ASSIGNMENT

Choose the correct Answer : 10. Which of the following transition will have minimum
1. From the given sets of quantum numbers the one wavelength ?
that is inconsistent with the theory is : (a) n4  n1 (b) n2  n1
(a) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = + 1/2 (c) n4  n2 (d) n3  n1
(b) n = 4, l = 3, m = 3, s = + 1/2 11. For n = 3 energy level, the number of possible
(c) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = – 1/2 orbitals are :
(d) n = 4, l = 3, m = 2, s = + 1/2 (a) 1 (b) 3
2. The size of nucleus is measured in : (c) 4 (d) 9
(a) amu (b) Angstrom 12. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s
(c) Fermi (d) cm orbital is :

3. The total number of electrons present in all the p- 1 h

(a) + . (b) Zero
orbitals of bromine are : 2 2
(a) Five (b) Eighteen h h
(c) (d) 2 .
2 2
(c) Seventeen (d) Thirty five
13. Which statement is not correct for n = 5, m = 3 :
4. When an electron revolves in a stationary orbit then: (a) l = 4 (b) l = 0, 1, 2, 3 ; s = 1/2
(a) It absorbs energy (c) l = 3 (d) All are correct
(b) It gains kinetic energy 14. 1s , 2s 2p 3s shows configuration of :
2 2 5 2

(c) It emits radiation (a) Al+3 in ground state

(d) Its energy remains constant (b) Ne in excited state
5. The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 gm of (c) Mg+1 in excited stated
N3– ion is (NA is the Avogadro’s number) : (d) All are correct
(a) 1.6 NA (b) 3.2 NA 15. In a Bohr’s model of atom when an electron jumps
(c) 2.1 NA (d) 4.2 NA from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy will be emitted
6. If n = 3, then the value of ‘’ which is incorrect : or absorbed :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) 2.15 × 10–11 ergs (b) 0.1911 × 10–10 ergs
(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 2.389 × 10–12 ergs (d) 0.239 × 10–10 ergs
16. The shape of an orbital is given by the quantum
7. Chlorine atom differs from chloride ion in the number
number :
of :
(a) n (b) l
(a) Proton (b) Neutron
(c) m (d) s
(c) Electrons (d) Protons and electrons
17. Which of the following metal ions will have maximum
8. The uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass
number of unpaired electrons :
= 9.1 × 10–28 g) moving with a velocity of 3.0 × 104
(a) Fe+2 (b) Co+2
h
cm s–1 accurate upto 0.001% will be (use in (c) Ni+2 (d) Mn+2
4
18. The maximum probability of finding an electron in
the uncertainty expression, where h = 6.62 × 10–27 the dxy orbital is :
erg-s)
(a) Along the x-axis
(a) 1.92 cm (b) 7.68 cm
(b) Along the y-axis
(c) 5.76 cm (d) 3.84 cm
(c) At an angle of 45º from the x and y-axes
9. A 3p orbital has :
(d) At an angle of 90º from the x and y-axes
(a) Two spherical nodes 19. CO has same electrons as or the ion that is
(b) Two non-spherical nodes isoelectronic with CO is :
(c) One spherical and one non-spherical nodes (a) N2+ (b) CN–
(d) One spherical and two non-spherical nodes (c) O2+ (d) O–2

18
20. The total number of orbital in an energy level no. 64) is :
designated by principal quantum number n, is equal (a) [Xe] 4f8 5d9 6s2 (b) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
to :
(c) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (d) [Xe] 4f6 5d2 6s2
(a) 2n (b) 2n2
31. If electron falls from n = 3 to n = 2, then emitted
(c) n (d) n2
energy is :
21. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen
atom to absorb a photon but not to emit a photon : (a) 10.2 eV (b) 12.09 eV
(a) 3s (b) 2p (c) 1.9 eV (d) 0.65 eV
(c) 2s (d) 1s 32. Number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the
22. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The element 89X231 is :
number of its : (a) 89, 231, 89 (b) 89, 89, 242
(i) subshells and (c) 89, 142, 89 (d) 89, 71, 89
(ii) orbitals would be respectively 33. In the ground state configuration of Cr24 how many
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 3 and 7 orbitals are present having paired and unpaired
(c) 3 and 9 (d) 2 and 5 electrons :
23. Aufbau principle is not satisfied by : (a) 10 (b) 12
(a) Cr and Cl (b) Cu and Ag (c) 15 (d) 16
(c) Cr and Mg (d) Cu and Na 34. The following quantum numbers are possible for
24. The quantum number which is NOT derived from how many orbitals ?
the solution of Schrodinger wave equation for n = 3, l = 2, ml = +2
hydrogen atom is :
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Principle quantum number
35. Which of the following species not contains
(c) Magnetic quantum number
neurtrons :
(d) Spin quantum number
(a) H (b) Li+2
25. Five valence electrons of 15P are labelled as
(c) C (d) O
. If the spin quantum number of B
36 The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H
and Z is + 1/2, the group of electrons with three of atom is – 13.6 eV. The possible energy value of
the quantum number same are : the first excited state for electrons in Bohr orbits
(a) Ab, XYZ, BY (b) AB to hydrogen is (are) :
(c) XYZ, AZ (d) AB, XYZ (a) – 3.4 eV (b) – 4.2 eV
26. In an element going away from nucleus, the energy (c) – 6.8 eV (d) + 6.8 eV
of particle : 37. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of He+ is
(a) Decreases (b) Unchanged – 871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the electron in the
(c) Increases (d) None of these first orbit of hydrogen would be :
27. In neutral atom, which particles are equivalent : (a) – 871.6 × 10–20 J (b) – 435.8 × 10–20 J
(a) p+, e+ (b) e–, e+ (c) – 217.9 × 10–20 J (d) – 108.9 × 10–20 J
(c) e–, p+ (d) p+, n0 38 The position of both an electron and a helium atom
28. If n + l = 6, then total possible number of subshells is known within 1.0 nm and the momentum of the
would be : electron is known within 50 × 10–26 kg ms–1. The
(a) 3 (b) 4 minimum uncertainty in the measurement of the
(c) 2 (d) 5 momentum of the helium atom is :
29. The configuration 1s 2s 2p5 3s1 shows :
2 2 (a) 50 kg ms–1 (b) 60 kg ms–1
(a) Ground state of fluorine atom (c) 80 × 10–26 kg ms–1 (d) 50 × 10–26 kg ms–1
(b) Excited state of fluorine atom 39. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1)
(c) Excited state of neon atom is approximately 0.530 A. The radius for the first
(d) Excited state of ion O2– ion excited state (n = 2) orbit is :
30. The electron configuration of gadolinium (atomic (a) 0.13 Å (b) 1.06 Å

19
 (c) 4.77 Å (d) 2.12 Å (d) Proton is -particle
40. Which of the following explain the sequence of filling 49. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen
the electrons in different orbitals : atom is :
(a) Hund’s rule (b) Octet rule 13.6 13.6
(a) – eV (b) – eV
(c) Aufbau principle (d) All of these n4 n3
41 Number of orbitals having paired electrons for
13.6 13.6
gaseous Fe are : (c) – eV (d) – eV
n2 n
(a) 4 (b) 11
50. If wavelength of photon is 2.2 × 10–11 m, h = 6.8 ×
(c) 15 (d) 19 10–34 Js, then momentum of photon is :
42. [Ar] 3d6 is the configuration of the following ion : (a) 3 × 10–23 Kg ms–1
(b) 3.33 × 1022 Kg ms–1
(a) Fe+2 (b) Ti+3 (c) 1.452 × 10–44 kg ms–1
(c) Co+2 (d) Cr+3 (d) 6.89 × 1043 kg ms–1
43. Which triad of quantum number [n, l, m] is not 51. The electrons identified by quantum number n
applicable for 3d-electron : and l
(a) 3, 2, 0 (b) 3, 1 –1 (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0
(c) 3, 2, – 2 (d) 3, 2, +1 (iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
44. Which of the following configuration follows the can be placed in order of increasing energy from
Hund’s rule : the lowest to highest, as :
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
2s 2p
(a) [He] (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
  
52. Ground state electron configuration of nitrogen
2s 2p atom can be represent by :
(b) [He]   
(a) (b)     
2s 2p
(c) [He]    (c)      (d) None of these
53. Which of the following has more unpaired d-
2s 2P
electron:
(d) [He] 
(a) Zn+ (b) Fe2+
45. The ratio of radii of 3rd and 2nd Bohr’s orbit of (c) Ni3+ (d) Cu+
hydrogen atom is :
54. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is 1 ×
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 9 10–5 kg-m/s. The uncertainty in its position will be:
(c) 9 : 4 (d) 9 : 1 (a) 1.05 × 10–28 m (b) 1.05 × 10–26 m
46. The four quantum number for the valence shell (c) 5.27 × 10–30 m (d) 5.25 × 10–28 m
electron or last electron of sodium is : 55. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass
(a) n = 2,  = 1, m = – 1, s = – 1/2 1g and velocity 100 m/s is :
(a) 6.63 × 10–33 m (b) 6.63 × 10–34 m
(b) n = 3,  = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2
(c) 6.63 × 10–35 m (d) 6.65 × 10–35 m
(c) n = 3,  = 2, m = – 2, s = – 1/2
56. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(d) n = 3,  = 2, m = 2, s = + 1/2 belong to highest energy :
47 Heaviest particle is :
1
(a) Meson (b) Neutron (a) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
(c) Proton (d) Electron
1
48. Which is correct statement about proton : (b) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
(a) Proton is nucleus of deuterium
1
(b) Proton is ionized hydrogen molecule (c) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +
2
(c) Proton is ionized hydrogen atom

20
 63. Correct order of size is :
1
(d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + (a) I > I+ > I– (b) I > I– > I+
2
57. Which of the following are isoelectronic species : (c) I– > I > I+ (d) I+ > I > I–
64. Which is not electromagnetic radiation :
I – CH+3, II – NH2–, III – NH+4, IV – NH3
(a) Infrared rays (b) X–ray
(a) I, II, III (b) II, III, IV
(c) Cathode rays (d) Gamma rays
(c) I, II, IV (d) I and II
65 Which of the following pair of orbitals posses two
58. Which quantum number will determine the shape nodal planes :
of the subshell :
(a) px, dx2 – y2 (b) dxy, dzx
(a) Principal quantum number
(b) Azimuthal quantum number
(c) py, dzx (d) dz2 , dx2 – y2
(c) Magnetic quantum number
(d) Spin quantum number 66. The mass of a neutron is of the order of :
(a) 10–23 kg (b) 10–24 kg
59. A metal in its di positive state has the electronic
configuration 2, 8, 14 and has the atomic weight (c) 10–26 kg (d) 10–27 kg
equal to 56. Number of neutrons in its nucleus 67. Smallest cation is :
would be : (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+
(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) Ca2+ (d) Al3+
(c) 34 (d) 28 68. Electron enters the sub-shell for which (n + l) value
60. Which set of quantum number for an electron of an is minimum. This is enunciated as :
atom is not possible : (a) Hund’s rule
1 (b) Aufbau principle
(a) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 (c) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
1
(b) n = 1, l = 1, m = 1, s = + (d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
2
69. The minimum real charge on any particle which
1 can exist is :
(c) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = –
2
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb
1
(d) n = 2, l = 1, m = – 1, s = + (b) 1.6 × 10–10 coulomb
2
61. Outer electronic configuration of the element of (c) 4.8 × 10–10 coulomb
atomic number 24 is : (d) Zero
(a) 3s 3p 3d 4s
2 6 5 1
(b) 3s 3p 3d 4s
2 6 4 2
70. Which sub-shell is not permissible :
(c) 3s 3p 3d
2 6 6
(d) None (a) 2d (b) 4f
62. The basis of three unpaired electrons in the (c) 6p (d) 3s
configuration of nitrogen is :
(a) Aufbau principle (b) Pauli’s principle
(c) Hund’s principle (d) Uncertainty principle

ANSWER
1 A 8 A 15 B 22 C 29 C 36 A 43 B 50 A 57 B 64 C
2 C 9 C 16 B 23 B 30 B 37 C 44 A 51 A 58 B 65 B
3 C 10 A 17 D 24 D 31 C 38 D 45 C 52 A 59 A 66 D
4 D 11 D 18 C 25 D 32 C 39 D 46 B 53 B 60 B 67 D
5 A 12 B 19 B 26 C 33 C 40 C 47 B 54 C 61 A 68 B
6 D 13 B 20 D 27 C 34 A 41 B 48 C 55 A 62 C 69 A
7 C 14 C 21 D 28 A 35 A 42 A 49 C 56 D 63 C 70 A
21
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer : 9. Choose the correct isoelectronic pair
1. Choose the correct statement (a) CH3+ and NH3 (b) CH3– and NH3
(a) Na is heavier than K (c) SO2 and CO2 (d) CH4 and NH2OH
(b) Thalium have higher 1st ionisation energy than 10. Correct statement about valency and oxidation
indium state is
(c) Electron affinity of Be is higher than B (a) In H2O2 valency of oxygen is 2 but oxidation
(d) electronegativity order is F > O > N > Cl state is –2
2. The correct arrangement regarding size (b) In H2O valency of oxygen is 2 but oxidation
state is –2
(a) Tl > In > Al > Ga
(c) In N2H4 valency of nitrogen is 3 but oxidation
(b) Tl > In > Ga > Al
state is –3
(c) Al > Ga > In > Tl
(d) In PF 5 valency of phosphorus is 5 but
(d) Ga > In > Tl > Al
oxidation state is +3
3. Which of the following is associated with biggest
11. The correct order of electronegativity
jump between 1st and 2nd ionisation energy?
(a) F > Cl > O > N
(a) 1s2, 2s1
(b) Mg < Be < C < B
(b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
(c) Mg < Al < S < Cl
(c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1
(d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5 (d) B < C < O < N

4. Which process is exothermic out of following? 12. If element (A) have oxidation state + 6 and
element (B) have oxidation state –2 and (C) have
(a) A  A+ + e– (b) B + e–  B–
oxidation state –1. The formula of compound
(c) B– + e–  B–2 (d) A+  A+2 + e–
will be
5. Which is incorrect statement?
(a) ABC4 (b) AB3C
(a) Electron affinity of carbon is higher than
silicon (c) ABC5 (d) A2B5C

(b) Electron affinity of fluorine is higher than 13. Choose the correct statement
chlorine (a) Mendeleev Periodic table have 18 group and
(c) Electron affinity of oxygen is smaller than 7 period
sulphur (b) Cu, Ag, Au are the member of I B group in
(d) Electron affinity of phosphorus is higher than Mendeleef periodic table
nitrogen (c) He, Ne, Ar are the member of zero group in
6. Which of the following ion have highest polarising modern periodic table
power? (d) III A and III B are continuous in Modern
(a) Na+ (b) Te+ periodic table
(c) Cu+ (d) K+ 14. An element is having electronegativity greater
7. Which of the following pair of element have zero than two and it is a non-metal, to which block of
electron affinity? modern periodic table it belongs?
(a) K, B (b) N and oxygen (a) s (b) p
(c) He and C (d) Ar and Na (c) d (d) f block
15. An element having electronic configuration –1s2,
8. An element X is having 118 proton and 180 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1 to which group and
neutron in nucleus. It belongs to period it belong?
(a) 7th period, 18 group (a) 11th group, 3 period
(b) 6th period, 18 group (b) 11th group, 4 period
(c) 8th period, 1 group (c) 12th group, IInd period
(d) 7th period, 17 group (d) 12th group 4 period
31
16. Which is amphoteric oxide? 28. In the periodic table, the element with atomic
(a) MgO (b) Al2O3 number 16 will be placed in the group
(c) SiO2 (d) Cl2O7 (a) Third (b) Fourth
17. The incorrect order of ionic radii is (c) Fifth (d) Sixth
(a) Fe+3 < Fe+2 < Fe (b) O–2 < N–3 < F– 29. A sudden large jump between the values of second
(c) Li < Mg < K (d) Be < Mg < Na and third ionisation energies of an element would
be associated with the electronic configuration
18. Element of IA group give flame colour due to
(a) Low IE (b) Low boiling point
(a) 1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s1 (b) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p1
(c) Low melting point (d) All of these
(c) 1s2, 2s2,2p6,3s2,3p2 (d) 1s2 , 2s2,2p6,3s2
19. An element having elctronic configuration 1s2,
30. Which of the following statement is true about the
2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1 forms
elements of IA and IIA group elements
(a) Acidic oxide (b) Amphoteric oxide
(a) The I.P. of alkali metals are higher than that of
(c) Basic oxide (d) Nautral oxide alkaline earth metal
20. An element have atomic number 24. It belong to (b) The size of alkali metals are larger than that of
(a) 2nd group (b) 4th group alkaline earth metals
(c) 6th group (d) 8th group (c) The reactivity of alkaline earth metals is more
21. Strongest reducing agent is than that of alkali metals
(a) Cl2 (b) Cl– (d) All the above
(c) Br –
(d) I
– 31. Which pair show less similarity in their properties
22. Arrange the following in increasing order of their than the other three
atomic radius : Na, K, Mg, Rb (a) Li–Mg (b) Be–Al
(a) Mg < K < Na < Rb (b) Mg < Na < K < Rb (c) Na–Ca (d) B–Si
(c) Mg < Na < Rb < K (d) Na < K < Rb < Mg 32. Number of s-block element are
23. Which of the following elements are analogous to (a) More than that of p-block elements
the lanthanides (b) Equal to that of p-block elements
(a) Actinides (b) Borides (c) More than that of d-block elements
(c) Carbides (d) Hydrides (d) None of the above
24. As per the modern periodic law, the physical and 33. Which of the following is most electronegative
chemical properties of elements are periodic (a) Carbon (b) Silicon
functions of their (c) Lead (d) Tin
(a) Atomic volume 34. Ionic radii of
(b) Electronic configuration (a) Ti4+ < Mn7+ (b) 35Cl– < 37Cl–
(c) Atomic weight
(c) K+ > Cl– (d) P3+ > P5+
(d) Atomic size
35. In the modern periodic table, the place of the
25. The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B element with atomic number 31 is in
respectively are
(a) s-block (b) d-block
(a) 8.29 eV, 9.32 eV (b) 9.32 eV, 9.32 eV
(c) p-block (d) f–block
(c) 8.29 eV, 8.29 eV (d) 9.32 eV, 8.29 eV
36. Which one of the following is an s-block element
26. In the following , the element with the highest
electropositivity is (a) Aluminium (b) Chromium
(a) Copper (b) Cesium (c) Niobium (d) Potassium
(c) Barium (d) Chromium 37. Which of the following metals exhibits more than
one oxidation state
27. Elements with outer electron configuration ns np 2 6

are (a) Na (b) Mg

(a) Alkaline earth metals (b) Transition elements (c) Fe (d) Al
(c) Chalcogens (d) Noble gases

32
38. Which has the smallest size 49. Outer electronic configuration of an element is 4s1
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ 3d10. The element is expected to be
(c) Al3+ (d) P5+ (a) A metal (b) A nonmetal
39. Sheilding effect of which orbital is maximum ? (c) Element of 10 group (d) Liquid at 2981°C
th

(a) s (b) d 50. Electron affinity of oxygen, sulphur and selenium

(c) f (d) p follows the order
40. Maximum covalent character is associated with (a) O > S > Se (b) S > O > Se
the compound (c) Se > O > S (d) Se > S > O
(a) NaI (b) MgI2 51. Element ‘X’ having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2
(c) AlCl3 (d) AlI3 2p 6 3s 2 3p 3 forms compound with Ca. The
41. Arrange F, Cl, O, N in the decreasing order of compound is
electronegativity (a) Ca2 X3 (b) Ca3X
(a) O > F > N > Cl (b) F > N > Cl > O (c) Ca3X2 (d) CaX
(c) Cl > F > N > O (d) F > O > N  Cl 52 Triad of transuranic element is
42. Which of the following metal does not show variable (a) Th, NP , Pu (b) Bk, Cf, Fm
oxidation state
(c) Tm, Nd , Pm (d) Pa, Fm, Md
(a) Zn (b) Fe
53. Most covalent halide of aluminium is
(c) Cu (d) Cr
(a) AlI3 (b) AlBr3
43. In which of the following process highest energy is
absorbed (c) AlCl3 (d) AlF3
(a) Cu  Cu +
(b) Br  Br – 54. Which of the following order is wrong
(c) I  I –
(d) Li  Li + (a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic
44. The bond angle in PH3 is (b) Li < Be < B < C – IE1
(a) Much less than NH3 (c) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O – Basic
(b) Equal to that of NH3 (d) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ – Ionic radius
(c) Much greater than NH3 55. General electronic configuration of lanthanides is
(d) Slightly greater than NH3 (a) (n–2) f1–14 , (n–1) s2 p6 d0–1, ns2
45. Hydrogen can be put in halogen group because (b) (n–2) f10–14 , (n–1)d10–1 , ns2
(a) It has deuterium and tritium as isotopes (c) (n–2) f 0–14 , (n–1) d10 , ns2
(b) It forms hydrides like chlorides (d) (n–2) d0–1, (n–1) f1–14 , ns2
(c) It contains one electron only 56. Which of the following orders is correct for the first
(d) It is light ionisation potential of B, C and N
46. Correct order of 1st IP among following elements (a) B > C > N (b) N > C > B
Be, B, C, N,O is
(c) N > C < B (d) N < C < B
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
57. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic ,
(b) B < Be < C < N < O then
(c) Be < B < C < N < O (a) Their sizes are same
(d) Be < B < C < O < N
(b) Cl– ion is bigger than K+ ion
47 Diagonal relationship is shown by
(c) K+ ion is relatively bigger
(a) Ca, Ba (b) Be, Mg
(d) Their sizes depend on their cation and anion
(c) Na, K (d) Li, Mg
58. Which of the following does not have valence
48. Correct sequence of bond length is
electron in 3d-subshell
(a) HC  CH > H2C = CH2 > H3C – CH3
(a) Fe (III) (b) Cr (I)
(b) H2C = CH2 > HC  CH > H3C – CH3
(c) Mn (II) (d) P (0)
(c) H3C – CH3 > H2C = CH2 > HC  CH
(d) H3C –CH3 > HC  CH > H2C = CH2
33
59. Which of the following elements is most metallic 65. Which one of the following ions has the highest
(a) P (b) As value of ionic radius
(c) Sb (d) Bi (a) F– (b) B3+

60. What is the general electronic configuration for (c) O2– (d) Li+
second row transition series 66. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order
(a) [Ne] 3d 1–10
, 4s 2
(b) [Ar] 3d 1–10
, 4s 1–2 of acid strength is

(c) [Kr] 4d 1–10

, 5s 1–2
(d) [Xe] 5d 1–10
, 5s1–2 (a) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2

61. The ions O 2– , F – , Na + , Mg 2+ and Al 3+ are (b) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show (c) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
(a) A significant decrease from O to Al 2– 3+ (d) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(b) An increase from O to F and then decrease
2– –
67. The Correct sequence of increasing covalent
from Na+ to Al3+ character is represented by
(c) A decrease from O2– to F– and then increase (a) LiCl < NaCl K BeCl2
from Na+ to Al3+ (b) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
(d) A significant increase from O to Al 2– 3+
(c) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
62. According to the Periodic Law of elements, the (d) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
variation in properties of elements is related to their
68. Ionisation energy in group I-A varies in the
(a) nuclear neutron-proton number ratios
decreaing order as -
(b) atomic masses
(a) Li > Na > K > Cs
(c) nuclear masses
(b) Na > Li > K > Cs
(d) Atomic numbers
(c) Li > Cs > K > Na
63. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), Chromium
(d) K > Cs > Na > Li
(Cr), Manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively
23, 24,25 and 26. Which one of these may be 69. Order of first ionization potentials of elements Li,
expected to have the highest second ionization Be, B, Na is -
enthalpy (a) Li > Be > B > Na (b) Be > B > Li > Na
(a) Fe (b) V (c) Na > Li > B > Be (d) Be > Li > B > Na
(c) Cr (d) Mn 70. Ionic compounds are formed most easily with
64. Which one of the following groupings represents a (a) Low electron affinity, high ionisation energy
collection of isoelectronic species (b) High electron affinity, low ionisation energy
(a) Ca2+ , Cs+ , Br (b) Na+ , Ca2+ , Mg2+
(c) Low electron affinity, low ionisation energy
(c) N3– , F– , Na+ (d) Be, Al3+ , Cl–
(d) High electron affinity, high ionisation energy

ANSWER
1 B 8 A 15 B 22 B 29 D 36 D 43 D 50 B 57 B 64 C
2 A 9 B 16 B 23 A 30 B 37 C 44 A 51 C 58 D 65 C
3 A 10 B 17 B 24 B 31 C 38 D 45 B 52 B 59 D 66 A
4 B 11 C 18 A 25 D 32 D 39 A 46 A 53 A 60 C 67 C
5 B 12 A 19 B 26 B 33 A 40 D 47 D 54 B 61 A 68 A
6 C 13 B 20 C 27 D 34 D 41 D 48 C 55 A 62 D 69 B
7 D 14 B 21 D 28 D 35 C 42 A 49 A 56 B 63 C 70 B
34
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer : > sp3 hybrid
1. Choose the correct statement (c) sp hybrid orbital > sp 2 hybrid orbital >
(a) In N3–, central N show sp hybridisation and sp3 hybrid orbital > pure p orbital
linear geometry (d) sp3 hybrid orbital > sp2 hybrid orbital > pures
(b) In XeF6, Xe show sp3d2 hybridisation and orbital > pure sp hybrid orbital
octahedral geometry 9. Which of the following is correct match?
–,
(c) In BF 4 B show sp 2 hybridisation and (a) Ionic bond  Directional
triangular geometry (b) XeO2F2  Xe is sp3d hybrid, 2, 4 bond
(d) In I3–, central I show sp hybridisation and (c) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride  N is sp3
linear geometry hybridised, 4  , 1 ionic bond
2. Choose the correct order about bond strength
(d) N(SiH3)3  N is sp3 hybridised, pyramidal
(a) s–s overlapping > s–p overlapping > p–p shape
overlapping
10. Choose the correct statement
(b) p–p overlapping > s–p overlapping > s–s
(a) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3 (Lewis basic character)
overlapping
(b) N(CH 3 ) 3 is pyramidal while N(SiH 3 ) 3 is
(c) s–p overlapping > p–p overlapping > s–s triangular planar
overlapping
(c) CH4 > H2O > HF (acidic strength)
(d) p–p overlapping > s–s overlapping > s–p
(d) BeS > ZnS > MgS (covalent character)
overlapping
11. W hich of the following have highest dipole
3. No. of  bond and π bond in P4O10 are moment (D)?
(a)  bond 16, π bond 4 Cl Cl F F
(b)  bond 15, π bond 4 (a) C=C (b) C=C
Cl H H H
(c)  bond 10, π bond 2
(d)  bond 16, π bond 8 I I Br Br
(c) C=C (d) C=C
4. W hich of the following possess distroted H H Br Br
octahedral shape? 12. Choose the incorrect statement
(a) SF6, sp3d2 (b) [SiF6]–2, sp3d2 (a) N2 have high bond order than N2+
(c) XeF6, sp3d3 (d) [PCl6]–, sp3d2 (b) N2– have higher bond length than N2+
5. Which of the following species is diamagnetic? (c) Molecular orbital theory and V.B. theory both
(a) KO2 (b) Na2O2 depend on LCAO mode of combination
(c) Fe2O3 (d) ClO2 (d) Lattice energy is the energy released when
one mole of an ionic compound in gaseous
6. The percentage ionic character in a compound
state is formed from its constituent gaseous
AB if inter nuclear distance between A and B is
ion
127 pm and its dipole moment is 2.06 D
13. In which compound there is no hydrogen
(a) 33.80% (b) 16.90%
bonding?
(c) 83.10% (d) 66.20% (a) CuSO4.5H2O (b) ROH
7. Choose the correct sequence regarding the (c) NH3 (d) MgCl2.6H2O
molecular dipole moment (D)
14. T - shape pair is
(a) HF > HI > HCl (b) H2O < H2S
(a) I3– & ClF3 (b) Br3– & I3–
(c) NH3 < PH3 (d) NF3 < NH3

8. The correct order regarding the relative (c) ClF3 & BrF3 (d) C H3 & SO3
overlapping power of an orbital
15. Maximum ionic percentage present in
(a) sp3 orbital > sp2 orbital > sp orbital > pure
(a) NaI (b) NaCl
p orbital
(c) NaF (d) NaBr
(b) Pure s or p orbital > sp orbital > sp2 hybrid

47
16. Which of the following can not be hydrolysed? 26. The smallest bond angle is found in
(a) NCl3 (b) NF3 (a) IF7 (b) CH4
(c) PCl5 (d) PCl3 (c) BeF2 (d) BF3
17. Which is maximum polar structure? 27. Assertion (A) : Diborane is electron deficient
(a) o-xylene (b) p-xylene Reason (R) : There are no enough valence
(c) m-xylene (d) Benzene electrons to form the expected number of
covalent bonds
18. Maximum bond angle present in
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
(a) NH3 (b) AsH3
explanation of A
(c) PH3 (d) SbH3
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
19. Which one of the following is incorrectly given as
explanation of A
per their dipole moments (m)?
(c) A is true but R is false
Cl OH (d) Both A and R are false
, =0 ,  0 28. The bond order is not three for
(a) (b) (a) N2+ (b) O22+
Cl OH (c) N2 (d) NO+
29. Which of the following has p π -d π bonding
(c) CHCl3 , μ  0 (d) XeF4 , μ  0
(a) NO3– (b) CO3–2
20. Molecular shape of ClF 3 , I 3 – and XeO 3 (c) BO3–3 (d) SO3–2
respectively are
30. In H2O2 molecule, the angle between the two
(a) T-shape, Linear, Pyramidal O–H planes is
(b) Planar, Linear, Tetrahedral (a) 111.5º (b) 101º
(c) T-shape, Planar, Pyramidal (c) 103º (d) 105º
(d) Trigonal bipyramidal, Linear, Tetrahedral 31. As the s-character of hybridisation orbital
21. The correct order of hybridization of the central increases, the bond angle
atom in the following species NH3 [PtCl4]2–, (a) Increases (b) Decreases
PCl5 and BCl3 is
(c) Becomes zero (d) Does not change
(a) dsp2, dsp3, sp2 and sp3
32. Which of the following arrangement of molecules
(b) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
is correct on the basis of their dipole moments
(c) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3
(a) BF3 > NF3 > NH3
(d) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
(b) NF3 > BF3 > NH3
22. The common features among the species CN– ,
CO and NO+ are (c) NH3 > BF 3 > NF 3

(a) Bond order three and isoelectronic (d) NH3 > NF3 > BF3
(b) Bond order three and weak field ligands 33. Which of the following molecule has highest
bond energy
(c) bond order two and p-acceptors
(a) F – F (b) C – C
(d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands
(c) N – N (d) O – O
23. The number of S–S bonds in sulphur trioxide
trimer (S3O9) is 34. Number of sigma bonds in one of its resonance
(a) Three (b) Two structure of P4O10 is
(c) One (d) Zero (a) 6 (b) 16
24. Which of the following pairs has same structure (c) 17 (d) 18
(a) PH3 and BCl3 (b) SO2 and NH3 35. Which of the following statements is true
(c) PCl5 and SF6 (d) NH4+ and SO42– (a) HF is less polar than HBr
25. Among the following, the maximum covalent (b) Absolutely pure water contain any ions
character is shown by the compound :
(c) Chemical bond formation take place when
(a) MgCl2 (b) FeCl2
forces of attraction overcome the forces of
(c) SnCl2 (d) AlCl3 repulsion
48
 (d) In covalency transference of electron takes 47. True order of bond angle is
place (a) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
36. In which of the following species is the (b) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
interatomic bond angle is 109º28’ (c) H2S > H2O > H2Se > H2Te
(a) NH+4, BF4– (b) (NH4)+, BF3 (d) H2O > H2S > H2Te > H2Se
(c) NH3, BF4 (d) (NH2)–1, BF3 48. Which of the following has highest melting point
37. The energy that opposes dissolution of a solvent is (a) BeCl2 (b) MgCl2
(a) Hydration energy (b) Lattice energy (c) CaCl2 (d) BaCl2
(c) Internal energy (d) Bond energy 49. Which of the following compounds doesn’t have
38 Which of the following is weakest bond linear structure
(a) Ionic (b) Covalent (a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) Metallic (d) van der Waal (c) BeCl2 (d) C2H2
39. The bond angle of water is 104.5º due to 50. Which of the following compounds has least
(a) Repulsion between lone pair and bond pair dipole moment
(b) sp3 hybridization of O (a) PH3 (b) CHCl3
(c) Bonding of H2O (c) NH3 (d) BF3
(d) Higher electronegativity of O 51. Which of the following statements is not true
for ionic compounds
40. Which of the following is correct for N2 triple
(a) High melting point
bond
(b) Least lattice energy
(a) 3 (b) 1, 2
(c) Least solubility in organic compounds
(c) 2, 1 (d) 3
(d) Soluble in water
41. Coordinate bond is absent in 52. Which of the following is Lewis acid
(a) BH4– (b) CO3–2
(a) BF3 (b) NH3
(c) H3O + (d) NH4+
(c) PH3 (d) SO2
42. The values of electronegativity of atoms A and 53. Water has high boiling point because
B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage
(a) It has higher molecular weight
of ionic character of A–B bond is
(b) It has more lattice energy
(a) 50% (b) 43%
(c) It is weak acid
(c) 55.3% (d) 72.24%
(d) It associated with hydrogen bonding
43. The bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are 430
54. H2O is a liquid while H2S is gas due to
kJ mol–1 and 242 kJ mol–1 respectively, H (a) Covalent bonding
for HCl is 91 kJ mol–1. The bond energy of
(b) Molecular attraction
HCl will be
(c) H-bonding
(a) 427 kJ (b) 766 kJ
(d) H-bonding and molecular attraction
(c) 285 kJ (d) 245 kJ
55. Isoelectronic species are
44. Which of the following has dsp2 hybridization
(a) N3–, O2– (b) Na+, Ca2+
(a) NiCl42– (b) SCl4 2– 2–
(c) O , C (d) K+, Na+
(c) NH4+ (d) PtCl42–
56. H-bonding is maximum in
45. W hich of the following compounds has (a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5COOH
coordinate (dative) bond (c) CH3CH2OH (d) CH3COCH3
(a) CH3NC (b) CH3OH 57. Diamond exists as
(c) CH3Cl (d) NH3 (a) Planner (b) Octahedral
46. Which of the following have highest melting (c) Tetrahedral (d) None of these
points 58. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the
(a) Alkali metals strongest?
(b) Transitional metals (a) O - H .... O (b) O - H .... F
(c) O - H .... N (d) F - H .... F
(c) Alkaline earth metals
(d) All of these
49
59. CO is isoelectronic with 66. W hich one of the following species is
(a) NH3 (b) N2 diamagnetic in nature ?
(c) O2 (d) NO2 (a) H2 (b) He2+
60. The structure of H2O2 is (c) H2– (d) H2+
(a) Planar (b) Non-planar 67. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends
(c) Linear (d) Three dimensional upon
61. The correct order of bond angle (smallest first) (a) Size of the ion only
in H2S, NH3, BF 3 and SiH4 is- (b) Charge on the ion only
(a) H2S < NH3 < BF 3 < SiH4 (c) Charge on the ion and size of the ion
(b) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
(d) Packing of ions only
(c) H2S < NH3 < SiH4< BF3
68 The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4
(d) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 are
62. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ (a) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of
is 3. Which of the following statements is true electrons on the central atoms respectively
for these two species ?
(b) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of
(a) Bond length is unpredictable
electrons on the central atom, respectively
(b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(c) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
(c) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
on the central atom, respectively
(d) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
(d) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons
63. Which of the following has the regular tetrahedral
on the central atom, respectively
structure ?
(a) [Ni(CN)4]–2 (b) SF4 69. The number and type of bonds between two
carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
(c) BF4– (d) XeF4
64. Which of the following molecules has trigonal (a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 1
planer geometry ? (c) 2, 2 (d) 2, 1
(a) IF3 (b) PCl3 70. The hybridization of orbitals of N-atoms in
(c) NH3 (d) BF3
NO 3- , NO +2 and NH +4 are respectively :
65. Which chloride is formed by an element X whose
atoms have the electronic configuration (a) sp2, sp3 sp (b) sp, sp2, sp3
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3s 6 3d 10 4s 2 ? (c) sp2 , sp, sp3 (d) sp, sp3, sp2

(a) X2Cl (b) XCl

(c) XCl2 (d) XCl3

ANSWER
1 A 8 A 15 C 22 A 29 D 36 A 43 D 50 D 57 C 64 D
2 B 9 B 16 B 23 D 30 A 37 B 44 D 51 B 58 D 65 C
3 A 10 B 17 A 24 D 31 A 38 D 45 A 52 A 59 B 66 A
4 C 11 B 18 A 25 D 32 D 39 A 46 B 53 D 60 B 67 C
5 B 12 B 19 D 26 A 33 B 40 C 47 A 54 D 61 C 68 C
6 A 13 D 20 A 27 A 34 B 41 B 48 D 55 A 62 B 69 A
7 D 14 C 21 B 28 A 35 C 42 D 49 B 56 B 63 C 70 C
50
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer : 11. The correct increasing order of the acidity of
1. Volume of same weight of ice is………….than/to CO2 , H2 O and H2 O2 is
the same weight of water
(a) CO2  H2 O2  H2O
(a) More (b) Less
(c) Equal (d) not related (b) H2 O  H2 O2  CO2
2. Which of the following hydrides is covalent
(c) H2 O  H2 O2  CO2
compound?
(a) LiH (b) NaH (d) H2 O2  CO2  H2 O
(c) MgH2 (d) CaH2 12. Hardness of water of given sample of water is
3. Which of the following hydroxides is amphoteric? suppose x ppm. This indicates that :
(a) x mg CaCO3 present in 106 kg water
(a) Mg  OH2 (b) Ca  OH2 (b) x mg MgCO3 present in 106 kg water
(c) x g CaCO3 present in 106 kg water
(c) Be  OH2 (d) Sr  OH2
(d) x g MgCO3 present in 106 kg water
4. The H - O – O - H is dihedral bond angle in
13. The hybridization on the oxygen atom in H2 O2
H2 O2 in gas phase is
is
(a) 106 (b) 109 28 (a) sp3 d (b) sp
 
(c) 120 (d) 94.8
(c) sp2 (d) sp3
5. Amongst H2 O, H2S, H2Se and H2 Te the one
14. In H2 O2 proton ( H ) exist as
with the highest boiling point is
(a) H2 O because of hydrogen bonding (a) H3 O (b) H3 O 4 

(c) H H2 O n

(b) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight (d) all the above
(c) H2 S because of hydrogen bonding 15. The reactions H2S  H2 O2 
 S  2H2 O
(d) H2 Se because of lower molecular weight manifests
6. The Lane’s process of manufacture of H2 gas, (a) acidic nature of H2 O2
uses :
(a) C + H2O (b) Fe + H2O (b) alkaline nature of H2 O2
(c) Al + KOH(aq) (d) H2O (electrolysis) (c) oxidizing action of H2 O2
7. The volume strength of 1.5 NH2 O2 solution is (d) reducing nature of H2 O2
(a) 4.8 (b) 5.2 16. Hydrogen will not reduce
(c) 8.8 (d) 8.4 (a) heated cupric oxide
8. The volume of 10 volume H2 O2 solution that (b) heated ferric oxide
(c) heated stannic oxide
decolourizes 200 ml of 2N KMnO 4 solution in
(d) heated aluminium oxide
acidic medium is 17. In the long form of periodic table the hydride gap
(a) 112 ml (b) 336 ml region is :
(c) 200 ml (d) 224 ml (a) groups 3, 4, 5 (b) group 5, 6, 7
9. An oxide which gives H2 O2 on treatment with (c) groups 7, 8, 9 (d) groups 9, 10, 11
dilute acid is 18. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?
(a) PbO2 (b) Na2O2 (a) NH4 Cl (b) HCN
(c) H2 O2 (d) CH4
(c) MnO2 (d) TiO2
19. The critical temperature of water is higher than
10. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment
that O2 because the H2 O molecule has
with H2 O2 yield
(a) fever electrons than oxygen
(a) CrO3  H2O  O2 (b) Cr 2O3  H2 O  O2
(c) CrO5  H2O (d) H 2Cr2O7  H2O  O2

58
 (b) two covalent bonds (b) H2 reacts over 13 times faster with Cl2 than D2
(c) V – shape because H2 has lower energy of activation.
(d) dipole moment (c) both are true
20. W hen zeolite which is hydrated sodium (d) none is true
aluminium silicate is treated with hard water the 32. H-2 reacts much faster with Cl2 than D2, because
sodium ions are exchanged with
(a) rate of diffusion of H2 is greater than D2
(a) H ions (b) Ca  ions (b) H2 has lower energy of activation than D2
(c) SO 42 (d) all of the above (c) both statements are correct
(d) none of the statements is correct
21. Hydrogen gas is liberated by the action of
aluminum with a concentrated solution of 33. Which is true statement about D2O and H2O?
(a) NaOH (b) Mg(OH)2 (a) D2O has lower dielectric constant than H2O
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) none (b) NaCl is more soluble in D2O than in H2O
22. Heavy water is obtained by (c) Both of the above are correct
(a) boiling water (d) none of the above is correct
(b) distillation of H2O 34. In the following compounds H is covalent bonded
(c) pronged electrolysis of H2O in case of
(d) heating H2O2 (a) BaH2 (b) CaH2
23. The compound that can work both as an (c) SiH4 (d) NaH
oxidizing agent and a reducing agent is 35. Water is a good solvent for ionic compounds
(a) KMnO 4 (b) H2 S because of :
(c) BaO2 (d) H2 O2 (a) its polar nature
(b) its high dipole moment
24. In acidic medium, H2 O2 acts as a reducing agent
(c) its high dielectric constant
in its reaction with
(d) bent molecule
(a) FeSO4 (b) KMnO 4 36. Hydrogen is not obtained when zinc react with
(c) K 2MnO4 (d) K 4 Fe  CN6  (a) Cold water (b) Dil. H2SO4
(c) Dil. HCl (d) Hot 20% NaOH
25. The decomposition of H2 O2 can be prevented by 37. The ortho and para hydrogen possess
the addition of (a) Same physcial properties but different chemical
(a) alkali metal oxides (b) benzene properties
(c) acetanilide (d) MnO2 (b) Different phyical properties but same chemical
26. The metal which displaces hydrogen from a boiling properties
caustic soda solution is (c) Same chemical and physical properties
(a) Mg (b) Fe (d) Different physical and chemical properties
(c) AS (d) Zn 38. Which of the following is expected to have highest
27. H2 O2 acts as an oxidizing agent in hydration energy?
(a) neutral medium (b) acidic medium (a) Li+ (b) Be2+
(c) alkaline medium (c) H +
(d) All are equal
(d) both acidic & alkaline medium 39. Fluorine reacts with water to form
(a) Fluorine water (b) Oxygen
28. Decomposition of H2 O2 is favoured by
(c) Ozone (d) Oxygen, ozone
(a) traces of acids (b) alcohol 40. Tritium emits
(c) acetanilide (d) MnO
29. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds (a)  -particles (b)  -particles
a water molecule can form in ice is (c)  -rays (d) Neutrons
(a) 1 (b) 2 41. Occluded hydrogen means:
(c) 3 (d) 4 (a) dehydroenation
30. NH3 and H2 O form NH4 OH by (b) hardening of oils
(a) electrovalent bond (b) covalent bond (c) hydrogen adsorbed on metals
(d) hydrogen as fuel
(c) coordinate bond (d) none of these
42. Pure H2 is obtained by the action of
31. Select correct statements:
(a) Al over KOH
(a) H2 is more rapidly adsorbed on Mo surfaces
than D2

59
 (b) NaH over H2O 53. The exhausted permutit is generally regenerated
(c) Electrolysis of warm solution of Ba(OH)2 using by percolatting through it a solution of
Ni electrodes (a) Sodium chloride (b) Calcium chloride
(d) All of these (c) Magnesium chloride (d) Potassium chloride
43. The hardness of water is due to .... metal ions 54. Under what condition of temperature and pressure
(a) Ca2+ and Na2+ (b) Mg2+ and K+ the formation of atomic hydrogen from molecular
(c) Ca and Mg
2+ 2+
(d) Zn2+ and Ba2+ hydrogen will be favoured most
44. When silicon is boiled with caustic soda solution, (a) High temperature and high pressure
the gas evolved is (b) Low temperature and low pressure
(a) O2 (b) SiH4 (c) High temperature and low pressure
(c) H2 (d) None of these (d) Low temperature and high pressure
45. Which of the following is called calgon? 55. The most dangerous method of preparing hydrogen
(a) Na2CO3 (b) Ca(OH)2 would be by the action of HCl and
(c) Na2Al2Si2O8 · xH2O (d) Na2[Na4(PO3)6] (a) Zn (b) Fe
46. Ionic hydrides react with water to give (c) K (d) Al
(a) Acidic solutions (b) Basic solutions 56. Which of the following are correct w.r.t. D2O?
(c) Hydride ion (d) Protons (a) Its maximum density is 1.105 g cm-3 at 11.60C
47. Heavy water is not used for drinking because (b) Its m.p. is 3.820C
(a) It is poisonous (c) Its b.p. is 104.420C
(b) It is costly (d) All of the above
(c) Its physilogical action is different from ordinary 57. When hydrolith is treated with water it yields
water (a) H2 (b) H2O2
(d) Its chemical properties are different from (c) N2 (d) NaH
ordinary water 58. In transforming 0.01 mole of PbS to PbSO4, the
48. Which one of the following processes will produce volume of 10 volume H2O2 required will be
hard water ? (a) 11.2 mL (b) 22.4 mL
(a) Addition of Na2SO4 to water (c) 33.6 mL (d) 44.8 mL
(b) Saturation of water with CaCO3 59. H2O 2 restores the colour of lead paintings,
(c) Saturation of water with MgCO3 blackened by the action of H2S gas, by
(d) Saturation of water with CaSO4 (a) Converting PbO2 to Pb
49. From the following statements regarding H2O2, (b) Oxidising PbS to PbSO4
(c) Converting PbCO3 to Pb
choose the incorrect statement :
(d) Oxidising PbSO3 and PbSO4
(a) it has to be kept away from dust
60. 100 cm3 of a sample of H2O2 gives 1000 cm3 of O2
(b) it can act only as oxidising agent
at STP. The given sample is :
(c) it decomposes on exposure to light
(d) it has to be stored in plastic or wax lined gals (a) 10 volume H2O2 (b) 100 volume H2O2
bottles in dark (c) 10% H2O2(W/V) (d) 2.786 N
50. Which is not a water softener 61. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dilute
(a) Calgon (b) Permutit HNO3 on
(c) Na2CO3 (d) Na2SO4 (a) Fe (b) Mg or Mn
51. When zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate) (c) Cu (d) Al
is treated with hard water the sodium ions are 62. Tailing of mercury is a laboratory test for
exchanged with (a) O3 (b) Hg
(a) H+ ions (b) Ca2+ ions (c) Cl2 (d) O2
63. A molten ionic hydride on electroysis gives
(c) SO 2-
4 ions (d) OH- ions (a) H+ ions moving towards the cathode
(b) H+ ions moving towards the anode
52. W hen the same amount of zinc is treated
(c) H2 is liberated at anode
separately with excess of sulphuric acid and
(d) H2 is liberated at cathode
excess of sodium hydroxide, the ratio of volume 64. The number of radioactive isotopes of hydrogen is
of hydrogen evolved is (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these
(c) 2 : 2 (d) 9 : 4

60
65. Ozone is more reactive than oxygen because
(a) Ozone is endothermic compound
(b) Ozone possess higher energy
(c) The formation of ozone takes place with
Absorption of energy
(d) All of these
66. 50% H2SO4 on electrolysis gives
(a) H2O2
(b) H2S2O8
(c) 1 : 1 mixture of H2O2 and H2S2O8
(d) SO2
67. 10cm3 Solution of H2O2 on decomposition gives 150
cm 3 of O2 at S.T.P. The H2O2 has volume strength
(a) 30 vol (b) 15 vol
(c) 10 vol (d) 20 vol
68. The structure of H2O2 is
(a) spherical (b) non-planar
(c) planar (d) linear
69. Commercial 11.2 volume H2O2 solution has a
molarity of
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.5
(c) 11.2 (d) 1.12
70. Para and ortho hydrogen differ by
(a) boiling water
(b) fractional distillaiton of H2O
(c) prolonged electroysis of H2O
(d) heating H2O2

ANSWER

1 A 8 D 15 C 22 C 29 D 36 A 43 C 50 D 57 A 64 A
2 C 9 B 16 D 23 D 30 A 37 B 44 C 51 B 58 D 65 D
3 C 10 C 17 C 24 B 31 C 38 C 45 D 52 A 59 B 66 B
4 D 11 B 18 C 25 C 32 B 39 D 46 B 53 A 60 A 67 B
5 A 12 C 19 D 26 D 33 A 40 B 47 C 54 C 61 B 68 B
6 B 13 D 20 B 27 D 34 C 41 C 48 D 55 C 62 A 69 A
7 D 14 D 21 A 28 D 35 C 42 D 49 B 56 D 63 C 70 C

61
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer : (c) Sodium sulphate
1. W hich of the following alkaline-earth metal (d) Anhydrous calcium chloride
hydroxides is the strongest base 11. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 . Maximum
(a) Be(OH)2 (b) Mg(OH)2 and minimum ionic character will be shown by the
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ba(OH)2 compounds.
2. The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the (a) LiCl, MgCl2 (b) RbCl, BeCl2
following magnetic nature : (c) RbCl, MgCl2 (d) MgCl2, BeCl2
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic 12. The word 'alkali' is used for alkali metals indicates:
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) Diferromagnetic (a) Ash of the plant (b) Metallic nature
(c) Silvery luster (d) Active metal
3. Among KO 2, NO 2 , BaO 2 and NO 2 unpaired
13. Potassium nitrate is called :
electron is present in :
(a) Mohr's salt (b) Gypsum
(a) NO 2 and BaO2 (b) KO2 and BaO2 (c) Indian salt petre (d) Chile salt petre

(c) KO2 only (d) BaO2 only 14. Sparingly soluble salt is :
(a) KCl (b) NaCl
4. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases
with their atomic number is : (c) NH4Cl (d) BaSO4
(a) Ionisation energy 15. The strongest reducing agent of the alkali metal
is:
(b) Solubility of their hydroxides
(a) Li (b) Na
(c) Solubility of their sulphates
(c) K (d) Cs
(d) Electronegativity
16. Magnesium does not decompose the :
5. Lime stone is : (a) Steam (b) Hot water
(a) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2
(c) Cold water (d) Semi hot water
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
17. Alkaline earth metals are denser than alkali metals
6. Sodium nitrate (NaNO3) decomposes above ~800°C because metallic bonding is :
to give
(a) Stronger (b) Weaker
(a) O2 (b) NaO2
(c) Not present (d) Volatile
(c) NO2 (d) Na2O
18. When sodium is heated with moist air, then the
7. The lattice energyof the lithium halides is in the product obtained is :
following order : (a) Na2O (b) NaOH
(a) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI (c) Na2CO3 (d) Na2O2
(b) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI 19. When sodium bicarbonate is heated strongly or
(c) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI calcined in a kiln, it forms :

(d) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF (a) Na (b) Na2CO3
(c) NaCO3 (d) NaHCO3
8. KO2 + CO2  ? (Gas)
20. Which of the following has the lowest solubility :
(a) H2 (b) N2
(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2
(c) O2 (d) CO
(c) CaBr2 (d) Cal2
9. Philosopher's wool when heated with BaO at 1100°C
gives a compound. Identify the compound : 21. Which one of the following on heating will not give
CO2
(a) BaZnO2 (b) Ba + ZnO2
(a) CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3
(c) BaCdO2 (d) BaO2 + Zn
(c) PbCO3 (d) Li2CO3
10. Which of the following substances is used in the
22. Which one of the following on heating with nitrogen
laboratory or fast drying of neutral gases :
gives a nitride :
(a) Sodium phosphate
(a) Na (b) K
(b) Phosphorus pentoxide
(c) Li (d) Rb

76
23. Which of the following compounds transform (c) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity
baking soda into baking powder : (d) Liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic
(a) KCl (b) KHCO3 33. Peroxide bond is present in :
(c) NaHCO3 (d) KHC4H4O6 (a) MgO (b) CaO
24. Which of the following hydroxide is insoluble in (c) Li2O (d) BaO2
water : 34. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties
(a) Be(OH)2 (b) Mg(OH)2 which are similar. But, the two elements differ in :
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ba(OH)2 (a) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
25. Which of the following gives a green colour to flame: (b) Forming polymeric hydrides
(a) Barium (b) Calcium (c) Forming covalent halides
(c) Strontium (d) None of these (d) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
26. Sodium gives blue colour with NH3 solution, this 35. A compound A on heating gives a colourless gas
blue colour is due to : and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain
(a) Ammoniated Na+ (b) Ammoniated Na– B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous
(c) Ammoniated e– (d) Na+ / Na— pair solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the
solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A.
27. Fusion mixture is : The compound is
(a) Na2CO3 + K2CO3 (b) Na2CO3 + NaHCO3
(c) Na2CO3 + NaOH (d) Na2CO3 + K2SO4 (a) CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3
28. KO2 (Potassium superoxide) is used in oxygen (c) K2CO3 (d) CaSO4.2 H2O
cylinders in space and submarines because it : 36. Based on lattice energy and other considerations
(a) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is
(b) Eliminates moisture expected to have the highest melting point
(c) Absorbs CO2 (a) LiCl (b) NaCl
(d) Produces ozone (c) KCl (d) RbCl
29. A metal M readily forms its sulphate MSO4 which 37. When washing soda is heated
is water-soluble, it forms its oxide MO which (a) CO is released
becomes inert on heating. It forms an insoluble (b) CO + CO2 is released
hydroxide M(OH)2 which is soluble in NaOH (c) CO2 is released
solution. Then M is :
(d) Water vapour is released
(a) Mg (b) Ba
38. NaOH is prepared by the method
(c) Ca (d) Be
(a) Down's cell (b) Castner cell
30. Which of the following reaction produces hydrogen:
(c) Solvay process (d) Castner Kellner cell
(a) Mg + H2O (b) BaO2 + HCl
39. Which of the following statements is false
(c) H2S4O8 + H2O (d) Na2O2 + 2HCl
(a) CaOCl2 gives OH–, Cl– and OCl– in aqueous
31. Assertion (A) : Potassium and caesium are used solution
in photoelectric cells
(b) Diamond and graphite are allotrops of carbon
Reason (R) : Potassium and caesium emit
electrons on exposure to light (c) Bleaching action of Cl2 in moist condition is not
permanent
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
explanation of A (d) Calomel is Hg2Cl2

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct 40. The ionic mobility of alkali metal ions in aqueous
explanation of A solution is maximum for -

(c) A is true but R is false (a) Rb+ (b) Li+

(d) Both A and R is false (c) Na+

(d) K+

32. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal
in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the
following does not occur :
(a) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(b) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
41. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its
polarizing power. Which one of the following
sequences represents the increasing order of the
polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca2+,
Mg2+, Be2+ ?
(a) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+

77
 (b) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ (b) High electronegativity
(c) Mg < Be < K < Ca
2+ 2+ + 2+ (c) High charge density
(d) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ (d) Low ionisation potential
42. The hydride ion H– is stronger base than its 51. In the Down's method for the extraction of sodium,
hydroxide ion OH–. Which of the following reaction the melting point of the electrolyte is lowered by
will occur if sodium hydride is dissolved in water - adding -
(a) H–(aq) + H2O  H3O+ (a) Potassium chloride
(b) H–(aq) + H2O  OH– + H2 (b) Calcium chloride
(c) H– + H2O  H2 + O2 (c) Potassium fluoride
(d) H– + H2O  No reaction (d) Both calcium chloride and potassium fluoride
43. Which of the following s-block metals do not impart 52. Considering greater polarisation in LiCl as
any colour to the flame - compared to that in NaCl, which of the following
(a) Li, Be (b) Cs, Fr statement is wrong -
(c) Be, Mg (d) Ba, Ra (a) LiCl has lower M.P. than NaCl
44. The metal extracted by electrolysis of its fused (b) LiCl dissolves in CCl4 while NaCl does not
salt is - (c) LiCl hydrolyses less as compared to NaCl
(a) Fe (b) Pb (d) LiCl is less conductive in water than NaCl
(c) Cu (d) Na 53. W hich of the following carbonate will not
45. Lime stone is decompose on heating
(a) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (a) BaCO3 (b) ZnCO3
(c) 1 & 2 both (d) None of these (c) Na2CO3 (d) Li2CO3
54. The decomposition temperature is maximum for -
46. Be (IIA) shows different behaviour as compared to
other elements of the same group the reason is (a) BeCO3 (b) CaCO3
(a) Small size and high electronegativity (c) K2CO3 (d) Li2CO3
(b) Small size and low electronegativity 55. Which is mismatched -
(c) Bigger size and low ionization energy (a) Nitrolim – CaCN2 + C
(d) Bigger size and large ionic radius (b) Microcosmic salt – Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
47. Consider the following statements - (c) Soda lime – NaHCO3
[a] Cs+ is more highly hydrated than the other alkali (d) Fusion mixture – K2CO3 + Na2CO3
metal ion 56. Metallic magnesium is prepared by -
[b] Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, (a) Reduction of MgO by coke
Lithium has the highest melting point (b) Electolysis of aqueous solution of Mg(NO3)2
[c] Among the alkali metals Lithium forms a stable (c) Displacement of Mg by iron from MgSO4 solution
nitride by direct combination of these statement
(d) Electrolysis of molten MgCl2
(a) a, b, c are correct (b) a, b are correct
57. In alkali metal family caesium should be -
(c) a, c are correct (d) b and c are correct
(a) Least conductive in water
48. In water -
(b) Having low b.p. and m.p.
(a) Temporary hardness is due to the bicarbonates
(c) Least density
of Ca+2 and Mg+2
(d) The most electronegative
(b) Permanent hardness is due to chloride and
sulphates of Ca+2 and Mg+2 58. What is the missing product 'X' in the following
reaction - (Li3N + 3H2O  3LiOH + x)
(c) Hardness can be removed by addding bores
(a) LiNO3 (b) NO2
(d) All are correct
(c) NH3 (d) N2 + H2
49. Which can not be used to generate H2
59. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by
(a) Al + NaOH (b) Zn + NaOH
Hall-Heroult process is carried out -
(c) Mg + NaOH (d) LiH + H2O
(a) In the presence of NaCl
50. Only those elements of s-block can produce
(b) In the presence of fluorite
superoxides which have -
(c) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt
(a) High ionisation energy

78
 with lower melting temperature 65. Limestone ore when heated CO2 is released. In
(d) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt metallurgy this process is called -
with high melting temperature (a) Smelting (b) Ore-dressing
60. Alum is the name used for all double salts having (c) Calcination (d) Roasting
the composition
66. Which of the following element on reacting with
M12SO4.M2III(SO4)3.24H2O.Where MIII stands for cold water liberates H2
Al+3, Cr+3, Fe+3, while MI stands for -
(a) Be (b) Mg
(a) Li+, Cu+, Ag+ (b) Li+, NH4+, Na+
(c) Ca (d) Fe
(c) Na+, K+, Rb+ (d) Ca+2, Mg+2, Sr+2
67. Alkali metals does not form M+2 ions. The most
61. Which of the following order is not correct - probable reason is -
(a) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI – stability (a) They have only one electron
(b) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > LiCl – Melting point (b) II and III IP difference is greater than 16 eV
(c) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH – Melting point (c) II and I IP difference is less than 11 eV
(d) Ca(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > NaOH > KOH – Basic
(d) II and I IP difference is greater than 16 eV
character
68. Which of the following oxide is most thermally
62. Which valuable byproduct is obtained in the Down's
stable -
process for estraction of sodium -
(a) BaO (b) MgO
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) BeO (d) CaO
(c) Chlorine (d) 1 and 2 both
69. On passing excess of CO2 in lime water, its milky
63. Which does not exists in solid state -
appearance disappears because -
(a) LiHCO3 (b) CaCO3
(a) Soluble Ca(OH) is formed
(c) NaHCO3 (d) Na2CO3
(b) Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
64. Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which of
(c) Reaction becomes reversible
the following observation is not true -
(d) Calcium compound evaporated
(a) It becomes paramagnetic
70. Which of the carbide will give methane when reacts
(b) Solution turns into blue due to solvated electrons
with water -
(c) It becomes diamagnetic
(a) BeC2 (b) CaC2
(d) Solution becomes conducting
(c) Be2C (d) Mg2C3

ANSWER
1 D 8 C 15 A 22 C 29 D 36 B 43 C 50 D 57 B 64 C
2 A 9 A 16 C 23 D 30 A 37 D 44 D 51 D 58 C 65 C
3 C 10 D 17 A 24 A 31 A 38 D 45 D 52 C 59 C 66 C
4 B 11 B 18 C 25 A 32 D 39 C 46 A 53 C 60 C 67 D
5 D 12 A 19 B 26 C 33 D 40 A 47 D 54 C 61 D 68 B
6 A 13 C 20 A 27 A 34 B 41 A 48 D 55 C 62 C 69 B
7 A 14 D 21 B 28 A 35 A 42 B 49 C 56 D 63 A 70 C

79
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer :
1. Acid strength of oxy acids of chlorine follows the
order
(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(b) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(c) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO < HClO2
(d) None of the above
2. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te the one with
the highest boiling point is
12. Which is true with regard to the properties of PH3
(a) PH3 is not much stable
(b) PH3 is neutral towards litmus
(c) PH3 has fishy smell
(d) PH3 is insoluble in water
13. Assertion (A) : Covalency of oxygen is three.
Reason (R) : Dinegative anion of oxygen (O2–) is
quite common. But dinegative anion of sulphur (S2–)
is less common

(a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
explanation of A
(b) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight
(b) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
(c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
explanation of A
(d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight (c) A is true but R is false
3. The number of P–O–P bonds in cyclic (d) A is false but R is true
Trimetaphosphoric acid is
14. Which of the following is prepared by electrolytic
(a) Zero (b) Two method
(c) Three (d) Four (a) Ca (b) Sn
4. Sodium oxalate on heating with conc. H2SO4 gives (c) S (d) F2
(a) CO only (b) CO2 only 15. In the preparation of sulphuric acid, V2O5 is used
(c) CO and CO2 (d) SO2 and SO3 in the reaction, which is
5. Which one of the following has highest Lewis acid (a) S + O2  SO2
strength ? (b) 2SO2 + O2  2SO3
(a) BI3 (b) BBr3 (c) SO2 + H2O H2SO4
(c) BF3 (d) BCl3 (d) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
6. Which of the following has the lowest solubility 16. When chlorine reacts with cold and dilute solution
(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2 of sodium hydroxide, the products obtained are
(c) CaBr2 (d) CaI2 (a) Cl– + ClO– (b) Cl– + ClO2–
7. Ozone with KI solution produces (c) Cl– + ClO3– (d) Cl– + ClO4–
(a) Cl2 (b) I2 17. Which noble gas is most soluble in water
(a) He (b) Ar
(c) HI (d) IO3
(c) Ne (d) Xe
8. Which of the following has the highest bond angle 18. Nesselr’s reagent is
(a) H2O (b) H2S (a) Potassium in mercuric iodide
(c) NH3 (d) PH3 (b) TiCl4
9. Which of the following are formed by Xenon (c) Anhydrous AlCl3
(a) XeF3 (b) XeF4 (d) Al2O3 / Cr2O3
(c) XeF5 (d) XeF7 19. The element having atomic number 56 belongs to
10. The weakest acid HX (X = F, Cl, Br, I ) is (a) Actinides (b) Alkaline earth metals
(a) HF (b) HCl (c) Transition series (d) Lanthanides
(c) HBr (d) HI 20. Which of the following reaction is not feasible
11. Which one of the following on heating with nitrogen (a) 2KI + Br2  2KBr + I2
gives a nitride (b) 2H2O + 2F2  2HF + O2
(a) Na (b) K (c) 2KBr + I2  2KI + Br2
(c) Li (d) Rb (d) 2KBr + Cl2  2KCl + Br2

114
21. In XeF2, XeF4, XeF6 the number of lone pairs on Xe 29. Which of the following statement is not true
is respectively (a) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3 (b) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful
(c) 4, 1, 2 (d) 3, 2, 1 reducing agent
22. In case of nitrogen, NCl3 is possible but not NCl5 (c) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show
while in case of phosphorous, PCl3 as well as PCl5
a variable oxidation sate
are possible, It is due to
(a) Availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N (d) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr
(b) Lower electronegativity of P than N 30. What would happen when a solution of potassium
(c) Lower tendency of H bond formation in P than chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric
N acid
(d) Occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous (a) Cr3+ and Cr2O72– are formed
state at room temperature (b) Cr2O72– and H2O are formed
23. Which of the following does not have S – S bond? (c) CrO42– is reduced to +3 state of Cr
2 2
(a) S2 O 4
(b) S2O 3 (d) CrO42– is oxidized to +7 state of Cr
31. What may be expected to happen when phosphine
(c) S2 O52  (D) S2 O72  gas is mixed with chlorine gas
24. Assertion (A) : The fluorine has lower reactivity. (a) The mixture only cools down
Reason (R) : F–F bond has low bond dissociation (b) PCl3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms
energy
up
(a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
(c) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools
explanation of A
down
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A (d) PH3. Cl2 is formed with warming up
(c) A is true but R is false 32. Glass is a
(d) A is false but R is true (a) Microcrystalline solid
25. W hich of the f ollowing species is not a (b) Supper cooled liquid
pseudohalide? (c) Gel
(a) CNO 
(b) RCOO 
(d) Polymeric mixture
33. Which show maximum valency
(c) OCN (d) SCN (a) Phosphorus (b) Tin
26. What is the correct about the reaction? (c) Antimony (d) Bismuth
3NaClO 
 NaClO3  2NaCl 34. White phosphorus (P4) Donot have
(a) It represents disproportionation (a) Six P – P single bonds
(b) The reaction is used for manufacture of halates (b) Four P – P single bonds
(c) The reaction does not occur (c) Four lone pairs of electrons
(d) The process involves simply increase in O.N. (d) PPP angle of 60º
of chlorine 35. A metal sulphides forms white precipitate with
NH4OH. In excess of NH4OH dissolves, again forms
27. The reagent commonly used to determine hardness white ppt. with H2S. Metal is
of water titrimetrically is
(a) Ba (b) Al
(a) Oxalic acid
(c) Sr (d) Zn
(b) Disodium salt of EDTA
(c) Sodium citrate 36. On boiling, phosphorus with KOH solution product
formed is
(d) Sodium thiosulphate
(a) Potassium phosphate
28. The mixture of concentrated HCl and HNO3 made
in 3 : 1 ratio contains (b) Phosphorus pentoxide
(a) ClO2 (b) NOCl (c) Phosphorus hydroxide
(c) NCl3 (d) N2O4 (d) Phosphine
115
37. On reaction with Mg, very dilute Nitric acid 47. The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains
produces (a) Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds
(a) NH3 (b) Nitrous oxide (b) Two 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
(c) Nitric oxide (d) Hydrogen (c) Two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds
38. On hydrolysis PCl3 gives (d) Four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
(a) H3PO4 (b) POCl3 48. Which of the following is the electron deficient
(c) H3PO3 (d) PH3 molecule
(a) B2H6 (b) C2H6
39. Sodium pyrophosphate is
(c) PH3 (d) SiH4
(a) Na2P2O7 (b) Na4P2O7
49. In Hall's process, the main reagent is mixed with-
(c) NaPO4 (d) Na2PO2
(a) NaF (b) Na3AlF6
40. The formula of calcium cyanamide is
(c) AlF3 (d) None of these
(a) Ca(CN)2 (b) CaC2N2
50. Acidic strength of Boron trihalide are in order of -
(a) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
(c) CaCN2 (d) CaCHNH2
(b) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3
41. The smog is essentially caused by the presence (c) BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3 < BI3
of
(d) BF3<BI3<BCl3< BBr3
(a) O3 and N2
51. Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis
(b) O2 and N2
(a) Al4C3 (b) Mg2C3
(c) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
(c) B4C (d) La4C3
(d) O2 and O3
52. Which is used to produce smoke screens
42. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then
(a) Calcium phosphide (b) Zinc sulphide
Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of the
(c) Sodium carbonate (d) Zinc phosphide
statements is incorrect for this reaction?
53. Which oxide does not act as a reducing agent?
(a) Evolved I2 is reduced (b) CuI2 is formed
(a) NO (b) NO2
(c) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (d) Cu2I2 is formed
43. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid (c) N2O (d) N2O5
sate as well as in solution of non-polar solvents
such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives 54. In silicon dioxide
(a) Al2O3 + 6HCl (b) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl– (a) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen
(c) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl (d) Al3+ + 3Cl– atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two
silicon atoms
44. Which one of the following statements regarding
helium is incorrect ? (b) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen
atoms and each oxygen atom is bounded to two
(a) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors silicon atoms
(b) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out (c) Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
experiments at low temperature
(d) There are double bonds between silicon and
(c) It is used to produce and sustain powerful oxygen atoms
superconducting magnets 55. Which gas is liberated when Al4C3 is hydrolysed
(d) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen (a) CH4 (b) C2H2
because it is lighter and noninflammable (c) C2H6 (d) CO2
45. In diborane, the two H–B–H angles are nearly 56. Which of the following attacks glass
(a) 60º, 120º (b) 95º, 120º (a) HCl (b) HF
(c) 95º, 150º (d) 120º, 180º (c) HI (d) HBr
46. Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride 57. When heated NH3 is passed over CuO gas evolved
to dryness will give is -
(a) AlCl3 (b) Al2Cl6 (a) N2 (b) N2O
(c) Al2O3 (d) Al(OH)Cl2 (c) HNO3 (d) NO2

116
58. Which of the following is kept in water ? 64. Which is the most thermodynamically stable
(a) White phosphorous (b) Sodium allotropic form of phosphorus
(a) Red (b) White
(c) Potassium (d) Calcium
(c) Black (d) Yellow
59. Which statement is wrong for NO
65. Nitrogen dioxide is released by heating
(a) It is anhydride of nitrous acid
(a) Pb NO3 2 (b) KNO3
(b) Its dipole moment in 0.22 D
(c) It forms dimer (c) NaNO2 (d) NaNO3
(d) It is paramagnetic 66. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 the gas evolved
60. The number of p–O–p bridges in the structure of is
phosphorous pentoxide and phosphorous trioxide (a) NO2 (b) O2
are respectively (c) N2 (d) N2O
(a) 6, 6 (b) 5, 5 67. SO2 + H2S  product, the final product is
(c) 5, 6 (d) 6, 5 (a) H2O + S (b) H2SO4
61. Aqua-regia is (c) H2SO3 (d) H2S2O3
(a) 1 : 3 conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl 68. Ozone deplict due to the formation of following
compound in Antarctica
(b) 1 : 2 conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
(a) Acrolein (b) Peroxy acetyl nitrate
(c) 3 : 1 conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl
(c) SO2 and SO3 (d) Chlorine nitrate
(d) 2 : 1 conc. HNO3 and conc. HCl 69. The correct order of the thermal stability of
62. The number of hydrogen atom(s) attached to hydrogen halides (H – X) is
phosphorus atom in hypophosphrous acid is (a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(a) Zero (b) Two (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) One (d) Three (c) HCl < HF < HBr < HI
63. Which blue liquid is obtained on reacting equimolar (d) HI > HCl<HF< HBr
amount of two gasses at –30ºC
70. Which one of the following oxides is expected
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 exhibit paramagnetic behaviour
(c) N2O4 (d) N2O5 (a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) ClO2 (d) SiO2

ANSWER
1 A 8 C 15 B 22 A 29 A 36 D 43 B 50 A 57 A 64 C
2 A 9 B 16 A 23 D 30 B 37 D 44 C 51 B 58 A 65 A
3 C 10 A 17 D 24 D 31 B 38 C 45 B 52 A 59 A 66 B
4 C 11 C 18 A 25 B 32 B 39 B 46 C 53 D 60 A 67 A
5 A 12 D 19 B 26 A 33 A 40 C 47 A 54 A 61 A 68 D
6 A 13 D 20 C 27 B 34 B 41 C 48 A 55 A 62 B 69 B
7 B 14 D 21 D 28 B 35 D 42 B 49 B 56 B 63 B 70 C

117
 ASSIGNMENT

Choose the correct Answer : 10. Cu+ ion is not stable is aqueous solution.
1. Mercury is a liquid metal because This is because (Select the wrong
(a) it is a completely filled s-orbital statement among the followings)
(b) It has a small atomic size (a) Copper (I) compounds undergo
(c) It has a completely filled d-orbital that disproportionation in aqueous solution to
prevents d-d overlapping gibve Cu2+ (aq) and Cu (s).
(d) It has a completely filled d-orbital that (b) the E0 value is not favourabe for this
causes d-d overlpping transformation
2. The general electronic configuration of (c) The disproportionation reaction shows
transition elements is that Cu2+ (aq) is much more stable than
(a) (n-1) d1-5 (b) (n-1) d1-10 ns1 Cu+ (aq)
(c) (n-1) d1-10 ns1-2 (d) the hydration entalpy of Cu2+ (aq) is
(d) ns2 (n-1) d10 much more negative than that for Cu+ (aq)
3. which o ne of the followoing d-block and hence it more than compensates for
elements has half filled penultimate d- the second ionization enthalpy of copper.
subshell as well as half filled valence s- 11. What do you infer from the following
subshell? reaction?
(a) Cr (b) Pd VI VII IV
(c) Pt (d) Cu 3MnO42  4H   2 MnO4  MnO2  2H2O
4. Which one of the following is an example Select the wrong statement.
of non-typical transiton elements? (a) This reaction shows disproportionation
(a) Li,K, Na (b) Be,Al,Pb
(c) Zn,Cd,Hg (d) Ba,Ca,Sr of an oxidation state (VI) in MnO42
5. The elements Re, Os and Ir belong to (b) Here the oxidation state of manganese
(a) First transition series in one of the products MnO4 increases to
(b) Second transition series
(c) Third tranistion series (VII) and in the other product MnO 2
(d) Fourth transition series decrease to (VI)
6. Which of the following ion in aqueous (c) Managanese (VI) here becomes
unstable relative to maganese (VII) and
medium has orange colour :
maganese (VI) in acidic medium
(a) Cr2O7–2 (b) Cr+3
(d) One mole of MnO42 is converted into
(c) MnO4 – (d) MnO4 2–
two moles of MnO41 and 1/3 moles of
7. W hich one of the following pairs of
elements is called ‘chemical twins’ because MnO2
of their very similar chemical properties? 12. W hich of the following statements
(a) Mn and W (b) Mo and Tc concerning transition elements is false?
(c) Fe and Co. (d) Hf and Zr (a) They are all metals
(e) Fe and Co. (b) They easily form complex coordination
compunds
8. Which of the following have maximum
(c) They form compounds containing
number of unpaired electrons
unparied electrons and their ion are mostly
(a) Fe3+ (b) Fe2+ coloured.
(d) They show multiple oxidation states
(c) Co2+ (d) Co3+
always differing by units of two
9. Whcih of the 3d series of the transition 13. Highest (+ 7) oxidation state is shown by
metals exhibits the largests number of (a) Co (b) Cr
oxidation states? (c) V (d) Mn
(a) Cr (b) Mn
(c) V (d) Ti

131
14. Out of the following outer electronic 23. Which one of the following ions exhibits
configurations of atoms, the highest d-d transition and paramagnetism as
oxidation state is achieved by which one? well?
(a) (n-1) d8 n s2 (b) (n-1) d5 n s2
(a) CrO 24 (b) Cr2O 72
(c) (n-1) d3 n s2 (d) (n-1) d5 n s1
15. For M /M systems. E0 values for some
3+ 2+
(c) MnO4 (d) MnO 24
metals are as follows: Cr3+/Cr2+= -0.4 V;
24. Transition elements have the maximum
Mn3/Mn2+= +1.5 V; Fe3+/Fe2+ =+0.8 V and
tendency to form complexes because
Fe3+ in acid solution will be
(a) they are metals and all metals form
(a) Cr3 > Fe3+ > Mn3+
complexes
(b) Fe3+ > Cr3+ > Mn3+
(b) they contain incompletely filled d-orbitals
(c) Mn3+ > Cr3+ > Fe3+
(c) they charge/size ratio is quite large
(d) Mn3+ > Fe3+ > Cr3+
(d) both (b) and (c)
16. Four successive members of the first
25. CuSO4 when reacts with KCN form CuCN
series of the transition metals are listed
which is insoluble in water. It is soluble in
below. for which o ne of the, the standard
excess of KCN, due to formation of the
potential (E0 M2+/M)
following complex
(a) Co (Z=27) (b) Ni (Z=28)
(a) K2[Cu(CN)4] (b) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(c) Cu (Z=29) (d) Fe (Z=26)
(c) CuCN2 (d) Cu[KCu(CN)4]
17. The “spin only” magnetic moment [in units
26. German silver alloy contains
of Bohr magenton (u BM) of Ni2+ in aqueous
(a) Zinc, silver and copper
solution would be (At. no. Ni=28)
(b) nickel, silver and copper
(a) 0 (b) 1.73
(c) germanium, silver and copper
(c) 2.84 (d) 4.90
(d) zinc, nickel and copper
18. The highest magetic moment is shown by
27. Essential component of amalgam is
the transiton metal with the configuration
(a) Fe (b) Pb
(c) Hg (d) Cr
(a) 3d2 (b) 3d5
28. Which of the folloing transiton metal is
(c) 3d5 (d) 3d9
present in misch metal?
19. Which of the following ions has a magnetic
(a) La (b) Sc
moment of 5.93 B.M.?
(c) Ni (d) Cr
(a) Mn2+ (b) Fe2+
29. Which of the following goup of transition
(c) Cr 3+
(d) V3+
metals is called coinage metals?
20. The bivalent metal ion having maximum
(a) Cu, Ag, Au (b) Ru, Rh, Pd
paramagentic behaviour among the first
(c) Fe, Co, Ni (d) Os, Ir, Pt
tranition series elements is
30. Fenton’s regent is
(a) Mn2+ (b) Cu2+
(a) SnCl2 + HCl (b) AgNO3 + NH4OH
(c) Sc 2+
(d) Cu+
(c) CuSO4 + NaOH (d) FeSO4 + H2O2
21. The magnetic moment  , of transition 31. Chromite ore has the formula
metals is related to the number of unpaired (a) FeCr2O4 (b) FeO.Cr2O3
electrons, n as (c) FeCr2O7 (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a)   (n  2)2 (b)   n 2 (n  2) 32. K2Cr2O7 reacts with NH4Cl in presence of
H2SO4. The product fromed is
n (a) chormyl chlorate with green vapour
(c)   (d)   n(n  2)
(n  2) (b) chromous chloride with blue vapour
22. Which one of the following statements is (c) Chromous chloride with white vapour
not ture with regard to transition elemetns? (d) chromyl chloride with deep red vapour
(a) They readily form complex compounds 33.  4 K2Cr2O4+ 3 O2 +X
4 K2Cr2O7 Heat
(b) They show variable oxidation states in the above reaction x is
(c) All their ions are colourless (a) CrO3 (b) Cr2O7
(d) Their ions contain partially f illed (c) Cr2O3 (d) CrO5
d-electrons

132
34. The bonds present in the structure of 41. The point of dissimiarity between
dichromatic dianion are lanthanides and actinides is
(a) four equivalent Cr–O bonds only (a) three outermost shells are partially filled
(b) six equivalent Cr– O bonds and One O–O (b) they show oxidation state of
bond +3 (common)
(c) six non-equivalent Cr–O bonds (c) they are called inner-transition elements
(d) six equivalent Cr–O bonds and one Cr– (d) they are radioactive in nature
O–cr bond 42. Differentiating electron is inner-transition
35. In the presence of dilute suphuric acid, the elements enters in the ...............orbital.
equivalent weight of potassium (a) s (b) p
permanganate is (c) d (d) f
(a) 1/5 of its molecular weight 43. Gd (64) has ..............unpaired electrons
(b) 1/6 of its molecular weight with sum of spin................
(c) 1/10 of its molecular weight (a) 7,3.5 (b) 8,3
(d) 1/2 of its molecular weight (c) 6,3 (d) 8,4
36. W hich of the following statement is (e) 9,3.5
incorrect? 44. Most basic hydroxide among the following
(a) The equivalent mass of KMnO 4 in is
strongly alkaline medium is molar mass (a) Lu(OH)3 (b) Eu(OH)3
divided by one (c) Yb(OH)3 (d) Ce(OH)3
(b) The equivalent mass of KMnO4 in 45. The atomic nuber of v, Cr, Mn and Fe are
strongly alkaline medium is molar mass respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one
divided by three of these may be expected ot have the
(c) The equivalent mass of KMnO4 in weakly highest second ionization enthalpy?
alkaline medium is molar mass divided by (a) Cr (b) Mn
three (c) Fe (d) V
(d) The equivalent mass of KMnO 4 in
46. The equibirium Cr2O 27  2CrO 24 is shifted
eneutral medium is molar mass divided by
three to right in
37. Acidified potassium permangante solution (a) an acidic medium (b) a basic medium
is decolourised by (c) a neutral medium (d) it does not exist
(a) bleaching powder (b) white vitriol 47. Which of the following factors may be
(c) Mohr’s salt (d) microsomic salt regarded as the main cause of lanthanide
38. In the following reaction contraction
yMnO4  xH   C 2 O 42 
 yMn   2CO 2  xH 2O, (a) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by
x and y are another in the subshell
(a) 2 and 16 (b) 16 and 2 (b) Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons
(c) 8 and 16 (d) 5 and 2 by another in the subshell
39. The number of mole of KMnO4 that will be (c) poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f
needed to react completely with one mole electrons
of ferrous oxalate Fe (C 2O 4) in acidic (d) Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4f
solution is electron
(a) 3/5 (b) 2/5
48. The lanthnide contraction is responsible for
(c) 4/5 (d) 1
the fact that
40. The equivalent weight of potassium
permanganate in acid solution is (a) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(a) 158 (b) 31.6 (b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(c) 52.16 (d) 79 (c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation sate

133
49. Among the following pairs of ions. the lower 58. Assertion (a): cuprous ion (Cu + ) has
oxidation state in aqueous solution is more unpaired electrons while cupric ion (Cu++)
stable than the other in does not Reason (R): Cuprous
(a) Tl+, Tl3+ (b) Cu+, Cu2+ ion (Cu+) is colourless where as cupric ion
(c) Cr2+, Cr3+ (d) V2+, VO2+ (Cu++) is blue in the aqueous solution
50. Acidified solution of chromic acid on (a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct
treatment with H2O2 gives blue colour which explanation of A
is due to (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a
(a) CrO3 + H2O + O2 correct explanation of A
(b) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2 (c) A is true but R is false
(c) CrO5 + H2O
(d) A is false but R is true
(d) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2
59. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are 24 and 26
51. Fe2+ shows
respectively. Which of the following is
(a) Ferromagnetism (b) Paramagnetism
paramagnetic with the spin of electron
(c) Diamagnetism (d) None of these
52. Zinc and mercury do not show variable
(a) [Cr(NH3)6]+3 (b) [Fe(CO)5]
valency like d-block elements because
(c) [Fe(CN)6]–4 (d) [Cr(CO)6]
(a) They are soft
60. Which of the following does not have
(b) Their d-subshells are complete
electron in 3d-subshell
(c) They have only two electrons in the
(a) Fe (III) (b) Mn (II)
outermost subshell (c) Cr (I) (d) P (0)
(d) Their d-shells are incomplete 61. Which one of the following characteristics
53. Of the ions Zn2+, Ni2+ and Cr3+ [atomic of the transition metals is associated with
number of Zn = 30, Ni = 28, Cr = 24] their catalytic activity
(a) Only Zn2+ is colourless and Ni2+ and (a) Variable oxidation states
Cr3+ are coloured (b) High enthalpy of atomization
(b) All three are colourless (c) Paramagnetic behaviour
(c) All three are coloured (d) Colour of hydrated ions
(d) Only Ni2+ is coloured and Zn2+ and Cr3+ 62. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+ , La3+
are colourless . Eu3+ and Lu3+ is
54. Complex ion is shown by (a) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
(b) Y3– < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+
(a) Ag (b) Au
(c) Lu3+ < Y3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
(c) Cu (d) All of these
(d) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
55. Which of the following transition metal is 63. The atomic number of vanadium (V),
used as a catalyst chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron
(a) Nickel (b) Cobalt (Fe) are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26
(c) Gold (d) Both (a) and (b) which one of these may be expected to
56. Common oxidation state of scandium, a have the highest second ionization enthalpy
transition element is/are [atomic number (a) V (b) Cr
of Sc = 21] (c) Mn (d) Fe
(a) + 4 (b) + 1 64. A reduction in atomic size with increase in
(c) + 2 and + 3 (d) + 4 and + 1 atomic number is a characteristic of
57. The highest magnetic moment is shown elemenl of
(a) High atomic masses
by the transition metal ion with the outer
(b) d-block
electronic configuration
(c) f -block
(a) 3d2 (b) 3d5 (d) Radioactive series
(c) 3d7 (d) 3d9

134
65. Which of the following does not give 69. The main reason for larger number of
positive chromyl chloride test? oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids
(a) CuCl2 (b) HgCl2 than the corresponding lanthanoids is
| (a) Lesser energy difference between 5f
(c) ZnCl2 (d) C6H5 NH3 Cl and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d
66. Manganese is related to which block of orbitals
periodic table (b) Larger atomic size of actinoids than the
(a) s-block (b) p-block lanthanoids
(c) d-block (d) f -block (c) More energy difference between 5f and
67. By passing H2S gas in acidified KMnO4 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
solution, we get (d) Greater reactive nature of the actinoids
(a) K2S (b) S than the lanthanoids
(c) K2SO3 (d) MnO2 70. Four successive members of the first row
68. In the dichromate dianion transition elements are listed below with
(a) 4 Cr - O bonds are equivalent their atomic numbers. Which one of them
(b) 6 Cr - O bonds are equivalent
is expected to have the highest third
(c) all Cr - O bonds are equivalent
ionization enthalpy
(d) all Cr - O bonds are non–equivalent
(a) Vanadium (Z = 23)
(b) Chromium (Z = 24)
(c) Iron (Z = 26)
(d) Manganese (Z + 25)

ANSWER KEY
1 C 11 D 21 D 31 D 41 D 51 B 61 A
2 C 12 D 22 C 32 D 42 D 52 D 62 C
3 A 13 D 23 D 33 C 43 A 53 A 63 B
4 C 14 B 24 D 34 D 44 D 54 D 64 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 A 45 A 55 D 65 B
6 A 16 C 26 D 36 B 46 B 56 C 66 C
7 D 17 C 27 C 37 C 47 A 57 B 67 B
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 B 48 C 58 A 68 B
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 A 49 A 59 A 69 A
10 B 20 A 30 D 40 B 50 C 60 D 70 D

135
LIGANDS :

(a) The neutral molecules, anions or cations which are directly linked with the central metal atom or ion
in a complex ion are called ligands.

(b) Ligands are attached to the central metal ion or atom through coordinate bonds or dative linkage

(c) Ligands are normally polar molecules like NH3 ; H2O or anions such as Cl¯, OH¯, CN¯ etc. which
contain at least one unshared pair of valency electrons.

TYPES OF LIGANDS ON THE BASIS OF NUMBER OF DONOR ATOMS PRESENT IN THEM :

(a) Mono- or unidentate ligands: They have one donor atom, i.e. they supply only one
examples : F¯, Cl¯, Br¯, H2O , NH3, CN¯, NO 2¯, NO¯ CO

(b) Bidentate ligands: Ligands which have two donor atoms and have the ability to link with central
metal ion at two positions are called bidentate ligands. Some examples are:

CH2 N
(1) (2) oxalate(ox) (3) 1,10-phenanthroline (o-phen)
CH2 N

Ethylenediamine (en)
(4) Glycinato (Gly) (5) 2,2'-Dipyridyl (Dipy) (6) Carbonato
(c) Tridentate ligands : The ligands having three donor atoms are called tridentate ligands.
Examples are:

N N
(1) (2) Diethylene triamine (dien)
N

2,2',2"-Terpyridine (terpy)
(d) Tetradentate ligands: These ligands possess four donor atoms. Example are:

CH2COO¯
CH2COO¯
(1) N (2) Triethylene tetramine (Trien)

CH2COO¯
(Nitriloacetato)

(e) Pentadentate ligands : They have five donor atoms. For example, ethylenediamine
triacetate ion.
Ethylenediamine triacetato ion
(f) Hexadentate ligands : They are six donor atoms. The most important example is
ethylenediamine tetraacetateion.
Ethylenediamine tetraacetato ion (EDTA)4–

136
 CH. 8
CO - ORDANATION COMPOUND

Choose the correct Answer : 11. The number of possible isomers of a

square planar complex [M(ABCD)] is
1. Which of the following 0.1 M complex
(a) 4 (b) 3
compound solutions will have the minimum
(c) 2 (9) 1
electrical conductivity?
12. How many geometrical isomers are
(a) Hexaammineplatnum (IV) chloride
possible with complexes of the type
(b)Chloropentaammineplatinum (IV)
[M(ab)3]?
chloride
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) Dichlorotetraammineplatinum (IV)
(c) (d)
chloride
13. Which of the following is not optically
(d) Trichlorotriammineplatinum (IV) chloride
active?
2. When AgNO3 solution is added in excess
(a) [Co(en)3]|3+
to 1 M solution of CoCl3.x NH3, one mole of
(b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
AgCl is formed. What is the value of x?
(c) cis-[CoCl2(en)2]+
(a) 1 (b) 2
(d) trans-[CoCl2(en)2]+
(c) 3 (d) 4
14. The possible number of optical isomers in
3. The number of moles of ions given on
[Co(en)2Cl2]+ are
complete ionisation of one mole of
(a) 2 (b) 3
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] is
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) 4 (b) 3
15. The type of isomerism shown by the
(c) 2 (d) 1
complex [CoCl2(en)2] is
4. Which of the following complex will give
(a) geometrical isomerism
white precipitate with BaCl2(aq.)?
(b) coordination isomerism
(a) [Co(NH3)4SO4]NO2
(c) ionization isomerism
(b) [Cr(NH3)5SO4]Cl
(d) linkage isomerism
(c) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4
16. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl.NO2] Cl
(d) Both (a) and (b)
are.....isomers
5. The oxidaion number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4-
(a) geometrical (b) optical
ia
(c) linkage (d) ionization
(a) 3 (b) 4
17. Which of the following statements is
(c) 2 (d) 6
incorrect?
6. The ligands in anti-cancer drug cisplatin are
(a) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied
(a) NH3.Cl- (b) NH3, H2O
only the secondary valency of ferric ion
(c) Cl-, H2O (d) NO, Cl-
(b) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied
7. In K4[Fe(CN)6]
both primary and secondary valencies of
(a) (CN) are linked with primary valency
ferric ion
(b) (CN) are linked with secondary valency
(c) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied
(c) K are linked with secondary valency
both primary and secondary valencies of
(d) K are linked with non-ionic valency
ferrous ion
8. Oxidation state of iron in [Fe(H2O)5NO] SO4
(d) In Cu(NH3)SO4, the ligand has satisfied
is
only the secondary valency of ferric ion
(a) + 1 (b) + 2
(c) + 3 (d) + 4
18. The type of isomerism present in
9. Formula of sodium nitropusside is
nitropentaamminechromium (III) chloride is
(a) Na2 [Fe (CN)3 NO]
(a) optical (b) linkage
(b) Na3 [Fe (CN)5 ONO]
(c) ionization (d) both (b) and (c)
(c) Na2 [Fe (CN)5 NO]
19. The compound PtCl 4. 2HCl gives no
(d) Na4 [Fe(CN)4 NO]
precipitate with excess of AgNO3 solution.
10. Facial and meridianal isomerism will be
The primary and secondary valencies of
exhibited by
the metal in the compound are respectively
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(a) +4, 6 (b) +2, 4
(b) [Co(en)3] Cl3 (d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(c) +4, 4 (d) +2, 6
149
20. When 0.01 mole of a cobalt complex is 30. Zeigler-Natta catalyst is
treated with excess silver nitrate solution, (a) ZnCl2 (b) Et3Al + TiCl4
4.306 g silver chloride is precipitated, The (c) Cu/ZnO-Cr2O3 (d) Pt
formula of the complex is 31. Which of the following is not considered
(a) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] as an organometallic compound?
(b) [Co(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 (a) Cis-platin (b) Ferrocene
(c) [Co(NH3)6] Cl3 (c) Zeise’s salt (d) Grignard reagent
(d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]NO3 32. Ferrocene is
21. The bonds in K4[Fe(CN)6] are (a) Fe( η5 - C5H5)2 (b) Fe( η 2 - C5H5)2
(a) all ionic
(b) all covalent (c) Cr( η5 - C5H5)5 (d) Os( η5 - C5H5)2
(c) ionic and covalent 33. The π -bonded organometallic compound
(d) ionic, covalent and co-ordinate covalent which has ethene as one of its component
22. In which of the following complex ion, the is
central metal ion is in a state of sp3d2 (a) Zeise’s salt
hydridization? (b) ferrocene
(a) [CoF6]3- (b) [Co(NH3)63+ (c) dibenzene chromium
(c) [Fe(CN)6] 3-
(d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (d) tetraethyl tin
23. Which of the following is an outer orbital 34. Which of the following is a π -acid ligand/
complex? (a) NH3 (b) CO
(a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (c) F- (d) Ethylene diamine
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- (d) [Mn(CN)6]4- 35. The metal-carbon bond in metal carbonyls
24. [Ni(CN)4] ion is diamagnetic and it involves
2-
possesses
the following hybridisation (a) only s character
(a) dsp2 (b) sp3 (b) only p character
(c) d sp
2 3
(d) sp3d2 (c) both s and p character
25. Among [Ni(CO) 4], [Ni(CN) 4] 2-, [NiCl 4] 2- (d) only d character
species, the hybridisation states of Ni atom 36. Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol
are, respectively. solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to
(a) sp3, dsp2, dsp2 (b) sp3, dsp2, sp3 ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following
(c) sp3, sp3, dsp2 (d) dsp2, sp3, sp statements is not true?
26. In [Ag(CN)2]-, the number of π bonds is
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
27. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high
spin complexes of
(a) d7 (b) d8
(a) Red complex has a square planar
(c) d4 (d) d9
geometry
28. What will be the correct order for the
(b) Complex has symmetrical H-bonding
wavelengths of absorption in the visible
(c) Red complex has a tetrahedral
region of the following complexes
geometry
[Ni(NO2)6]4-, [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(d) Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate
(a) H2O < NO 2 < NH3 ligand
37. Wilkinson’s catalyst is
(b) NO 2 < H2O < NH3 (a) TiCl4 and Al(C2H5)3
(c) H2O < NH3< NO 2 (b) [C6H5)3P]3 RhCl
(c) TiCl4 and (C6H5)3 P
(d) NO 2 < NH3< H2O (d) Al (C2H5)3, TiCl4 and (C6H5)3 P
29. The effective atomic number of iron in 38. Wilkinson’s catalyst is used in
[Fe(CN)6]3- is (a) polymerization (b) condensation
(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) halogenation (d) hydrogenation
(c) 37 (d) 35
150
39. Ziegler-Natta catalyst is used to prepare 47. Which of the following facts about the
(a) low density polythene complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong?
(b) teflon (a) The complex involves d 2sp 3
(c) high density polythene hybridization and is octahedral in shape
(d) nylon-6 (b) The complex is paramagnetic
40. If  0 < P than electronic configuration of d4 (c) The complex is an outer orbital complex
(d) The complex gives white precipitate
species will be with silver nitrate solution.
4 0
(a) t 2geg
4 0
(b) eg t 2g 48. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2-
is 5.9 B.M. The geometry of the complex
3 1 2 2
(c) t 2g eg (d) eg t 2g ion is
41. Which of the following cannot show linkage (a) square planar (b) tetrahedral
isomerism? (c) square pyramidal (d) trigonal
bipyramidal
(a) NO 2 (b) SCN- 49. Which one is paramagnetic?
(c) CN- (d) NH3 (At. no. Cr=24, Fe=26)
42. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the (a) Cr(CO)6 (b) Fe(CO)5
number of unpaired electrons in (c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
[Mn(H2O6]2+ will be 50. How many ions are produced from
(At. no. of Mn=25) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 in solution?
(a) five (b) two (a) 6 (b) 4
(c) four (d) three (c) 3 (d) 2
43. CN- is a strong field ligand. This is due to 51. The complex chlorocompound
the fact that diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride is
(a)it is a pseudo halide represented as
(b) it can accept electrons from metal (a) [Co(NH3)3 (H2O)3]Cl2
species (b) [Co(NH2)3 (H2O)2]Cl2
(c) it forms high spin complexes with metal (c) [CoCl(NH3)3 (H2O)2]Cl3
species (d) [CoCl(NH3)3 (H2O)2]Cl2
(d) it carries negative charge 52. The complex used as an anticancer agent
44. The coordination number of a central metal is
in a complex is determined by (a) trans -[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(a) the number of ligands around a metal (b) cis -[PtCl2(NH3)2]
ion bonded by sigma and pi bonds both (c) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
(b) the number of ligands around a metal (d) Na2CO3
ion bonded by pi-bonds 53. Low spin complex of d 6 -cation in an
(c) the number of ligands around a metal octahedral field will have the following
ion bonded by sigma bonds energy:
(d) the number of only anionic ligands 2 2
bonded to the metal ion (a)   0  2 P (b)   0  P
45. Carnallite in solution in H2O, shows the 5 5
properties of 12 12
2- (c)  0  P (d)   0  3P
(a) K+, Mg2+, Cl- (b) K+, Cl-, SO , Br-
4 5 5
54. Which one of the following octahedral
(c) K+, Mg2+, CO 32- (d) K+, Mg2+, Cl-, Br-
complexes will not show geometric
46. Square planar complex of the type M (AXBL) isomerism (A and B are monodentate
(where A, B, X and L are unidentate ligands) ligands)
shows following set of isomers (a) [MA5B] (b) [MA2B4]
(a) two cis and one trans (c) [MA3B3] (d) [MA4B2]
(b) two trans and one cis
(c) two cis and two trans
(d) three cis and one trans
151
55. The number of unpaired electrons in the 64. The oxidatiuon state of Fe in the brown ring
complex ion [CoF 6 ] 3– is (Atomic no. Co complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is
= 27) (a) +1 (b) +2
(a) Zero (b) 2 (c) +3 (d) +4
(c) 3 (d) 4 65. Which of the following complexes is used
56. Finely divided iron combines with CO to give as an anti - cancer agent ?
(a) Fe(CO)5 (b) Fe2(CO)9 (a) mer - [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(c) Fe2CO12 (d) Fe(CO)6 (b) cis - [PtCl2(NH3)2]
57. Crystal field stabilization energy for high (c) cis - K2[PtCl2Br2]
spin d4 octahedral complex is (d) Na2COCl4
(a) 0.6 0 (B) 1.8 0 66. Platinum dissolves in aqua regia to form
(a) PtCl4 (b) H2PtCl6
(c) 1.6 0  P (d) 1.2 0 (c) Pt(NO3)4 (d) [PtCl2(NO3)2]
58. An aqueous solution of potash Alum gives 67. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of
(a) Two types of ions (b) Only one type of KCN to give
ion (a) [Cu(CN)4]2- (b) Cu(CN)2
(c) Four type of ions (d) Three types of (c) CuCN (d) [Cu(CN)4]3-
ions 68. Sodium nitroprusside reacts with sulphide
59. W hich of the followng complex has ion to give a purple colour due to the
formation of
minimum magnitude of  0 ? (a) [Fe(CN)5NO]3- (b) [Fe(NO)5CN]-
(a) [Cr(CN)6]3- (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4- (d) [Fe(CN)5NOS]3-
(c) [CoCl6]3- (d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ 69 Which one of the following is wrongly
60. In a complex, the highest possible matched ?
co-ordination number is : (a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ - square planar
(a) 6 (b) 12 (b) [Ni(CO)4] - neutral ligand
(c) 4 (d) 8 (c) [Fe(CN)6]3- sp3d2
61. Which of the following shell form an (d) [Co(en)3]3+ - follows EAN rule
octahedral complex ? 70. Which of the following facts about the
(a) d4 (low spin) (b) d8 (high spin) complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is wrong ?
(c) d (low spin)
6
(d) All of these (a) The complex is paramagnetic
62. Among the following metal carbonyls, the (b) The complex is an outer orbital complex
C - O bond order is lowest in (c) The complex gives white precipitate with
(a) [Mn(CO)6]+ (b) [Fe(CO)5] silver nitrate solution
(c) Cr(CO)6] (d) [V(CO)6]- (d) The complex involves d 2sp 3
63. Which of the following carbonyls will have hybridization and is octahedral in shape
the strongest C - O bond ?
(a) Mn  CO 6

(b) Cr(CO)6

(c) V  CO 6

(d) Fe (CO)5

ANSWER KEY
1 D 8 A 15 A 22 A 29 D 36 C 43 A 50 B 57 A 64 A
2 D 9 C 16 D 23 B 30 B 37 B 44 A 51 C 58 D 65 B
3 D 10 A 17 A 24 A 31 A 38 D 45 A 52 B 59 C 66 B
4 C 11 B 18 D 25 B 32 A 39 C 46 A 53 D 60 D 67 D
5 C 12 A 19 A 26 C 33 A 40 C 47 C 54 A 61 C 68 C
6 A 13 D 20 C 27 D 34 B 41 D 48 B 55 D 62 D 69 C
7 B 14 A 21 D 28 D 35 C 42 A 49 D 56 A 63 A 70 B
152
 ASSIGNMENT
Choose the correct Answer : (c) Iron (d) Sodium
1. Concentration of copper pyrites is done by the 9 Which one is not the ore of aluminium
following method :- (a) Corundum (b) Cryolite
(a) Magnetic separation (c) Calamine (d) Haematite
(b) Gravity separation 10. Which is correct as per the Ellingham diagram?
(c) Froth floatation process
(a) More negative the G 0 of oxide formation of a
(d) None
metal, more is teh stability o the oxide
2. In the refining of copper, pure copper is deposited
on :- (b) More negative the G 0 of oxide formation of a
(a) Anode (b) Cathode metal, better is the reducing property of the metal
(c) 1 & 2 both (d) None of these (c) The graphs have positive slope except for the
3. Which of the following metal is unable to remove formation of CO
copper ion from CuSO4 solution :- (d) All of the above
(a) Zn (b) Fe 11. Sodium is extracted from
(c) Ni (d) Ag (a) Aqueous sodium chloride
4. Calcium of the lime stone added in the metallurgy (b) molten sodium chloride
of iron comes out at the end as :- (c) NaOH
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (d) NaNO3
(c) CaSiO3 (d) None of these 12. In the extraction of which of the following metal
5. When ore is heated below its melting point in the complex compound is formed :-
absence of air, the process is called :- (a) Cu (b) Zn
(a) Roasting (b) Calcination (c) Ag (d) Fe
(c) Smelting (d) Reduction 13. Concentration of which of the following ore is carried
6. From the adjacent graphs of oxide formation: out by froth floatation process :-
(a) Bauxite (b) Chalcocite
(c) Haematite (d) Calamine
14. Flux used in the metallurgy of iron is :-
(a) SiO2 (b) CaCO3
(c) Felspar (d) Flit
15. Which of the following is not the ore of iron :-
(a) Siderite (b) Haematite
I. 4Fe + 3O 2  2Fe 2 O3
(c) Limonite (d) Malachite
II. 2CO + O2  2CO2 16. CuFeS2 is :-
III. 2C + O 2  2CO (a) Chalocite (b) Malachite
(c) Chalcopyrite (d) Pyrite
Which statement is correct?
17. Components stainless steel are :-
(a) Fe2O3 can be reduced to Fe by CO below 8500C
(a) Cu + Sn + Fe (b) Fe + Mn
(b) Fe2O3 can be reduced to be by C above 8500C
(c) Fe + Cr + Ni (d) Fe + Zn
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
18. From CuFeS2, Cu is finally obtained in :
(d) Both (a) and (b) are wrong
(a) Reverberatory furnace
7. In the removal of silica during smelting, the flux (b) Blast furnace
used is
(c) Bessemer convetor
(a) ferric oxide (b) calcium oxide
(d) Sinterer
(c) cupric oxide (d)phosphorus pentoxide
19. Which one is the ore of iron :-
8. The complex ion is formed in the extraction of :
(a) Cuprite (b) Magnetite
(a) Copper (b) Silver
163
 (c) Bauxite (d) None of these (d) To reduce the m.p. of Alumina
20. Cryolite is the ore of :- 30. In the manufacture of iron from haematite,
(a) Al (b) Cu limestone is added to act as :-
(c) Ag (d) Fe (a) An oxidizing agent (b) A reducing agent
21. Cyanide process is used in the :- (c) Flux (d) Slag
(a) Metallurgy of iron 31. Which of the following metals is obtained by
(b) Metallurgy of silver electrolytic reduction process :-
(c) Metallurgy of copper (a) Fe (b) Cu
(d) Metallurgy of aluminium (c) Ag (d) Al
22. From the solution of copper sulphate, copper can 32. Which of the following metals is found in native
be displaced by which one of the following metal :- state in nature :-
(a) Fe (b) Au (a) Al (b) Cu
(c) Pt (d) Ag (c) Fe (d) Ag
23. Cryolite is used in the extraction of :- 33. After partial roasting, the sulphide of copper is
(a) Ag (b) Al reduced by :-
(c) Cr (d) Cu (a) Cyanide process
24. Which process of purification is represented by the (b) Electrolysis
following scheme ? (c) Reduction with carbon
Ti(impure) + 2I2 
250 C TiI
 4 1400 C Ti (pure) + I2 (d) Self reduction

(a) Cupellation 34. In the reaction Zn + NaOH  X, the product
(b) Poling X is :-
(c) Electrolytic refining (a) Na2ZnO2 (b) 2NaZnO2
(d) Van-Arkel process (c) Zn(OH)2 (d) None of these
25. The carbonate ore of iron and sulphide ore of 35. The metal extracted by electrolysis of its salt is :
copper are respectively :- (a) Iron (b) Lead
(a) Limonite and malachite (c) Sodium (d) Copper
(b) Siderite and chalcopyrite 36. Which of the following has highest carbon content
(c) Haematite and chalcocite (a) Wrought iron (b) Cast iron
(d) Magnetite and azurite
(c) Stainless steel (d) None
26. Which of the following sulphides when heated strongly
37. Which of the following, the metal that cannot be
in air gives the corresponding metal ?
obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of
(a) Cu2S (b) CuS its salt is :-
(c) Fe2S3 (d) HgS (a) Ag (b) Mg
27. Monds process is used for – (c) Cu (d) Au
(a) Ni (b) Al 38. During smelting, an additional substance is added
(c) Fe (d) Cu which combines with impurities to form a fusible
28. Which is not iron ore :- product. The product form is known as :-
(a) Haematite (b) Siderite (a) Slag (b) Mud
(c) Dolomite (d) Limonite (c) Gangue (d) Flux
29. The cryolite is used in the electrolytic extraction of 39. Zone refining is a method to obtain :-
aluminium :- (a) Very high temperature
(a) To oxidise bauxite (b) Ultra pure Al
(b) To get more aluminium (c) Ultra pure metals (d) Ultra pure oxides
(c) To protect anode 40. In blast furnace, maximum temperature is in :-

164
 (a) Zone of fusion 49. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving
(b) Zone of combustion only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg
of aluminium metal from bauxite by Hall Heroult
(c) Zone of slag combustion
process is (At. mass of Al = 27) :
(d) Zone of reduction
(a) 180 kg (b) 270 kg
41. Pyrolusite is :-
(a) MnO (b) Mn3O2 (c) 540 kg (d) 90 kg

(c) SnO2 (d) MnO2 50. Copper pyrites ore is concentrated by :-

42. Mac Arthur process is used for :- (a) Electro magnetic method
(a) Ag (b) Fe (b) Gravity method
(c) Cl (d) O2 (c) Froth floatation method
43. Sodium is made by the electrolysis of a molten (d) All of the above methods
mixture of about 40% NaCl and 60% CaCl2 51. Liquation, as a process of purification, is used for :
because:- (a) Pb (b) Sn
(a) CaCl2 helps in conduction of electricity (c) Bi (d) all of these
(b) This mixture has a lower melting point than NaCl 52. In metallurgical processes, the flux used for
(c) Ca++ can displace Na from NaCl removing acidic impurities is :-
(d) Ca++ can reduce NaCl to Na (a) silica (b) sodium chloride
44. Use of electrolysis is :- (c) limestone (d) sodium carbonate
(a) Electroplating (b) Electrorefining 53. Identify the process to which the following reaction
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these belongs :
45. Calcium is obtained by :- Al2O3.2H2O + Na2CO3 ¾  2NaAlO2+2H2O + CO2
(a) Roasting of lime stone 50  60 C
2NaAlO2 + 2H2O + CO2   Al2O3.2H2O
(b) Electrolysis of calcium chloride in H2O + Na2CO3
(c) Electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium (a) Hall's process
chloride
(b) Baeyer's process
(d) Reduction of calcium chloride with carbon (c) Serpeck's process
46. Cassiterite is concentrated by :- (d) None of these
(a) Levigation 54. Which of the following mineral does not contain
(b) Electromagnetic separation Al?
(c) Floatation (a) Cryolite (b) Mica
(d) Liquefaction (c) Felspar (d) Fluorspar
47. In the context of Hall Heroult process for the 55. Which of the following alloys contain(s) Cu and Zn
extraction of Al, which of the following statements (a) Bronze (b) Brass
is false? (c) Gun metal (d) Type metal
(a) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte 56. The metal which cannot be produced on reduction
of its oxide by aluminium is :-
(b) CO and CO2 are produced in this process.
(a) K (b) Mn
(c) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the
(c) Cr (d) Fe
m.p. of the mixture and brings conductivity.
57. Zn cannot displace following ions from their aqueous
(d) Al3+ is reduced at cathode to form Al. solution :-
48. Which one of the following is used to remove silicon (a) Ag+ (b) Cu++
dioxide in the Serpeck's process of purification of
(c) Fe++ (d) Na+
bauxite ?
58. In thermite process, the metal used as reducing
(a) CaO (b) Na2CO3
agent is :
(c) Coke (d) Nickel
(a) zinc (b) nickel

165
 (c) aluminium (d) sodium 62. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by
(a) a & b (b) b & c Hall-heroult process is carried out :-
(c) c & d (d) b, c, d (a) In the presence of NaCl
59. Aluminium oxide is not reduced by chemical (b) In the presence of fluorite
reactions since :- (c) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt
(a) Aluminium oxide is highly stable with lower melting temperature
(b) Aluminium oxide is reactive (d) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt
(c) Reducing agents contaminate with higher melting temperature
(d) The process pollutes the environment 63. In which of the following maximum percentage of
carbon :-
60. The main purpose of coke in the metallurgy of iron,
in blast furnace is to : (a) Electrolysis copper (b) Cast iron
(a) reduce Fe2O3 (c) Steel (d) Stainless steel
(b) produce heat by burning 64. An important ore of copper is :-
(c) produce CO gas by reacting with CO2, for
(a) Bauxite (b) Galena
reduction of Fe2O3
(d) both (b) and (c) (c) Siderite (d) Chalcopyrite
65. The iron obtained from blast furnace is called :
61. Among the following statements, the incorrect one
is :- (a) blister iron (b) spelter iron
(a) Calamine and siderite are carbonates (c) pig iron (d) steel
(b) Argentite and cuprite are oxides 66. Heating pyrite ores to remove sulphur is known as
(c) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides (a) Liquation (b) Smelting
(d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper (c) Calcination (d) Roasting
67. Cupellation process is used in the metallurgy of
(a) Copper (b) Silver
(c) Iron (d) Aluminium
68. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(a) A mineral cannot be an ore
(b) An ore cannot be a mineral
(c) All ores are minerals
(d) All minerals are ores
69. Which of the following lead oxides is "Sindhur" ?
(a) PbO (b) PbO2
(c) Pb2O3 (d) Pb3O4
70. W hich of following metal is extracted by
electrometallurgical method :-
(a) Cu (b) Fe
(c) Na (d) Ag

ANSWER
1 C 8 B 15 D 22 A 29 D 36 B 4 3 A ,B 50 C 57 D 64 D
2 B 9 D 16 C 23 B 30 C 37 B 44 C 51 D 58 C 65 C
3 D 10 D 17 C 24 D 31 D 38 D 45 C 52 C 59 A 66 D
4 C 11 B 18 C 25 B 32 D 39 C 46 B 53 A 60 C 67 B
5 B 12 C 19 B 26 D 33 D 40 B 47 A 54 D 61 B 68 C
6 C 13 B 20 A 27 A 34 A 41 D 48 C 55 B 62 C 69 A
7 B 14 B 21 B 28 C 35 C 42 A 49 D 56 A 63 B 70 C
166