 Q=0 Q=1
A=1 A=0
Q.31 Let y[n] denote the convolution of h[n] and g[n], where h [n]  (1 / 2) n u[n] and g[n] is a causal
sequence. If y[0] = 1 and y[1] = 1/2, then g[1] equals
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 3/2
EE-A 7/20
Q.32 The circuit shown is a

R2
C R1 +5V
+ - +
Input Output
- + -
-5V
1
(A) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C
1
(B) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(C) low pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
R1C
1
(D) high pass filter with f3dB = rad/s
( R1  R2 ) C
Q.33 For the system shown below, SD1 and SD2 are complex power demands at bus 1 and bus 2
respectively. If V2  1 pu , the VAR rating of the capacitor (QG2) connected at bus 2 is
Bus 1 Bus 2
V1=1 0 pu V2
SG1
Z = j 0.5 p.u
pu QG2
SD1 = 1 pu SD2 = 1 pu
(A) 0.2 pu (B) 0.268 pu (C) 0.312 pu (D) 0.4 pu

Q.34 A cylindrical rotor generator delivers 0.5 pu power in the steady-state to an infinite bus through a
transmission line of reactance 0.5 pu. The generator no-load voltage is 1.5 pu and the infinite bus
voltage is 1 pu. The inertia constant of the generator is 5 MW-s/MVA and the generator reactance
is 1 pu. The critical clearing angle, in degrees, for a three-phase dead short circuit fault at the
generator terminal is
(A) 53.5 (B) 60.2 (C) 70.8 (D) 79.6
Q.35 In the circuit shown, an ideal switch S is operated at 100 kHz with a duty ratio of 50 %. Given that
Δic is 1.6 A peak-to-peak and I0 is 5 A dc, the peak current in S is
S
L +
∆ic I0
+ v0
- 24 V D C
R
-
(A) 6.6 A (B) 5.0 A (C) 5.8 A (D) 4.2 A
EE-A 8/20
Q.36 A 220 V, 15 kW, 1000 rpm shunt motor with armature resistance of 0.25 W has a rated line current
of 68 A and a rated field current of 2.2 A. The change in field flux required to obtain a speed of
1600 rpm while drawing a line current of 52.8 A and a field current of 1.8 A is
(A) 18.18 % increase (B) 18.18 % decrease (C) 36.36 % increase (D) 36.36 % decrease
Q.37 A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of
required tosses is odd, is
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 3/4
Q.38 The direction of vector A is radially outward from the origin, with A  k r n where
r 2  x 2  y 2  z 2 and k is a constant. The value of n for which   A  0 is
(A) –2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
Q.39 Consider the differential equation

d 2 y (t ) dy(t ) dy
2
2  y (t )   (t ) with y (t ) t 0 
 2 and  0.
dt dt dt t 0
dy
The numerical value of is
dt t 0
(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1
Q.40 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is
transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
2W R
+ - j1 W +
10 V 3V
- -
Circuit A Circuit B
(A) 0.8 W (B) 1.4 W (C) 2 W (D) 2.8 W
Q.41 The state variable description of an LTI system is given by

 x1   0 a1 0   x1   0 
      
 x 2    0 0 a 2   x2    0  u
 x   a    
 3   3 0 0   x3   1 
 x1 
 
y  1 0 0  x2 
x 
 3
where y is the output and u is the input. The system is controllable for
(A) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (B) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0
(C) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0 (D) a1  0 , a 2  0 , a3  0
EE-A 9/20
Q.42 The Fourier transform of a signal h(t) is H ( j )  (2 cos) (sin 2) /  . The value of h(0) is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.43 The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when
R(s) + K ( s  1) Y(s)
s  as 2  2 s  1
3
(A) K = 2 and a = 0.75 (B) K = 3 and a = 0.75

(C) K = 4 and a = 0.5 (D) K = 2 and a = 0.5
Q.44 The input x(t) and output y(t) of a system are related as y (t )   x( ) cos(3 ) d .

The system is
(A) time-invariant and stable (B) stable and not time-invariant

(C) time-invariant and not stable (D) not time-invariant and not stable
Q.45 An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting of 20 kWit reads
440 V and with a multiplier setting of 80 kWit reads 352 V. For a multiplier setting of 40 kW the
voltmeter reads
(A) 371 V (B) 383 V (C) 394 V (D) 406 V
Q.46 The locked rotor current in a 3-phase, star connected 15 kW, 4-pole, 230 V, 50 Hz induction motor
at rated conditions is 50 A. Neglecting losses and magnetizing current, the approximate locked
rotor line current drawn when the motor is connected to a 236 V, 57 Hz supply is
(A) 58.5 A (B) 45.0 A (C) 42.7 A (D) 55.6 A
Q.47 A single phase 10 kVA, 50 Hz transformer with 1 kV primary winding draws 0.5 A and 55 W, at
rated voltage and frequency, on no load. A second transformer has a core with all its linear
dimensions 2 times the corresponding dimensions of the first transformer. The core material and
lamination thickness are the same in both transformers. The primary windings of both the
transformers have the same number of turns. If a rated voltage of 2 kV at 50 Hz is applied to the
primary of the second transformer, then the no load current and power, respectively, are
(A) 0.7 A, 77.8 W (B) 0.7 A, 155.6 W (C) 1 A, 110 W (D) 1 A, 220 W
EE-A 10/20
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

In the 3-phase inverter circuit shown, the load is balanced and the gating scheme is 1800-conduction mode.
All the switching devices are ideal.
S1 S3 S5
+ vph R=20 Ω
- Vd
R
S4 S6 S2
R
3-phase inverter 3-phase balanced load
Q.48 The rms value of load phase voltage is

(A) 106.1 V (B) 141.4 V (C) 212.2 V (D) 282.8 V
Q.49 If the dc bus voltage Vd =300 V, the power consumed by 3-phase load is
(A) 1.5 kW (B) 2.0 kW (C) 2.5 kW (D) 3.0 kW
With 10 V dc connected at port A in the linear nonreciprocal two-port network shown below, the following
were observed:
(i) 1 W connected at port B draws a current of 3 A

(ii) 2.5 W connected at port B draws a current of 2 A
+
A B
-
Q.50 For the same network, with 6 V dc connected at port A, 1 W connected at port B draws 7/3 A.
If 8 V dc is connected to port A, the open circuit voltage at port B is
(A) 6 V (B) 7 V (C) 8 V (D) 9 V
Q.51 With 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7 W connected at port B is
(A) 3/7 A (B) 5/7 A (C) 1 A (D) 9/7 A
EE-A 11/20
Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
In the circuit shown, the three voltmeter readings are V1  220 V , V2  122 V , V3  136 V .
R I
V2
RL
Load
V1 V3
X
Q.52 The power factor of the load is

(A) 0.45 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.55 (D) 0.60
Q.53 If RL  5 W , the approximate power consumption in the load is
(A) 700 W (B) 750 W (C) 800 W (D) 850 W
The transfer function of a compensator is given as

sa
Gc ( s )  .
sb
Q.54 Gc (s) is a lead compensator if
(A) a =1, b = 2 (B) a = 3, b = 2

(C) a = –3, b = –1 (D) a = 3, b = 1
Q.55 The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at
(A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) 6 rad/s (D) 1 / 3 rad/s
EE-A 12/20
General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)

Q.56 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?
I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow
Q.57 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =

(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64
Q.58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken
Q.59 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance
Q.60 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness
Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Q.61 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16
EE-A 13/20
Q.62 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.
Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.
Q.63 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10
Q.64 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.65 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.
Category Amount (Rs.)

Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800
The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is

(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
EE-A 14/20
GATE 2012 ‐ Answer Key ‐ Paper : EE
Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

EE 1 B C A D
EE 2 A Marks to All B D
EE 3 C D D B
EE 4 C C A D
EE 5 A A B D
EE 6 C A C B
EE 7 A B A A
EE 8 C D C A
EE 9 B D A C
EE 10 D B C D
EE 11 B D C Marks to All
EE 12 A D B C
EE 13 A B C A
EE 14 D D A B
EE 15 D B Marks to All C
EE 16 B A D C
EE 17 D C C A
EE 18 D C A C
EE 19 B A A A
EE 20 A A B C
EE 21 A A D B
EE 22 C C D D
EE 23 D C B B
EE 24 Marks to All B D A
EE 25 C A D A
EE 26 B B D Marks to All
EE 27 C Marks to All C C
EE 28 A Marks to All D D
EE 29 D D B A
EE 30 D A B D
EE 31 A C A C
EE 32 B D D A
EE 33 B A D D
EE 34 D D A Marks to All
EE 35 C Marks to All C Marks to All
EE 36 D C B B
EE 37 C D B B
EE 38 Marks to All C Marks to All C
EE 39 D D Marks to All A
EE 40 A B D D
GATE 2012 ‐ Answer Key ‐ Paper : EE
Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

EE 41 D B A D
EE 42 C A C A
EE 43 A D D B
EE 44 D D A B
EE 45 Marks to All A D D
EE 46 Marks to All C Marks to All D
EE 47 B B C C
EE 48 B C C D
EE 49 D C C B
EE 50 C D B C
EE 51 C B D C
EE 52 A A A A
EE 53 B A B A
EE 54 A A A A
EE 55 A B A B
EE 56 B D B B
EE 57 D D A D
EE 58 A B B D
EE 59 D A D B
EE 60 B B D A
EE 61 C A D C
EE 62 A A A A
EE 63 A D C A
EE 64 A A A D
EE 65 D C A A
SESSION - 1
2013 Question Booklet Code
A
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that either:
a. The Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with
the Question Booklet Code at the right hand top corner of the ORS or
b. The Question Paper Code preceding the Registration number on the ORS is not EE,
then exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet.
3. On the right half hand side of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen, (i) darken the
appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number,
your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location.
permitted to open the seal, check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ballpoint pen
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ballpoint pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the
bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted,
then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
9. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE
marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks
questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked
answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no
negative marks for wrong answer to the second question.
11. Rough work can be done on the Question Booklet itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the
Question Booklet for rough work.
below using a black ink ballpoint pen.
Name
EE-A 1/20
Q.1 to Q.25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 In the circuit shown below what is the output voltage (Vout) in Volts if a silicon transistor Q and an
ideal op-amp are used?
(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15
Q.2 V2 ( s )
The transfer function of the circuit shown below is
V1 ( s )
0.5 s + 1 3s + 6
(A) (B)
s +1 s+2
s+2 s +1
(C) (D)
s +1 s+2
Q.3 Assuming zero initial condition, the response y (t ) of the system given below to a unit step input
u (t ) is
(D) e −t u (t )
2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t )
2
Q.4 The impulse response of a system is h(t ) = t u (t ) . For an input u (t − 1) , the output is
2 t (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2 2 2
EE-A 2/20
Q.5 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE for a continuous time causal and stable
LTI system?
(A) All the poles of the system must lie on the left side of the jω axis.
(B) Zeros of the system can lie anywhere in the s-plane.
(C) All the poles must lie within s = 1.
(D) All the roots of the characteristic equation must be located on the left side of the jω axis.
Q.6 Two systems with impulse responses h1 (t ) and h2 (t ) are connected in cascade. Then the overall
impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(A) product of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )

(B) sum of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(C) convolution of h1 (t ) and h2 (t )
(D) subtraction of h2 (t ) from h1 (t )
Q.7 A source vs (t ) = V cos100π t has an internal impedance of (4 + j3) Ω. If a purely resistive load
connected to this source has to extract the maximum power out of the source, its value in Ω should
be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
Q.8 A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing from the
load to the source is 10∠ − 1500 A and if the voltage at the load terminals is 100∠600 V, then the
(A) load absorbs real power and delivers reactive power.
(B) load absorbs real power and absorbs reactive power.
(C) load delivers real power and delivers reactive power.
(D) load delivers real power and absorbs reactive power.
Q.9 A single-phase transformer has no-load loss of 64 W, as obtained from an open-circuit test. When a
short-circuit test is performed on it with 90% of the rated currents flowing in its both LV and HV
windings, the measured loss is 81 W. The transformer has maximum efficiency when operated at
(A) 50.0% of the rated current.
(B) 64.0% of the rated current.
(C) 80.0% of the rated current.
(D) 88.8% of the rated current.
Q.10 The flux density at a point in space is given by B = 4 x a x + 2ky a y + 8 a z Wb/m2. The value of
constant k must be equal to
(A) –2 (B) –0.5 (C) +0.5 (D) +2
Q.11 A continuous random variable X has a probability density function f ( x) = e − x , 0 < x < ∞ . Then
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
EE-A 3/20
Q.12 The curl of the gradient of the scalar field defined by V = 2 x 2 y + 3 y 2 z + 4 z 2 x is
(A) 4 xy a x + 6 yz a y + 8 zx a z
(B) 4 a x + 6 a y + 8 a z
( ) ( ) (
(C) 4 xy + 4 z 2 a x + 2 x 2 + 6 yz a y + 3 y 2 + 8 zx a z )
(D) 0
Q.13 In the feedback network shown below, if the feedback factor k is increased, then the
+ v + + vout
in v1 A0 –
– –
vf = kvout+ k +
– –
(A) input impedance increases and output impedance decreases.

(B) input impedance increases and output impedance also increases.
(C) input impedance decreases and output impedance also decreases.
(D) input impedance decreases and output impedance increases.
Q.14 The input impedance of the permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) voltmeter is infinite.
Assuming that the diode shown in the figure below is ideal, the reading of the voltmeter in Volts is
(A) 4.46 (B) 3.15 (C) 2.23 (D) 0
EE-A 4/20
Q.15 The Bode plot of a transfer function G (s ) is shown in the figure below.
Gain (dB)
The gain (20 log G ( s ) ) is 32 dB and –8 dB at 1 rad/s and 10 rad/s respectively. The phase is
negative for all ω. Then G (s) is
39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s2 s s2
Q.16 A bulb in a staircase has two switches, one switch being at the ground floor and the other one at the
first floor. The bulb can be turned ON and also can be turned OFF by any one of the switches
irrespective of the state of the other switch. The logic of switching of the bulb resembles
(A) an AND gate (B) an OR gate (C) an XOR gate (D) a NAND gate
Q.17 For a periodic signal v(t ) = 30 sin 100 t + 10 cos 300 t + 6 sin (500 t + π / 4) , the fundamental
frequency in rad/s is
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
Q.18 A band-limited signal with a maximum frequency of 5 kHz is to be sampled. According to the
sampling theorem, the sampling frequency in kHz which is not valid is
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
Q.19 Consider a delta connection of resistors and its equivalent star connection as shown below. If all
elements of the delta connection are scaled by a factor k, k > 0, the elements of the corresponding
star equivalent will be scaled by a factor of
Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA
(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k
EE-A 5/20
Q.20 The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the

(A) angle between stator voltage and current.
(B) angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator.
(C) angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating axis.
(D) angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously rotating axis.
Q.21 Leakage flux in an induction motor is
(A) flux that leaks through the machine
(B) flux that links both stator and rotor windings
(C) flux that links none of the windings
(D) flux that links the stator winding or the rotor winding but not both
Q.22 Three moving iron type voltmeters are connected as shown below. Voltmeter readings are
V , V1 and V2 , as indicated. The correct relation among the voltmeter readings is
V1 V2
(A) V = + (B) V = V1 + V2 (C) V = VV
1 2 (D) V = V2 − V1
2 2
Q.23 Square roots of −i , where i = −1 , are

(A) i, –i
π π 3π 3π
(B) cos( − ) + i sin( − ), cos( ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
π 3π 3π π
(C) cos( ) + i sin( ), cos( ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
3π 3π 3π 3π
(D) cos( ) + i sin( − ), cos( − ) + i sin( )
4 4 4 4
Given a vector field F = y x a x − yz a y − x a z , the line integral ∫ F ⋅ d l evaluated along a segment
2 2
Q.24
on the x-axis from x = 1 to x = 2 is
(A) –2.33 (B) 0 (C) 2.33 (D) 7
Q.25 2 − 2  x1  0
The equation     =   has
1 − 1   x2  0
(A) no solution
 x  0
(B) only one solution  1  =  
 x2  0
(C) non-zero unique solution
(D) multiple solutions
EE-A 6/20
Q.26 to Q.55 carry two marks each.

Q.26 A strain gauge forms one arm of the bridge shown in the figure below and has a nominal resistance
without any load as Rs = 300 Ω. Other bridge resistances are R1 = R2 = R3 = 300 Ω. The maximum
permissible current through the strain gauge is 20 mA. During certain measurement when the
bridge is excited by maximum permissible voltage and the strain gauge resistance is increased by
1% over the nominal value, the output voltage V0 in mV is
Rs R1
V0
+ ‐ +
Vi ‐
R3 R2
(A) 56.02 (B) 40.83 (C) 29.85 (D) 10.02
Q.27 In the circuit shown below, the knee current of the ideal Zener diode is 10 mA. To maintain 5 V
across RL, the minimum value of RL in Ω and the minimum power rating of the Zener diode in mW
respectively are
(A) 125 and 125 (B) 125 and 250 (C) 250 and 125 (D) 250 and 250
ω (s) 10
Q.28 The open-loop transfer function of a dc motor is given as = . When connected in
Va ( s) 1 + 10 s
feedback as shown below, the approximate value of K a that will reduce the time constant of the
closed loop system by one hundred times as compared to that of the open-loop system is
R(s) Va(s) 10 ω(s)

+_ Ka
1+10s
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100

EE-A 7/20
Q.29 In the circuit shown below, if the source voltage VS = 100∠53.13° V then the Thevenin’s equivalent
voltage in Volts as seen by the load resistance RL is
3Ω j4 Ω j6 Ω 5Ω
VL1
VS j40I2 10VL1 RL=10 Ω
I1 I2
(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°
Q.30 Three capacitors C1, C2, and C3, whose values are 10µF, 5µF, and 2µF respectively, have
breakdown voltages of 10V, 5V, and 2V respectively. For the interconnection shown, the maximum
safe voltage in Volts that can be applied across the combination and the corresponding total charge
in µC stored in the effective capacitance across the terminals are respectively
C2 C3
C1
(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119
(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80
Q.31 A voltage 1000 sin ω t Volts is applied across YZ. Assuming ideal diodes, the voltage measured
across WX in Volts is
1kΩ
W Y X
Z
+ 1kΩ _
(A) sin ω t (B) (sin ω t + sin ω t ) / 2

(C) (sin ω t − sin ω t ) / 2 (D) 0 for all t
EE-A 8/20
Q.32 The separately excited dc motor in the figure below has a rated armature current of 20 A and a rated
armature voltage of 150 V. An ideal chopper switching at 5 kHz is used to control the armature
voltage. If La= 0.1 mH, Ra= 1 Ω, neglecting armature reaction, the duty ratio of the chopper to
obtain 50% of the rated torque at the rated speed and the rated field current is
200 V La ,Ra
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
Q.33 For a power system network with n nodes, Z33 of its bus impedance matrix is j0.5 per unit. The
voltage at node 3 is 1.3 ∠–10° per unit. If a capacitor having reactance of –j3.5 per unit is now
added to the network between node 3 and the reference node, the current drawn by the capacitor per
unit is
(A) 0.325 ∠–100° (B) 0.325 ∠80° (C) 0.371 ∠–100° (D) 0.433 ∠80°
Q.34 A dielectric slab with 500 mm × 500 mm cross-section is 0.4 m long. The slab is subjected to a uniform
electric field of E = 6 a x + 8 a y kV/mm. The relative permittivity of the dielectric material is equal to
2. The value of constant ε 0 is 8.85 × 10−12 F/m. The energy stored in the dielectric in Joules is
(A) 8.85 × 10–11 (B) 8.85 × 10–5 (C) 88.5 (D) 885
1 1 
Q.35 A matrix has eigenvalues –1 and –2. The corresponding eigenvectors are   and  
−1 − 2
respectively. The matrix is
1 1  1 2 − 1 0  0 1
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
− 1 − 2 − 2 − 4  0 − 2 − 2 − 3
z2 − 4
Q.36
∫ dz evaluated anticlockwise around the circle z − i = 2 , where i = −1 , is
z2 + 4
(A) −4π (B) 0 (C) 2 + π (D) 2 + 2i
EE-A 9/20
Q.37 The clock frequency applied to the digital circuit shown in the figure below is 1 kHz. If the initial
state of the output Q of the flip-flop is ‘0’, then the frequency of the output waveform Q in kHz is
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
Q.38 In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and the diode
drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vcc is +5 V, X and Y are digital signals
with 0 V as logic 0 and Vcc as logic 1, then the Boolean expression for Z is
(A) X Y (B) X Y (C) X Y (D) XY
Q.39 In the circuit shown below the op-amps are ideal. Then Vout in Volts is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-A 10/20
Y (s)
Q.40 The signal flow graph for a system is given below. The transfer function for this system is
U ( s)
s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s + 6s + 2
2
s + 6s + 2
2
s +1 1
(C) (D)
s + 4s + 2
2
5s + 6s + 2
2
Q.41 The impulse response of a continuous time system is given by h(t ) = δ (t − 1) + δ (t − 3) . The value
of the step response at t = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Q.42 Two magnetically uncoupled inductive coils have Q factors q1 and q2 at the chosen operating
frequency. Their respective resistances are R1 and R2. When connected in series, their effective
Q factor at the same operating frequency is
(A) q1 R1 + q2 R2 (B) q1 / R1 + q2 / R2
(C) (q1R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) q1R2 + q2 R1
Q.43 The following arrangement consists of an ideal transformer and an attenuator which attenuates
by a factor of 0.8. An ac voltage VWX 1 = 100V is applied across WX to get an open circuit voltage
VYZ 1 across YZ. Next, an ac voltage VYZ 2 = 100V is applied across YZ to get an open circuit
voltage VWX 2 across WX. Then, VYZ 1 / VWX 1 , VWX 2 / VYZ 2 are respectively,
W
1:1.25
Y
X Z
(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100

(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
EE-A 11/20
Q.44 Thyristor T in the figure below is initially off and is triggered with a single pulse of width 10 µs. It
is given that L = (100π
) µ H and C = (100π )µ F. Assuming latching and holding currents of the
thyristor are both zero and the initial charge on C is zero, T conducts for
+ L
T
15 V C
‐
(A) 10 µs (B) 50 µs (C) 100 µs (D) 200 µs
Q.45 A 4-pole induction motor, supplied by a slightly unbalanced three-phase 50 Hz source, is rotating at
1440 rpm. The electrical frequency in Hz of the induced negative sequence current in the rotor is
(A) 100 (B) 98 (C) 52 (D) 48
Q.46 A function y = 5 x 2 + 10 x is defined over an open interval x = (1, 2) . At least at one point in this
dy
interval, is exactly
dx
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
When the Newton-Raphson method is applied to solve the equation f ( x ) = x + 2 x − 1 = 0, the

3
Q.47
solution at the end of the first iteration with the initial guess value as x0 = 1.2 is
(A) –0.82 (B) 0.49 (C) 0.705 (D) 1.69

In the figure shown below, the chopper feeds a resistive load from a battery source. MOSFET Q is
switched at 250 kHz, with a duty ratio of 0.4. All elements of the circuit are assumed to be ideal.
100 µH
12 V 470 µF
Q 20 Ω
Q.48 The average source current in Amps in steady-state is
(A) 3/2 (B) 5/3 (C) 5/2 (D) 15/4
Q.49 The PEAK-TO-PEAK source current ripple in Amps is
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.144 (C) 0.192 (D) 0.288

EE-A 12/20
The state variable formulation of a system is given as

 x&1  − 2 0   x1  1  x1 
 x&  =  0 − 1  x  + 1 u , x1 (0) = 0, x 2 (0) = 0 and y = [1 0]  x 
 2    2    2
Q.50 The system is
(A) controllable but not observable
(B) not controllable but observable
(C) both controllable and observable
(D) both not controllable and not observable
Q.51 The response y (t ) to a unit step input is
1 1 −2 t 1 −2 t 1 − t
(A) − e (B) 1 − e − e
2 2 2 2
(C) e −2 t − e − t (D) 1 − e − t

In the following network, the voltage magnitudes at all buses are equal to 1 p.u., the voltage phase angles
are very small, and the line resistances are negligible. All the line reactances are equal to j1 Ω.
Bus 1(slack) j1 Ω Bus 2
P2=0.1 pu
j1 Ω j1 Ω
Bus 3
P3=0.2 pu
Q.52 The voltage phase angles in rad at buses 2 and 3 are

(A) θ 2 = −0.1, θ3 = −0.2
(B) θ 2 = 0, θ3 = −0.1
(C) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.1
(D) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.2
Q.53 If the base impedance and the line-to-line base voltage are 100 Ω and 100 kV, respectively, then the
real power in MW delivered by the generator connected at the slack bus is
(A) −10 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 20
EE-A 13/20

The Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) shown in the figure below is switched to provide a 50 Hz, square-wave
ac output voltage (vo) across an R-L load. Reference polarity of vo and reference direction of the output
current io are indicated in the figure. It is given that R = 3 Ω , L = 9.55 mH .
Q1 Q3
D1 D3 L
V dc + vo io R
Q4 Q2 ‐
D4 D2
Q.54 In the interval when v 0 < 0 and i0 > 0 the pair of devices which conducts the load current is
(A) Q1, Q2 (B) Q3, Q4 (C) D1, D2 (D) D3, D4
Q.55 Appropriate transition i.e., Zero Voltage Switching (ZVS)/Zero Current Switching (ZCS) of the
IGBTs during turn-on/turn-off is
(A) ZVS during turn-off (B) ZVS during turn-on
(C) ZCS during turn-off (D) ZCS during turn-on
EE-A 14/20
General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.56 They were requested not to quarrel with others.
Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word quarrel?
(A) make out (B) call out (C) dig out (D) fall out
Q.57 In the summer of 2012, in New Delhi, the mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 41°C
and of Tuesday to Thursday was 43°C. If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher than that of
Monday, then the temperature in °C on Thursday was
(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49
Q.58 Complete the sentence:

Dare _______________ mistakes.
(A) commit (B) to commit (C) committed (D) committing
Q.59 Choose the grammatically CORRECT sentence:

(A) Two and two add four.
(B) Two and two become four.
(C) Two and two are four.
(D) Two and two make four.
Q.60 Statement: You can always give me a ring whenever you need.
Which one of the following is the best inference from the above statement?
(A) Because I have a nice caller tune.
(B) Because I have a better telephone facility.
(C) Because a friend in need is a friend indeed.
(D) Because you need not pay towards the telephone bills when you give me a ring.

Q.61 What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7
Q.62 Statement: There were different streams of freedom movements in colonial India carried out by the
moderates, liberals, radicals, socialists, and so on.
(A) The emergence of nationalism in colonial India led to our Independence.
(B) Nationalism in India emerged in the context of colonialism.
(C) Nationalism in India is homogeneous.
(D) Nationalism in India is heterogeneous.
Q.63 The set of values of p for which the roots of the equation 3x2+2x+p(p–1) = 0 are of opposite sign is
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)
EE-A 15/20
Q.64 A car travels 8 km in the first quarter of an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km in the third
quarter. The average speed of the car in km per hour over the entire journey is
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
Q.65 Find the sum to n terms of the series 10+84+ 734 + .....
(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n − 1 )+ n 2
EE-A 16/20
SESSION - 2
B
Name
EE-B 1/20

(A) 4.46 (B) 3.15 (C) 2.23 (D) 0
+ v + + vout
in v1 A0 –
– –
vf = kvout+ k +
– –

EE-B 2/20
Gain (dB)
39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s2 s s2
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA
(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k
EE-B 3/20

V1 V2
(A) V = + (B) V = V1 + V2 (C) V = VV
1 2 (D) V = V2 − V1
2 2

(A) i, –i
π π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
π 3π 3π π
4 4 4 4
3π 3π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
Q.12 2 − 2  x1  0
1 − 1   x2  0
(A) no solution
 x  0
 x2  0

2 2
Q.13
(A) –2.33 (B) 0 (C) 2.33 (D) 7
EE-B 4/20
(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15
Q.15 V2 ( s )
V1 ( s )
0.5 s + 1 3s + 6
(A) (B)
s +1 s+2
s+2 s +1
(C) (D)
s +1 s+2
u (t ) is
(D) e −t u (t )
2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t )
2
2 t (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2 2 2
EE-B 5/20
LTI system?
be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
(A) –2 (B) –0.5 (C) +0.5 (D) +2
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
Q.25 The curl of the gradient of the scalar field defined by V = 2 x y + 3 y z + 4 z 2 x is
2 2
(A) 4 xy a x + 6 yz a y + 8 zx a z
(B) 4 a x + 6 a y + 8 a z
( ) ( ) ( )
(C) 4 xy + 4 z 2 a x + 2 x 2 + 6 yz a y + 3 y 2 + 8 zx a z
(D) 0
EE-B 6/20
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-B 7/20
Y (s)
U ( s)
s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s + 6s + 2
2
s + 6s + 2
2
s +1 1
(C) (D)
s + 4s + 2
2
5s + 6s + 2
2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
(A) q1 R1 + q2 R2 (B) q1 / R1 + q2 / R2
(C) (q1R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) q1R2 + q2 R1
W
1:1.25
Y
X Z
(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100

(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
EE-B 8/20
+ L
T
15 V C
‐
(A) 10 µs (B) 50 µs (C) 100 µs (D) 200 µs
(A) 100 (B) 98 (C) 52 (D) 48
dy
dx
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35

3
Q.36
(A) –0.82 (B) 0.49 (C) 0.705 (D) 1.69
Rs R1
V0
+ ‐ +
Vi ‐
R3 R2
(A) 56.02 (B) 40.83 (C) 29.85 (D) 10.02
EE-B 9/20
respectively are
ω (s) 10
V a ( s ) 1 + 10 s
R(s) Va(s) 10 ω(s)

+_ Ka
1+10s
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100
VL1
I1 I2
(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°
EE-B 10/20
C2 C3
C1
(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119
(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80
1kΩ
W Y X
Z
+ 1kΩ _

200 V La ,Ra
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
unit is
(A) 0.325 ∠–100° (B) 0.325 ∠80° (C) 0.371 ∠–100° (D) 0.433 ∠80°
EE-B 11/20
2. The value of constant ε 0 is 8.85 × 10 −12 F/m. The energy stored in the dielectric in Joules is
(A) 8.85 × 10–11 (B) 8.85 × 10–5 (C) 88.5 (D) 885
1 1 
−1
  − 2
1 1  1 2 − 1 0  0 1
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
− 1 − 2 − 2 − 4  0 − 2 − 2 − 3
z2 − 4
Q.47
z2 + 4
(A) −4π (B) 0 (C) 2 + π (D) 2 + 2i


 x&1  − 2 0   x1  1  x1 
 x&  =  0 − 1  x  + 1 u , x1 (0) = 0, x 2 (0) = 0 and y = [1 0]  x 
 2    2    2
Q.48 The system is
1 1 −2 t 1 −2 t 1 − t
(A) − e (B) 1 − e − e
2 2 2 2
(C) e −2 t − e − t (D) 1 − e − t
EE-B 12/20
100 µH
12 V 470 µF
Q 20 Ω
(A) 3/2 (B) 5/3 (C) 5/2 (D) 15/4
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.144 (C) 0.192 (D) 0.288

Q1 Q3
D1 D3 L
Vdc + vo io R
Q4 Q2 ‐
D4 D2
(A) Q1, Q2 (B) Q3, Q4 (C) D1, D2 (D) D3, D4
EE-B 13/20

P2=0.1 pu
j1 Ω j1 Ω
Bus 3
P3=0.2 pu

(A) θ 2 = −0.1, θ3 = −0.2
(B) θ 2 = 0, θ3 = −0.1
(C) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.1
(D) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.2
(A) −10 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 20
EE-B 14/20


(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49

(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7
(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1 ) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+ n 2
EE-B 15/20
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
EE-B 16/20
SESSION - 3
C
Name
EE-C 1/20
(A) 4 xy a x + 6 yz a y + 8 zx a z
(B) 4 a x + 6 a y + 8 a z
( ) ( ) ( )
(C) 4 xy + 4 z 2 a x + 2 x 2 + 6 yz a y + 3 y 2 + 8 zx a z
(D) 0
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
(A) –2 (B) –0.5 (C) +0.5 (D) +2
be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

EE-C 2/20
LTI system?
2 t (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2 2 2
u (t ) is
(D) e −t u (t )
2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t )
2
Q.11 V2 ( s )
V1 ( s )
0.5 s + 1 3s + 6
(A) (B)
s +1 s+2
s+2 s +1
(C) (D)
s +1 s+2
EE-C 3/20
(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15
Q.13 2 − 2  x1  0
1 − 1   x2  0
(A) no solution
 x  0
 x2  0

2 2
Q.14
(A) –2.33 (B) 0 (C) 2.33 (D) 7

(A) i, –i
π π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
π 3π 3π π
4 4 4 4
3π 3π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
EE-C 4/20
V1 V2
(A) V = + (B) V = V1 + V2 (C) V = VV
1 2 (D) V = V2 − V1
2 2
Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA
(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k

(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
EE-C 5/20
40
32
20
0
1 10 100
‐8 ω (rad/s)
39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s2 s s2
(A) 4.46 (B) 3.15 (C) 2.23 (D) 0


EE-C 6/20
1 1 
−1 − 2
1 1  1 2 − 1 0  0 1
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
− 1 − 2 − 2 − 4  0 − 2 − 2 − 3
z2 − 4
Q.27
z2 + 4
(A) −4π (B) 0 (C) 2 + π (D) 2 + 2i
(A) 8.85 × 10–11 (B) 8.85 × 10–5 (C) 88.5 (D) 885
unit is
(A) 0.325 ∠–100° (B) 0.325 ∠80° (C) 0.371 ∠–100° (D) 0.433 ∠80°
200 V La ,Ra
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
EE-C 7/20
1kΩ
W Y X
Z
+ 1kΩ _

C2 C3
C1
(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119
(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80
VL1
I1 I2
(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°
EE-C 8/20
ω (s) 10
V a ( s ) 1 + 10 s
R(s) Va(s) 10 ω(s)

+_ Ka
1+10s
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100
respectively are
Rs R1
V0
+ ‐ +
Vi ‐
R3 R2
(A) 56.02 (B) 40.83 (C) 29.85 (D) 10.02
EE-C 9/20

3
Q.37
(A) –0.82 (B) 0.49 (C) 0.705 (D) 1.69
dy
dx
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
(A) 100 (B) 98 (C) 52 (D) 48
+ L
T
15 V C
‐
(A) 10 µs (B) 50 µs (C) 100 µs (D) 200 µs
W
1:1.25
Y
X Z
(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100

(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
(A) q1 R1 + q2 R2 (B) q1 / R1 + q2 / R2
(C) (q1R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) q1R2 + q2 R1
EE-C 10/20
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Y (s)
U ( s)
s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s2 + 6s + 2 s2 + 6 s + 2
s +1 1
(C) (D)
s2 + 4 s + 2 5s2 + 6s + 2
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-C 11/20
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2


100 µH
12 V 470 µF
Q 20 Ω
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.144 (C) 0.192 (D) 0.288
(A) 3/2 (B) 5/3 (C) 5/2 (D) 15/4

EE-C 12/20

 x&1  − 2 0   x1  1  x1 
 x&  =  0 − 1  x  + 1 u , x1 (0) = 0, x 2 (0) = 0 and y = [1 0]  x 
 2    2    2
1 1 −2 t 1 −2 t 1 − t
(A) − e (B) 1 − e − e
2 2 2 2
(C) e −2 t − e − t (D) 1 − e − t
Q.51 The system is


Q1 Q3
D1 D3 L
V dc + vo io R
Q4 Q2 ‐
D4 D2
(A) Q1, Q2 (B) Q3, Q4 (C) D1, D2 (D) D3, D4
EE-C 13/20

P2=0.1 pu
j1 Ω j1 Ω
Bus 3
P3=0.2 pu

(A) θ 2 = −0.1, θ3 = −0.2
(B) θ 2 = 0, θ3 = −0.1
(C) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.1
(D) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.2
(A) −10 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 20
EE-C 14/20




(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49

(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1 ) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+ n 2
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)
EE-C 15/20
(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7
EE-C 16/20
SESSION - 4
D
Name
EE-D 1/20

2 2
Q.1
(A) –2.33 (B) 0 (C) 2.33 (D) 7
Q.2 2 − 2  x1  0
1 − 1   x2  0
(A) no solution
 x  0
 x2  0

(A) i, –i
π π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
π 3π 3π π
4 4 4 4
3π 3π 3π 3π
4 4 4 4
V1 V2
(A) V = + (B) V = V1 + V2 (C) V = VV
1 2 (D) V = V2 − V1
2 2
EE-D 2/20
Ra RC RB
Rb Rc
RA
(A) k2 (B) k (C) 1/k (D) k
(A) 5 (B) 12 (C) 15 (D) 20
(A) 100 (B) 300 (C) 500 (D) 1500
Gain (dB)
39.8 39.8 32 32
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s 2 s s2
EE-D 3/20
+ v + + vout
in v1 A0 –
– –
vf = kvout+ k +
– –

(A) 4.46 (B) 3.15 (C) 2.23 (D) 0
(A) 4 xy a x + 6 yz a y + 8 zx a z
(B) 4 a x + 6 a y + 8 a z
( ) ( ) (
(C) 4 xy + 4 z 2 a x + 2 x 2 + 6 yz a y + 3 y 2 + 8 zx a z )
(D) 0
P { X > 1} is
(A) 0.368 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.632 (D) 1.0
(A) –2 (B) –0.5 (C) +0.5 (D) +2
EE-D 4/20
be
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

LTI system?
2 t (t − 1) (t − 1) 2 t2 −1
(A) t u (t ) (B) u (t − 1) (C) u (t − 1) (D) u (t − 1)
2 2 2 2
EE-D 5/20
u (t ) is
(D) e −t u (t )
2
(A) u (t ) (B) t u (t ) (C) t u (t )
2
Q.24 V2 ( s )
V1 ( s )
0.5 s + 1 3s + 6
(A) (B)
s +1 s+2
s+2 s +1
(C) (D)
s +1 s+2
(A) 15 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.7 (D) 15
EE-D 6/20

3
Q.26
(A) –0.82 (B) 0.49 (C) 0.705 (D) 1.69

dy
dx
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 35
(A) 100 (B) 98 (C) 52 (D) 48
+ L
T
15 V C
-
(A) 10 µs (B) 50 µs (C) 100 µs (D) 200 µs
W
1:1.25
Y
X Z
(A) 125/100 and 80/100 (B) 100/100 and 80/100

(C) 100/100 and 100/100 (D) 80/100 and 80/100
(A) q1 R1 + q2 R2 (B) q1 / R1 + q2 / R2
(C) (q1R1 + q2 R2 ) / ( R1 + R2 ) (D) q1R2 + q2 R1
EE-D 7/20
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Y (s)
U ( s)
s +1 s +1
(A) (B)
5s2 + 6s + 2 s2 + 6 s + 2
s +1 1
(C) (D)
s2 + 4 s + 2 5s2 + 6s + 2
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
EE-D 8/20
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
z2 − 4
Q.37
z2 + 4
(A) −4π (B) 0 (C) 2 + π (D) 2 + 2i
1 1 
−1
  − 2
1 1  1 2 − 1 0  0 1
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
− 1 − 2 − 2 − 4  0 − 2 − 2 − 3
(A) 8.85 × 10–11 (B) 8.85 × 10–5 (C) 88.5 (D) 885
EE-D 9/20
unit is
(A) 0.325 ∠–100° (B) 0.325 ∠80° (C) 0.371 ∠–100° (D) 0.433 ∠80°
200 V La ,Ra
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
1kΩ
W Y X
Z
+ 1kΩ _

C2 C3
C1
(A) 2.8 and 36 (B) 7 and 119
(C) 2.8 and 32 (D) 7 and 80
EE-D 10/20
VL1
I1 I2
(A) 100∠90° (B) 800∠0° (C) 800∠90° (D) 100∠60°
ω (s)
10
V a ( s ) 1 + 10 s
R(s) Va(s) 10 ω(s)

+_ Ka
1+10s
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 100
respectively are
EE-D 11/20
Rs R1
V0
+ - +
Vi -
R3 R2
(A) 56.02 (B) 40.83 (C) 29.85 (D) 10.02


 x&1  − 2 0   x1  1  x1 
 x&  =  0 − 1  x  + 1 u , x1 (0) = 0, x 2 (0) = 0 and y = [1 0]  x 
 2    2    2
1 1 −2 t 1 −2 t 1 − t
(A) − e (B) 1 − e − e
2 2 2 2
(C) e −2 t − e − t (D) 1 − e − t
Q.49 The system is

EE-D 12/20
100 µH
12 V 470 µF
Q 20 Ω
(A) 0.96 (B) 0.144 (C) 0.192 (D) 0.288
(A) 3/2 (B) 5/3 (C) 5/2 (D) 15/4

P2=0.1 pu
j1 Ω j1 Ω
Bus 3
P3=0.2 pu

(A) θ 2 = −0.1, θ3 = −0.2
(B) θ 2 = 0, θ3 = −0.1
(C) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.1
(D) θ 2 = 0.1, θ3 = 0.2
(A) −10 (B) 0 (C) 10 (D) 20
EE-D 13/20

Q1 Q3
D1 D3 L
V dc + vo io R
Q4 Q2 -
D4 D2
(A) Q1, Q2 (B) Q3, Q4 (C) D1, D2 (D) D3, D4
EE-D 14/20

(A) 40 (B) 43 (C) 46 (D) 49

(A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 24
(A)
(
9 9n + 1 ) +1
10
(B)
(
9 9n − 1 ) +1
8
(C)
(
9 9 −1
n
)+n
8
(D)
(
9 9n − 1 )+ n 2
8
EE-D 15/20
(A) (–∞, 0) (B) (0, 1) (C) (1, ∞) (D) (0, ∞)
(A) 2/7 (B) 3/7 (C) 1/7 (D) 5/7
EE-D 16/20
SESSION - 1
GATE 2014: General Instructions during Examination
1. Total duration of the GATE examination is 180 minutes.

2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer at the top right corner of
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You need not
terminate the examination or submit your paper.
3. Any useful data required for your paper can be viewed by clicking on the Useful
Common Data button that appears on the screen.
4. Use the scribble pad provided to you for any rough work. Submit the scribble pad at
the end of the examination.
5. You are allowed to use a non-programmable type calculator, however, sharing of
calculators is not allowed.
6. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:
The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again. If a question is answered, but marked for review, then the answer will
be considered for evaluation unless the status is modified by the candidate.
Navigating to a Question :
7. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that question
directly.
b. Select an answer for a multiple choice type question by clicking on the bubble
placed before the 4 choices, namely A, B, C and D. Use the virtual numeric
keypad to enter a number as answer for a numerical type question.
c. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
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and also mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate
to another question directly by clicking on a question number without saving the answer to
the previous question.
You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. This feature is
provided, so that if you want you can just see the entire question paper at a glance.
Answering a Question :
8. Procedure for answering a multiple choice (MCQ) type question:

a. Choose one answer from the 4 options (A,B,C,D) given below the question,
click on the bubble placed before the chosen option.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the bubble of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the bubble of another option.
d. To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
9. Procedure for answering a numerical answer type question:

a. To enter a number as your answer, use the virtual numerical keypad.
b. A fraction (e.g. -0.3 or -.3) can be entered as an answer with or without '0'
before the decimal point. As many as four decimal points, e.g. 12.5435 or
0.003 or -932.6711 or 12.82 can be entered.
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10. To mark a question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button. If an
answer is selected (for MCQ) or entered (for numerical answer type) for a question
that is Marked for Review, that answer will be considered in the evaluation unless
the status is modified by the candidate.
11. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select
that question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.
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answering will be considered for evaluation.
Choosing a Section :
13. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a Section can be viewed by clicking on the name of that Section. The Section you
are currently viewing will be highlighted.
14. A checkbox is displayed for every optional Section, if any, in the Question Paper. To
select the optional Section for answering, click on the checkbox for that Section.
15. If the checkbox for an optional Section is not selected, the Save & Next button and
the Mark for Review & Next button will NOT be enabled for that Section. You will
only be able to see questions in this Section, but you will not be able to answer
questions in the Section.
16. After clicking the Save & Next button for the last question in a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next Section in sequence.
17. You can move the mouse cursor over the name of a Section to view the answering
status for that Section.
Changing the Optional Section :
18. After answering the chosen optional Section, partially or completely, you can change
the optional Section by selecting the checkbox for a new Section that you want to
attempt. A warning message will appear along with a table showing the number of
questions answered in each of the previously chosen optional Sections and a
checkbox against each of these Sections. Click on a checkbox against a Section that
you want to reset and then click on the RESET button. Note that RESETTING a Section
will DELETE all the answers for questions in that Section. Hence, if you think that you
may want to select this Section again later, you will have to note down your answers
for questions in that Section. If you do not want to reset the Section and want to
continue answering the previously chosen optional Section, then click on the BACK
button.
19. If you deselect the checkbox for an optional Section in the top bar, the following
warning message will appear: "Deselecting the checkbox will DELETE all the answers
for questions in this Section. Do you want to deselect this Section?” If you want to
deselect, click on the RESET button. If you do not want to deselect, click on the BACK
button.
20. You can shuffle between different Sections or change the optional Sections any
number of times.
GATE 2014 Examination
EE: Electrical Engineering
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
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symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
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3. This question paper consists of 2 sections, General Aptitude (GA) for 15 marks and the subject
specific GATE paper for 85 marks. Both these sections are compulsory.
The GA section consists of 10 questions. Question numbers 1 to 5 are of 1-mark each, while question
numbers 6 to 10 are of 2-mark each.
The subject specific GATE paper section consists of 55 questions, out of which question numbers 1 to
25 are of 1-mark each, while question numbers 26 to 55 are of 2-mark each.
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7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
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GATE 2014 SET- 7 General Aptitude -GA

Q.1 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the phrase underlined in the sentence
below?
It is fascinating to see life forms cope with varied environmental conditions.

(A) adopt to (B) adapt to (C) adept in (D) accept with
Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
He could not understand the judges awarding her the first prize, because he thought that her
performance was quite __________.
)
14
(A) superb (B) medium (C) mediocre (D) exhilarating
Q.3 In a press meet on the recent scam, the minister said, "The buck stops here". What did the minister
convey by the statement?
20
(A) He wants all the money (B) He will return the money
(C) He will assume final responsibility (D) He will resist all enquiries
Q.4 If (𝑧𝑧 + 1/𝑧𝑧)2 = 98, compute (𝑧𝑧 2 + 1/𝑧𝑧 2 ).
Q.5
E
The roots of 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0 are real and positive. a, b and c are real. Then 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑏|𝑥𝑥| + 𝑐𝑐 = 0
has
AT
(A) no roots (B) 2 real roots
(C) 3 real roots (D) 4 real roots
(G
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

7
Q.6 The Palghat Gap (or Palakkad Gap), a region about 30 km wide in the southern part of the Western
Ghats in India, is lower than the hilly terrain to its north and south. The exact reasons for the
A0
formation of this gap are not clear. It results in the neighbouring regions of Tamil Nadu getting
more rainfall from the South West monsoon and the neighbouring regions of Kerala having higher
summer temperatures.
What can be inferred from this passage?

G
(A) The Palghat gap is caused by high rainfall and high temperatures in southern Tamil Nadu and
Kerala
(B) The regions in Tamil Nadu and Kerala that are near the Palghat Gap are low-lying
(C) The low terrain of the Palghat Gap has a significant impact on weather patterns in neighbouring
parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(D) Higher summer temperatures result in higher rainfall near the Palghat Gap area
GA 1/2
Q.7 Geneticists say that they are very close to confirming the genetic roots of psychiatric illnesses such
as depression and schizophrenia, and consequently, that doctors will be able to eradicate these
diseases through early identification and gene therapy.
On which of the following assumptions does the statement above rely?

(A) Strategies are now available for eliminating psychiatric illnesses
(B) Certain psychiatric illnesses have a genetic basis
(C) All human diseases can be traced back to genes and how they are expressed
(D) In the future, genetics will become the only relevant field for identifying psychiatric illnesses
Q.8 Round-trip tickets to a tourist destination are eligible for a discount of 10% on the total fare. In
addition, groups of 4 or more get a discount of 5% on the total fare. If the one way single person
fare is Rs 100, a group of 5 tourists purchasing round-trip tickets will be charged Rs _________.
)
14
Q.9 In a survey, 300 respondents were asked whether they own a vehicle or not. If yes, they were
further asked to mention whether they own a car or scooter or both. Their responses are tabulated
below. What percent of respondents do not own a scooter?
20
Men Women
Car 40 34
Own vehicle Scooter 30 20
Both 60 46
E
Do not own vehicle 20 50
AT
Q.10 When a point inside of a tetrahedron (a solid with four triangular surfaces) is connected by straight
lines to its corners, how many (new) internal planes are created with these lines? _____________
(G

7
A0
G
GA 2/2
GATE 2014 SET1 ELECTRICAL – EE

Q.1 Given a system of equations:
2 2
5 3
Which of the following is true regarding its solutions

(A) The system has a unique solution for any given and
(B) The system will have infinitely many solutions for any given and
(C) Whether or not a solution exists depends on the given and
(D) The system would have no solution for any values of and
Q.2 Let . The maximum value of the function in the interval (0, ∞) is
)
(B)
14
(A) (C) 1 (D) 1
Q.3 The solution for the differential equation

9 ,
20
with initial conditions 0 1 and | 1, is
(A) 1 (B) sin 3 cos 3
(C) sin 3 cos 3 (D) cos 3
E
Q.4
Let be the Laplace Transform of a signal . Then, 0 is
AT
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 21
Q.5 Let be the set of points in the complex plane corresponding to the unit circle. (That is,
(G
∗ ∗
∶ | | 1 ). Consider the function where denotes the complex
conjugate of . The maps to which one of the following in the complex plane
(A) unit circle
(B) horizontal axis line segment from origin to (1, 0)
(C) the point (1, 0)
01
(D) the entire horizontal axis
Q.6 The three circuit elements shown in the figure are part of an electric circuit. The total power
EE
absorbed by the three circuit elements in watts is __________.
10 A 8A
100 V 80 V
15 V
EE 1/15
Q.7 C0 is the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as dielectric (as in figure (a)). If, half of
the entire gap as shown in figure (b) is filled with a dielectric of permittivity , the expression for
the modified capacitance is
(a) (b)
(A) 1 (B) 0
(D) 1
(C)
)
Q.8 A combination of 1 µF capacitor with an initial voltage v 0 2 V in series with a 100 Ω
14
resistor is connected to a 20 mA ideal dc current source by operating both switches at 0 s as
shown. Which of the following graphs shown in the options approximates the voltage v across the
current source over the next few seconds?
20
+
vs
-
E
(A) (B)
AT
(G
01
(C) (D)
EE
Q.9 is nonzero only for ′ , and similarly, is nonzero only for ′ . Let
be convolution of and . Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) can be nonzero over an unbounded interval.
(B) is nonzero for .
(C) is zero outside of ′ ′ .
(D) is nonzero for ′ ′ .
EE 2/15
Q.10 For a periodic square wave, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The Fourier series coefficients do not exist.
(B) The Fourier series coefficients exist but the reconstruction converges at no point.
(C) The Fourier series coefficients exist and the reconstruction converges at most points.
(D) The Fourier series coefficients exist and the reconstruction converges at every point.
Q.11 An 8-pole, 3-phase, 50 Hz induction motor is operating at a speed of 700 rpm. The frequency of the
rotor current of the motor in Hz is ____________.
Q.12 For a specified input voltage and frequency, if the equivalent radius of the core of a transformer is
reduced by half, the factor by which the number of turns in the primary should change to maintain
)
the same no load current is
14
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 4
20
Q.13 A star connected 400 V, 50 Hz, 4 pole synchronous machine gave the following open circuit and
short circuit test results:
Open circuit test: Voc = 400 V (rms, line-to-line) at field current, If = 2.3 A
Short circuit test: Isc = 10 A (rms, phase) at field current, If = 1.5 A
E
The value of per phase synchronous impedance in Ω at rated voltage is __________.
AT
Q.14 The undesirable property of an electrical insulating material is
(A) high dielectric strength (B) high relative permittivity
(C) high thermal conductivity (D) high insulation resistivity
(G
Q.15 Three-phase to ground fault takes place at locations F1 and F2 in the system shown in the figure
IF1 IF2
01
A B
F1 F2
E A ~ ~ EB0
VF1 VF2
EE
If the fault takes place at location F1, then the voltage and the current at bus A are VF1 and IF1
respectively. If the fault takes place at location F2, then the voltage and the current at bus A are VF2
and IF2 respectively. The correct statement about voltages and currents during faults at F1 and F2 is
(A) VF1 leads IF1 and VF2 leads IF2
(B) VF1 leads IF1 and VF2 lags IF2
(C) VF1 lags IF1 and VF2 leads IF2
(D) VF1 lags IF1 and VF2 lags IF2
EE 3/15
Q.16 A 2-bus system and corresponding zero sequence network are shown in the figure.
)
The transformers T1 and T2 are connected as
14
(A) and 
(B) and 
(C)  and 
20
(D)  and
Q.17 In the formation of Routh-Hurwitz array for a polynomial, all the elements of a row have zero
values. This premature termination of the array indicates the presence of
(A) only one root at the origin
E (B) imaginary roots
(C) only positive real roots (D) only negative real roots
AT
Q.18 The root locus of a unity feedback system is shown in the figure
(G
The closed loop transfer function of the system is

01
C (s) K C (s) K
(A)  (B) 
R( s) s  1s  2 R( s) s  1s  2  K
EE
C (s) K C (s) K
(C)  (D) 
R( s) s  1s  2  K R( s) s  1s  2  K
Q.19 Power consumed by a balanced 3-phase, 3-wire load is measured by the two wattmeter method.
The first wattmeter reads twice that of the second. Then the load impedance angle in radians is
(A) π/12 (B) π/8 (C) π/6 (D) π/3
Q.20 In an oscilloscope screen, linear sweep is applied at the

(A) vertical axis (B) horizontal axis
(C) origin (D) both horizontal and vertical axis
EE 4/15
Q.21 A cascade of three identical modulo-5 counters has an overall modulus of
(A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 125 (D) 625
Q.22 In the Wien Bridge oscillator circuit shown in figure, the bridge is balanced when
C1
R1 +Vcc
-Vcc R3
)
C2 R2 R4
14
(A) , (B) ,
20
(C) , (D) ,
E
Q.23 The magnitude of the mid-band voltage gain of the circuit shown in figure is (assuming of the
AT
transistor to be 100)
+Vcc
10k
C vo
(G
C 10k
hfe=100
vi
1k C
01
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 100

EE
Q.24 The figure shows the circuit of a rectifier fed from a 230-V (rms), 50-Hz sinusoidal voltage source.
If we want to replace the current source with a resistor so that the rms value of the current supplied
by the voltage source remains unchanged, the value of the resistance (in ohms) is __________
(Assume diodes to be ideal.)
10 A
230 V, 50 Hz
EE 5/15
Q.25 Figure shows four electronic switches (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Which of the switches can block
voltages of either polarity (applied between terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’) when the active device is in the
OFF state?
a a
a a
)
b b
b
14
b
(iii) (iv)
(ii)
(i)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
20
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)

E
Q.26 Let : 0, ∞ ⟶ 0, ∞ be a function defined by , where represents the integer
AT
part of . (That is, it is the largest integer which is less than or equal to ).
The value of the constant term in the Fourier series expansion of is _______
(G
Q.27 A fair coin is tossed n times. The probability that the difference between the number of heads and
tails is (n-3) is
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 2
01
Q.28 The line integral of function F = yzi, in the counterclockwise direction, along the circle x2+y2 = 1 at
z = 1 is
(A) -2π (B) -π (C) π (D) 2π
EE
Q.29 An incandescent lamp is marked 40 W, 240V. If resistance at room temperature (26°C) is 120 Ω,
and temperature coefficient of resistance is 4.5x10-3/°C, then its ‘ON’ state filament temperature in
°C is approximately _______
Q.30 In the figure, the value of resistor R is (25 + I/2) ohms, where I is the current in amperes. The
current I is ______
I
300V R
EE 6/15
Q.31 In an unbalanced three phase system, phase current 1∠ 90o pu, negative sequence current
o o
4∠ 150 pu, zero sequence current 3∠90 pu. The magnitude of phase current
in pu is
(A) 1.00 (B) 7.81 (C) 11.53 (D) 13.00
Q.32 The following four vector fields are given in Cartesian co-ordinate system. The vector field which
does not satisfy the property of magnetic flux density is
(A) y a x  z a y  x a z (B) z a x  x a y  y a z
2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) x a x  y a y  z a z (D) y z a x  x z a y  x y a z
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Q.33 The function shown in the figure can be represented as
)
14
1
20
t
0 T 2T
(A) 2
E
(B) 2
AT
(C)
(D) 2 2
(G
Q.34
Let be the Z-transform of a causal signal . Then, the values of
2 and 3 are
01

EE
Q.35 Let be a continuous time signal and let be its Fourier Transform defined by
Define by
What is the relationship between and ?

(A) would always be proportional to .
(B) would be proportional to if is an even function.
(C) would be proportional to only if is a sinusoidal function.
(D) would never be proportional to .
EE 7/15
Q.36 The core loss of a single phase, 230/115 V, 50 Hz power transformer is measured from 230 V side
by feeding the primary (230 V side) from a variable voltage variable frequency source while
keeping the secondary open circuited. The core loss is measured to be 1050 W for 230 V, 50 Hz
input. The core loss is again measured to be 500 W for 138 V, 30 Hz input. The hysteresis and eddy
current losses of the transformer for 230 V, 50 Hz input are respectively,
(A) 508 W and 542 W. (B) 468 W and 582 W.
(C) 498 W and 552 W. (D) 488 W and 562 W.
Q.37 A 15 kW, 230 V dc shunt motor has armature circuit resistance of 0.4 Ω and field circuit resistance
of 230 Ω. At no load and rated voltage, the motor runs at 1400 rpm and the line current drawn by
the motor is 5 A. At full load, the motor draws a line current of 70 A. Neglect armature reaction.
The full load speed of the motor in rpm is _________.
)
14
Q.38 A 3 phase, 50 Hz, six pole induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.1 Ω and reactance of 0.92 Ω.
Neglect the voltage drop in stator and assume that the rotor resistance is constant. Given that the
20
full load slip is 3%, the ratio of maximum torque to full load torque is
(A) 1.567 (B) 1.712 (C) 1.948 (D) 2.134
Q.39 A three phase synchronous generator is to be connected to the infinite bus. The lamps are connected
E
as shown in the figure for the synchronization. The phase sequence of bus voltage is R-Y-B and
that of incoming generator voltage is R-Y-B.
AT
R Y B
R'
(G
Y'
B'
01
La
Infinite Bus Lb Incoming Generator

EE
Lc
It was found that the lamps are becoming dark in the sequence La-Lb-Lc. It means that the phase
sequence of incoming generator is
(A) opposite to infinite bus and its frequency is more than infinite bus
(B) opposite to infinite bus but its frequency is less than infinite bus
(C) same as infinite bus and its frequency is more than infinite bus
(D) same as infinite bus and its frequency is less than infinite bus
EE 8/15
Q.40 A distribution feeder of 1 km length having resistance, but negligible reactance, is fed from both the
ends by 400V, 50 Hz balanced sources. Both voltage sources S1 and S2 are in phase. The feeder
supplies concentrated loads of unity power factor as shown in the figure.
The contributions of S1 and S2 in 100 A current supplied at location P respectively, are

(A) 75 A and 25 A (B) 50 A and 50 A (C) 25 A and 75 A (D) 0 A and 100 A
)
14
Q.41 A two bus power system shown in the figure supplies load of 1.0+j0.5 p.u.
20
E
The values of V1 in p.u. and δ2 respectively are
AT
(A) 0.95 and 6.00 o (B) 1.05 and -5.44o (C) 1.1 and -6.00 o (D) 1.1 and -27.12o
Q.42 The fuel cost functions of two power plants are

C1  0.05Pg12  APg1  B
(G
Plant P1 :
Plant P2 : C2  0.10 Pg 22  3 APg 2  2 B
where, Pg1 and Pg2 are the generated powers of two plants, and A and B are the constants. If the two
plants optimally share 1000 MW load at incremental fuel cost of 100 Rs/MWh, the ratio of load
shared by plants P1 and P2 is
01
(A) 1:4 (B) 2:3 (C) 3:2 (D) 4:1

EE
Q.43 The overcurrent relays for the line protection and loads connected at the buses are shown in the
figure.
A B C
~ RA RB
300 A 200 A 100 A
The relays are IDMT in nature having the characteristic

0.14  Time Multiplier Setting
t op 
Plug Setting Multiplier0.02  1
The maximum and minimum fault currents at bus B are 2000 A and 500 A respectively. Assuming
the time multiplier setting and plug setting for relay RB to be 0.1 and 5A respectively, the operating
time of RB (in seconds) is ____________
EE 9/15
Q.44 For the given system, it is desired that the system be stable. The minimum value of for this
condition is _______________.
R(s) + C(s)
‒ 1 1 1
)
14
Q.45 .
The Bode magnitude plot of the transfer function is shown below:
Note that ‒6 dB/octave = ‒20 dB/decade. The value of is _____________.
20
0dB/Octave
‒6dB/Octave
dB
6dB/Octave
E ‒6dB/Octave
0dB/Octave
AT
‒12dB/Octave
0
(G
0.01 2 4 8 24 36  (rad/s)
.
01
Q.46 A system matrix is given as follows.

0 1 1
6 11 6 .
EE
6 11 5
The absolute value of the ratio of the maximum eigenvalue to the minimum eigenvalue is _______
EE 10/15
Q.47 The reading of the voltmeter (rms) in volts, for the circuit shown in the figure is __________
R = 0.5 
1j 1/j
100sin(t) V
1/j 1j
)
14
Q.48 The dc current flowing in a circuit is measured by two ammeters, one PMMC and another
electrodynamometer type, connected in series. The PMMC meter contains 100 turns in the coil, the
20
flux density in the air gap is 0.2 Wb/m2, and the area of the coil is 80 mm2. The electrodynamometer
ammeter has a change in mutual inductance with respect to deflection of 0.5 mH/deg. The spring
constants of both the meters are equal. The value of current, at which the deflections of the two
meters are same, is ________ E
AT
Q.49 Given that the op-amps in the figure are ideal, the output voltage is
V2 R
(G
R R
2R V0
R R
01
R
V1
EE
(A) (B) 2
(C) /2 (D)
EE 11/15
Q.50 Which of the following logic circuits is a realization of the function F whose Karnaugh map is
shown in figure
AB
00 01 11 10
0 1 1
C
1 1 1
(A) (B)
A A
)
14
B B
C C
20
(C) (D)
A A
C
C
E
AT
B
B
(G
01
EE
EE 12/15
Q.51 In the figure shown, assume the op-amp to be ideal. Which of the alternatives gives the correct
Bode plots for the transfer function ?
)
(A)
14
(B)
20
E
AT
(G
(C)
01
EE
(D)
EE 13/15
Q.52 An output device is interfaced with 8-bit microprocessor 8085A. The interfacing circuit is shown in
figure
AB
8
BDB
8
3Lx8L Decoder
A15 0
A14 I2
I1 1 Output Port
I0 2
A13
A12 3
8
4
A11 E1
)
5
6
14
E2 Output Device
7
E3
IO/M
WR
BCB
20
The interfacing circuit makes use of 3 Line to 8 Line decoder having 3 enable lines E1 , E 2 , E 3 . The
address of the device is
(A) 50 H (B) 5000 H (C) A0 H (D) A000 H

E
AT
Q.53 The figure shows the circuit diagram of a rectifier. The load consists of a resistance 10 Ω and an
inductance 0.05 H connected in series. Assuming ideal thyristor and ideal diode, the thyristor
firing angle (in degree) needed to obtain an average load voltage of 70 V is ______
(G
+
325 sin (314t) V Load
-
01
EE
EE 14/15
Q.54 Figure (i) shows the circuit diagram of a chopper. The switch S in the circuit in figure (i) is
switched such that the voltage across the diode has the wave shape as shown in figure (ii). The
capacitance C is large so that the voltage across it is constant. If switch S and the diode are ideal,
the peak to peak ripple (in A) in the inductor current is ______
S 1 mH
+
vD Load
100 V C
_
Figure (i)
vD
)
14
100 V
20
0 0.05 0.1 0.15 0.2 t (ms)
Figure (ii)
E
AT
Q.55 The figure shows one period of the output voltage of an inverter. α should be chosen such that
60o α 90o . If rms value of the fundamental component is 50 V, then α in degree
is______________
100 V 100 V 100 V

(G
0  180- 180 180+ 360- 360 t

(degree)
01
-100 V -100 V -100 V

EE
EE 15/15
GATE 2014
Answer Keys for EE ‐ Electrical Engineering
SECTION ‐ ϭ SECTION ‐ ϭ
Section Q. No. Section Q. No.
Key / Range Marks Key / Range Marks
GA 1 B 1 EE 24 23 to 23 1
GA 2 C 1 EE 25 C 1
GA 3 C 1 EE 26 0.5 to 0.5 2
GA 4 96 to 96 1 EE 27 B 2
GA 5 D 1 EE 28 B 2
GA 6 C 2 EE 29 2470 to 2471 2
GA 7 B 2 EE 30 10 to 10 2
GA 8 850 to 850 2 EE 31 C 2
GA 9 48 to 48 2 EE 32 C 2
GA 10 6 to 6 2 EE 33 A 2
EE 1 B 1 EE 34 B 2
EE 2 A 1 EE 35 B 2
EE 3 C 1 EE 36 A 2
EE 4 B 1 EE 37 1239 to 1242 2
EE 5 C 1 EE 38 C 2
EE 6 330 to 330 1 EE 39 A 2
EE 7 A 1 EE 40 D 2
EE 8 C 1 EE 41 B 2
EE 9 C 1 EE 42 D 2
EE 10 C 1 EE 43 0.21 to 0.23 2
EE 11 3.2 to 3.5 1 EE 44 0.61 to 0.63 2
EE 12 C 1 EE 45 0.7 to 0.8 2
EE 13 14.5 to 15.5 1 EE 46 2.9 to 3.1 2
EE 14 B 1 EE 47 140 to 142 2
EE 15 C 1 EE 48 3.0 to 3.4 2
EE 16 B 1 EE 49 B 2
EE 17 B 1 EE 50 C 2
EE 18 C 1 EE 51 A 2
EE 19 C 1 EE 52 B 2
EE 20 B 1 EE 53 69 to 70 2
EE 21 C 1 EE 54 2.49 to 2.51 2
EE 22 C 1 EE 55 76.5 to 78.0 2
EE 23 D 1
SESSION - 2


directly.


question.
button.
button.
number of times.
type.
before the choice.

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate phrase from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
India is a post-colonial country because

(A) it was a former British colony
(B) Indian Information Technology professionals have colonized the world
(C) India does not follow any colonial practices
(D) India has helped other countries gain freedom
Q.2 Who ___________ was coming to see us this evening?
)
(A) you said (B) did you say
14
(C) did you say that (D) had you said
Q.3 Match the columns.

Column 1 Column 2
20
1) eradicate P) misrepresent
2) distort Q) soak completely
3) saturate R) use
4) utilize S) destroy utterly
(A) 1:S, 2:P, 3:Q, 4:R

(C) 1:Q, 2:R, 3:S, 4:P
E (B) 1:P, 2:Q, 3:R, 4:S
(D) 1:S, 2:P, 3:R, 4:Q
AT
Q.4 What is the average of all multiples of 10 from 2 to 198?
(A) 90 (B) 100 (C) 110 (D) 120
Q.5
The value of �12 + �12 + √12 + ⋯ is
(G
(A) 3.464 (B) 3.932 (C) 4.000 (D) 4.444

8

A0
Q.6 The old city of Koenigsberg, which had a German majority population before World War 2, is now
called Kaliningrad. After the events of the war, Kaliningrad is now a Russian territory and has a
predominantly Russian population. It is bordered by the Baltic Sea on the north and the countries of
Poland to the south and west and Lithuania to the east respectively. Which of the statements below
G
can be inferred from this passage?

(A) Kaliningrad was historically Russian in its ethnic make up
(B) Kaliningrad is a part of Russia despite it not being contiguous with the rest of Russia
(C) Koenigsberg was renamed Kaliningrad, as that was its original Russian name
(D) Poland and Lithuania are on the route from Kaliningrad to the rest of Russia
GA 1/2
Q.7 The number of people diagnosed with dengue fever (contracted from the bite of a mosquito) in
north India is twice the number diagnosed last year. Municipal authorities have concluded that
measures to control the mosquito population have failed in this region.
Which one of the following statements, if true, does not contradict this conclusion?
(A) A high proportion of the affected population has returned from neighbouring countries where
dengue is prevalent
(B) More cases of dengue are now reported because of an increase in the Municipal Office’s
administrative efficiency
(C) Many more cases of dengue are being diagnosed this year since the introduction of a new and
effective diagnostic test
(D) The number of people with malarial fever (also contracted from mosquito bites) has increased
this year
)
14
Q.8 If x is real and |𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥 + 3| = 11, then possible values of | − 𝑥𝑥 3 + 𝑥𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑥| include
(A) 2, 4 (B) 2, 14 (C) 4, 52 (D) 14, 52
Q.9 The ratio of male to female students in a college for five years is plotted in the following line graph.
20
If the number of female students doubled in 2009, by what percent did the number of male students
increase in 2009?
E
AT
(G
8
A0
Q.10 At what time between 6 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚. and 7 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚. will the minute hand and hour hand of a clock make an
angle closest to 60°?
G
(A) 6: 22 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚. (B) 6: 27 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚.

(C) 6: 38 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚. (D) 6: 45 𝑎𝑎. 𝑚𝑚.
GA 2/2

Q.1 Which one of the following statements is true for all real symmetric matrices?
(A) All the eigenvalues are real.
(B) All the eigenvalues are positive.
(C) All the eigenvalues are distinct.
(D) Sum of all the eigenvalues is zero.
Q.2 Consider a dice with the property that the probability of a face with dots showing up is
proportional to . The probability of the face with three dots showing up is ________.
)
Q.3 Minimum of the real valued function 1 /
occurs at x equal to
14
(A) ‒∞ (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) ∞
Q.4 All the values of the multi-valued complex function 1 , where √ 1, are
20
(A) purely imaginary. (B) real and non-negative.
(C) on the unit circle. (D) equal in real and imaginary parts.
Q.5 Consider the differential equation

E 0. Which of the following is a solution to
this differential equation for 0?
AT
(A) (B) (C) 1⁄ (D) ln
Q.6 Two identical coupled inductors are connected in series. The measured inductances for the two
possible series connections are 380 µH and 240 µH. Their mutual inductance in μH is ________
(G
Q.7 The switch SW shown in the circuit is kept at position ‘1’ for a long duration. At t = 0+, the switch
is moved to position ‘2’. Assuming |Vo2| > |Vo1|, the voltage vc(t) across the capacitor is
02
R '2'
SW
'1'
EE
R
Vo2 Vo1
C vc
 t/2RC
(A) v c (t)  Vo2 (1  e )  Vo1
 t/2RC
(B) v c (t)  Vo2 (1  e )  Vo1
 t/2RC
(C) v c (t)  (Vo2  Vo1 )(1  e )  Vo1
 t/2RC
(D) v c (t)  (Vo2  Vo1 )(1  e )  Vo1
EE 1/11
Q.8 A parallel plate capacitor consisting two dielectric materials is shown in the figure. The middle
dielectric slab is placed symmetrically with respect to the plates.
10 Volt
 

d/2
d
)
If the potential difference between one of the plates and the nearest surface of dielectric interface is
14
2 Volts, then the ratio ε1 : ε2 is
(A) 1:4 (B) 2:3 (C) 3:2 (D) 4:1
20
Q.9 Consider an LTI system with transfer function
1
4
If the input to the system is cos 3
E
and the steady state output is sin 3 , then the value
of is
AT
(A) 1/30 (B) 1/15 (C) 3/4 (D) 4/3
(G
Q.10 Consider an LTI system with impulse response . If the output of the system is
then the input, , is given by
(A) (B) 2
(C) (D) 2
02
Q.11 Assuming an ideal transformer, the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and impedance as seen from the
terminals x and y for the circuit in figure are
EE
1
sin(t)
y
1:2
(A) 2 sin , 4Ω (B) 1 sin , 1Ω

(C) 1 sin , 2Ω (D) 2 sin , 0.5Ω
EE 2/11
Q.12 A single phase, 50 kVA, 1000V/100 V two winding transformer is connected as an autotransformer
as shown in the figure.
)
The kVA rating of the autotransformer is _____________.
14
Q.13 A three-phase, 4-pole, self excited induction generator is feeding power to a load at a frequency f1.
If the load is partially removed, the frequency becomes f2. If the speed of the generator is
maintained at 1500 rpm in both the cases, then
20
(A) f1, f2 > 50 Hz and f1 > f2 (B) f1 < 50 Hz and f2 > 50 Hz
(C) f1, f2 < 50 Hz and f2 > f1 (D) f1 > 50 Hz and f2 < 50 Hz
Q.14 A single phase induction motor draws 12 MW power at 0.6 lagging power. A capacitor is
E
connected in parallel to the motor to improve the power factor of the combination of motor and
capacitor to 0.8 lagging. Assuming that the real and reactive power drawn by the motor remains
same as before, the reactive power delivered by the capacitor in MVAR is __________.
AT
Q.15 A three phase star-connected load is drawing power at a voltage of 0.9 pu and 0.8 power factor
lagging. The three phase base power and base current are 100 MVA and 437.38 A respectively. The
(G
line-to-line load voltage in kV is ________.
Q.16 Shunt reactors are sometimes used in high voltage transmission systems to
(A) limit the short circuit current through the line.
(B) compensate for the series reactance of the line under heavily loaded condition.
02
(C) limit over-voltages at the load side under lightly loaded condition.
(D) compensate for the voltage drop in the line under heavily loaded condition.
EE
Q.17
The closed-loop transfer function of a system is T s . The steady state error due
.
to unit step input is __________.
Q.18 The state transition matrix for the system

1 0 1
1 1 1
is
(A)
0 (B)
0
(C)
0 (D)
0
EE 3/11
Q.19 The saw-tooth voltage waveform shown in the figure is fed to a moving iron voltmeter. Its reading
would be close to _____________
100 V
t
20ms 40ms
)
14
Q.20 While measuring power of a three-phase balanced load by the two-wattmeter method, the readings
are 100 W and 250 W. The power factor of the load is _________.
20
Q.21 Which of the following is an invalid state in an 8-4-2-1 Binary Coded Decimal counter
(A) 1 0 0 0 (B) 1 0 0 1 (C) 0 0 1 1 (D) 1 1 0 0
Q.22
E
The transistor in the given circuit should always be in active region. Take 0.2 V,
0.7 V. The maximum value of in Ω which can be used, is ______________.
AT
(G
02
Q.23 The sinusoidal ac source in the figure has an rms value of V. Considering all possible values of
√
, the minimum value of in Ω to avoid burnout of the Zener diode is _________.
EE
Q.24 A step-up chopper is used to feed a load at 400 V dc from a 250 V dc source. The inductor current
is continuous. If the ‘off’ time of the switch is 20 µs, the switching frequency of the chopper in kHz
is ____________.
EE 4/11
Q.25 In a constant V/f control of induction motor, the ratio V/f is maintained constant from 0 to base
frequency, where V is the voltage applied to the motor at fundamental frequency f. Which of the
following statements relating to low frequency operation of the motor is TRUE?
(A) At low frequency, the stator flux increases from its rated value.
(B) At low frequency, the stator flux decreases from its rated value.
(C) At low frequency, the motor saturates.
(D) At low frequency, the stator flux remains unchanged at its rated value.
)
Q.26 To evaluate the double integral
⁄
, we make the substitution
14
⁄
and . The integral will reduce to
(A) 2 (B) 2
20
(C) (D)
Q.27 Let be a random variable with probability density function

E
0.2, for | | 1
0.1, for 1 | | 4
0, otherwise.
AT
The probability 0.5 5 is ___________.
(G
Q.28 The minimum value of the function 3 24 100 in the interval

[ 3, 3] is
(A) 20 (B) 28
(C) 16 (D) 32
02
Q.29 Assuming the diodes to be ideal in the figure, for the output to be clipped, the input voltage vi must
be outside the range
EE
10k
10k vo
vi
1V 2V
(A) -1 V to -2 V (B) -2 V to -4 V
(C) +1 V to -2 V (D) +2 V to -4 V
EE 5/11
Q.30 The voltage across the capacitor, as shown in the figure, is expressed as
vc (t)  A1 sin(ω1t  θ1 )  A 2 sin(ω2 t  θ 2 )
The values of A1 and A 2 respectively, are
(A) 2.0 and 1.98 (B) 2.0 and 4.20 (C) 2.5 and 3.50 (D) 5.0 and 6.40
)
14
Q.31 The total power dissipated in the circuit, shown in the figure, is 1 kW.
20
10A 2A 1 XC1 XL R
Load
ac source
E V 200 V
XC2
AT
The voltmeter, across the load, reads 200 V. The value of X L is ___________.
(G
Q.32 The magnitude of magnetic flux density at a point having normal distance meters from an
infinitely extended wire carrying current of A is (in SI units). An infinitely extended wire is
laid along the x-axis and is carrying current of 4 A in the +ve x direction. Another infinitely
02
extended wire is laid along the y-axis and is carrying 2 A current in the +ve y direction. is
permeability of free space. Assume ̂, ̂, to be unit vectors along x, y and z axes respectively.
EE
Assuming right handed coordinate system, magnetic field intensity, at coordinate (2,1,0) will be
(A) weber/m2 (B) ̂ A/m (C) A/m (D) 0 A/m
EE 6/11
Q.33 A discrete system is represented by the difference equation
 X1 (k  1)   a a  1  X1 (k) 
X (k  1)  a  1 a  X (k)
 2    2 
It has initial conditions X1(0) = 1; X2(0) = 0. The pole locations of the system for a = 1, are
(A) 1 ± j0 (B) -1 ± j0 (C) ±1 + j0 (D) 0 ± j1
Q.34 An input signal x(t)  2  5sin(100π t) is sampled with a sampling frequency of 400 Hz and
applied to the system whose transfer function is represented by
)
Y(z) 1  1  z  N 
  
14
X(z) N  1  z 1 
where, N represents the number of samples per cycle. The output y(n) of the system under steady
state is
20
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5
Q.35 A 10 kHz even-symmetric square wave is passed through a bandpass filter with centre frequency at
30 kHz and 3 dB passband of 6 kHz. The filter output is
E
(A) a highly attenuated square wave at 10 kHz.
(B) nearly zero.
AT
(C) a nearly perfect cosine wave at 30 kHz.
(D) a nearly perfect sine wave at 30 kHz.
Q.36 A 250 V dc shunt machine has armature circuit resistance of 0.6 Ω and field circuit resistance of
(G
125 Ω. The machine is connected to 250 V supply mains. The motor is operated as a generator and
then as a motor separately. The line current of the machine in both the cases is 50 A. The ratio of
the speed as a generator to the speed as a motor is ____________.
02
Q.37 A three-phase slip-ring induction motor, provided with a commutator winding, is shown in the
figure. The motor rotates in clockwise direction when the rotor windings are closed.
EE
3-phase ac, f Hz
f2
Prime Slip Ring Induction Motor
Mover
fr
f1
If the rotor winding is open circuited and the system is made to run at rotational speed fr with the
help of prime-mover in anti-clockwise direction, then the frequency of voltage across slip rings is f1
and frequency of voltage across commutator brushes is f2. The values of f1 and f2 respectively are
(A) f + fr and f (B) f - fr and f
(C) f - fr and f+fr (D) f + fr and f-fr
EE 7/11
Q.38 A 20-pole alternator is having 180 identical stator slots with 6 conductors in each slot. All the coils
of a phase are in series. If the coils are connected to realize single-phase winding, the generated
voltage is V1. If the coils are reconnected to realize three-phase star-connected winding, the
generated phase voltage is V2. Assuming full pitch, single-layer winding, the ratio V1/V2 is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 2
3 2
Q.39 For a single phase, two winding transformer, the supply frequency and voltage are both increased
by 10%. The percentage changes in the hysteresis loss and eddy current loss, respectively, are
)
14
Q.40 A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus with excitation voltage Ef = 1.3 pu. The
generator has a synchronous reactance of 1.1 pu and is delivering real power (P) of 0.6 pu to the
bus. Assume the infinite bus voltage to be 1.0 pu. Neglect stator resistance. The reactive power (Q)
in pu supplied by the generator to the bus under this condition is _________.
20
Q.41 There are two generators in a power system. No-load frequencies of the generators are 51.5 Hz and
51 Hz, respectively, and both are having droop constant of 1 Hz/MW. Total load in the system is
2.5 MW. Assuming that the generators are operating under their respective droop characteristics,
E
the frequency of the power system in Hz in the steady state is ___________.
AT
Q.42 The horizontally placed conductors of a single phase line operating at 50 Hz are having outside
diameter of 1.6 cm, and the spacing between centers of the conductors is 6 m. The permittivity of
free space is 8.854  1012 F/m. The capacitance to ground per kilometer of each line is
(G
(A) 4.2  109 F

(B) 8.4  109 F
(C) 4.2  1012 F
(D) 8.4  1012 F
02
EE
Q.43 A three phase, 100 MVA, 25 kV generator has solidly grounded neutral. The positive, negative, and
the zero sequence reactances of the generator are 0.2 pu, 0.2 pu, and 0.05 pu, respectively, at the
machine base quantities. If a bolted single phase to ground fault occurs at the terminal of the
unloaded generator, the fault current in amperes immediately after the fault is _________.
Q.44 A system with the open loop transfer function
2 2 2
is connected in a negative feedback configuration with a feedback gain of unity. For the closed loop
system to be marginally stable, the value of K is ______
EE 8/11
Q.45 For the transfer function

5 4
0.25 4 25
The values of the constant gain term and the highest corner frequency of the Bode plot
respectively are
(A) 3.2, 5.0 (B) 16.0, 4.0 (C) 3.2, 4.0 (D) 16.0, 5.0
Q.46 The second order dynamic system
)
14
has the matrices P, Q and R as follows:
1 1 0
20
0 1
0 3 1
The system has the following controllability and observability properties:
(A) Controllable and observable

(B) Not controllable but observable
E
(C) Controllable but not observable
AT
(D) Not controllable and not observable
Q.47 Suppose that resistors and are connected in parallel to give an equivalent resistor . If
resistors and have tolerance of 1% each, the equivalent resistor for resistors 300 Ω
(G
and 200 Ω will have tolerance of

(A) 0.5% (B) 1% (C) 1.2% (D) 2%
Q.48 Two ammeters X and Y have resistances of 1.2 Ω and 1.5 Ω respectively and they give full-scale
02
deflection with 150 mA and 250 mA respectively. The ranges have been extended by connecting
shunts so as to give full scale deflection with 15 A. The ammeters along with shunts are connected
in parallel and then placed in a circuit in which the total current flowing is 15A. The current in
amperes indicated in ammeter X is __________.
EE
EE 9/11
Q.49 An oscillator circuit using ideal op-amp and diodes is shown in the figure.
∆
The time duration for +ve part of the cycle is ∆ and for –ve part is ∆ . The value of will
be _____________.
)
14
Q.50 The SOP (sum of products) form of a Boolean function is ∑ 0,1,3,7,11 , where inputs are A,B,C,D
20
(A is MSB, and D is LSB). The equivalent minimized expression of the function is
(A) ̅ ̅ ̅
(B) ̅ ̅ ̅ ̅
E
(C) ̅ ̅ ̅ ̅
AT
(D) ̅ ̅
Q.51 A JK flip flop can be implemented by T flip-flops. Identify the correct implementation.
(G
(A) (B)
02
(C) (D)
EE
EE 10/11
Q.52 In an 8085 microprocessor, the following program is executed
Address location – Instruction
2000H XRA A
2001H MVI B,04H
2003H MVI A, 03H
2005H RAR
2006H DCR B
2007H JNZ 2005
200AH HLT
At the end of program, register A contains
)
(A) 60H (B) 30H (C) 06H (D) 03H
14
Q.53 A fully controlled converter bridge feeds a highly inductive load with ripple free load current. The
input supply (v ) to the bridge is a sinusoidal source. Triggering angle of the bridge converter is
 = 300. The input power factor of the bridge is __________.
20
E
AT
(G
Q.54 A single-phase SCR based ac regulator is feeding power to a load consisting of 5 Ω resistance and
16 mH inductance. The input supply is 230 V, 50 Hz ac. The maximum firing angle at which the
voltage across the device becomes zero all throughout and the rms value of current through SCR,
under this operating condition, are
02
(A) 300 and 46 A (B) 300 and 23 A

(C) 450 and 23 A (D) 450 and 32 A
Q.55 The SCR in the circuit shown has a latching current of 40 mA. A gate pulse of 50 µs is applied to
EE
the SCR. The maximum value of R in Ω to ensure successful firing of the SCR is _________.
EE 11/11
GATE 2014
SESSION ‐ Ϯ SESSION ‐ Ϯ
GA 1 A 1 EE 24 31.0 to 31.5 1
GA 2 B 1 EE 25 B 1
GA 3 A 1 EE 26 B 2
GA 4 B 1 EE 27 0.35 to 0.45 2
GA 5 C 1 EE 28 B 2
GA 6 B 2 EE 29 B 2
GA 7 D 2 EE 30 A 2
GA 8 D 2 EE 31 17.3 to 17.4 2
GA 9 140 to 140 2 EE 32 C 2
GA 10 A 2 EE 33 A 2
EE 1 A 1 EE 34 C 2
EE 2 0.13 to 0.15 1 EE 35 C 2
EE 3 C 1 EE 36 1.22 to 1.32 2
EE 4 B 1 EE 37 A 2
EE 5 C 1 EE 38 D 2
EE 6 35 to 35 1 EE 39 A 2
EE 7 D 1 EE 40 0.10 to 0.12 2
EE 8 C 1 EE 41 49.9 to 50.1 2
EE 9 B 1 EE 42 B 2
EE 10 B 1 EE 43 15300 to 15500 2
EE 11 A 1 EE 44 5 to 5 2
EE 12 545 to 555 1 EE 45 A 2
EE 13 C 1 EE 46 C 2
EE 14 6.97 to 7.03 1 EE 47 B 2
EE 15 117 to 120 1 EE 48 9.9 to 10.3 2
EE 16 C 1 EE 49 1.2 to 1.3 2
EE 17 0 to 0 1 EE 50 A 2
EE 18 C 1 EE 51 B 2
EE 19 56 to 59 1 EE 52 A 2
EE 20 0.78 to 0.82 1 EE 53 0.74 to 0.82 2
EE 21 D 1 EE 54 C 2
EE 22 22 to 23 1 EE 55 6055 to 6065 2
EE 23 299 to 301 1
SESSION - 3


directly.


question.
button.
button.
number of times.
type.
before the choice.

Q.1 While trying to collect an envelope from under the table, Mr. X fell down and
I II III
was losing consciousness.
IV
Which one of the above underlined parts of the sentence is NOT appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.2 If she _______________ how to calibrate the instrument, she _______________ done the
experiment.
(A) knows, will have (B) knew, had
)
(C) had known, could have (D) should have known, would have
14
Q.3 Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the word “coherent”.
(A) sticky (B) well-connected (C) rambling (D) friendly
20
Q.4 Which number does not belong in the series below?
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
(A) 17 (B) 37 (C) 64 (D) 26
Q.5 The table below has question-wise data on the performance of students in an examination. The
E
marks for each question are also listed. There is no negative or partial marking in the examination.
AT
Answered Answered Not
Q No. Marks
Correctly Wrongly Attempted
1 2 21 17 6
2 3 15 27 2
3 2 23 18 3
(G
What is the average of the marks obtained by the class in the examination?
(A) 1.34 (B) 1.74 (C) 3.02 (D) 3.91
9

A0
Q.6 A dance programme is scheduled for 10.00 a.m. Some students are participating in the programme
and they need to come an hour earlier than the start of the event. These students should be
accompanied by a parent. Other students and parents should come in time for the programme. The
instruction you think that is appropriate for this is
G
(A) Students should come at 9.00 a.m. and parents should come at 10.00 a.m.
(B) Participating students should come at 9.00 a.m. accompanied by a parent, and other parents
and students should come by 10.00 a.m.
(C) Students who are not participating should come by 10.00 a.m. and they should not bring their
parents. Participating students should come at 9.00 a.m.
(D) Participating students should come before 9.00 a.m. Parents who accompany them should
come at 9.00 a.m. All others should come at 10.00 a.m.
GA 1/2
th
Q.7 By the beginning of the 20 century, several hypotheses were being proposed, suggesting a
paradigm shift in our understanding of the universe. However, the clinching evidence was provided
by experimental measurements of the position of a star which was directly behind our sun.
Which of the following inference(s) may be drawn from the above passage?
(i) Our understanding of the universe changes based on the positions of stars
(ii) Paradigm shifts usually occur at the beginning of centuries
(iii) Stars are important objects in the universe
(iv) Experimental evidence was important in confirming this paradigm shift
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) (B) (iii) only (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iv) only
)
Q.8 The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in Rupees grew at 7% during 2012-2013. For international
14
comparison, the GDP is compared in US Dollars (USD) after conversion based on the market
exchange rate. During the period 2012-2013 the exchange rate for the USD increased from
Rs. 50/ USD to Rs. 60/ USD. India’s GDP in USD during the period 2012-2013
(A) increased by 5 % (B) decreased by 13%
20
(C) decreased by 20% (D) decreased by 11%
Q.9 The ratio of male to female students in a college for five years is plotted in the following line graph.
If the number of female students in 2011 and 2012 is equal, what is the ratio of male students in
2012 to male students in 2011?
E
AT
(G
9
A0
G
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1.5:1 (D) 2.5:1
Q.10 Consider the equation: (7526)8 − (Y)8 = (4364)8 , where (X)N stands for X to the base N. Find Y.
(A) 1634 (B) 1737 (C) 3142 (D) 3162
GA 2/2

Q.1 Two matrices A and B are given below:
 p q  p2 + q2 pr + qs 
A= ; B= 
 r s  pr + qs r 2 + s2 
If the rank of matrix A is N, then the rank of matrix B is
(A) N /2 (B) N-1 (C) N (D) 2 N
Q.2 A particle, starting from origin at t = 0 s, is traveling along x-axis with velocity
π π 
)
v= cos  t  m/s
2 2 
14
At t = 3 s, the difference between the distance covered by the particle and the magnitude of
displacement from the origin is _________.
20
Q.3 Let ∇ ⋅ ( f v ) = x y + y z + z x , where f and v are scalar and vector fields respectively. If
2 2 2
v = yi + zj + xk , then v ⋅ ∇f is E
(A) x y + y z + z x
2 2 2 (B) 2 xy + 2 yz + 2 zx
(C) x + y + z (D) 0
AT
Q.4 Lifetime of an electric bulb is a random variable with density f(x) = kx2, where x is measured in
years. If the minimum and maximum lifetimes of bulb are 1 and 2 years respectively, then the value
(G
of k is ________.
03
Q.5 A function f(t) is shown in the figure.

f(t)
EE
1/2
T/2
-T/2 0 t
-1/2
The Fourier transform F(ω) of f(t) is

(A) real and even function of ω. (B) real and odd function of ω.
(C) imaginary and odd function of ω. (D) imaginary and even function of ω.
EE 1/15
Q.6 The line A to neutral voltage is 10∠15 V for a balanced three phase star-connected load with phase
sequence ABC. The voltage of line B with respect to line C is given by
(A) 10 3∠105 V

(B) 10∠105 V
(C) 10 3∠ − 75 V (D) − 10 3∠90 V
 
Q.7 A hollow metallic sphere of radius r is kept at potential of 1 Volt. The total electric flux coming out
of the concentric spherical surface of radius R ( > r) is
(A) 4πε 0 r (B) 4πε 0 r

2
(C) 4πε 0 R (D) 4πε 0 R
2
)
14
Q.8 The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is
1H 1H
20
Z(s) 1F 1F
𝑠𝑠 4 +3𝑠𝑠 2 +1 𝑠𝑠 4 +2𝑠𝑠 2 +4
(A)
𝑠𝑠 3 +2𝑠𝑠
E (B)
𝑠𝑠 2 +2
𝑠𝑠 2 +1 𝑠𝑠 3 +1
AT
(C) (D)
𝑠𝑠 4 +𝑠𝑠 2 +1 𝑠𝑠 4 +𝑠𝑠 2 +1
Q.9 A signal is represented by

(G
1 t <1
x(t) = 
0 t >1
The Fourier transform of the convolved signal y(t) = x(2t) ∗ x(t/2) is

03
4 ω  4 ω 
(A) sin   sin( 2ω ) (B) sin  
ω 2
2 ω 2
2
4 4
(C) 2 sin( 2ω ) (D) 2 sin 2 ω
EE
ω ω
Q.10 For the signal 𝑓𝑓(𝑡𝑡) = 3 sin 8𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 + 6 sin 12𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 + sin 14𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋, the minimum sampling frequency
(in Hz) satisfying the Nyquist criterion is _________.
Q.11 In a synchronous machine, hunting is predominantly damped by

(A) mechanical losses in the rotor
(B) iron losses in the rotor
(C) copper losses in the stator
(D) copper losses in the rotor
EE 2/15
Q.12 A single phase induction motor is provided with capacitor and centrifugal switch in series with
auxiliary winding. The switch is expected to operate at a speed of 0.7 Ns, but due to malfunctioning
the switch fails to operate. The torque-speed characteristic of the motor is represented by
(A) (B)
Torque Torque
0.7Ns Ns 0.7Ns Ns
Speed
)
Speed
(C) (D)
14
Torque Torque
20
0.7Ns Ns 0.7Ns Ns
Speed
E Speed
Q.13 The no-load speed of a 230 V separately excited dc motor is 1400 rpm. The armature resistance
drop and the brush drop are neglected. The field current is kept constant at rated value. The torque
AT
of the motor in Nm for an armature current of 8 A is ____________.
Q.14 In a long transmission line with 𝑟𝑟, 𝑙𝑙, 𝑔𝑔 and 𝑐𝑐 are the resistance, inductance, shunt conductance and
(G
capacitance per unit length, respectively, the condition for distortionless transmission is
(A) 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 (B) 𝑟𝑟 = �𝑙𝑙/𝑐𝑐
(C) 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 (D) 𝑔𝑔 = �𝑐𝑐/𝑙𝑙
03
Q.15 For a fully transposed transmission line

(A) positive, negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
EE
(B) positive and negative sequence impedances are equal

(C) zero and positive sequence impedances are equal
(D) negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
Q.16 A 183-bus power system has 150 PQ buses and 32 PV buses. In the general case, to obtain the load
flow solution using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the minimum number of
simultaneous equations to be solved is ___________.
EE 3/15
Q.17 The signal flow graph of a system is shown below. 𝑈𝑈(𝑠𝑠) is the input and 𝐶𝐶(𝑠𝑠) is the output.
ℎ1
1 1
ℎ0 1 𝑠𝑠 1 𝑠𝑠 1
U(s) C(s)
−𝑎𝑎1
−𝑎𝑎0
)
14
.
𝐶𝐶(𝑠𝑠)
Assuming, ℎ1 = 𝑏𝑏1 and ℎ0 = 𝑏𝑏0 − 𝑏𝑏1 𝑎𝑎1 , the input-output transfer function, 𝐺𝐺 (𝑠𝑠) =
𝑈𝑈(𝑠𝑠)
of the system is given by
20
𝑏𝑏0 𝑠𝑠+𝑏𝑏1 𝑎𝑎 1 𝑠𝑠+𝑎𝑎 0
(A) 𝐺𝐺 (𝑠𝑠) = (B) 𝐺𝐺 (𝑠𝑠) = 2
𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑎𝑎 0 𝑠𝑠+𝑎𝑎 1 𝑠𝑠 +𝑏𝑏1 𝑠𝑠+𝑏𝑏0
𝑏𝑏1 𝑠𝑠+𝑏𝑏0 𝑎𝑎 0 𝑠𝑠+𝑎𝑎 1
(C) 𝐺𝐺 (𝑠𝑠) = (D) 𝐺𝐺 (𝑠𝑠) = 2
𝑠𝑠 2 +𝑎𝑎 1 𝑠𝑠+𝑎𝑎 0 𝑠𝑠 +𝑏𝑏0 𝑠𝑠+𝑏𝑏1
E
Q.18 A single-input single-output feedback system has forward transfer function 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠) and feedback
AT
transfer function 𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠). It is given that |𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠)𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠)| < 1. Which of the following is true about the
stability of the system?
(A) The system is always stable
(B) The system is stable if all zeros of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠)𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠) are in left half of the s-plane
(C) The system is stable if all poles of 𝐺𝐺(𝑠𝑠)𝐻𝐻(𝑠𝑠) are in left half of the s-plane
(G
(D) It is not possible to say whether or not the system is stable from the information given
Q.19 An LPF wattmeter of power factor 0.2 is having three voltage settings 300 V, 150 V and 75 V, and
two current settings 5 A and 10 A. The full scale reading is 150. If the wattmeter is used with 150 V
03
voltage setting and 10 A current setting, the multiplying factor of the wattmeter is _________.
EE
EE 4/15
Q.20 The two signals S1 and S2, shown in figure, are applied to Y and X deflection plates of an
oscilloscope.
S2
1 S1 1
v v
T 2T T 2T
t t
The waveform displayed on the screen is

(A) (B) Y
Y 1
)
1
14
X
X
-1
20
-1
(C) Y (D) Y
1 1
E
X X
AT
-1
-1
(G
Q.21 A state diagram of a logic gate which exhibits a delay in the output is shown in the figure, where X
is the don’t care condition, and Q is the output representing the state.
03
0X/1, 10/1
11/0
Q=0 Q=1 0X/1, 10/1
EE
11/0
The logic gate represented by the state diagram is

(A) XOR (B) OR (C) AND (D) NAND
EE 5/15
Q.22 An operational-amplifier circuit is shown in the figure.
R
+Vsat
+Vsat R
-
vi
-
+ vo
+ -Vsat
-Vsat
R2
R1
The output of the circuit for a given input vi is
)
R   R 
(A) −  2 vi (B) − 1 + 2 vi
14
 R1   R1 
 R2 
(C) 1 + vi
R1 
(D) + Vsat or -Vsat

20
Q.23 In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100H is
(A) ( H ) ← 21H , ( L) ← 00 H
(B) ( H ) ← M (2100 H ) , ( L) ← M (2101H )
(C) ( H ) ← M (2101H ) , ( L) ← M (2100 H )
E
(D) ( H ) ← 00 H , ( L) ← 21H
AT
Q.24 A non-ideal voltage source 𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠 has an internal impedance of 𝑍𝑍𝑠𝑠 . If a purely resistive load is to be
chosen that maximizes the power transferred to the load, its value must be
(A) 0
(G
(B) real part of 𝑍𝑍𝑠𝑠

(C) magnitude of 𝑍𝑍𝑠𝑠
(D) complex conjugate of 𝑍𝑍𝑠𝑠
03
Q.25 The torque-speed characteristics of motor (TM) and load (TL) for two cases are shown in the figures
(a) and (b). The load torque is equal to motor torque at points P, Q, R and S
EE
TM
Speed
S
Torque TL
P Speed
TM
Q R
TL Torque
(a) (b)
The stable operating points are

(A) P and R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) Q and S
EE 6/15
Q.26 z2
Integration of the complex function f ( z ) = , in the counterclockwise direction, around
z2 −1
|z-1| = 1, is
(A) -πi (B) 0 (C) πi (D) 2πi
Q.27 The mean thickness and variance of silicon steel laminations are 0.2 mm and 0.02 respectively. The
varnish insulation is applied on both the sides of the laminations. The mean thickness of one side
insulation and its variance are 0.1 mm and 0.01 respectively. If the transformer core is made using
)
100 such varnish coated laminations, the mean thickness and variance of the core respectively are
14
(A) 30 mm and 0.22 (B) 30 mm and 2.44 (C) 40 mm and 2.44 (D) 40 mm and 0.24
The function f (x) = e − 1 is to be solved using Newton-Raphson method. If the initial value of x0
20
Q.28 x
is taken as 1.0, then the absolute error observed at 2nd iteration is _______.
Q.29
E
The Norton’s equivalent source in amperes as seen into the terminals X and Y is _______.
AT
2.5V
X
2.5
(G
5
5 5
5V
Y
03
Q.30 The power delivered by the current source, in the figure, is ________.
EE
1V
1Ω 1Ω
1V 2A 1Ω
EE 7/15
Q.31 A perfectly conducting metal plate is placed in x-y plane in a right handed coordinate system. A
charge of +32𝜋𝜋𝜀𝜀𝑜𝑜 √2 columbs is placed at coordinate (0, 0, 2). 𝜖𝜖𝑜𝑜 is the permittivity of free space.
Assume 𝑖𝑖̂, 𝑗𝑗̂, 𝑘𝑘� to be unit vectors along x, y and z axes respectively. At the coordinate �√2 , √2, 0�,
the electric field vector 𝐸𝐸�⃗ (Newtons/Columb) will be
)
14
(A) 2√2 𝑘𝑘� (B) −2 𝑘𝑘� (C) 2 𝑘𝑘� (D) −2√2 𝑘𝑘�
20
Q.32 A series 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 circuit is observed at two frequencies. At ω1 = 1 krad/s, we note that source voltage
𝑉𝑉1 = 100∠0° V results in a current 𝐼𝐼1 = 0.03∠31° A. At 𝜔𝜔2 = 2 krad/s, the source voltage
𝑉𝑉2 = 100∠0° V results in a current 𝐼𝐼2 = 2∠0° A. The closest values for 𝑅𝑅, 𝐿𝐿, 𝐶𝐶 out of the
following options are
(A) 𝑅𝑅 = 50 Ω; 𝐿𝐿 = 25 mH; 𝐶𝐶 = 10 µF;
E (B) 𝑅𝑅 = 50 Ω; 𝐿𝐿 = 10 mH; 𝐶𝐶 = 25 µF;
(C) 𝑅𝑅 = 50 Ω; 𝐿𝐿 = 50 mH; 𝐶𝐶 = 5 µF; (D) 𝑅𝑅 = 50 Ω; 𝐿𝐿 = 5 mH; 𝐶𝐶 = 50 µF;
AT
Q.33 A continuous-time LTI system with system function 𝐻𝐻(ω) has the following pole-zero plot. For
this system, which of the alternatives is TRUE?
(G
(0,0)
03
EE
(A) |𝐻𝐻(0)| > |𝐻𝐻(ω)|; |ω| > 0 (B) |𝐻𝐻(ω)| has multiple maxima, at ω1 and ω2
(C) |𝐻𝐻(0)| < |𝐻𝐻(ω)|; |ω| > 0 (D) |𝐻𝐻(ω)| = constant; −∞ < ω < ∞
Q.34 A sinusoid 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) of unknown frequency is sampled by an impulse train of period 20 ms. The
resulting sample train is next applied to an ideal lowpass filter with a cutoff at 25 Hz. The filter
output is seen to be a sinusoid of frequency 20 Hz. This means that 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) has a frequency of
(A) 10 Hz (B) 60 Hz (C) 30 Hz (D) 90 Hz
Q.35 A differentiable non constant even function 𝑥𝑥(𝑡𝑡) has a derivative 𝑦𝑦(𝑡𝑡), and their respective Fourier
Transforms are 𝑋𝑋(ω) and 𝑌𝑌(ω). Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) 𝑋𝑋(ω) and 𝑌𝑌(ω) are both real. (B) 𝑋𝑋(ω) is real and 𝑌𝑌(ω) is imaginary.
(C) 𝑋𝑋(ω) and 𝑌𝑌(ω) are both imaginary. (D) 𝑋𝑋(ω) is imaginary and 𝑌𝑌(ω) is real.
EE 8/15
Q.36 An open circuit test is performed on 50 Hz transformer, using variable frequency source and
keeping V/f ratio constant, to separate its eddy current and hysteresis losses. The variation of core
loss/frequency as function of frequency is shown in the figure
15
Pc/f 10
(W/Hz)
5
)
25 50
14
f (Hz)
The hysteresis and eddy current losses of the transformer at 25 Hz respectively are
(A) 250 W and 2.5 W (B) 250 W and 62.5W
20
(C) 312.5 W and 62.5 W (D) 312.5 W and 250 W
Q.37 A non-salient pole synchronous generator having synchronous reactance of 0.8 pu is supplying 1 pu
E
power to a unity power factor load at a terminal voltage of 1.1 pu. Neglecting the armature
resistance, the angle of the voltage behind the synchronous reactance with respect to the angle of
the terminal voltage in degrees is ________.
AT
Q.38 A separately excited 300 V DC shunt motor under no load runs at 900 rpm drawing an armature
current of 2 A. The armature resistance is 0.5 Ω and leakage inductance is 0.01 H. When loaded,
(G
the armature current is 15 A. Then the speed in rpm is _____
Q.39 The load shown in the figure absorbs 4 kW at a power factor of 0.89 lagging.
03
1Ω
2:1
EE
50 Hz X 110 V ZL
ac source
Assuming the transformer to be ideal, the value of the reactance X to improve the input power
factor to unity is ___________.
EE 9/15
Q.40 The parameters measured for a 220V/110V, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer are:
Self inductance of primary winding = 45 mH

Self inductance of secondary winding = 30 mH
Mutual inductance between primary and secondary windings = 20 mH
Using the above parameters, the leakage (Ll1 , Ll2) and magnetizing (Lm) inductances as referred to
primary side in the equivalent circuit respectively, are
(A) 5mH, 20mH and 40mH (B) 5mH, 80mH and 40mH
(C) 25mH, 10mH and 20mH (D) 45mH, 30mH and 20mH
)
Q.41 For a 400 km long transmission line, the series impedance is (0.0 + j0.5) Ω/km and the shunt
admittance is (0.0 + j5.0) µmho/km. The magnitude of the series impedance (in Ω) of the
14
equivalent π circuit of the transmission line is ________.
Q.42 The complex power consumed by a constant-voltage load is given by (𝑃𝑃1 + 𝑗𝑗𝑄𝑄1 ),
20
where, 1 kW ≤ 𝑃𝑃1 ≤ 1.5 kW and 0.5 kVAR ≤ 𝑄𝑄1 ≤ 1 kVAR.
A compensating shunt capacitor is chosen such that |𝑄𝑄| ≤ 0.25 kVAR, where Q is the net reactive
power consumed by the capacitor-load combination. The reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the
capacitor is _________.
E
Q.43 The figure shows the single line diagram of a single machine infinite bus system.
AT
Infinite
bus
(G
The inertia constant of the synchronous generator 𝐻𝐻 = 5 MW-s/MVA. Frequency is 50 Hz.

Mechanical power is 1 pu. The system is operating at the stable equilibrium point with rotor angle
𝛿𝛿 equal to 30o . A three phase short circuit fault occurs at a certain location on one of the circuits of
the double circuit transmission line. During fault, electrical power in pu is 𝑃𝑃𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 sin 𝛿𝛿. If the values
of δ and 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 ⁄𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 at the instant of fault clearing are 45o and 3.762 radian/s respectively, then 𝑃𝑃𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 (in
03
pu) is _______.
EE
Q.44 The block diagram of a system is shown in the figure
1 -
R(s) +
-
+
- G(s) s C(s)
s
If the desired transfer function of the system is
C ( s) s
= 2
R( s) s + s + 1
then G(s) is
−s
(A) 1 (B) s (C) 1/s (D)
s + s2 − s − 2
3
EE 10/15
Q.45 Consider the system described by following state space equations
 x1   0 1   x1  0 x 
 x  = − 1 − 1  x  + 1 u ; y = [1 0]  1 
 2    2    x2 
If u is unit step input, then the steady state error of the system is
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 1
Q.46 The magnitude Bode plot of a network is shown in the figure
|G(jω)|
)
Slope 20 dB/decade
dB
14
0 log10 ω
1 1
20
3
The maximum phase angle ϕm and the corresponding gain Gm respectively, are
(A) − 30° and 1.73 dB (B) − 30° and 4.77dB
(C) + 30° and 4.77dB (D) + 30° and 1.73 dB
E
Q.47 A periodic waveform observed across a load is represented by
AT
 1 + sin ω t 0 ≤ ω t < 6π
V (t ) = 
− 1 + sin ω t 6π ≤ ω t < 12π
(G
The measured value, using moving iron voltmeter connected across the load, is
3 2 3 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2 3
03
Q.48 In the bridge circuit shown, the capacitors are loss free. At balance, the value of capacitance C1 in
microfarad is _________.
EE
35k C1
Vsin(t) G
105k 0.1F
EE 11/15
Q.49 Two monoshot multivibrators, one positive edge triggered (M1) and another negative edge triggered
(M2), are connected as shown in figure
+5V
10k M1 M2
Q1 Q2 vo
10µF Q1 Q2
)
The monoshots M1 and M2 when triggered produce pulses of width T1 and T2 respectively, where
T1>T2. The steady state output voltage vo of the circuit is
14
(A) vo
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1
20
t
(B) vo
T1 T1 T1 T1
t
E
(C) vo
AT
T2 T1 T2 T1 T2
t
(G
(D) vo
T2 T2 T2 T2 T2 T2
t
03
EE
EE 12/15
Q.50 The transfer characteristic of the Op-amp circuit shown in figure is
R
+Vsat R
vi R
+Vsat
- R
-
+
-Vsat + vo
R
-Vsat
R
(A) (B)
)
v0
1
14
-1 v0
vi
20
vi
(C) (D)
v0 v0
E
AT
vi vi
1 -1
(G
Q.51 A 3-bit gray counter is used to control the output of the multiplexer as shown in the figure. The
initial state of the counter is 0002. The output is pulled high. The output of the circuit follows the
sequence
03
A2
+5V
3-bit gray A1
counter A0
EE
S0 S1
E R
I0 0
I1 1 4X1
I2 2 MUX Output
3
CLK
I3
(A) I0, 1, 1, I1, I3, 1, 1, I2 (B) I0, 1, I1, 1, I2, 1, I3, 1

(C) 1, I0, 1, I1, I2, 1, I3,1 (D) I0, I1, I2, I3, I0, I1, I2, I3
EE 13/15
Q.52 A hysteresis type TTL inverter is used to realize an oscillator in the circuit shown in the figure.
10k
+5V
vo
0.1µF
If the lower and upper trigger level voltages are 0.9 V and 1.7 V, the period (in ms), for which
output is LOW, is __________.
)
14
Q.53 A three-phase fully controlled bridge converter is fed through star-delta transformer as shown in the
20
figure.
IR Io
1:K
R
Y
E
B
AT
The converter is operated at a firing angle of 300. Assuming the load current (I0) to be virtually
constant at 1 p.u. and transformer to be an ideal one, the input phase current waveform is
(G
(A) 2/3K (B) 2K/3

1/3K K/3
IR IR
0 π 2π 0 π 2π
03
(C) 2K/3 (D) 2/3K
IR IR
EE
0 π 2π 0 π 2π
EE 14/15
Q.54 A diode circuit feeds an ideal inductor as shown in the figure. Given 𝑣𝑣𝑠𝑠 = 100 sin(ω𝑡𝑡) V, where
ω = 100π rad/s, and L = 31.83 mH. The initial value of inductor current is zero. Switch S is closed
at t = 2.5 ms. The peak value of inductor current iL (in A) in the first cycle is ________.
)
14
Q.55 A single-phase voltage source inverter shown in figure is feeding power to a load. The triggering
pulses of the devices are also shown in the figure.
20
S1 S2
C S1,S4
VDC θ π−θ π 2π
O A iL B
Load
C
S3 S2,S3
S4
π+θ 2π−θ
E
If the load current is sinusoidal and is zero at 0, π, 2π…, the node voltage VAO has the waveform
AT
(A) VDC/2 (B) VDC/2
VAO
θ π−θ π 2π VAO
(G
θ π−θ π 2π
-VDC/2
(C) VDC/2 (D) VDC/2

03
VAO π
θ π−θ 2π VAO
θ π−θ π 2π
-VDC/2
EE
EE 15/15
GATE 2014
SESSION ‐ 3 SESSION ‐ 3
GA 1 D 1 EE 24 C 1
GA 2 C 1 EE 25 B 1
GA 3 C 1 EE 26 C 2
GA 4 C 1 EE 27 D 2
GA 5 C 1 EE 28 0.05 to 0.07 2
GA 6 B 2 EE 29 2 to 2 2
GA 7 D 2 EE 30 3 to 3 2
GA 8 D 2 EE 31 B 2
GA 9 C 2 EE 32 B 2
GA 10 C 2 EE 33 D 2
EE 1 C 1 EE 34 C 2
EE 2 2 to 2 1 EE 35 B 2
EE 3 A 1 EE 36 B 2
EE 4 0.4 to 0.5 1 EE 37 32.4 to 34.0 2
EE 5 C 1 EE 38 879 to 881 2
EE 6 C 1 EE 39 23 to 24 2
EE 7 A 1 EE 40 B 2
EE 8 A 1 EE 41 186 to 188 2
EE 9 A 1 EE 42 0.75 to 0.75 2
EE 10 14 to 14 1 EE 43 0.22 to 0.24 2
EE 11 D 1 EE 44 B 2
EE 12 C 1 EE 45 A 2
EE 13 12.45 to 12.65 1 EE 46 C 2
EE 14 A 1 EE 47 A 2
EE 15 B 1 EE 48 0.3 to 0.3 2
EE 16 332 to 332 1 EE 49 C 2
EE 17 C 1 EE 50 C 2
EE 18 A 1 EE 51 A 2
EE 19 2 to 2 1 EE 52 0.62 to 0.66 2
EE 20 A 1 EE 53 B 2
EE 21 D 1 EE 54 16.6 to 17.4 2
EE 22 D 1 EE 55 D 2
EE 23 C 1
SESSION - 1
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
Notations :
Question Paper Name: EE: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 7th Feb Shift1

Number of Questions: 65
Total Marks: 100.0
Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.
Section Marks: 15.0
Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT

Correct Answer :
32
Options :

Options :
Section Marks: 85.0
Correct Answer:
0.25

Options :
Correct Answer :
9
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
0.22 to 0.23

Options :
Correct Answer :
1
Correct Answer :
90

Options :
Correct Answer :
0.17 to 0.2

Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
100 to 110
Options :

Options :
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
3.3 to 3.4

Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
-3
Options :
Options :

Options :
Correct Answer :
7
Options :
Correct Answer :
60 to 64
Correct Answer :
1.16 to 1.22
Options :
Correct Answer :
17 to 20
Correct Answer:
6
Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
20
Options :
Correct Answer :
5.7 to 6.1

Options :
Correct Answer :
9.9 to 10.1

Correct Answer:
0.4 to 0.6
Correct Answer :
0.48 to 0.52
Correct Answer:
8
Correct Answer :
57 to 58

Correct Answer :
1.3 to 1.4
Correct Answer :
554 to 556
Options :
Options :
Options :

Options :
SESSION - 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
Notations :
Question Paper Name: EE: ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 7th Feb Shift2

Total Marks: 100.0
Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions.
Section Marks: 15.0
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Question Number : 8 Question Type :NAT
Correct Answers :
8

Options :
Options :
Section Marks: 85.0
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
11.75 to 12.25
Options :
Options :
Correct Answer :
246 to 250
Correct Answer:
1.1 to 1.4

Correct Answer:
0.74 to 0.76
Options :

Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :

Correct Answer :
0
Options :
Correct Answer :
177 to 183

Correct Answer :
400 to 403
Options :
Correct Answer :
0.23 to 0.25

Options :
Correct Answer :
0.70 to 0.76

Options :
Correct Answer :
1.6 to 1.7
Options :

Correct Answer :
0.14 to 0.16
Correct Answer :
2480 to 2520

Correct Answer :
0.75
Correct Answer:
61 to 62
Options :
Options :
Options :
Options :

Options :
Options :

Correct Answer:
135 to 137
Correct Answer:
1.85 to 1.95

Options :
Options :
Options :
Correct Answer:
190 to 192
Correct Answer :
0
Options :
Correct Answer:
47.5
Correct Answer :
-48 to -46
Correct Answer:
0.16 to 0.18
Correct Answer :
30

Options :

Options :
Options :
Options :
GATE 2016 General Aptitude - GA Set-6

Q.1 The man who is now Municipal Commissioner worked as ____________________.
(A) the security guard at a university
(B) a security guard at the university
(C) a security guard at university
(D) the security guard at the university
Q.2 Nobody knows how the Indian cricket team is going to cope with the difficult and seamer-friendly
wickets in Australia.
Choose the option which is closest in meaning to the underlined phrase in the above sentence.
(A) put up with (B) put in with (C) put down to (D) put up against
Q.3 Find the odd one in the following group of words.
mock, deride, praise, jeer
(A) mock (B) deride (C) praise (D) jeer
Q.4 Pick the odd one from the following options.
(A) CADBE (B) JHKIL (C) XVYWZ (D) ONPMQ
Q.5 In a quadratic function, the value of the product of the roots (α, β) is 4. Find the value of
𝛼𝛼 𝑛𝑛 + 𝛽𝛽 𝑛𝑛
𝛼𝛼 −𝑛𝑛 + 𝛽𝛽 −𝑛𝑛
4 n 2n-1 n-1
(A) n (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 4

Q.6 Among 150 faculty members in an institute, 55 are connected with each other through Facebook®
and 85 are connected through WhatsApp®. 30 faculty members do not have Facebook® or
WhatsApp® accounts. The number of faculty members connected only through Facebook® accounts
is ______________.
(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 65 (D) 90
1/3
Q.7 Computers were invented for performing only high-end useful computations. However, it is no
understatement that they have taken over our world today. The internet, for example, is ubiquitous.
Many believe that the internet itself is an unintended consequence of the original invention. With
the advent of mobile computing on our phones, a whole new dimension is now enabled. One is left
wondering if all these developments are good or, more importantly, required.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
paragraph?
(i) The author believes that computers are not good for us.
(ii) Mobile computers and the internet are both intended inventions
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) both (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.8 All hill-stations have a lake. Ooty has two lakes.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are logically valid and can be inferred from the above
sentences?
(i) Ooty is not a hill-station.

(ii) No hill-station can have more than one lake.
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only
(C) both (i) and (ii) (D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Q.9 In a 2 × 4 rectangle grid shown below, each cell is a rectangle. How many rectangles can be
observed in the grid?
(A) 21 (B) 27 (C) 30 (D) 36
2/3
Q.10
f(x)
Choose the correct expression for f(x) given in the graph.
(A) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 1 − |𝑥𝑥 − 1| (B) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 1 + |𝑥𝑥 − 1|
(C) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 2 − |𝑥𝑥 − 1| (D) 𝑓𝑓(𝑥𝑥) = 2 + |𝑥𝑥 − 1|
3/3
GATE 2016 EE paper Electrical Engineering Set 1 (2nd Stage)

Q.1 The maximum value attained by the function ( ) = ( − 1)( − 2) in the interval [1, 2] is
_____.
Q.2 Consider a 3 × 3 matrix with every element being equal to 1. Its only non-zero eigenvalue is ____.
Q.3 The Laplace Transform of ( )= sin(5 ) ( ) is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.4 A function ( ), such that (0) = 1 and (1) = 3 , is a solution of the differential equation
+ 2 + = 0. Then (2) is
(A) 5 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 7
Q.5 The value of the integral

2 +5
− ( − 4 + 5)
over the contour | | = 1, taken in the anti-clockwise direction, would be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.6
( )
The transfer function of a system is = . The steady state output y(t) is (2 + ) for
( )
the input (2 ). The values of A and , respectively are
(A) , −45 (B) , +45 (C) √2, −45 (D) √2,+45

√ √
Q.7
The phase cross-over frequency of the transfer function ( )= in rad/s is
( )
(A) √3 (C) 3 (D) 3√3
(B)
√
EE 1/15
Q.8 Consider a continuous-time system with input ( ) and output ( ) given by
( ) = ( ) cos( )
This system is
(A) linear and time-invariant
(B) non-linear and time-invariant
(C) linear and time-varying
(D) non-linear and time-varying
Q.9
The value of ∫ (2 − 2) d , where ( ) is the Dirac delta function, is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.10 A temperature in the range of −40˚ C to 55˚ C is to be measured with a resolution of 0.1˚ C. The
minimum number of ADC bits required to get a matching dynamic range of the temperature sensor
is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
Q.11 Consider the following circuit which uses a 2-to-1 multiplexer as shown in the figure below. The
Boolean expression for output F in terms of A and B is
0
Y F
S
1
A
B
(A) A ⊕ (B) + (C) + (D) ⊕
EE 2/15
Q.12 A transistor circuit is given below. The Zener diode breakdown voltage is 5.3 V as shown. Take
base to emitter voltage drop to be 0.6 V. The value of the current gain β is _________.
10 V
4.7 k 220 
0.5 mA
5.3 V
470 
Q.13 In cylindrical coordinate system, the potential produced by a uniform ring charge is given by
= ( , ), where f is a continuous function of r and z. Let ⃗ be the resulting electric field. Then
the magnitude of ∇ × ⃗
(A) increases with . (B) is 0. (C) is 3. (D) decreases with .
Q.14 A soft-iron toroid is concentric with a long straight conductor carrying a direct current I. If the
relative permeability µr of soft-iron is 100, the ratio of the magnetic flux densities at two adjacent
points located just inside and just outside the toroid, is _______.
Q.15 RA and RB are the input resistances of circuits as shown below. The circuits extend infinitely in the
direction shown. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
2 2 2
RA
1 1 1
2 2 2
RB
1 1 1 1
(A) RA=RB (B) RA=RB=0 (C) RA< RB (D) RB= RA /(1+RA)
EE 3/15
Q.16 In a constant V/f induction motor drive, the slip at the maximum torque
(A) is directly proportional to the synchronous speed.
(B) remains constant with respect to the synchronous speed.
(C) has an inverse relation with the synchronous speed.
(D) has no relation with the synchronous speed.
Q.17 In the portion of a circuit shown, if the heat generated in 5 Ω resistance is 10 calories per second,
then heat generated by the 4 Ω resistance, in calories per second, is _______.
4 6
5
Q.18 In the given circuit, the current supplied by the battery, in ampere, is _______.
I1 1 1 I2
1V 1
I2
Q.19 In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton Raphson
load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted to PQ type. In this
iteration,
(A) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes increases by two.
(B) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes increases by two.
(C) the number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of unknown voltage
magnitudes decreases by two.
(D) the number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of unknown
voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
Q.20 The magnitude of three-phase fault currents at buses A and B of a power system are 10 pu and 8 pu,
respectively. Neglect all resistances in the system and consider the pre-fault system to be unloaded.
The pre-fault voltage at all buses in the system is 1.0 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus B during a
three-phase fault at bus A is 0.8 pu. The voltage magnitude at bus A during a three-phase fault at
bus B, in pu, is ________.
EE 4/15
Q.21 Consider a system consisting of a synchronous generator working at a lagging power factor, a
synchronous motor working at an overexcited condition and a directly grid-connected induction
generator. Consider capacitive VAr to be a source and inductive VAr to be a sink of reactive power.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Synchronous motor and synchronous generator are sources and induction generator is a sink of
reactive power.
(B) Synchronous motor and induction generator are sources and synchronous generator is a sink of
reactive power.
(C) Synchronous motor is a source and induction generator and synchronous generator are sinks of
reactive power.
(D) All are sources of reactive power.
Q.22 A buck converter, as shown in Figure (a) below, is working in steady state. The output voltage and
the inductor current can be assumed to be ripple free. Figure (b) shows the inductor voltage v
during a complete switching interval. Assuming all devices are ideal, the duty cycle of the buck
converter is ________.
vL
M
30V
+ vL - +
+
C R TON TOFF
Vg D Vo
- 0
t
-
 20V
TS
(a) (b)
EE 5/15
Q.23 A steady dc current of 100 A is flowing through a power module (S, D) as shown in Figure (a). The
V-I characteristics of the IGBT (S) and the diode (D) are shown in Figures (b) and (c), respectively.
The conduction power loss in the power module (S, D), in watts, is ________.
IS(A) ID (A)
S dV/dI=0.02 V o=0.7V dV/dI=0.01

D
V o=1V
VS(Volt) V D (Volt)
100 A
V-I characteristic of IGBT V-I characteristic of diode
(a) (b) (c)
Q.24 A 4-pole, lap-connected, separately excited dc motor is drawing a steady current of 40 A while
running at 600 rpm. A good approximation for the waveshape of the current in an armature
conductor of the motor is given by
40A
I
10A I
t t
(A) (B)
I 10A
I
10A
T=25ms T=25ms
t
t T=25ms
T=25ms -10A
-10A
(C) (D)
EE 6/15
Q.25 If an ideal transformer has an inductive load element at port 2 as shown in the figure below, the
equivalent inductance at port 1 is
n:1
Port 1 Port 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.26 Candidates were asked to come to an interview with 3 pens each. Black, blue, green and red were
the permitted pen colours that the candidate could bring. The probability that a candidate comes
with all 3 pens having the same colour is _____.
Q.27 
n
Let S   n where | | < 1. The value of in the range 0< < 1, such that =2
n 0
is _______.
Q.28 Let the eigenvalues of a 2 x 2 matrix A be 1, -2 with eigenvectors x1 and x2 respectively. Then the
eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the matrix − 3 + 4 would, respectively, be
(A) 2, 14; x1, x2 (B) 2, 14; x1+ x2, x1 - x2
(C) 2, 0; x1, x2 (D) 2, 0; x1+ x2, x1- x2
Q.29 Let A be a 4 × 3 real matrix with rank 2. Which one of the following statement is TRUE?
(A) Rank of is less than 2.
(B) Rank of is equal to 2.
(C) Rank of is greater than 2.
(D) Rank of can be any number between 1 and 3.
EE 7/15
Q.30 Consider the following asymptotic Bode magnitude plot (ω is in rad/s).
magnitude (dB)
12 dB
20 dB/dec
- 40 dB/dec
0 dB
8 
0.5
Which one of the following transfer functions is best represented by the above Bode magnitude
plot?
(A)
( . )( . )
( . )
(B)
( . )
(C)
( )( )
(D)
( )( )
Q.31 Consider the following state-space representation of a linear time-invariant system.
1 0 1 (0) = 1
̇( ) = ( ), ( )= ( ), = and
0 2 1 1
The value of ( ) for = log 2 is __________.
Q.32 s3
Loop transfer function of a feedback system is G( s) H ( s)  2 . Take the Nyquist contour in
s ( s  3)
the clockwise direction. Then, the Nyquist plot of G ( s ) H ( s ) encircles  1  j 0
(A) once in clockwise direction (B) twice in clockwise direction
(C) once in anticlockwise direction (D) twice in anticlockwise direction
EE 8/15
Q.33 Given the following polynomial equation
+ 5.5 + 8.5 + 3 = 0,
the number of roots of the polynomial, which have real parts strictly less than −1, is ________ .
Q.34 Suppose ( ) and ( ) have the Fourier transforms as shown below.
X 1(j) X2(j)
1 1
0.5 0.5
0.3 0.3
1 0 1 2  2 1 0 1 
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) ( ) and ( ) are complex and ( ) ( ) is also complex with nonzero imaginary part
(B) ( ) and ( ) are real and ( ) ( ) is also real
(C) ( ) and ( ) are complex but ( ) ( ) is real
(D) ( ) and ( ) are imaginary but ( ) ( ) is real
Q.35 The output of a continuous-time, linear time-invariant system is denoted by { ( )} where ( ) is

the input signal. A signal ( ) is called eigen-signal of the system T , when { ( )} = ( ),
where is a complex number, in general, and is called an eigenvalue of T. Suppose the impulse
response of the system T is real and even. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) cos( ) is an eigen-signal but sin( ) is not
(B) cos( ) and sin( ) are both eigen-signals but with different eigenvalues
(C) sin( ) is an eigen-signal but cos( ) is not
(D) cos( ) and sin( ) are both eigen-signals with identical eigenvalues
Q.36 The current state QA QB of a two JK flip-flop system is 00. Assume that the clock rise-time is much
smaller than the delay of the JK flip-flop. The next state of the system is
5V
QA QB
J J
QA
K K
CLK
(A) 00 (B) 01 (C) 11 (D) 10

EE 9/15
Q.37 A 2-bit flash Analog to Digital Converter (ADC) is given below. The input is 0 ≤ VIN ≤ 3 Volts.
The expression for the LSB of the output B0 as a Boolean function of X2, X1, and X0 is
3V
100 
X2
200  B1
Digital
X1 Circuit B0
200 
100  X0
VIN
(A) [ ⊕ ] (B) [ ⊕ ] (C) [ ⊕ ] (D) [ ⊕ ]
Q.38 Two electric charges and −2 are placed at (0,0) and (6,0) on the x-y plane. The equation of the
zero equipotential curve in the x-y plane is
(A) = −2 (B) =2 (C) + =2 (D) ( + 2) + = 16
Q.39 In the circuit shown, switch S2 has been closed for a long time. At time = 0 switch S1 is closed.
At = 0 , the rate of change of current through the inductor, in amperes per second, is _____.
S1 1 S2
2
3V 1H
3V
Q.40 A three-phase cable is supplying 800 kW and 600 kVAr to an inductive load. It is intended to
supply an additional resistive load of 100 kW through the same cable without increasing the heat
dissipation in the cable, by providing a three-phase bank of capacitors connected in star across the
load. Given the line voltage is 3.3 kV, 50 Hz, the capacitance per phase of the bank, expressed in
microfarads, is ________.
EE 10/15
Q.41 A 30 MVA, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 13.8 kV, star-connected synchronous generator has positive, negative
and zero sequence reactances, 15%, 15% and 5% respectively. A reactance (Xn) is connected
between the neutral of the generator and ground. A double line to ground fault takes place
involving phases ‘b’ and ‘c’, with a fault impedance of j0.1 p.u. The value of Xn (in p.u.) that will
limit the positive sequence generator current to 4270 A is _________.
Q.42 If the star side of the star-delta transformer shown in the figure is excited by a negative sequence
voltage, then
(A) VAB leads Vab by 60º

(B) VAB lags Vab by 60º
(C) VAB leads Vab by 30º
(D) VAB lags Vab by 30º
Q.43 A single-phase thyristor-bridge rectifier is fed from a 230 V, 50 Hz, single-phase AC mains. If it is
delivering a constant DC current of 10 A, at firing angle of 30o, then value of the power factor at
AC mains is
(A) 0.87 (B) 0.9 (C) 0.78 (D) 0.45
EE 11/15
Q.44 The switches T1 and T2 in Figure (a) are switched in a complementary fashion with sinusoidal
pulse width modulation technique. The modulating voltage ( ) = 0.8 sin (200 ) V and the
triangular carrier voltage ( ) are as shown in Figure (b). The carrier frequency is 5 kHz. The peak
value of the 100 Hz component of the load current (iL), in ampere, is ________ .
+ vc
T1
Vdc/2=250V
iL
1
0.8
t
XL=16 at
100 Hz R=12 T2
+
vm
Vdc/2=250V
(b)
-
(a)
Q.45 The voltage ( ) across and the current ( ) through a semiconductor switch during a turn-ON
transition are shown in figure. The energy dissipated during the turn-ON transition, in mJ, is
_______.
vs 600 V
0
t
50 A
is
100 A
0
t
T1=1s T2=1s
EE 12/15
Q.46 A single-phase 400 V, 50 Hz transformer has an iron loss of 5000 W at the rated condition. When
operated at 200 V, 25 Hz, the iron loss is 2000 W. When operated at 416 V, 52 Hz, the value of the
hysteresis loss divided by the eddy current loss is ______.
Q.47 A DC shunt generator delivers 45 A at a terminal voltage of 220 V. The armature and the shunt
field resistances are 0.01 Ω and 44 Ω respectively. The stray losses are 375 W. The percentage
efficiency of the DC generator is ____________.
Q.48 A three-phase, 50 Hz salient-pole synchronous motor has a per-phase direct-axis reactance (Xd) of
0.8 pu and a per-phase quadrature-axis reactance (Xq) of 0.6 pu. Resistance of the machine is
negligible. It is drawing full-load current at 0.8 pf (leading). When the terminal voltage is 1 pu,
per-phase induced voltage, in pu, is _________.
Q.49 A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 50 Hz, distribution transformer is to be connected as an

auto-transformer to get an output voltage of 2420 V. Its maximum kVA rating as an auto-
transformer is
(A) 22 (B) 24.2 (C) 242 (D) 2420
Q.50 A single-phase full-bridge voltage source inverter (VSI) is fed from a 300 V battery. A pulse of
120o duration is used to trigger the appropriate devices in each half-cycle. The rms value of the
fundamental component of the output voltage, in volts, is
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 300 (D) 331
Q.51 A single-phase transmission line has two conductors each of 10 mm radius. These are fixed at a
center-to-center distance of 1 m in a horizontal plane. This is now converted to a three-phase
transmission line by introducing a third conductor of the same radius. This conductor is fixed at an
equal distance D from the two single-phase conductors. The three-phase line is fully transposed.
The positive sequence inductance per phase of the three-phase system is to be 5% more than that of
the inductance per conductor of the single-phase system. The distance D, in meters, is _______.
EE 13/15
Q.52 In the circuit shown below, the supply voltage is 10 sin(1000 ) volts. The peak value of the steady
state current through the 1 Ω resistor, in amperes, is ______.
4
2F
250F 500mH
1
5
4mH
10sin(1000t)
Q.53 A dc voltage with ripple is given by ( ) = [100 + 10 sin( ) − 5 sin (3 )] volts.

Measurements of this voltage ( ), made by moving-coil and moving-iron voltmeters, show
readings of V1 and V2 respectively. The value of V2 − V1 , in volts, is _________.
Q.54 The circuit below is excited by a sinusoidal source. The value of R, in Ω, for which the admittance
of the circuit becomes a pure conductance at all frequencies is _____________.
100F R
0.02H R
Q.55 In the circuit shown below, the node voltage VA is ___________ V.
EE 14/15
EE 15/15
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA B 1
2 MCQ GA A 1
3 MCQ GA C 1
4 MCQ GA D 1
5 MCQ GA B 1
6 MCQ GA A 2
7 MCQ GA D 2
8 MCQ GA D 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 NAT EE-1 0.0 : 0.0 1
2 NAT EE-1 3.0 : 3.0 1
3 MCQ EE-1 A 1
4 MCQ EE-1 B 1
5 MCQ EE-1 B 1
6 MCQ EE-1 B 1
7 MCQ EE-1 A 1
8 MCQ EE-1 C 1
9 MCQ EE-1 A 1
10 MCQ EE-1 B 1
11 MCQ EE-1 D 1
12 NAT EE-1 18.0 : 20.0 1
13 MCQ EE-1 B 1
14 NAT EE-1 99.0 : 101.0 1
15 MCQ EE-1 D 1
16 MCQ EE-1 C 1
17 NAT EE-1 1.9 : 2.1 1
18 NAT EE-1 0.5 : 0.5 1
19 MCQ EE-1 B 1
20 NAT EE-1 0.83 : 0.85 1
21 MCQ EE-1 A 1
22 NAT EE-1 0.39 : 0.41 1
23 NAT EE-1 169.0 : 171.0 1
24 MCQ EE-1 C 1
25 MCQ EE-1 B 1
26 NAT EE-1 0.2 : 0.2 2
27 NAT EE-1 0.28 : 0.31 2
28 MCQ EE-1 A 2
29 MCQ EE-1 B 2
30 MCQ EE-1 A 2
31 NAT EE-1 5.9 : 6.1 2
32 MCQ EE-1 A 2
33 NAT EE-1 2.0 : 2.0 2
34 MCQ EE-1 C 2
35 MCQ EE-1 D 2
36 MCQ EE-1 C 2
37 MCQ EE-1 A 2
38 MCQ EE-1 D 2
39 NAT EE-1 1.9 : 2.1 2
40 NAT EE-1 47.0 : 49.0 2
41 NAT EE-1 1.05 : 1.15 2
42 MCQ EE-1 D 2
43 MCQ EE-1 C 2
44 NAT EE-1 9.9 : 10.1 2
45 NAT EE-1 74.0 : 76.0 2
46 NAT EE-1 1.4 : 1.5 2
47 NAT EE-1 86.0 : 88.0 2
48 NAT EE-1 1.58 : 1.62 2
49 MCQ EE-1 C 2
50 MCQ EE-1 A 2
51 NAT EE-1 1.41 : 1.47 2
52 NAT EE-1 1.0 : 1.0 2
53 NAT EE-1 0.30 : 0.33 2
54 NAT EE-1 14.0 : 14.2 2
55 NAT EE-1 11.25 : 11.50 2
GATE 2016 General Aptitude – GA Set-8

Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him.
(A) bare with (B) bore with (C) bear with (D) bare
Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options:

(A) Managable (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible
Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following:
13, 23, 33, 43, 53

(A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53
Q.4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes.
(B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes.
(C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes.
(D) Only R2D2 is a robot.
Q.5 If |9y−6| =3, then y2 −4y/3 is .

(A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) −1/3 (D) undefined
1/3

Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the
actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a
plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed
capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a
small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is
____.
Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed
that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with
masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were
successful in their professions.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph?
(A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines.
(B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be
mechanical engineers.
(C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees
in mechanical engineering.
(D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.
2/3
Q.8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line
with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a
developing country.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence?
Based on the proposal,

(i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT.
(ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective.
(iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT.
(iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country.
(A) (iii) and (iv) only. (B) (i) and (iv) only.
(C) (ii) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only.
Q.9 Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free
throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully
make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts?
(A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000
Q.10 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 × 3424 is _____.
3/3
GATE 2016 Electrical Engineering Set 2 (2nd stage)

Q.1 The output expression for the Karnaugh map shown below is
(A) + (B) + ̅ (C) ̅ + ̅ (D) ̅ +
Q.2 The circuit shown below is an example of a
(A) low pass filter. (B) band pass filter.

(C) high pass filter. (D) notch filter.
Q.3 The following figure shows the connection of an ideal transformer with primary to secondary turns
ratio of 1:100. The applied primary voltage is 100 V (rms), 50 Hz, AC. The rms value of the current
I, in ampere, is __________.
Q.4 ( )
Consider a causal LTI system characterized by differential equation + ( ) = 3 ( ). The
response of the system to the input ( )=3 ( ), where u(t) denotes the unit step
function, is
(A) 9 ( ). (B) 9 ( ).
(C) 9 ( )−6 ( ). (D) 54 ( ) − 54 ( ).
EE 1/12
Q.5 Suppose the maximum frequency in a band-limited signal ( ) is 5 kHz. Then, the maximum
frequency in ( ) cos (2000π ), in kHz, is ________.
Q.6 Consider the function ( ) = + ∗ where is a complex variable and ∗

denotes its complex
conjugate. Which one of the following is TRUE?
(A) ( ) is both continuous and analytic
(B) ( ) is continuous but not analytic
(C) ( ) is not continuous but is analytic
(D) ( ) is neither continuous nor analytic
Q.7 A 3 × 3 matrix is such that, = . Then the eigenvalues of are

(A) 1, 1, −1
(B) 1, 0.5 + 0.866, 0.5 − 0.866
(C) 1, −0.5 + 0.866, −0.5 − 0.866
(D) 0, 1, −1
Q.8 The solution of the differential equation, for > 0, ( ) + 2 ( ) + ( ) = 0 with initial
conditions (0) = 0 and (0) = 1, is (u(t) denotes the unit step function),
(A) ( ) (B) ( − ) ( )
(C) (− + ) ( ) (D) ( )
Q.9 The value of the line integral
(2 +2 + )
along a path joining the origin (0, 0, 0) and the point (1, 1, 1) is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q.10 Let f(x) be a real, periodic function satisfying (− ) = − ( ). The general form of its Fourier
series representation would be
(A) ( ) = +∑ cos ( )
(B) ( ) = ∑ sin ( )
(C) ( ) = +∑ cos( )
(D) ( ) = ∑ sin (2 + 1)
EE 2/12
Q.11 A resistance and a coil are connected in series and supplied from a single phase, 100 V, 50 Hz ac
source as shown in the figure below. The rms values of plausible voltages across the resistance (VR)
and coil (VC) respectively, in volts, are
(A) 65, 35 (B) 50, 50

(C) 60, 90 (D) 60, 80
Q.12 The voltage (V) and current (A) across a load are as follows.
( ) = 100 sin( ),
( ) = 10 sin( − 60°) + 2 sin(3 ) + 5 sin(5 ).
The average power consumed by the load, in W, is___________.
Q.13 A power system with two generators is shown in the figure below. The system (generators, buses
and transmission lines) is protected by six overcurrent relays R1 to R6. Assuming a mix of
directional and nondirectional relays at appropriate locations, the remote backup relays for R4 are
(A) R1, R2 (B) R2, R6 (C) R2, R5 (D) R1, R6
Q.14 A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow analysis using
Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is
(A) 189 x 189 (B) 100 x 100 (C) 90 x 90 (D) 180 x 180
Q.15 The inductance and capacitance of a 400 kV, three-phase, 50 Hz lossless transmission line are 1.6
mH/km/phase and 10 nF/km/phase respectively. The sending end voltage is maintained at 400 kV.
To maintain a voltage of 400 kV at the receiving end, when the line is delivering 300 MW load, the
shunt compensation required is
(A) capacitive
(B) inductive
(C) resistive
(D) zero
EE 3/12
Q.16 A parallel plate capacitor filled with two dielectrics is shown in the figure below. If the electric
field in the region A is 4 kV/cm, the electric field in the region B, in kV/cm, is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 16
Q.17 A 50 MVA, 10 kV, 50 Hz, star-connected, unloaded three-phase alternator has a synchronous
reactance of 1 p.u. and a sub-transient reactance of 0.2 p.u. If a 3-phase short circuit occurs close to
the generator terminals, the ratio of initial and final values of the sinusoidal component of the short
circuit current is ________.
Q.18 Consider a linear time-invariant system with transfer function
1
( )=
( + 1)
If the input is cos( ) and the steady state output is cos( + ), then the value of is _________.
Q.19 A three-phase diode bridge rectifier is feeding a constant DC current of 100 A to a highly inductive
load. If three-phase, 415 V, 50 Hz AC source is supplying to this bridge rectifier then the rms value
of the current in each diode, in ampere, is _____________.
Q.20 A buck-boost DC-DC converter, shown in the figure below, is used to convert 24 V battery voltage
to 36 V DC voltage to feed a load of 72 W. It is operated at 20 kHz with an inductor of 2 mH and
output capacitor of 1000 µF. All devices are considered to be ideal. The peak voltage across the
solid-state switch (S), in volt, is ____________.
EE 4/12
Q.21 For the network shown in the figure below, the frequency (in rad/s) at which the maximum phase
lag occurs is, ___________.
9
1
vin vo
1F
Q.22 The direction of rotation of a single-phase capacitor run induction motor is reversed by
(A) interchanging the terminals of the AC supply.
(B) interchanging the terminals of the capacitor.
(C) interchanging the terminals of the auxiliary winding.
(D) interchanging the terminals of both the windings.
Q.23 In the circuit shown below, the voltage and current sources are ideal. The voltage (Vout) across the
current source, in volts, is
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 20
Q.24 The graph associated with an electrical network has 7 branches and 5 nodes. The number of
independent KCL equations and the number of independent KVL equations, respectively, are
Q.25 Two electrodes, whose cross-sectional view is shown in the figure below, are at the same potential.
The maximum electric field will be at the point
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
EE 5/12
Q.26 The Boolean expression + + + ̅ + ( + ̅) simplifies to
(A) 1 (B) . (C) . (D) 0
Q.27 For the circuit shown below, taking the opamp as ideal, the output voltage Vout in terms of the input
voltages V1 , V2 and V3 is
(A)1.8V1 + 7.2V2 -V3 (B) 2V1 + 8V2 - 9V3 (C) 7.2V1 + 1.8V2 -V3 (D) 8V1 + 2V2 - 9V3
Q.28 Let ( ) ( ) and ( ) ( ) be two signals whose Fourier Transforms are as shown in
| |
the figure below. In the figure, ℎ( ) = denotes the impulse response.
For the system shown above, the minimum sampling rate required to sample y(t), so that y(t) can be
uniquely reconstructed from its samples, is
(A) 2B1 (B) 2(B1+B2) (C) 4(B1 +B2) (D) ∞
Q.29 The value of the integral 2 ∫ is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1 (D) 2
EE 6/12
Q.30
Let ( ) be the solution of the differential equation −4 + 4 = 0 with initial
conditions (0) = 0 and = 1. Then the value of (1) is _________.
Q.31 The line integral of the vector field = 5 ̂ + (3 +2 ) ̂+ along a path from (0,0,0)
to (1,1,1) parametrized by ( , , ) is _____.
Q.32 3 1
Let = . Consider the set of all vectors such that + = 1 where = .
1 3
Then is
(A) a circle of radius √10
(B) a circle of radius
√
1
(C) an ellipse with major axis along
1
1
(D) an ellipse with minor axis along
1
Q.33 Let the probability density function of a random variable, , be given as:
3
( )= ( )+ (− )
2
where ( ) is the unit step function.
Then the value of 'a' and { ≤ 0}, respectively, are
(A) 2, (B) 4, (C) 2, (D) 4,
Q.34 The driving point input impedance seen from the source Vs of the circuit shown below, in Ω, is
______.
EE 7/12
Q.35 The z-parameters of the two port network shown in the figure are z11  40 , z12  60 ,
z 21  80  and z 22  100 . . The average power delivered to RL  20  , in watts, is _______.
10  I1 I2
 
20V V1 Z V2 RL
 
Q.36 In the balanced 3-phase, 50 Hz, circuit shown below, the value of inductance (L) is 10 mH. The
value of the capacitance (C) for which all the line currents are zero, in millifarads, is ___________.
L C L
C C
L
Q.37 In the circuit shown below, the initial capacitor voltage is 4 V. Switch S1 is closed at = 0. The
charge (in µC) lost by the capacitor from = 25 μ to = 100 μ is ____________.
S1
4V
5
5F
EE 8/12
Q.38 The single line diagram of a balanced power system is shown in the figure. The voltage magnitude
at the generator internal bus is constant and 1.0 p.u. The p.u. reactances of different components in
the system are also shown in the figure. The infinite bus voltage magnitude is 1.0 p.u. A three phase
fault occurs at the middle of line 2.
The ratio of the maximum real power that can be transferred during the pre-fault condition to the
maximum real power that can be transferred under the faulted condition is _________.
Q.39 The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by
( + 1)
( )= , > 0, >0.
(1 + )(1 + 2 )
The closed loop system will be stable if,

( ) ( )
(A) 0 < < (B) 0 < <
( )
(C) 0 < < (D) 0 < <
Q.40 At no load condition, a 3-phase, 50 Hz, lossless power transmission line has sending-end and
receiving-end voltages of 400 kV and 420 kV respectively. Assuming the velocity of traveling
wave to be the velocity of light, the length of the line, in km, is ____________.
Q.41 The power consumption of an industry is 500 kVA, at 0.8 p.f. lagging. A synchronous motor is
added to raise the power factor of the industry to unity. If the power intake of the motor is 100 kW,
the p.f. of the motor is _____________
Q.42 The flux linkage (λ) and current (i) relation for an electromagnetic system is = (√ )/ . When i =
2A and (air-gap length) = 10 cm, the magnitude of mechanical force on the moving part, in N, is
________.
EE 9/12
Q.43 The starting line current of a 415 V, 3-phase, delta connected induction motor is 120 A, when the
rated voltage is applied to its stator winding. The starting line current at a reduced voltage of 110 V,
in ampere, is _________.
Q.44 A single-phase, 2 kVA, 100/200 V transformer is reconnected as an auto-transformer such that its
kVA rating is maximum. The new rating, in kVA, is ______.
Q.45 A full-bridge converter supplying an RLE load is shown in figure. The firing angle of the bridge
converter is 120º. The supply voltage ( ) = 200 sin (100 ) V, R=20 Ω, E=800 V. The
inductor L is large enough to make the output current IL a smooth dc current. Switches are lossless.
The real power fed back to the source, in kW, is __________.
Load
IL
T1 T3
R=20
Bridge
vm
T2 -
T4
E=800V
+
Q.46 A three-phase Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) as shown in the figure is feeding a delta connected
resistive load of 30 Ω/phase. If it is fed from a 600 V battery, with 180o conduction of solid-state
devices, the power consumed by the load, in kW, is __________.
EE 10/12
Q.47 A DC-DC boost converter, as shown in the figure below, is used to boost 360V to 400 V, at a
power of 4 kW. All devices are ideal. Considering continuous inductor current, the rms current in
the solid state switch (S), in ampere, is _________.
Q.48 A single-phase bi-directional voltage source converter (VSC) is shown in the figure below. All
devices are ideal. It is used to charge a battery at 400 V with power of 5 kW from a source Vs = 220
V (rms), 50 Hz sinusoidal AC mains at unity p.f. If its AC side interfacing inductor is 5 mH and the
switches are operated at 20 kHz, then the phase shift (δ) between AC mains voltage (Vs ) and
fundamental AC rms VSC voltage (VC1), in degree, is _________.
Q.49 Consider a linear time invariant system ̇ = , with initial condition (0) at = 0. Suppose and
are eigenvectors of (2 x 2) matrix A corresponding to distinct eigenvalues and respectively.
Then the response ( ) of the system due to initial condition (0) = is
(A) (B) (C) (D) +
Q.50 A second-order real system has the following properties:

a) the damping ratio = 0.5 and undamped natural frequency =10 rad/s,
b) the steady state value of the output, to a unit step input, is 1.02.
The transfer function of the system is
.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
EE 11/12
Q.51 Three single-phase transformers are connected to form a delta-star three-phase transformer of
110 kV/ 11 kV. The transformer supplies at 11 kV a load of 8 MW at 0.8 p.f. lagging to a nearby
plant. Neglect the transformer losses. The ratio of phase currents in delta side to star side is
(A) 1 : 10√3 (B) 10√3 : 1 (C) 1 : 10 (D) √3 : 10
Q.52 The gain at the breakaway point of the root locus of a unity feedback system with open loop
Ks
transfer function G (s )  is
(s  1)(s  4)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 9
Q.53 Two identical unloaded generators are connected in parallel as shown in the figure. Both the
generators are having positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of j0.4 p.u., j0.3 p.u. and
j0.15 p.u., respectively. If the pre-fault voltage is 1 p.u., for a line-to-ground (L-G) fault at the
terminals of the generators, the fault current, in p.u., is ___________.
Q.54 An energy meter, having meter constant of 1200 revolutions/kWh, makes 20 revolutions in 30
seconds for a constant load. The load, in kW, is _____________.
Q.55 A rotating conductor of 1 m length is placed in a radially outward (about the z-axis) magnetic flux
density (B) of 1 Tesla as shown in figure below. Conductor is parallel to and at 1 m distance from
the z-axis. The speed of the conductor in r.p.m. required to induce a voltage of 1 V across it, should
be __________.
EE 12/12
Q. No Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ GA C 1
2 MCQ GA B 1
3 MCQ GA B 1
4 MCQ GA B 1
5 MCQ GA C 1
6 NAT GA 120.0 : 120.0 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA C 2
9 MCQ GA A 2
10 NAT GA 7.0 : 7.0 2
1 MCQ EE-2 B 1
2 MCQ EE-2 A 1
3 NAT EE-2 9.5 : 10.5 1
4 MCQ EE-2 D 1
5 NAT EE-2 6.0 : 6.0 1
6 MCQ EE-2 B 1
7 MCQ EE-2 A;D 1
8 MCQ EE-2 A 1
9 MCQ EE-2 B 1
10 MCQ EE-2 B 1
11 MCQ EE-2 MTA 1
12 NAT EE-2 249.0 : 251.0 1
13 MCQ EE-2 D 1
14 MCQ EE-2 A 1
15 MCQ EE-2 B 1
16 MCQ EE-2 C 1
17 NAT EE-2 4.9 : 5.1 1
18 NAT EE-2 0.69 : 0.72 1
19 NAT EE-2 57.0 : 58.0 1
20 NAT EE-2 59.5 : 60.5 1
21 NAT EE-2 0.30 : 0.33 1
22 MCQ EE-2 C 1
23 MCQ EE-2 D 1
24 MCQ EE-2 D 1
25 MCQ EE-2 A 1
26 MCQ EE-2 D 2
27 MCQ EE-2 D 2
28 MCQ EE-2 B 2
29 MCQ EE-2 D 2
30 NAT EE-2 7.0 : 7.5 2
31 NAT EE-2 4.40 : 4.45 2
32 MCQ EE-2 D 2
33 MCQ EE-2 A 2
34 NAT EE-2 19.5 : 20.5 2
35 NAT EE-2 34.0 : 36.0 2
36 NAT EE-2 2.9 : 3.1 2
37 NAT EE-2 6.8 : 7.2 2
38 NAT EE-2 2.20 : 2.35 2
39 MCQ EE-2 C 2
40 NAT EE-2 294.0 : 298.0 2
41 NAT EE-2 0.31 : 0.33 2
42 NAT EE-2 186.0 : 190.0 2
43 NAT EE-2 31.0 : 33.0 2
44 NAT EE-2 5.9 : 6.1 2
45 NAT EE-2 5.9 : 6.1 2
46 NAT EE-2 23.0 : 25.0 2
47 NAT EE-2 3.0 : 4.0 2
48 NAT EE-2 9.1 : 9.3 2
49 MCQ EE-2 A 2
50 MCQ EE-2 B 2
51 MCQ EE-2 A 2
52 MCQ EE-2 A 2
53 NAT EE-2 5.5 : 6.5 2
54 NAT EE-2 1.9 : 2.1 2
55 NAT EE-2 9.4 : 9.7 2
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering 2017
Question Paper Name: Electrical Engineering 11th Feb 2017 Session 1

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100
Question Number : 1 Correct : 1 Wrong : -0.33




Question Number : 16 Correct : 1 Wrong : 0


















Question Number : 65 Correct : 2 Wrong : 0.66
Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ EE-1 C 1
2 MCQ EE-1 D 1
3 MCQ EE-1 A 1
4 MCQ EE-1 A 1
5 MCQ EE-1 D 1
6 MCQ EE-1 D 1
7 MCQ EE-1 D 1
8 MCQ EE-1 C 1
9 MCQ EE-1 A 1
10 MCQ EE-1 B 1
11 MCQ EE-1 D 1
12 MCQ EE-1 A 1
13 MCQ EE-1 A 1
14 MCQ EE-1 B 1
15 MCQ EE-1 D 1
16 NAT EE-1 Mark to all 1
17 NAT EE-1 0.99 to 1.01 1
18 NAT EE-1 248 to 252 1
19 NAT EE-1 2.9 to 3.1 1
20 NAT EE-1 835 to 842 1
21 NAT EE-1 14 to 14 1
22 NAT EE-1 1.01 to 1.06 1
23 NAT EE-1 4 to 4.1 1
24 NAT EE-1 196 to 200 1
25 NAT EE-1 8.5 to 9.5 1
26 MCQ EE-1 B 2
27 MCQ EE-1 A 2
28 MCQ EE-1 B 2
29 MCQ EE-1 D 2
30 MCQ EE-1 B 2
31 MCQ EE-1 C 2
32 MCQ EE-1 A 2
33 MCQ EE-1 D 2
34 MCQ EE-1 D 2
35 MCQ EE-1 A 2
36 MCQ EE-1 D 2
37 MCQ EE-1 B 2
38 MCQ EE-1 A 2
39 MCQ EE-1 B 2
40 MCQ EE-1 C 2
41 MCQ EE-1 A 2
42 NAT EE-1 10 to 10 2
43 NAT EE-1 3 to 3.1 2
44 NAT EE-1 0.65 to 0.75 2
45 NAT EE-1 145 to 155 2
46 NAT EE-1 0.7 to 0.79 2
47 NAT EE-1 9.5 to 12 2
48 NAT EE-1 620 to 630 2
49 NAT EE-1 548 to 552 2
50 NAT EE-1 0.550 to 0.556 2
51 NAT EE-1 0.09 to 0.1 2
52 NAT EE-1 170 to 174 2
53 NAT EE-1 220 to 230 2
54 NAT EE-1 0.1 to 0.1 2
55 NAT EE-1 1.20 to 1.24 2
56 MCQ GA C 1
57 MCQ GA D 1
58 MCQ GA C 1
59 MCQ GA D 1
60 MCQ GA C 1
61 MCQ GA B 2
62 MCQ GA A 2
63 MCQ GA B 2
64 MCQ GA D 2
65 MCQ GA C 2
Question Paper Name: Electrical Engineering 11th Feb 2017 session 2

Subject Name:
Duration: 180
Total Marks: 100



















Question Number : 61 Correct : 2 Wrong : - 0.66

Q. No. Type Section Key Marks
1 MCQ EE-2 A 1
2 MCQ EE-2 B 1
3 MCQ EE-2 C 1
4 MCQ EE-2 B 1
5 MCQ EE-2 B 1
6 MCQ EE-2 D 1
7 MCQ EE-2 A 1
8 MCQ EE-2 A 1
9 MCQ EE-2 D 1
10 MCQ EE-2 C 1
11 MCQ EE-2 C 1
12 MCQ EE-2 A 1
13 MCQ EE-2 B 1
14 MCQ EE-2 C 1
15 MCQ EE-2 D 1
16 NAT EE-2 0 to 0 1
17 NAT EE-2 0.9 to 0.9 1
18 NAT EE-2 40 to 40 1
19 NAT EE-2 7 to 7 1
20 NAT EE-2 5.7 to 5.8 1
21 NAT EE-2 3 to 3 1
22 NAT EE-2 99 to 101 1
23 NAT EE-2 6 to 6 1
24 NAT EE-2 404 to 409 1
25 NAT EE-2 61 to 61 1
26 MCQ EE-2 A 2
27 MCQ EE-2 C 2
28 MCQ EE-2 A 2
29 MCQ EE-2 C 2
30 MCQ EE-2 D 2
31 MCQ EE-2 B 2
32 MCQ EE-2 D 2
33 MCQ EE-2 B 2
34 MCQ EE-2 B 2
35 MCQ EE-2 A 2
36 MCQ EE-2 C 2
37 MCQ EE-2 D 2
38 MCQ EE-2 C 2
39 MCQ EE-2 C 2
40 MCQ EE-2 C 2
41 MCQ EE-2 A 2
42 NAT EE-2 1235 to 1250 2
43 NAT EE-2 69 to 71 2
44 NAT EE-2 -15 to -14 2
45 NAT EE-2 37 to 39 2
46 NAT EE-2 1.280 to 1.287 2
47 NAT EE-2 10000 to 10000 2
48 NAT EE-2 0.70 to 0.71 2
49 NAT EE-2 6 to 6 2
50 NAT EE-2 39 to 41 2
51 NAT EE-2 0.271 to 0.301 2
52 NAT EE-2 0.75 to 0.85 2
53 NAT EE-2 395 to 405 2
54 NAT EE-2 12.5 to 12.9 2
55 NAT EE-2 9.50 to 10.50 2
56 MCQ GA D 1
57 MCQ GA B 1
58 MCQ GA A 1
59 MCQ GA B 1
60 MCQ GA D 1
61 MCQ GA B 2
62 MCQ GA B 2
63 MCQ GA A 2
64 MCQ GA C 2
65 MCQ GA C 2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-6

Q.1 “Since you have gone off the ________, the _________ sand is likely to damage the car.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) course, coarse (B) course, course

(C) coarse, course (D) coarse, coarse
Q.2 “A common misconception among writers is that sentence structure mirrors thought; the
more _________ the structure, the more complicated the ideas.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) detailed (B) simple (C) clear (D) convoluted
Q.3 The three roots of the equation 𝑓(𝑥) = 0 are 𝑥 = {−2, 0, 3}. What are the three values of 𝑥
for which 𝑓(𝑥 − 3) = 0?
(A) −5, −3, 0 (B) −2, 0, 3

(C) 0, 6, 8 (D) 1, 3, 6
Q.4 (𝑘+2)2
For what values of 𝑘 given below is an integer?
𝑘−3
(A) 4, 8, 18 (B) 4, 10, 16

(C) 4, 8, 28 (D) 8, 26, 28
Q.5 Functions 𝐹(𝑎, 𝑏) and 𝐺(𝑎, 𝑏) are defined as follows:

𝐹(𝑎, 𝑏) = (𝑎 − 𝑏)2 and 𝐺(𝑎, 𝑏) = |𝑎 − 𝑏|, where |𝑥| represents the absolute value of 𝑥.
What would be the value of 𝐺(𝐹(1, 3), 𝐺(1, 3))?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 36
Q.6 An e-mail password must contain three characters. The password has to contain one
numeral from 0 to 9, one upper case and one lower case character from the English
alphabet. How many distinct passwords are possible?
(A) 6,760 (B) 13,520 (C) 40,560 (D) 1,05,456
GA 1/2
GATE 2018 General Aptitude (GA) Set-6
Q.7 In a certain code, AMCF is written as EQGJ and NKUF is written as ROYJ. How will
DHLP be written in that code?
(A) RSTN (B) TLPH (C) HLPT (D) XSVR
Q.8 A class of twelve children has two more boys than girls. A group of three children are
randomly picked from this class to accompany the teacher on a field trip. What is the
probability that the group accompanying the teacher contains more girls than boys?
(A) 0 325 525 5

(B) (C) (D)
864 864 12
Q.9 A designer uses marbles of four different colours for his designs. The cost of each marble
is the same, irrespective of the colour. The table below shows the percentage of marbles of
each colour used in the current design. The cost of each marble increased by 25%.
Therefore, the designer decided to reduce equal numbers of marbles of each colour to keep
the total cost unchanged. What is the percentage of blue marbles in the new design?
Blue Black Red Yellow

40% 25% 20% 15%
(A) 35.75 (B) 40.25 (C) 43.75 (D) 46.25
Q.10 P, Q, R and S crossed a lake in a boat that can hold a maximum of two persons, with only
one set of oars. The following additional facts are available.
(i) The boat held two persons on each of the three forward trips across the lake and one
person on each of the two return trips.
(ii) P is unable to row when someone else is in the boat.
(iii) Q is unable to row with anyone else except R.
(iv) Each person rowed for at least one trip.
(v) Only one person can row during a trip.
Who rowed twice?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
GA 2/2
GATE 2018 ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

Q.1 A single-phase 100 kVA, 1000 V / 100 V, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage drop of 5%
across its series impedance at full load. Of this, 3% is due to resistance. The percentage
regulation of the transformer at full load with 0.8 lagging power factor is
(A) 4.8 (B) 6.8 (C) 8.8 (D) 10.8
Q.2 In a salient pole synchronous motor, the developed reluctance torque attains the maximum
value when the load angle in electrical degrees is
(A) 0 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90
Q.3 A single phase fully controlled rectifier is supplying a load with an anti-parallel diode as
shown in the figure. All switches and diodes are ideal. Which one of the following is true
for instantaneous load voltage and current?
io
L
O vo
A
D
(A) vo  0 & io  0 (B) vo  0 & io  0

(C) vo  0 & io  0 (D) vo  0 & io  0
Q.4 Four power semiconductor devices are shown in the figure along with their relevant
terminals. The device(s) that can carry dc current continuously in the direction shown when
gated appropriately is (are)
A MT1 A D
G
G K G G K
MT2 S
I I I I
Thyristor Triac GTO MOSFET
(A) Triac only

(B) Triac and MOSFET
(C) Triac and GTO
(D) Thyristor and Triac
EE 1/15
Q.5 Two wattmeter method is used for measurement of power in a balanced three-phase load
supplied from a balanced three-phase system. If one of the wattmeters reads half of the
other (both positive), then the power factor of the load is
(A) 0.532 (B) 0.632 (C) 0.707 (D) 0.866
Q.6 Consider a lossy transmission line with V1 and V2 as the sending and receiving end
voltages, respectively. Z and X are the series impedance and reactance of the line,
respectively. The steady-state stability limit for the transmission line will be
V1 V2 V1 V2
(A) greater than (B) less than
X X
V1 V2 V1 V2
(C) equal to (D) equal to
X Z
Q.7 The graph of a network has 8 nodes and 5 independent loops. The number of branches of
the graph is
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14
Q.8 In the figure, the voltages are 𝑣1 (𝑡) = 100cos⁡(𝜔𝑡), 𝑣2 (𝑡) = 100cos⁡(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜋/18) and
𝑣3 (𝑡) = 100cos⁡(𝜔𝑡 + 𝜋/36). The circuit is in sinusoidal steady state, and 𝑅 << 𝜔𝐿. 𝑃1 ,
𝑃2 and 𝑃3 are the average power outputs. Which one of the following statements is true?
R L L R
P1 P2 P3
+ + +
v1 (t) v2 (t) v3 (t)
- - -
(A)⁡𝑃1 = 𝑃2 = 𝑃3 = 0 (B)⁡𝑃1 < 0, 𝑃2 > 0, 𝑃3 > 0

(C)⁡𝑃1 < 0, 𝑃2 > 0, 𝑃3 < 0 (D)⁡𝑃1 > 0, 𝑃2 < 0, 𝑃3 > 0
EE 2/15
Q.9 Match the transfer functions of the second-order systems with the nature of the systems
given below.
Transfer functions Nature of system
15
P: I: Overdamped
s  5s  15
2
25
Q: II: Critically damped
s  10s  25
2
35
R: III: Underdamped
s  18s  35
2
(A) P-I, Q-II, R-III

(B) P-II, Q-I, R-III
(C) P-III, Q-II, R-I
(D) P-III, Q-I, R-II
Q.10 A positive charge of 1 nC is placed at (0, 0, 0.2) where all dimensions are in metres.
Consider the x - y plane to be a conducting ground plane. Take 0  8.85 1012 F/m. The
z component of the E field at (0, 0, 0.1) is closest to
(A) 899.18 V/m (B) 899.18 V/m (C) 999.09 V/m (D) 999.09 V/m
Q.11 Let f be a real-valued function of a real variable defined as f ( x)  x 2 for x  0 , and

f ( x )   x 2 for x  0 . Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) f ( x) is discontinuous at x  0 .
(B) f ( x) is continuous but not differentiable at x  0 .
(C) f ( x) is differentiable but its first derivative is not continuous at x  0 .
(D) f ( x) is differentiable but its first derivative is not differentiable at x  0 .
Q.12 The value of the directional derivative of the function 𝛷(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 𝑥𝑦 2 + 𝑦𝑧 2 + 𝑧𝑥 2 at the
point (2, -1, 1) in the direction of the vector 𝐩 = 𝐢 + 2𝐣 + 2𝐤 is
(A) 1 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.93 (D) 0.9
Q.13 The value of the integral ∮ 𝑧+1 𝑑𝑧 in counter clockwise direction around a circle 𝐶 of
𝐶 𝑧 2 −4
radius 1 with center at the point 𝑧 = −2 is
𝜋𝑖 (B) 2𝜋𝑖 𝜋𝑖 (D) −2𝜋𝑖
(A) (C) −
2 2
EE 3/15
Q.14 In the logic circuit shown in the figure, Y is given by

A
B
Y
C
D
(A) Y = ABCD (B) Y = (A + B)(C + D)

(C) Y = A + B + C + D (D) Y = AB + CD
Q.15 The op-amp shown in the figure is ideal. The input impedance 𝑣𝑖𝑛 is given by
𝑖 𝑖𝑛
Z
iin
+
vo
vin -
R2 R1
𝑅 𝑅 (C) 𝑍 𝑅1
(A) 𝑍 𝑅1 (B) −𝑍 𝑅2 (D) −𝑍 𝑅
2 1 1 +𝑅2
Q.16 A continuous-time input signal x(t) is an eigenfunction of an LTI system, if the output is
(A) k x(t) , where k is an eigenvalue
(B) k ejt x(t) , where k is an eigenvalue and ejt is a complex exponential signal
(C) x(t) ejt , where ejt is a complex exponential signal
(D) k H() , where k is an eigenvalue and H() is a frequency response of the system
Q.17 Consider a non-singular 2×2 square matrix A . If trace (A)  4 and trace ( A 2 )  5 , the
determinant of the matrix A is _________(up to 1 decimal place).
Q.18 Let f be a real-valued function of a real variable defined as f ( x)  x  [ x] , where [ x]

1.25
denotes the largest integer less than or equal to x. The value of  f ( x) dx is _______ (up
0.25
to 2 decimal places).
EE 4/15
Q.19  V 
In the two-port network shown, the h 11 parameter  where, h11 = 1 , when V2 =0  in ohms
 I1 
is _____________ (up to 2 decimal places).
2I1
1 1
+ +
I1
V1 1 V2
 
Q.20 The series impedance matrix of a short three-phase transmission line in phase coordinates
𝑍𝑠 𝑍𝑚 𝑍𝑚
is [𝑍𝑚 𝑍𝑠 𝑍𝑚 ]. If the positive sequence impedance is (1 + 𝑗⁡10)⁡Ω, and the zero
𝑍𝑚 𝑍𝑚 𝑍𝑠
sequence is (4 + ⁡𝑗⁡31)⁡Ω, then the imaginary part of 𝑍𝑚 (in Ω) is ______(up to 2 decimal
places).
Q.21 The positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a 125 MVA, three-phase, 15.5 kV,
star-grounded, 50 Hz generator are 𝑗0.1 pu,⁡𝑗0.05 pu and 𝑗0.01 pu respectively on the
machine rating base. The machine is unloaded and working at the rated terminal voltage. If
the grounding impedance of the generator is 𝑗0.01 pu, then the magnitude of fault current
for a b-phase to ground fault (in kA) is __________ (up to 2 decimal places).
Q.22 A 1000 × 1000 bus admittance matrix for an electric power system has 8000 non-zero
elements. The minimum number of branches (transmission lines and transformers) in this
system are _____ (up to 2 decimal places).
Q.23 The waveform of the current drawn by a semi-converter from a sinusoidal AC voltage
source is shown in the figure. If I0 = 20 A, the rms value of fundamental component of the
current is ___________A (up to 2 decimal places).
voltage and
current Vm sin(ωt)
I0
0 I0
30° ωt
180°
210°
EE 5/15
Q.24 A separately excited dc motor has an armature resistance 𝑅𝑎 = 0.05⁡Ω. The field excitation
is kept constant. At an armature voltage of 100 V, the motor produces a torque of 500 Nm
at zero speed. Neglecting all mechanical losses, the no-load speed of the motor (in radian/s)
for an armature voltage of 150 V is _____ (up to 2 decimal places).
Q.25 Consider a unity feedback system with forward transfer function given by
1
G( s) 
(s  1)( s  2)
The steady-state error in the output of the system for a unit-step input is _________(up to 2
decimal places).
EE 6/15
Q.26 A transformer with toroidal core of permeability  is shown in the figure. Assuming
uniform flux density across the circular core cross-section of radius r R , and neglecting
any leakage flux, the best estimate for the mean radius R is
r iS  0
iP  I sin t +
+
R vS
NP NS
vP  V cos t
-
-
Vr 2 N P2  Ir 2 N P N S  Vr 2 N P2  Ir 2 N P2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
I V 2I 2V
Q.27 A 0-1 Ampere moving iron ammeter has an internal resistance of 50 mΩ and inductance of
0.1 mH. A shunt coil is connected to extend its range to 0-10 Ampere for all operating
frequencies. The time constant in milliseconds and resistance in mΩ of the shunt coil
respectively are
(A) 2, 5.55 (B) 2, 1 (C) 2.18, 0.55 (D) 11.1, 2
Q.28 The positive, negative and zero sequence impedances of a three phase generator are 𝑍1 , 𝑍2
and 𝑍0 respectively. For a line-to-line fault with fault impedance 𝑍𝑓 ,⁡the fault current
is⁡𝐼𝑓1 = 𝑘𝐼𝑓 , where 𝐼𝑓 is the fault current with zero fault impedance. The relation between
𝑍𝑓 and 𝑘 is
(𝑍1 +𝑍2 )(1−𝑘) (𝑍1 +𝑍2 )(1+𝑘)
(A) Zf =⁡ (B) Zf = ⁡
𝑘 𝑘
(𝑍1 +𝑍2 )𝑘 (𝑍1 +𝑍2 )𝑘

(C) Zf = ⁡ (D) Zf = ⁡
1−𝑘 1+𝑘
EE 7/15
Q.29 Consider the two bus power system network with given loads as shown in the figure. All
the values shown in the figure are in per unit. The reactive power supplied by generator G1
and G2 are QG1 and QG2 respectively. The per unit values of QG1, QG2, and line reactive
power loss (Qloss) respectively are
1.0 1.00
j0.1
G1 G2
Qloss
20+jQG1 15+jQG2
15+j5 20+j10
(A) 5. 00, 12.68, 2.68 (B) 6.34, 10.00, 1.34

(C) 6.34, 11.34, 2.68 (D) 5.00, 11.34, 1.34
Q.30 The per-unit power output of a salient-pole generator which is connected to an infinite bus,
is given by the expression, 𝑃 = 1.4 sin 𝛿 + 0.15 sin 2𝛿, where 𝛿 is the load angle. Newton-
Raphson method is used to calculate the value of 𝛿 for 𝑃 = ⁡0.8 pu. If the initial guess is
30°, then its value (in degree) at the end of the first iteration is
(A) 15° (B) 28.48° (C) 28.74° (D) 31.20°
Q.31 A DC voltage source is connected to a series L-C circuit by turning on the switch S at time
t  0 as shown in the figure. Assume i(0)  0, v(0)  0 . Which one of the following
circular loci represents the plot of i(t ) versus v(t ) ?
S i(t )
t 0 L=1H
+
5V C=1F v(t )
-
(A) (B) (C) (D)

i(t ) i(t ) i(t ) i(t )
v(t )
(0, 5) (0, 5)
(5, 0)
v(t ) ( 5, 0) v(t )
v(t )
EE 8/15
Q.32 The equivalent impedance Zeq for the infinite ladder circuit shown in the figure is
j9 j9
j5 j5
Z eq . . .
j 1  j 1 
(A) j12 Ω (B) –j12 Ω (C) j13 Ω (D) 13 Ω
Q.33 Consider a system governed by the following equations
dx1(t )
 x2 (t )  x1(t )
dt
dx2 (t )
 x1(t )  x2 (t )
dt
The initial conditions are such that x1(0)  x2 (0)   . Let x1 f  lim x1(t ) and
t 
x2 f  lim x2 (t ) . Which one of the following is true?
t 
(A) x1 f  x2 f   (B) x2 f  x1 f   (C) x1 f  x2 f   (D) x1 f  x2 f  
Q.34 The number of roots of the polynomial, 𝑠 7 + ⁡ 𝑠 6 + 7𝑠 5 + 14𝑠 4 + 31𝑠 3 + 73𝑠 2 + 25𝑠 +
200,⁡in the open left half of the complex plane is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.35 𝑧2
If 𝐶⁡is a circle |𝑧| = 4 and f (z) =
(𝑧 2 −3𝑧+2)2
⁡, then  f ( z)dz is
C
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D) -2
EE 9/15
Q.36 Which one of the following statements is true about the digital circuit shown in the figure
D Q D Q D Q fOUT
C C C
fIN
(A) It can be used for dividing the input frequency by 3.
(B) It can be used for dividing the input frequency by 5.
(C) It can be used for dividing the input frequency by 7.
(D) It cannot be reliably used as a frequency divider due to disjoint internal cycles.
Q.37 Digital input signals 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 with 𝐴 as the MSB and 𝐶 as the LSB are used to realize the
Boolean function 𝐹 = 𝑚0 + 𝑚2 + 𝑚3 + 𝑚5 + 𝑚7 , where⁡𝑚𝑖 ⁡denotes⁡the⁡𝑖 𝑡ℎ ⁡minterm. In
addition, 𝐹 has a don’t care for 𝑚1 . The simplified expression for 𝐹 is given by
(A) 𝐴̅𝐶̅ + 𝐵̅ 𝐶 + 𝐴𝐶 (B)⁡𝐴̅ + 𝐶
(C) 𝐶̅ + 𝐴 (D) 𝐴̅𝐶 + 𝐵𝐶 + 𝐴𝐶̅
Q.38 Consider the two continuous-time signals defined below:
 t , 1  t  1 1  t ,  1  t  1
x1 (t )   , x2 (t )  
 0, otherwise 0 , otherwise
These signals are sampled with a sampling period of T = 0.25 seconds to obtain discrete-
time signals x1[ n ] and x2 [n] , respectively. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) The energy of x1[ n ] is greater than the energy of x2 [n] .

(B) The energy of x2 [n] is greater than the energy of x1[ n ] .
(C) x1[ n ] and x2 [n] have equal energies.
(D) Neither x1[ n ] nor x2 [n] is a finite-energy signal.
Q.39 The signal energy of the continuous-time signal

x(t ) = [( t - 1) u(t - 1)] - [( t - 2) u(t - 2)] - [( t - 3) u(t - 3)] + [( t - 4) u(t - 4)] is
(A) 11/3 (B) 7/3 (C) 1/3 (D) 5/3
EE 10/15
Q.40 The Fourier transform of a continuous-time signal x(t ) is given by

1
X ( )  ,      , where j  1 and  denotes frequency. Then the
10  j 
2
value of ln x(t ) at t =1 is ___________ (up to 1 decimal place). ( ln denotes the

logarithm to base e )
Q.41 In the circuit shown in the figure, the bipolar junction transistor (BJT) has a current gain
𝛽 = 100. The base-emitter voltage drop is a constant, 𝑉𝐵𝐸 = 0.7⁡𝑉. The value of the
Thevenin equivalent resistance 𝑅𝑇ℎ (in Ω) as shown in the figure is ______ (up to 2
decimal places).
a
10 
+
10 k
15 V + 1 k RTh
-
10.7 V
-
b
Q.42 As shown in the figure, 𝐶 is the arc from the point (3,0) to the point (0,3) on the circle 𝑥 2 +
𝑦 2 = 9. The value of the integral ∫𝐶 (𝑦 2 + 2𝑦𝑥)𝑑𝑥 + (2𝑥𝑦 + 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑦 is _____ (up to 2
decimal places).
(0,3)
C
x
(3,0)
Q.43 Let f ( x)  3x3  7 x 2  5 x  6 . The maximum value of f ( x) over the interval [0, 2] is
_______ (up to 1 decimal place).
EE 11/15
Q.44  1 0 1
 
Let A  1 2 0 and B  A3  A2  4 A  5I , where I is the 3  3 identity matrix. The
 
 0 0 2 
determinant of B is ________ (up to 1 decimal place).
Q.45 The capacitance of an air-filled parallel-plate capacitor is 60 pF. When a dielectric slab
whose thickness is half the distance between the plates, is placed on one of the plates
covering it entirely, the capacitance becomes 86 pF. Neglecting the fringing effects, the
relative permittivity of the dielectric is _____________ (up to 2 decimal places).
Q.46 The unit step response y(t) of a unity feedback system with open loop transfer function
K
G( s ) H ( s )  is shown in the figure. The value of K is _______ (up to 2
( s  1) 2 ( s  2)
decimal places).
1.4
y(t)
1.2
0.8
y(t)
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
Time (sec) t (sec)
Q.47 A three-phase load is connected to a three-phase balanced supply as shown in the figure. If
Van  1000 V, Vbn  100  120 V and Vcn  100  240 V (angles are considered
positive in the anti-clockwise direction), the value of R for zero current in the neutral wire
is ___________Ω (up to 2 decimal places).
a
R
n
c j10
-j10
EE 12/15
Q.48 The voltage across the circuit in the figure, and the current through it, are given by the
following expressions:
𝑣(𝑡) = 5 − 10 cos(𝜔𝑡 + 60°)⁡V

𝑖(𝑡) = 5 + 𝑋 cos(𝜔𝑡) A
where 𝜔 = 100⁡𝜋⁡radian/s. If the average power delivered to the circuit is zero, then the
value of 𝑋 (in Ampere) is _____ (up to 2 decimal places).
i(t)
+
Electrical
v(t) Circuit
-
Q.49 A phase controlled single phase rectifier, supplied by an AC source, feeds power to an
R-L-E load as shown in the figure. The rectifier output voltage has an average value given
𝑉𝑚
by Vo= (3 + cos ), where⁡𝑉𝑚 = 80𝜋 volts and 𝛼 is the firing angle. If the power
2𝜋
delivered to the lossless battery is 1600 W, 𝛼 in degree is________ (up to 2 decimal
places).
2Ω
VO
Vm sin(ωt) 10 mH
+ 80 V
Battery
-
-
EE 13/15
Q.50 The figure shows two buck converters connected in parallel. The common input dc voltage
for the converters has a value of 100 V. The converters have inductors of identical value.
The load resistance is 1 . The capacitor voltage has negligible ripple. Both converters
operate in the continuous conduction mode. The switching frequency is 1 kHz, and the
switch control signals are as shown. The circuit operates in the steady state. Assuming that
the converters share the load equally, the average value of 𝑖𝑆1 , the current of switch S1 (in
Ampere), is _____ (up to 2 decimal places).
iS1
+ S1 L
100 V C 1
- Switch control signals
S1
t
S2 L
S2
t
0 0.5 ms 1 ms
Q.51 A 3-phase 900 kVA, 3 kV / 3 kV (∆/Y), 50 Hz transformer has primary (high voltage
side) resistance per phase of 0.3 Ω and secondary (low voltage side) resistance per phase of
0.02 Ω. Iron loss of the transformer is 10 kW. The full load % efficiency of the transformer
operated at unity power factor is _______ (up to 2 decimal places).
Q.52 A 200 V DC series motor, when operating from rated voltage while driving a certain load,
draws 10 A current and runs at 1000 r.p.m. The total series resistance is 1 Ω. The magnetic
circuit is assumed to be linear. At the same supply voltage, the load torque is increased by
44%. The speed of the motor in r.p.m. (rounded to the nearest integer) is ________ .
Q.53 A dc to dc converter shown in the figure is charging a battery bank, B2 whose voltage is
constant at 150 V. B1 is another battery bank whose voltage is constant at 50 V. The value
of the inductor, L is 5 mH and the ideal switch, S is operated with a switching frequency of
5 kHz with a duty ratio of 0.4. Once the circuit has attained steady state and assuming the
diode D to be ideal, the power transferred from B1 to B2 (in Watt) is ___________ (up to 2
decimal places).
iL L = 5 mH D
+
50 V B1 S B2 _ 150 V
_
EE 14/15
Q.54 The equivalent circuit of a single phase induction motor is shown in the figure, where the
parameters are R1  R2'  X l1  X l' 2=12  , X M = 240  and s is the slip. At no-load, the
motor speed can be approximated to be the synchronous speed. The no-load lagging power
factor of the motor is___________ (up to 3 decimal places).
R1 jX l1
,
R2
XM 2s
j
2 ,
X
j l2
2
V0 ,
R2
XM 2(2  s)
j
2 ,
X
j l2
2
Q.55 The voltage 𝑣(𝑡) across the terminals a and b as shown in the figure, is a sinusoidal voltage
having a frequency 𝜔 = 100 radian/s. When the inductor current 𝑖(𝑡) is in phase with the
voltage 𝑣(𝑡), the magnitude of the impedance Z (in Ω) seen between the terminals a and b
is ________ (up to 2 decimal places).
i(t)
v(t) + a
L
Z 100 
100 F
-
b
EE 15/15
Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks
1 MCQ GA A 1
2 MCQ GA D 1
3 MCQ GA D 1
4 MCQ GA C 1
5 MCQ GA A 1
6 MCQ GA C 2
7 MCQ GA C 2
8 MCQ GA Marks to All 2
9 MCQ GA C 2
10 MCQ GA C 2
1 MCQ EE A 1
2 MCQ EE B 1
3 MCQ EE C 1
4 MCQ EE B 1
5 MCQ EE D 1
6 MCQ EE B 1
7 MCQ EE B 1
8 MCQ EE C 1
9 MCQ EE C 1
10 MCQ EE D 1
11 MCQ EE D 1
12 MCQ EE A 1
13 MCQ EE A 1
14 MCQ EE D 1
15 MCQ EE B 1
16 MCQ EE A 1
17 NAT EE 5.5 to 5.5 1
18 NAT EE 0.49 to 0.51 1
19 NAT EE 0.45 to 0.55 1
20 NAT EE 7.0 to 7.0 1
21 NAT EE 73.0 to 74.0 1
22 NAT EE 3500.0 to 3500.0 1
23 NAT EE 16.90 to 17.70 1
24 NAT EE 600.0 to 600.0 1
25 NAT EE 0.65 to 0.69 1
26 MCQ EE D 2
27 MCQ EE A 2
28 MCQ EE A 2
29 MCQ EE C 2
30 MCQ EE C 2
31 MCQ EE B 2
32 MCQ EE A 2
33 MCQ EE C 2
34 MCQ EE A 2
35 MCQ EE B 2
36 MCQ EE B 2
37 MCQ EE B 2
38 MCQ EE A 2
39 MCQ EE D 2
40 NAT EE 9.5 to 10.5 2
41 NAT EE 89.0 to 91.5 2
42 NAT EE 0.0 to 0.0 2
43 NAT EE 11.5 to 12.5 2
44 NAT EE 0.9 to 1.1 2
45 NAT EE 2.50 to 2.55 2
46 NAT EE 8.0 to 8.0 2
47 NAT EE 5.70 to 5.85 2
48 NAT EE 10.0 to 10.0 2
49 NAT EE 90.0 to 90.0 2
50 NAT EE 11.50 to 13.50 2
51 NAT EE 97.20 to 97.55 2
52 NAT EE 823 to 827 2
53 NAT EE 12.0 to 12.0 2
54 NAT EE 0.104 to 0.112 2
55 NAT EE 50.0 to 50.0 2

GATE 2020 IIT Delhi
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GA - General Aptitude
Q1 - Q5 carry one mark each.
Q.No. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 5
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q6 - Q10 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 6
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 7
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 8
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 9
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 10
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Q1 - Q25 carry one mark each.
Q.No. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 5
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 6
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 7
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 8
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 9
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 10
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 11
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 12
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 13
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 14
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 15
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 16
Q.No. 17
Q.No. 18
Q.No. 19
Q.No. 20
Q.No. 21
Q.No. 22
Q.No. 23
Q.No. 24
Q.No. 25
Q26 - Q55 carry two marks each.

Q.No. 26
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 27
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 28
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 29
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 30
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 31
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 32
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 33
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 34
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 35
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 36
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 37
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 38
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 39
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 40
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 41
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 42
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 43
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Q.No. 44
Q.No. 45
Q.No. 46
Q.No. 47
Q.No. 48
Q.No. 49
Q.No. 50
Q.No. 51
Q.No. 52
Q.No. 53
Q.No. 54
Q.No. 55
Copyright : GATE 2020, IIT Delhi
GATE 2020 IIT Delhi
Organising Institute
Home Information Brochure GATE International Pre Examination Important Dates FAQs Contact Us
Answer Key - EE: Electrical Engineering
Q.No. Session Que.Type Sec. Name Key Marks
1 5 MCQ GA C 1
2 5 MCQ GA B 1
3 5 MCQ GA C 1
4 5 MCQ GA B 1
5 5 MCQ GA C 1
6 5 MCQ GA B 2
7 5 MCQ GA C 2
8 5 MCQ GA C 2
9 5 MCQ GA A 2
10 5 MCQ GA C 2
1 5 MCQ EE A OR D 1
2 5 MCQ EE C 1
3 5 MCQ EE B 1
4 5 MCQ EE D 1
5 5 MCQ EE C 1
6 5 MCQ EE A 1
7 5 MCQ EE A 1
8 5 MCQ EE D 1
9 5 MCQ EE A 1
10 5 MCQ EE A 1
11 5 MCQ EE C 1
12 5 MCQ EE MTA 1
13 5 MCQ EE C 1
14 5 MCQ EE A 1
15 5 MCQ EE B 1
16 5 NAT EE 0.8774 to 0.8952 1
17 5 NAT EE 4.10 to 4.40 1
18 5 NAT EE 1.700 to 1.750 1
19 5 NAT EE 13.80 to 14.20 1
20 5 NAT EE 3 to 3 1
21 5 NAT EE 162.41 to 162.59 1
22 5 NAT EE 19.90 to 20.20 1
23 5 NAT EE 123.00 to 135.00 1
24 5 NAT EE 2 to 2 1
25 5 NAT EE 0 to 0 1
26 5 MCQ EE A 2
27 5 MCQ EE C 2
28 5 MCQ EE C 2
29 5 MCQ EE C 2
30 5 MCQ EE D 2
31 5 MCQ EE B 2
32 5 MCQ EE C 2
33 5 MCQ EE D 2
34 5 MCQ EE B 2
35 5 MCQ EE C 2
36 5 MCQ EE B 2
37 5 MCQ EE C 2
38 5 MCQ EE B 2
39 5 MCQ EE C 2
40 5 MCQ EE D 2
41 5 MCQ EE A 2
42 5 MCQ EE MTA 2
43 5 MCQ EE A 2
44 5 NAT EE -3.05 to -2.95 2
45 5 NAT EE 54.00 to 56.00 2
46 5 NAT EE 123.00 to 127.00 2
47 5 NAT EE 1.11 to 1.13 2
48 5 NAT EE MTA 2
49 5 NAT EE 1.01 to 1.03 2
50 5 NAT EE 4.95 to 5.05 2
51 5 NAT EE 4.51 to 5.10 2
52 5 NAT EE 11.50 to 12.00 2
53 5 NAT EE MTA 2
54 5 NAT EE 210 to 210 2
55 5 NAT EE 138.10 to 139.20 2
Copyright : GATE 2020, IIT Delhi

GATE 2022 General Aptitude (GA)
Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 As you grow older, an injury to your _________ may take longer to _________.
(A) heel / heel
(B) heal / heel
(C) heal / heal
(D) heel / heal
Page 1 of 36
Q.2 In a 500 m race, P and Q have speeds in the ratio of 3 ∶ 4. Q starts the race
when P has already covered 140 m.
What is the distance between P and Q (in m) when P wins the race?
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 140
Page 2 of 36
Q.3 Three bells P, Q, and R are rung periodically in a school. P is rung every 20
minutes; Q is rung every 30 minutes and R is rung every 50 minutes.
If all the three bells are rung at 12:00 PM, when will the three bells ring
together again the next time?
(A) 5:00 PM
(B) 5:30 PM
(C) 6:00 PM
(D) 6:30 PM
Page 3 of 36
Q.4 Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the
statements.
Statement 1: Some bottles are cups.
Statement 2: All cups are knives.
Conclusion I: Some bottles are knives.
Conclusion II: Some knives are cups.
Conclusion III: All cups are bottles.
Conclusion IV: All knives are cups.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?
(A) Only conclusion I and conclusion II are correct
(B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
(C) Only conclusion II and conclusion IV are correct
(D) Only conclusion III and conclusion IV are correct
Page 4 of 36
Q.5 The figure below shows the front and rear view of a disc, which is shaded with
identical patterns. The disc is flipped once with respect to any one of the fixed
axes 1-1, 2-2 or 3-3 chosen uniformly at random.
What is the probability that the disc DOES NOT retain the same front and rear
views after the flipping operation?
Front View Rear View
(A) 0
1
(B)
3
2
(C)
3
(D) 1
Page 5 of 36
Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.6 Altruism is the human concern for the wellbeing of others. Altruism has been
shown to be motivated more by social bonding, familiarity and identification of
belongingness to a group. The notion that altruism may be attributed to empathy
or guilt has now been rejected.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?
(A) Humans engage in altruism due to guilt but not empathy
(B) Humans engage in altruism due to empathy but not guilt
(C) Humans engage in altruism due to group identification but not empathy
(D) Humans engage in altruism due to empathy but not familiarity
Page 6 of 36
There are two identical dice with a single letter on each of the faces. The
Q.7
following six letters: Q, R, S, T, U, and V, one on each of the faces. Any of the
six outcomes are equally likely.
The two dice are thrown once independently at random.
What is the probability that the outcomes on the dice were composed only of
any combination of the following possible outcomes: Q, U and V?
(A) 1
4
(B) 3
4
(C) 1
6
(D) 5
36
Page 7 of 36
Q.8 The price of an item is 10% cheaper in an online store S compared to the price
at another online store M. Store S charges ₹ 150 for delivery. There are no
delivery charges for orders from the store M. A person bought the item from the
store S and saved ₹ 100.
What is the price of the item at the online store S (in ₹) if there are no other
charges than what is described above?
(A) 2500
(B) 2250
(C) 1750
(D) 1500
Page 8 of 36
Q.9 The letters P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be placed one per vertex on a regular convex
hexagon, but not necessarily in the same order.
Consider the following statements:
 The line segment joining R and S is longer than the line segment joining
P and Q.
 The line segment joining R and S is perpendicular to the line segment
joining P and Q.
 The line segment joining R and U is parallel to the line segment joining T
and Q.
Based on the above statements, which one of the following options is

CORRECT?
(A) The line segment joining R and T is parallel to the line segment joining Q and S
(B) The line segment joining T and Q is parallel to the line joining P and U
(C) The line segment joining R and P is perpendicular to the line segment joining U
and Q
(D) The line segment joining Q and S is perpendicular to the line segment joining R
and P
Page 9 of 36
Q.10
An ant is at the bottom-left corner of a grid (point P) as shown above. It aims to

move to the top-right corner of the grid. The ant moves only along the lines
marked in the grid such that the current distance to the top-right corner strictly
decreases.
Which one of the following is a part of a possible trajectory of the ant during
the movement?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 10 of 36
GATE 2022 Electrical Engineering (EE)
Q.11 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The transfer function of a real system, 𝐻(𝑠), is given as:
𝐻 (𝑠) = ,
where 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 and 𝐷 are positive constants. This system cannot operate as
(A) low pass filter.
(B) high pass filter.
(C) band pass filter.
(D) an integrator.
Q.12 For an ideal MOSFET biased in saturation, the magnitude of the small signal
current gain for a common drain amplifier is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 100
(D) infinite
Page 11 of 36
Q.13 The most commonly used relay, for the protection of an alternator against loss of
excitation, is
(A) offset Mho relay.
(B) over current relay.
(C) differential relay.
(D) Buchholz relay.
Q.14 The geometric mean radius of a conductor, having four equal strands with each strand
of radius ‘𝑟’, as shown in the figure below, is
(A) 4𝑟
(B) 1.414 𝑟
(C) 2𝑟
(D) 1.723 𝑟
Page 12 of 36
Q.15 The valid positive, negative and zero sequence impedances (in p.u.), respectively, for
a 220 kV, fully transposed three-phase transmission line, from the given choices are
(A) 1.1, 0.15 and 0.08
(B) 0.15, 0.15 and 0.35
(C) 0.2, 0.2 and 0.2
(D) 0.1, 0.3 and 0.1
Q.16 The steady state output (𝑉 ), of the circuit shown below, will
(A) saturate to +VDD
(B) saturate to -VEE
(C) become equal to 0.1 V
(D) become equal to –0.1 V
Page 13 of 36
Q.17 The Bode magnitude plot of a first order stable system is constant with frequency.
The asymptotic value of the high frequency phase, for the system, is −180 . This
system has
(A) one LHP pole and one RHP zero at the same frequency.
(B) one LHP pole and one LHP zero at the same frequency.
(C) two LHP poles and one RHP zero.
(D) two RHP poles and one LHP zero.
Q.18 A balanced Wheatstone bridge 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷 has the following arm resistances:
𝑅 = 1 𝑘Ω ± 2.1% ; 𝑅 = 100 Ω ± 0.5% ; 𝑅 is an unknown resistance;
𝑅 = 300 Ω ± 0.4%. The value of 𝑅 and its accuracy is
(A) 30 Ω ± 3 Ω
(B) 30 Ω ± 0.9 Ω
(C) 3000 Ω ± 90 Ω
(D) 3000 Ω ± 3 Ω
Page 14 of 36
Q.19 The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback system is given by
𝐺 (𝑠) = . The range of 𝑘 for which the system is stable, is
(A) 𝑘>3
(B) 𝑘<3
(C) 𝑘>5
(D) 𝑘<5
Q.20 Consider a 3 x 3 matrix 𝐴 whose (𝑖, 𝑗)-th element, 𝑎 , = (𝑖 − 𝑗) . Then the matrix 𝐴
will be
(A) symmetric.
(B) skew-symmetric.
(C) unitary.
(D) null.
Page 15 of 36
Q.21 In the circuit shown below, a three-phase star-connected unbalanced load is connected
to a balanced three-phase supply of 100√3 𝑉 with phase sequence 𝐴𝐵𝐶. The star
connected load has 𝑍 = 10 Ω and 𝑍 = 20∠60 Ω. The value of 𝑍 in Ω, for which
the voltage difference across the nodes 𝑛 and 𝑛′ is zero, is
(A) 20∠−30
(B) 20∠30
(C) 20∠−60
(D) 20∠60
Q.22 A charger supplies 100 W at 20 V for charging the battery of a laptop. The power
devices, used in the converter inside the charger, operate at a switching frequency of
200 kHz. Which power device is best suited for this purpose?
(A) IGBT
(B) Thyristor
(C) MOSFET
(D) BJT
Page 16 of 36
Q.23 A long conducting cylinder having a radius ‘b’ is placed along the z axis. The current
density is 𝐉 = J r z for the region r < b where r is the distance in the radial direction.
The magnetic field intensity (H) for the region inside the conductor (i.e. for r < b) is
(A) J
r
4
(B) J
r
3
(C) J
r
5
(D) J r
Q.24 The type of single-phase induction motor, expected to have the maximum power
factor during steady state running condition, is
(A) split phase (resistance start).
(B) shaded pole.
(C) capacitor start.
(D) capacitor start, capacitor run.
Page 17 of 36
Q.25 For the circuit shown below with ideal diodes, the output will be
(A) 𝑉 = 𝑉 for 𝑉 > 0
(B) 𝑉 = 𝑉 for 𝑉 < 0
(C) 𝑉 = −𝑉 for 𝑉 > 0
(D) 𝑉 = −𝑉 for 𝑉 < 0
Q.26 A MOD 2 and a MOD 5 up-counter when cascaded together results in a MOD ______
counter. (in integer)
Q.27 An inductor having a 𝑄 -factor of 60 is connected in series with a capacitor having a 𝑄 -

factor of 240. The overall 𝑄 -factor of the circuit is ________. (round off to nearest
integer)
Page 18 of 36
Q.28 The network shown below has a resonant frequency of 150 kHz and a bandwidth of
600 Hz. The 𝑄-factor of the network is __________. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.29 The maximum clock frequency in MHz of a 4-stage ripple counter, utilizing flip-
flops, with each flip-flop having a propagation delay of 20 ns, is ___________.
(round off to one decimal place)
Q.30 If only 5% of the supplied power to a cable reaches the output terminal, the power loss
in the cable, in decibels, is _________. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.31 In the circuit shown below, the switch 𝑆 is closed at 𝑡 = 0. The magnitude of the steady
state voltage, in volts, across the 6 Ω resistor is _________. (round off to two decimal
places).
Page 19 of 36
Q.32 A single-phase full-bridge diode rectifier feeds a resistive load of 50 Ω from a 200 V,
50 Hz single phase AC supply. If the diodes are ideal, then the active power, in watts,
drawn by the load is _____________. (round off to nearest integer).
Q.33 The voltage at the input of an AC-DC rectifier is given by 𝑣(𝑡) = 230√2 sin 𝜔𝑡 where
𝜔 = 2𝜋 × 50 rad/s. The input current drawn by the rectifier is given by
𝑖 (𝑡) = 10 sin 𝜔𝑡 − + 4 sin 3𝜔𝑡 − + 3sin 5𝜔𝑡 − .
The input power factor, (rounded off to two decimal places), is, _________________
lag.
Q.34 Two balanced three-phase loads, as shown in the figure, are connected to a 100√3 V,
three-phase, 50 Hz main supply. Given 𝑍 = (18 + 𝑗24) Ω and 𝑍 = (6 + 𝑗8) Ω . The
ammeter reading, in amperes, is _______. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.35 The frequencies of the stator and rotor currents flowing in a three-phase 8-pole
induction motor are 40 Hz and 1 Hz, respectively. The motor speed, in rpm, is
_________________. (round off to nearest integer)
Page 20 of 36
Q.36 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.36 The output impedance of a non-ideal operational amplifier is denoted by Z . The

variation in the magnitude of Z with increasing frequency, f, in the circuit shown
below, is best represented by
(A)
(B)
log(|Zout|)
log(f)
(C)
Page 21 of 36
(D)
Q.37 An LTI system is shown in the figure where
𝐺(𝑠) = .
.
The steady state output of the system, to the input 𝑟(𝑡), is given as
𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑎 + 𝑏 𝑠𝑖𝑛(10𝑡 + 𝜃). The values of ‘𝑎’ and ‘𝑏’ will be
(A) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 10
(B) 𝑎 = 10, 𝑏 = 1
(C) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 100
(D) 𝑎 = 100, 𝑏 = 1
Page 22 of 36
Q.38 The open loop transfer function of a unity gain negative feedback system is given
as
𝐺(𝑠) = .
( )
The Nyquist contour in the 𝑠-plane encloses the entire right half plane and a small
neighbourhood around the origin in the left half plane, as shown in the figure below.
The number of encirclements of the point (−1 + 𝑗0) by the Nyquist plot of 𝐺 (𝑠),
corresponding to the Nyquist contour, is denoted as 𝑁. Then 𝑁 equals to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Page 23 of 36
Q.39 The damping ratio and undamped natural frequency of a closed loop system as
shown in the figure, are denoted as 𝜁 and 𝜔 , respectively. The values of 𝜁 and 𝜔
are
(A) 𝜁 = 0.5 and 𝜔 = 10 rad/s
(B) 𝜁 = 0.1 and 𝜔 = 10 rad/s
(C) 𝜁 = 0.707 and 𝜔 = 10 rad/s
(D) 𝜁 = 0.707 and 𝜔 = 100 rad/s
Q.40 𝑒 denotes the exponential of a square matrix A. Suppose 𝜆 is an eigenvalue and

𝑣 is the corresponding eigen-vector of matrix A.
Consider the following two statements:
Statement 1: 𝑒 is an eigenvalue of 𝑒 .
Statement 2: 𝑣 is an eigen-vector of 𝑒 .
Which one of the following options is correct?
(A) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
(B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
(C) Both the statements are correct.
(D) Both the statements are false.
Page 24 of 36
Q.41 Let 𝑓(𝑥) = ∫ 𝑒 (𝑡 − 1)(𝑡 − 2)𝑑𝑡. Then 𝑓(𝑥) decreases in the interval
(A) 𝑥 ∈ (1,2)
(B) 𝑥 ∈ (2,3)
(C) 𝑥 ∈ (0,1)
(D) 𝑥 ∈ (0.5,1)
Q.42 1 0 0
Consider a matrix 𝐴 = 0 4 −2 .
0 1 1
The matrix A satisfies the equation 6𝐴 = 𝐴 + 𝑐𝐴 + 𝑑𝐼, where 𝑐 and 𝑑 are
scalars and 𝐼 is the identity matrix.
Then (𝑐 + 𝑑) is equal to
(A) 5
(B) 17
(C) −6
(D) 11
Page 25 of 36
Q.43 The fuel cost functions in rupees/hour for two 600 MW thermal power plants are
given by
Plant 1: 𝐶 = 350 + 6𝑃 + 0.004𝑃
Plant 2: 𝐶 = 450 + 𝑎𝑃 + 0.003𝑃
where 𝑃 and 𝑃 are power generated by plant 1 and plant 2, respectively, in MW

and 𝑎 is constant. The incremental cost of power (𝜆) is 8 rupees per MWh. The two
thermal power plants together meet a total power demand of 550 MW. The optimal
generation of plant 1 and plant 2 in MW, respectively, are
(A) 200, 350
(B) 250, 300
(C) 325, 225
(D) 350, 200
Page 26 of 36
Q.44 The current gain (Iout/Iin) in the circuit with an ideal current amplifier given below
is
Cf
Cc
∞
Iin
Iout
(A) 𝐶
𝐶
(B) −𝐶
𝐶
(C) 𝐶
𝐶
(D) −𝐶
𝐶
Q.45 If the magnetic field intensity (H) in a conducting region is given by the expression,
𝐇 = 𝑥 ı̂ + 𝑥 𝑦 ȷ̂ + 𝑥 𝑦 𝑧 k A/m. The magnitude of the current density, in
A/m2, at 𝑥 = 1 m, 𝑦 = 2 m, and 𝑧 = 1 m, is
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 20
Page 27 of 36
Q.46 Let a causal LTI system be governed by the following differential equation
𝑦(𝑡) + = 2𝑥 (𝑡 ), where 𝑥(𝑡) and 𝑦(𝑡) are the input and output respectively.
Its impulse response is
(A) 2𝑒 𝑢(𝑡)
(B) 2𝑒 𝑢(𝑡)
(C) 8𝑒 𝑢(𝑡)
(D) 8𝑒 𝑢(𝑡)
Q.47 Let an input 𝑥 (𝑡 ) = 2 sin(10𝜋𝑡) + 5cos(15𝜋𝑡) + 7sin(42𝜋𝑡) + 4cos(45𝜋𝑡) is

passed through an LTI system having an impulse response,
( )
ℎ(𝑡) = 2 cos(40𝜋𝑡).
The output of the system is
(A) 2 sin(10𝜋𝑡) + 5𝑐𝑜𝑠 (15𝜋𝑡)
(B) 5𝑐𝑜𝑠 (15𝜋𝑡) + 7 sin(42𝜋𝑡)
(C) 7 sin(42𝜋𝑡) + 4𝑐𝑜𝑠 (45𝜋𝑡)
(D) 2 sin(10𝜋𝑡) + 4𝑐𝑜𝑠 (45𝜋𝑡)
Page 28 of 36
Q.48 Consider the system as shown below
where 𝑦(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑒 ). The system is
(A) linear and causal.
(B) linear and non-causal.
(C) non-linear and causal.
(D) non-linear and non-causal.
Q.49 The discrete time Fourier series representation of a signal 𝑥[𝑛] with period 𝑁 is
⁄ )
written as 𝑥[𝑛] = ∑ 𝑎 𝑒 ( . A discrete time periodic signal with period
𝑁 = 3, has the non-zero Fourier series coefficients: 𝑎 = 2 and 𝑎 = 1. The
signal is
(A) 2𝜋
2 + 2𝑒 cos 𝑛
6
(B) 2𝜋
1 + 2𝑒 cos 𝑛
6
(C) 2𝜋
1 + 2𝑒 cos 𝑛
6
(D) 2𝜋
2 + 2𝑒 cos 𝑛
6
Page 29 of 36
Q.50 Let, f(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 4𝑥 + 7𝑥𝑦 + 3𝑥𝑧 . The direction in which the function 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧)
increases most rapidly at point 𝑃 = (1,0,2) is
(A) 20𝚤̂ + 7𝚥̂
(B) 20𝚤̂ + 7𝚥̂ + 12𝑘
(C) 20𝚤̂ + 12𝑘
(D) 20𝚤̂
Q.51 Let 𝑅 be a region in the first quadrant of the 𝑥𝑦 plane enclosed by a closed curve 𝐶
considered in counter-clockwise direction. Which of the following expressions does
not represent the area of the region 𝑅 ?
(A)
𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦
(B)
𝑥𝑑𝑦
(C)
𝑦𝑑𝑥
(D) 1
(𝑥𝑑𝑦 − 𝑦𝑑𝑥)
2
Page 30 of 36
Q.52 Let 𝐸⃗ (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧) = 2𝑥 𝚤̂ + 5𝑦𝚥̂ + 3𝑧𝑘. The value of ∭ (∇⃗ ⋅ 𝐸⃗ )𝑑𝑉 , where 𝑉 is the
volume enclosed by the unit cube defined by 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1, 0 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 1, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 0 ≤ 𝑧 ≤
1, is
(A) 3
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 5
Page 31 of 36
Q.53 As shown in the figure below, two concentric conducting spherical shells, centered
at r = 0 and having radii r = c and r = d are maintained at potentials such that
the potential V(r) at r = c is V and V(r) at r = d is V . Assume that V(r) depends
only on r, where r is the radial distance. The expression for V(r) in the region
between r = c and r = d is
(A)
c d (V − V ) V c + V d − 2 V d
V(r) = −
(d − c) r d−c
(B) c d (V − V ) V d − V c
V(r) = +
(d − c) r d−c
(C) c d (V − V ) V c − V c
V(r) = −
(d − c) r d−c
(D) c d (V − V ) V c − V c
V(r) = −
(d − c) r d−c
Page 32 of 36
Q.54 Let the probability density function of a random variable 𝑥 be given as

| |
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑒
The value of ‘a’ is __________.
Q.55 In the circuit shown below, the magnitude of the voltage V in volts, across the 8 𝑘Ω
resistor is ______________. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.56 Two generating units rated for 250 MW and 400 MW have governor speed
regulations of 6% and 6.4%, respectively, from no load to full load. Both the
generating units are operating in parallel to share a load of 500 MW. Assuming free
governor action, the load shared in MW, by the 250 MW generating unit is
_________. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.57 A 20 MVA, 11.2 kV, 4-pole, 50 Hz alternator has an inertia constant of

15 MJ/MVA. If the input and output powers of the alternator are 15 MW and
10 MW, respectively, the angular acceleration in mechanical degree/s2 is
__________. (round off to nearest integer)
Page 33 of 36
Q.58 Consider an ideal full-bridge single-phase DC-AC inverter with a DC bus voltage
magnitude of 1000 V. The inverter output voltage 𝑣(𝑡) shown below, is obtained
when diagonal switches of the inverter are switched with 50 % duty cycle. The
inverter feeds a load with a sinusoidal current given by, 𝑖(𝑡) = 10 sin(𝜔𝑡 − ) A,
where 𝜔 = . The active power, in watts, delivered to the load is _________.
(round off to nearest integer)
Q.59 For the ideal AC-DC rectifier circuit shown in the figure below, the load current
magnitude is Idc = 15 A and is ripple free. The thyristors are fired with a delay angle
of 45o. The amplitude of the fundamental component of the source current, in
amperes, is __________. (round off to two decimal places)
Q.60 A 3-phase grid-connected voltage source converter with DC link voltage of 1000 V
is switched using sinusoidal Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) technique. If the grid
phase current is 10 A and the 3-phase complex power supplied by the converter is
given by (−4000 − 𝑗3000) VA, then the modulation index used in sinusoidal
PWM is ___________. (round off to two decimal places)
Page 34 of 36
Q.61 The steady state current flowing through the inductor of a DC-DC buck boost
converter is given in the figure below. If the peak-to-peak ripple in the output
voltage of the converter is 1 V, then the value of the output capacitor, in µF, is
_______________. (round off to nearest integer)
Q.62 A 280 V, separately excited DC motor with armature resistance of 1 Ω and constant
field excitation drives a load. The load torque is proportional to the speed. The
motor draws a current of 30 A when running at a speed of 1000 rpm. Neglect
frictional losses in the motor. The speed, in rpm, at which the motor will run, if an
additional resistance of value 10 Ω is connected in series with the armature, is
__________. (round off to nearest integer)
Page 35 of 36
Q.63 A 4-pole induction motor with inertia of 0.1 kg-m2 drives a constant load torque of
2 Nm. The speed of the motor is increased linearly from 1000 rpm to 1500 rpm in
4 seconds as shown in the figure below. Neglect losses in the motor. The energy, in
joules, consumed by the motor during the speed change is ____________. (round
off to nearest integer)
Q.64 A star-connected 3-phase, 400 V, 50 kVA, 50 Hz synchronous motor has a

synchronous reactance of 1 ohm per phase with negligible armature resistance. The
shaft load on the motor is 10 kW while the power factor is 0.8 leading. The loss in
the motor is 2 kW. The magnitude of the per phase excitation emf of the motor, in
volts, is __________. (round off to nearest integer).
Q.65 A 3-phase, 415 V, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor draws 5 times the rated current at
rated voltage at starting. It is required to bring down the starting current from the
supply to 2 times of the rated current using a 3-phase autotransformer. If the
magnetizing impedance of the induction motor and no load current of the
autotransformer is neglected, then the transformation ratio of the autotransformer is
given by ____________. (round off to two decimal places).
Page 36 of 36
Electrical Engineering (EE)
General Aptitude (GA)

Q.1 Rafi told Mary, “I am thinking of watching a film this weekend.”
The following reports the above statement in indirect speech:
Rafi told Mary that he _______ of watching a film that weekend.
(A) thought
(B) is thinking
(C) am thinking
(D) was thinking
Q.2 Permit : _______ : : Enforce : Relax
(By word meaning)
(A) Allow
(B) Forbid
(C) License
(D) Reinforce
Page 1 of 42
Organizing Institute: IIT Kanpur
Q.3 Given a fair six-faced dice where the faces are labelled ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’, ‘4’, ‘5’, and ‘6’,
what is the probability of getting a ‘1’ on the first roll of the dice and a ‘4’ on the
second roll?
(A) 1
36
(B) 1
6
(C) 5
6
(D) 1
3
Page 2 of 42
Q.4 A recent survey shows that 65% of tobacco users were advised to stop consuming
tobacco. The survey also shows that 3 out of 10 tobacco users attempted to stop
using tobacco.
Based only on the information in the above passage, which one of the following
options can be logically inferred with certainty?
(A) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco made an
attempt to do so.
(B) A majority of tobacco users who were advised to stop consuming tobacco did not
attempt to do so.
(C) Approximately 30% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
(D) Approximately 65% of tobacco users successfully stopped consuming tobacco.
Page 3 of 42
Q.5 How many triangles are present in the given figure?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 24
Page 4 of 42
Q.6 Students of all the departments of a college who have successfully completed the
registration process are eligible to vote in the upcoming college elections. However,
by the time the due date for registration was over, it was found that suprisingly none
of the students from the Department of Human Sciences had completed the
registration process.
Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following sets of
statement(s) can be logically inferred with certainty?
(i) All those students who would not be eligible to vote in the college elections
would certainly belong to the Department of Human Sciences.
(ii) None of the students from departments other than Human Sciences failed to
complete the registration process within the due time.
(iii) All the eligible voters would certainly be students who are not from the
Department of Human Sciences.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) only (i)
(D) only (iii)
Page 5 of 42
Q.7 Which one of the following options represents the given graph?
−x
f ( x ) = x2 2
(A)
−x
f ( x) = x 2
(B) .
(C)
f ( x ) = x 2− x
(D)
f ( x ) = x. 2− x
Page 6 of 42
Q.8 Which one of the options does NOT describe the passage below or follow from it?
We tend to think of cancer as a ‘modern’ illness because its metaphors are

so modern. It is a disease of overproduction, of sudden growth, a growth
that is unstoppable, tipped into the abyss of no control. Modern cell biology
encourages us to imagine the cell as a molecular machine. Cancer is that
machine unable to quench its intial command (to grow) and thus transform
into an indestructible, self-propelled automaton.
[Adapted from The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee]
(A) It is a reflection of why cancer seems so modern to most of us.
(B) It tells us that modern cell biology uses and promotes metaphors of machinery.
(C) Modern cell biology encourages metaphors of machinery, and cancer is often
imagined as a machine.
(D) Modern cell biology never uses figurative language, such as metaphors, to describe
or explain anything.
Page 7 of 42
Q.9 The digit in the unit’s place of the product 3

999
 71000 is _______.
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 9
Page 8 of 42
Q.10 A square with sides of length 6 cm is given. The boundary of the shaded region is
defined by two semi-circles whose diameters are the sides of the square, as shown.
The area of the shaded region is _______ cm2 .
(A) 6π
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 9π
Page 9 of 42
Electrical Engineering
Q.11 For a given vector w = [1 2 3]T, the vector normal to the plane defined by wTx = 1 is
(A) [−2 −2 2]𝑇
(B) [3 0 −1]𝑇
(C) [3 2 1]𝑇
(D) [1 2 3]𝑇
Page 10 of 42
Q.12 𝑌(𝑠)
For the block diagram shown in the figure, the transfer function 𝑅(𝑠) is
(A) 2𝑠 + 3
𝑠+1
(B) 3𝑠 + 2
𝑠−1
(C) 𝑠+1
3𝑠 + 2
(D) 3𝑠 + 2
𝑠+1
Page 11 of 42
Q.13 In the Nyquist plot of the open-loop transfer function
3𝑠 + 5
𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) =
𝑠−1
corresponding to the feedback loop shown in the figure, the infinite semi-circular arc
of the Nyquist contour in s-plane is mapped into a point at
G(s)
-
H(s)
(A) 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = ∞
(B) 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 0
(C) 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = 3
(D) 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = −5
Page 12 of 42
Q.14 Consider a unity-gain negative feedback system consisting of the plant G(s) (given
below) and a proportional-integral controller. Let the proportional gain and integral
gain be 3 and 1, respectively. For a unit step reference input, the final values of the
controller output and the plant output, respectively, are
1
𝐺(𝑠) =
𝑠−1
(A) ∞, ∞
(B) 1, 0
(C) 1, -1
(D) -1, 1
Q.15 The following columns present various modes of induction machine operation and
the ranges of slip
A B
Mode of operation Range of Slip
a. Running in generator mode p) From 0.0 to 1.0
b. Running in motor mode q) From 1.0 to 2.0
c. Plugging in motor mode r) From -1.0 to 0.0
The correct matching between the elements in column A with those of column B is
(A) a-r, b-p, and c-q
(B) a-r, b-q, and c-p
(C) a-p, b-r, and c-q
(D) a-q, b-p, and c-r
Page 13 of 42
Q.16 A 10-pole, 50 Hz, 240 V, single phase induction motor runs at 540 RPM while driving
rated load. The frequency of induced rotor currents due to backward field is
(A) 100 Hz
(B) 95 Hz
(C) 10 Hz
(D) 5 Hz
A continuous-time system that is initially at rest is described by

Q.17 𝑑𝑦(𝑡)
+ 3𝑦(𝑡) = 2𝑥(𝑡),
𝑑𝑡
where 𝑥(𝑡) is the input voltage and 𝑦(𝑡) is the output voltage. The impulse response
of the system is
(A) 3𝑒 −2𝑡
(B) 1 −2𝑡
𝑒 𝑢(𝑡)
3
(C) 2𝑒 −3𝑡 𝑢(𝑡)
(D) 2𝑒 −3𝑡
Page 14 of 42
Q.18 The Fourier transform 𝑋(𝜔) of the signal 𝑥(𝑡) is given by
𝑋(𝜔) = 1, for |𝜔| < 𝑊𝑜

= 0, for |𝜔| > 𝑊0
Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) 𝑥(𝑡) tends to be an impulse as 𝑊0 → ∞.
(B) 𝑥(0) decreases as 𝑊0 increases.
(C) 𝜋 1
At 𝑡 = 2𝑊 , 𝑥(𝑡) = − 𝜋
0
(D) 𝜋 1
At 𝑡 = 2𝑊 , 𝑥(𝑡) = 𝜋
0
Q.19 The 𝑍-transform of a discrete signal 𝑥[𝑛] is

4𝑧
𝑋(𝑧) = 1 2 with 𝑅𝑂𝐶 = 𝑅 .
(𝑧− )(𝑧− )(𝑧−3)
5 3
Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] converges if R is |𝑧| > 3
(B) 2
Discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] converges if R is 3 < |𝑧| < 3
(C) Discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] converges if R is such that x[n] is a left-
sided sequence
(D) Discrete-time Fourier transform of x[n] converges if R is such that x[n] is a right-
sided sequence
Page 15 of 42
Q.20 For the three-bus power system shown in the figure, the trip signals to the circuit
breakers B1 to B9 are provided by overcurrent relays R1 to R9, respectively, some of
which have directional properties also. The necessary condition for the system to be
protected for short circuit fault at any part of the system between bus 1 and the R-L
loads with isolation of minimum portion of the network using minimum number of
directional relays is
1 2
B1 Line 1 B3 3
B9 B5 Line 3 B7 3 B8
B2 B4 R-L
Line 2 B6 load
R-L
load
(A) R3 and R4 are directional overcurrent relays blocking faults towards bus 2
(B) R3 and R4 are directional overcurrent relays blocking faults towards bus 2 and R7 is
directional overcurrent relay blocking faults towards bus 3
R3 and R4 are directional overcurrent relays blocking faults towards Line 1 and Line
(C)
2, respectively, R7 is directional overcurrent relay blocking faults towards Line 3 and
R5 is directional overcurrent relay blocking faults towards bus 2
R3 and R4 are directional overcurrent relays blocking faults towards Line 1 and Line
(D)
2, respectively.
Page 16 of 42
The expressions of fuel cost of two thermal generating units as a function of the
Q.21 respective power generation 𝑃𝐺1 and 𝑃𝐺2 are given as
2
𝐹1 (𝑃𝐺1 ) = 0.1𝑎𝑃𝐺1 + 40 𝑃𝐺1 + 120 𝑅𝑠/ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 0 𝑀𝑊 ≤ 𝑃𝐺1 ≤ 350 𝑀𝑊
2
𝐹2 (𝑃𝐺2 ) = 0.2𝑃𝐺2 + 30 𝑃𝐺2 + 100 𝑅𝑠/ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 0 𝑀𝑊 ≤ 𝑃𝐺2 ≤ 300 𝑀𝑊
where a is a constant. For a given value of a, optimal dispatch requires the total load
of 290 MW to be shared as 𝑃𝐺1 = 175 𝑀𝑊 and 𝑃𝐺2 = 115 𝑀𝑊. With the load
remaining unchanged, the value of a is increased by 10% and optimal dispatch is
carried out. The changes in 𝑃𝐺1 and the total cost of generation, F (= F1 + F2) in
Rs/hour will be as follows
(A) 𝑃𝐺1 will decrease and F will increase
(B) Both 𝑃𝐺1 and F will increase
(C) 𝑃𝐺1 will increase and F will decrease
(D) Both 𝑃𝐺1 and F will decrease
Page 17 of 42
Q.22 The four stator conductors (A, A, B and B) of a rotating machine are carrying DC
currents of the same value, the directions of which are shown in the figure (i). The
rotor coils a-a and b-b are formed by connecting the back ends of conductors ‘a’
and ‘a’ and ‘b’ and ‘b’, respectively, as shown in figure (ii). The e.m.f. induced in
coil a-a and coil b-b are denoted by Ea-a and Eb-b, respectively. If the rotor is
rotated at uniform angular speed  rad/s in the clockwise direction then which of the
following correctly describes the Ea-a and Eb-b ?
figure (i): cross-sectional view figure (ii): rotor winding connection diagram
(A) Ea-a and Eb-b have finite magnitudes and are in the same phase
(B) Ea-a and Eb-b have finite magnitudes with Eb-b leading Ea-a
(C) Ea-a and Eb-b have finite magnitudes with Ea-a leading Eb-b
(D) Ea-a = Eb-b = 0
Page 18 of 42
Q.23 The chopper circuit shown in figure (i) feeds power to a 5 A DC constant current
source. The switching frequency of the chopper is 100 kHz. All the components can
be assumed to be ideal. The gate signals of switches S1 and S2 are shown in figure
(ii). Average voltage across the 5 A current source is
High
Gate
S1 D1 Signal
Low
+ of S1
20 V
Gate
S2 D2 5 A Signal
of S2
0 3 5 8 10 time in s
figure (i) figure (ii)
(A) 10 V
(B) 6V
(C) 12 V
(D) 20 V
Page 19 of 42
Q.24 In the figure, the vectors u and v are related as: Au = v by a transformation matrix
A. The correct choice of A is
(A) 4 3
[ 5 5]
3 4
−
5 5
(B) 4 3
−
[5 5]
3 4
5 5
(C) 4 3
[5 5]
3 4
5 5
(D) 4 3
−
[5 5]
3 4
−
5 5
Page 20 of 42
Q.25 One million random numbers are generated from a statistically stationary process
with a Gaussian distribution with mean zero and standard deviation 𝜎𝑜 .
The 𝜎𝑜 is estimated by randomly drawing out 10,000 numbers of samples (𝑥𝑛 ). The
estimates 𝜎̂1 , 𝜎̂2 are computed in the following two ways.
1 1
𝜎̂12 = ∑10000
𝑛=1 𝑥𝑛
2
𝜎̂22 = ∑10000
𝑛=1 𝑥𝑛
2
10000 9999
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) 𝐸 (𝜎̂22 ) = 𝜎𝑜2
(B) 𝐸 (𝜎̂2 ) = 𝜎𝑜
(C) 𝐸 (𝜎̂12 ) = 𝜎𝑜2
(D) 𝐸 (𝜎̂1 ) = 𝐸 (𝜎̂2 )
Page 21 of 42
Q.26 A semiconductor switch needs to block voltage V of only one polarity (V > 0) during
OFF state as shown in figure (i) and carry current in both directions during ON state
as shown in figure (ii). Which of the following switch combination(s) will realize the
same?
P Q P Q
+V- I
figure (i) figure (ii)
(A)
P Q
(B)
P Q
(C)
P Q
(D)
P Q
Page 22 of 42
Q.27 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) If an LTI system is causal, it is stable
(B) A discrete time LTI system is causal if and only if its response to a step input 𝑢[𝑛]
is 0 for 𝑛 < 0
(C) If a discrete time LTI system has an impulse response ℎ[𝑛] of finite duration the
system is stable
(D) If the impulse response 0 < |ℎ[𝑛]| < 1 for all 𝑛, then the LTI system is stable.
The bus admittance (Ybus) matrix of a 3-bus power system is given below.
Q.28 1 2 3
1 −𝑗15 𝑗10 𝑗5
2[ 𝑗10 −𝑗13.5 𝑗4 ]
3 𝑗5 𝑗4 −𝑗8
Considering that there is no shunt inductor connected to any of the buses, which of
the following can NOT be true?
(A) Line charging capacitor of finite value is present in all three lines
(B) Line charging capacitor of finite value is present in line 2-3 only
(C) Line charging capacitor of finite value is present in line 2-3 only and shunt
capacitor of finite value is present in bus 1 only
(D) Line charging capacitor of finite value is present in line 2-3 only and shunt
capacitor of finite value is present in bus 3 only
Page 23 of 42
The value of parameters of the circuit shown in the figure are

Q.29
R1 = 2, R2 = 2, R3 = 3, L = 10 mH, C = 100 F
For time t < 0, the circuit is at steady state with the switch ‘K’ in closed condition. If
the switch is opened at t = 0, the value of the voltage across the inductor (VL) at
t = 0+ in Volts is ____________ (Round off to 1 decimal place).
L
R1
VL
R1 = 2,
R2 = 2,
K R2 C R3 = 3
10 A,
L = 10 mH
DC
C = 100 F
R3
Q.30 A separately excited DC motor rated 400 V, 15 A, 1500 RPM drives a constant torque
load at rated speed operating from 400 V DC supply drawing rated current. The
armature resistance is 1.2 . If the supply voltage drops by 10% with field current
unaltered then the resultant speed of the motor in RPM is ____________ (Round off
to the nearest integer).
Page 24 of 42
Q.31 For the signals 𝑥(𝑡)and 𝑦(𝑡) shown in the figure, 𝑧(𝑡) = 𝑥(𝑡) ∗ 𝑦(𝑡) is maximum at
𝑡 = 𝑇1 . Then 𝑇1 in seconds is ___________ (Round off to the nearest integer).
3
y(t)
2
1
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 t
-2
-3
3
x(t)
2
1
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 t
-1
-2
-3
Q.32 For the circuit shown in the figure, V1 = 8 V, DC and I1 = 8 A, DC. The voltage Vab
in Volts is _________ (Round off to 1 decimal place).
Vab
0.5Ω a b
3Ω
V1
I1
3Ω V1 = 8 V, DC
I1 = 8 A, DC
2Ω
2Ω
Page 25 of 42
Q.33 A 50 Hz, 275 kV line of length 400 km has the following parameters:
Resistance, R = 0.035 /km;

Inductance, L = 1 mH /km;
Capacitance, C = 0.01 F/km;
The line is represented by the nominal- model. With the magnitudes of the sending
end and the receiving end voltages of the line (denoted by VS and VR, respectively)
maintained at 275 kV, the phase angle difference () between VS and VR required for
maximum possible active power to be delivered to the receiving end, in degree is
_____________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
In the following differential equation, the numerically obtained value of y(t), at t =1,
Q.34 is _______________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
𝑑𝑦 𝑒 −𝛼𝑡
= , 𝛼 = 0.01 and 𝑦(0) = 0
𝑑𝑡 2 + 𝛼𝑡
Q.35 Three points in the x-y plane are (-1, 0.8), (0, 2.2) and (1, 2.8). The value of the slope
of the best fit straight line in the least square sense is ____________ (Round off to
2 decimal places).
Page 26 of 42

The magnitude and phase plots of an LTI system are shown in the figure. The
Q.36 transfer function of the system is
(A) 2.51𝑒 −0.032𝑠
(B) 𝑒 −2.514𝑠
𝑠+1
(C) 1.04𝑒 −2.514𝑠
(D) 2.51𝑒 −1.047𝑠
Page 27 of 42
Q.37 Consider the OP AMP based circuit shown in the figure. Ignore the conduction
drops of diodes D1 and D2. All the components are ideal and the breakdown voltage
of the Zener is 5 V. Which of the following statements is true?
D1
1k
DZ D2
1k +15 V
- +
+ OP
Vin = 10sin(1000t) V + VO
-15 V
(A) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +15 V and
-10 V, respectively.
(B) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5 V and -15 V,
respectively.
The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +10 V and -5 V,
(C) respectively.
(D) The maximum and minimum values of the output voltage VO are +5 V and -10 V,
respectively.
Page 28 of 42
Consider a lead compensator of the form

Q.38 𝑠
1+𝑎
𝐾(𝑠) = 𝑠 , 𝛽 > 1, 𝑎 > 0
1+
𝛽𝑎
The frequency at which this compensator produces maximum phase lead is 4 rad/s.
At this frequency, the gain amplification provided by the controller, assuming
asymptotic Bode-magnitude plot of 𝐾(𝑠), is 6 dB. The values of 𝑎, 𝛽, respectively,
are
(A) 1, 16
(B) 2, 4
(C) 3, 5
(D) 2.66, 2.25
Page 29 of 42
Q.39 A 3-phase, star-connected, balanced load is supplied from a 3-phase, 400 V (rms),
balanced voltage source with phase sequence R-Y-B, as shown in the figure. If the
wattmeter reading is −400 W and the line current is 𝐼𝑅 = 2 A (rms), then the power
factor of the load per phase is
Wattmeter
R IR M L
C V 3 Phase
3 Phase + - Star
400 V Y
Connected
Balanced
Balanced
Source
B Load
(A) Unity
(B) 0.5 leading
(C) 0.866 leading
(D) 0.707 lagging
Page 30 of 42
Q.40 An 8 bit ADC converts analog voltage in the range of 0 to +5 V to the corresponding
digital code as per the conversion characteristics shown in figure.
For 𝑉𝑖𝑛 = 1.9922 𝑉, which of the following digital output, given in hex, is true ?
Digital
Output in
Hex
03H
02H
01H
00H
Vin in mV
0 9.8 19.6 39.2 58.8
Analog Input
(A) 64H
(B) 65H
(C) 66H
(D) 67H
Page 31 of 42
Q.41 The three-bus power system shown in the figure has one alternator connected to
bus 2 which supplies 200 MW and 40 MVAr power. Bus 3 is infinite bus having a
voltage of magnitude |V3| =1.0 p.u. and angle of -15. A variable current source,
|I| is connected at bus 1 and controlled such that the magnitude of the bus 1
voltage is maintained at 1.05 p.u. and the phase angle of the source current,
𝜋
 = 12 , where 1 is the phase angle of the bus 1 voltage. The three buses can be
categorized for load flow analysis as
(A) 𝐵𝑢𝑠 1 𝑆𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑏𝑢𝑠

𝐵𝑢𝑠 2 𝑃 − |𝑉| 𝑏𝑢𝑠
𝐵𝑢𝑠 3 𝑃 − 𝑄 𝑏𝑢𝑠
(B) 𝐵𝑢𝑠 1 𝑃 − |𝑉| 𝑏𝑢𝑠

𝐵𝑢𝑠 2 𝑃 − |𝑉| 𝑏𝑢𝑠
𝐵𝑢𝑠 3 𝑆𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑏𝑢𝑠
(C) 𝐵𝑢𝑠 1 𝑃 − 𝑄 𝑏𝑢𝑠

(D) 𝐵𝑢𝑠 1 𝑃 − |𝑉| 𝑏𝑢𝑠

Page 32 of 42
Q.42 Consider the following equation in a 2-D real-space.
|𝑥1 |𝑝 + |𝑥2 |𝑝 = 1 for 𝑝 > 0
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true.
(A) When p = 2, the area enclosed by the curve is 𝜋.
(B) When p tends to ∞, the area enclosed by the curve tends to 4.
(C) When p tends to 0, the area enclosed by the curve is 1.
(D) When p = 1, the area enclosed by the curve is 2.
Q.43 In the figure, the electric field E and the magnetic field B point to x and z directions,
respectively, and have constant magnitudes. A positive charge ‘q’ is released from
rest at the origin. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true.
(A) The charge will move in the direction of z with constant velocity.
(B) The charge will always move on the y-z plane only.
(C) The trajectory of the charge will be a circle.
(D) The charge will progress in the direction of y.
Page 33 of 42
Q.44 All the elements in the circuit shown in the following figure are ideal. Which of the
following statements is/are true?
D1
4 A, DC 2 A, DC D3
D2
+ + S +
10 V 20 V 40 V
(A) When switch S is ON, both D1 and D2 conducts and D3 is reverse biased
(B) When switch S is ON, D1 conducts and both D2 and D3 are reverse biased
(C) When switch S is OFF, D1 is reverse biased and both D2 and D3 conduct
(D) When switch S is OFF, D1 conducts, D2 is reverse biased and D3 conducts
Q.45 The expected number of trials for first occurrence of a “head” in a biased coin is
known to be 4. The probability of first occurrence of a “head” in the second trial is
_____________ (Round off to 3 decimal places).
Q.46 Consider the state-space description of an LTI system with matrices
0 1 0
𝐴=[ ] , 𝐵 = [ ] , 𝐶 = [3 −2], 𝐷 = 1
−1 −2 1
For the input, sin(𝜔𝑡), 𝜔 > 0, the value of 𝜔 for which the steady-state output of
the system will be zero, is ___________ (Round off to the nearest integer).
Page 34 of 42
Q.47 A three-phase synchronous motor with synchronous impedance of 0.1+j0.3 per unit
per phase has a static stability limit of 2.5 per unit. The corresponding excitation
voltage in per unit is ___________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
Q.48 A three phase 415 V, 50 Hz, 6-pole, 960 RPM, 4 HP squirrel cage induction motor
drives a constant torque load at rated speed operating from rated supply and
delivering rated output. If the supply voltage and frequency are reduced by 20%,
the resultant speed of the motor in RPM (neglecting the stator leakage impedance
and rotational losses) is __________ (Round off to the nearest integer).
Q.49 The period of the discrete-time signal 𝑥[𝑛] described by the equation below is
𝑁 = ___________________ (Round off to the nearest integer).
15𝜋 3𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
𝑥[𝑛] = 1 + 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑛 + ) − 5sin( 𝑛 − )
8 4 3 4
Q.50 The discrete-time Fourier transform of a signal 𝑥[𝑛] is 𝑋(Ω) = (1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠Ω)𝑒 −𝑗Ω .
Consider that 𝑥𝑝 [𝑛] is a periodic signal of period N = 5 such that
𝑥𝑝 [𝑛] = 𝑥[𝑛], for 𝑛 = 0, 1 ,2

= 0, for 𝑛 = 3, 4
2𝜋
𝑗 𝑘𝑛
Note that 𝑥𝑝 [𝑛] = ∑𝑁−1
𝑘=0 𝑎𝑘 𝑒 𝑁 . The magnitude of the Fourier series coefficient
𝑎3 is _______________ (Round off to 3 decimal places).
Page 35 of 42
Q.51 For the circuit shown, if 𝑖 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛1000𝑡, the instantaneous value of the Thevenin’s
equivalent voltage (in Volts) across the terminals a-b at time t = 5 ms is __________
(Round off to 2 decimal places).
4ix
a
10Ω ix 10
i = sin1000t
j10 
10 mH
j10F
-100 
b
The admittance parameters of the passive resistive two-port network shown in the
Q.52 figure are
𝑦11 = 5 𝑆, 𝑦22 = 1 𝑆, 𝑦12 = 𝑦21 = −2.5 𝑆
The power delivered to the load resistor RL in Watt is __________ (Round off to 2
decimal places).
Page 36 of 42
Q.53 When the winding c-d of the single-phase, 50 Hz, two winding transformer is
supplied from an AC current source of frequency 50 Hz, the rated voltage of 200 V
(rms), 50 Hz is obtained at the open-circuited terminals a-b. The cross sectional
area of the core is 5000 mm2 and the average core length traversed by the mutual
flux is 500 mm. The maximum allowable flux density in the core is Bmax = 1 Wb/m2
and the relative permeability of the core material is 5000. The leakage impedance
of the winding a-b and winding c-d at 50 Hz are (5 + j100×0.16)  and (11.25 +
j100×0.36) , respectively. Considering the magnetizing characteristics to be
linear and neglecting core loss, the self-inductance of the winding a-b in millihenry
is ___________ (Round off to 1 decimal place).
a c
Vab = 50 Hz, AC
200 V, 50 Hz current source
b d
Q.54 The circuit shown in the figure is initially in the steady state with the switch K in
open condition and 𝐾̅ in closed condition. The switch K is closed and 𝐾 ̅ is opened
simultaneously at the instant t = t1, where t1 > 0. The minimum value of t1 in
milliseconds, such that there is no transient in the voltage across the 100 F
capacitor, is ____________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
K
10 100F
𝒊(𝒕) =
𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝒕
̅
𝑲
10 5V
Page 37 of 42
Q.55 The circuit shown in the figure has reached steady state with thyristor ‘T’ in OFF
condition. Assume that the latching and holding currents of the thyristor are zero.
The thyristor is turned ON at t = 0 sec. The duration in microseconds for which the
thyristor would conduct, before it turns off, is _____ (Round off to 2 decimal
places).
C=1 F
T L=4
+
100 V
4
Q.56 Neglecting the delays due to the logic gates in the circuit shown in figure, the
decimal equivalent of the binary sequence [ABCD] of initial logic states, which
will not change with clock, is ____________.
Page 38 of 42
Q.57 In a given 8-bit general purpose micro-controller there are following flags.
C-Carry, A-Auxiliary Carry, O-Overflow flag, P-Parity (0 for even, 1 for odd)
R0 and R1 are the two general purpose registers of the micro-controller.
After execution of the following instructions, the decimal equivalent of the binary
sequence of the flag pattern [CAOP] will be __________.
MOV R0, +0x60
MOV R1, +0x46
ADD R0, R1
Q.58 The single phase rectifier consisting of three thyristors T1, T2, T3 and a diode D1
feed power to a 10 A constant current load. T1 and T3 are fired at α = 60° and T2 is
fired at α = 240°. The reference for α is the positive zero crossing of Vin. The average
voltage VO across the load in volts is _____ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
T1 D1
+
Vin = 100 sin(100 t) V 10 A VO
T2 T3
Q.59 The Zener diode in circuit has a breakdown voltage of 5 V. The current gain β of
the transistor in the active region in 99. Ignore base-emitter voltage drop VBE. The
current through the 20 Ω resistance in milliamperes is ________(Round off to 2
decimal places).
= 99 10
7k 20
+ 5 V Zener
25 V
Page 39 of 42
Q.60 The two-bus power system shown in figure (i) has one alternator supplying a
synchronous motor load through a Y-Δ transformer. The positive, negative and
zero-sequence diagrams of the system are shown in figures (ii), (iii) and (iv),
respectively. All reactances in the sequence diagrams are in p.u. For a bolted line-
to-line fault (fault impedance = zero) between phases ‘b’ and ‘c’ at bus 1, neglecting
all pre-fault currents, the magnitude of the fault current (from phase ‘b’ to ‘c’) in
p.u. is _____________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
1
2 jxn
T1
Synchronous
Alternator Motor
figure (i): Single-line diagram of the power system
2 1
j0.1
2 1
j0.1
j0.1 j0.3
j0.1 j0.3
𝐸𝑔" "
𝐸𝑚
figure (ii): Positive-sequence network figure (iii): Negative-sequence network
2 1
j0.1
j0.05 j0.06
j0.15 j0.09
figure (iv): Zero-sequence network
Page 40 of 42
Q.61 An infinite surface of linear current density 𝐊 = 5𝐚̂𝐱 A/m exists on the x-y plane,
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the magnetic field intensity (H) at a point
(1,1,1) due to the surface current in Ampere/meter is _______ (Round off to 2
decimal places).
Q.62 The closed curve shown in the figure is described by
𝑟 = 1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃, where 𝑟 = √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 ; 𝑥 = 𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃, 𝑦 = 𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
The magnitude of the line integral of the vector field 𝐹 = −𝑦𝑖̂ + 𝑥𝑗̂ around the
closed curve is ____________ (Round off to 2 decimal places).
Page 41 of 42
Q.63 A signal 𝑥(𝑡) = 2𝑐𝑜𝑠(180𝜋𝑡)𝑐𝑜𝑠(60𝜋𝑡) is sampled at 200 Hz and then passed

through an ideal low pass filter having cut-off frequency of 100 Hz.
The maximum frequency present in the filtered signal in Hz is _____________
(Round off to the nearest integer).
Q.64 A balanced delta connected load consisting of the series connection of one resistor
(R = 15 ) and a capacitor (C = 212.21 F) in each phase is connected to three-
phase, 50 Hz, 415 V supply terminals through a line having an inductance of
L = 31.83 mH per phase, as shown in the figure. Considering the change in the
supply terminal voltage with loading to be negligible, the magnitude of the voltage
across the terminals VAB in Volts is _____________ (Round off to the nearest
integer).
L C
A R
3-phase,
50 Hz, L B R C
415 V
(r.m.s.)
supply L C R C
terminals
R = 15 , L = 31.83 mH, C = 212.21 F
Q.65 A quadratic function of two variables is given as
𝑓(𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ) = 𝑥12 + 2𝑥22 + 3𝑥1 + 3𝑥2 + 𝑥1 𝑥2 + 1
The magnitude of the maximum rate of change of the function at the point (1,1) is
_________ (Round off to the nearest integer).
END OF QUESTION PAPER
Page 42 of 42

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2012 Question Booklet Code A

Read the following instructions carefully.

Q. 1 – Q. 25 carry one mark each.

(A) 3 4 (B) 9 16 (C) 1 4 (D) 2 3

(A) e  / 2 (B) e / 2 (C) x (D) 1

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2

(A) 50 W (B) 100 W (C) 5 kW (D) 10.1 kW

Q.9 The bus admittance matrix of a three-bus three-line system is

Q.10 The slip of an induction motor normally does not depend on

Q.11 A two-phase load draws the following phase currents: i1 (t )  I m sin( t  1 ) ,

(A)  2 (B) 2 (C) ( / 2  2 ) (D) ( / 2  2 )

(A) 4 V (B) 5 V (C) 8 V (D) 10 V

(A) 44.2 W (B) 50 W (C) 62.5 W (D) 125 W

(A) zero (B) a step function

(A) 10 mA (B) 9.3 mA (C) 6.67 mA (D) 6.2 mA

Q.20 Consider the given circuit.

Q.24 The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A thyristor is

Q. 26 to Q. 55 carry two marks each.

Q.27 The maximum value of f ( x)  x 3  9 x 2  24 x  5 in the interval [1, 6] is

(A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 41 (D) 46

(A) –5 V (B) 2 V (C) 3 V (D) 6 V

Q.29 The voltage gain Av of the circuit shown below is

(A) Av  200 (B) Av  100 (C) Av  20 (D) Av  10

A=1 A=0 A=0 A=0

A=0 A=1 A=1 A=1

Q.32 The circuit shown is a

(A) 0.2 pu (B) 0.268 pu (C) 0.312 pu (D) 0.4 pu

(A) –2 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0

Q.39 Consider the differential equation

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1

(A) 0.8 W (B) 1.4 W (C) 2 W (D) 2.8 W

Q.41 The state variable description of an LTI system is given by

(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

Q.43 The feedback system shown below oscillates at 2 rad/s when

(A) K = 2 and a = 0.75 (B) K = 3 and a = 0.75

(A) time-invariant and stable (B) stable and not time-invariant

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:

3-phase inverter 3-phase balanced load

Q.48 The rms value of load phase voltage is

(A) 1.5 kW (B) 2.0 kW (C) 2.5 kW (D) 3.0 kW

Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:

(i) 1 W connected at port B draws a current of 3 A

Q.51 With 10 V dc connected at port A, the current drawn by 7 W connected at port B is

(A) 3/7 A (B) 5/7 A (C) 1 A (D) 9/7 A

Linked Answer Questions

Q.52 The power factor of the load is

Q.53 If RL  5 W , the approximate power consumption in the load is

(A) 700 W (B) 750 W (C) 800 W (D) 850 W

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:

The transfer function of a compensator is given as

(A) a =1, b = 2 (B) a = 3, b = 2

Q.55 The phase of the above lead compensator is maximum at

(A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) 6 rad/s (D) 1 / 3 rad/s

General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)

Q. 56 – Q. 60 carry one mark each.

Q.57 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =

Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each.

Category Amount (Rs.)

The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

Paper Question no. Code : A Code : B Code : C Code : D

Read the following instructions carefully.