Answer Key

24th December 2023
for Students presently in Class VIII
Paper 1 - IQ
Duration : 80 minutes Maximum Marks : 135
Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :

Important Note : Please ensure to accurately input the details for the Class and Paper No. as indicated at the top of this sheet
into the corresponding columns / fields on the OMR sheet before proceeding with the paper. Incorrectly filled information
regarding the class or paper may result in inaccurate outcomes or results.
“This paper has been scientifically designed to evaluate your potential – manifested
and hidden for the target examinations mentioned in various sections of the paper.
Thus, your adherence to the instructions is critical in the evaluation of the same”
1. This Question paper consists of 3 sections.
2. Student should devote allotted time for each section. If a section is easy, then it is easy for everyone & was meant
to be like that with a goal in mind. Do not switch over to another section if you find the section to be easy. If
a section is tough, then it is tough for everyone. You are advised to spend 20 Minutes on Section-I, 30 Minutes on
Section-II and 30 Minutes on Section-III. Dedicating the required time to finish each section successfully is essential.
Opening the next section before completing the allotted time for the preceding section is not permitted. This adherence
is crucial for assessing your true potential, as each section is meticulously crafted to evaluate your potential for the
corresponding competitive examinations.
3. Candidate should open the seal of Section-II only after devoting 20 minutes on Section-I and Seal for Section-III is to be
opened only after devoting 30 minutes on Section-II.
4. Sheets will be given to each candidate for rough work. Candidate must fill all details on the rough sheet and submit the same
to invigilator along with OMR sheet. Candidate must mention the Question No. while doing the rough work in the sheet.
5. Please note candidates are not allowed to bring any prohibited items into the exam hall such as electronic devices, mobile
phones, smart watch, earphones, calculators, books, notes, formula sheets, and bags.
6. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I (NTSE) 1 to 9 +3 –1
IQ
Time Allotted: 20 Minutes 10 to 15 +3 –1
SECTION – II (JEE Main) 16 to 24 +3 –1

IQ
SECTION – III (JEE Advanced) 31 to 39 +3 –1

IQ
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016 (website: www.fiitjee.com)
Section – I
Time: 20 Minutes
Page No. 1
FTRE-2023-T1-C-VIII-(Paper-1)-IQ
IQ
This section contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 9. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 1 to 2): In the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark (?).
1. 4, 7, 13, 22, ?, 49
(A) 31 (B) 34
(C) 32 (D) 36
2. 13, 13, 26, 78, 312, ?

(A) 996 (B) 884
(C) 1560 (D) 1225
Directions (Q. 3 to 4): Find the missing number in the following questions.
3.
7
348 18
172 40
?
(A) 72 (B) 84
(C) 68 (D) 66
4.
3 83 7 2 110 9 8 ? 4
5 5 1
(A) 80 (B) 82
(C) 85 (D) 81
5. Nilesh walked 10 meter towards the East, turned right and walked another 15 meter. Then he
turns left and walks 3 meter. He finally takes a left turn and walked 6 meter. In which direction is
he facing now?
(A) East (B) North
(C) West (D) South
6. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is
Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?
(A) Niece (B) Daughter
(C) Wife (D) Grand-Daughter
7. If ‘÷’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘÷’, then following the BODMAS rule
find the value of
13 × 5 + 6 – 2 ÷ 4?
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 10 (D) 8
Page No. 2
8. If in a certain code ‘SWITCH’ is written as ‘UYKVEJ’. How would ‘PARENT’ be written in that
code?
(A) RCTHPV (B) RCTGPV
(C) RCUGPV (D) RCTGQV
9. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face to digit ‘1’ ?
1 4 6
2 3 3 5 5 2
(I) (II) (III)
(A) 2 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
This section contains TWO (02) comprehensions. Based on each comprehension, there are
THREE (03) questions of Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 10 to 12

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. E and G always sit next to each
other. D sits third to the right of C. F sits second to the left of H. C never sits just next to A while D never
sits just next to G. H is not the neighbour of D and C.
10. Who sits between A and D?

(A) B (B) F
(C) C (D) E
11. Who sits second to the left of B?

(A) F (B) G
(C) A (D) E
12. Who sits to the immediate right of F?

(A) D (B) C
(C) B (D) A
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than
only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest
marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
13. Which of the following can be the score of C?

(A) 70 (B) 94
(C) 86 (D) 61
14. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(A) D’s score was definitely less than 60
(B) B scored the maximum marks
(C) Only two people scored more than C
(D) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
15. The person who scored the maximum marks scored 13 marks more than F’s marks then which of
the following can be D’s score?
(A) 94 (B) 60
(C) 89 (D) 78
Page No. 3
Page No. 4
Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 5
IQ
This section contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 16 to 24. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Directions (Q. 16 to 18): Read the following questions carefully and select the appropriate option you
should respond ideally in the given situation.
16. You are alone in the house and there is quite a danger of thieves around. Just then, you hear a
knock at the door?
(A) Ask the servant to see who is there
(B) Not open the door
(C) First peep out from the window to confirm whether you know the person
(D) Open the door to see who is there
17. While attending your friend’s party you see your friend’s muffler catching fire from the candle on
the table behind him?
(A) Take out the muffler and throw it away
(B) Rush and take out the muffler from his neck, drop it and pour water on it
(C) Rush to call friend’s mother
(D) Ask your friend to see behind him
18. You are playing in your friend's house, when he gets stuck with a naked electric wire?
(A) Send him/her to the doctor.
(B) Hold the wire with iron rod and pull it away.
(C) Hold him by the arms and try to set him free.
(D) Pull off the wire with a wooden stick.
19. In the given figure (X) is followed by four alternative answer figure (A), (B), (C) and (D) such that
figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure (X) as its part
Question figure Answer figure
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
20. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the length 5 m 60 cm, 3 m 85
cm and 5 m 25 cm is?
(A) 16 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) 15 cm (D) 35 cm
21. How many numbers are there from 1 to 99 which are neither divisible by 2 nor by 3?
(A) 33 (B) 43
(C) 30 (D) 35
22. The average weight of 10 men is increased by 3 kg when one of them whose weight is 40 kg is
replaced by a new person. The weight of the new person is?
(A) 70 (B) 60
(C) 50 (D) 80
Page No. 6
23. A clock is started at noon. By 5 PM same day, the hour hand has turned through (in degree)
(A) 150o (B) 155o
(C) 175o (D) 180o
24. Find the total number of triangles in the given figure.
(A) 8 (B) 18
(C) 10 (D) 20
Each of the following questions is based on the following information:

A # B means B is at 2 metre to the right of A.
A $ B means B is at 2 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 2 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 2 metre to the south of A.
In each question first person from the left is facing North.
25. According to X @ B * P, P is in which direction with respect to X?

(A) North (B) South
(C) North-East (D) South-West
26. According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction with respect to M?

(A) North-West (B) North-East
(C) South-West (D) South-East
27. According to P # R $ A * U, in which direction is U with respect to P?

(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions:

Total number of employees = 25,000
Percentage wise distribution of employees in six different professions
Engineering
9%
Management
17%
Teaching
15%
Industries
13%
Film
Production
Medical 19%
27%
Page No. 7
28. 26% of employees from film production profession went on a strike. What is the number of
employees from film production who have not participated in the strike?
(A) 3271 (B) 3515
(C) 3948 (D) 1273
29. In management profession one-fifth of the number of employees are female. What is the number
of male employees in management profession?
(A) 3400 (B) 2650
(C) 3650 (D) 3800
30. In teaching profession if three-fifth of the teachers are not permanent, what is the number of
permanent teachers in the teaching profession?
(A) 1600 (B) 1500
(C) 2000 (D) 1550
Page No. 8
Page No. 9
Page No. 10
Section – III
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 11
IQ
This section contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4
31. In class of 60 students girls are twice in number than boys and if Sachin got 11th rank from top
and there are 7 girls are upward to Sachin, then what is Sachin’s rank from bottom amongst the
boys?
th th
(A) 16 (B) 4
th th
(C) 17 (D) 18
32. At each stage the black dot moves 3 corners clockwise and the white dot moves 3 corners
anticlockwise. After how many stages will both dots be together in the same corner?
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 7
33. If 2nd February 2004 fell on Monday, then what was the day on the 10th November of the same
year?
(A) Thursday (B) Friday
(C) Wednesday (D) None of these
34. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, then what will West
become?
(A) North-East (B) North-West
(C) South-East (D) South-West
35. If in a certain code ‘MOHAN’ is coded as ‘51’ and ‘SOHAN’ is coded as ‘57’, then the code for
‘ROHAN’ is
(A) 57 (B) 58
(C) 56 (D) None of these
36. It takes five minutes to pass a rumour from one person to two other persons. The tree of rumour
continues. Find how many minutes does it take spread the rumour to 729 persons?
(A) 72 (B) 64
(C) 30 (D) 48
37. A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 1 more to B. Again he gives half of the rest of
the coins and 1 more to C. Again he gives half of the rest of the coins and 1 more to D. In the end
he gives 1 last coin to E. How many total coins he has in total in the beginning.
(A) 72 (B) 64
(C) 22 (D) 48
Page No. 12
38. The square boxes in the figure below are to be painted with different colours such that no two
adjacent boxes (even diagonally) have same colour. How many minimum colours do you need in
each case?
(A) 3, 4 (B) 4, 4
(C) 4, 5 (D) 3, 5
39. My grandson is about as many days as my daughter in weeks, and my grandson is as many
months as I am in years. My grandson, my daughter and I together are 160 years. Can you tell
me my age in years?
(A) 72 (B) 86
(C) 96 (D) 76
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table two on each side facing inside
the centre.
(i) There are three actors and they are not sitting next to each other.
(ii) F is between H and B.
(iii) C is between E and B.
(iv) D, an actor is second to the left of F.
(v) B, a non-actor, is sitting opposite to A, an actor.
(vi) There is an actor between B and E.
40. Who are the actors?

(A) ABC (B) ACD
(C) DCE (D) HEF
41. How many persons are there between B and G?

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 3
42. Who is sitting between F and D?

(A) A (B) G
(C) B (D) H
Page No. 13
Directions (Q. 43 to 45): A milkman has 3 sons and 9 cows distributed equal number of cows as well as
quantity of milk amongst those sons each cow provides milk equivalent to its allotted number for instance,
cow numbered 1 provides 1 litre milk, cow numbered 2 provides 2 litres milk & so on. Answer the below
questions based on the above data:
43. A son who has 7th numbered cow will not have which of the following numbered cow from the
group of 3 cows he owned?
(A) 5th numbered cow (B) 6th numbered cow
(C) 2nd numbered cow (D) 9th numbered cow
44. Which of the following numbered cows will be owned by the son who already has cow numbered
2 and 5?
th th
(A) 8 numbered cow (B) 7 numbered cow
th th
(C) 6 numbered cow (D) 9 numbered cow
45. Which of the following distribution of cows CANNOT be a possibility owned by any one of the 5
sons?
(A) 3, 5, 7 (B) 1, 5, 9
(C) 3, 5, 8 (D) 4, 5, 6
Page No. 14
Page No. 15
Page No. 16
24th December 2023
Paper 1 - IQ
ANSWER KEYS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. D
5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. D
13. A 14. B 15. C 16. C
17. B 18. D 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. A 23. A 24. B
25. D 26. B 27. C 28. B
29. A 30. B 31. C 32. C
33. C 34. C 35. C 36. C
37. C 38. B 39. C 40. B
41. D 42. D 43. D 44. A
45. C
24th December 2023
Paper 2
NEET Science, Science (Basic School, NTSE & NEET) & NTSE Mathematics


SECTION – I PHYSICS (Part-A) 1 to 8 +4 -1

(NEET-Science) CHEMISTRY (Part-B) 9 to 16 +4 -1
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes BIOLOGY (Part-C) 17 to 32 +4 -1
PHYSICS (Part-A) 33 to 37 +1 0
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (Part-B) 38 to 42 +1 0
Science (Basic School BIOLOGY (Part-C) 43 to 47 +1 0

& NTSE) & NEET PHYSICS (Part-D) 48 to 52 +1 0
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes CHEMISTRY (Part-E) 53 to 57 +1 0
BIOLOGY (Part-F) 58 to 62 +1 0
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (Part-A) 63 to 77 +1 0
(NTSE-Mathematics)
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes MATHEMATICS (Part-B) 78 to 92 +1 0
Section – I
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 1
FTRE-2023-T1-C-VIII-(Paper-2)-S&M
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 8. Each question has 4 choices
1. Which one of the following is an example of non-contact force?

(A) Muscular force (B) Frictional force
(C) Air resistance force (D) Magnetic force
2. When you move a heavy box along a surface, it is easier to maintain the motion of the box than to
start the motion of it because
(A) Static friction of the box is less than its sliding friction
(B) Sliding friction of the box is less than its static friction
(C) Sliding friction of the box is less than its rolling friction
(D) Static friction of the box is less than its rolling friction
3. Which one of the following frequencies of sound waves cannot be heard by humans?
(A) 20 Hz (B) 500 Hz
(C) 15 Hz (D) 15000 Hz
Comprehension for Q. No. 4
When a body moves with respect to another body, we say there is relative motion between the
two bodies.
The friction that exists between the two surfaces in contact when there is no relative motion
between them is called static friction. Relative motion means motion of one body with respect to
another. For example, if two bodies are moving at the same velocity then the bodies appear to be
at rest with respect to each other. Similarly, if your car overtakes another car, the other car
appears to move backward with respect to you.
Static friction acts on a body to oppose its tendency of relative motion. If there is no relative
motion between two bodies, then the static friction is balancing the applied horizontal force. The
maximum value of static friction is called limiting friction. Once the applied horizontal force
becomes greater than the limiting friction, the body starts moving.
Based on the above passage answer the following question
4. A force of 10 N has to be applied on an object to move it horizontally. If a force of 5 N is applied

(A) The static friction on the object is 5 N
(B) The static friction on the object is 10 N
(C) The static friction on the object is 15 N
(D) The static friction on the object is zero as it will remain at rest
Page No. 2
5. Because our ear is sensitive over a broad range of intensities a decibel scale (a logarithmic
intensity scale) is usually used to measure the sound intensity level. In that scale, the threshold of
hearing (Least sound one can hear) is 0 dB, and the threshold of pain (highest sound one can
bear) is 120 dB.
Match the sounds of Column-I with Column-II
Column – I Column –II
(a) Busy traffic street (p) 10 dB
(b) Front rows of Rock Concert (q) 40 dB
(c) Quiet television at home (r) 70 dB
(d) Rustle of leaves (s) 100 dB

(A) (a – r), (b – s), (c – p), (d – q) (B) (a – r), (b – p), (c – s), (d – q)
(C) (a – r), (b – q), (c – p), (d – s) (D) (a – r), (b – s), (c – q), (d – p)
6. A concrete block is placed on the rough horizontal surface of a truck, which moves on a
horizontal road (not inclined). Assume there is no slipping of the block on the surface of the truck.
The block is not attached to the truck by any other means. Based on the above information match
the entries in column-I
to that in column-II and choose the appropriate option given below.
Column – I Column – II
(a) The truck starts accelerating i.e. (p) No friction acts on the block
increases its speed while moving in
forward direction.
(b) The truck applies brakes and (q) Friction on the block is in forward direction
decreases its speed while moving in
forward direction
(c) The truck is moving at a constant (r) Friction on the block is in backward direction
velocity i.e. its speed and direction
of motion remain the same.
(d) The truck is at rest (s) Friction on the block is in vertically upward
direction
(A) (a – q), (b – p), (c – s), (d – r) (B) (a – q), (b – r), (c – p), (d – p)
(C) (a – p), (b – r), (c – s), (d – p) (D) (a – p), (b – s), (c – p), (d – r)
7. Statement-I: On the surface of the moon astronauts can talk to each other without any devices.
Statement-II: Sound needs a medium to travel which the surface of moon doesn’t have.
(A) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is a correct explanation of
statement-I.
(B) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of
statement-I.
(C) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
8. A large barrel is filled with water and three small holes are made on the side of the barrel at
different heights. Three statements are given below:
Statement-I: The pressure at the top of the barrel is maximum.
Statement-II: Water comes out with maximum speed through the bottommost hole.
Statement-III: The pressure at the bottom of the barrel is maximum.
(A) Only statement-III above is correct.
(B) Only statement-I above is correct.
(C) Only statements II and III above are correct.
(D) Only Statements I and II above are correct.
Page No. 3
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
9. The Petroleum Conservation Research Association advises people how to save fuel while driving.
Which is not the correct tip?
(A) Drive at constant and high speed as far as possible.
(B) Switch off the engine at traffic lights
(C) Ensure correct tyre pressure
(D) Ensure regular maintenance of the vehicle
10. Consider the following statements

(i) LPG is used as a cooking gas in cylinders in homes
(ii) CNG is the raw material for the manufacture of fertilizers.
(iii) Useful substances obtained from petroleum and natural gas are called petrochemicals
(iv) Coal tar is almost pure form of carbon
Which of the following alternative has the correct statements?
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (iv) only
11. Which chemical change corresponds to a reduction?

(A) calcium carbonate forms calcium oxide and carbon dioxide in the blast furnace extraction of
iron
(B) changing copper oxide into copper in a smelter
(C) carbon monoxide reacts with iron oxide to form carbon dioxide in the blast furnace
(D) calcium hydroxide reacts with acid waste gases from an industrial metal extraction process to
form harmless salt and water
12. The earth’s crust is the major source of metals. Sea water also contains some soluble salts such
as sodium chloride, magnesium chloride, etc. The elements or compounds, which occur naturally
in the earth’s crust, are known as minerals. At some places, minerals contain a very high
percentage of a particular metal and the metal can be profitably extracted from it. These minerals
are called ores. Based on the above information, which of the following statement(s) are correct?
1. All ores are minerals
2. Most metals are found in the ocean
3. Minerals are prepared in the laboratory
4. All minerals can be considered ores
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 & 2
(C) Only 2 & 3 (D) All of these
13. Match the entries in column-I to that in column-II and choose the appropriate option given below.
(a) Hydrogen gas (i) Black gold
(b) Kerosene (ii) Cleaner fuel
(c) Coke (iii) Urea
(d) Petroleum (iv) Jet Aircraft
(e) CNG (v) Pure form of carbon
Correct match is
(A) (a - i, v); (b – ii); (c – v); (d – iii); (e – iv) (B) (a – iii); (b – ii); (c – v); (d - i, v); (e – iv)
(C) (a – iii); (b – iv); (c – v); (d – i); (e – ii) (D) (a – ii); (b – iv); (c - v, i); (d – iii); (e – i)
Page No. 4
1. Sodium P. Can exist in many forms

Soft solid metal that can be cut with a
2. Mercury Q.
knife
3. Iodine S. Liquid at room temperature
4. Carbon R. Lustrous non-metal

Which of the following option represents the correct math
(A) 1 - S, 2 - R, 3 - Q, 4 - P (B) 1 - P, 2 - Q, 3 - R, 4 - S
(C) 1 - Q, 2 - R, 3 - S, 4 - P (D) 1 - R, 2 - Q, 3 - P, 4 - S
15. Statement-1: Coke is a tough, porous and black substance.

Statement-2: Coal tar is a black, watery liquid with a pleasant smell.
(A) Statement 1 is correct; Statement 2 is incorrect.
(B) Both Statements are correct.
(C) Only Statement 2 is correct.
(D) None of the statements are correct.
16. Statement-1: Zinc displaces Copper when a Zinc rod is dipped in a Copper Sulphate solution.
Statement-2: During the process mentioned in Statement-1, the color of the solution goes from
colorless to Blue.
(A) Only Statement-2 is correct (B) Only Statement-1 is correct
(C) Both Statements are incorrect (D) Both Statements are correct
BIOLOGY – (PART – C)
This part contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions number 17 to 32. Each question has 4
17. Find out incorrect match from the following.

Season Month Crops
(A) Kharif June to September Paddy, Maize
(B) Rabi October to March Wheat, gram, Pea
(C) Zaid March to June Cucumber, Pumpkin
(D) Kharif June to September Wheat, gram, Pea
18. Consequences of deforestation are

(i) Increases the temperature and pollution level on earth.
(ii) Ground water level gets lowered.
(iii) Rainfall and fertility of soil increases.
(iv) Increased chances of natural calamities.
Select correct statements.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) All are correct statements
Page No. 5
19. Prithin dug two pits, A and B, in his garden. In pit A, he put a polythene bag packed with some
vegetable waste, In pit B, he dumped the same kind of waste but without packing it in a polythene
bag. He then covered both the pits with soil. What did he observe after a month?
(A) Waste in pit B degraded faster than that in pit A.
(B) Waste in pit A degraded faster than in pit B.
(C) Waste in both pits degraded almost equally.
(D) Waste in both pits did not degrade at all.
20. Escherichia coli, a common bacterium has a single circular DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) as
genetic material. DNA consists of two long strands forming a double helix structures. The building
blocks of DNA are nucleotides, each composed of a sugar, a Phosphate group and a nitrogen
base. There are four nitrogen bases: Adenine (A) , Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G).
Adenine always pairs with Thymine with two hydrogen bonds forming A-T base pair and cytosine
pairs with guanine with three hydrogen bonds forming C-G base pair. The length between the two
base pairs = 0.34 nm, 1 nm = 10-9 m)
Based on the above passage answer the following question.
If length of a DNA molecule is 2 meters, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
(A) 3.3  109 base pairs (B) 5.8  109 base pairs
(C) 6.8  109 base pairs (D) 1.7  108 base pairs
21. Find out incorrect match.

Causative
Disease Mode of transmission
Organism
(A) Typhoid Bacteria Water
(B) Hepatitis A Virus Water
(C) Hepatitis B Virus Sexually transmitted
(D) Measles Virus Water
a. Glyphosate i. Selective herbicide
b. 2, 4-D ii. Non-selective herbicide
c. Captan iii. Insecticide
d. DDT iv. Fungicide
(A) (a – ii), (b – i), (c – iii), (d – iv) (B) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iii), (d – iv)
(C) (a – i), (b – ii), (c – iv), (d – iii) (D) (a – ii), (b – i), (c – iv), (d – iii)
23. Which of the following is the national park protected under Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.
(A) Satpura (B) Pachmarhi
(C) Bori (D) Mrugavani
24. Find incorrect statement from the followings.

(A) Malaria caused by unicellular protozoan parasite.
(B) Chicken pox and tuberculosis are communicable diseases.
(C) Yellow vein mosaic of bhindi caused by virus.
(D) Streptomycin and tetracycline are antibiotics, which can highly effective against cold and flu
as a first line of treatment.
Page No. 6
25. Pasteurization is heating of milk at

(A) 70°C for 60 minutes (B) 70°C for 15 to 30 seconds
(C) 50°C for 15 to 30 seconds (D) 50°C for 60 minutes
26. A Hibiscus plant suspension was prepared by crushing up plant material. The component parts
were then separated via centrifugation. At the end of this process, there was a layer of sediment
at the bottom of the test tube covered by an aqueous solution. Organelles found in the sediment
took up carbon dioxide and produced oxygen when illuminated. The organelles are likely to be:
(A) ribosomes (B) mitochondria
(C) nuclei (D) chloroplasts
27. Find out INCORRECT match for preservatives and food items to be preserved; Column A given
preservative name and column B given food items
Column A Column B
(A) sodium metabisulphite squashes
(B) sodium benzoate jams
(C) oil and vinegar fruits and fish
(D) sugar and salt meat
28. Find out correct match for modern irrigation method and land we use that method irrigation
Column A given irrigation method column B given typed of land
Column A Column B
(A) Sprinkler system Flat even lands
(B) Drip sytem Land with low water availability
(C) Chain pump Dry land
(D) Moat or pully system Mountain region
29. Consider following statements;

1. Kaziranga National Park is a prestigious national park of India situated in the northeastern
part of the country in the districts of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam
2. It is situated on the banks of the river Brahmaputra.
3. Kaziranga was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO for its unique natural
environment in the year of 1985
4. Assam has 91 % of the total Rhino in India which is mainly concentrated in Kaziranga
National Park
What of the above statements are correct about kaziranga national park
(A) Both 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Cellulose is a major carbohydrate component of plant cell walls. Most animals are unable to
digest cellulose while they can digest other carbohydrate polymers such as starch. What is the
correct explanation for this?
(A) There are many hydrogen bonds holding the subunits together.
(B) Cellulose is made up of chitin, which is indigestible.
(C) The bonds holding cellulose subunits together are stronger than those in any other
macromolecule.
(D) They don't have the correct enzyme to break the bonds between the cellulose subunits.
31. A veterinary doctor was called to a large cattle farm due to an unknown disease outbreak. He
was able to obtain bacteria in samples from the infected cattle. Which of the following would allow
him to most confidently say that this bacterium is causing the disease?
(A) The same bacteria are not found in healthy cattle
(B) Inoculation of healthy cattle with the bacteria caused those cattle to get the disease
(C) The same bacteria cause a similar disease in humans
(D) The same bacteria are found in healthy cattle.
Page No. 7
Read the following passage carefully and answer Q 32.
IgG ELISA test

The India Govt announced that an IgG ELISA test for detection of antibodies to Covid-19 had
been developed, and released a document outlining details of surveillance to be carried out in all
districts to check for the prevalence of infection using the same. It is an IgG Elisa-based test
which means that the test will be done to detect the Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody. Antibody is
a protein produced by the immune system in response to invading organisms such as bacteria
and viruses. Antibodies are able to specifically recognize foreign invaders in the body, coat them
by binding to them and then allow the immune cells of the body to clear them from the blood or
mucous membranes, or sites like the lung. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is a type of antibody.
Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type
of antibody found in blood circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.
32. What is wrong about IgG

(A) B-cells convert to plasma cell and plasma cell release IgG
(B) T-cells convert to plasma cell and plasma cell release IgG
(C) Plasma cells can be seen in connective tissues
(D) IgG is made up of proteins
Page No. 8
Page No. 9
Page No. 10
Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 11
2 2
33. Two stretched membranes of area 2 m and 3 m are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The
ratio of the pressures on them is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2: 3
2 2
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 3
34. In a game of tug of war, a condition of equilibrium exists. Both the teams pull the rope with a force
4
of 10 N. Tension in the rope is
4 8
(A) 10 N (B) 10 N
4
(C) 2  10 N (D) Zero
35. How many electrons are flowing in one second through cross section of wire having current
3.2A?
(A) 1.6 × 1019 (B) 1 × 1019
19
(C) 2 × 10 (D) 3.2 × 1019
36. Which instrument is used to measure wind speed?

(A) Anemometer (B) Barometer
(C) Odometer (D) None of these
37. What is value of current (I) is given circuit? 3

(A) 0.5A (B) 1A 1
(C) 1.5A (D) 2A
I 6
6V
38. A metal M reacts with oxygen to form an oxide with the molecular formula MO. What is the
valency of metal M and what is likely to be the nature of oxide formed?
(A) Valency 1, Basic oxide (B) Valency 2, Basic oxide
(C) Valency 1, Acidic oxide (D) Valency 3, Acidic oxide
39. Read the following statements and mark the correct ones from the given options.
(i) Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called fossil fuels
(ii) Coal and natural gas are exhaustible sources of energy
(iii) Sunlight is an inexhaustible source of energy
(iv) Coal and petroleum are present in limited quantities
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Page No. 12
40. Arrange the following components obtained from top to bottom during fractional distillation of
petroleum.
(A) Lubricating oil-Kerosene-Petrol-Diesel (B) Diesel -Lubricating oil-Kerosene-Petrol
(C) Kerosene-Petrol-Diesel-Lubricating oil (D) Petrol-Kerosene-Diesel-Lubricating oil
41. The fibre(s) manufactured from petrochemicals is/are:

(A) Nylon (B) Polyester
(C) Acrylic (D) All of these
42. ‘Global warming’ is majorly attributed to increase in concentration of:

(A) CO2 (B) CO
(C) CFCs (D) SO2
43. Seed drill is used for:

(A) Harvesting (B) Cleaning the seed
(C) Sowing (D) Both (A) and (B)
44. Which bacteria helps in settling of curd?

(A) Rhizobium (B) Lactobacillus
(C) Vibrio cholerae (D) None of these
45. Mushroom belongs to:

(A) Algae (B) Virus
(C) Fungi (D) None of these
46. Penicillin was discovered by:

(A) Edward Jenner (B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Alexander Fleming (D) Robert Koch
47. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different:

(A) Traditional methods of cultivation (B) Traditional methods of weeding
(C) Traditional methods of seed sowing (D) Traditional methods of irrigation
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
48. If a bullet of mass 5 gm moving with velocity 100 m/sec, penetrates the wooden block upto 6 cm.
Then the average force applied by the bullet on the block is (approximately)
(A) 830 N (B) 8300 N
(C) 417 N (D) Zero
49. A 60 kg man pushes a 40 kg man by a force of 60 N. The 40 kg man has pushed the other man
with a force of (assume both man are at rest).
(A) 40 N (B) 0 N
(C) 60 N (D) 20 N
Page No. 13
50. Determine the contact force between the blocks:

A B
F = 20 N C
5kg 4kg
1kg
(A) Contact force on A due to B is 2 N and B due to C is 4 N

(B) Contact force on A due to B is 1 N and on B due to C is 2N
(C) Contact force on C due to B is 4 N and B due to A is 1 N
(D) None of the above
51. Choose the correct statement:

(A) Friction is conservative force (B) Static friction is self adjusting force
(C) Rolling friction is maximum friction force (D) All statements are correct.
52. Maximum value of friction is known as:

(A) Limiting friction (B) Static friction
(C) Kinetic friction (D) Rolling friction
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
53. Match the column.

Column-I Column-II (Major components)
(Alloy)
(A) Brass (i) Pb + Sn + Sb
(B) Bronze (ii) Fe + Cr + Ni
(C) Type metal (iii) Cu + Sn
(D) Nichrome (iv) Cu + Zn
(A) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(i); D-(ii) (B) A-(iv); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iii)
(C) A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv) (D) A-(i); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(ii)
54. The noble gases are:

(A) Triatomic species (B) Diatomic species
(C) Tetra-atomic species (D) Monoatomic species
55. Which of the following methods can be used for the prevention of corrosion of iron?
(A) Applying paint on surface (B) Alloying
(C) Galvanization (D) All of these
56. Match the correct options:

Column – I (Element) Column – II (Use)
(a) Chlorine (p) In wrapping food articles
(b) Aluminium (q) As a bleaching agent
(c) Silicon (r) In thermometers
(d) Mercury (s) As a semi-conductor
(A) (a)  (p), (b)  (q), (c)  (r), (d)  (s)
(B) (a)  (p), (b)  (s), (c)  (q), (d)  (r)
(C) (a)  (q), (b)  (p), (c)  (s), (d)  (r)
(D) (a)  (r), (b)  (q), (c)  (p), (d)  (s)
Page No. 14
57. The poisonous nature of CO is due to the fact that it leads to:
(A) Increased oxygen carrying capacity of Red blood cells
(B) Increased nitrogen carrying capacity of White blood cells
(C) Decreased oxygen carrying capacity of Red blood cells
(D) Increased oxygen carrying capacity of White blood cells
BIOLOGY – (PART – F)
58. The rod-shaped bacteria are called:

(A) Bacillus (B) Coccus
(C) Vibrio (D) Spirillum
59. Which among the following is/are used for preserving fruit juices, jams and jellies?
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Sodium benzoate
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
60. The term PPLO stands for:

(A) Pleuroplasma like organisms (B) Pleuropneumonia like organisms
(C) Pleuroplasma laevorotatory organisms (D) Pleuropneumonia leucoplastic organisms
61. Baisakhi (Punjab), Bihu (Assam), Onam (Kerala), is associated with:

(A) Harvesting (B) Sowing of seeds
(C) Irrigation season (D) Weeding season
62. Fertility of soil can be increased by:

(A) Crop rotation (B) Adding manures
(C) Adding living earthworms (D) All of these
Page No. 15
Page No. 16
Section – III
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 17
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
5
63. Additive inverse of is
9
9 5
(A) (B) –
5 9
(C) 1 (D) 0
64. The square of an even number is also an ________

(A) even number (B) odd number
(C) prime number (D) none of these
65. What should be multiplied to (23)  (32)  (52) to make it the product of a perfect cube?
(A) 15 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 1
66. By selling a watch for Rs 495, a shopkeeper incurs a loss of 10%. Find the cost price of the
watch for the shopkeeper
(A) Rs 545 (B) Rs 550
(C) Rs 555 (D) none of these
67. Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 3 : 6, find the angles of the parallelogram
(A) 60°, 120°, 60°, 120° (B) 50°, 130°, 50°, 130°
(C) 70°, 110°, 70°, 110° (D) none of these
68. The sum of a rational number and its additive inverse is

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) none of these
1 5
69. Find the value of  7  2   7  2
(A) 340 (B) 256
(C) 343 (D) 216
70. One-fourth of one-third of two-fifth of a number is 15. What will be 40% of that number?
(A) 120 (B) 350
(C) 270 (D) 180
71. An odd number when multiplied by itself gives 2401. Find the number
(A) 41 (B) 39
(C) 49 (D) 51
72. If n is a perfect cube (n > 1), then every prime factor of ‘n’ occurs (at least)
(A) one time (B) two times
(C) three times (D) four times
73. Simplify: 0.7  0.8
15
(A) (B) 9
9
7 8
(C) (D)
9 9
Page No. 18
5
74. Evaluate:  4  2
(A) 64 (B) 32
(C) 128 (D) 12
75. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had:
(A) 588 apples (B) 600 apples
(C) 672 apples (D) 700 apples
76. [(22)3  36]  (73)2 write the exponential form

2 6 6 3 6 6
(A) 2  3  7 (B) 2  3  7
(C) 2  3  76
6 6
(D) none of these
2 2 2 3
77. The coefficient of (xy z) in the expression 15x y z is
2
(A) 15xyz (B) 15xz
2
(C)  xz (D)  15xz2
MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
78. If 3 : 5 : : 21 : x, then x = ?
(A) 30 (B) 35
(C) 40 (D) 28
79. Simplify: 10 + 20 + 30 + 40 + 50 + …. + 1000
(A) 100 (B) 99
(C) 101 (D) 20000
x 1 x 3
a b
80. If     , then value of x is
b a
1
(A) (B) 1
2
7
(C) 2 (D)
2
1 1
81. Dividing Rs 360 in the ratio : . What will be the difference between the parts
4 6
(A) Rs 72 (B) Rs 60
(C) Rs 54 (D) Rs 70
82. Vidya and Vinay went for a picnic. Their mother gave them a water bottle that contained 5 litres of
water. Vidya consumed 2/5 of the water. Vinay consumed the remaining water, then how much
litres of water did Vinay take?
(A) 2 litres (B) 5 litres
(C) 3 litres (D) 1 litre
83. In the given figure (not to scale), pentagon ABCDE, ADE = 18°. If D
E
BC = CD find EDC and CDB respectively, E = ADB = C = 90°
(A) 153°, 45° (B) 156°, 48°
(C) 43°, 156° (D) 45°, 150°
C
A B
Page No. 19
84. What is the value of b for which (4x2  20x + 20 + b) is whole square
(A) 0 (B) 1
85. The smallest number with which 120 should be multiplied, so that the product is a perfect square
is
(A) 120 (B) 60
(C) 30 (D) 15
36
86. The square root of , when corrected to two decimal places is
5
(A) 2.68 (B) 2.69
(C) 2.67 (D) 2.66
87. Which of the following number becomes a perfect cube when we divide the number by 5?
(A) 25 (B) 125
(C) 625 (D) 3125
88. The least number to be subtracted from 220 so that it becomes a perfect cube is
(A) 4 (B) 10
(C) 16 (D) 20
1 3 7
89. Descending order of the fractions , and is
5 7 10
7 3 1 3 1 7
(A) , , (B) , ,
10 7 5 7 5 10
7 1 3 3 7 1
(C) , , (D) , ,
10 5 7 7 10 5
90. The common factor of (x  1)(x2 + x + 1) and (x 4 + x2 + 1) is

(A) x – 1 (B) x + 2
(C) x2 + x + 1 (D) none of these
91. The ratio of the two sides of a parallelogram is 4 : 7 and its perimeter is 88 cm. Find the longest
side of the parallelogram
(A) 28 cm (B) 22 cm
(C) 16 cm (D) 24 cm
92. Diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 18 cm. Its area is equal to

2 2
(A) 90 cm (B) 180 cm
2 2
(C) 25 cm (D) 18 cm
Page No. 20
Page No. 21
Page No. 22
24th December 2023
Paper 2
NEET Science, Science (Basic School, NTSE & NEET) & NTSE Mathematics
ANSWER KEYS
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. D 6. B 7. D 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. B 12. A
13. C 14. C 15. A 16. B
17. D 18. C 19. A 20. B
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D
25. B 26. D 27. D 28. B
29. D 30. D 31. B 32. B
33. A 34. A 35. C 36. A
37. D 38. B 39. D 40. D
41. D 42. A 43. C 44. B
45. C 46. C 47. D 48. C
49. C 50. D 51. B 52. A
53. A 54. D 55. D 56. C
57. C 58. A 59. C 60. B
61. A 62. D 63. B 64. A
65. A 66. B 67. A 68. A
69. C 70. D 71. C 72. C
73. A 74. B 75. D 76. C
77. D 78. B 79. A 80. C
81. A 82. C 83. A 84. C
85. C 86. A 87. C 88. A
89. A 90. C 91. A 92. A
24th December 2023
Paper 3
NSEJS, JEE (Main) & JEE (Advanced)


PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 4 +3 –1
SECTION – I (NSEJS)
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 5 to 8 +3 –1
Time Allotted: 30 Minutes
BIOLOGY (PART-C) 9 to 12 +3 –1
SECTION – II (JEE Main)
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 21 to 24 +4 –1
SECTION – III (JEE Advanced)
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 33 to 36 +3 –1
Section – I
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 1
This part contains TWO (02) comprehensions. Based on each comprehension, there are TWO (02)
questions of Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
A container is filled with water as shown in figure.
A
B C
D
1. At which point pressure is maximum?

(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D
2. If point B is at depth 10cm. from top surface then pressure at point B.(Assume density of water
= 1000 kg/m3)
(A) = 980 pa (B) < 980 Pa
(C) > 980 Pa (D) May be (B) or (C)
A ball of mass 200 g is thrown with a speed 20 m/sec. The ball strikes a bat and rebounds along the
same line at a speed 40 m/sec. Variation of the interaction force, as long as the ball remains in contact
with the bat, is as shown in figure.
F0
T
4 ms 6 ms
3. Maximum force F0 exerted by the bat on the ball is:

(A) 4000 N (B) 5000 N
(C) 3000 N (D) 2500 N
4. Average force exerted by the bat on the ball is

(A) 5000 N (B) 2000 N
(C) 2500 N (D) 6000 N
Page No. 2
Petroleum is a mixture of various solid, liquid and gaseous constituents. The process of separating
various fractions of petroleum is known as refining which is carried out in an oil refinery. The crude
petroleum oil extracted from oil wells is taken to the oil refinery through pipes. The separation is then
carried out by the process of fractional distillation. The various useful fractions obtained are Petroleum
gas, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil, Paraffin wax and Bitumen.
5. Among the following, which property majorly serves as the basis of carrying out fractional
distillation of petroleum?
(A) Refractive index (B) Melting point
(C) Boiling point (D) Surface tension
6. Which of these components obtained during refining of petroleum is used for road surfacing?
(A) Paraffin wax (B) Bitumen
(C) Lubricating oil (D) Coke
Corrosion is defined as a process that leads to transformation of metals into undesirable substances by
the action of moisture and other gases present in the atmosphere. The rate of corrosion is different for
different metals. Some metals have high resistance to corrosion, while metals such as iron corrode easily
and the process is known as rusting. Tarnishing of silver and formation of green coating on copper are
other examples of corrosion.
7. What is the chemical name of rust?

(A) Hydrated ferric oxide (B) Ferrous oxide
(C) Magnetite (D) Hydrated ferrous sulphide
8. What conditions are required for rusting to take place?

(A) Water only (B) Oxygen only
(C) Water and oxygen (D) Water and carbon dioxide

Conservation simply means saving resources for future use. The main aim of the conservation of plants and
animals is to protect and save endangered species along with their habitat so that the balance can be
maintained on the earth. This helps in maintaining a healthy and functional environment for the survival of
all the species on earth. But due to economic opportunity, humans are forced to exploit nature including
plants and animals and their habitats. Because of this, the extinction of the species of plants and animals
is at high risk. In order to protect them, several measures are taken by the government. Biodiversity can
be protected by the establishment of habitats, and sanctuaries for plants and animals.
Page No. 3
9. Many threatened or endangered species can be saved by a large:

(A) Food chain (B) Reforestation projects
(C) Desertification (D) None of these
10. An endangered species is one that is:

(A) Already extinct (B) High in number
(C) In danger of extinction (D) Out of danger
Biosphere reserves are the protected areas meant for the conservation of plants and animals. It also
restores the traditional life of the tribals living in that vicinity. They conserve the biodiversity of that area.
The Biosphere Reserves are identified by the Man and Biosphere Reserve Program to promote
sustainable development. This program was initiated by UNESCO in 1971. There are three biosphere
reserve zones: Core zone, Buffer zone and Manipulation zone.
11. What is the importance of Biosphere reserves?

(A) Biosphere reserves conserve the species, ecosystems, genetic diversities, and landscapes
without affecting the inhabitants.
(B) It ensures sustainable developments including economic, cultural, social and economic
developments.
(C) These areas provide a lot of information on how to restore, conserve, and develop the
ecosystem.
(D) All of these
12. In a biosphere reserve limited human activity is permitted in:

(A) Core zone (B) Buffer zone
(C) Depletion zone (D) All of these
Page No. 4
Page No. 5
Page No. 6
Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 7
Analyse the given circuit and answer the following questions

3
5 6
A
I 2
12V
13. What is equivalent resistance of circuit?
(A) 12 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6
14. What is value of current (I)?

(A) 2A (B) 1A
(C) 0.5A (D) 3A
A block of mass 10 kg kept on a horizontal floor is being acted upon by a force of 30 N. It is found that the
block moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s² starting from rest.
15. Which type of friction acts on the block?

(A) Static (B) Kinetic
(C) Rolling (D) No friction acts on the block
16. Value of friction force on the block is

(A) Zero (B) 1 N
(C) 10 N (D) 100 N
A single displacement reaction is a chemical reaction in which one element is displaced by another from
its compounds. In particular, a more reactive metal will displace a less reactive metal from their
compounds in aqueous solution or molten form. These reactions can be explained on the basis of
reactivity series. Also, the metals which are placed above hydrogen in reactivity series can displace
hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid solution or dilute sulphuric acid solution.
Page No. 8
17. Which of the following reactions is not possible?

(A) Fe(s)  CuSO 4 (aq)  FeSO 4 (aq)  Cu(s)
(B) Fe(s)  2AgNO3 (aq)  Fe(NO3 )2 (aq)  2Ag(s)
(C) Cu(s)  FeSO 4 (aq) 
 CuSO4 (aq)  Fe(s)
(D) Mg(s)  ZnSO4 (aq) 
 MgSO 4 (aq)  Zn(s)
18. Which of the following metals cannot displace hydrogen gas from dilute HCl solution?
(A) Mg (B) Ca
(C) Au (D) Zn
Coal is a hard, black combustible material that consists mainly of carbon. When coal is heated strongly in
closed retorts in the absence of air, a number of useful products are obtained. One of the products
obtained is coke which is an almost pure form of carbon. Coke is used as a fuel and is also used in the
extraction of certain metals from their oxides.
19. Which property of coke is shown in the following reaction?

ZnO  C   Zn  CO
(A) A reducing agent (B) An oxidising agent
(C) A bleaching agent (D) Both as a reducing and oxidising agent
20. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of steel?

(A) Coke (B) Coal gas
(C) Coal tar (D) All of these
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
A rational number is a number that can be represented as ratio of two integers in the simplest form and
the denominator must not be zero.
 17   24 
21. Which of the following is the product of   and    ?
 8   51 
(A) 3 (B) – 3
1
(C) – (D) – 1
3
22. If a and b are two positive rational numbers such that a < b, then which of the following is true?
ab ab
(A) a <   (B) a >  
 2   2 
ab
(C) b <   (D) can not be determined
 2 
Page No. 9
A natural number ‘n’ when multiplied with itself gives the square of ‘n’ i.e, square of n = n  n = n2. Also, if
a natural number ‘m’ can be expressed as n2, where ‘n’ is also a natural number, then ‘m’ is a square
number.
23. Which of the following can not be the last digit of a square?
(A) 8 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 9
24. Which of the following is a square number?

(A) 4487 (B) 5182
(C) 1849 (D) 1367
Page No. 10
Page No. 11
Page No. 12
Section – III
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 13
In a wire, there is 1.6 A current flowing.

25. How much charge is flowing through cross section of wire in one second?
(A) 3.2 C (B) 1.6 C
(C) 0.8 C (D) 0.6 C
26. How many electrons are flowing through cross section of wire in each second?
19 19
(A) 10 (B) 2 ×10
20 20
(C) 10 (D) 2 × 10
A car is going with uniform speed with 72 km/h. Driver applies the break and car stops in 5 seconds.
Mass of car is 1000 kg. Assume car deaccelerates at a constant rate.
27. How much force is applied by engine of car?

(A) 10000 N (B) – 4000N
(C) – 8000N (D) 4000 N
28. What is change in momentum of car?

(A) –20000 kg m/s (B) – 10000 kg m/s
(C) 20000 kg m/s (D) 10000 kg m/s
Oxides are chemical compounds with one or more oxygen atoms combined with another element. Oxides
are binary compounds of oxygen with another element, for example, CO2, SO2, CO, ZnO, H2O etc. Based
on their chemical characteristics, oxides are classified as acidic, basic, amphoteric or neutral. An
amphoteric oxide is one that can act both as an acid and as a base. Generally, non-metallic oxides are
acidic and metallic oxides are basic in nature. However, some non-metallic oxides are neutral while some
metallic oxides are amphoteric.
29. The aqueous solution of oxide of which of the following elements will turn red litmus blue?
(A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur
(C) Carbon (D) Calcium
30. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature?

(A) N2O5,BaO (B) CaO, SiO2
(C) Cl2O7,SO3 (D) MgO,Li2O
Page No. 14
Fossil fuels release an enormous amount of energy on burning or combustion. In this process, the
products obtained are carbon dioxide and water vapour with the release of energy. Hydrocarbons on
combustion in presence of sufficient supply of oxygen form carbon dioxide and water. The combustion
reaction of a hydrocarbon CxHy will be as follows:
 y y
C xHy   x   O2  xCO 2  H2 O  Heat
 4 2
31. In the complete combustion of a molecule of an alkyne  CnH2n 2  , the number of oxygen
molecules required would be:
 3n  1   3n  1 
(A)   O2 (B)   O2
 2   2 
 n  1 n2
(C)   O2 (D)   O2
 2   2 
32. On burning of butane in sufficient supply of oxygen, which of the following gas is produced?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Chlorine (D) Hydrogen
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
A quadrilateral is a closed polygon with four sides, four vertices and four angles.
A parallelogram is a special quadrilateral with opposite sides equal and parallel.
33. In a parallelogram ABCD, AB = x – 3, BC = 6 – y, CD = 2x – 9 and DA = y + 4, then perimeter of
ABCD = ?
(A) 20 units (B) 8 units
(C) 12 units (D) 16 units
34. ABCD is a square with side length 4 units. Its mid-points are joined to form a new quadrilateral.
The area of the quadrilateral is?
(A) 22 unit2 (B) 8 unit2
2 2
(C) 32 unit (D) 10 unit
An expression is formed from variables and constants, and algebraic equations which are valid for all
values of variables is called algebraic identities
35. Which of the following is obtained on simplifying x4 + 4y4?

(A) (x2 + xy + y2)(x2 – xy + y2) (B) [(x + y)2 + y2][(x – y)2 + y2]
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) (x – 2xy + y )(x + 2xy + y ) (D) [(x + y) + 2y ][(x + y) – 2y ]
36. If x + y = 17, and xy = 72, find x 2 + y2

(A) 120 (B) 145
(C) 130 (D) 160
Page No. 15
Page No. 16
24th December 2023
Paper 3
NSEJS, JEE (Main) & JEE (Advanced)
ANSWER KEYS
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C
9. B 10. C 11. D 12. B
13. D 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A
21. D 22. A 23. A 24. C
25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A
29. D 30. C 31. B 32. B
33. D 34. B 35. B 36. B
24th December 2023
Paper 4
Physics & Astronomy, Chemistry & Mathematics Olympiad


SECTION – I (Physics & PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 8 +3 –1

Astronomy Olympiad)
Time Allotted: 40 Minutes MATHEMATICS (PART-B) 9 to 12 +3 –1
SECTION – II
(Chemistry Olympiad) CHEMISTRY (PART-A) 13 to 24 +3 –1
SECTION – III
(Mathematics Olympiad) MATHEMATICS (PART-A) 25 to 34 +3 –1
Section – I
Time: 40 Minutes
Page No. 1
1. According to the second law of motion, for a constant force the acceleration produced in different
bodies is
(A) Equal to the mass of bodies
(B) Directly proportional to the mass of the bodies
(C) Inversely proportional to the mass of the bodies
(D) Independent of the mass of the bodies
2. While a bicycle wheel is rolling on a straight horizontal road, the force of friction acting on its rear
wheel is :
(A) In forward direction (B) In backward direction
(C) In upward direction (D) In downward direction
3. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Force equals rate of change of velocity
(B) Force equals rate of change of momentum
(C) Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
(D) Velocity is the rate of change of displacement
4. The unit of force called the newton is:

(A) 9.8 kg·m/s2 (B) 1 kg·m/s2
(C) Defined by means of Newton’s third law (D) 1 kg of mass
5. What is the SI unit of emf of a battery? (All letters have their usual meaning)
(A) J/s (B) J/C
(C) W (D) W/s
6. Uniform circular motion is the direct consequence of:

(A) Newton’s third law
(B) A force that is always tangent to the path
(C) An acceleration tangent to the path
(D) A force of constant magnitude that is always directed toward the same fixed point
7. The SI unit of charge is

(A) Ampere (B) Siemen
(C) Coulomb (D) Volt
8. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(A) Charge on a proton is more than on an electron
(B) Charge on an electron is more than on a proton
(C) Charge on a proton is equal to that on an electron
(D) Charge on a proton equals 1.6 × 10² C
Page No. 2
MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
9. What is the sum of all exterior angles of a heptagon?

(A) 360° (B) 900°
(C) 1080° (D) 720°
1 1 1
10. If a 3  b 3  c 3  0 , then (a + b + c)2
2 2 2
(A) 9a2b2c2 (B) 9a 3 b 3 c 3
1 1 1
(C) 9a 3 b 3 c 3 (D) 9abc
11. Which of the following is the greatest?

(A) 30% of 750 (B) 35% of 700
(C) 40% of 800 (D) 45% of 850
12. What is the percentage loss on a product when it is sold for Rs 120 at a loss of Rs 20?
1 2
(A) 14 % (B) 14 %
7 7
(C) 20% (D) 33.3%
Page No. 3
Page No. 4
Section – II
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 5
CHEMISTRY – (PART – A)
13. The most abundant non-metal in the earth’s crust is:

(A) Silicon (B) Oxygen
(C) Hydrogen (D) Sulphur
14. Which of the following elements has density less than water?
(A) Calcium (B) Magnesium
(C) Sodium (D) Aluminium
15. Which of the following is an ore of aluminium?

(A) Bauxite (B) Haematite
(C) Cinnabar (D) Rock salt
16. The major constituent of CNG is:

(A) Butane (B) Propane
(C) Ethane (D) Methane
17. A neutral oxide among the following is:

(A) SO2 (B) SO3
(C) CO (D) NO2
18. If the number of carbon atoms in an alkane molecule is 8, the number of hydrogen atoms in the
molecule would be:
(A) 8 (B) 16
(C) 10 (D) 18
19. Hydrogen gas is not obtained when zinc reacts with:

(A) Steam (B) Concentrated H2SO4 solution
(C) Hot NaOH solution (D) Dilute HCl solution
20. Out of the following, which constituent is used as a fuel in electric generators?
(A) LPG (B) Lubricating oil
(C) Diesel (D) Bitumen
21. At room temperature, Bromine is:

(A) Yellowish-green liquid (B) Yellowish-green gas
(C) Reddish-brown liquid (D) Violet liquid
22. What is the chemical formula of the gaseous component present in major quantity in LPG?
(A) C4H6 (B) C4H10
(C) C3H6 (D) C6H6
23. Which of these is not an alkaline earth metal?

(A) Magnesium (B) Cesium
(C) Calcium (D) Barium
24. The SI unit of calorific value of a fuel is:

(A) J (B) Kg
(C) kJ/kg (D) g/J
Page No. 6
Page No. 7
Page No. 8
Section – III
Time: 30 Minutes
Page No. 9
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
25. Square of which of the following number will be a prime number

(A) 4 (B) 9
1 1
26. If x + = 6, evaluate x 4 + 4
x x
(A) 1370 (B) 1446
(C) 1296 (D) 1154
3 3
27. If 35 can be written as x + y , where x and y are natural numbers, both less than 30, then the
sum of digits of x and y is?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 6
28. Divide 14(x3y2z2 + x2y3z2 + x2y2z3) by 7x2y2z2(x + y + z)

(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 6
29. For a > 1, if a2n = a2, then n = ?

(A) 2 (B) 4
1
(C) 1 (D)
2
30. The area of the rectangle is x 2 – 25. If length is (x – 5), then breadth is
(A) x + 5 (B) x + 13
(C) x – 13 (D) none of these
x 3 5
4 5  4
31. If         , then x = ?
5 4 5
(A) 2 (B) 0
(C) 6 (D) 8
32. In a quadrilateral ABCD, AD = 15 cm, AB = 20 cm, BC = CD = 25cm and A = 90°. If the area of
a
quadrilateral is
b
 2

c  d e cm (a, b, c, d, e are not necessarily distinct), then the value of
a – b + c – d + e is
(A) 12 (B) 17
(C) 19 (D) 23
Page No. 10
1 1
4
2
1
33. The value of 7 4 is
1 1 1
3 1 2
2 7 1
2
1
5
5
5
(A) 7 (B)
6
(C) 1 (D) 3
4 4
 1  1
3    4  m
4  3
34. If the square root of  2 2
is then the value of m – 5n is
 1  1 n
3    4 
 4  3
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
Page No. 11
Page No. 12
24th December 2023
Paper 4
Physics & Astronomy, Chemistry & Mathematics Olympiad
ANSWER KEYS
1 C 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C
9. A 10. B 11. D 12. B
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. D
17. C 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. B 23 B 24. C
25. D 26. D 27. A 28. C
29. A 30. A 31. D 32. D
33. C 34. D

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24th December 2023

for Students presently in Class VIII

Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :

1. This Question paper consists of 3 sections.

6. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question

SECTION – II (JEE Main) 16 to 24 +3 –1

SECTION – III (JEE Advanced) 31 to 39 +3 –1

2. 13, 13, 26, 78, 312, ?

Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 10 to 12

10. Who sits between A and D?

11. Who sits second to the left of B?

12. Who sits to the immediate right of F?

13. Which of the following can be the score of C?

(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)

24. Find the total number of triangles in the given figure.

Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 25 to 27

Each of the following questions is based on the following information:

25. According to X @ B * P, P is in which direction with respect to X?

26. According to M # N $ T, T is in which direction with respect to M?

27. According to P # R $ A * U, in which direction is U with respect to P?

Comprehension–2 for Q. No. 28 to 30

Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions:

Comprehension–1 for Q. No. 40 to 42

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

40. Who are the actors?

41. How many persons are there between B and G?

42. Who is sitting between F and D?

Comprehension–2 for Q. No. 43 to 45

Please read the instructions and guidelines carefully :

1. This Question paper consists of 3 sections.

6. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question

SECTION – I PHYSICS (Part-A) 1 to 8 +4 -1

SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (Part-B) 38 to 42 +1 0

Science (Basic School BIOLOGY (Part-C) 43 to 47 +1 0

1. Which one of the following is an example of non-contact force?

Comprehension for Q. No. 4

Based on the above passage answer the following question

4. A force of 10 N has to be applied on an object to move it horizontally. If a force of 5 N is applied

(b) Front rows of Rock Concert (q) 40 dB

(c) Quiet television at home (r) 70 dB

(d) Rustle of leaves (s) 100 dB

10. Consider the following statements

11. Which chemical change corresponds to a reduction?

1. Sodium P. Can exist in many forms

4. Carbon R. Lustrous non-metal

15. Statement-1: Coke is a tough, porous and black substance.

17. Find out incorrect match from the following.

(B) Rabi October to March Wheat, gram, Pea

(C) Zaid March to June Cucumber, Pumpkin

(D) Kharif June to September Wheat, gram, Pea

18. Consequences of deforestation are

21. Find out incorrect match.

24. Find incorrect statement from the followings.

25. Pasteurization is heating of milk at

29. Consider following statements;

Read the following passage carefully and answer Q 32.

IgG ELISA test

32. What is wrong about IgG

36. Which instrument is used to measure wind speed?

37. What is value of current (I) is given circuit? 3

41. The fibre(s) manufactured from petrochemicals is/are:

42. ‘Global warming’ is majorly attributed to increase in concentration of: