SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
BOTANY

1. Select erroneous pair ? 07. Integumented megasporangium is first

(1) Tendrillar stipule – Smilax developed in
(2) Phylloclade – Opuntia *(1) Gymnosperms (Pinus)
(3) Tendrillar leaf lets – Pisum sativum (2) Angiosperms (Polygonum)
* (4) Simple receme – Triticum (3) Pteridophytes (Selaginella)
2. In a primary transcript (4) Algae (Chlorella)
(1) Only exons are non-functional 08. Number of prothalial cells in the mature male
(2) Only introns are non-functional gametophyte of Angiosperms is
(3) Both exons and introns are functional (1) One (2) Two
*(4) Both exons and introns are non-functional (3) Three *(4) Zero
3. Most of the duplication of cell organelles 09. In a primary transcript
occurs in following phase of cell cycle (1) Only exons are non-functional
*(1) G1 -Phase (2) G 2 -Phase (2) Only introns are non-functional

(3) S-Phase (4) M-Phase (3) Both exons and introns are functional

4. How many CO2 molecules are released *(4) Both exons and introns are non-functional
10. Sickle cell anemia is not due to
during complete oxidation of glucose by the
(1) Frame shift mutation
stepwise removal of all hydrogen atoms in
*(2) Transition
Krebs cycle of mitochondria ?
(3) Transversion
(1) 3 *(2) 4
(4) Substitution of acidic amino acid by
(3) 5 (4) 6
neutral amino acid
5. The first plants on land were
11. Which of the following is present at 5¢end of
*(1) Bryophytes
eukaryotic mRNA ?
(2) Monocotyledons
1) 5-methyl guanine
(3) Gymnosperms
2) Shine dalgarno sequence
(4) Dicotyledons
3) Poly A-tail
06. Cell organelle not involved in photorespiration
*4) 7-methyl guanosine
is
12. In maize, the presence of high aspartic acid,
(1) Mitochondria (2) Peroxysome
low nitrogen and sugar content protect them
(3) Chloroplast *(4) Glyoxysome
from
1) Jassids 2) Cereal leaf beetle
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 *3) Stem borer 4) Saw fly 17. Chromoplasts have fat soluble photo-pigments
Sol : In maize, the presence of high aspartic acid, called
low nitrogen and sugar content protect them 1) Anthocyanin *2) Carotenoides
from stem borer 3) Chlorophyll a 4) Chlorophyll b
13. Pathophysiology is the Sol : Anthocyanin is water soluble pigment.
1) Study of physiology of pathogen 18. Which of the following is correct related to
2) Study of normal physiology of host chromosomal theory of linkage of Morgan?
*3) Study of altered physiology of host 1) Genes lie in a linear order on chromosomes
4) None of the above 2) Strength of linkage between two successive
Sol : Pathophysiology is study of altered physiology genes is inversely proportional to distance
of host. between two genes
14. Dormancy is seeds may be due to presence of 3) Linked genes occur on same chromosome
certain chemicals like *4) All the above are correct
*1) Phenolic acid 2) Gibberellic acid Sol : All statements are correct.
3) Nitrate 19. Back bone of DNA strand is made up of
4) More than one options correct 1) Ribose and phosphate
Sol : Gibberellic acid, nitrate break dormancy 2) Ribose, phosphate and N-base
15. Pyruvate to lactic acid conversion by action of 3) Deoxyribose, phosphate and N-base
lactic acid bacteria requires an enzyme which *4) Deoxyribose and phosphate
is Sol : Back bone of DNA is made of sugar and
1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphate
2) Pyruvate decarboxylase 20. Pieces of plant used in tissue culture is called
*3) Lactate dehydrogenase 1) Somoclonical variant 2) Somaclone
4) Alcohol dehydrogenase *3) Explant 4) Callus
Sol : Pyruvate to lactic acid conversion by action of Sol : Explant is piece of plant used in tissue culture
lactic acid bacteria requires an enzyme which 21. Deficiency symptoms of essential elements do
is lactate dehydrogenase not appear in plants at their
16. Which theory is considered best to explain (1) Critical concentration
ascent of sap ? (2) Optimum concentration
1) Root pressure theory (3) Maximum concentration
2) Mass flow hypothesis *(4) All
*3) Transpiration pull theory Sol : Deficiency symptoms appear at below their
4) Vital force theory critical concentration
Sol : Transpiration pull theory explain ascent of sap 22. The intermediary compounds formed during
biological N2 fixation are
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 (1) 2NH3 (2) HN = NH *(3) ii only (4) i, iv
(3) H2N – NH2 *(4) 2 and 3 Sol : Nucleotides
Sol : Diimide and Hydrazene 28. Aerobic chemo auto trophs of the following are
23. Osmosis in plants is a/an (1) Diazotrophs
(1) Physical process (2) Denitrifying bacteria
*(2) Physiological process involving diffusion (3) Ammonifying bacteria
(3) Metabolic process *(4) Nitrifying bacteria
(4) Active process Sol : No trosomonas, Nitrobacter
Sol : Physiological process, involving diffusion. 29. During nodulation the curling of root hair is
24. The main source of oxygen to plants is immediately followed by
(1) Water from soil (1) Multiplication of Rhizobia
(2) NO3 from soil (2) Attachment of Rhizobia to root surface
*(3) Atmospheric CO2 *(3) Invasion of bacteria into root hair
(4) Atmospheric moistures (4) Division of cortical cells
Sol : CO2 from atmosphere. 30. Osmosis is the movement of ____ through
25. Pickout the correct statement membrane
(1) Active transport is not respiration (1) Hypotonic solution
dependent. (2) Hypertonic solution
(2) Plants transpire more water than that they *(3) Water
absorb. (4) Isotonic solution
(3) The water content of herbaceous plants is Sol : Water
10 – 15% of their total weight 31. Which of the following processes or
*(4) – ve pressure potential in the xylem is techniques are included under biotechnology
called tension. (1) invitro fertilization leading to a test tube
Sol : Tension baby
26. Short distance transport is aided by (2) synthesising a gene and using it
(1) Concentration gradient of substances (3) developing DNA vaccine
(2) Cytoplasmic streaming (4) all the above
(3) ATP energised carriers Ans: 4
*(4) All 32. What is the demerit of traditional hybridization
Sol : All procedure
27. Phosphorus is the constituent of all (1) Creation of genetic variability
i) Nucleosides ii) Nucleotides (2) inclusion and multiplication of undersirable
iii) Proteins iv) Lipids genes along with desirable genes
(1) i, ii (2) iii, iv (3) Preservation of genetic information
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 (4) Induction of heterosis 37. In Golden Rice, which of the following gene
Ans: 2 was introduced from Erwinia uredovora
33. An incorrect statement is (1) Psy (2) Icy
(1)The vector and source DNA have to be cut (3) Crt l (4) Both 1 and 2
with same restriction enzyme Ans: 3
(2) Restriction enzymes belong to a large class 38. Which of the following method can’t be apply
of enzyme called nucleases to desired DNA from bacterial cells
(3) DNA fragments are positively charged (1) direct method by using probes
(4) DNA fragments can be separated by (2) artificial gene synthesis by template
‘gelelectrophoresis’ dependent mannes
Ans: 3 (3) template independent artificial gene
34. What key features are to be present in a piece synthesis
of DNA, if it is to function as a cloning vector (4) c-DNA method
(1) suitable cloning site Ans: 4
(2) selectable marker 39. In which organisms photosynthetic pigments
(3) functional origin of replication are identical to those present in higher plants ?
(4) all the above (1) Diatoms and dinoflagellates
Ans: 3 (2) Euglenoids and green algae
35. Introduction of a piece of DNA into a host (3) Euglenoids and dinoflagellates
bacterium is called (4) Photosynthetic bacteria and
(1) Transduction euglenoids
(2) Transformation Ans: 2
(3) Translocation 40. Ribosomes, Centrioles, Cilia, Micro tubules,
(4) Transplantation Peroxisomes, Microfilaments, Flagella,
Ans: 2 Lysosome, inclusion bodies, Glyoxysome,
36. Which of the following is the operational Intermediate filaments, ER, Golgi body .
technique in biotechnological process where Out of the given structures, how many are not
one or more nutrients are supplied in surrounded by membrane
incremental manner (1)4 (2) 5
(1) Batch culture (3) 6 (4) 7
(2) continuous culture Ans: 3
(3) Fed batch culture 41. Which of the following is final e  acceptor in
(4) Both 2 and 3 photosynthesis
Ans: 3
(1) FNR (2) NADP 

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 (3) PS – I (4) CO2 45. Transport of water across membrane is due to

Ans: 4 (1) simple diffusion

42. Which of the following is function of Auxin (2) facilitated diffusion

(I) Apical dominance (3) active transport

(II) Flowering in pineapple (4) both 1 & 2

(III) Malting speed up Ans: 4

(IV) Bolting 46. Which of the following is not a

(V) Xylem differentiation chromosomal aberration

(VI) Breaking bud dormancy (1) Deletion

(VII) Root hair formation (2) Duplication

(1)I, II, V (3) Inversion

(2) III, IV, VI, VII (4) Tranversion

(3) I, II, V, VI Ans: 4

(4) I and II 47 . A typical nucleosome contains how many

Ans: 1 histone proteins

43. Statement A: All annuals are (1) 2 (2) 4

monocarpic (3) 8 (4) 9

Statement B: All polycarpic plants are Ans: 4

Perennials. 48 In given diagram ABC is the restriction sites

(1) Both statement A and statement B are and cut by restriction endonuclease

incorrect
(2) Both statement A and statement B are
correct
(3) Statement A is incorrect but If both samples load in well and allow gel
statement B is correct electrophoresis, then which would be correct
(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is banding pattern.
incorrect
Ans: 2
44. In F2 generation of Mendelian dihybrid cross
(1) (2)
what is probability of parental genotype
1 2
(1) (2)
16 16
4 8
(3) (4)
16 16
(3) (4)
Ans: 2
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Ans: 1 52. Green independent unbranched sporophyte is
Sol: In gel electrophoresis – DNA bands. seen in
Corresponds to type of DNA fragments (in (1) Spirogyra (2) Laminaria
terms of length) not to number of DNA (3) Funaria (4) Pteridium
fragments. These two samples produces 3 Ans: 4
types of DNA fragments so three types of 53. Pteridophytes are grown as
bands appear on gel after staining & UV ornamentals due to their
exposure. (1) Leaves (2) Flowers
49. Statement I: All structural genes of an operon, (3) Bracts (4) Seed coats
generally work, coordinately for common Ans: 1
metabolic path. 54. Deficiency of which micro–nutrient causes
Statement II: Operon model of gene regulation necrosis in plants
is applicable only on prokaryotes. *(1) Copper
(1)Both statement I and II are correct (2) Calcium
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect (3) Potassium
(3) Statement I is correct and statement is (4) All of these
incorrect Sol : Necrosis is caused by deficieny of Cu
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement is (Micronutrient) Ca & K (Macronutrients).
correct 55. Statement – I : Mendel failed to get linkage
Ans: 1 phenomenon because genes of seven types of
50. Change in shape of enzyme is induced by characters of garden pea plants selected by
(1) substrate concentration him were located on four different
(2) substrate binding in active site chromosomes and behaved independently
(3) closest proximity of enzyme & substrate Statement – II : “Gametes are never hybrid”. It
(4) ideal alignment of substrate is a state of law of purity of gametes
Ans: 2 *(1) Both SI and SII are correct
51. Which of the following is not always true for (2) Both SI and SII are wrong
gene (3) Only SI is correct
(1) Occur in pairs (4) Only SII is correct
(2) Segregate at the time of gamete formation Sol : During gamete formation the alleles of a gene
(3) One pair segregates independently of of a particular character seperate & enters the
another pair different gametes
(4) More than one correct 56. The literal meaning of chromosomes as they
Ans: 3 were visualised by staining is
(1) Irregualar net work of fine threads
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 (2) Hair like bodies Sol : Golden rice variety is a transgenic Taipei
(3) ‘Beads – on – string’ structures variety of rice in vitamin A and iron
*(4) Coloured bodies 61. In the paper chromatography technique
Sol : Chroma = colour, soma = body seperated chlorophyll ‘a’ pigment is
57. Oxygenic photosynthetic prokaryote used as represented by ____ coloured band
single cell protein is (1) Yellow green
*(1) Spirulina *(2) Blue green
(2) Methylophilus (3) Bright yellow
(3) Chlorella (4) Yellow orange
(4) Both 1 and 2 Sol : Chlorophyll ‘a’ = Blue green colour,
Sol : Methylophilus is a non-photosynthetic Chlorophyll ‘b’ = Yellow green colour,
prokaryote and Chlorella is photosynthetic Xanthophyll = Yellow colour , Carotene =
eukaryote used as SCP Organe colour
58. Which of the following vegetative 62. How many statements are true wrt bacteria?
character is exhibited by guava plants ? A) Very simple in structure
*(1) Opposite phyllotaxy B) Very complex in behavior
(2) Epigynous flowers C) They show most extensive metabolic
(3) Inferior ovary diversity
(4) All of these D) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant
59. Choose mis-match from the following in nature.
(1) Mangifera indica – Order : Sapindales E) They are most abundant micro -
(2) Triticum aestivum – Division organisms
Angiospermae *(1) Five
(3) Solanum tuberosum – (2) Four only
Order : Polymoniales (3) Three only
*(4) Gorilla – Order : Carnivora (4) Two only
Sol : Gorilla belongs to order – Primata 63. Choose the correct combinations from the
60. Golden rice variety following
(1) Is a non – transgenic Taipei variety of i) Ectocarpus – Brown alga – Haplo diplontic
rice life cycle
*(2) Is rich source of vitamin ‘A’ ii) Polysiphonia – Moss plant – diplontic life
(3) It is developed by introducing three cycle
different types of genes of taipei variety of rice iii) Fucus – Brown alga – Diplontic life cycle
into the IR – 8 variety of rice iv) Sphagnum – Moss plant – Haplo –
(4) More than one option is correct diplontic life cycle
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 1) i & ii 2) ii & iii (1) a and b only
3) i, ii, iii & iv *4) i, iii & iv (2) a and d only
Sol : Polysiphonia is a red alga *(3) a, b, c and d
64. Match the following (4) c and d only
Column – A Column – B 68. How many types of RNA polymerase enzymes
A) Thorn i) Fertilized ovule are found in nucleus of eukaryotic cell?
B) Spine ii) Modified stem (1) 5
(or) Leaf *(2) 3
C) Tendril iii) Modified leaf (3) 4
D) Fruit iv) Modified Stem (4) 1
v) Fertilized ovary 69. A meristematic cell spends most of its time in
A B C D ________ of cell cycle
(1) iv iii ii i (1) Prophase
(2) iii iv ii i (2) Anaphase
(3) ii iii iv v (3) Telophase
*(4) iv iii ii v *(4) Interphase
65. Each turn of Krebs TCA cycle produces Sol :
(1) 2 FADH2 A regularly dividing cell spends most time in
(2) 3 CO2 interphase, M phase lasts for nearly 5% of
(3) 3 NADPH2 total duration of cell cycle.
* (4) 1 ATP 70. Statement I: Strobilanthus bear flowers once
Sol : For a molecule of glucose the two turns of in 12years.
Krebs cycle release 4 CO2, 6 NADH2, Statement II: In all land plants male gametes
2FADH2 , 2ATPs. are transferred by water.
66. Wind pollinated plants exhibit (1) Statements I and II both are correct
(1) Sticky, numerous pollen grains (2) Statements I and II both are incorrect
*(2) Single or few ovules *(3) Only statement I is correct
(3) Large, solitary conspicuous flowers (4) Only statement II is correct.
(4) Thick leathery stigma, short style 71. The PGR which causes delay in ripening of
67. Alteration in genotype or gene manipulation in fruits is
plants can be done by (1) Auxin
(a) rDNA technology (2) Cytokinins
(b) Inducing mutations (3) Ethylene
(c) Somatic hybridisation *(4) Gibberellins
(d) Hybridisation Sol : Gibberellins delay senescence and extend the
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 market period of fruit. Sol : T.P of guard cells increases in the opened
72. Citric acid is commercially produced from stoma. T.P of subsiday cells decreases as
(1) Lactobacillus water enter into guard cells
(2) Clostridium 76. Choose the incorrect statement of the
*(3) Aspergillus niger following
(4) Saccharomyces (1) Selinium is one of the beneficial
73 How many of the following belongs to the elements required by higher plants
family Fabaceae? *(2) Zn+2 is coenzyme for alcohol
Petunia; Tulipa; Trifolium; Muliathi; Atropa; dehydrogenase
Arhar; Withania; Sem; Lupin (3) For uptake and utilization of
(1) 6 calcium,Boron is required
*(2) 5 (4) The element is said to be deficient when
(3) 8 present below the critical concentration
(4) 7 Sol : Zinc is not only activator for alcohol
74. How many of the following are not included dehydrogenase, but also to several other
under endomembrane system? enzymes like carboxylales etc
Lysosomes; Mitochondria; Endoplasmic 77. Which one of the following is an incorrect
reticulum; Chloroplast; Peroxisomes; statements
Vacuoles; Golgi complex; Centrosome; (1) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea
Ribosomes plant varieties for his experiments
(1) 8 (2) The most common limiting factor for
(2) 6 photosynthesis is CO2
*(3) 5 *(3) Guttation occurs not only through
(4) 3 hydathodes, but also lenticels
75. Statement-I: During stomatal opening there is (4) Succenic dehydrogenase of complex II
relative change in T.P of guard cells and not only involved in FAD reduction but also in
subsidary cells. the oxidation of FADH2
Statement-II: T.P of guard ishigh while Sol : Guttation occurs only through hydathodes but
stomata are open not through lenticels
*(1) Statement-I and II are correct 78. In which one of the following complexes, Fe-S
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement II is centres are absent?
in correct *(1) Complex IV
(3) Statament-I is incorrect but statement-II (2) Complex II
is correct (3) Complex I
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect (4) Complex III
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Sol : Complex IV, also called Cytochrome C (3) Protons required for the reduction of
Oxidase does not have Fe-S centre. NADP+ in non cyclic electron transport system
79. Chemiosmosis does not require one of the are removed from lumen
following, directly? (4) Presence of bundle sheath chloroplast in
(1) Membrane bundle sheath cells and mesophyll chloroplast
*(2) Ferredoxin and FNR in the remaining cells is called Kranz anatomy
(3) A proton pump and proton gradient 83. Bulk flow can be achieved by
(4) CF0-CF1 complex a) Negative hydrostatic pressure gradient
Sol : Ferredoxin and Ferredoxin-NADP-reductase is b) Positive hydrostatic pressure gradient
not required *(1) Both a & b are correct
80. Identify the correct match of the following (2) Both a and b are incorrect
*(1) Lady bird and Dragon flies – Attack (3) Only a is correct
aphids and mosquitoes (4) Only b is correct
(2) ‘rop’ – codes for a protein used as a Sol : Both statements correct
selectable marker 84. RQ of sprouting potato tuber will be
(3) Nucleopolyhedrovirus – Broad spectrum *(1) 1
insecticidal application (2) 0
(4) ampR – ampicillin producing gene (3) 0.5
81. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, 1280 progamy of (4) 4
daughter plants are produced in F2 generation, Sol : Potato tuber contain starch (carbohydrate) for
then how many of them are recombinants? which R = 1
(1) 360 85. Read the following statements
*(2) 480 (A) Phostosystem I produce a strong
(3) 720 reductant, capable of reducing NADP  , and a
(4) 240 weak oxidant
6 (B) Photosystem II produces a very strong
Sol : are the recombinant of F2 generation
16
oxidant, capable of oxidizing water, and a
6
 1280  480 weaker reductant than the one produced by
16
photosystem I
82. Which one of the following is the correct
*(1) Both statements are correct
statements?
(2) Both statements are correct
(1) NADP reductase is located on the lumen
(3) Only A correct
side of the thylakoid
(4) Only A correct
*(2) Breakdown of proton gradient leads to
Sol : Both statements correct
the synthesis of ATP toward stroma side
86. Modern taxonomy require knowledge
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 (1) Of external and internal structure (4) Exonuclease
(2) About structure of cell Sol : RNA ligase enzyme joins two exons together
(3) About development process and 90. SI : In meiosis inter chromosomal
ecological information of organisms recombinations occur due to crossing over
*(4) All the above SII : Crossing over occurs between the
Sol : External and internal structure, structure of chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
cell, development process and ecological during prophase I.
information of organisms are essential and 1) Both SI and SII are correct
form the basis of modern taxonomic studies *2) Both SI and SII are wrong
87. tRNA recognized by a particular aminoacyl 3) SI is correct but SII is wrong
tRNA synthetase is 4) SI is wrong but SII is correct
(1) Initiator RNA only Sol : Crossing over results in gene recombinations
*(2) Cognate tRNA and crossing over occurs between homolgous
(3) Isoacceptor tRNA chromosomes
(4) Empty tRNA 91. Embryosac in the ovule is the site of
Sol : Amino acids are activated in the presence of occurrence of
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA and a 1) Double fertilization
process called aminoacyhation of tRNA 2) Endosperm development
88. A process by which short 21 to 23 nucleotide 3) Embryo development
antisense RNA, derived from longer double *4) All
stranded RNA, can modulate expression of Sol : All
mRNA by translation inhibition is 92. The amount of assimilatory power required in
(1) RNA splicing the bundle sheath chloroplasts of C4 plants for
(2) Transcription control the net productivity of one hexose sugar is
(3) Post translation control 1) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH
*(4) RNA interference 2) 5ATP, 2NADPH
Sol : RNAi involves silencing of a specific mRNA *3) 18 ATP, 12NADPH
due to complementary dsRNA molecule. 4) 18 ATP, 18NADPH
89. An enzyme that functions in hnRNA splicing Sol : Same as in C3 cycle
to make a phosphodiester bond between the 93. The probability of F2 double homozygous
two exon sequences that are generated by progeny in the Mendelian dihybrid cross is
cleavage of intron is 1) 1/16 2) 2/16
(1) DNA ligase *3) 4/16 4) 3/16
*(2) RNA ligase Sol : yyrr – YYRR, YYrr, yyRR
(3) Endonuclease 94. True statement of the following is
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 1) All algae are oogamous Sol : Embryosac development endosperm
2) Bryophytic sporophytes are heterosporous development tapetum cells
3) Pteridophytic gametophytes are dependent 99. Proteins can enter in respiration through
on sporophyte 1) Glycolysis
*4) Spermatophytic gametophytes are 2) Link reaction
invariably dioecious 3) Krebs cycle
Sol : Gametophytes in spermatophytes are dioecious *4) Any of the above
because their sporophytes are heterosporous 100. Which has the ability to transform normal cells
95. Cross compatible pollen is the pollen of into recombinant cells?
1) Same flower *1) Ti plasmid
2) Other flower on the same plant 2) HIV
*3) Other flower on other plant of same 3) E.coli
species 4) Both 1 and 2
4) Other flower on other plant of another Sol : In animal cells, retroviruses have the ability to
genus transform normal cells into cancerous cell.
Sol : Plants of same species may be cross 101. Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths in vessels
compatible developing from the adjoining –
96. Which of the following crop variety is 1) Fibres through pits on vessel wall
resistant to bacterial black rot disease? 2) Fibres through the general surface of vessel
1) Pusa swarnim of Brassica wall
2) Pusa Gaurav of Brassica *3) Parenchyma through pits on vessel wall
*3) Pusa shubhra of cauliflower 4) Tracheid through the pits on vessel wall
4) Pusa komal of cowpea Sol : Tyloses are balloon-like ingrowths in vessels
Sol : Pusa shubhra of cauliflower developing from the adjoining parenchyma
97. The mustard flower is cells through the pits present on vessel wall
*1) Hexandrous 2) Pentamerous 102. Photosynthesis begins with
3) Tetracyclic 4) Trimerous 1) Photolysis of water
Sol : Six stamens 2) Synthesis of ATP and NADPH
98. Which of the following cells of flowering *3) Photoexcitement of electrons
plant body show free nuclear divisions? 4) Reduction of PGA
i. Megaspore ii. Tapetum cells 103. Apomixis and cleistogamy are similar in
iii. Cambium cells A) Mode of reproduction
iv. Primary endosperm cell B) Showing assured seed set
1) i.iv 2) ii, iii, iv C) Not showing requirement of pollinator
*3) i, ii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv 1. A,B &C
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 2. Only A&B 107. How many plants in the list given below have
*3. Only B&C marginal placentation ?
4. Only A&C Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Redgram,
Sol: In both apomixis and cleistogamy there is Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicum, Onion, Moong,
assured seed set and don’t require pollinator. Pea, Tobacco, Lupin
104. Which one of the following organisms is *(1) Six
correctly matched with its three (2) Three
characteristics? (3) Four
1) Pea: Diadelphous stamens, endospermic (4) Five
seed, legume fruit 108. The common bottle cork is a product of
2) Makoi: Twisted aestivation, axile *(1) Phellogen
placentation, berry (2) Xylem
3) Onion: Non-endospermic seeds, valvate (3) Vascular Cambium
aestivation, axile placentation (4) Dermatogen
*4) Maize: C4 pathway, closed vascular 109. Identify the recombinant phenotype in the
bundles, scutellum following of Morgan’s experiments on
Sol : Pea: Diadelphous stamens, non-endospermic Drosophila.
seed, legume fruit (1) Yellow, White
Makoi: Valvate aestivation, axile placentation, (2) Brown, Red
berry (3) White, Miniature wing
Onion: Endospermic seeds, valvate aestivation, *(4) Red, Miniature wing
axile placentation 110. If we use enzyme PvuI during formation of
Maize: C4 pathway, closed vascular bundles, recombinent DNA by using PBR322 as vector
scutellum then the antibiotic resistance gene used as
105. Life cycle in Pteris is selectable marker to differentiate between
(1) Diplontic transformant and non transformant is
(2) Diplo-haplontic (1) amp R gene
*(3) Haplo-diplontic
*(2) tet R gene
(4) Haplontic
106. Number of carpels in the flower of Hibiscus (3) amp R or tet R gene

are (4) It is not possible to differentiate

(1) 2 111. Assertion (A) : RNAi takes place in all
(2) 3 eukaryotic organisms as a
(3) 4 method of cellular defense.
*(4) 5 Reason (R) : In RNAi, target gene is
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 silenced due to ds DNA. 114. Egg apparatus consists of
(1) A and R are true and R is the correct (1) Seven haploid cells
explanation of A. (2) Haploid egg & two diploid synergid
(2) A and R are true and R is not the correct (3) Three haploid antipodal cell
explanation of A. (4) Three cells, each with a haploid nucleus
*(3) A is true, R is false. Ans: 4
(4) Both A and R are false 115. Horticulture method of joining together of
112. Identify the incorrect statement stock and scion in dictos is called
(a) Microbes are present everywhere – in soil (1) Layering
water, air, inside bodies of plants and animals (2) Grafting
(b) Microbes are even observed in harsh (3) Tissue culture
habitats (thermal vents, under layer of snow) (4) Budding
(c) All microbes show cellular organization as Ans: 2
a unique character Sol : Horticulture method of joining together of
(d) Microbes like bacteria, fungi, viruses can stock and scion is called grafting
be grown on nutritive media to form colonies 116. Which of the following structures have cells
(1) a, b, c with haploid and diploid ploidies present in it
(2) b, c, d ?
(3) a, c, d (1) Ovule
*(4) c, d (2) Pollengrain
113. Match the items of column – I with column – (3) Seed
II with respect to asexual reproduction and (4) 7 celled 8 nucleated embryosac
choose the correct option from the codes given Ans: 1
below Sol : Embryosac is haploid and nucellus is dipoid
Column – I Column – II 117. Endosperm of genus “A” and embryo of genus
a) Fission i) Moss protonema “B” possess same number of chromosomes.
b) Budding ii) Chlamydomonas What are they ?
c) Sporulation iii) Amoeba (1) Onion & rice
d) Fragmentation iv) Saccharomyces (2) Maize & onion
a b c d (3) Rice & maize
(1) iii iv ii i (4) Rice & potato
(2) i ii iii iv Ans: 1
(3) ii i iii iv Sol: Both possess 24 chromosomes
(4) ii i iv iii
Ans : 1
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118. Statement – I : Vegetative propagation in (4) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R)
higher plants is generally referred as asexual is correct
reproduction Ans: 3
Statement – I : Sexual mode of reproduction is 121. Match the following columns
observed just before onset of adverse Column-I Column-II
conditions in alga and fungi A) Lal Bagh 1) Darjeeling
(1) Both statement – I and statement – II are B) National Botanical Garden 2) Kolkata
true C) Indian Botanical Garden 3) Lucknow
(2) Statement – I is true and statement – II is D) Forest Research Institute 4) Dehradun
false E) Loyd’s Botanical Garden 5) Bengaluru
(3) Statement – I is false and statement – II
is true Codes
(3) Both statement – I and statement – II are A B C D E
false *(1) 5 3 2 4 1
Ans: 1 (2) 1 3 2 4 5
119. Pollination is absent in (3) 2 1 3 4 1
(1) Pea (4) 4 1 3 4 5
(2) China rose 122. Statement-I : Consciousness becomes the
(3) Yucca defining property of living
(4) Funaria organisms.
Ans: 4 . Statement-II : Cellular organisation of the
120. Assertion : (A) : A mature seeds of pea and body is the defining feature
groundnut are non endospermic of life forms.
Reason : (R) : Only syngamy occur without (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
triple fusion during the formation of seeds in wrong
pea and groundnut *(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
correct and the reason is correct explanation of (3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
assertion wrong
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are (4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
correct but the reason does not explain Correct
assertion 123. How many of the following protozoans are
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is parasitic and cause diseases in human beings?
incorrect

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 Amoeba, Entamoeba, Tryponosoma, 127. If leaf like structure of Funaria is having 20
Paramoecium, Plasmodium chromosomes, how many chromosomes are
(1) 4 present in cell of its sporophyte
(2) 5 *(1) 40
*(3) 3 (2) 20
(4) 2 (3) 10
124. Identify the correct match (4) 5
List-I List-II Sol : Gametophyte (n) = 20 chromosomes
1) Ergot of rye A) Albugo Sporophyte (2n) = 40 chromosomes
White rust of 128. Conjunctive tissue is made up of
2) B) Colletotrichum
crucifers (1) Collenchyma, and lie between xylem and
Red rot of phloem in root
3) C) Alternaria
sugarcane (2) Parenchyma, and lie between vascular
Early blight of bundles in stem
4) D) Claviceps
potato *(3) Parenchyma, and lie between xylem and
phloem in root
A B C D (4) Sclerenchyma, and lie between xylem
(1) 4 3 2 1 and phloem in leaf
(2) 4 3 1 2 Sol : Conjunctive parenchyma is made up of
(3) 3 4 1 2 parenchyma is made up of parenchyma, and
*(4) 2 3 4 1 lie between xylem and phloem in root
125. Prions, abnormally folded proteins cause 129. Which one of the following flower only once
(1) Creuzfeldt-Jakob disease in its life time?
(2) Bovine spongiform encephalitis (1) Mango
(3) Scrapie disease of sheep (2) Bamboo
*(4) All the above (3) Agave
126. Identify the terms related to Fucus. *(4) Both 2 & 3
Holdfast, Air bladder, Oogamy, Laminarin, Sol : Bamboo and Agave flowers only once in their
Motile male gamete life time
(1) 2 130. In some plants female gamete develops into
(2) 4 embryo without fertilisation. This
(3) 3 phenomenon is
*(4) 5 (1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenospory
(3) Parthenogamy
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 *(4) Parthenogenesis *(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
Sol : Parthenogenesis means direct development of (2) Nucleolus
embryo without fertilisation (3) Nucleas envelope
131. Microbes like Spirulina, can be grown on (4) All of these
industrial scale as source of 136. Identify the largest cytoplasmic organelle of
(1) Vitamins plant cell which has electron transport system
(2) Minerals and concerned with synthesis of ATP as well
(3) Fat as NADPH+H+?
*(4) All the above (1) Nucleus
Sol : Spirulina serve as food rich in protein , *(2) Chloroplast
minerals, fats , carbohydrates and vitamins (3) Mitochondria
132. The network of tiny tubular structures (4) Both 1 and 2
scattered in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells Sol : ETS and ATP synthesis occur in both
is called chloroplast (largest organelle) and
(1) Chromatin material mitochondria
(2) Nucleosomes 137. In a dividing eukaryotic cell, the genetic
*(3) Endoplasmic reticulum material by condensation process becomes
(4) Golgi complex (1) dsDNA
133. Cell wall is made up of chitin in (2) ssRNA
*(1)Fungi (3) Nucleoid
(2)Arthropods *(4) Chromosomes
(3) Bacteria Sol : Chromosomes are formed in a dividing cells by
(4) Both 1 and 2 condensation / spiralisation of chromatin
Sol : Chitinous cell wall is present in fungi material
134. The blood concentration of glucose in a 138. Select mis-match from the following
normal healthy individual is (1) Secondary metabolites – Scents & Gums
(1) 2.0 – 5.0 mM / L (2) Primary metabolites – Glucose &
(2) 3.5 – 4.0 mM /L Aminoacids
(3) 3.0 – 3.5 mM/L *(3) Pyrimidines of RNA – Uridine &
*(4) 4.2 – 6.1 mM/L Cytidine
Sol : The blood concentration of glucose in a normal (4) Ribozyme – 23S rRNA of the prokaryotic
healthy individual is 4.2-6.1mM/L ribosome & 28S rRNA of the eukaryotic
135. Which type of cell organelle is not seen in the ribosome
cells at the end of prophase, when viewed Sol : Uridine & Cytidines are Nucleosides
under the microscope? 139. Qualitative test for proteins is
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 *(1) Biuret test (4) B,A,C,D
(2) Sudan III 143. Read the following statements
(3) Saponification test A) Chromatophores are pigment containing
(4) Molisch’s test structures in cyanobacteria
Sol : Biuret test is qualitative test for protein B) Mesosomes are membranous structures in
140. Which phase of mitotic cell cycle is the bacteria
“period of cytoplasmic growth”? (1) Both statements are incorrect
(1) S phase (2) Statement A correct ,Statement B
*(2) G2 phase incorrect
(3) Metaphase (3) Statement B correct ,Statement A
(4) Anaphase incorrect
Sol : G2 phase is the period of cytoplasmic growth *(4) Both statements are correct
141. Statement I(S-I): Both the homologous Sol : Both statements correct
chromosomes of a bivalent from equatorial 144. Thymidine is
plate move to the same pole during anaphase I (1) Nucleotide in DNA
Statement–II(S-II): During anaphase I (2) Nucleotide in RNA
chromosomal number is reduced to half at *(3) Nucleoside in DNA
each pole by splitting of centromere of each (4) Nucleoside in RNA
chromosome Sol : Thymidine is nucleoside in DNA
(1) Both SI and SII are correct 145. From one molecule of glucose during
*(2) Both SI and SII are wrong oxidative phosphorylation, the total gain of
(3) Only SI is correct ATP is
(4) Only SII is correct *(1) 34
Sol : Anaphase I homologous chromosomes separate (2) 36
from bivalents without splitting centromers of (3) 38
chromosome and move to opposite poles (4) 40
142. Arrange the various events of meiosis that Sol : From one molecule of glucose during oxidative
occur in a sequential order phosphorylation, the total gain of ATP is 34
A) Centromere splitting 146. Abscissic acid
B) Synapsis (1) Help in seed development
C) Terminalisation of chaismata (2) Help in seed maturation
D) Dyad of cells (3) Break dormancy
*(1) B,C,D,A *(4) Both 1 & 2
(2) B,C,A,D Sol : ABA help in seed development & seed
(3) C,B,A,D maturation
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147. Pioneer community during ecological Sol : In polygenic inheritance many genes control
succession on rock is single character
(1) Moss and grass 151. Which of the following used chromosome
(2) Grass movement to explain Mendel’s law?
(3) Shrubs (1) Henking
*(4) Crustose lichen (2) T.H. Morgan
Sol : Lichens are poiner species in ecological *(3) Sutton and Boveri
succession (4) Bateson
148. In phosphorus cycle, weathering first makes Sol : Sutton & Boveri studied the behaviour of
phosphate available to chromosomes during cell division
*(1) Producer 152. Which of the following is/are the drawback of
(2) Decomposer GMP (Good Manufacturing Practice)
(3) Primary consumer (1) unintended harm to other organisms
(4) Secondary consumer (2) gene transfer in non target organism
Sol : Weathering makes phosphate available to the (3) allergies
soil from where plants or producers get them (4) all the above
first Ans: 4
149. Degeneracy of genetic code means 153. From which bacterium cohen and Boyer
*(1) Single amino acid may be coded by more isolated antibiotic resistance gene in 1972.
than one codon (1)Escherichia coli
(2) Genetic code does not overlap (2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Genetic code is nearly universal (3) Haemophilus influenza
(4) One genetic code code only one amino (4) Salmonella typhimurium
acid Ans: 4
Sol : Degeneracy of genetic code means Single 154. Which one of the following is the first
amino acid may be coded by more than one discovered type II restriction endonuclease
codon (1) EcoRI (2) Hind II
150. Which of the following is correct related to (3) Bam HI (4) Sal I
polygenic inheritance? Ans: 2
*(1) Many genes governsingle character 156. Statement A: Restriction enzymes are
(2) In a heterozygous organism only one endonucleases.
allele determine full trait Statement B: All endonucleases are restriction
(3) A single gene influence many characters enzymes.
(4) There is no role of environment in (1) Both statements A & B are correct
production of phenotype
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 (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is (2) antisense RNA technique
incorrect (3) RFLP technique
(3) Statement A is incorrect but (4) Both 1 and 2
statement B is correct Ans: 2
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect 161. Which of the following is the operational
Ans: 2 technique in biotechnological process where
157. Gel electrophoresis is used for the separation one or more nutrients are supplied in
of fragments of incremental manner
(1) DNA (1) Batch culture
(2) RNA (2) continuous culture
(3) Protein (3) Fed batcgh culture
(4) All the above (4) Both 2 and 3
Ans: 4 Ans: 3
158. Statement A: Selectable markers are 162. Which of the following restriction enzyme
used in genetic engineering experiments to produces blunt ends
differentiate recombinants from non (1) Sal I (2) Hind III
recombinants. (3) Sma I (4) EcoRI
Statement B: By insertional inactivation of  - Ans: 3
galactosidase the recombinant colonies will be 163. In Golden Rice, which of the following gene

identified. was introduced from Erwinia uredovora

(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) Both (1) Psy (2) Icy
statements A & B are incorrect (3) Crt l (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Statement A is incorrect but Ans: 3

statement B is correct 164. Which of the following method can’t be apply

(4) Statement A is correct but statement B is to desired DNA from bacterial cells
incorrect (1) direct method by using probes
Ans: 1 (2) artificial gene synthesis by template

159. To amplify one DNA sequence of interest, dependent mannes

how many types of primers ae required (3) template independent artificial gene
(1) One (2) Two synthesis
(3) Three (4) Four (4) c-DNA method

Ans: 2 Ans: 4

160. Flavr Savr tomato was developed by

(1) RNAi

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