Gravitational Potential

(a) State the law that governs the magnitude of the force between two point masses.
1.
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(2)
(b) The table shows how the gravitational potential varies for three points above the centre of
the Sun.
distance from centre of Sun/108 m gravitational potential/1010 J kg–1
7.0 (surface of Sun) –19
16 –8.3
35 –3.8
(i) Show that the data suggest that the potential is inversely proportional to the distance
from the centre of the Sun.
(2)
(ii) Use the data to determine the gravitational field strength near the surface of the Sun.
(3)
Haberdashers Monmouth School For Girls Page 1 of 91

(iii) Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy needed for the Earth to escape
from the gravitational attraction of the Sun.
mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg

distance of Earth from centre of Sun = 1.5 × 1011 m
(3)
(iv) Calculate the kinetic energy of the Earth due to its orbital speed around the Sun and
hence find the minimum energy that would be needed for the Earth to escape from its
orbit. Assume that the Earth moves in a circular orbit.
(3)
(Total 13 marks)

Graph 1 shows the variation of electric field strength E with separation r for two point charges.
2.
Graph 2 shows the corresponding variation of electric potential V with separation.
Which line in the table correctly relates data for the two graphs?
Magnitude of electric field strength at Magnitude of electric potential at

separation d separation d
A Gradient of graph 2 at separation d Area under graph 1 from separation d to ∞
B Area under graph 2 from separation d to ∞ Area under graph 1 from separation d to ∞
C Gradient of graph 2 at separation d Gradient of graph 1 at separation d
D Area under graph 2 from separation d to ∞ Gradient of graph 1 at separation d
(Total 1 mark)
3. g is the strength of the gravitational field at the surface of the Earth; R is the radius of the Earth.
The potential energy lost by a satellite of mass m falling to the Earth’s surface from a height R
above the surface is
A 4mgR
B 2mgR
D
(Total 1 mark)

A mass of 5 kg is moved in a gravitational field from a point X at which the gravitational potential
4.
is –20 J kg–1 to a point Y where it is –10 J kg–1. The change in potential energy of the mass, in J,
between X and Y is
A –50
B –10
C +10
D +50
(Total 1 mark)
For an object, such as a space rocket, to escape from the gravitational attraction of the Earth it
5. must be given an amount of energy equal to the gravitational potential energy that it has on the
Earth’s surface. The minimum initial vertical velocity at the surface of the Earth that it requires to
achieve this is known as the escape velocity.
(a) (i) Write down the equation for the gravitational potential energy of a rocket when it is on
the Earth’s surface. Take the mass of the Earth to be M, that of the rocket to be m
and the radius of the Earth to be R.
(1)
(ii) Show that the escape velocity, v, of the rocket is given by the equation
(2)
(b) The nominal escape velocity from the Earth is 11.2 km s–1. Calculate a value for the escape
velocity from a planet of mass four times that of the Earth and radius twice that of the
Earth.
(2)

(c) Explain why the actual escape velocity from the Earth would be greater than the nominal
value calculated from the equation given in part (a)(ii).
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(2)
(Total 7 marks)
(a) The graph shows how the gravitational potential varies with distance in the region above
6.
the surface of the Earth. R is the radius of the Earth, which is 6400 km. At the surface of
the Earth, the gravitational potential is −62.5 MJ kg–1.
Use the graph to calculate
(i) the gravitational potential at a distance 2R from the centre of the Earth,
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(ii) the increase in the potential energy of a 1200 kg satellite when it is raised from the
surface of the Earth into a circular orbit of radius 3R.
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(4)

(b) (i) Write down an equation which relates gravitational field strength and gravitational
potential.
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(ii) By use of the graph in part (a), calculate the gravitational field strength at a distance
2R from the centre of the Earth.
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(iii) Show that your result for part (b)(ii) is consistent with the fact that the surface
gravitational field strength is about 10 N kg–1.
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(5)
(Total 9 marks)

When a deuterium nucleus and a tritium nucleus overcome their Coulomb barrier and fuse
7.
together they may be considered as charged spheres in contact. The constant ro which relates
the nuclear radius, R, to the cube root of the mass number A may be assumed to be 1.3 fm.
(a) (i) Calculate the radius of the deuterium nucleus and, R, the radius of the tritium nucleus
before fusion.
RD ___________________________________________________________
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RT ____________________________________________________________
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(ii) Calculate the minimum energy, in MeV, which must be supplied to the deuterium
nucleus and the tritium nucleus when they fuse together.
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(5)
(b) Estimate the temperature at which deuterium and tritium nuclei would have enough kinetic
energy to undergo fusion.
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(3)
(Total 8 marks)

The gravitational field associated with a planet is radial, as shown in Figure 1, but near the
8. surface it is effectively uniform, as shown in Figure 2.
Alongside each figure, sketch a graph to show how the gravitational potential V associated with
the planet varies with distance r (measured outwards from the surface of the planet) in each of
these cases.
Figure 1
Figure 2
(Total 4 marks)
The gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet, X, is 19 N kg–1.

9.
(a) (i) Calculate the gravitational potential difference between the surface of X and a point
10 m above the surface, if the gravitational field can be considered to be uniform over
such a small distance.
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(ii) Calculate the minimum amount of energy required to lift a 9.0 kg rock a vertical
distance of 10 m from the surface of X.
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(iii) State whether the minimum amount of energy you have found in part (ii) would be
different if the 9.0 kg mass were lifted a vertical distance of 10 m from a point near
the top of the highest mountain of planet X. Explain your answer.
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(3)
(b) Calculate the gravitational field strength at the surface of another planet, Y, that has the
same mass as planet X, but twice the diameter of X.
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(2)
(Total 5 marks)
(a) Define the electric field strength at a point in an electric field.

10.
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(2)
(b) Figure 1 shows a point charge of +46 μC placed 120 mm from a point charge Q.
Figure 1

Position P is on the line joining the charges at a distance 66 mm from charge Q.
The resultant electric field strength at position P is zero.
Calculate the charge Q.
Q = ____________________ C
(3)
(c) Explain, without calculation, whether net work must be done in moving a proton from infinity
to position P in Figure 1.
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(2)

(d) A small rubber ball coated with a conducting paint carries a positive charge.
The ball is suspended in equilibrium from a vertical wall by an uncharged non-conducting
thread of negligible mass. The wall is positively charged and produces a horizontal uniform
electric field perpendicular to the wall along the whole of its length.
Figure 2 shows that the thread makes an angle of 30° to the wall.
Figure 2
The thread breaks.
Explain the motion of the ball.
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(2)
(Total 9 marks)
The gravitational potential difference between the surface of a planet and a point P, 10 m above
11.
the surface, is 8.0 J kg− 1 . Assuming a uniform field, what is the value of the gravitational field
strength in the region between the planet’s surface and P?

A 0.80 N kg− 1
B 1.25 N kg− 1
C 8.0 N kg− 1
D 80 N kg− 1
(Total 1 mark)
Which one of the following has different units to the other three?
12.
A gravitational potential
B gravitational field strength
C force per unit mass
D gravitational potential gradient

(Total 1 mark)
Communications satellites are usually placed in a geo-synchronous orbit.

13.
(a) State two features of a geo-synchronous orbit.
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(2)
(b) Given that the mass of the Earth is 6.00 × 1024 kg and its mean radius is 6.40 × 106 m,
(i) show that the radius of a geo-synchronous orbit must be 4.23 × 107 m,
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(ii) calculate the increase in potential energy of a satellite of mass 750 kg when it is
raised from the Earth’s surface into a geo-synchronous orbit.
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(6)
(Total 8 marks)
(a) Complete the table of quantities related to fields. In the second column, write an SI unit for
14. each quantity. In the third column indicate whether the quantity is a scalar or a vector.
quantity SI unit scalar or vector
gravitational potential
electric field strength
magnetic flux density
(3)
(b) (i) A charged particle is held in equilibrium by the force resulting from a vertical electric
field. The mass of the particle is 4.3 × 10–9 kg and it carries a charge of magnitude
3.2 × 10–12 C. Calculate the strength of the electric field.
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(ii) If the electric field acts upwards, state the sign of the charge carried by the particle
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(3)
(Total 6 marks)

At a distance R from a fixed charge, the electric field strength is E and the electric potential is V.
15. Which line, A to D, gives the electric field strength and electric potential at a distance 2R from the
charge?
electric field strength electric potential
(Total 1 mark)
(a) Explain what is meant by the gravitational potential at a point in a gravitational field.
16.
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(2)
(b) Use the following data to calculate the gravitational potential at the surface of the Moon.
mass of Earth = 81 × mass of Moon

radius of Earth = 3.7 × radius of Moon
gravitational potential at surface of the Earth = –63 MJ kg–1
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(3)

(c) Sketch a graph on the axes below to indicate how the gravitational potential varies with
distance along a line outwards from the surface of the Earth to the surface of the Moon.
(3)
(Total 8 marks)
Near the surface of a planet the gravitational field is uniform and for two points, 10 m apart
17.
vertically, the gravitational potential difference is 3 J kg–1. How much work must be done in
raising a mass of 4 kg vertically through 5 m?
A 3J
B 6J
C 12 J
D 15 J
(Total 1 mark)

The graph shows how the gravitational potential, V, varies with the distance, r , from the centre of
18. the Earth.
What does the gradient of the graph at any point represent?
A the magnitude of the gravitational field strength at that point
B the magnitude of the gravitational constant
C the mass of the Earth
D the potential energy at the point where the gradient is measured

(Total 1 mark)
The diagram shows two positions, X and Y, at different heights on the surface of the Earth.
19.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives correct comparisons at X and Y for gravitational potential
and angular velocity?
gravitational potential at X angular velocity at X

compared with Y compared with Y
A greater greater
B greater same
C greater smaller
D same same
(Total 1 mark)

Two protons are 1.0 × 10–14 m apart. Approximately how many times is the electrostatic force
20.
between them greater than the gravitational force between them?
A 1023
B 1030
C 1036
D 1042
(Total 1 mark)
When at the surface of the Earth, a satellite has weight W and gravitational potential energy –U.
21. It is projected into a circular orbit whose radius is equal to twice the radius of the Earth. Which
line, A to D, in the table shows correctly what happens to the weight of the satellite and to its
gravitational potential energy?
gravitational potential
weight
energy
A becomes increases by
B becomes increases by
C remains W increases by U
D becomes increases by U
(Total 1 mark)
A 10 mF capacitor is charged to 10 V and then discharged completely through a small motor.

22. During the process, the motor lifts a weight of mass 0.10 kg. If 10% of the energy stored in the
capacitor is used to lift the weight, through what approximate height will the weight be lifted?
A 0.05 m
B 0.10 m
C 0.50 m
D 1.00 m
(Total 1 mark)

Which one of the following could be a unit of gravitational potential?
23.
A N
B J
C N kg–1
D J kg–1
(Total 1 mark)
(a) (i) State the relationship between the gravitational potential energy, Ep, and the
24. gravitational potential, V, for a body of mass m placed in a gravitational field.
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(1)
(ii) What is the effect, if any, on the values of Ep and V if the mass m is doubled?
value of Ep _____________________________________________________
value of V _____________________________________________________
(2)

(b)
The diagram above shows two of the orbits, A and B, that could be occupied by a satellite
in circular orbit around the Earth, E.
The gravitational potential due to the Earth of each of these orbits is:
orbit A – 12.0 MJ kg–1

orbit B – 36.0 MJ kg–1.
(i) Calculate the radius, from the centre of the Earth, of orbit A.
answer = ____________________ m
(2)
(ii) Show that the radius of orbit B is approximately 1.1 × 104 km.
(1)
(iii) Calculate the centripetal acceleration of a satellite in orbit B.
answer = ____________________ m s–2

(2)

(iv) Show that the gravitational potential energy of a 330 kg satellite decreases by about 8
GJ when it moves from orbit A to orbit B.
(1)
(c) Explain why it is not possible to use the equation ∆Ep = mg∆h when determining the
change in the gravitational potential energy of a satellite as it moves between these orbits.
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(1)
(Total 10 marks)
The diagram shows two positions, X and Y, on the Earth’s surface.

25.
Which line, A to D, in the table gives correct comparisons at X and Y for gravitational potential
and angular velocity?
gravitational potential at X angular velocity at X

compared with Y compared with Y
A greater greater
B greater same
C greater smaller
D same same
(Total 1 mark)

(a) Explain why the mass of an object is constant but its weight may change.
26.
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(3)
(b) The table gives the gravitational potentials, V, at three different distances, r, from the centre
of the Earth.
distance from centre of Earth gravitational potential

r / km V / 107 J kg–1
7500 –5.36
12500 –3.22
22500 –1.79
(i) Explain why the gravitational potential at a point in a gravitational field is negative.
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(2)

(ii) Show that the data in the table are consistent with V r –1.
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(3)
(iii) A satellite of mass 450 kg is moved from an orbit of radius 7500 km around the Earth
to an orbit of radius 12 500 km.
Use data from the table to show that the potential energy of the satellite increases,
by about 10 GJ.
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(2)

(c) The kinetic energy of a 450 kg satellite orbiting the Earth with a radius of 7500 km is 12 GJ.
(i) Calculate the kinetic energy of the 450 kg satellite when it is in an orbit of radius
12 500 km.
mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg
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kinetic energy ______________________ GJ

(4)
(ii) Calculate the change in kinetic energy of the satellite when it moves into the higher
orbit.
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change in kinetic energy ______________________ GJ

(1)
(iii) Calculate the total energy that has to be supplied to move the 450 kg satellite from
an orbit of radius 7500 km to an orbit of radius 12 500 km.
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total energy ______________________ GJ

(1)
(Total 16 marks)

At the surface of the Earth the gravitational field strength is g, and the gravitational potential is V.
27. The radius of the Earth is R. An object, whose weight on the surface of the Earth is W, is moved
to a height 3R above the surface. Which line, A to D, in the table gives the weight of the object
and the gravitational potential at this height?
gravitational
weight
potential
(Total 1 mark)
A 10 μF capacitor is fully charged to a pd of 3.0 kV. The energy stored in the capacitor can be
28. used to lift a load of 5.0 kg through a vertical height h. What is the approximate value of h?
A 0.03 mm
B 0.9 mm
C 0.3 m
D 0.9 m
(Total 1 mark)

The figure below shows the variation of gravitational potential, V, with distance from the centre of
29.
the Earth, r. The radius of the Earth is 6.4 × 106 m.
(a) Explain why the V values are negative.
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(3)
(b) Use data from the graph to show that the mass of the Earth is approximately 6 × 1024 kg.
(3)

(c) (i) Calculate the work done in raising a satellite of mass 2100 kg from the surface of the
Earth to a height of 850 km above the surface of the Earth.
work done ______________________ J

(3)
(ii) Calculate the change in the kinetic energy of the satellite when it moves from its 850
km orbit to one at a height of 700 km above the Earth’s surface. Make it clear
whether the change in kinetic energy is an increase or decrease.
kinetic energy change ______________________ J

(4)
(iii) Without performing any further calculations explain how the change in kinetic energy
relates to the change of the potential energy when the satellite’s orbit alters as in part
(c)(ii).
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(2)
(Total 15 marks)

The gravitational potential at the surface of the Earth, of radius R, is V. What is the gravitational
30.
potential at a point at a height R above the Earth’s surface?
C V
D 2V
(Total 1 mark)
The diagram shows two points, P and Q, at distances r and 2r from the centre of a planet.
31.
The gravitational potential at P is −16 kJ kg−1. What is the work done on a 10 kg mass when it is
taken from P to Q?
A – 120 kJ
B – 80 kJ
C + 80 kJ
D + 120 kJ
(Total 1 mark)
Which one of the following statements about gravitational fields is incorrect?

32.
A Moving a mass in the direction of the field lines reduces its potential energy.
B A stronger field is represented by a greater density of field lines.
C Moving a mass perpendicularly across the field lines does not alter its potential energy.
D At a distance r from a mass the field strength is inversely proportional to r.

(Total 1 mark)

When a charge moves between two points in an electric field, or a mass moves between two
33. points in a gravitational field, energy may be transferred.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A No energy is transferred when the movement is parallel to the direction of the field.
B The energy transferred is independent of the path followed.
C The energy transferred is independent of the start and finish points.
D Energy is transferred when the movement is perpendicular to the field lines.

(Total 1 mark)
Mars has a diameter approximately 0.5 that of the Earth, and a mass of 0.1 that of the Earth. The
34.
gravitational potential at the Earth’s surface is −63 MJ kg–1.
What is the approximate value of the gravitational potential at the surface of Mars?
A −13 MJ kg–1
B −25 MJ kg–1
C −95 MJ kg–1
D −320 MJ kg–1
(Total 1 mark)

A uniform electric field of electric field strength E is aligned so it is vertical. An ion moves
35.
vertically through a small distance Δd from point X to point Y in the field.
There is a uniform gravitational field of field strength g throughout the region.
Which line, A to D, in the table correctly gives the gravitational potential difference, and the
electric potential difference, between X and Y?
Gravitational potential Electric potential

difference difference
A gΔd EΔd
B gΔd
C EΔd
(Total 1 mark)
Which one of the following statements about gravitational potential is correct?

36.
A gravitational potential can have a positive value
B the gravitational potential at the surface of the Earth is zero
C the gravitational potential gradient at a point has the same numerical value as the
gravitational field strength at that point
D the unit of gravitational potential is N kg–1

(Total 1 mark)
(a) (i) State what is meant by the term escape velocity.

37.
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(1)

(ii) Show that the escape velocity, v, at the Earth’s surface is given by v =
where M is the mass of the Earth

and R is the radius of the Earth.
(2)
(iii) The escape velocity at the Moon’s surface is 2.37 × 10 3 m s–1 and the radius of the
Moon is 1.74 × 106 m.
Determine the mean density of the Moon.
mean density ____________________ kg m–3

(2)
(b) State two reasons why rockets launched from the Earth’s surface do not need to achieve
escape velocity to reach their orbit.
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(2)
(Total 7 marks)
Which one of the following statements about gravitational potential is incorrect?

38.
A It is analogous to the electric potential at a point in an electric field.
B It is equal to the gravitational potential energy of a mass of 1 kg.
C It is a vector quantity.
D The difference in gravitational potential between two points at different heights

above the Earth depends on the position of the points.
The Rosetta space mission placed a robotic probe on Comet 67P in 2014.
39.
(a) The total mass of the Rosetta spacecraft was 3050 kg. This included the robotic probe of
mass 108 kg and 1720 kg of propellant. The propellant was used for changing velocity
while travelling in deep space where the gravitational field strength is negligible.
Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy of the Rosetta spacecraft from launch
until it was in deep space.
Give your answer to an appropriate number of significant figures.
Mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg

Radius of the Earth = 6400 km
change in gravitational potential energy ____________________ J

(4)
(b) As it approached the comet, the speed of the Rosetta spacecraft was reduced to match
that of the comet. This was done in stages using four ‘thrusters’. These were fired
simultaneously in the same direction.
Explain how the propellant produces the thrust.
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(3)

(c) Each thruster provided a constant thrust of 11 N.
Calculate the deceleration of the Rosetta spacecraft produced by the four thrusters when
its mass was 1400 kg.
decleration ____________________ m s–2

(1)
(d) Calculate the maximum change in speed that could be produced using the 1720 kg of
propellants.
Assume that the speed of the exhaust gases produced by the propellant was 1200 m s–1
maximum change in speed ____________________ m s–1

(3)

(e) When the robotic probe landed, it had to be anchored to the comet due to the low
gravitational force. Comet 67P has a mass of about 1.1 × 1013 kg. A possible landing site
was about 2.0 km from the centre of mass.
(i) Calculate the gravitational force acting on the robotic probe when at a distance of 2.0
km from the centre of mass of the comet.
gravitational force ____________________ N

(3)
(ii) Calculate the escape velocity for an object 2.0 km from the centre of mass of the
comet.
escape velocity ____________________ m s–1

(3)
(iii) A scientist suggests using a drill to make a vertical hole in a rock on the surface of
the comet. The anchoring would be removed from the robotic probe before the drill
was used. The drill would exert a force of 25 N for 4.8 s.
Explain, with the aid of a calculation, whether this process would cause the robotic
probe to escape from the comet.
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(3)
(Total 20 marks)

X and Y are two stars of equal mass M. The distance between their centres is d.
40.
What is the gravitational potential at the mid-point P between them?
(Total 1 mark)
The radius of a planet is R. The gravitational potential at the surface of the planet due to its mass
41.
is −4000 J kg−1.
What is the gravitational potential at a distance 2R from the centre of the planet?
A −1000 J kg−1
B −2000 J kg−1
C −4000 J kg−1
D −8000 J kg−1
(Total 1 mark)
(a) Define the gravitational potential at a point.

42.
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(2)

(b) Explain why gravitational potential is always negative.
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(2)
(c) Show that the magnitude of the gravitational potential at the Earth’s surface due to the
mass of the Earth is about 6.3 × 107 J kg−1.
(2)
(d) A satellite is launched into a geostationary orbit.
Describe and explain two features of a geostationary orbit.
1. _________________________________________________________________
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2. _________________________________________________________________
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(2)

(e) The satellite has a mass of 1200 kg and the radius of its orbit is 4.23 × 107 m.
Calculate the gain in gravitational potential energy of the satellite when it is placed into orbit
from the Earth’s surface.
gain in potential energy = ________________________J

(3)
(f) Impulse engines are used to place the satellite into an orbit with a longer period.
Discuss any changes this makes to the orbital motion of the satellite.
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(4)
(Total 15 marks)

Planet N has a gravitational potential –V at its surface. Planet M has double the density and
43.
double the radius of planet N. Both planets are spherical and have uniform density.
What is the gravitational potential at the surface of planet M?
A –16V
B –8V
C –4V
D –0.2V
(Total 1 mark)
The diagram shows equipotential lines near a group of asteroids.

44.
Which arrow shows the direction of the gravitational field at X?
A ↑
B ↓
C ←
D →
(Total 1 mark)
(a) Derive an expression to show that for satellites in a circular orbit
45.
T2 ∝ r3
where T is the period of orbit and r is the radius of the orbit.

(2)
(b) Pluto is a dwarf planet. The mean orbital radius of Pluto around the Sun is 5.91 × 109 km
compared to a mean orbital radius of 1.50 × 108 km for the Earth.
Calculate in years the orbital period of Pluto.
orbital period of Pluto = ____________________ yr

(2)

(c) A small mass released from rest just above the surface of Pluto has an acceleration of
0.617 m s–2.
Assume Pluto has no atmosphere that could provide any resistance to motion.
Calculate the mass of Pluto.
Give your answer to an appropriate number of significant figures.
radius of Pluto = 1.19 × 106 m
mass of Pluto = ____________________ kg

(3)

(d) The graph shows the variation in gravitational potential with distance from the centre of
Pluto for points at and above its surface.
A meteorite hits Pluto and ejects a lump of ice from the surface that travels vertically at an
initial speed of 1400 m s–1.
Determine whether this lump of ice can escape from Pluto.
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(3)
(Total 10 marks)

The graph shows how the gravitational potential varies with distance between two planets, K and
46. L, that have the same radius.
Which statement is correct?
A The mass of L is greater than the mass of K.
B The gravitational field strength at the surface of L is greater than that at the
surface of K.
C The escape velocity from planet L is greater than that from planet K.
D More work must be done to move a mass of 1 kg from the surface of K to a

distant point, than 1 kg from the surface of L.
(Total 1 mark)
The diagram shows equipotential lines for a uniform gravitational field. The lines are separated
47. by 20 m.

An object of mass 4 kg is moved from P to Q.
What is the work done against gravity to move the object?
A 7.2 J
B 7.8 J
C 10.2 J
D 36 J
(Total 1 mark)
(a) Define gravitational potential at a point.

48.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) The diagram shows the positions of equipotential surfaces at different distances from the
centre of the Moon.
Explain how the equipotential surfaces in the diagram show that the gravitational field is
not uniform.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(c) Calculate, using the diagram above, the escape velocity at the surface of the Moon.
radius of Moon = 1.74 × 106 m
escape velocity = ____________________ m s–1

(4)
(Total 6 marks)

(a) Describe two properties of a radial gravitational field.
49.
1 _________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
2 _________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2)
A space probe is launched from the Earth’s surface.
The figure below shows how the gravitational force acting on the space probe varies with height
above the Earth’s surface.
(b) State the physical significance of the shaded area in the figure above.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1)
At the Earth’s surface,

• the gravitational field strength of the Sun is gS
• the gravitational field strength of the Earth is gE.

(c) Calculate .
distance from the Earth to the Sun = 1.50 × 1011 m
= ____________________
(2)
(d) Explain why gS is more important than gE in predicting the motion of the space probe as it
escapes from the Solar System.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(e) The space probe eventually reaches a point where the gravitational influence of the Solar
System is negligible.
The probe is unpowered as it approaches an isolated interstellar body X.
The gravitational field of X changes the kinetic energy of the space probe.
The table below shows the distance of the space probe from the centre of mass of X and
the speed for two positions A and B of the space probe.
Distance of space probe from

Speed of space probe / 103 m s−1
centre of mass of X / 106 m
A 6.0 1.1
B 0.17 1.3

The space probe has a mass of 4.9 × 104 kg.
Calculate the mass of X.
mass of X = ____________________ kg
(4)
(Total 10 marks)
Which row shows two scalar quantities?

50.
A gravitational potential gravitational field strength
B mass gravitational potential
C gravitational field strength weight
D weight gravitational potential
(Total 1 mark)

The diagram shows gravitational equipotentials. Adjacent equipotentials are separated by an
51.
equal gravitational potential difference V.
Which point has the greatest gravitational field strength?
(Total 1 mark)

The graph shows how the gravitational potential V varies with the vertical distance d from the
52.
surface of the Earth.
What does the gradient of the graph represent at the surface of the Earth?
A potential energy
B mass of the Earth
C magnitude of the gravitational constant
D magnitude of the gravitational field strength
(Total 1 mark)
The Global Positioning System (GPS) uses satellites to support navigation on Earth.
53.

(a) One GPS satellite is in a circular orbit at a height h above the surface of the Earth.
The Earth has mass M and radius R.
Show that the angular speed of the satellite is given by
(2)
(b) Calculate the orbital period of the satellite when h equals 2.02 × 107 m.
orbital period = _______________ s

(2)

(c) The figure below shows the orbital plane of the satellite inclined at an angle to the equator.
X, Y and Z are locations on the Earth.
X is at the North Pole, Y is on a high mountain and Z is on the equator.
The satellite is to be launched from one of the locations.
State and explain which launch site X, Y or Z minimises the amount of fuel required to send
the satellite into its orbit.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) The satellite has a mass of 1630 kg.
Calculate the gravitational potential energy of the satellite when in the orbit in part (b).
gravitational potential energy = _______________ J

(2)
(e) A different satellite is in a higher circular orbit.
Explain how the linear speed of this satellite compares with the linear speed of the satellite
in part (a).
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 10 marks)

Data are collected for the mass M, radius R and escape velocity u for each planet in the Solar
54.
System.
The data show that u is directly proportional to
(Total 1 mark)

The graph below shows how the gravitational potential energy, Ep, of a 1.0 kg mass varies with
55. distance, r, from the centre of Mars. The graph is plotted for positions above the surface of Mars.
(a) Explain why the values of Ep are negative.
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(b) Use data from the graph to determine the mass of Mars.
mass of Mars ____________________ kg

(3)

(c) Calculate the escape velocity for an object on the surface of Mars.
escape velocity ____________________ m s–1

(3)
(d) Show that the graph data agree with
(3)
(Total 11 marks)

Mark schemes
(a) force is proportional to the product of the two masses
1.
B1
force is inversely proportional to the square of their separation

(condone radius between masses)
or
equation M0 : masses defined A1 separation defined A1
B1
2
(b) (i) appreciation that potential x distance from centre of sun =

constant
or calculation of Vr for two sets of values (1.33 × 1020)
or uses distance ratio to calculate new V or r
C1
calculation of all three + conclusion

or uses distance ratios twice+ conclusion
conclusion must be more than ‘numbers are same’
(condone ‘signs’ and no use of powers of 10)
A1
2
(ii) V = GM/r and g = GM/r2

or
g = V/r (no mark for E or g= V/d or E = V/r )
B1
substitution of one set of data to obtain GM (1.33 × 1020)

or 19 × 1010/7 × 108 seen
B1
271 N kg−1 (m s−2) (J kg−1 m−1)
B1
3

(iii) potential energy of the Earth = (−)GMm/r
or potential difference formula + r2 =∞
or potential at position of Earth = −8.87 × 108 J kg−1
(from Vr =1.33 × 1020)
C1
correct substitution (allow ecf for GM from (ii))

or
potential energy = potential x mass of Earth
C1
change in PE = 5.32 × 1033 J (cnao)

Fd approach is PE so 0 marks
A1
3
(iv) speed of Earth round Sun = 2πr/T or

or 3.0 × 104 m s−1
or KE=
B1
KE of Earth = ½ 6 × 1024 × their v2 (2.68 × 1033J)
B1
energy needed = difference between (iii) and orbital KE

(2.64 × 1033 J)
or KE in orbit = half total energy needed to

escape (−1 for AE)
B1
3
[13]
A
2.
[1]
C
3.
[1]
D
4.
[1]

5.
(a) (i) g.p.e. = must be equation (condone “V =”)
B1
1
(ii) equate with k.e. must be seen
M1
cancelling correct m must be seen
A1
2
(b) correct ratios taken ( )
C1
v = 15.8(4) km s–1
A1
2
(c) mention of air resistance
M1
k.e. of rocket → internal energy of rocket and atmosphere/

work is done against air resistance
A1
2
[7]
(a) (i) –31 MJ kg–1 (1)

6.
(ii) increase in potential energy = mΔV (1)
= 1200 × (62 – 21) × 106 (1)
= 4.9 × 1010 J (1)
(4)
(b) (i) g=– (1)
(ii) g is the gradient of the graph = (1)
= 2.44 N kg–1 (1)

(iii) g∝ and R is doubled (1)
expect g to be = 2.45 N kg–1 (1)
[alternative (iii)
g∝ and R is halved (1)
expect g to be 2.44 × 4 = 9.76 N kg–1 (1)]

(5)
[9]
7. (a) (i) RD = 1.3 × 21/3 = 1.64 fm (1) RT = 1.3 × 31/3 = 1.64 fm (1)
(ii) energy at ‘contact’ = (1)
= 6.56 × 10–14 J (1)
= 4.10 MeV (1)

(max 5)
(b) energy of nucleus = 3/2 kT (1)

6.56 × 10–14 = 3/2 × 1.38 × 10–23 × T (1)
gives T = 3.2 × 109 K (1) (marks available for alternative
sensible use of energy data)
reference to range of speeds (or energies) of nuclei (or atoms) (1)

(max 3)
[8]

8.
gradient decreases as r increases (1)

V increases as r increases (1)
only negative values of V shown (1)
constant gradient (1)

V increases as r increases (1)
[max 4]
9.
(a) (i) 19 = (–) gives ΔV = 190 (1) J kg–1 (1)
(ii) W(= mΔV) = 9.0 × 190 = 1710J [or mgh = 9.0 × 19 × 10 = 1710J] (1)
(iii) on mountain, required energy would be less

because gravitational field strength is less (1)
max 3
(b) g∝ (or F ∝ or correct use of F = ) (1)
∴ g′ = = 4.75(Nkg–1) (1)
2
[5]

(a) (The electric field strength at a point) is the force per unit charge ✔
10.
On a (small) positive charge (at that point) ✔
(only given if an attempt is made at the first mark)
An equation is not sufficient unless the symbols are defined. Unit
charge can be replaced by coulomb.
(Reference to a point is not needed as it is in the question but a
reference to moving between points or other points can cancel a
mark.)
If “mass” appears in the answer, it must be a synonym for “object”.
2
(b) (At B) the (magnitude) of the electric field strength due to Q = the magnitude of the electric
field strength due to the 46 μC charge ✔
= 6.9 × 10–5 (C) ✔ (68.7 μC rounding must be correct)

This first mark may be inferred from the equation but must refer to
an electric field.
(Note: the answer 5.6 × 10–5 shows that an inverse square has not
been used).
A correct answer gains full marks.
Allow first and second marks even with arithmetic errors ie 10–6
missing, distances in mm and the constant 4πεo not present.
Award one mark if they use the inverse square coulomb law
equation to correctly calculate one side of the equation (
=) 1.4 × 108.
3
(c) Work must be done on the positive proton because P is at a positive potential
OR
Work must be done (on the positive proton) due to the repulsive forces / because like
charges repel OWTTE ✔
The potential at infinity is zero ✔

2
(d) (As the ball falls) it experiences both vertical and horizontal forces/accelerations ✔
The ball is given a constant acceleration
OR
The motion is in a straight line

OR
The motion is at 30° to the vertical (away from the wall) ✔
In this 2nd mark a wrong answer will gain zero marks even if accompanied by a correct
answer
‘Horizontal’ needs to be accompanied by some implication that it is
away from the wall. This may be by some reference to repulsion
from the wall.
Moves diagonally can imply straight.
“Moving away and downwards” does not imply straight.
Do not credit “horizontal straight line” or “vertical straight line.”
‘Gravity ‘ on its own is not a force whereas weight is.
2
[9]
A
11.
[1]
A
12.
[1]
(a) period = 24 hours or equals period of Earth’s rotation (1)

13. remains in fixed position relative to surface of Earth (1)
equatorial orbit (1)
same angular speed as Earth or equatorial surface (1)
max 2
(b) (i) = mω2r (1)
T= (1)
(1)
(gives r = 42.3 × 103 km)

(ii) ΔV = GM (1)
= 6.67 × 10–11 × 6 × 1024 ×
= 5.31 × 107 (J kg–1) (1)
ΔEp = mΔV (= 750 × 5.31 × 107) = 3.98 × 1010 J (1)
(allow C.E. for value of ΔV)
[alternatives:
calculation of (6.25 × 107) or (9.46 × 106) (1)
or calculation of (4.69 × 1010) or (7.10× 109) (1)
calculation of both potential energy values (1)

subtraction of values or use of mΔV with correct answer (1)]
6
[8]
(a)
14.
quantity SI unit
(gravitational potential) J kg–1 or N m kg –1 scalar
(electric field strength) N C–1 or V m–1 vector
(magnetic flux density T or Wb m–2 or N A–1 m–1 vector
6 entries correct (1) (1) (1)

4 or 5 entries correct (1) (1)
2 or 3 entries correct (1)
3
(b) (i) mg = EQ (1)
= 1.32 × 104 (V m–1) (1)
(ii) positive (1)

3
[6]
C
15.
[1]
(a) work done/energy change (against the field) per unit mass (1)
16. when moved from infinity to the point (1)
2
(b) VE = – and VM = – (1)
VM = – G × × = VE (1)
= 4.57 × 10–2 × (–63) = –2.9 MJ kg–1 (1) (2.88 MJ kg–1)

3
(c)
limiting values (–63,–VM) on correctly curving line (1)

rises to value close to but below zero (1)
falls to Moon (1)
from point much closer to M than E (1)
max 3
[8]
B
17.
[1]
A
18.
[1]
B
19.
[1]
C
20.
[1]
B
21.
[1]
A
22.
[1]

D
23.
[1]
(a) (i) relationship between them is Ep = mV (allow ΔEp = mΔV) [or V

24. is energy per unit mass (or per kg)] (1)
1
(ii) value of Ep is doubled (1)
value of V is unchanged (1)

2
(b) (i) use of V = gives rA = (1)
= 3.3(2) × 107 (m) (1)

2
(ii) since V (1)
(which is ≈ 1.1 × 104 km)

1
(iii) centripetal acceleration gB = (1)
[allow use of 1.1 × 107 m from (b)(ii)]
= 3.2 (m s–2) (1)
[alternatively, since gB = (–) (1)
= 3.2 (m s–2) (1)]

2
(iv) use of ΔEp = mΔV gives ΔEp = 330 × (–12.0 – (–36.0)) × 106 (1)
(which is 7.9 × 109 J or ≈ 8 GJ)

1
(c) g is not constant over the distance involved
(or g decreases as height increases

or work done per metre decreases as height increases
or field is radial and/or not uniform) (1)
1
[10]
B
25.
[1]

(a) mass depends only on the amount of matter present owtte
26.
B1
weight is force between body and Earth/depends on g/mg/

gravitational field strength or answers in terms of Newton’s
gravitational law
B1
g (etc) varies at different points on and above the Earth or is

different on different planets etc
B1
3
(b) (i) reference is ‘infinity’ where potential is 0
B1
energy has to be put in/work has to be done to move

mass to infinity or a bodies energy/PE decreases as
a body moves from infinity towards the Earth
B1
2
(ii) need to show Vr to be constant, clear from algebra

or final statement
B1
two sets of data used correctly
B1
all three sets of data used correctly (4.02, 4.025, 4.028)
B1
3
(iii) energy change per kg = (5.36 – 3.22) × 107 (J)
B1
total change = 963 (960) × 107 J
B1
2

(c) (i) GMm/r2 = mv2/r or v = (GM/r)
C1
v2 = 3.2 × 107m2s–2 or v = 5670 ms–1
C1
use of KE = ½ mv2 using their v
C1
7.2 GJ
A1
4
(ii) KE changes by 4.8 GJ (allow ecf, 12 – their ci)
B1
1
(iii) total energy (supplied) = (4.8) GJ (cnao)
(allow 5.2 GJ using 10 GJ for change in Ep)

(allow variations due to rounding off if physics
is correct in previous parts)
B1
1
[16]
A
27.
[1]
D
28.
[1]
(a) work done per unit mass in bringing object from infinity to point
29.
B1
potential at infinity zero by definition
B1
work has been done by the field so potential at all points closer than
infinity negative
B1
3

(b) use of point on graph allow within ± small square
C1
substitution into V = −
C1
range from 590 – 6.90 × 1024 (kg)
A1
3
(c) (i) ∆Ep =
C1
addition of radius of Earth to give 7.25 × 106 (m)
C1
1.54 × 1010 (J)
A1
3
(ii) equates and
C1
to give ∆EK =
C1
1.25 × 109 J
A1
positive or increase
B1
4

(iii) (lower altitude so) gpe decreases ke increases
C1
loss of gpe is twice gain in ke
A1
2
[15]
B
30.
[1]
C
31.
[1]
D
32.
[1]
B
33.
[1]
A
34.
[1]
A
35.
[1]
C
36.
[1]
(a) (i) (Minimum) Speed (given at the Earth’s surface) that will allow an object to leave /
37. escape the (Earth’s) gravitational field (with no further energy input)
Not gravity
Condone gravitational pull / attraction
B1
1
(ii) ½ mv2 =
B1
Evidence of correct manipulation

At least one other step before answer
B1
2

(iii) Substitutes data and obtains M = 7.33 × 1022(kg)
or
Volume = (1.33 × 3.14 × (1.74 × 106)3 or 2.2 × 1019
or ρ =
C1
3300 (kg m-3 )
A1
2
(b) (Not given all their KE at Earth’s surface) energy continually

added in flight / continuous thrust provided / can use fuel
(continuously)
B1
Less energy needed to achieve orbit than to escape from

Earth’s gravitational field / it is not leaving the gravitational
field
B1
2
[7]
C
38.
[1]
(a) Total mass of spacecraft = 3050 kg

39.
Change in PE =
1.9 × 1011(J)
2 sf
condone errors in powers of 10 and incorrect mass for payload
Allow if some sensible working
4

(b) Chemical combustion of propellant / fuel or gases produced at high pressure
Gas is expelled / expands through nozzle
Change in momentum of gases escaping
equal and opposite change in momentum of the spacecraft
Thrust = rate of change of change in momentum

Max 3
N3 in terms of forces worth 1
3
(c) 0.031(4) (m s-2)

1
(d) Use of rocket equation

v = 1200 ln
996 (m s–1)
Condone 1000 (m s–1)
3
(e) (i) Use of correct mass 108 kg
0.0198 N
Allow incorrect powers of 10 and mass
3
(ii) Use of v =
Correct substitution v =
0.86 (m s-1)
Recognisable mass – condone incorrect power of 10
3
(iii) Impulse = 25 N × 4.8 = 120 N s
(120 = 108 v so) Velocity = 1.1 m s-1
Clear conclusion
ie explanation/comparison of calculated velocity with escape

velocity from (e)(ii)
May use F = ma approach
3
[20]

C
40.
[1]
41. B
[1]
(a) the work done per unit mass ✔

42.
in moving from infinity to the point ✔
2
(b) Gravitational potential is defined as zero at ∞ ✔
(Forces attractive) so work must be done (on a mass) to reach ∞ (hence negative) ✔
2
(c) V = − GM / r = 6.67 × 10−11 × 5.97 1024 / 6.37 × 106 ✔
= − 6.25 × 107 J kg−1 ✔

2
(d) in the plane of the equator
always above the same location on the earth
having the same period as the earth / 24 hours
✔✔any two lines

2
(e) V = − GM / r = 6.67 × 10−11 × 5.97 × 1024 / 4.23 × 107 = − 9.41 × 106 J kg−1 ✔
Ep = ΔV × m = = (6.26 − 0.94 )× 107 × 1200 ✔
= 6.38 × 1010 J ✔
3
(f) radius must increase ✔
velocity gets smaller ✔
reference to R3 is proportional to T2 ✔
reference (from circular motion) v2 is proportional to 1/r ✔

4
[15]
B
43.
[1]
C
44.
[1]

(a) (centripetal) force = m r ( 2 π / T )2 Or m r (ω)2
45.
(is given by the gravitational) force = G m M / r2 ✔ (mark for both
equations)
(equating both expressions and substituting for ω if required) T2 =
(4π2 / GM) r3 ✔ (4π2 / GM is constant, the constants may be on
either side of equation but T and r must be numerators)
First mark is for two equations (gravitational and centripetal)
The second mark is for combining.
2
(b) (use of T2 ∝ r3 so (TP / TE)2 = (rP / rE)3)

(TP /1.00)2 = (5.91 × 109 /1.50 × 108)3 ✔ (mark is for substitution of
given data into any equation that corresponds to the proportional
equation given above)
(TP2 = 61163)
TP = 250 (yr) ✔ (247 yr)
Answer only gains both marks
The calculation may be performed using data for the Sun in T2 =
(4π2 / GM) r3 easily spotted from Ms = 1.99 × 1030 kg giving a
similar answer 247 – 252 yr.
2
(c) using M (= g r2 / G) = 0.617 × (1.19 × 106)2 / 6.67 × 10–11 ✔

M = 1.31 × 1022 kg ✔
answer to 3 sig fig ✔ (this mark stands alone)
The last mark may be given from an incorrect calculation but not
lone wrong answer.
3

(d) Initial KE = ½ (m) 14002 = 9.8 × 105 (m) J✔
Energy needed to escape = 7.4 × 105 (m) J ✔
So sufficient energy to escape. ✔
OR For object on surface escape speed given by 7.4 × 105 = ½ v2

✔
escape speed = 1200 m s–1 ✔ (if correct equation is shown the
previous mark is awarded without substitution)
So sufficient (initial) speed to escape. ✔
OR escape velocity = substituting M from part (c) ✔
escape speed = 1200 m s–1 ✔ (1210 m s–1)

So sufficient (initial) speed to escape. ✔
OR escape velocity = substituting from data in (c) ✔

Third alternative may come from a CE from (c)
(1.06 × 10–8 × )
Conclusion must be explicit for third mark and cannot be awarded
from a CE
3
[10]
D
46.
[1]
A
47.
[1]
(a) the work done/energy required in bringing 1 kg/unit mass from infinity to the point ✔
48.
A test mass should not be taken to be a unit mass.
Ignore extra comments eg about charge.
1
(b) The potential difference between the lines is constant but the distances are not
Or
is changing ✔ (potentials ,inner 0.857, outer = 0.625)

Or
The equipotential surfaces are not straight / not parallel / are curved ✔
The mark is given for the idea that the separation should be uniform
or that equipotential lines should not be curved. Owtte Discussions
should not imply there is a correct curvature.
Errors can come from references to the moon to first equipotential
distance. Or by saying the potential gaps are not uniform or by
saying the distance from the centre of the Moon is not proportional
to the potential.
1
(c) M = mass of Moon = ✔1
✔1 The mark is given for use and rearranging the equation so errors
may be seen in the data and any equipotential may be used.
Condone the misuse of a negative sign
M = 7.3 or 7.4 × 1022 (kg) ✔2

✔2 Note All equipotential lines produce the same mass.
The answer may be seen in the equations that follow.
(Use of )
✔3
✔3 An attempt to use this re-arranged formula gains this 3rd mark.
v = 2.3 or 2.4 × 103 (m s–1) ✔4 (2370 m s–1)

Alternative
(Use of V = )
Vr = −MG = constant
Vr = −1.60 × 106 × 3.06 × 106
= −4.9 × 1012 (J Kg–1 m) ✔1Alt
✔1Alt Any attempt to calculate Vr OR to indicate that it is constant
gains this mark.
(at the surface of the Moon)
Vsurface =
Vsurface = −2.8(2) × 106 (J kg–1 ) ✔2Alt
(Use of mV = )
✔3Alt
✔3Alt An attempt to use this re-arranged formula gains this 3rd
mark.
v = 2.4 × 103 (m s–1) ✔

✔4Alt A correct answer shows the previous work has been done
correctly and gains all 4 marks.
4
[6]
(a) Any one from: ✔1

49.
• region in which a mass experiences force due to another mass
• (the field is conservative so) any change in potential energy only depends on the
initial and final positions and not on path taken OWTTE
• the force is always attractive OR field lines point to the (centre of) mass OR the
equipotential surfaces are spherical about the (centre of ) mass
• gravitational force is a non-contact force
The field strength/force has an inverse-square variation (with distance). ✔2

✔1 is a general point about gravitational fields
✔2 is specific to a radial gravitational field
The ‘force is attractive’ is insufficient
When required the term “force” must be used rather than words like
“effect&”, “gravity” etc.
When required the word ‘mass’ must be used rather than object or
similar.terms
Condone reference to “circular” for “spherical” in describing an
equipotential surface
2

(b) The shaded area corresponds to:
the (minimum) energy needed/work done to launch the space probe to a height
of 8 × 106 m
OR
the change in GPE of the probe when moved from Earth’s surface to a height of
8 × 106 m ✔
1
(c) Evaluates the gravitational field strength due to the Sun = 5.90 × 10-3 (N kg-1)
OR shows substitution into a valid equation ✔1
Evaluates 6.0×10-4 or 0.060% ✔2
✔1 g S =
✔1 ALTERNATIVE
The Universal gravitational equation for both bodies may be used:
✔2 Answer needed to at least 2 sf. If 3+ sf are seen, the answer

must round to (6.01 or 6.02)×10-4.
2
(d) The force from Earth because of its smaller mass, is less than the force from
the Sun at a similar distance.
OR
The total work done in moving a long way from the Sun is much greater than that in moving
a long way from the Earth because mE ≪ mS .
Condone reference to “edge of Solar System” as “a similar
distance”.
1

(e) change in kinetic energy or kinetic energy per unit mass formulated ✔1 allow 2 sf
change in gravitational potential energy / potential formulated ✔2
evidence of intention to equate their ∆E k and ∆E p (even if not carried through;

allow ecf) ✔3
mass of X = 6.3 × 1020 kg ✔4
✔1 OR 1.18 × 1010 (J) OR
OR m × 2.40 × 105 J
✔2 ∆E p =
= GMm × 5.72 × 10-6
OR
Loss and gain may be replaced with change or Δ’s for this mark.
✔3 and
substitution of data into working equation.

This can be seen anywhere in the solution.
4
[10]
B
50.
[1]
B
51.
[1]
D
52.
[1]
(a) Relating the gravitational force to mass × acceleration with the acceleration being
53.
centripetal in any form ✔1
or mrω2 or mvω and r can be replaced by R + h
show the working leading to answer =

2

(b)
✔1 A full substitution in the equation can gain this mark even if ω is

incorrectly calculated
= 1.45 × 10−4 (rad s−1) ✔1
A final correct answer for T gains both marks

2
(c) Launch from Z with some speed or energy argument ✔1

✔1 Condone ref. to equator rather than Z
At this position the satellite has the largest initial speed/kinetic energy from the Earth’s
rotation. ✔2
Consider answer Y only if extremely well explained in terms of
different potentials and fuel use.
2
(d) gravitational potential energy
gravitational potential energy = −2.44 × 1010 (J) ✔2

✔1 for the equation or substitution without the need for the negative
sign
only allow ecf for r = 6.37 × 106
giving gpe = −1.02 × 1011J
✔2 the minus is necessary for the mark
Correct answer gains both marks
2
(e) In a higher orbit the linear speed is smaller using
Suitable justification of
✔2 example
Or derivation from basics

2
[10]

B
54.
[1]
(a) zero potential at infinity (a long way away)

55.
B1
energy input needed to move to infinity (from the point)

work done by the field moving object from infinity
potential energy falls as object moves from infinity
B1
2
(b) Any pair of coordinates read correctly
C1
±1/2 square
Use of
C1
Rearrange for M
6.4 (±0.5) × 1023 kg
A1
3
(c) Reads correct potential at surface of Mars = −12.6 (MJ)
C1
or reads radius of mars correctly (3.5 × 106)
equates to ½ v2 (condone power of 10 in MJ)
C1
use of v = √(2GM/r) with wrong radius
5000 ± 20 m s−1 (condone 1sf e.g. 5 km s−1)
A1
e.c.f. value of M from (b) may be outside range for other method 6.2
× 10−9x √their M
3

(d) Attempts 1 calculation of Vr
B1
Many values give 4.2.... so allow mark is for reading and using
correct coordinates but allow minor differences in readings
Ignore powers of 10 but consistent
Two correct calculation of Vr
B1
Three correct calculations with conclusion
B1
3
[11]

Examiner reports
(a) This was done well by the majority of candidates. A common error was to state that the
1. force is inversely proportional to the square of the radius.
(b) (i) Most candidates knew a method of showing the inverse proportionality. However,
many used only two of the sets of data or provided only a series of numbers without
any explanation of what they were doing or providing any conclusion. In the worst
cases, answers were set out poorly and any reasoning was hard to follow.
(ii) Although many arrived at the correct answer, there were many dubious equations to
justify the final result. To gain full credit, candidates were expected to write down an
appropriate gravitational field equation from which to proceed. Some recalled the
value for G although the questions asked them to ‘use the data’.
(iii) There were relatively few correct answers to this part. Many candidates could not
identify an appropriate equation to use or did not realise that they had the value for
GM from earlier parts. Some determined the energy needed for the Earth to move
from the surface of the Sun to the position of the Earth’s orbit. Those who recalled G,
having no value for the mass of the Sun, determined the energy required for the
Earth to escape from the Earth.
(iv) Most were able to gain some credit for this part, gaining marks for calculating the
speed of the Earth in its orbit and/or for use of the KE formula. Many either ignored
the last part or added the KE in orbit to their answer to part (iii).
(a) (i) Several candidates failed to write an equation for this part . simply giving one term.
5.
(ii) Few candidates were able to relate the kinetic energy to the gravitational potential
energy to produce a convincing development of the escape velocity equation.
(b) This part was usually done well.
(c) Answers to this part were frequently too loosely phrased to gain credit. References to wind
resistance and friction were commonplace.
There were a few problems with reading the graph scales in part (a)(i) but most candidates gave
6.
an acceptable answer in the range between 30 and 32 Mj kg−1. Many candidates seem to have
found the understanding of gravitational potential to be a considerable obstacle, and most were
unable to use the graph in the intended way when attempting parts (a)(ii) and (b)(ii). In part (a)(ii)
it was common for candidates to use ΔEp = mgΔh, or to attempt to calculate V from V = −(GM /
r) with M as 1200 kg.
In part (b) the equation g = −(ΔV / Δx) was known by only some candidates, and even they were
rarely able to identify it with the gradient of the graph, as required in part (b)(ii). Tangents to the
curve at a distance of 2R were hardly ever drawn, and candidates tended to try a variety of
alternative routes to arrive at g = 2.4 N kg−1. In part (b)(iii) it was expected that a knowledge of g
∝(1 / R2) would enable candidates to spot that halving R would quadruple g. Most candidates
preferred to recalculate a surface value for g by using g = −(GM / R2) which was not what had
been asked in the question.

The question was intended to direct the candidates towards g = −(ΔV / Δx) in part (a), but some
9.
preferred to resort to V = −(GM / r). The amalgamation of this equation with (GM / r2 ) =19 and
r =10 led to an apparently correct answer of 190 J kg−1 . However, the physics of this approach is
wrong, because the distance from the surface of planet X to its centre is certainly not 10 m.
Therefore no credit was given unless g = −(ΔV / Δx) was the basis of the solution. It was seldom
possible to award the separate mark allocated for the correct unit of gravitational potential
difference, because very few candidates knew that it is J kg−1 . The straightforward approach to
part (a)(ii) is through the direct application of mΔV, but most candidates preferred to use mgΔh -
which was equally acceptable. Most candidates recognised that the field strength would be
slightly less at the top of the highest mountain of X and therefore gave an acceptable response in
part (a)(iii).
In part (b) the ability to distinguish between 2r2 and (2r)2 was beyond the mathematical skills of
the many candidates who, having realised that g ∝ (1 / r2). gave an incorrect answer of 9.5 N
kg−1.
(a) As was the case in 2017, many students had not learnt definitions thoroughly. So, the
10. actual unit of charge was absent from many scripts as was a reference to a positive
charge. Weaker students mixed the definition of electric field strength with electric potential.
44.4% of students did not gain any credit here.
(b) This was a very discriminating question and just over half of the students performed well
and gained at least two marks. The hurdle to overcome was to use an inverse-square force
equation rather than an inverse equation that relates to potential. Once the correct equation
had been established, most found no difficulty in the re-arrangements involved. It is worth
pointing out that students who explained their work with a couple of words were much more
likely to obtain marks even if their calculations were wrong.
(c) Most students showed a weakness in their understanding in this topic. The fact that the
resultant electric field was zero at P, and they rightly concluded that the field was zero at
infinity, made it too tempting to conclude the line between P and infinity must be an
equipotential, which was obviously wrong. Only about a third of the students thought about
the work that must be done in moving a proton to a region close to two positive charges.
Also very few referred to the potential being zero at infinity. 60.7% of students scored zero.
(d) This was another question done badly, with 61.1% failing to score. The common answers
fell into two groups. The first just regarded the ball being released as if it were thrown and
therefore following a parabolic path. The second group ignored gravity all together and
wrote about the ball travelling away horizontally. Very few students analysed the situation
by considering the forces and then the resulting accelerations in the horizontal and vertical
directions. In fact, many students did not mention force or acceleration but kept to
generalities such as “it moves away from the wall and falls”.
Gravitation was the subject being tested in this question. The fact that candidates for the
12. examinations were not familiar with the units of field and potential became clear in the scripts for
Unit 4 Section B, and so it is hardly surprising that the facility of this question was no higher than
54%.

Two appropriate features of a geo-synchronous orbit were usually given by the candidates in part
13. (a), but the marks for them were often the last that could be awarded in this question. The
required radius in part (b)(i) came readily to the candidates who correctly equated the
gravitational force on the satellite with mω2r, applied T = 2π/ω, and completed the calculation by
substituting T = 24 hours and the values given in the question. Other candidates commonly
presented a tangled mass of unrelated algebra in part (b)(i), from which the examiners could
rescue nothing worthy of credit.
In part (b)(ii) an incredible proportion of the candidates assumed that it was possible to calculate
the increase in the potential energy by the use of mg Δh, in spite of the fact that the satellite had
be raised vertically through almost 36,000 km. These attempts gained no marks. Other efforts
started promisingly by the use of V = –GM / r, but made the crucial error of using (4.23 × 107 –
6.4 × 106) as r in the denominator. Some credit was available to candidates who made progress
with a partial solution that proceeded along the correct lines, such as evaluating the gravitational
potential at a point in the orbit of the satellite. Confusion between the mass of the Earth and the
mass of the satellite was common when doing this.
Units of the various physical quantities related to fields and the scalar/vector nature of them, are
14. generally not well known by the candidates. Part (a) showed that the 2004 cohort were no better
than their predecessors. Six correct entries in the table were required for three marks, and it was
very rare for all three to be awarded. The unit of N m kg–1 was accepted as an alternative to J
kg–1 for gravitational potential, but candidates regularly put N kg–1 in the table. The unit of electric
field strength was known better, and that of magnetic flux density was usually shown correctly.
Candidates often resorted to guesswork when completing the second column of the table. Many
did not appreciate that the concept of potential arises from energy considerations and that it is
therefore a scalar quantity, whilst the other two quantities are force-related and therefore vectors.
Completely correct answers to part (b) were encountered in many of the scripts. Since the unit of
E had already been tested in the table in part (a), no penalty was imposed for wrong or missing
units in the answer to part (b)(i). A worrying error, made by a significant minority of the
candidates, was to equate the electric force on the particle to its mass, rather than to its weight.
This question, with a facility of 66%, examined the variations of electric field strength and electric
15. potential with distance in a radial field. Distractor D was hardly ever chosen, with wrong answers
divided mainly between distractors A and B.
Acceptable responses in part (a) were dependent on knowledge of the definition of gravitational
16. potential. Roughly half of the candidates were able to make some progress with this. The
principal omission was per unit in “work done per unit mass”; “work done on a small mass” was
sometimes written. To satisfy the definition, the movement has to be from infinity to the point
being considered; inevitably some candidates gave this the wrong way round.
Part (b) instructed candidates to “use the following data”, and many were able to arrive at the
correct answer by using the data in the question alone. Those who also resorted to the data
sheet, from which values for G, MEarth and REarth could be extracted, were allowed two of the
three marks. Either way, the negative sign was considered to be essential in final answers.
The graphs drawn in part (c) were often good, showing clear understanding of the general V µ –
(1/r) relationship. When the curve started at the surface of the Earth and stopped short of zero
potential this usually gained two marks. Some curves were started carelessly at the vertical axis.
Most candidates overlooked the final part of the curve (the effect caused by the Moon's own
gravitational potential); for full credit this last section had to be shown.

This question, which was a test of ΔEp = m ΔV, had been used in an earlier AS paper. The 2004
17. facility of 65% was a slight improvement on the previous occasion. Incomplete reading of the
question – not realising that the distance involved was 5m rather than 10m – may account for the
25% who chose distractor C.
This question was a direct test of g = –ΔV/Δr. This was easy, with 69% of the candidates making
18. the correct response. There seems to be no logical reason to account for distractor B, which was
chosen by one fifth of the candidates.
The angular velocity of the Earth was also to be considered in this question, but for points at
19. different heights and therefore at different gravitational potentials. This question was very
demanding, as is shown by its facility of only 51%. The common value of ω for the whole Earth
was not always appreciated. Over one-fifth of the candidates chose distractor A, where the
higher point was supposed to have a greater value of ω, whilst almost as many selected
distractor C (a smaller ω at the higher point).
Data for e, mP, εo and G had to be extracted from the Data Sheet before the correct response to
20. this question could be decided. This defeated almost half of the candidates, for the facility of the
question was 51%. Around one fifth of the candidates selected each of the incorrect distractors A
and B.
This question revived a question used in an Advanced Supplementary examination almost ten
21. years ago. The topics, gravitational force and gravitational potential energy for an Earth satellite,
were better known in 2006 than by the previous candidates: the facility increased from 39% in
1997 to 54% on this occasion. Distractor D was chosen by 22% of the candidates; increasing the
gravitational potential energy of the satellite by U would in fact remove it to infinity. Distractor A
was chosen by the 15% of candidates, thinking that both force and potential are proportional to
1/r.
This question had been used in an earlier examination. Its facility of 58% this time was a slight
22. improvement on that achieved previously. Either arithmetic errors, or failure to account for the
10% efficiency, were probably responsible for almost a quarter of the candidates choosing
distractor C (0.50 m) rather than the correct 0.05 m.
The unit of gravitational potential was known correctly by 71% of the candidates in this question.
23.
However, one in five selected distractor C – N kg–1 – which is the unit of gravitational field
strength.
Many very good answers were seen in part (a) (i), expressed either fully in words or simply by
24. quoting Ep = mV. The corresponding equation for an incremental change, ΔEp = mΔV, was also
acceptable but mixed variations on this such as Ep = mΔV (which showed a lack of
understanding) were not. The consequences of doubling m were generally well understood in
part (a) (ii), where most candidates scored highly, but some inevitably thought that Ep would be
unchanged whilst V would double.
Candidates who were not fully conversant with the metric prefixes used with units had great
difficulty in part (b), where it was necessary to know that 1 MJ =106 J, 1 GJ =109 J, and (even) 1
km = 103 m. Direct substitution into V = (–) GM/r (having correctly converted the value of V to J
kg–1) usually gave a successful answer for the radius of orbit A in part (b) (i). A similar approach
was often adopted in part (b) (ii) to find the radius of orbit B, although the realisation that V 1/r
facilitated a quicker solution. Some candidates noticed that VB = 3 VA and guessed that rB = rA/3,
but this was not allowed when there was no physical reasoning to support the calculation.

Part (b) (iii) caused much difficulty, because candidates did not always appreciate that the
centripetal acceleration of a satellite in stable orbit is equal to the local value of g, which is equal
to GM/r2. This value turns out to equal to V/r, which provided an alternative route to the answer.
Many incredible values were seen, some of them greatly exceeding 9.81 m s–2.
Part (c) was generally well understood, with some very good and detailed answers from the
candidates. Alternative answers were accepted: either that g is not constant over such large
distances, or that the field of the Earth is radial rather than uniform.
This question was a re-banked question about the gravitational potential and angular velocity at
25. two points whose height above the Earth’s surface was different. The outcome was a very similar
facility to that obtained on the previous occasion, with half of the candidates appreciating that the
point at greater height would have greater V but the same ω. More than a quarter of responses
were for distractor C (greater V, smaller ω) and almost a fifth for distractor A (both V and ω
greater).
In part (a), most candidates were able to make some reference to weight being mass multiplied
26. by gravitational field strength although this was often expressed simply as W = mg or, too loosely,
as mass × gravity. Many did not go on to explain why gravitational field strength was not
constant.
Relatively few stated that mass was dependent only on the matter that was contained in the
object.
A few pointed out that, in fact, there could be relativistic increase in mass and these were
rewarded.
A majority of the candidates identified zero potential at infinity in part (b)(i), but explanations of
why this led to negative values closer to the Earth were often unconvincing. Candidates needed
to say more than ‘the field is attractive’.
Many candidates had difficulties with the straightforward exercise in part (b)(ii). Rather than
simply analysing the data to show that Vr at each position produces a constant, many used the
equation V = GM/r. Although candidates were not penalised for a correct approach using this
method as long as they were thorough, the additional arithmetic often led to errors. In this type of
question it is important that candidates give an appropriate reason why the analysis
demonstrates consistency of the data with the law that is proposed. This was often not the case
and responses were frequently a jumble of calculations from which the examiner was,
presumably, required to draw their own conclusion.
Many candidates overcomplicated part (b)(iii) owing to inadequate understanding of the

information that was provided in the table. Some candidates made no use of the table data at all
and used GMm(1/r1 – 1/r2). Although this was against the spirit of the question, candidates were
allowed one of the available marks provided that this was completed successfully but many ran
into problems with the arithmetic. Some used change in PE = mgh.
Part (c)(i) was done very poorly. Although knowing that they had to use ½ mv2, many did not
know that the speed of the satellite in an orbit can be found using GMm/r2 = mv2/r.

Because of their inability to produce an answer to part (c)(i) there were a high proportion of the
candidates who omitted parts (c)(ii) and (c)(iii). Most of those who found an answer to (c)(i), even
if incorrect, were able to score here by realising that the answer was the difference between 12
GJ and their answer to (c)(i).
There were few correct answers to part (c)(iii) because most candidates paid no attention to the
signs of the changes, the KE change being a decrease and the 10 GJ PE change an increase.
This question continued the theme of gravitation. At first sight, it should be easy. In fact it was the
27. most demanding question in the test, with a facility of only 33%. Marginally more candidates
chose the incorrect distractor D than the correct answer. This was a fairly simple test of inverse
square proportion for force and inverse proportion for potential. Candidates made matters difficult
by confusing the distance from an external point to the centre of the Earth with the distance to the
surface of the Earth.
This question was a simple test of conservation of energy in the context of energy storage by a
28. capacitor. The question had a facility of 69% and was the most discriminating question in the test
Most students realised that, in part (a), the potential at infinity is zero but few could elucidate why
29. the values are negative. Even fewer students mentioned that potential is work done per unit
mass in bringing a small test mass from infinity to the various points. Many students suggested
that ‘gravitational potential is a negative force’ – there appears to be much confusion over why
gravitational potential is negative.
Those students who understood what to do in part (b) usually gained full marks – and this was
the clear majority. Those choosing points at the extremes of the graph often were outside the
accepted tolerance for the mass as a result of making an imprecise estimate of the coordinates
of their chosen point.
Most students made good attempt at part (c) (i). The most common error was to forget to add the
radius of the Earth to height of the satellite’s orbit.
Part (c) (ii) was not well understood, few students were able to calculate the change in kinetic
energy either by calculating the velocities or relating the centripetal force to the gravitational
attraction to obtain Ek= Again, many forgot to add the radius of the Earth to the satellite’s
altitude. Many students did not make it clear whether the change was an increase or a decrease.
Most realised that there was loss of potential energy and increase in kinetic energy in part (c) (iii).
Of those students correctly obtaining the factor of two in the kinetic energy equation, few went on
to say that the decrease in potential energy was twice the increase in kinetic energy.
Appreciation that gravitational potential V is proportional to 1/r was all that was required to arrive
30. at the correct response in this question which had a facility of 71%. The most common incorrect
choice was distractor A, where the students may have thought V is proportional to 1/r2.
Candidates found this question, on gravitational potential, a little easier, because its facility was
31. almost 60%. Whether the work done was positive or negative must have troubled many, because
distractor B (-80 kJ rather than +80 kJ) was the choice of 28%.

This question tested knowledge and understanding of gravitational fields. 57% of the students
32. selected the required incorrect statement in this question One in five of them chose distractor A.
This may have been caused by them thinking they were supposed to choose the correct
statement, or it may have been caused by a general misunderstanding of gravitational potential
that was also evident in Section B of this paper.
This question turned out to be the hardest in the test, with a facility less than 40%, possibly
33. because it required rather abstract thinking about energy transfer in fields. More than one quarter
of the candidates did not spot that the displacement described in distractor D amounts to
movement along an equipotential line, and so selected this as the correct answer.
In this question the subject was gravitational potential. This question had been used in a previous
34. examination; the facility of 65% this time was no different to when it was last used. Successful
solutions involved arriving at VM / VE = MM RE / ME RM and then applying the given data. More
than one fifth of the candidates chose distractor B.
Familiarity with E = V / d should have enabled students to realise in this question

35. that potential difference can be calculated from (field strength) × ∆d, for both gravitational end
electric fields. 62% of students correctly gave answer A; the three other distractors were chosen
fairly randomly by between 10% and 17% of the entry.
This question tested students’ knowledge of gravitational potential. 61% of the answers were
36. correct. Each incorrect answer attracted a significant proportion of the responses, the most
common being distractor D (19%). This choice came from confusing the correct unit of
gravitational potential, J kg−1, with the unit of field strength (N kg−1).
(a) (i) Well done.

37.
(ii) Candidates scored 2 or zero. The latter invariably used centripetal force =
gravitational force.
(iii) Many promising calculation were ruined by failure to cube the radius when finding the
volume.
(b) Most candidates did not realise that escape velocity was not needed because the rocket
was not escaping!
Features of gravitational potential were tested by this question, in which students had to choose
38. an incorrect statement. Questions in this format always present a challenge to students, since
they would normally expect to select correct statements. Consequently this question, with a
facility of 44%, was one of the most difficult questions in this test. Students ought to be familiar
with the fact that, whilst field strength is a vector quantity, potential is a scalar. Therefore
statement C (potential is a vector) cannot be correct and is the required answer.

(a) Most students gave the answer to 3 significant figures, although 2 sf was what was
39. required. The correct mass (3050 kg) was chosen by those who used the correct formula,
but some students used no mass in calculating the potential only.
(b) Many stated that the propellant/fuel was ejected through the nozzle. The statements about
the momentum of the exhaust gases were often confused. The most popular way of
deriving thrust was by attempting to use Newton’s 3 rd law but the statements were often
incomplete.
(c) The simple use of F = ma was easily achieved by most students.
(d) Although some students attempted to use conservation of momentum, most realised that
the rocket equations was needed. There is the same confusion over the meaning of the
symbols vf and mf. Some used mf = 1720 kg instead of 1330 kg, and others, after correctly
calculating vf = 996 m s−1, went on to subtract this from the exhaust gas speed, thus
sacrificing a mark.
(e) (i) Most students chose the correct formula, but many forgot to square the radius, and
others chose the wrong mass. The original mass of the spacecraft (3050 kg) was the
most popular erroneous value, although even the mass of the Earth was seen
occasionally.
(ii) Nearly everyone started with the correct formula but two common errors ensued.
Some forgot to take the square root and others did not convert 2.0 km to meters. Also
some gave the answer to 1 sf (0.9 m s−1) thus losing a mark.
(iii) Those who calculated that the velocity change of the probe was 1.1 m s−1 followed
with the right conclusion. Some students used the wrong mass but could still gain the
third mark with a correct comparison.
This question turned to gravitational potential. At the mid-point P between the two identical stars,
40. the gravitational potential due to one of the stars must be −GM/0.5d, which is −2GM/d. The total
gravitational potential due to both stars must therefore be −4GM/d. This was realised by 62% of
the students. Faulty algebraic work probably caused 28% of the students to choose distractor B
(−GM/d).
47.6% correct
43.
27.1% correct
44.

(a) Most scripts showed a clear connection between the centripetal force and the force of
45.
gravity on the satellite, to arrive at the correct proportional relationship between T2 and r3.
Less able students failed to get the two starting equations and only toyed with the
centripetal equation unsuccessfully. The most common algebraic mistake was to miss that
the π term was squared when (2π)2 was expanded.
(b) Marks for this calculation were quite low because students could not cope with the quite
complicated proportional relationship. Some students avoided the proportional calculation
by using the Kepler’s equation derived earlier. Quite a number of these students then got
into difficulty because the distances were given in km and not m.
(c) This question was tackled well by most students. Equating the Universal gravitational force
to mg was a well understood task. Only the least able students failed to rearrange the
equation or made calculation errors. A significant number that were correct failed to answer
using 3 significant figures, but by the same token some making calculation errors did give
an answer to 3 significant figures, and thereby gained a mark.
(d) The students who took the very straightforward approach and calculated the escape
velocity were very successful in this question. However, a majority of students made errors.
Many did not know the escape velocity equation or could not get to it from the conservation
of energy. Other students referred to the top of the graph, Figure 8, at a potential of -1.4 ×
105 J kg-1 as being the point at which the ice escapes, which is a physics error.
80.5% correct
46.
The success rate on almost all the multiple-choice questions was between 25% and 55%.
47. Questions that were noticeably more straightforward than this were B7, B14, B19 and B29. Only
questions B22 and B23 proved to be accessible to less than 25% of students.
(a) Here, it was lack of care that prevented students from gaining marks rather than lack of
48. understanding. Around half the students obtained the mark. Those who failed to do so
often did not refer to a unit mass. A very few made other errors such as choosing the
wrong direction to move the mass.
(b) More than half the students gave a quick answer and said why the field was not uniform.
Many of the others did not really know what to say and answers were often very confused.
Some who gave a clear statement thought incorrectly that in a uniform field the potential
should not change at all.
(c) This was a very discriminating question with around 30% of students achieving no marks
but around 40% gaining full marks. A large number of students could conjure up the
escape-velocity equation in some form. When used, this gained a mark. The main difficulty
for the students was to find an appropriate mass to substitute into the equation and this is
where most errors occurred. Either students used a correct potential equation but with the
wrong data, or they tried to use a force equation which would not give the correct mass.
(a) Most of the answers seen lacked detail. For example, instead of referring to the inverse-
49. square relationship of gravitational field with distance, students often wrote that the field
strength decreases with distance. The “field lines spread out” was written instead of
referring to the centre of mass being the location at which field lines point or the directional
gravitational force acts. Finally, equipotential lines were described as being “curved” rather
than being concentric about the centre of mass.

(b) Most gave the generic answer to what is represented by the area under a force-distance
graph. So, references to potential energy or work done were commonly seen but these
lacked sufficient details to gain credit. Only a minority considered the extent of the shaded
area in Figure 1. When the height was given in the answer, there were still a few who lost
the mark by not referring to the space probe; instead they mentioned a unit mass.
(c) It was most common for students to determine gS and gE individually rather than going
straight to the ratio (as in the alternative on the mark scheme). The major problems for
most students were the choice of correct distances to substitute into their working
equations or failing to square the chosen distance in their calculations. Adding the Sun’s
radius to the distance or just using the Sun’s radius in the calculation of g S was a common
error.
(d) Most students did not produce an answer of the standard that is expected at A-level. Many
stated the Sun has a larger effect because its is “bigger” or “more massive” than the Earth.
They ignored the fact that distance has a bearing on the gravitational force on the probe.
Very few took the trouble to state anything about the probe–Earth distance and probe–Sun
distance being comparable.
(e) Most students simply looked for an equation that involved mass, speed and distance, then
simply ‘played’ with numbers. Inappropriate force and circular-motion equations were
commonly seen. The third marking point was also lost by many who missed any reference
to the changes in kinetic and potential energies. The most frequently gained mark was the
calculation of change in kinetic energy. However, there were many who failed to gain this
mark by using the square of the difference in speed in their calculation. The determination
of change in potential energy had a common error too; this was the substitution of the
difference in distance for separation into the potential-energy equation.
The success rate on almost all the multiple-choice questions was between 25% and 55%.
51. Questions that were noticeably more straightforward than this were B7, B14, B19 and B29. Only
questions B22 and B23 proved to be accessible to less than 25% of students.
(a) About half of the students successfully completed the task. Most of the others either did not
53. choose an acceptable starting point or became confused in their algebra.
(b) A majority of students tackled this question successfully. A common fault by the minority was
the failure to realise that they should begin with the equation provided in the previous section.
(c) Students commonly thought that the deciding factor was launch height. Even those choosing
location Z thought that the diameter of the Earth was greatest at this point. When explaining the
height advantage, only a handful of students referred to the reduced difference in gravitational
potential energy required to place the satellite in orbit. A minority of students referred to the spin
of the earth.
(d) Students often calculated gravitational potential rather than gravitational potential energy.
Some reverted to simplistic physics by quoting GPE = mgh>. Only a minority correctly gave a
negative answer, further reducing the success rate on this question.
(e) A few able students justified the statement that the linear speed is smaller for higher orbits
which they worked out either from the equation given in part 02.1 or from first principles. A
majority thought the linear speed was greater, often justifying this by incorrectly taking the
angular velocity to be constant.

This question was found to be quite straightforward and it was well answered correctly by at least
54. 70% of students.
(a) Most candidates knew the infinity reference point but many had difficulty explaining the
55. negative sign. A statement such as ‘work has to be done to move a mass from infinity’ begs
the question whether work being done within the Earth-mass system energy by the
gravitational field to reduce the potential energy or whether the work is being done by an
outside energy source.
(b) A high proportion of candidates completed this successfully either using the potential
formula or by considering potential energy changes. Use of the force formula was a
common error.
(c) Most read the radius from the graph and used the value of mass from (b) rather than the
method of reading the potential energy (−)12.6 MJ from the graph and equating it to ½v2.
Using arbitrary energies or incorrect reading from the graph were common errors.
(d) The majority appreciated what was an acceptable test and almost half the candidates
scored full marks. Others usually used only two points on the curve or used three
appropriately but left it to the examiner to make the conclusion from the values obtained.

Gravitational Potential

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(a) State the law that governs the magnitude of the force between two point masses.

distance from centre of Sun/108 m gravitational potential/1010 J kg–1

7.0 (surface of Sun) –19

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mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg

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Magnitude of electric field strength at Magnitude of electric potential at

A Gradient of graph 2 at separation d Area under graph 1 from separation d to ∞

C Gradient of graph 2 at separation d Gradient of graph 1 at separation d

D Area under graph 2 from separation d to ∞ Gradient of graph 1 at separation d

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Use the graph to calculate

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The gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet, X, is 19 N kg–1.

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(a) Define the electric field strength at a point in an electric field.

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Calculate the charge Q.

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The thread breaks.

Explain the motion of the ball.

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B gravitational field strength

C force per unit mass

D gravitational potential gradient

Communications satellites are usually placed in a geo-synchronous orbit.

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quantity SI unit scalar or vector

electric field strength

magnetic flux density

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electric field strength electric potential

mass of Earth = 81 × mass of Moon

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What does the gradient of the graph at any point represent?

A the magnitude of the gravitational field strength at that point

B the magnitude of the gravitational constant

C the mass of the Earth

D the potential energy at the point where the gradient is measured

gravitational potential at X angular velocity at X

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A 10 mF capacitor is charged to 10 V and then discharged completely through a small motor.

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orbit A – 12.0 MJ kg–1

(iii) Calculate the centripetal acceleration of a satellite in orbit B.

answer = ____________________ m s–2

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The diagram shows two positions, X and Y, on the Earth’s surface.

gravitational potential at X angular velocity at X

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distance from centre of Earth gravitational potential

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mass of the Earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg

kinetic energy ______________________ GJ

change in kinetic energy ______________________ GJ

total energy ______________________ GJ

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