Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023

01/07/2021 FSR-G3
CODE-A3

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 180 UNIT TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.

for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023

Test – 1

Topics covered
Physics : ÒkSfrd txr, ek=d o ekiu
Chemistry : jlk;u foKku esa dqN vk/kkjHkwr fl)kUr
Mathematics : ewyHkwr xf.kr

funsZ'k :
(1) ijh{kk dh vof/k 1½ ?k.Vs gSA
(2) ç'u iqfLrdk esa 45 ç'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 180 gSA

(3) ç'u i= esa rhu Hkkx HkkSfrd foKku] jlk;u foKku rFkk xf.kr gSa ftlds çR;sd Hkkx esa leku vad Hkkj
okys 15 ç'u gSaA çR;sd Hkkx esa nks [k.M gSaA
(i) [k.M-I : bl [kaM esa 12 cgqfodYih; ç'u gSaA ftuesa dsoy ,d mÙkj lgh gSA çR;sd ç'u ds lgh
mÙkj ds fy, 4 vad rFkk xyr mÙkj ds fy, –1 vad fu/kkZfjr gSaA

(ii) [k.M -II : bl [k.M esa 3 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u dk mÙkj 00 ls 99 dh ijkl esa ,d la[;kRed eku gS
ftlesa dskbZ fodYi ugha fn;k x;k gSA çR;sd ç'u ds lgh mÙkj ds fy, 4 vad fu/kkZfjr gS rFkk xyr
mÙkj ds fy, dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 1]
First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3)

SECTION - I [k.M - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains cgqfodYih; ç'u : bl [k.M esa 12 cgqfodYih; ç'u gSaA
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has
çR;sd ç'u ds fy, 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4), fn;s
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct. x;s gSa ftlesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA
1. If force ‘F’, energy ‘E’ and velocity ‘V’ are chosen 1. ;fn cy ‘F’, ÅtkZ ‘E’ rFkk osx ‘V’ dk ewyÒwr jkf'k;ksa
as fundamental quantities, the dimensional ds :i esa p;u fd;k tkrk gS] rc Roj.k ds fy,
formula for acceleration will be foeh; lw= gksxk
(1) [FVE] (2) [FV2E–1] (1) [FVE] (2) [FV2E–1]
(3) [FVE–1] (4) [F–1V–2E1] (3) [FVE–1] (4) [F–1V–2E1]

2. A system has fundamental quantities as 2. fdlh i)fr esa ewyHkwr jkf'k;k¡ ?kuRo [D], osx [V]
density [D], velocity [V] and area [A]. The rFkk {ks=Qy [A] gSA bl i)fr esa 'kfDr dk foeh;
dimensional representation of power in this çn'kZu gS
system is (1) [AV3D] (2) [A2V2D]
(1) [AV3D] (2) [A2V2D] (3) [AV2D2] (4) [AV2D]
(3) [AV2D2] (4) [AV2D] b
3. le; t ij fdlh d.k ds osx v dks v  at 2 
3. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by, c  t2
b }kjk O;Dr fd;k tkrk gS] tgk¡ a, b, c fu;rkad gSA
v  at 2  , where a, b, c are constants.
c  t2 a × c dh foek,a gSa
The dimensions of a × c is given by
(1) [M0L1T–1] (2) [M0L–1T1] (1) [M0L1T–1] (2) [M0L–1T1]
(3) [M0L1T1] (4) [M0L2T–1] (3) [M0L1T1] (4) [M0L2T–1]

4. The dimensional formula for impulse is same as 4. vkosx ds fy, foeh; lw= fdlds foeh; lw= ds
that for leku gS\
(1) Torque × time (1) cy vk?kw.kZ × le;

(2)
Angular momentum dk.skh; laox
s
(2)
Distance njwh
Energy ÅtkZ
(3) (3)
Time le;
(4)
Force
(4)
cy
Time le;
5. The unit of pressure in CGS units is 5. CGS ek=dksa esa nkc dk ek=d gS
(1) N/m (2) dyne/cm2 (1) N/m (2) MkbZu/cm2
(3) dyne/cm (4) N/m2 (3) MkbZu/cm (4) N/m2
6. When a wave traverse in a medium, the 6. tc ,d rjax ek/;e esa lapfjr gksrh gS] rc le;
displacement of a particle located at x at a time t ij x ij fLFkr d.k ds foLFkkiu dks
t is given by y = asin(bt – cx), where a, b and c y = asin(bt – cx) }kjk O;Dr fd;k tkrk gS] tgk¡ a,
are constants of the wave, which of the following
b o c rjax ds fu;rkad gSaA fuEu esa ls dkSulh
is a quantity with dimensions?
foekvksa okyh jkf”k gSa\
y
(1) (2) bt y
a (1) (2) bt
a
b b
(3) cx (4) (3) cx (4)
c c

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 2]
Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023

7. Which of the following is NOT an SI unit? 7. fuEu esa ls dkSulk SI ek=d ugha gS\
(1) m/s (2) kg/m (1) m/s (2) kg/m
(3) N m (4) erg (3) N m (4) vxZ
(wt 2 – kx 2 )
In the relation y  ae
2 2
8. , y, a and x are 8. lac/a k y  ae(wt – kx ) esa y, a o x nwfj;k¡ gS rFkk t
distances and t is time, dimensional formula of le; gS] k dk foeh; lw= gS
k is
(1) [T–2] (2) [L–1]
(1) [T–2] (2) [L–1]
(3) [L–2] (4) [LT–1]
(3) [L–2] (4) [LT–1]
9. ek=dksa dh CGS i)fr esa ydM+h dk ?kuRo 0.5
9. Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc in the CGS system
of units. The corresponding value in MKS unit is gm/cc gSA MKS i)fr esa laxr eku gS

(1) 500 (2) 5 (1) 500 (2) 5

(3) 0.5 (4) 5000 (3) 0.5 (4) 5000

10. A cube has a side 1.2 cm. Its surface area is 10. ,d ?ku dh Hkqtk 1.2 cm gSA bldk i`"Bh; {ks=Qy
(1) 8 cm2 (2) 8.6 cm2
gS
(1) 8 cm2 (2) 8.6 cm2
(3) 8.64 cm2 (4) 8.0 cm2
(3) 8.64 cm2 (4) 8.0 cm2
11. The kinetic energy (K) depends upon
momentum (p) and mass (m). The correct 11. xfrt ÅtkZ (K), laosx (p) rFkk nzO;eku (m) ij
relation may be fuHkZj djrh gSA lgh laca/k gks ldrk gS
p2 1 p2 1
(1) K  (2) K  pm (1) K  (2) K  pm
2m 2 2m 2
1 2 1 1 2 1
(3) K = p m (4) K  pm2 (3) K = p m (4) K  pm2
2 2 2 2
12. The equation of state of some gases can be 12. dqN xSalksa dh voLFkk lehdj.k dks
 a   a 
expressed as  P  2  (V  b)  RT , where P
 V   P  2  (V  b)  RT ds vuqlkj çnÆ'kr fd;k
 V 
is pressure, V is volume, T is absolute
temperature and a, b, R are constants. The
tk ldrk gS] tgk¡ P nkc gS] V vk;ru gS, T ije
a
a
dimensions of 2 are rki gS rFkk a, b, R fu;rkad gSaA dh foek,¡ gSa
b b2

(1) [M1L1T1] (2) [M1L1T–2] (1) [M1L1T1] (2) [M1L1T–2]

(3) [M1L–1T–2] (4) [M1L–1T–1] (3) [M1L–1T–2] (4) [M1L–1T–1]

SECTION - II [k.M - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u: bl [k.M esa 00 ls 99 dh
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging ijkl esa 3 la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u gSaA mÙkj ds
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
fy, fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vuqlkj OMR esa mfpr xksys dks
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer dkyk djuk gSA mnkgj.k- ;fn ç'u la[;k X, Y rFkk Z
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and (ekuk) ds lgh mÙkj Øe'k% 76, 0 rFkk 9 gks]a rks OMR esa
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR Øe'k% 76, 00 rFkk 09 dks dkyk djuk gSA
respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 X
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Y
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Z
Z 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 3]
First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3)

13. In an experiment on Ohm’s law, voltage drop
across a resistor has been measured as
V = (100 ± 5) volt and current through the
resistor has been measured as I = (10.0 ± 0.2)
ampere. The permissible % error in calculation
of R is___________.
13. vkse ds fu;e ij ç;ksx esa çfrjks/kd ds fljksa ij
oksYVrk iru dk eku V = (100 ± 5) oksYV gS rFkk
çfrjks/kd ls çokfgr /kkjk dk ekiu I = (10.0 ± 0.2)
,fEi;j gSA R dh x.kuk esa vuqes; çfr'kr =qfV
___________ gSA

14. The total number of zeros, that are significant in
the number 0.01020 × 104 is________.
15. A solid cone has a mass (9 ± 0.09) g and radius
of the base (3 ± 0.03) cm and height
(1 ± 0.01) cm. The maximum percentage error
in the measurement of density is________.
14. la[;k 0.01020 × 104 esa lkFkZd 'kwU;ksa dh dqy
la[;k ________ gSA
15. fdlh Bksl 'kadq dk nzO;eku (9 ± 0.09) g rFkk
vk/kkj dh f=T;k (3 ± 0.03) cm rFkk Å¡pkbZ
(1 ± 0.01) cm gSA ?kuRo ds ekiu esa vf/kdre
çfr'kr =qfV________ gSA

SECTION - I [k.M - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains cgqfodYih; ç'u : bl [k.M esa 12 cgqfodYih; ç'u gSaA
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has çR;sd ç'u ds fy, 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4), fn;s
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
x;s gSa ftlesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA
ONE is correct.
16. 4.4 g CO2 eas mifLFkr vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh
16. Number of oxygen atoms present in 4.4 g of CO2
la[;k gS (NA = vkoksxknzks la[;k)
(NA = Avogadro number)
(1) 0.1 NA (2) 0.3 NA
(1) 0.1 NA (2) 0.3 NA
(3) 0.2 NA (4) 0.4 NA
(3) 0.2 NA (4) 0.4 NA
17. ,FksukWy (C2H5OH) esa vkWDlhtu dk nzO;eku
17. Mass percentage of oxygen in ethanol
(C2H5OH) is
izfr”kr gS
(1) 34.78% (2) 46.06%
(1) 34.78% (2) 46.06%
(3) 13.13% (4) 52.14%
(3) 13.13% (4) 52.14%
18. vk;ju ds ,d vkWDlkbM esa nzO;eku dh n`f’V ls
18. An oxide of iron has 69.9% iron and 30.1% 69.9% vk;ju rFkk 30.1% vkWDlhtu gSA vkWDlkbM
oxygen by mass. Empirical formula of oxide is
dk ewykuqikrh lw= gS
(Atomic mass of Fe = 56)
(Fe dk ijek.kq nzO;eku = 56)
(1) FeO (2) Fe2O
(1) FeO (2) Fe2O
(3) Fe2O3 (4) FeO2
(3) Fe2O3 (4) FeO2
19. 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl is mixed with 50 ml of 0.05 M
–
19. 50 ml 0.1 M HCl dks 50 ml 0.05 M H2SO4 ds lkFk
H2SO4, then the resultant [Cl ] in the solution is
feyk;k tkrk gS] rc foy;u esa ifj.kkeh [Cl–] gS
(1) 0.05 M (2) 0.025 M (1) 0.05 M (2) 0.025 M
(3) 0.1 M (4) 0.5 M (3) 0.1 M (4) 0.5 M
20. What is the molality of aqueous solution 20. 100 g ty esa 2.0 g MgO ;qDr tyh; foy;u dh
containing 2.0 g of MgO in 100 g of water? eksyyrk D;k gS\
(1) 0.1 m (2) 0.5 m (1) 0.1 m (2) 0.5 m
(3) 0.25 m (4) 1.35 m (3) 0.25 m (4) 1.35 m
21. An organic compound has C = 40% and 21. ,d dkcZfud ;kSfxd esa C = 40% rFkk ty = 60%
water = 60%, then empirical formula will be gSa] rks ewykuqikrh lw= gksxk
(1) CH2O (2) C2H2O (1) CH2O (2) C2H2O
(3) C3H2O (4) C4H2O (3) C3H2O (4) C4H2O

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 4]
Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023

22. How many water molecules are present in 22. 2 mL ty (d = 1 g/mL) esa ty ds fdrus v.kq ik;s
2 mL of water (d = 1 g/mL)? tkrs gSa\
21 23 21 23
(1) 11.1 × 10 (2) 6.023 × 10 (1) 11.1 × 10 (2) 6.023 × 10
23 22 23 22
(3) 3.333 × 10 (4) 6.68 × 10 (3) 3.333 × 10 (4) 6.68 × 10
23. A given solution of NaOH contains 8.00 g of 23. NaOH ds fn, x, foy;u esa izfr yhVj foy;u
NaOH per litre of solution. Calculate the molarity 8.00 g NaOH gSA bl foy;u dh eksyjrk dh
of this solution.
x.kuk dhft,A
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.8
24. Dinitrogen and dihydrogen react with each other
24. MkbZukbVªkstu rFkk MkbZgkbMªkstu uhps nh x;h
to produce ammonia according to below
vfHkfØ;k ds vuqlkj vkil esa vfHkfØ;k djds
reaction
veksfu;k cukrs gSa
N2 + 3H2  2NH3
N2 + 3H2  2NH3
If 2 × 103 g of dinitrogen reacts with 1 × 103 g of
dihydrogen. What is the mass of ammonia ;fn 2 × 103 g MkbZukbVªkstu dh 1 × 103 g
produced? MkbZgkbMªkt
s u ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k gksrh gS] rks izkIr
(1) 2.43 kg (2) 2 kg veksfu;k dk nzO;eku D;k gS\
(3) 1.43 kg (4) 4.56 kg (1) 2.43 kg (2) 2 kg

25. 4 g of H2 and 96 g of oxygen are mixed to (3) 1.43 kg (4) 4.56 kg

produce water under specific conditions. Which 25. fo”ks’k ifjfLFkfr;kas esa 4 g H2 rFkk 96 g vkWDlhtu
statement is incorrect? dks feykus ij ty curk gSA dkSulk dFku xyr
(1) Hydrogen is limiting reactant gS\
(2) 2 moles of water are formed (1) gkbMªkstu lhekUr vfHkdkjd gS
(3) 2 moles of oxygen are left behind (2) 2 eksy ty curk gS
(4) 1 g of hydrogen is left behind (3) 2 eksy vkWDlhtu “ks’k jg tkrh gS
26. Maximum amount (in gram) of NO2 can be (4) 1 g gkbMªkstu “ks’k jg tkrh gS
formed in which of the following case? 26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa NO2 dh vf/kdre ek=k
1 ¼xzke esa½ izkIr gks ldrh gS\
Reaction : N2  O2  NO2
2
1
(1) 14 g of N2 + 8 g of O2 vfHkfØ;k : N2  O2  NO2
2
(2) 10 g of N2 + 16 g of O2 (1) 14 g N2 + 8 g O2
(3) 28 g of N2 + 32 g of O2 (2) 10 g N2 + 16 g O2
(4) 42 g of N2 + 48 g of O2 (3) 28 g N2 + 32 g O2
27. The n-factor of H2SO4 in the given reaction is (4) 42 g N2 + 48 g O2

KOH + H2SO4  KHSO4 + H2O
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9
respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
respectively.
Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 5]
27. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k esa H2SO4 dk n-dkjd gS
KOH + H2SO4  KHSO4 + H2O
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4
[k.M - II
la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u: bl [k.M esa 00 ls 99 dh
ijkl esa 3 la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u gSaA mÙkj ds
fy, fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vuqlkj OMR esa mfpr xksys dks
dkyk djuk gSA mnkgj.k- ;fn ç'u la[;k X, Y rFkk Z
(ekuk) ds lgh mÙkj Øe'k% 76, 0 rFkk 9 gksa] rks OMR esa
Øe'k% 76, 00 rFkk 09 dks dkyk djuk gSA
First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3)

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

28. The n-factor of Ca(OH)2 in the following reaction 28. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k esa Ca(OH)2 dk n-dkjd gS
is
Ca(OH)2 + 2CH3COOH  (CH3COO)2Ca + H2O
Ca(OH)2 + 2CH3COOH  (CH3COO)2Ca + H2O
29. The x (in l) volume of CO2 produced at STP
29. tc 4.2 g MgCO3 vi?kfVr gksrk gS] rks STP ij
x
when 4.2 g of MgCO3 is decomposed. Then the izkIr CO2 dk vk;ru x (I esa) gSA rc  10 dk
1.12
x
value of  10 is (Atomic mass of eku gS (Mg dk ijek.kq nzO;eku= 24)
1.12
Mg = 24) 
MgCO3   MgO + CO2

MgCO3  MgO + CO2
30. ;fn 20 eksy COCl2 izkIr gksrk gS] rks fdrus eksy
30. How many moles of PCl5 would have been used
PCl5 iz;qDr gksaxs\
if 20 mol of COCl2 is formed?
PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2
PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2

CO  Cl2  COCl2 CO  Cl2  COCl2

(excess) ( vkfèkD; )

SECTION - I [k.M - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains cgqfodYih; ç'u : bl [k.M esa 12 cgqfodYih; ç'u gSaA
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has çR;sd ç'u ds fy, 4 fodYi (1), (2), (3) rFkk (4), fn;s
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
x;s gSa ftlesa ls dsoy ,d lgh gSA
ONE is correct.
31. ;fn n(A) = n(B), rc fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi
31. If n(A) = n(B), then which of the following is true?
lgh gS\
(1) A = B (2) A B
(1) A = B (2) A B
(3) A  B (4) B A
(3) A  B (4) B A
32. If A is any set and B is non-empty set and A is
32. ;fn dksbZ leqPp; A gS vkSj B vfjDr leqPp; gS
subset of B. If n(B) = 9 then maximum possible
rFkk A, B dk mileqPp; gSA ;fn n(B) = 9, rc
value of n(A ∆B) is
n(A ∆B) dk vf/kdre laHkkfor eku gS
(1) 9 (2) 8
(1) 9 (2) 8
(3) Zero (4) 6
(3) 'kwU; (4) 6
33. The complete solution set of ‘x’ which satisfies
33. ‘x’ dk lEiw.kZ gy leqPp; Kkr dhft, tks
4 3
the inequality  is 4 3
x  2 (2x  1) vlfedk  dks larq"V djrk gS
x  2 (2x  1)
 1
(1)  2,   [2, ) (2) [2,∞)  1
 2 (1)  2,   [2, ) (2) [2,∞)
 2

 2,    
1 1 
(4)  , 2    ,  
 2,    
(3)  1 1 
 
2 2  (3)  (4)  , 2    ,  
2 2 

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 6]
Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023

34. The complete set of x which satisfies either 34. x dk lEiw.kZ leqPp; Kkr dhft, tks ;k rks
( x  12)( x  4) ( x  16)( x  4)
2
( x  12)( x  4) ( x 2  16)( x  4)
 0 or  0 is 0 ;k 0 dks
( x  16)
2
( x  4)( x  5) ( x 2  16) ( x  4)( x  5)
(1) (–5, –4) ∪(4, ∞) (2) (–5, –4) ∪[12, ∞) larq"V djrk gS
(3) (–, –4] ∪[12, ∞) (4) (–, 4) ∪(12, ∞) (1) (–5, –4) ∪(4, ∞) (2) (–5, –4) ∪[12, ∞)
35. Which of the following pair of sets is disjoint? (3) (–, –4] ∪[12, ∞) (4) (–, 4) ∪(12, ∞)
(1) A = {a, b, d} B = {c, d, e} 35. fuEu esa ls leqPp;ksa dk dkSulk ;qXe folaf/kr gS\
(2) A = {1, 2, 4, 6} B = {0, 3, 4, 5}
(1) A = {a, b, d} B = {c, d, e}
(3) A = {4, 3, 2, 9} B = {1, 7, 3, 10, 11}
(2) A = {1, 2, 4, 6} B = {0, 3, 4, 5}
(4) A = {k, l, m} B = {p, q, r}
(3) A = {4, 3, 2, 9} B = {1, 7, 3, 10, 11}
36. Which of the following Venn-diagram represent (4) A = {k, l, m} B = {p, q, r}
A – (A B) ?
36. fuEu esa ls dkSulk osu vkjs[k] A – (A B) dks
n'kkZrk gS\
(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)
(4)
37. If A = {p, {p}}, then the power set of A is
(1) {, p, {p}, {p, {p}}} 37. ;fn A = {p, {p}}, rc A dk ?kkr leqPp; gS
(2) {{p}, {{p}}, , {p, {p}}} (1) {, p, {p}, {p, {p}}}
(3) {{p}, {p, {p}}} (2) {{p}, {{p}}, , {p, {p}}}
(4) {, {p}, {p, {p}}} (3) {{p}, {p, {p}}}

38. The solution set of the inequality (4) {, {p}, {p, {p}}}

(x2 – x – 1) (x2 – x – 7) < –5 is 38. vlfedk (x2 – x – 1) (x2 – x – 7) < –5 dk gy

leqPp; gS
(1) (–, –2) (3, ) (2) (–2, –1) (2, 3)
(1) (–, –2) (3, ) (2) (–2, –1) (2, 3)
(3) (–, –1) (2, ) (4) (–2, 3)
(3) (–, –1) (2, ) (4) (–2, 3)
39. For two sets A and B as shown in Venn diagram
below, which of the following is correct? 39. uhps n'kkZ;s x;s osu vkjs[k esa nks leqPp;ksa A o B
ds fy,] fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi lgh gS\

(1) A  B = A (2) A – B = A  B
(1) A  B = A (2) A – B = A  B
(3) A  B = U (4) A – B = A
(3) A  B = U (4) A – B = A

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 7]
First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-1 (FSRG3_Code-A3)

40. If n(U) = 400, n(A) = 260, n(B) = 340 where U is 40. ;fn n(U) = 400, n(A) = 260, n(B) = 340, tgk¡ U
the universal set, then the least value of lkoZf=d leqPp; gS] rc n(A  B) dk y?kqÙke eku
n(A  B) is gS
(1) 200 (2) 260 (1) 200 (2) 260
(3) 80 (4) 400 (3) 80 (4) 400
41. Complete solution of the inequality (x – 4) 41. vlfedk (x – 4) (x + 1)(x – 2) > 0 dk lEiw.kZ gy
(x + 1)(x – 2) > 0 is gS
(1) (–, –1]  [2, 4] (1) (–, –1]  [2, 4]
(2) (–, –1)  (2, 4) (2) (–, –1)  (2, 4)
(3) (–1, 2)
(3) (–1, 2)
(4) (–1, 2)  (4, )
(4) (–1, 2)  (4, )
42. ;fn A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6} rFkk
42. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B = {3, 4, 5, 6} and
C = {5, 6, 7, 8}, rc n((A – B)  C) gS
C = {5, 6, 7, 8}, then n((A – B)  C) is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) 2 (4) 3
[k.M - II
SECTION - II
la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u: bl [k.M esa 00 ls 99 dh
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section ijkl esa 3 la[;kRed eku çdkj ds ç'u gSaA mÙkj ds
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
fy, fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa ds vuqlkj OMR esa mfpr xksys dks
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
dkyk djuk gSA mnkgj.k- ;fn ç'u la[;k X, Y rFkk Z
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer (ekuk) ds lgh mÙkj Øe'k% 76, 0 rFkk 9 gks]a rks OMR esa
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and Øe'k% 76, 00 rFkk 09 dks dkyk djuk gSA
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
respectively. X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 43. ;fn A = {2}, rc P(P(P(A))) esa vo;oksa dh la[;k
Kkr dhft,A (tgk¡ P(A), A ds ?kkr leqPp; dks
43. If A = {2}, then number of elements in P(P(P(A))) n'kkZrk gSA)
is (where P(A) denotes power set of A)
44. ;fn n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6, n(C) = 7, n(A  C) = 4,
44. If n(A) = 5, n(B) = 6, n(C) = 7, n(A  C) = 4, then
rc (A × B × C)  (C × B × A) esa vo;oksa dh la[;k
the number of elements in
Kkr dhft,A
(A × B × C)  (C × B × A) is
45. ;fn n() = 70, n(A) = 35 rFkk n(B) = 45, tgk¡
45. If n() = 70, n(A) = 35 and n(B) = 45 where is
lkoZf=d leqPp; gS] rc n(A B) dk U;wure
universal set, then minimum value of
n(A B) is
eku Kkr dhft,A




Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 8]