NEET n

Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 1

PRACTICE SET 11
SECTION II Mastery Builders

Physics =
1 ( I w + I 2 w2 ) 2
(I1 + I 2 ) 1 1
1. (b) Temperature of closed room increases because the
2 (I1 + I 2 )2
refrigerator also generate some extra heat using ( I 1 w1 + I 2 w2 ) 2
electricity, so overall temperature of room increases. =
2( I 1 + I 2 )
2. (b) Force of gravitation between earth and apple,
6. (b) When a body gets separated from another moving
GMm
F= body, it acquires the velocity of the moving body.
R2
So, when a portion of meteor gets separated, it acquires
Acceleration of apple towards the earth, the velocity of meteor, i.e. 50 kmh -1 .
F GM
a= = 2 YA
m R 7. (d) Stretching force, F = l
L
and acceleration of earth towards the apple,
F Gm So, Lµl [QF , Y and A constants]
a' = = L1 l1 2
M R2 Þ = =
L2 l2 9
a M 6.0 ´ 1024
\ = = = 24 ´ 1024 1 l2 l2
a' m 0.25 Work done, W = YA ÞW µ
2 L L
3. (b) From Snell’s law of refraction, 2 2
sin i m 2 v1 W1 æ l1 ö L2 æ 2 ö 9 2
= = \ =ç ÷ × =ç ÷ =
sin r m1 v 2 W2 è l2 ø L1 è 9 ø 2 9

Given, v1 = 3 ´ 108 m/s W1 : W2 = 2 : 9

m2 1 8. (b) Let M be the mass and L be the length of the pole.
= m 2 = 1. 5 When upper end of pole strikes the ground, the centre of
m1
L
v1 3 ´ 108 gravity falls through height .
Þ v2 = = m/s 2
1
m2 1. 5 L
Loss in PE = Mg ×
3 ´ 108 2
\ v2 = = 2 ´ 108 m/s Moment of inertia of the pole about the lower end P,
32
I = moment of inertia of the pole about the parallel axis
4. (a) x = 2t 2 + t through centre of gravity + Md 2
vx = 4t + 1 = I 0 + Md 2
ax = 4
ML2 ML2
and y = 16t 2 + 8t = +
12 4
v y = 32t + 8 2
=
ML éQ d = L ù
a y = 32 êë
3 2 úû
Also, y = 8x
Particle moving in a straight line with uniform Now, gain in rotational KE = loss in PE
acceleration. 1 2 L
Iw = Mg
2 2
5. (c) According to law of conservation of angular
momentum, 1 ML2 v 2 MgL éQ w = vù
Þ ´ ´ 2 =
I 1 w1 + I 2 w2 = ( I 1 + I 2 ) w 2 3 L 2 êë L úû
( I w + I 2 w2 ) v2
Þ w= 1 1 Þ = gL
(I1 + I 2 ) 3
1 Þ v = 3gL
\ Rotational KE = ( I 1 + I 2 )w2
2
2 SECTION II Mastery Builders NEET n
Practice Set 11

9. (a) The maximum acceleration, 13. (c) Distance covered in last second
2 2 2
a max = w A = 4p n A g
7h = 0+ [ 2T - 1] …(i)
= 4 ´ 9.87 ´ 4 ´ 0.05 = 7.9 ms -2 2
Distance covered in first second
Maximum force on weighing machine
1
= m( g + a max ) h = 0 + ´ g ´ 12
2
= 50 (10 + 7.9) g
= 895.0 N or 89.5 kg-f Þ h= …(ii)
2
Minimum force on weighing machine
Put in Eq. (i), we get
= m( g - a max ) 7g g
= 50(10 - 7.9) = ( 2T - 1)
2 2
= 105.0 N or 10.5 kg-f
Þ 2T = 8
Change in reading = 89.5 - 10.5
Þ T = 4s
= 79 kg-f
A free fall occurs where the only force acting
10. (c) The parallel rays converge at a distance equal to on an object is gravity. Hence, acceleration of
focal length of lens, so f = L . the object during free fall is constant and the
1 æ 1 1 ö distance of an Tth object falls in T th second
But = (m - 1) ç - ÷ 1
and is given by s T = u + g (2T - 1)
f è R1 R 2 ø 2

. - 1) æç + ö÷
1 1 1
= (183 1æS ö
f è 30 30 ø 14. (a) Pressure by absorbed light = ç ÷
2è cø
f –~ 18 cm
Pressure by reflected light = æç ö÷
1 2S
11. (a) As, the capacitors are in parallel combination, so
2è c ø
total charge,
where, S is incident intensity.
QTotal = Q1 + Q2 = C1V1 + C 2V2
Total radiation pressure on surface,
= ( 20 ´ 10-6 ´ 50) + (10 ´ 10-6 ´ 20) 3
S
= (1000 + 200) ´ 10-6 = 1200 ´ 10-6 C S S 2 . ´ 103
15
p rad = + = = = 5 ´ 10-6 Pa
Also, Q = CV 2c c c 3 ´ 108
QTotal 1200 ´ 10-6 p rad 5 ´ 10-6
So, VResulting = = \ = = 5 ´ 10-11
C eq C1 + C 2 p0 1´ 10 5

1200 ´ 10-6 15. (c) A photodiode is used in reverse bias and conduct only,
= -6 when incident photon having energy greater than the
( 20 + 10) ´ 10
energy band gap of photodiode. The correct I-V curve is
\ VResulting = 40V given in option (c).
æ pö
12. (a) Given that, I = 10sin ç100pt - ÷ A, 16. (b) When a charged particle moves perpendicular to the
è 3ø uniform magnetic field, its speed remains same but
E = 220sin 100pt V direction change, i.e. its velocity changes.. So, its
Here, I 0 = 10A momentum changes but kinetic energy remains same.
p 17. (a) We know that, resistance of a conductor (copper)
E 0 = 220 Vand f =
3 increases with increase of temperature. Hence, graph 1 is
I 0 E0 drawn for copper. For constantan, temperature effect is
So, Pav = cos f negligible for its resistance. Hence, graph 2 is drawn for
2
constantan.
10 ´ 220 p
= cos Resistance of semiconductor decreases with the increase
2 3 of temperature. Thus, graph 3 is drawn for germanium.
1
= 10 ´ 110 ´ = 10 ´ 55 DV
2 18. (a) As, R =
DI
Þ Pav = 550 W (12 - 4 )
= = 2 ´ 105 W
( 60 - 20) ´ 10-6
NEET n
Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 3

19. (c) As ( v H ) t = ( v o ) 87 25. (c) Trajectory-3 is not possible because a-particle will
æ vH ö 273 + 87 repel by another alpha particle. Here trajectory-3 is
Þ ç ÷= showing attraction, so it is not possible.
è vo ø 273 + t
26. (c) As snth = s5
360 ro 8
= = = 1 1
273 + t rH 1 Þ u+ g ( 2t - 1) = ut + gt 2
2 2
360 8 1 1
Þ = Þ 0 + g ( 2t - 1) = 0 + g ´ 25 [ Qu = 0]
273 + t 1 2 2
Þ 45 = 273 + t 25 + 1
Þ t= = 13 s
or t = -228° C 2
20. (d) On increasing the temperature of a conducting wire, 27. (c) We know that, electric field (E) and electric potential
the kinetic energy of free electrons increases. On the (V) due to electric dipole at a distance r from its mean
account of this, they collide more frequently with each position is given as
other (and with the ions of wire) and their relaxation 1 1
time decrease. Therefore, drift velocity is decreased E µ 3 and V µ 2
r r
(\ v d µ t ).
E 1/ r 3 1
Also, on increasing the temperature, resistivity of \ = =
V 1/ r 2 r
metallic wire increases, hence its conductivity decreases.
E 1
21. (c) l0 = I 12 + I 22 \ =
V r
I0 I 12 + I 22 I 12 + I 22 28. (d) Given, emf, E = 12 V
Þ I rms = = =
2 2 2 Load, R L = 5 W
mv v I = 2A
22. (a) As we know, r = = We know that,
Bq e
B× E
m I=
R+r
2 ´ 105
Þ r= = 010
. m E
5 ´ 107 ´ 4 ´ 10-2 Þ R+r=
I
23. (c) At the distance of closest approach (r), 12
Þ 5+ r =
KE = PE 2
1 2 1 2 1 e2 Þ 5+ r = 6
mv + mv =
2 2 4pe 0 r Þ r = 6 - 5 = 1W
1 e2 29. (a) A dimensionally incorrect equation must be incorrect
mv 2 = because according to principle of homogenity, equation
4pe 0 r
will be correct only when dimension of each term in left
1 e2 side and right side of the equation be same. A
r=
4pe 0 mv 2 dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect.
. ´ 10-19 ) 2
9 ´ 109 ´ (16 For example, kinetic energy, E K = mv 2 is
= dimensionally correct but correct equation is
9 ´ 10-31 ´ (107 ) 2
1
E = mv 2 .
= 2.56 ´ 10-12 m 2
5
24. (a) Pressure = 101
. ´ 10 Pa 30. (a) Given, V = 5 V
Area = 50cm ´ 10cm = 500 cm = 0.05 m 2 2 The length of the conductor, L = 10 cm
Force The measured value of the current in the conductor, I = 2A
Pressure =
Area The diameter of the conductor,
Force = Pressure ´ Area d = 5 mm
. ´ 105 ´ 0.05
Force = 101 As we know that,
= 5.05 ´ 103 N R = rl/ A
4 SECTION II Mastery Builders NEET n
Practice Set 11

Using Ohm’s law, VR 220

\ i= = = 2.2 A
V = IR Þ R = V / I R 100
rl V V æ pd 2 ö E 5
= Þr= ç ÷ 35. (d) B 0 = 0 = . ´ 10-8 T
= 167
A I Il è 4 ø c 3 ´ 108

In error form, 36. (c) We know that, bulk modulus,

F
Dr DV DI Dl Dd
= + + +2 DV p F
r V I l d B= A Þ = [Q p = ]
DV V B A
Dr 01
. 0.01 01. ( 0.01)
Þ = + + +2 V
r 5 2 10 ( 5) Fractional decrement in volume,
Dr Dr DV DD éQV = 4 pr 3 = p D 3 ù
Þ = 0.039 Þ ´ 100 = 3.9% Þ =3
r r V D êë 3 6 úû
Volume of the sphere decreases due to the decrease in
31. (a) According to given situation, the number of electric
its diameter.
field lines entering the cube is equal to number of
DV DD p
electric field lines leaving the cube. Hence, net electric Hence, =3 =
flux passing through the cube is zero. V D B
DD p
32. (a) Given, Vs = 0.81V So, =
e D 3B
For electron, . ´ 1012 C kg -1
= 176 37. (c) First excited state of lithium ( Z = 3 ) corresponds to
m
n=2
Maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron,
1 Z2
K max = mv 2max = eVs \Energy required = 13.6 ´ eV
2 n2
2eVs ( 3) 2
v 2max = = 13.6 ´ eV
m ( 2) 2
2eVs = 30.6 eV
v max =
m
38. (d) Boolean expression,
. ´ 1012 ´ 0.81
= 2 ´ 176 Y = ( A + B )× ( A + C )
. ´ 106 m/s
= 169 = AA + AC + BA + BC = A[1 + C + B ] + BC
33. (b) Let energy A, B and C state be E A , E B and EC , then = A + BC [Q A. A = A , 1+ A = 1]
C 39. (b) The distance of A is given by
l1
B 30 ms–1 10 ms–1
A smin B
l2 l3 10 ms–1
v=0
A B
A
sB
( EC - E B ) + ( E B - E A ) = EC - E A
sA
hc hc hc
or + =
l1 l 2 l 3 1 2
s A = ut +
1
at = 30t + ( - 2)t 2 = 30t - t 2
l l 2 2
Þ l3 = 1 2
l1 + l 2 and of B, sB = 10t
From figure, s A - sB = s min
34. (c) According to given condition, net voltage,
Þ s min = 20t - t 2 …(i)
V = (VL - VC ) 2 + VR2 Thus for A, v = u + at
Þ 220 = ( 300 - 300) 2
+ VR2 Þ 0 = 30 - 2t Þ t = 15 s
Þ VR = 220V Putting the value of t in Eq. (i), we get
\ s min = 20 ´ 15 - 225 = 75 m
NEET n
Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 5

40. (b) Force on the charged particle in magnetic field, 2gR 2

Þ v 2 = 2gR -
F = q( v $j ´ B $i ) = qvB ( - k$ ) r
which is -Z-axis. v 2 = 2gR 2 æç - ö÷
1 1
è R rø
41. (c) When an object is placed in front of such a lens, the
r- Rö
rays first of all refracted from the convex surface, then = 2gR 2 æç ÷
reflect from the polished plane surface and again è R×r ø
refracts from convex surface. If f l and f m be the focal Given, r - R = 1600 km
lengths of lens (convex surface) and mirror (plane Þ r = 1600 + R = 1600 + 6400 = 8000km
polished surface) respectively, then effective focal
2 ´ 10 ´ ( 6400 ´ 103 ) 2 ´ 1600
length f is given by =
1 1 1 1 103 ´ 6400 ´ 8000
= + +
f fl fm fl 2 ´ 10 ´ 6400 ´ 103 ´ 1600
=
=
2
+
1
=
2 æQ f = R = ¥ ö 8000
ç m ÷
fl fm fl è 2 ø = 2 ´ 8 ´ 16 ´ 105

= (m - 1) æç ö÷ v = 16 ´ 10 ´ 102
1 1 So,
Now,
èRø
fl = 50.59 ´ 102 ms -1
1 2(m - 1)
\ = = 18.2 ´ 103 kmh -1
f R
1
R 44. (a) Given, T = 2s, A = 5 cm, t = s
or f= 3
2(m - 1)
2p
R Displacement, x = A sin wt = A sin t
As, R¢ = 2 f = T
(m - 1)
2p 1 ö
= 5sin æç ´ ÷
42. (d) For rolling motion, è 2 3ø
1 2 1 2 p 5 3
mgh = mv + Iw = 5sin =
2 2 3 2
v2
= mv 2 + æç mR 2 ö÷ 2
1 1 2 or x = 4.33 cm
2 2 è5 øR dx
Velocity, v=
1 1 dt
= mv 2 + mv 2
2 5 2pA 2p
= cos t
7 T T
= mv 2 …(i)
10 2p ´ 5 p
= cos
For sliding motion, 2 3
1
mgh = mv ¢ 2 …(ii) . ´ 0.5 = 7.85 cms -1
= 5 ´ 314
2
45. (d) In single slit diffraction, position of nth secondary
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get minima, d sin q = nl
7 1
mv 2 = mv ¢ 2 or d × æç ö÷ = nl
x
10 2 è Dø
v¢ 7
Þ = For second dark band, n = 2
v 5
d × æç ö÷ = 2l
x
43. (a) According to law of conservation of energy, è Dø
Total energy at height = Total energy at earth’s surface
l = × æç ö÷
d x
KEh + PEh = KEs + PEs 2 è Dø
0 + æç -
GMm ö 1 2 æ GMm ö
Þ ÷ = mv + ç - ÷ 0.25 ´ 10-3 15
. ´ 10-2
è r ø 2 è R ø = ´
2 2.5
mgR 2 1 2 mgR 2
Þ - = mv - = 7500 Å
r 2 R
6 SECTION II Mastery Builders NEET n
Practice Set 11

46. (b) Given output power, P = 100 W \From Eq (i), we have

Voltage across primary coil, VP = 220V [ML-3 ] = [ML-1 T -2 ] a [LT -1 ] b
Current in the primary coil, I P = 0.5A Þ [ML-3 ] = [M a L- a + b T -2a - b ]
Efficiency of a transformer,
Comparing the powers, we get
Output power a = 1, - a + b = -3
h= ´ 100
Input power Þ -1 + b = -3
P 100 Þ b = -2
= ´ 100 = ´ 100 » 90 %
VP I P 220 ´ 0.5 b 2 ( -2 ) 2
\ = =4
47. (c) 2W 2W
a 1
A C E
49. (a) Given, V = 5 V
2W 2W The length of the conductor, L = 10 cm
2W 2W 2W
The measured value of the current in the conductor,
2W I = 2A
B D 2W F The diameter of the conductor, d = 5 mm
As we know that R = rl/ A
A 2W C 2W E
Using Ohm’s law, V = IR Þ R = V / I
rl V
2W
2W =
2W A I
(4/3)W
2W V æ pd 2 ö
Þ r= ç ÷
B D Il è 4 ø
Dr DV DI Dl Dd
A 2W C In error form, = + + +2
r V I l d
Dr . 0.01 01
01 . ( 0.01)
2W
2W
(5/4)W Þ = + + +2
r 5 2 10 ( 5)
2W Dr
B D Þ = 0.039
r
\RCD = 2 || æç 2 + ö÷ = ( 2)|| æç ö÷
4 10 Dr
è 3ø è 3ø Þ ´ 100 = 3.9%
r
10
2´ 50. (b) Given, equations of motion are
= 3 = 20 = 5 W
2 + 10 / 3 16 4 x = 18t, 2 y = 54t - 9.8t 2
1 1 1 1 1 4 1 General equations of projectile are
Now, = + + = + +
R BC 2 5 2 + 2 2 13 4 1
x = u cos q × t and y = u sin q × t - gt 2
2+
4 2
26 + 16 + 13 55 where, q is the angle of projection.
= =
52 52 Comparing it with given equation, we have
52 54
Þ R BC = W u cos q = 18 and u sin q =
55 2
u sin q 54 / 2
48. (d) According to given situation, Þ =
r µY a v b u cos q 18
54
Þ r = K Y a vb …(i) \ tan q = = 1.5
2 ´ 18
-3 -1 -2
Since, [r ] = [ML ], Y = [ ML T ], Þ q = tan -1 (1.5)
[ v] = [ LT -1 ]
NEET n
Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 7

55. (a) In a graph, when X A = 1 and X B = 0, then p = p °A

Chemistry
since only vapour of A exist.
51. (a) Glucose on oxidation with bromine water produces Hence, p = p °A while other options are incorrect.
gluconic acid. The reaction is as follows
56. (d) Neodymium oxide (Nd 2 O 3 ) dissolved in selenium
CHO
H OH COOH oxychloride is one of the most powerful liquid lasers
OH H [O]
known so far.
(CHOH)4
H OH Br2/H2O 57. (d) Metal ion Electronic configuration
H OH CH2OH
3+
Gluconic acid Sc [Ar] 3d 0
CH2OH
Glucose Mn 2+ [Ar] 3d 5
h Co2+ [Ar]3d 7
52. (b) de-Broglie wavelength l = ,
mv Cu 2+ [Ar]3d 9
where, h = Planck’s constant,
m = mass of particle Sc 3+ has no unpaired electron, hence it is diamagnetic.
v = velocity of particle No. of moles of solute
58. (b) Molarity of solution =
6.625 ´ 10- 34 Volume of solution in (L)
Hence, l = = 1.325 ´ 10- 32 0.01
-6
500 ´ 10 ´ 100 \ Molarity = = 0.05 M
0.2
l = 1.32 ´ 10- 32 m 1000 ´ specific conductance
Now, molar conductance =
molarity
53. (b) For reaction 1000 ´ x
\ Molar conductance =
2A ( g ) B ( g ) + 10 J
- 0.05
To shift equilibrium so that more B can produce, = 2 ´ 104 x S cm 2 mol -1 = 2x S m 2 mol -1
temperature should have to increase. kf
59. (a) We know that, K C = Þ k f = kb ´ KC
kb
54. (a)
CH3 = 1.5 ´ 7.5 ´ 10-4 = 1.125 ´ 10-3
½ NaOH+ CaO 60. (b) Molar mass of HCl = 36.5 g mol
-1
I. CH3 ¾ CH ¾ COOH ¾¾¾®
0.365
Isobutyric acid Concentration of HCl = = 1 ´ 10-2 mol L-1
CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH3 + Na 2 CO3 36.5
HCl is a strong acid.
Propane
\ pH = - log [H ] = - log 10-2 = 2
+
II. CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH== CH2 + HCl ¾®
1-pentene 61. (d) Compounds I and II are tautomers.
Cl OH
CH3 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH2 ¾ CH ¾ CH3 NO2 NO2
NO2 O 2N
½ 62. (d) Aq. KOH
Cl
2-chloropentane
III. The terminal hydrogen is acidic in propyne and it NO2 NO2
reacts with ammoniacal AgNO3 solution whereas Picric acid
(P)
propene, does not react with it.
P is acidic due to presence of 3 strong electron
IV. Chloroethane on reaction with zinc and dil. HCl
withdrawing nitro group. It is obtained by nucleophilic
gives ethane.
substitution reaction, i.e. OH- replaces Cl - ion.
Zn, H +
C2 H5 ¾ Cl+ H2 ¾® C2 H6 + HCl 63. (b) Bromobenzene reacts with magnesium to form
Chloroethane Ethane Grignard’s reagent which then undergoes electrophilic
V. 2-butene shows geometrical isomerism due to substitution reaction.
restricted rotation about double bond. Hence, Reaction sequence is as follows
statements given in I, III, IV and V about are correct Br MgBr D
while II is incorrect. Mg/ether D 2O

(A)
8 SECTION II Mastery Builders NEET n
Practice Set 11

64. (d) Carboxylic acids react with weaker bases such as l

Decarboxylation of sodium acetate will give
bicarbonate producing CO2 . The CO2 evolved comes methane as product.
from NaHCO3 , not from carboxylic group as shown. D
O
CH3 COONa ¾¾¾® CH4 + CO2 + Na 2 CO3
O Sodium acetate NaOH / CaO Methane
– +
CH3CH2 C OH + NaHCO3 CH3 CH2 C O Na l
Kolbe’s electrolysis
Propionic acid O Electrolysis
CH3 CH2 CO ONa ¾¾¾®
+ H O C OH CO2 + H2O Sodium propanoate
Carbonic acid
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 + CO2
65. (b) As we know, electron gain enthalpy decreases down Butane
the group. Hence, the correct match is A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii).
Hence, the order should be F > Cl > Br > I but correct
order of electron gain enthalpy is F < Cl > Br > I. It is O
||
due to small size of F-atom. It requires high energy to 71. (b) As, — C— is deactivating group so bromine attacks
become F È by accepting electron. on other benzene attached with — CH2 —.
Generally, electron gain enthalpy increases 72. (d) Acidic strength of a compound is increased due to
across the period and decreases down the presence of groups showing -I effect. So, IV, having
group. the strongest -I effect, will be the most acidic, followed
by I.
66. (c) A reaction in which same species is oxidised as well
as reduced is a disproportionation reaction. Between II and III, III will be more acidic as the
removal of proton adjacent to ¾ C == O group is
HCuCl 2 ¾® Cu + Cu 2+ + 4Cl – + 2H+ favored due to stronger -I effect by ¾ C == O group as
­ ­ ­
+1 0 +2 well as ether group. The -I effect is comparatively less
Here, copper is undergoing oxidation and reduction in case of II. Hence, the required order is
simultaneously. Hence, it is a disproportionation II < III < I < IV.
reaction. 73. (a) CCl 4 is an electron precise. Hence, it is not a Lewis
67. (c) Vinylic halides doesn’t give S N 2 reaction. acid. Silanes possess Si ¾ H bonds, in which the Si atom
has a partial positive charge and the H atoms have a
CH2 == CH ¾ Cl ® It has partial double bond character
partial negative charge. Thus, silanes can donate a H+
with (CH ¾ Cl) bond so it can not form a stable
ion, which can act as reducing agents. Thus, statement I
carbocation.
is false but statement II is true.
68. (c) All options are correct except (c).
74. (d) The reactions are as follows
The correct answer of (c) is. 1000 °C
Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy is SiF4 + H2 O ¾® Si(OH) 4 ¾®
( A)
Be < N < F < Ne. Na 2CO3
SiO2 ¾¾® Na 2 SiO3
æV ö (B ) (C )
69. (d) DS = 2.303 nR log ç 2 ÷
è V1 ø 75. (b) In trigonal bipyramidal, axial bonds suffer more
repulsion compared to the equatorial bonds and hence
= 2.303 ´ 2 ´ R ´ log æç ö÷
10
they are longer than equatorial bonds.
è 1ø
76. (b) F Be F
= 4.606 R
DS = 4.6R
70. (a) l
Wurtz reaction of methyl iodide will give ethane Bond dipoles in BeF2
Resultant dipole moment = 0
as product.
2CH3 I + 2Na ¾® CH3 — CH3 + 2NaI The separation of charges in any system
Methyl iodide Ethane leads to a dipole moment. The main cause
l
Sabatier-Senderen reaction for the development of the dipole moment
Ni(or)Pd(or)Pt is the electronegativity difference between
CH3 ¾ CH== CH2 + H2 ¾¾¾¾® chemically bonded atoms or elements. It is
Propylene D a vector quantity and the vector always
points from positive to negative pole.
CH3 — CH2 — CH3 + Heat
Propane
NEET n
Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 9
-
··
82. (b) ClO is isoelectronic to ClF. As, both species
+ -
77. (d) (CH 3 ) 3 ¾ C¾ O ¾ C2 H 5 + H I contain 26 electrons.
··
Electrons in ClO- : 17 + 8 + 1 = 26 electrons.
½
¯ Electrons in ClF: 17 + 9 = 26 electrons.
Hence, statement I is true.
(CH3 ) 3 ¾ C¾ I + C2 H5 ¾ OH
Cl is more electronegative (and smaller in size) than Br.
78. (b) The correct match is A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i). Hence, the tendency of Cl to withdraw electrons from
Metal ion Group Cl ¾ O ¾ H bond is higher than the tendency of Br to
2+
withdraw electrons from Br ¾ O ¾ H bond.
Mn IV
This is because, the inductive effect of Cl is higher than
2+
As II B the inductive effect of Br. Hence, HClO is more acidic
Cu 2+
II A than HBrO. Therefore, statement II is also true.
3+
Fe III
Isoelectronic species are those species
79. (c) For first order kinetics, which have same number of electrons.
2.303
k= [log a 0 - log( a - x )]
t
83. (b) The correct statement for correct match is A-II, B-I,
kt
Hence, log( a - x ) = log a 0 - C-IV, D-III.
2. 303
Wurtz Fittig reaction was developed as a coupling
log( a - x ) 2 - log( a - x )1
Slope = reaction of an alkyl halide and aryl halide instead of
t 2 - t1 only alkyl or aryl halides.
0- 6 Fittig reaction was developed as a coupling reaction of
=
10 - 0 two aryl halides.
-k -6 Finkelstein reaction is a S N 2 reaction that involves the
Slope = =
2.303 10 exchange of halogen atoms.
2.303 ´ 6
k= min -1 Sandmeyer reaction is used to synthesise aryl halides
10 from aryl diazonium salts using copper salts as reagents
2.303 ´ 6 -1 or catalysts.
k= s
10 ´ 60 84. (c) The nitration of aniline is difficult to carry out with
\ k = 2.303 ´ 10-2 s -1 nitrating mixture. Since, ¾ NH2 group get oxidised
» 2.3 ´ 10 s -2 -1 which is not required.
2.303 é A ù So, the amino group is first protected by acylation to
80. (a) t = log ê ú form acetanilide which is then nitrated to give p-nitro
k ë A0 û acetanilide.
log é
2.303 100 ù
= 85. (a) Dimethylglyoximato is a symmetrical ligand. Hence,
4.606 ´ 10 -3 ê
ë 50 ûú the complex containing two DMG ligands can not show
2.303 ´ 0.3010 geometrical isomerism. The tetrahedral complex
=
4.606 ´ 10- 3 containing chiral center contains no element of
symmetry and shows optical isomerism.
t = 150.49 » 150.5 s
Hence, statement I is false but statement II is true.
81. (d)
(a) NO-2 + 7[ H] + ¾Zn
¾/ NaOH
¾¾® NH3 + 2H2 O 86. (a) Given, V2 = 100 L, V1 = 10 L
- + Zn / NaOH
NO3 + 9[ H] ¾ ¾ ¾¾® NH3 + 3H2 O æV ö
DS = - 2.303nR log ç 2 ÷
(b) CaCN2 + 3H2 O ¾® CaCO3 + 2NH3 è V1 ø
(c) 2NH4 Cl + Ca(OH) 2 ¾ ¾D ® 2NH3 + CaCl 2 + 2H2 O
= -2.303nR log æç
100 ö
÷
(d) ( NH4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 ¾ D
¾® N2 + Cr2 O3 + 4H2 O è 10 ø
Thus, ammonia gas is not prepared by heating = - 2.303 ´ 10 ´ 8.314 ´ 1 JK -1 mol -1
( NH4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 .
= -191.47 JK -1 mol -1
10 SECTION II Mastery Builders NEET n
Practice Set 11

87. (c) Valence electrons of P (15 ) is in 92. (c) The molar mass of NaOH = 40 g/mol
2 2
3 p, [1s , 2s , 2 p , 3s 6 2 1
, 3 p x , 3 p1y , 3 p1z ] 40
The number of moles of NaOH = = 1mol
40 g / mol
Thus, n = 3, l = 1, me = - 1 or 0, +1,
Molarity of NaOH solution
ms = + 1/ 2
Number of moles of NaOH
88. (b) The correct option is (b). Þ
Total volume of solution (L)
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 1 mol
These are the examples of all types of solutions. M= = 1M
1L
89. (c) Na has 1, Mg has 2, Al has 3, Si has 4 electrons in
93. (b) Freezing point depression constant
outermost orbitals but Cl has 7 electrons in its outermost
( K f ) = - 1.86° C m - 1
orbital.
So, depression in freezing point temperature
So, Na, shows the maximum metallic character and Cl,
shows the maximum character of non-metals. DT f = iK f ´ m (m = molality, i = van’t Hoff factor)
Mass of solute
Hence, the correct order of metallic character is 3.82 = i ´ 186
. ´
Molecular mass of solute
Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl.
1000
90. (c) In thin layer chromatography, a TLC plate is used. ´
Mass of solvent
A TLC plate is very small in size and hence the amount 5 1000
of sample required will also be less. The sample has to 3.82 = i ´ 1.86 ´ ´
142 45
travel lesser distance. i = 2.62
The components of the mixture make individual spots 3
94. (a) Power ( P ) = 100 kW = 100 ´ 10 W
on the TLC plate and hence it becomes easier to
distinguish them. Since, the spots are easily We have, P = Voltage (V ) ´ Current ( I )
distinguishable, the retention factor can also be easily P 105
I= = = 800 A
calculated. TLCs generally use silica gel as the V 125
stationary phase. Mass of chlorine liberated, M = ZIt (t ® time for which
91. (b) For statement I, current is passed.
– + M = 0.367 ´ 10-6 ´ 800 ´ 60
OH ONa M = 17.62 ´ 10- 3 kg
CCl3
NaOH 95. (d) Correct IUPAC of Mn 3 ( CO )12 is dodecacarbonyl
+ CCl4 340 trimanganese (0). Central metal atom is a manganese
atom in zero oxidation state. The oxidation states is
Phenol
written in parenthesis. Three such Mn atoms are present
3 NaOH
hence, the prefix tri is used. 12 carbonyl atoms are
present hence, the prefix dodeca is used.
–+ –+
OH ONa ONa 96. (d) Bond energy is inversely dependent on bond length,
–+
COOH COONa COOH The order of bond length is Br2 > Cl 2 > F2 .
Dil.HCl NaOH Hence, the order of bond energy should be
Br2 < Cl 2 < F2 .
Salicylic acid But, bond dissociation enthalpy of F2 is less than Cl 2
because of small size of F2 and large inter-electronic
For statement II,
repulsions. Thus, order of bond energy is Cl 2 > F2 and
CH3 CH3
Br2 < Cl 2 .
½ D ½
CH3 ¾ C¾ OCH3 + HI ¾® CH3 ¾ C¾ I + CH3 OH 97. (a) Since, pK a values are given. for base the pK b values
½ ½ Methanol are required. Lower the pK b value stronger is the base,
CH3 CH3 or higher the pK a value (pK b = 14 - pK a ) stronger is
tert -butyl methyl ether tert -butyl iodide
the base.
Hence, both statement I and statement II are true. p-toluidine > m-toluidine > Aniline > o-toluidine
Hence, the correct match is A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii).
NEET n
Practice Set 11 SECTION II Mastery Builders 11

98. (b) When a tertiary alcohol is dehydrated, more substituted 104. (b) Chlorella and spirullina are single-celled alga with
alkene will be formed as major product and less rich protein content. They are used as a food source
substituted alkene will be formed as minor product. When during long space travels.
H OH 105. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
½ ½ The incorrect statement can be corrected as
CH3 — C — CH ¾ CH3 is dehydrated with
½ The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of
CH3 the nucleoplasm as it is not a membrane bound
structure.
concentrated H2 SO4 at 170° ( CH3 ) 2 C== CHCH3 is
It is a site for rRNA synthesis.
formed.
106. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
99. (c) In first reaction, cyanide ion substitutes chloride ion to corrected as
form A.
Gross primary productivity minus respiration loss ( R ),
C2 H5 Cl ¾KCN
¾¾® C2 H5 ¾ C ºº N
‘ A’
is the net primary productivity (NPP).
NPP is the available biomass for consumption to
In second step, acid hydrolysis converts cyanide group to
heterotrophs.
carboxylic group.
+
GPP - N = NPP
3O
C2 H5 ¾ C ºº N ¾H¾¾® C2 H5 ¾ COOH 107. (b)The correct matches are A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.
Propionic acid
[B ] The pteridophytes are classified into four classes.
100. (a) Firstly, HCN is added to carboxyl group to form 1. Psilopsida, e.g. Psilotum
cyanohydrin. This is followed by dehydration to form 2. Lycopsida, e.g. Selaginella
C¾ C double bond then the cyano group is hydrolysed to 3. Sphenopsida, e.g. Equisetum
carboxylic acid. 4. Pteropsida, e.g. Adiantum
CN 108. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
HCN
O explanation of A.
OH
–H2O The parasite can not survive in a transgenic host
expressing specific interfering RNA. The initiation of
Hydrolysis RNAi causes silencing of mRNA of nematode. The
COOH CN
transgenic plant therefore gets itself protected from
(C) (B) the parasite.
109. (c) The correct matches are A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
Biology l
Bryophytes are non-vascular plants lacking seeds.
These have more differentiated plant body than
Botany algae.
101. (d) Roots (Root tip) is an important site of cytokinin
l
Pteridophytes are vascular cryptogams lacking
synthesis. seeds. They are the first terrestrial plants to have
xylem and phloem.
Cytokinin is a basic hormone and a purine (adenine) l
Gymnosperms are plants which have naked ovules
derivative. It primarily acts on cell division.
(seeds).
Evidences suggest that translocation of cytokinin takes
place in the upward direction.
l
Asexual reproduction in algae is by the production
of different types of spores, mainly zoospores.
102. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct. The
110. (c) Only statement III is incorrect. It can be corrected
incorrect statement can be corrected as
as
In basal placentation, the placenta develops at the base of The ER membrane is an irregular network of double
ovary and a single ovule is attached to it. membrane bound tubules. The ER membrane is
This type of placentation is seen in sunflower. thinner than the plasma membrane.
103. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as 111. (c) Statement in option (c) is incorrect and can be
In Euphorbia, stems are modified into fleshy cylindrical corrected as
structures which contain chlorophyll and aid in carrying The general metabolic activity of embryo slows down
out photosynthesis. during seed development. Further the embryo may
Rest statements are correct. attain a state of inactivity i.e. it may become dormant.
12 SECTION II Mastery Builders
112. (d) Both A tumefaciens and B. thuringsensis are
involved in genetic engineering in case of plants.
Advantage of using A. tumefaciens in genetic
engineering work lies in the fact that the bacterium
transfers the desired trait without harming the host.
On the other side B. thuringiensis is advantageous for
providing pest resistance to crops like cotton.
113. (a) Cryopreservation is an example of ex situ
conservation strategies. It is mostly used for conserving
vegetatively propagated crops.
Ex situ conservation literally means, offsite
conservation. It is the technique of conservation of
biodiversity outside their natural environment on the
other hand in situ is the conservation of biodiversity
inside their natural environment.
114. (c) Mucor and Albugo belong to phycomycetes. They
are found in aquatic habitats, on decaying wood in moist
and damp places or as obligate parasites on plants. They
reproduce asexually by aplanospores (non-motile).
115. (c) Matched pair in option (c) is incorrect and can be
corrected as
In parietal placentation ovules develop on inner wall of
the ovary. They become two chambered due to the
formation of false septum, e.g. Mustard and Argemone.
Tomato shows oxile placentation
116. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
and can be corrected as
Cytokinesis may occur after each meiotic division
leading to the formation of isobilateral tetrad of
microspore.
117. (d) The correct sequence is II®IV®I®III.
The three processes that a primary transcript undergoes
before moving out of nucleus is capping, tailing,
splicing. Process of capping is initiated by the removal
of phosphate groups from terminal nucleotide for
addition of methylated guanine residues. It is followed
by addition of methyl guanosine triphosphate to 5¢ end
of hnRNA (caping).
Tailing includes the process of cleavage of 3¢ end and
addition of adenylate residues (200-300) in independent
manner.
In splicing, non-coding sequences (introns) are removed
and exons are joined in a defined manner.
118. (b) There are at least three RNA polymerases in the
nucleus with clear cut division of labour. The RNA
polymerase I transcribes rRNA such as 28S rRNA, 18S
rRNA and 5.8S rRNA.
119. (d) The variation in chromosome structures is due to
deletion, duplication, translocation and inversion.
Deletion is the absence of a chromosomal portion.
NEET n
Practice Set 11
Duplication is the presence of one block of genes more
than one time.
Translocation is a kind of rearrangement of genes.
In inversion, a section of a chromosome becomes
changed after rotation through 180°.
120. (c) The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.
Mango (Mangifera indica) belongs to
family-Anacardiaceae, which comes under the order-
sapindales, categorised under the class-dicotyledonae
and division- angiospermae.
121. (b) In modern medicine certain infectious neurological
diseases were found to be transmitted by an agent
consisting of abnormally folded protein. These agents
are similar in size to viruses and were termed as prions.
Genetic material is not present in such agents.
122. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
The incorrect statement can be corrected as
Interkinesis is also known as interphase II. It is a stage
of rest that certain cells experience between meiosis I
and II. During this no DNA replication occurs. It is
generally short lived.
123. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination. In
majority of the hydrophytes like water hyacinth and
water lily, flowers emerge above the level of water and
are pollinated by insects. Thus, undergoing
entomophily.
124. (c) Such plants are ornithophilous plants, i.e. bird
pollinated. They have flowers of larger size and possess
nectaries.
They produce large amount of honey and are generally
odourless. The pollination by the agency of birds is
known as ornithophily.
125. (a) Non-endospermic or ex-albuminous seeds are those
in which no endosperm is left at maturity. Cotyledons of
such seeds are thick due to storage of food. For
example, in plant species like Tamarindus and
Orchidus, the endosperm is utilised by embryo and no
endosperm is left at maturity.
126. (a) In bryophytes, liverwort sporophyte is differentiated
into the foot, seta and capsule. After meiosis, spores are
produced within the capsule, e.g. Marchantia
127. (d) Statements I, IV and V are correct and rest of the
statements are incorrect. These can be corrected as
Cyclic phosphorylation results into ATP synthesis, but
not of NADPH2 .
Z scheme of light reaction involves both PS-I and PS-II
to transfer the electron excited by light.
NEET n
Practice Set 11
128. (c) Option (c) represents the correct match pair. Lemon
grass oil is an essential oil, whereas curcumin and
vinblastin are drugs. All of these are secondary
metabolites.
129. (d) There is no release of CO 2 in glycolysis. CO 2 may be
produced only after glycolysis, if pyruvate enters
anaerobic respiration.
130. (b) The correct match is given in option (b) about dicot
stem. Secondary growth in dicots occurs due to the
presence of cambium.
Rest of the pairs are incorrect and can be corrected as
Ground tissue in dicot stem is differentiated into cortex,
endodermis, pericycle and pith.
Hypodermis is made of collenchyma.
The vascular bundles in dicot stem are aranged in a row.
They are conjoint and open.
131. (a) The function of companion cells is to help the sieve
tube members in translocation of food material. These
thin-walled elongated cells are living and possess
cytoplasmic content with a conspicuous nucleus. These
cells are absent in pteridophytes and gymnosperms.
132. (c) Statements IV and V are incorrect and can be
corrected as
Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in the inner
membrane of mitochondria.
These electrons are transfered via series of redox reaction.
Mitochondria divide by fission. The process of fission
accompanies replication of mitochondrial DNA.
133. (b) Members of Brassicaceae family (also known as
Cruciferae) have simple rarely compound, alternate,
sessile, exstipulate, reticulate venation. For eg. cabbage.
134. (d) Sapwood is the peripheral part of the wood, which is
light in colour. It is involved in the conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf.
135. (a) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO 2
acceptor which is present in the mesophyll cells. The
enzyme responsible for this fixation is PEP carboxylase
or PEPcase.
136. (c) Golden rice is a genetically modified variety to
produce beta-carotene, which is converted into vitamin-A
when metabolised by the human body.
137. (a) Vascular bundles in monocots are considered closed
because cambium is absent. This leads to the absence of
secondary growth and thus, no formation of new cells in
vascular bundles.
138. (d) All the statements are correct regarding secondary
growth in dicot stems, except statement in option (d).
Initially the vascular cambial ring formed in case of dicot
roots is wavy and becomes circulater, later.
SECTION II Mastery Builders 13
139. (c) Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase) is the first
enzyme in the respirator chain. It catalyses the electron
transfer from NADH to ubiquinone that is associated
with proton pumping out of the matrix.
140. (a) The correct matches are A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
Chemosynthetic bacteria oxidise various inorganic
substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia.
The cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to plants
and are called photosynthetic autotroph. The cell wall
of dinoflagellates has stiff cellulose plates on the outer
surface.
The cell wall of chrysophytes are embedded with silica.
141. (d) In the first phase of translation amino acids are
activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their
cognate tRNA which is known as charging of tRNA or
aminoacylation of tRNA.
142. (d) Symbols and its representation in option (d) is
incorrect and can be corrected as
5 = five unaffected offsprings
143. (b) A recessive allele is not expressed if a
corresponding allele (which is dominant) is present. In
case where only a single copy of a recessive allele is
present, its expression may lead to failure of individual
to survive. This is known as monosomy.
144. (a) Statements I, II and III are correct, while statements
IV and V are incorrect. It can be corrected as
Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into
simpler inorganic substances by the process called
catabolism.
The humus is further degraded by some microbes and
release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process
called mineralisation.
145. (c) Common characteristics between tomato and potato
will be maximum at the family level. Both potato and
tomato belong to the same family that is Solanaceae
which is commonly called as the potato family. Both
have different genera.
146. (c) The African catfish Clarias gariepinus was
introduced illegally into India because of its ability to
grow in water that are very poor in quality. It has
become a threat to the indigenous cat fishes in the
rivers. This is an example of alien species invasions.
147. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Cofactors are small organic compounds which are used
to support enzyme action.
Catalytic activity is lost when cofactor is removed
from enzyme. This proves the essentiality of cofactors
in the catalytic activity of enzymes.
14 SECTION II Mastery Builders
148. (d) The correct sequence of progressive evolution is
represented by option (d).
Progressive evolution is the formation of more
complex, elaborate and specialised structures from a
single one. Based on this, Alage were the first to
dominate. They were followed by bryophytes,
pteridophytes and then by gymnosperms as
represented-Ulva, Funaria, Equisetum, Cedrus.
149. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. It
can be corrected as
Pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be
inverted. Since, energy is constantly lost as heat of each
level.
150. (d) Narrow utilitarian aspect of biodiversity
conservation includes pine resin, gums, tannin sources
and dyes Pine resin is obtained from Pinus. Gums are
obtained from Butea monosperma.
Tannin sources include Acacia. Dye sources include
Acacia catechu.
However, pollination is a service that the nature
provides. It is categorised as broadly utilitarian which
explains the broad and general use of biodiversity like
oxygen production pollination, etc not limited to
partcular species.
Zoology
151. (a) Coelenterates are aquatic, mostly marine and
radially symmetrical animals. They are diploblastic and
exhibit tissue level of organisation.
e.g. Physalia, Adamsia, etc.
152. (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Transgenic food contains enzymes that are produced by
antibiotic resistant genes that can be problematic and
cause allergies.
Bacteria present in alimentary canal of humans take up
antibiotic resistance gene and become resistant to that
antibiotic, as a result it becomes unmangageable.
153. (b) Trichoderma species are free-living fungi. These
species of fungus can be used as a biocontrol agent.
It can suppress the growth of the pathogen population in
the soil through competition and thus reduce disease
development.
154. (c) The statement in option (c) is incorrect. It can be
corrected as
Through the process of intra-uterine insemination the
semen collected from husband or donor is artificially
introduced into the vagina and not clitoris.
Rest of the statements about ART are correct.
155. (c) Statements II, III and IV are correct, while statements
I and V are incorrect. They can be corrected as
NEET n
Practice Set 11
Ctenophores are commonly known as sea walnuts or
comb jellies.
Sycon (Scypha) belongs to porifera while ctenoplana
belongs to ctenophora.
156. (c) Statement (c) is not correct about Mendalian
disorders. It can be corrected as
Mendalian disorders can be recessive as well as
dominant.
Recessive mendalian disorders include sickel-cell
anaemia.
157. (c) The correct matches are A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.
Gestation is the time period or duration from the day of
last menstruation to the day baby is born, in other words,
duration between pregnancy and birth is termed as
gestation. It is about 280 days in humans.
Conception involves fertilisaiton of male and female
gametes. This is first step, pregnancy.
Parturition is also called child birth. It is the process of
delivering the child once the pregnancy period is over.
Ovulation refers to the release of mature egg from the
ovary by rupturing of Graafian follicle. One ovary
releases an egg every month altenatively.
158. (b) The correct matches are A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.
l
Ascaris belongs to Aschelminthes. Their alimentary
canal is complete with a well developed muscular
pharynx.
l
Hirudinaria belongs to Annelida. Their body surface
is distinctly marked out into segments or metamers.
l
Bombyx belongs to Arthropoda and have jointed
appendages.
l
Pila belongs to Mollusca. Its body is divided into
head, muscular foot and visual hump.
159. (b) Correct order is D, C, A, B.
More than 70% of all species recorded are animals and
among animals, insects are the most richest species. So
the correct order is
Insects ® Other animal groups ® Molluscs
® Crustaceans
160. (b) Graafian follicle contains large central follicular
cavity called antrum. It is filled with a fluid called liquor
folliculi.
161. (b) Some of the marine fishes that are consumed include
Hilsa, sardines mackerel and pomfrets.
Catla, Rohu and common carp are fresh water dwellers.
162. (d) Streptokinase is produced by the bacterium
Streptococcus. It is used as a clot buster. It is used in
dissolving blood clots in heart patients.
Amylase is a starch digesting enzyme. Statins are
inhibitor of enzyme HMG, Co-A reductase of liver.
Cyclosporins are immunosuppressive agents.
NEET n
Practice Set 11
163. (d) The tertiary structure of a protein molecule results
from electrostatic bonding, hydrophobic bonding and
hydrogen bonding.
However glycosidic bonding is not seen.
164. (a) Proteins carry out many function in living organism
GLUT-4 functions to transport glucose into the cells.
165. (a) A is false, but R is true. A can be corrected as
All factors in our body are favourable for diffusion of O2
from alveoli to tissue and that of CO2 from tissues to
alveoli.
166. (b) Statements I, IV and V are correct, while statements
II and III are incorrect and can be corrected as
Frog’s eyes are bulged and covered by a nictitating
membrane that protects them while in water. Frog has
two pairs of lymph heart.
167. (b) The chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the
rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to CO2 and
hydrogen ions.
168. (b) A tetrad or bivalent chromosome consists of four
chromatids and two centromeres. The formation of
bivalent occur in pachytene stage.
169. (b) Hirudinaria which is the member of
phylum-Annelida is commonly known as blood sucking
leech. These are cosmopolitan and can be found in India.
170. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
The incorrect statement can be correct as
Tunica intima is an inner lining of squamous
endothelium. The tunica media is a middle layer of
smooth muscle and elastic fibres.
171. (d) A is true, but R is false. R can be corrected as
Due to deposition of calcium, fat, cholestrol and fibrous
tissues, the lumen of the arteries becomes narrower
which limits the blood flow to the heart. Thus, CAD or
atherosclerosis affects the heart’s major blood vessels.
172. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. It
can be corrected as
In a nucleotide, the phosphate molecule is attached to
fifth carbon atom of the deoxyribose molecules.
173. (b) The core of cilium is called axoneme. It possess
several microtubules running in a direction parallel to
long axis.
The arrangement of axoneme is such that it has nine pairs
of doublets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules
and one pair of centrally located microtubules. Such an
arrangement is refered to as 9 +2 array.
174. (c) Statements III and IV are incorrect and can be
corrected as
Wuchereria commonly known as filarial worm causes
slowly developing chronic inflammation.
SECTION II Mastery Builders 15
The T-lymphocytes mediates the cell mediated
immunity.
Rest all the statements are correct.
175. (d) The option ‘d’ is correct. Rest all match pairs are
incorrect and can be corrected as
HIV—Human Immuno Deficiency Viruses.
AIDS—Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
ELISA—Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay
176. (d) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
It can be corrected as
In 1983, Eli Lilly and American company prepared two
DNA sequences corresponding to chain A and B of
human insulin.
177. (a) The globular head of meromysosin is an active
ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and
active sites for actin.
178. (b) Adrenal cortex is subdivided into three zones viz,
zona glomerulosa which produces mineralocorticoids,
zona fasciculata, which produces glucocorticoids and
zona reticularis which produces gonadocorticoids.
179. (b) Broca’s area controls movement of tongue. It is
involved in speech production and is situated in left
cerebral hemisphere in right-handed people.
180. (b) Pituitary gland, also called master gland, is situated
below the hypothalamus and connected to the brain by
a stalk. It lies in the cavity called sella tursica of
sphenoid bone above the roof of nasal cavity.
181. (c) The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of
forebrain. The pineal gland secretes melatonin,
serotonin and adrenoglomerulotropin.
182. (c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A. R can be correct as
Aldosterone mainly acts at the renal tubule and
stimulates the reabsorption of Na + and water and
excretion of H+ and phosphate ions. Thus, aldosterone
regulates osmotic and blood pressure.
183. (c) Haemodialysis is the process used to clean human
blood by removing impurities. In this blood is draineing
from a convenient artery into a dialysing unit. This
method is usually opted for people with kidney failures.
184. (b) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) stimulates
reabsorption of Ca 2+ by the renal tubules and increase
Ca 2+ absorption from the digested food. It is thus, clear
that PTH is a hypercalcaemic hormone and also plays a
significant role in calcium balance in the body.
185. (c) Match pair (c) is incorrect. It can be corrected as
Downstream processing refers to the series of
operations required to take biological materials and
purify them yielding a pure homogenous product. For
this the product has to be formulated with suitable
16 SECTION II Mastery Builders
preservatives and undergo strict quality control
testing.
Rest pairs are correctly matched.
186. (b) Smooth muscle consists of thick and thin filaments
that are not arranged into sarcomeres giving it a
non-striated pattern and are fusiform in shape.
187. (c) The eyes of Octopus and mammals appear similar,
but have different structure and origin. Because of
difference in structure and origin despite similar
appearance, eyes of Octopus and eyes of mammals are
called analogous. Eyes of an Octopus and a mammal
both differ in retinal position, but their functions are
same. This shows convergent evolution.
188. (c) The incorrect match is (c). It can be corrected as
Tracheal respiration is found in insects. It is an
intercommunicating tube through which gaseous
exchange occurs.
189. (b) The centrosome are cylindrical structures. They
help in the formation of spindle fibres.
Apart from this, centrosomes also aid in organising
microtubules and providing structure to cell.
190. (c) X-ray crystallographic data collected by Franklin
and Wilkins played a major role in the double-helix
model of DNA proposed by Watson and Crick.
Erwin Chargaff gave base equivalence rule or
Chargaff’s rule. Meselson and Stahl proved that DNA
replication was semiconservative.
191. (b) Statements III and IV are incorrect. They can be
corrected as
Basement membrane of capillary wall is the only
continuous layer between the blood in glomerular
capillary and lumen of Bowmans’s capsule.
Both PCT and DCT lie in the renal cortex.
192. (c) A polysome is a number of ribosomes on the same
transcript.
A number of ribosomes may attach to an mRNA
transcript. These ribosomes simultaneously undergo
translation (protein synthesis) process, each being at
different stages of the process.
193. (b) Statement in option (b) is incorrect. It can be
corrected as
The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held
by proteins.
194. (a) Statement in option (a) is incorrect . It can be
corrected as
The human genome project can identify approximately
20,000-25,000 genes in human DNA. HGP was a
major project that began in 1990 and ended in 2023.
NEET n
Practice Set 11
195. (b) The person is suffering from angina pectoris as its
symptoms include appearance of acute chest pain when no
enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscles. It is more
common in middle aged people.
196. (a) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
Incorrect statement can be corrected as
Predators, besides acting as conduits for energy transfer
across trophic levels, also play important roles. They keep
prey populations under control.
197. (c) Statements II and III are incorrect and can be corrected
as
All copulations might not lead to pregnancy as it is
dependent on sperm motility, the period cycle and the
hormonal regulations in the female reproductive system.
By the end of 12 weeks, the foetus is fully formed, but do
not show movements.
198. (d) The correct matches are A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.
Bacteria like Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for
the disease pneumonia in humans which infects alveoli of
the lungs.
P. falciparum causes malaria in humans which can be
fatal.
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large
intestine of human which causes amoebiasis.
W. malayi is the filarial worm which causes filariaris leads
to inflammation in the lower limbs.
199. (b) The correct matches are A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.
A plasmid is a small, circular extra chromosomal DNA
that are capable of showing independent replication. They
act as vectors in genetic engeneering.
Ori stands for origin of replication, it is a specific
sequence where replicatiton starts. Any fragment when
linked to Ori, can be made to replicate.
Restriction exonucleaes are a class of enzymes which cut
DNA at the two extreme ends leaving behind blunt ends.
Elution generally means a process of extracting one
material from another by washing with a solvent. The
DNA bands separated on the agarose gel matrix after
staining are cut out from the gel and extracted. This is
termed as elution.
200. (c) The correct matches are A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.
Tendon is a connective tissue that attaches muscle to
bone. Smooth muscle is involuntary in nature, i.e are not
in our control.
Myosin is contractile protein and troponin is globular
protein, which is attached to the protein tropomyosin lying
on actin filaments. Thus, preventing contraction.