Eramdit:_adcsecal ( fovea yet ween 40 1 meeryesrien ‘Numberof Page in Booklet : 40 ‘Question Paper Booklet No. Fi gird avon 2159 ra em No.of Questions in Booklet: Paper Code : 36 Pais tr Sub: EA.RM-I WRT: 3.00 we afrenarn ates : 75, ‘Time: 3.00 Hours ree rr wi aK ere & Ae ahaa tt ale w whol ay GARR wr a fe at Paper - II Maximum Marks: 75 Serer GRR WC wet eTHor Ger Ya affee at a wre we aiita t | wet GH fe a tere thew & gem ween er we A | Ser ART wet Ree eee ah | — | on opening the paper sealpolythene bag of the Question Paper Booklet the candidate should ensure! ‘that Question Paper Booklet No. of the Question Paper Booklet and Answer Sheet must be same. If there is any difference, candidate must obtain another Question Paper Booklet from Invigilator. Candidate himself shall be responsible for ensuring this. wa aed wae de | wd ret ¥ ae or Fs sree ort dee ee ze | tate tenis eae em ere seg ey A eR, FN 1,23, 44s fou me 1 ser ta at ee Fe es gw rie seer er aye oe oe weet a ea we | OM ee er fs Se a | a he fier alert wr oe, wh gece Pret et 8 Re oa ae eee 8 eer HE archer ame ee ee 1 er eT eT area red ae ae see fet ores ge 2 ee Sec R | fk her 2 eh wee et a ee gee ft er | sien So ae ee bent a an Boh fa sere oe ah Eye Set toe fre a emer ef (pen aren tee shat aw ot ergs ah SE rn aver ag eR mS ae gH autaee fr 10, oe fetter Re et Ee mee ew PA a oer ed bah ce A a st eee aut | “Answer al questions ‘Allusions uy equal ahs (nly one savers be gen frac question more thn one ser ae marked would Be Weed Each question hat four ceive responses marked sly 1 1,2, 3,4 You have tare ely ene cil buble Incing he conest answer te Asner Sex sng BLUE BALL POINSTPEN, ‘The OMR Answer Stet i isd his Tex Book. When you ae deta to open the Test Boole, ake ot the ‘Anawe Sheet ad il se parila eal th lve ‘ba peat pes ony 1/3 part ofthe mark() of lon will be educa foreach wrong ansmer A wrong answer means ‘incorrect anower or tore than obe anowers foray ‘leon, Leaving al teen rcs o buble of sy ‘ietion lak inte cnlered a wrong never Mobile Phone or any oer electoni gadget in cxamiation hall avi probed. cate found ‘thay fac ejecdontemanri er wll be tly de spore. Please comely fil your oll Number in OM. Sheet. Mark canbe Sed filing wong er incomplt Ral Nonbe 10. Iter is any sr of amiga either of iting ot ‘actual mtr then oot of Hid ad English Veron of he ‘eton he English ese ile weed stnderd5 4. sancdia fearen aft xine sreren até emen fearon site wher sree aft, 2016 (3S) & wen fra al Hat aE ett 7 ) sae, 2016 (2) see, 2017 (8) Rear, 2016 (4) fee, 2017 rem weg min ae a ye ‘writers ata 8? (0) (RF ae (2) wre ez te (3) Wares te (4) Sa cra Wafer & mem 8 fe da afi a ah fe at a, Pa a 4, ada Sota anf 5 A} errr, apf anfio e afehem, 1976 % ae find dt? ) 1976 (2) 2013 (3) 2002 (@ 1979 areata Bar he oar eee Prefer aerate? ()) senchpta hes edt A eT (2) Reef a at A fern Beer =a @) @i& gram agen Fare aT rey ware GAH =o @) sataa at 1044 Sten age we a a agate naa at ware er (Q) IBRD 3 IMF (2) WTO sit ADB (8) IDBI stk IFCI (4) sedan ia eae The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established in which year under the Insolvency ‘and Bankruptey Code, 2016 (Code) ? (1) October, 2016 2) October, 2017 (3) December, 2016 (4) December, 2017 Who is the main sponsor of Rajasthan Marudhara Gramin Bank ? () Government of Rajasthan ) State Bank of India (8) Punjab National Bank (@) Government of India In which year, after amalgamating 3 Regional Rural Banks, the Baroda Rajasthan Kshetriya Gramin Bank was established under Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976 through Gazette notification ? @) 2013 Q) 1976 (8) 2002 @ 1979 Which of the following is the objective of International ‘Monetary Fund? (@) Establishing International Monetary Co-operation. (® Ensuring stability in the foreign exchange rates. (@ Bliminating or reducing the disequilibrium ‘maladjustimenta in balance of payments cf countries. (A) Allof the above are the two multilateral organizations created at in the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944 ? (@) IBRD and IMF (2) WTO and ADB (8) IDBI and IFCI (4) None of above 610. 1s ‘friday ADRs Pritt ae wet 7 (1) ify Freres gr (2) seanha eee ar (8) rea feed © qe. Bas saredta Prafa-sirara ds eee fret aiding oh 7 ()) 1972 2) 1992 (@) 1982 @ 1981 fara oma rar 3 snftrares ak frafafiaa 32 fire aught & ae weorat 7 (1) dee easitar @) Ber saste (@) Ree waa (4) satan aaa ae em sen a eae Reet fae 2, frei aif sorf, doar aioe a afta after sr vet ag wee | agers Fae 2) settee fae (8) mans fide (@) water sare tafe we & wea van Te Hi wea fateh Fae A vor wat? [fear 2020 #1) (a) 51% @ 49% @) 74% @) 26% pro digesta Qatar ae Sar aee 7 (2) at nea Gere @ Ris Ras ageMIT (8) seed te maT ah aera ee A) Ba are fear fore ew THT IRR Which of the following may issue ADRs? (1) American Investors (2) International Exchange @) RBI (4) Banks of U.S. EXIM bank was established in which year? (@) 1972 @ 1992 @) 1982 @ 1981 The WTO officially commenced under which of following agreement ? (1) Torquay agreement (2) Geneva agreement (8) Marrakesh agreement (4) None of the above is a type of Foreign Direct Investment in which a company make lease or purchase of a pre-existing facility in host country. Q) Strategie investment @) Greenfield investment @) Brownfield investment (@) Allof the above What is the FDI limit in Defence Production under — Automatic Route in India ? (As on ‘September, 2020) (2) 49% ay 51% @) 74% (4) 26% |. Which of the following should not be included. in the current account of balance of payment ? (1) Visible trading across countries. () Invisible trading across. countries. ‘ () Bonus shares to equity shareholders. (4) Unilateral transfers to relatives outside country. ovw ba a apt ea Hae A wea | 12. Government's Direct Foreign Aid feeeh mere Pretera by a country to another country : ns al vwill come in which of the ‘feat a ore 7 following accounts of the second (2) eae srr era Canis - rect income receiver (2) safes ia are aes © tam (2) Official reserves account @) Capital account ORs n @ Current account 13. Non-debt creating capital inflow ‘comes under the category of () External commercial borrowings (2) Capital account (@) Current account (4) Official reserves account a A ara Fe A ame (2) ret aoa see @® Pram @ seen (@) safes aaa erm | | | | | 3. | | | | Sate Se atk eng Pahoa a woreht & | 14, Which one of the following is | | | | | : | | | | | Prafean 32 ete correct with respect to Central st eae? Bank and Fixed Exchange Rate (2) ‘Ree Pata gr Fao ToT RBI system? ) RBI intervention in the fixed adr aaah eT Cee (2) fer faeeh aa fafa aon # RBI not permitted. wr weds seers ag 8 oe @® RBI's intervention in the fixed foreign exchange ‘fafa ct at acer 8 | market is not necessary as change rates do not change. © Reng Ree RBT eT | SMM EN ead ara sa eT foreign exchange market is ea often necessary. Ome ( Allof the above ‘facet aa faba Sifter i waft @A_ | «15. Which of the following is external “Sat sia tetra ta aah 7 process of managing Forex risk ? © gexec @) Do nothing (2) Fate sheatin (2) Leading and lagging @ 3 (@) Netting (@) PRR seTC aT (@) Foreign currency borrowing 4 %16. am 18. weer: feet ga fhe aan #, Rah Bra A Soci wT SS ‘ara % HUA TA WHT (Spill-Over) ware Feat 8 wee LL : rae Pate aT PAPA ATT 4, sige siftercoit er see Parr fen wer Bek SRI : feeeh yr fafa aa Ft sf —nes wan ria | ‘aaiten wer HB whe /a aE e/E 7 Q) ae (@ SaaeeI shI (9) Sa er I si IL @) wiser ae ‘fre a ativan fate sweat Ret (FDI) wivEne 7 Q) Shae Sot. Os (8) SIM Conglomerate) FS.IR. @) sateen etna mal Som ge feaft Hen 1 mgd, fae ore ote cade eararcer # forq He IT Prefeften Ha at 8 wea aca t 7 () we ar 8 fe, Aan, wa a nfter ae 1 2) we awa RP, Re em, ears wae araTs | (@) We a 8, GH atk Reiter wa cater | @ ater | | | | | | | | | | | F | | | js i | | | | | | | | | 5 16. Statement I : In foreign exchange market prices of foreign currencies have spill- over effects on trade between two natiors. Statement II : Often in foreign exchange market, monetary authorities aim at stabilizing the exchange rate. Statement If : The supply-side quantity of the foreign exchange market is virtually unlimited. Which of the above statement(s) is correct ? (1) Statement I only (2) Statement I and IT only @) Statement I and IIT only (@) All the statements are correct. Which of the following is a type of FDI? (1) Horizontal FDI (2) Vertical FDI (8) Conglomerate FDI (4) Allofthe above A country had a balance of tra‘ deficit in a year. Balance for wages, investment income and current transfers were zero. Which of the following statement(s) is true? (@) It may possible that investment must have exceeded saving. (@) Te may possible that borrowing from abroad must have been equal to the trade deficit. (8) Itmay possible that, there must have been a surplus on the capital and financing account. (4) Allof the above19. 20. 21, 22, 23, 24, aan faxden & aaa oe sift st, five re weft a zee fore aw, ara aete 7 () serafere / srattag aie @ Pires @) fafrcarp sir @) weer a tee ‘Som was & Pra he (@) sifera re @) sien ear (@) aiferrsten @) ste freafattea #8 ata ar rete wat A _afeattierat ar te EE 7 (2) Frafet at steores (2) sari eaicantta Se (3) Feed aa eer fore sere (0) rare afreerna a eteatfa wT ‘fafaora a fares cea entra ee & (a) rarer FRR (2) oe Fa (3) dares fafa (4) satan ent um srfere feafa a, aren a fate a wr fruteo ata a weet 7 ()) sé... (IMF) (2) snéat.am-&. (IBRD) (@ smeah.ang. (RBD @) satan a a ig at fava saan ara fea aed & ar wor t (svat aasha & ara seat sphrante asta % ara) 7 (1) free de aft seatdia gg ate @ wee st (3) Frew (1) BAR (2) (4) saben a at ae What do we call the risk not unique to a specific company or industry under Market Analysis ? () Unsystematic risk Q) Specific risk (8) Diversifiable risk (A) None of the above ). Basic methods of Risk Management include (2) Risk Avoidance (2) Risk Transfer (8) Risk sharing (4) Allof the above . Which of the following is not the benefit of Convertibility of Indian rupee ? 1) Encouragement to exports. @) Discouragement to imports. @) Incentive to send remittances from abroud. (@) Discouragement to import substitution. . Exchange rate is governed under @) Quantitative method (2) Qualitative method 8) Theoretical method (@) Allof the above |. In an emergent situation, who may determine the Exchange Rate in India? ) IMF () IBRD (8) RBI (4) None of the above |. WTO works in co-operation with which of the following (with formal agreements or without formal agreements) ? @Q) World Bank and IMF (@) WHO (3) Option (1) and (2) (4) None of the above25. 26. 27. 28. 29, 36 vunda Palast = Prefeted fa ‘feat areata t 2 () aaa sna sar ae a (2) Peter a (3) See sre & rata are a 4) sree wre sar -aiger wear t @ Ryan Q) ereMT (8) Frafe-srare (4) ster IDA, IFC der fe Ha frm sor iran a waa t 7 (Q) 4.3. (UNO) (2) 34.4.1. (WTO) (3) sng.za.qs. (IME) ( attsf.am&. (BRD) GDR oan fra eis fafa az ating eat? ai eis eae 2) cer eis eae (3) cael eis CR (4) Fre (2) aA (8) NAMA 31g #18 7 (a) faPrafor seare, (2) be shown sere, (8) St fees (1) 3th 2) (4) Sete a ag at frrafafisa ia ata ered wee 7 (a) phe era aera Baga | (2) BF 1997 % efter farts dee ‘aro fot ren oReatiaan 3 eh varie fea | (8) rea a are aren othe oh rer aH wath pi cheater aeHAae | (@) sen nA EXIM Bank is concerned with which of following ? (1) India’s import trade only (2) Foreign trade (@) India’s export trade only (4) India’s domestic trade ;. Balance of trade is related to (2) Domestic trade (2) Local trade (3) Export - Import (@) Allof the above IDA, IFC Institutes are related with which of the following pioneering organization ? (@ UNO @) WTO @) IMF (4) IBRD 3. The GDRs are often listed at which of following Stock Exchange ? (2) New York Stock Exchange (2) London Stock Exchange (8). Luxembourg Stock Exchange (4) Option (2) & (3) What are NAMA products ? (Q) Manufacturing products (2) Fuels and mining products (8) Both option (1) and (2) (4) None of the above |. Which of the snot correct ? @) Full Capi Account convertibility is allowed. @ We stopped continuing Capital. “Account convertibility due to the 1997 Financial Crisis. In India ‘the full convertibility of Rupee is allowed. in both current account and capital account. (4) Allof the above @a1. 33, 34. Pakasa a, wer sommage we | 31. Se somar afer Fear sre 7 () sere | (2) Frafa | (@) Set onioraren Rah Rae | @) frees 2) 3 (8) Bt z ‘wea sits @, ae ECGC | Swine fie ctf tt | (Shipments Comprehensive Risks | Policy) % farms & 1 (2) 500@Te- (2) 1007Re | @ 2a.) TMG | Prafafa 4 aaa § aft ot at ar Bah? os | (1) sirens gear 8 wa Rais | aiafeg | | ® a tary esa toe | @) Fite «otc @) satan a eae TEP eer Sy wi Hort ais ce Brads waa sete a amar as 7 | (@) = / tee = stad aT (agt aa a fears ra, zereh, |. satus woe ot aera are | “afta & 1) | (2) ora / Heer ar shea aes (wet | ora 8 rarer ora, wae TORE | | | | | | | sterner as oat |) (8) Ba / Eater a sha (ae ara seta sfaca waa |) © Be / Mes wT ates AT Gael ora # Prana ora, wa are oe Bear IH AAR. 881) Exporter ‘Which of ‘the following may be included in the credit side of Balance of Trade account of a country ? Q) Imports: @) Exports @) Foreign investment in the domestic economy. (4) Option (2) & (8) both ‘whose annual export ‘tumover is more than __is eligible for Shipments Comprehensive Risks Policy of ECGC. (Q) 500 Lakh (@) 25 Lakh (2) 100 Lakh (4) 700 Lakh |. Which one of the following is objective of ECGC ? (@) Protect the Indian exporters against. unforeseen losses. @) To provide adequate finance to the Indian exporters. (@) Both option (2) and (2). ( None of the above Some pereentage of assets is spent to run a mutual fund which are bom by investors. How to compute that percentage of assets ? (1) Expenses/average value of portfolio (where expense includes operational cost, brokerage, ‘management consultancy and advisory foes) Expenses/average value of portfolio (where expense includes operational cost, management consultancy and advisory fees) Expenses/average value of portfolio (where expense represents brokerage) Expenses/average value of portfolio (where expense excludes operational cost, management consultancy and advisory fees) @ @ @= 35. 36. 38, ue fans 3 1 3s fra ot ara Se a (1) Sra aor Prete Serer we fea git feat ore @ 1 (2). ira Fea tert @ atk os A ora & dn fet ft aor a at aha (8) sf ea ath & sar-agre & are ‘tea feo acts Bhar wee @) Tia ‘Preaferfian 8 a ata ar tise Yer & eat Sma (2) Bef Yn Tea ao we aH megane! (2) sefee Yen & wet IPO aa Ta Qarht! (8) sefte ten & cea eatin waa wierd ont | @) sere . Raa 3% ona, wigs ye a gar, ate arent a eat —_tat! (1) 32 100 wt TE 39% (2) 3eH 200 wig TE 39% (8) 3H 500 wits 2.5% (4) weRr 100 aitg 2.5% romdt sera ser sie sft feet Fae AH ae HH (RIE HTS FEW), ‘Freferarn 38 frm doh or 7 Q) Ga Paes @ Father ds @) Fea dge @) satan ta ai ae | | i | | | | | | | | 35. 36. An Exchange traded fund's (1) price is determined only at the end of every day. (2) price is fixed and does not undergo any change during the tenure of the fund. (8) price changes throughout the day, fluctuating with supply and demand. (@) Allof the above Which of the following is correct about the scope of credit rating ? (2) Under credit rating opinion is provided about debt instrument. (2) Under credit rating opinion is provided about IPO. (8) Under credit rating opinion is provided about commercial paper. (@) Allof the above The Total Expense Ratio (TER) allowed under regulation is _ of average weekly net assets. (1) 8% for the first 100 crore (2) 8% for the first 200 crore (8) 2.5% for the first 500 crore (4) 2.5% for the first 100 crore . Bearing initial extremely high risks and highest rate of returns, (for start-ups)’ comes under the category of which of following ? (1) Anget investors (2) Venture capital funds (8) Investment banks (4) None of the above39, Bite Hens att am wee 2 () whe Ae aRate Ter ee em aPrart (2). ears, * aaah sft & IPO Fiftrae afer sittin % fore, Fete aieer oferd we (@) NBC we ardatie oon & fore ‘Seite Yen aise start 2 @ BHR ara anne fre ‘seiee Yen fiver aftard 2 | . dar Sheet fds ae & aegis % at A Prefered i a at ar ae 2 7 (@) ae Sten fae ate} seafa orgy a4 & otis & sar 9 beth fi a 5 8 sen 1 @ aa ahes Sar de % acale apaia, art fia aR wae Q) sata aa ate eT |. WS ¥SRC SE [Indexed Fund) & sifts wards 228 %8 [Exchange ‘Traded Fund] #1 gore 8: () fan ar eter (2) afte sar 3 arte 41, 42. & Fert 4 an suena @ ¢ 200 aig A aif eich @ | Fer F¥ 1000 ‘GR uni ¥ fenfia we st fetus eran wz Federal ah dear | en aa fees AH Tae? @) Wwoorhtaat eae | 40. 41. ). What is true about Credit Rating ? () Credit Rating process is mandatory for listed Non- convertible Debentures. Credit Rating process is not mandatory for Initial Public Offerings of companies that are getting listed. Credit Rating | process is mandatory for public deposit by NBFCs. Credit “Rating process is mandatory for Commercial papers by Corporate. Which of the following, is true about valuation of Venture Capital investment deal ? (2) In Venture Capital Investment deal, Valuation is done as per SEBI formula, @) Pre-money valuation is done in Venture Capital Investment @ @ @ deal. (8) In Venture Capital investment deal, Valuation is done as per company law. (4) None of the above ‘The main advantage(s) of an Exchange Traded Fund over an Indexed Fund is (1) Investing flexibility (2) Traded more easily (8) More convenient (4) Allof the above . A company has receivables of € 200 crores from four borrowers. It converts these into smaller portions” of 1000 each and sells these to smaller investors in the secondary market. ‘What do we call this fragmentation of the loan ? (2) Debt unit scheme @) Debt securitization @) Assets reconstruction (4) A company cannot do this43. 45. 46. ae a snk, eA we Bh Fgura the eta eh, tf 2007 aeceneeh | afr @) 4RH.-1995 3) 1w.-64 4) aA.ane. ates we fet sraeamsit ate site after @over sor fan afr & freferhern 8 Ra cee eit 7 (2) Frere (2) Bape Frere (@) res Bh aT @) Pea viea ds eae i ‘fer a stra ada fries ara (New Issue Market) ar rd & (a) sigur (2) aftr (8) Prem (®) satan at sre} Sf srt a way fae we ‘weater aa aritea Ret a ww fen art & | sy eee eT ET Sve Tester = sities wet & ‘Frente a weara wt teen S18 Sgt arent? () et wan ere [The Capital Market line] (2) sft arare enga [The Security Market lino] @) aR tw Characteristic line) @) waar [The 43, 46. a UTI scheme ___ was the largest mutual fund scheme in India, which was closed in the year 2007. ) ULIP (2) US-1995 (8) US-64 (4) UTI Bond Fund Identifying return requirements & risk tolerance is involved in which of the following component of the investment process ? (2) Investment vehicles (2) Strategy development (8) Understanding the client (@) In every component of the investment process ; Which of the following is the function of New Issue Market ? (2) Origination (2) Underwriting (8) Distribution (4) All of the above ‘You are given with a graph with standard the horizontal axis and expected return on the vertical axis. What will you call the line representing the portfolio that optimally combine risk and return ? deviation on (1) The capital market line (2) The security market line (8) The characteristic line (4) Allof the above41. 48. 49. fa 81 @ Seibaeae ‘fice We weft aid ar aan 2 fe ewer het aad ores 8 ea TAS q@) Cae AUG. & mea, we awa EA caftrgaifies (Over Priced) sity % Rae () Fares ER (2) werereTe et (8) BRRTEG EH @ wt APT & ait 4 faraftfaa # @ a oT whe? (@® CAPM % festa, APT et ahead =i % sre & ‘ifr site at seater eet & (2) CAPM ®% favia, APT # =m ‘sfrerarers arate ti (@ CAPM & fasta, APT # serra Bua faaka afta fed A area a8 © seer ae eT | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 2 41. 48. 49. 50. Which one of the following is true ? (1) If an asset's expected return plots above the security market line, then the asset is overpriced. If an asset’s expected return plots above the security market line, then the asset is fairly priced. Gf it has an unustilly large amount of ‘unique risk) If an asset's expected return plots above the security market line, then the asset is under priced. (4) None of the above @ @) Capital Asset Pricing Theory asserts that portfolio returns are best ined if: explained if: (1) Monetary factors are known (2) Market trend is known (8) Systematic risk is there () Specific risk is there Under the CAPM, we can say that overpriced securities have__. (1) Negative alphas (2) Negative betas (8) Positive alphas (4) Zero betas Which of the following is correct about APT? (1) In contrast to the CAPM, APT uses risk premiums based on micro economic variables. (2) In contrast to the CAPM, APT have fewer _ restrictive assumptions. (8) In contrast to the CAPM, APT requires normally distributed security returns. (A) All of above is correct. 3651. 52. 63. APT ager fire festa Pa 7 Q) Rte @ ateewta (3) fafa art @) Sate ‘Prafean ia ata arse wet 7 (Q) CAPM sft APT st srgaa at Sf, wh Rams GHB aT aT Few dhrke deste ai | (2) CAPM 3it APT hi aaa & f, Siar afte weenfirs sear % re wart | (8) CAPM afte APT asi aad € f, ‘Sifter att wenfia wera % ie aid aor agi 8 @ siete Frafeaa ta ater wer wat 7 Be: werd rd aan [Strong form efficient market] #, fiat ara #1 aft arena, ae ag ardafie @ ar Pah, a ele Hoa woo went HAI: EMH A wreafies wren ae 8 fe arent arden ev 3 are Hoard ¢ ok als A Sw ‘ventana sqEer sate | (@) water Laer @ walter @) this @ se aD @ FFM) aaa | 5s. . Who developed the APT model ? (2) Harry Markowitz @) Walt Stoy (@) William Sharpe (4) Stephen Ross Which of the following statement is correct ? (J) Both the CAPM and the APT predict that, all investors will hold the’ same market portfolio in same market situation. @) Both the CAPM and the APT state that, there is a relation between risk and expected return, (8) Both the CAPM and the APT state that, there is no relation between risk and expected return. (&) Allof the above Which of the following statement is true? Statement I : In a strong form efficient market, all information in a market, whether public or is secounted for in a Statement H : The primary assumptions of EMH ere that information is universally shared and that stock prices follow a random walk. (@) Neither Statement I nor Statement IL (2) Statement I only. (8) Both Statement I & Stateinent II. (4) Statement II only.87. 58. freafafira 8 weet ore ae, ag ait wom suai % fee fae oa a entree el ar fe BET aH 7 (@) wum.é.sm.x, (SMERA) (2) aiff... (ICRA) (3) si.ané tant, (ONICRA) (4) fief (CRISIL) 5. fern a at a aR aT se a () 3x0 feet (2) alee site fernfixe (CD), @) arinfere 3a @) seer eh . fr Fa a ah fades atm feria & 7 (2) ea SH aera / ate aia otk wh Rawat at aera ear 8 1 (2) Frengsr Bea At ame 8 fea fet sf rere @ sfefedt faa se ginead anrifrc act | (8) fears (1) aA (2) (4) ara Peeper (2) atte (2) aheeiferdh eat aor area fora fect ‘tee fare faeeftra feet 7 (a) Paferam art (2) Sata @ eae 4) sata HS aE eT ah & ada rer Br 8 2 (wa 20214) Q) ash. mentee (2) Area. ae (8) fame (eA) 4) sate HS at eT |. Which of the following is a full service Credit Rating Agency exclusively set up for micro, small and medium enterprises in India? (1) SMERA 2) ICRA (8) ONICRA 4) CRISIL |. Which of the following is money market instrument ? (1) Treasury bills (2) Certificates of deposit (8) Commercial paper (4) Allof the above 3. Which of the following is a feature of Secondary Market ? (1) Low transaction cost and gives . liquidity to all investors. (2) Rarely adjusts the security's price to any development due to insider trading. (8) Option (1) and (2). (4) Neither option (1) nor (2). . Who developed Mean Variance Analysis Model of Portfolio theory ? (1) William Sharpe (2) Stephen Ross (8) Eugene Fama’s (4) None of the above . Who is the present Chairman of SEBI? (as on February 2021) (2) Shri G. Mahalingam (2) Shri $.K. Mohanty (8) Minister of Finance (ex-officio) (4) None of the above59. 61. 62. (Q) 2016 (8) 2018 (2) 2017 @ 2019 sree fifa ote fafa (afar: ate) Fae fre Farka foam a 7 (a) 2016 (@) 2018 x (@) 2017 (4) 2019 reales 38 aver Beh ae fer ar ates gear sera eT 7 (2) Rac rece att ores afr weet ©) ae ots on (9) Pres geen itr @ whe SAR ser eT @ agree ‘Praferfan 3 a ata ar fReratin sitters eR? @) NSE IFSC faeatin ait ferfties |. Securities and Exchange Board of India (Foreign Portfolio Investors) Regulations were passed in which year? @) 2016 (3) 2018 (@) 2017 (4) 2019 ). Securities and Exchange Board of India (Buy-back of Securities) Regulations were passed in which year? () 2016 (3) 2018 (@) 2017 (4) 2019 |. Which of the following is not an investor protection measure taken by SEBI? 7 (2) Simplification of share transfer and allotment procedure. (2) Unique order code number. (8) Providing fund to each investor from _ Investor protection fund. (4) Timely stamping of contracts. Which of the following is not a Clearing Corporation ? @) NSE IFSC Corporation Limited. Clearing (2) Multi Commodity Exchange Clearing Corporation Ltd. (8) Metropolitan Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (4) NSE Trade Settlement Clearing Corporation Limited63, frafafsr 4 & svat NSE faerafer ‘Ferfies wr tea ae 8 7 (a) sft 3 senator aft Pree Hh ‘Fare er a wre Ta Fore (2) sitra safer ma se eA fer (3) 3a fiver sat wt agen Ba waa fee @ & wm Aer tem wort ‘eeenfers 8% fre | “aw far 36 rafts 5 fer 8 1 gor erste 15 fee ar oS geo aa [early start time] af 6 Raa a frenaan Yeah aM [latest start time] Tar? | sig arte, 11 era a ad eo ‘WH [early start time] 3K 12 Reva wr fran gest TI [latest start time] Tam @ | wawice: @) 1 eae @ 2 faa @) 5 aa @ Tae fret aftitser # afafafi ar Peafefers ara agaist: Wa a are (wae siftes era) 07 era srrarargt waa : 06 feae ‘frrerardt aa : 09 fears wa nfafafe & fee sft ana ste fers a a 7 (@) 7.17 fea, 0.25 fee (2) 7.38 faa, 0.25 fea (8) 3.67 eam, 1.5 fewer (4) 7.17 Ream, 1.5 eae 64. 65. 16 63. Which of the following is not an objective of NSE clearing Limited ? (@) To bring and sustain confidence in clearing and settlement of securities. ‘To provide counter-party risk guarantee, To promote and maintain, long settlement cycles. To operate a tight risk containment system. @ @ @ For an activity duration is 5 days and the node at the star has an early start time of 5 days and a latest start time of 6 days. The node at the end has an early start time of 11 days and a latest start time of 12 days. The total float is () 1day (@) 2days (@) 5 days ) Tday The following time of activity in a project is estimated : Most likely completion time : 7 days. Optimistic time : 6 days, Pessimistic time : 9 days. ‘What will be the expected time and. the variance for this activity ? (1) 7.17 days, 0.25 days (2) 7.38 days, 0.25 days (@) 3.67 days, 1.5 days @ 7.17 days, 1.5 days %66. GH US Fe ve [one or two tail test] mL we, em Praferfiad Putte BO aa wae G) sreight =r aa (wife Ba) [Region of Rejection], fer HUA Ge [tails] Fea 1 (2) aRereraT & es a1 a afta Pree er @ aaa % 3 sc ae [AR a often) fre setter oa A Ara 1 (4) Free (1) 3K (8) Bt ‘ews fms tsar, er fied eit e: ay stem fated (@) Yerw a he Aes fae (8) Berend ag fafarrard a ae arraTg ‘Fafeerard, 67. (@) Rae 0 8 Ye afta ase “ga firant dan go aei8 aft Prefer sr IWF [coefficient of determination] 41% sta &, ate ah orem aa (1) Sar fe es ar whe Hae ae, vwaftrg er feof tt A) Saree wimawt a1 @ WaT RW Wa wT a went) (3) Wi ae series Prien 8 1 (4) BS ta qt Fok 8 | | i | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | ! v 66. By applying one or two tail test, we try to determine the following : (2) Region of rejection is located in one or the two tails of the distribution. (2) Hypothesis has one or two possible conclusions. (8). Two extreme values (min or max) of the sample which need to be rejected. (4) Option (1) and (8) both 67. In the linear regression model, total variations consist of (Q) Minor and major variation. @) Linear and non-linear variations. (®) Explained _ variations unexplained variations. ( There is nothing like “total variations” in __ linear regression model specifically. and 68. If the coefficient of determination is close to zero, we interpret that (2) As zero makes no sense 80 we cannot interpret anything, (2) One variable has no impact on the other variable. (8) The variables have negative dependence between them, (4) Tho variables have total dependence between them.69. 70. 1. ‘Yas sonfin [Linear Programming] aerate or ae e () GH HK H Rea WH [Objective value] & aff seers are Et Sant! Qe te wm ahem [Constraint equation) 4 wari wig [Negative coefficient] =e & ear @ | (@) GH HH Sy Fa [objective function) 3 aarIe Ts [Negative coefficient] 71 # wae WR Hr THIS we A A wemel reafroa 48 ae ar yea emer ma age: (2) Ser aterert ww sleet fret {Sampling Theory] ®1 @) ar weer we aifert ahecr @ fast ae are nfs oretepha fee ster Fear aren 8 (@) A wer w we A atrer & free fre # att wel (Hera) 7881 (4) yer BiewreT Uw aT 8 aE [Universe] % fare sfaezt [Sample] # *-sgarn afaat ame! efi ata, Ae efes wt finda, He aH go wal wade ater sr otra Q) aaa TER (3) seamen fae (Underlying Distribution} (4) Fee (2) HR (8) Se i | | | | | | | | | | | 1 | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 1 Fry 69. 70. n. Non-negativity in _ linear programming implies that () A variable cannot have a negative contribution towards the objective value. (@) A variable cannot have a negative coefficient in a constraint equation. () A variable cannot have a negative coefficient in the objective function. (4) A variable cannot have a negative value. Which of the following is correct about the ‘null hypothesis ? (2) ‘Nur hypothesis isa sampling theory. @ ‘Nui? hypothesis isa statistical concept used for possible rejection under the assumption that is true, (8) ‘Null hypothesis is a type of hypothesis which has no significance in sampling. (4) ‘Null hypothesis is a tool that proves the non-suitability of ‘a sample to the Universe. Parametric test, unlike the non- parametric tests, make certain assumption about : (2) Size of the population (2) Size of the sample (3) Underlying distribution (4) Option (2) & (3) both72, 2B. 14. 1. 36 sewer sham #, ze I ae (Type Terror) 7488, 3a: @) FG ye tier F cer wet Baa ae wee © 8S ye ter a eer we same at | (8) WH egy 1a [Type I error] eden at E 1 (4) SaeT Ha aig ae 15% % area RE [level of significance) ora aren ten ae aad e: (1) 5% saree € FS Rony et a FAR RE (2) BH 95% sareae & fap afters dat aerate! (8) 95% smeaea & fs ator sat amaRe! A) BH 5% saree EP aor ae a wrRE! varf-crarat abet [Chi-square Test] Sweet 8 fry, 22 A eat 2c [Contingency table] 4 sees et rare ar a a a | a5 @4 (3) 10 @) ater a ee aa fig ae ww aS fhe ‘wee ig ar sea fear arer (@) stata @) Pear (3) fara (4) saben a aad adh 2. In hypothesis testing, Type I error is committed when (1) We accept a null hypothesis when it is not true. (2) We reject a null hypothesis when it is true. (8) We accept the type I error. (4) None of the above . By taking a level of significance of 5%, we can say that (@) We are 5% confident that the results have not occurred by chance. (2) We are 95% confident that the results have not occurred by chance. (8) We are 95% confident that the results have occurred by chance. (A) We are 5% confident that the real have occurred by chance. |. For the chisquare test to be effective, the expected value for each cell in the 2*2 contingency table has to be at least : @s @4 @) 10 (4) None of these - To measure ranked variables, correlation coefficient is used () Spearman's (2) Pearson's (8) Fisher's (4) None of the above16. 11. 18. 9. Aires weary an aia wa fire we ates eres a aren (2) Faby +b,X + bX? @ y=atbx ©) F=dy+b,X? @ wire stat ‘ae ere (sre) a ga HT oT ‘fea a ee? (Q) Sere [Leptokracy) (Q) HET [Homoscedacity] (8) #1-Aftaia [Covariance] @) steam safer afer aor GT aT BY eeeT es (2) afataz faftt [Univariate Method] (2) Yas faft (Linear Method) (8) wafer fait [Time-series Method] (4) wate S AEE enerer era fre sree Pr eT aman: (2) ates seat at ar me seat apd shade eer @ vet Soe wen a: we wares forte sar (8) wea sem SoH a Wes WE & fee nea S ers he BT @ sora? | 1. 8. 79. |. The most commonly used formula to describe linear relationship is () F=by + bX +b X? (@ y=a+bx @) F=by+b,X? (4) None of the above Constant variance can be also expressed as () Leptokracy (2) Homoscedacity (8) Covariance (4) Allof the above ‘The other name of regression method may be () Univariate method (2) Linear method (@) Time-series method (4) None of the above Classical time series decomposition method's premise is (Q) to. convert annual trend values to monthly trend values. to separate the components and then recompose them by putting them together. to separate the components and then test the level of significance for every component. (4) depending on the variable. @ ® 36a1. 82. aie fer Smoothing] (1) rer Boh <8 gage Pt a (2) Yew & veer os fat (3) freer a gare we & fore so ‘arats ar SearT ea A Us FR @) staat fafeier 1 8 ee mw wT ahenfl & afer at ana = ‘iferéta sre 8? (a) aR (sea) Fee (2) Fear (2) Fee (4) Saar mail Preafertiad Sar (aris) Reem é : re FI TER: 9 m4 (Mean) : 16 sway fer (Standard deviation) : 4 ‘rr fe (Standard Error) #1 ? @) 1.00 @) 1.33 @) 0.66 @ 0.75 wee: agua ier [inferential statistics], 27 2a a gen FR a he at “araratine er aea B AAT & | we: saute ‘wifes [inferential statistics] ae ‘wftesi area [Sample Mean] #1 aaa rear Seg OTS aA & ater sen aa aratht @) aI @ eA @ PAO sk a) (4) Sit seat E 1 [Exponential Exponential smoothing is, (1) One of the forecasting methods in time series. (2) A method of testing linearity. (8) A method to use number exponents to smooth the deviations, (A) Allof the above . Which one of the following is the statistical tool to measure Volatility of a single asset ? (1) Standard deviation (2) Correlation (8) Covariance (4) Allof the above You are given with following data : A sample size of 9, Armean of 16 and A standard deviation of 4 What is the standard error? (1.00 @) 1.33 (8) 0.66 (A) 0.75 . Statement 1 Inferential statistics is related with providing conclusions and generalizations about population from sample data. Statement II : Inferential statistics is related with providing the best estimate of the sample mean only. Which of above statement(s) is correct ? (1) Statement 1 (2) Statement II (8) Statement I and Statement II (4) Both are incorrect statements. o84. Sera mea A TT 15 a wT ae [standard error] # 7 rH 3.5 1718 81 sia: 95% BREE are FS were @ 1.52185 (2) 8.148 21.86 @) 5.982 24.01 4) wera rae rere 8 1 BR Bera F are ay Roi & ted, wa caftorsit apr afeifires et aa @ oh fe ghia 8 sree Pee at | we rer aT Q) wage (2) tga (aan) faftrea ae (8) Set famed (1) aft (2) 4) Sater aa ai aE frfafar 9 8 ahh deere (atgaa) siftemt [conditional probability] 784% ? (2) ert Ha PA A sR (2) far gata & ore ten set ee diate (3) ifs ofa 8g sree fe ee, B, Bite aiftiea 84 A wife @) Gace @a Gad ara Ga i die SHIR A ft refer a wher ah a & 2 (2) Ren xd sift [Unconditional Probability] wr wear # ware 291 ww a afte ora wera & ara araara | (4 dere eg ar are, shyt rer aa TT STATA STR | ©) Fee sony fawert Sein ETT | ‘agree #1 aren am, set wh aon ae [Sampling error] &f | 87. @ 84. The standard error has been calculated as 3.5 and the sample mean is 15.00 Thus the 95% confidence interval lies between Q) 11.5 to 185 @) 8.14 to 21.86 (8) 5.98 to 2401 ) Insufficient available. information is Pattern of results found in our samples do not represent the results that would be obtained from the entire population. This may happen due to (2) Selection error (2) Population specification error (8) Both option (1) and (2) (4) None of the above |. Which of the following is not a conditional probability ? (@) The probability of falling down while walking. @) The probability of passing your exam without any revision. (8) The probability of being COVID positive, whilst working in a hospital COVID patients. @ The probability of suffering a sports injury while playing rous game. 7. Which of the following is correct statement ? @) Unconditional probability is the probability of one event occurring with some relationship to one or more other events. (2) The mean of several sample means gives the best estimate of the population means, ‘The standard deviation of the distribution is called the sampling error. ‘The larger the sample size the larger the sampling error. @ 4)88. 89. 91. p <.05 A wren aA ar wet 7 @) Ba teen a sete A fi reat Haig ora aa tk frond fore fe weap seat fama () a a sheen aa eh Aa dir 8B aa shew Here ota 2dank | © aR ya vere wah a tt sre a A eT 596 BH | (4) ste wae fareter arr ‘fren are a ) 2a (2) Fever (3) te véer @ wtat stem retire 3 aha ew TEN Ts aaent? (1) +0.40 (2) -0.37 @ +100 © Tieeh eta afte Ree atte wr sen we WR OH oT a awa HRS eT OH % 8 angie, str orgherat 8 ra | (1) 3a [Obtained] (2) "4a [Independent] (3) FITAK [Constant] (4) sft [Expected] | 88. How can p <.06 be interpreted ? () We reject the null hypothesis that there's no difference between the means and conclude that a significant difference does exist. (2) There is a less than 2 in 40 probability of the result ‘occurring by chance alone if the null hypothesis were true. ‘The probability of obtaining the data if the null hypothesis were true is less than 5%. (A) Allof the above Co) 89. Analysis of variance performs (Q) atest (2) Fetest (8) ttest (4) Chi-square test Which of the following could be a correlation coefficient ? @ +040 @ -0a7 @) +1.00 (A) Allof the above 91. Using a Goodness of Fit test, we can assess whether a set of __ frequencies differ from expected frequencies. (2) obtained (2) independent (8) constant (4) expected92, a offi fe om go dare at era he a ea aT | | & sara & fog foe vere wr Bat | ‘afer emt ? 1) Brett (raft) az @ wee | @ mis aie | (4) Beart (eR) | | 3. _aétarm, ga fa (Group mean} afk fe hz [Grand mean] % ata RA ARATE ) Fer @ waa woomea wha IANOva’s] (8) Raa t— she @) wet = am (hei ote arate) | | |. ae Fadl & Fini Hf aad area sitet wame? | ()) sinter a | (3) senftetter (goiter) area | 4) er TE i | | | ! | | | 1 5. REARS Ae BY sree aE Ata wt we % wud grin dame ‘weer? | (1) Gata Ease (Laspeyres Index) (2) set ATs (Paasche Index) (3) Pea a reel Gee @ aes rer ar Ea ‘Suppose you want to apply Chi- square test on some data. What sort of data will be appropriate for application of test ? (2) Frequency counts (2) Parameters (@) Rank ordered data (A) Continuous scores tests for differences between Group Means and the Grand Mean, (Q) Correlations (2) Related and independent ANOVA’s (8) Independent t-test, (4) Measures of association Which is the best average used in the construction of index numbers ? (2) Arithmeti¢ mean (2) Median (8) Geometric mean (4) Harmonic mean The price index that uses base year quantities as weights, is called (1) Laspeyres index (2) Paasche index (8) Fisher's ideal index (4) Wholesale price index96. frofafer i a aa a fete er a ‘Shiite fata Protea 8 areal 8 7 () feet ser st fee fen scr safe? (2) Pea wer & form Ht sree 8 7 (3) seh h fata sree fat 8 7 @) satan ent 97. rer saree oh ea tT 7 () Beh rer te agra dace wrrema d agi ore @ Fr AGM aw BRC Saat Hat acest ar wT tt fears | © wit aww Wri sere a atte ot wae @) wie at 98. qaadan yea aft ante () RGAA, (NPV) seas fed awe far Tara | 2) Wa. (NPV) Fata ‘air a far aT aerAT | (8) eer (2) afk (2) BHT fora aT vem’! (® a Gta, (NPV) TaRIERs & ‘at ww often wt war fear aT ae Which of the following is exclusively related to corporate financial decision making ? (Q) How much a company should invest ? Which type of finance is required? How much is the financial need of a company ? (4) Allof the above @ @ 7. What comes under the category of Asymmetric information ? (@) Company account and. balance sheets are not understood by all shareholders. (2) Companys AGM or strategic ‘meetings are not attended by all shareholders. (®) One party to a financial transaction has more information than another party. (4) Allof the above Under Net Present Value method () A project may be selected if its NPV is positive. @) A project may be selected if its NPV is zero. (8) Both option (1) and (2) may be taken. (4) A project should be selected if its NPV is negative. 099. frafefsata sia ARR atiag | 99. Which of the following is not wee? correct about ARR ? @) % Sm am (ARR) aeier (@) ARR is based on accounting samen sme 2 3a concepts such as accounting aie ar sheer BROGF sis deproctation Borate | time value of money. : (@) Under ARR, the hurdle rate | | | (2) USI HR (ARR) BI BI AT | (2) ARR takes account of the (@) USK SK (ARR) & wea, aT | | | | | | | is arbitrary. urile Bate)fatortst | (4) ARR means Accounting Rate ( Uae sme (ARR) #3 / I of Return. am srenTafn We ait eA 100. wt ar apa siadh wt firaferfaa HB | 100. Value of the firm is usually based fam sratea fare 7 on which of following ? (Q) siesta sit afeeat at stax q@ Denvaies of assets plus ere abilities, gecommene | 3 Recsedenntnn © wa a erin ionesdrversaict @ None of the ab 101, aRA-sch ARTI Price-caminge valuations) % a 3 fra #8 101. Which ono of the following ia correct about price-earnings valuations ? ee air qa Paice eee pations are ark Apaie smche on Operatin, ‘aftarer or strera gta | ® pro. - rah a : aie Lr 2) Price-earnings valuations are anf2 [EBIT] women wa E @ Daa oe (A) Price-carnings valuation é eee aes usually based on free cash monks ation aradtc flow. FG ware K seta eI E 102. Which of the following would be counted as part of incremental 102, Prafefiaa 4 8 fea gfestie 7a ware | | | | | | @) WRe orks apie she ww | usually based on Gross profit. | i | [incremental cash flow] % fee | | | | | | era far are 7 cash flow ? @ ae (2) Interest (2) WWaMTA [Sunk Cost] @ Sunk cost @ eR (8) Depreciation (® srdeter bh A cera (4) Change in working capital103. frafafisr # a aire yet THE vare | 103. Which of the following defines free cash flow ? irssicesiclonergsteniecerntet G) Net profit + depreciation + () Wea + Apa + es epira interest ~ capital ‘expenditures ~ change in net working capital. (2) Gross profit + depreciation + interest ~ capital expenditures ~ change in net working capital. (8) After tax operating income + tax shield + depreciation + interest — capital expenditures - change is net working capital. (4) After tax operating income + depreciation + interest — capital expenditures — change in net working capital. 104, Which of the following would be arg worfera fase srt ? counted after the end of a project ? (a) sander A Reta oT (0) Release of working capital argent taictat: | \ | | | | | | (2) oes (rate) 7 (2) Scrap value | \ | | | | | | | | | \ i @) Bea aM + ARIE + eT — ‘feta ora — qa aries ht vias (@) Beh ae where sat ae ge + ypraTe + Sat — foes a — Fe arden ft otads (4) BS ag tices ae + EA + oars ~ fra ora — yg ard Phi vhads 104, freafetisd # & ean aftr & aafea, (8) Premera (8) Continuation value @ wih (4) Allof the above 105, Seal: 33 victansii At qeat wi | 105. Statement I : To compare the 3 fore, Pers sar ara flife-spans) projects which has different eee Iife-spans, we select the 2 project with the shorter Sra orcenh staf GAB | payback period. wer: H otis A gem =e Statement II : To compare the fore, Fares ster ara [life-spans] projects which has different err are 8, eH Fe aT Iife-spans, we select the “wd EPPA pay-back sah A B | ee payback period. aie sonar Which of the above statement(s) @ PAI ( ea is correct ? (2) Statemen: I (@) wea fel (2) Statement IT sate (8) Statement I and IT 2 ase (4) None of the above 36 2 o106. am fra s1qITF [Profit Investment Ratio] fra #8 fea feat ¥ ara fara aren 7 () 34 @ anf am sm [IRR] #1 wri ad want #1 @ we omsae | @) 3a ong aR SR IRR] sik er INPV] em eet Rete aE | (8) saben enh fea a 107, frafin $a arena cea sae wee 7 () refer 3 wari or afahiirs se 2 Bred oftrs cadaetter arma, areas afer A safe aera she a eT | (2) Prater 34 wari ar faites wee 8 fret afte fea arm, ares ator oat ay eta a aitt a are 8 1 (3) = hh Prati sqara waren 8 fe aR we ert S aa aa ae ser amet eng fant afi Bae aera a aa (4) Prafen sa wera ar afatatiies wea ¢ fied sift oRedtetier err, creas atom ata ‘ataitiaen Ht ste aren | 106. 107. | | | | | | | | | | | Profit investment Ratio is used in. which of the following situation ? (1) When we cannot use IRR. (2) When capital is rationed. () When IRR and NPV conflicts to each other. (4) Inallof the above situations. What is the general phenomenon about gearing is true? () Gearing represents the effects whereby greater variable cost leads to greater variability of business outcome. (2) Gearing represents the effect whereby greater fixed cost Teads to less variability of business outcome. (8) High Capital gearing ratio ‘suggests that a company may not be able to meet its fixed financial obligations if its business slowdowns. (4) Gearing represents the effect whereby greater variable cost leads to less variability of business outcome.108, Preaferfian 2 ser faq 7Te & SerL: tS foe am [Debt] ster waa 2 watts Paeret & form sfaedt ‘ifm Te | wel ; casera 4H idl feat H, fr fet frafen flow Capital Gearing) wi % fee stenga mga | sates # a at ar ser arte she wediade 7 () wa ) wel (8) sagt wrrerd sree 2 1 @ wala 1a effing fis ara # arqol oth ster wrt A srerare A feel 8 stk aorh ger orate wekht er aT eh daca wa feat 8 wfainaT et 7 (1) wart dee hina we | (2) Sanh Se A Sora ws | (3) aa wfafiear ae we 8, Ber erdac apa ea ear | @ Fear K fre wen é fe ara a arrant ft caren fee wa Sra et fe fa aoe ore, arin fa at wifes eran? 7 (1) ait hr feat () SIN am A sre 8) StH aera @) saat 109. 110. | | | | | | | | | 108. Following two statements are given: Statement I : Debt is risky for the firm, while equity is risky for the investor. Statement II : In business slow down situation low capital gearing is relatively suitable for the firm. Which of atove statement is correct in terms of relative risk ? (1) Statement I (2) Statement II (8) Incomplete information is available. (4) Both Statement I and II 109, Suppose there is a situation of availability of imperfect and asymmetric information in the market and there i a signal of cut in dividend by a company. How stock market will react to this situation ? (Q) Share price of company will decrease. @ Share price of company will @ increase, ‘The market does not react, share price of company remains the same. It depends on how the information is interpreted by ‘the market. @ 110. Which of the following is factor affecting Dividend policy ? (1) Position of profits. (2) Position of business cycle (8) Liquidity im’ capital requirements. (4) Allof the above o111, fren HB a ar ART ot fee aise faite aera 7 (Q) Berea (2) sft te st Ft & fee are emt @) wi fate fa, A orm Na ean RA @) wert . Frtafer H a eh ade ha fates to 7 () eRe 2) Sew (@) sree @) ater aa ogre a rafts agua & we eT RET 36 age 3 te ft A ‘aftatira ad € sth atta sega BR atti Ti we EI Se swe Far ee Bt a afters ag at otk waite agra ea va afi aa E | @) 3a agua a er Fg wh after wf state sama tae afar i aE | (8) 3 sega Her ast Bafa ae at 8 sik cate aga Fo Warr ma E eh Prati gira Pra a fs aie mera a cater t 7 ) atest @ wn siamtd: & se otk ‘triers san ae () afi ate (4) somes ater tt 112, 113. 114, 111. Which of the following is a Fundamental assumption made by Modigliani and Miller model ? (1) There are no taxes. (2) Transaction cost for buying and selling of securities is nil. (8) The investment policy of a firm is independent from dividend policy. (4) Allof the above . Which of the following would be financed from working capital ? Q) Account payable @) Accounts receivable (3) Bills receivable (@) Allof the above |. What is the difference between the current ratio and the quick ratio? (2) In current ratio we include physical capital and in quick ratio we do not include it. In current ratio we do not include physical capital and in quick ratio we do include it. In current ratio we include inventories and in quick ratio ‘we do not include it. In current ratio we do not include inventories and in quick ratio we do include it. @ @) Oy Capital Gearing Ratio denotes the relationship between which of following ? (Q) Loans and capital. (2) Equity shareholders funds and long term borrowed funds. (8) Assets and capital. (@) Debentures and share capital. 6115, 5a fide eerda Prafefiaa HB eamet? () # am € & (CRED) afk feret inly) 2) Yer (PayTm) ste fare (Mobikwik) (8) Bei Faewea (1) oft (2) (4) sete Ha wae 116. fedia efit [Financial Technology] = sein Fraferea #8 ‘aoa exenftra wea & fore oar 7 () tai a errata werdara fee der ger @ fre steer (8) Sri fares (1) at (2) 4) saa aS aE eT ‘ahaa Perr at Reafafera a a mae? () areata ae HB eee My eae ‘Bit [Free Reserves] @ 844 #1 ‘fa fap are | @ sea anf % gales ar ‘ware me a ga ae ag ‘aa Frees aE () ania & aca are gq A She eH are @) sete at 117. | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | a 115. Which one of the following is FinTech Startup in India ? (1) CRED and Finly (2) PayTm, and MobiKwik (8) Both option (1) and (2) (4) None of the above 116. Financial Technology has been used to automate. which of following ? (@) Money transfers and raising money for a business startup. (2) Investment and insurance. (8) Both options (1) and (2). (4) None of the above 117. Which one of the following is true about the bonus issue ? () The bonus issue shall be made out of free reserves built out of the genuine profits. Reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets are not capitalized at the time of boaus issue. ‘The declaration of bonus issue, in lieu of dividend, is not made. (A) Allof the above @ @)118. sera errs sore & aR A freafefisa “| 118. Which of the following yy output, (4) The selling price per unit remains unchanged or constant at all levels of activity. (4) Praveen ah exile Pama aes ft wart oratelfa at fe wen’ 120. Which of the following are sourees of funds ? (2) Issue of shares for cash (2) Sale of fixed assets (8) Decrease in working capital (4) Allof the above 120, fread a erat ate ar aia 7 (1) 749% fare sit a Pri (2), ere rere a fama © ahiahhtet @) see | fashaenae? | el ae marginal costing is true () atars aera wore, aera Frater | (1) Marginal costing is an Sw ees weet | independent system of, 2) sia cra wore aera aA eRe | (@ In marginal costing all weal ah fee ed wherfaet rt elements of cost are divided eeiateafafewrt | inte fund and. val components. @) eters cera eh HER aT | ~~ (G) Ty marginal costing fixed wag arm at aera | costs are treated as product © sora cera se, wT AAT |) Mrginal costing ie not a Aw aete at | technique of cost analysis. 119, Peafeftea # 8 Se at dara aera | 119. Which of the following is not a Se anaes ae | assumption under Marginal i Costing ? (1) wA amrdt st fer we setts =| (4) Cost can be divided into fixed ee costs remain @ wp sre a & fe, RK | unchanged or constant. for ord sntetten att) | oe ee production, @ seat am, seer wf |) Variable cost doos not remain po ara Recreate | constant with per unit of | | | | | 120. | | | | | |121. 35m et cra Ba rea a A as sme eH aT 7 () ates ar @) afte era @ atte yar ® we 122, ana “Aft % at 4 frafefar 7 a wire ae 8 7, () aria sre fat aort Ft ‘agecee ar fee BE 1 Ret ert ania & ao SUT St Berar wel & fore seenh et aha (2) fen, wg sit safe (Stable, constant and residual] wen At oria siftat 8 | (3) mrewt ft artensit st a Baa ET ‘carseat if dar A ara TARR | @) Famer Fem (1) 3k (2) Fa 123, fea 42 Sher, onan fs & ae a mem ae? q@ PR +D, @ Po= see @ P=ypx 100 ae ® P=Rey | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | 3 121. The cost of debt capital is 122, 128, calculated on the basis of which of following? (2) Annual proceeds @) Annual interest (8) Annual depreciation (@) Net Capital . Which of the following is correct about the dividend policy ? (1) Dividends are often part of a company’s strategy. However, they are under no obligation to repay shareholders using dividends. @) Stable, constant and residual are the three types of dividend policy. (8) Dividend policy should be framed by looking at the customers’ expectations only. (4) Option no. (1) and (2) only. Which of the following is Gordon's formula in relation to dividend policy ? @ 7k @ =e eee D @ P=gy124, fra #2 aa at smea.ang. A Wa | 124. Which of the following is related to Open Market Operations of RBI? rare far a aaa: () Ball eral perce ‘of'Fareign OS ea @ Sar end hase of _ ell and, pu! @) wie afi oh shee Comporate Securities. (3) Selland purchase of G. Securities. | | @ Haier reaatcete | oa | (4) Deciding the Interest Rates i | | | | 4) senige war ana et aa ae 125, CAMEL #ise 4 Prevferfira 4 8 ata in the International Market. 125. Which one of the following is not mace whe 7 the component in CAMEL Model ? (2) sit (Management) (1) Management @) Bra (Credit) Oa (@) mma (Assets) a (4) 364 Camings) a 126. IDB ween 8 Pia erst 126. Institutions built with the support of IDBT are () fred (SIDBI) ee (2) wa.ra.xf.snf.ua, (SHCIL) (2) SHCIL @ Ww. (NSE) @) NSE @) seer @) Allof above 127. safeles sore H areren Prafaa ere @ - () RBI ame srfattan wera & wT 127. Liquidity is controlled in the economic system by (1) RBI by resorting to purchase Spe RaS ee ee the time of Oetaetewmnd | oO Sues Gapewamecente | Seis ey ne en ee sce mtn of Ce 128, fra Ha fara fe_Prenea Reenter Soh 3 aftafera Pan aren 8 2 (1) fra afeeraferat () swe seers (3) eh an sreivea afteraterat 4) satan et 128, Which of the following is included in Non-performing Assets category? (1) Doubtful Assets 2) Sub-standard Assets @) Loss Assets | | | | | | (8) RBI by resorting to sale of | | | | | | | | | | Atlotthe above129, 130. {at sik Rad tat seer 8 se eT arr? (1) WHS cea atk fad tH aaa, ara .ond, anfirs dat 3 sor ames WS ae, sehr, af a) 8 son aa 2 ok fad HS ae, sraf.ong. aioe det waenem’e (3) HS ae, atone, afar ‘ah Bh san Ger 2 atk Rad th Ted, ara. ong. aiff Sat 3 sen aan | G@) Th % tea te Ret BH aes, atifare &5 smaong. 3 see aes son Gt Wa a a fa eS Fi fea eo i or oem: (1) wifes eer ar fee re (2) arieter fh a0 (8) ae Frere @) 3Serg fer . Prafefad 4 8 ata ar ee fran da writ & at reat 7 (1) 3 Faerie a faerst ft ae wae! (2) Aare mest 8 on een wea 1 (3) 3 face tk saftrmen # saat rest Hae ae (4) 3 Pacha women % aH ard aa a 129. 130. 31. 1 | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | ! | | | ! as What do you mean by Repo and reverse Repo instruments ? () Under Repo and under Reverse, Repo, the RBI borrow from Commercial Banks. (2) Under Repo, the RBI borrows from the Commercial Banks and under Reverse Repo, RBI lends to Commercial Banks. (8) Under Repo, the RBI lends to Commercial Banks and under Reverse Repo, RBI borrows from Commercial Banks. (4) Under Repo and under Reverse Repo, Commercial Banks borrow from the RBI. Hybrid of debt and preferred stock finance is known as (0) Early stage funding (2) Working capital loan (8) Expansion funding (4) Mezzanine funding Which of the following is incorrect about functioning of an investment benker ? (Q) They help corporations in finding the investors. (2) They take deposits from their customers, (8) They help their customers in mergers and acquisitions. (@ They act as financial advisors.132, Prefered ia siren aa ® 7 (2) Wh Sata wt feet arren ore ie wert ott orang. a cafinga feet tweets fin Seon water fear aT Fea | (2) Teta a eran 2 vai Fe fioar ot aaa ®, fort Sew Afr wor ef arf | (@) Th arta i ww ead S oF RBI erratic | 4) Sater Prafetien #8 ata gat wiete Serf Qh atiee de 8 era ohare ge wat arett geet amr wae 2 2 (QD) PayTm (2 Mera m-Pesa @) 94, Bite wre as @) wats sana 4 aif fet ar ter a frafetted 4 2 fea deena gro fear ot wae? @) sf.sr.8i.e. @ sahong. @) Someta. @ thst. feed & at 3 Pafafen 4a ee a weet? Q) SIDBL er gra sede eg seit from et @ SIDBI # eae 2 atte, 1980 agit (8) SIDBI wrerend 2 % fore sya facta aera 2 | (@) were (q4.) 4 SIDBI Hau, wraiea | 133, 134, 135. | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | ! 182. Which of the following is true? (1) Repo transactions may be traded on any recognized stock exchange and any electronie trading platform duly authorized by RBI. Repo transactions may be traded between two parties, one of whom should be a banking entity. Repo transactions must have RBI as one entity. (A) Allof the above @ @ 188, Which of the following is the micro finance company that becomes the first to start operations as a Commercial Bank ? () PayTm Bank (@) Vodafone m-Pesa Bank (8) AU Small Finance Bank (4) Bandhan Bank 134, Commercial Banks in India may be insured by which of the following institute directly ? () IRDA (2) RBI () DICGC (@ ECGC 185. Which of the following is not correct about SIDBI ? (1) The full name of SIDBI is Small Industries ‘Development Bank of India. SIDBI was established on April 2, 1980. SIDBI is the principal financial institution for the ‘MSME sector. SIDBI has its head office at Lucknow (U.P.) @ @) @ 36136. Frafafen #8 ate ds eta Rod ae are fafratta aa 8 2 Q) Rede aie ae @ Va Rte meats @) Bete sits fale 137. () saan a on sana’ | @ Marts sons aT @) trae a fate sere (4) Farmer (1) atte (2) awe. aA ETe? () Fe vie grea frags 2) dé stoma gaia ©) Review Reet (@) Sie wie oFSr ws feterfae 138. 139, frafeften 4a aren ame wel EAR 7 () seis da Ft ad sade ‘frata anft & aren 2 1 @ 3H wat TT al ge fear soar & 1 ® BI wer fave ef ee wate sifted? | @ RBI wr fm “Ways and ‘Means advances” (satara sift) amt aa gyre Poem EI . Rafer a aren wet we aE 7 (ree gra semen foe 8 wahia ame TAT aE, amtian, aft we wet & =f Rar ere Hc | afin seer sata br (4) Fars seer gPend aie & Res stk ale | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | ! | | | 7 196, Which of the following banks is not re by RBI oe anaemia (2) AU Small Finance Bank (3) State Bank of Sikkim (@) AXIS Bank 187. In the situation of ‘no excess Feserved, what does a bank do? (Q) Bor reserves from another (2) Borrow reserves directly from the Central Bank. (® The Bank set a higher interest rate. (4) Option (1) and @) 188. What is the full form of BFS. ? (Q) Bank for Financial Securities Banks for Foreign Serra for Foreig ities @ Board "fr Funding 189. Which among the following is the recession is normally due to decrease in exports, (® Long term financial needs may, be fulfilled by money (@) RBI is the supreme authority 9 ‘the floating Ogre ans iven by RBI are repayable State Governments. 140. Which of the following is not investment credit (¢ Joan only)141. frafefca #3 ata ar ra Ha wre ar dearra that 2 (@) aan (2) ear te @ afore (4) sete a aE 142, sre fis es (RBD 1 eT ITE : 143, 144, 145. @) sia, 19494 (2) site, 1935 % (3) sAaf, 19499 @& wat, 1935 % fafa ta ar an Heguergit 7 (1) fea aeatet & ftom ate tor & fre am @ wh aan FH deem & fee afta @) Saat a afar (4) Area eats ge ard & wren Prater #8 fre after A Rereriter ox Ets eH 7 () IE (Crofee) afte @ errata (3) faarer afta @) wren (Narasimha) afar arg. sng, aft am % fq a @ Ait wees. (oy, eS wor set) (2) Be sf Afar Meer (8) Bi ot sae Fae om ae et (@) sete a eae 141. Which of the following is the institutional source of rural Credit in India? (2) Traders (2) Co-operative Bank (8) Land holders (4) None of the above 142. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established in @ April, 1949 (2) April, 1935 (8) January, 1949 (4) January, 1935 | | | | | | | | 143. Which of the following is not a banking sector reform in India ? | @) Act’ for Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial | Assets. ® Act for prevention of Money | Tannaeriig’ (8) Deregulation of _ Interest | | | | | | | | | | | | | i | rates. (4) Progressive increase in tax rates, 144, NABARD was established on the recommendation of which of following Committee ? (1) Crofee Committee (2) Tandon Committee (8) Sivaraman Committee (4) Narasimham Committee 145. What is the eligible segment for IDBI Dhanvantri Loan? (Q) Any MSME (2) Any Medical Practitioners (8) Anyone who is credit worthy (4) None of the above146. 2006 # IDBI Ltd. & are Prefetian 147. 148, 149, 150. ‘8 fermat aertfers fara an? () Tete tet te (2) IDBI ta wreta farts (@) IDBI Frege fates @) sera frafafisa # @ ety INCI fads ware are 7 (2) TROT der tert ee Res @ WAAR. (8) wis deen sheer ats ear (@) sete ah frefafers % & feed SIDBI 4 eat ‘wet feted ® 2 (stag 2020 1) () SRT RE (2) seta Re tes (3) ard @ wombs, _—___ #f aftrgget % ae, SFCs ‘fifa, 1951 % aga, oes fet ‘fe (RFC) #728 fear aT | (@) 17976, 1961 19978, 1973 () 17978, 1955 (4) 19978, 1955 serh aftfan, 2013 4 fea ort Ten, Hiont PongeR sate ee ‘afd faftzs [UTITSL] = wert wort mere 7 @) 245) @ oma @ wI4 eh @) sRI5 146. Which - of the _ following amalgamated with IDBI Ltd. in 2006? () United Western Bank (2) IDBI Home Finance Ltd. (8) IDBI Gilts Ltd. (@) Allof the above Which of the following is subsidiary of IFCI Limited ? (0) IFCT Venture Capital Funds Led. (2) MPCON (8) Stock Holding Corporation of India (4) Allof the above |. Which of ‘the following have biggest shareholding in SIDBI ? (As on October, 2020) (Q) Government of India (2) State Bank of India (@) NABARD @) Lic. |. Under the SFCs Act, 1951, the Rajasthan Financial Corporation (RFC) was constituted under a notification on () 17% January, 1961 @) 19% January, 1973 (@) 17% January, 1955 (@) 19% January, 1955 ). Under which Section _of Company's Act 2013, the UTI Infrastructure Technology and Services Limited (UTITSL), is construed ss a Government Company ? (2) Section 2(45) (2) Section 3 (8) Section 4 (2B) (4) Section 536 ‘Tererd & forget / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK