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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
PHYSICS
Q.104 (CST-7) (Motion Under Gravity)
1. A body is thrown vertically upwards and time of
ascent is t1 and time of descent is t2 in the absence
of air resistance, then which of the following is the
correct relation between t1 and t2?
(1) t1 = t2 Charge on the upper plate A of capacitor
(2) t1 > t2
(1) Is positive
(3) t1 < t2 (2) Is negative
(4) Insufficient information (3) Is zero
2. An open lift is moving upward with acceleration g/2. (4) May be positive or negative
A ball is thrown vertically upward with velocity u with
3. In previous (Q. 2), the speed of the bar magnet
respect to lift. The time after ball comes back to lift
(1) Will increase with time
will be
(2) Will decrease with time
2u 4u
(1) (2) (3) Will not change with time
g 3g
(4) May increase or decrease with time
u u
(3) (4) 4. A bar magnet is falling along the axis of closed
g 3g conducting loop as shown
3. A body is dropped from the top of a tower of height
H. The time taken (t) by the body to hit the ground is
(Assume air resistance to be present)
2H 2H
(1) t  (2) t 
g g

2H H
(3) t  (4) t 
g g
Q.125 (CST-7) (Faraday’s Experiment) The acceleration of the loop is
(1) Equal to g
1. A metallic ring with a small cut is held in horizontal
(2) Greater than g
plane and a magnet is allowed to fall vertically
through the ring along its axis, then there (3) Less than g
(1) Will be an induced emf in the loop but no (4) Both (1) and (3) are possible
induced current Q.129 (CST-7) (Gravitational Potential Energy)
(2) Will not be induced emf in the loop 1. The angular momentum of a satellite revolving
(3) Will be induced emf and induced current in around the earth in a circular orbit having radius r is
the loop proportional to
(4) Will neither be induced current nor induced (1) r (2) r
emf in the loop
(3) r 2
(4) r –1
2. A bar magnet is moving along the axis of a
2. A satellite of mass m is moving around earth in a
conducting loop. Speed of magnet at any time is v.
circular orbit of radius R. The magnitude of angular
The loop contain a capacitor as shown, then

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Physics

momentum of satellite is (Assume the mass of earth (1) Can be positive

to be M) (2) Can be zero
Gm 2M (3) Can be negative
(1) (2) GMm2R
R (4) Both (1) and (2)
2. If an object in a satellite escapes to infinity, then its
GmM 2
(3) GmM 2R (4) potential energy
R
(1) Will be positive
3. A satellite is revolving around earth in a circular orbit (2) Will be negative
of radius r with speed v. The speed (v) of satellite is
(3) Will be zero
proportional to
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) r (2) (r )–1/2
3. A satellite of mass m is orbiting around earth in a
(3) (r )1/2 (4) r2 circular orbit of radius 2R, where R is radius of
Q.144 (CST-7) (Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law) earth. The additional kinetic energy should be given
to it so that it escapes to infinity is (Given: M is mass
1. Consider the following segments of a circuit
of earth)
(i) GMm GMm
(1) (2)
2R 4R
(ii) GMm 2GMm
(3) (4)
R R
(iii) 4. A satellite is orbiting around earth in a circular orbit
In which of the cases, VA > VB? of radius 2R, where R is the radius of earth. If its
(1) Only (i) speed is increased to 2 times, then its speed at
(2) Both (i) and (iii) infinite distance from the orbit is (Given: M is mass
of earth)
(3) Both (ii) and (iii)
(4) All i.e., (i), (ii) and (iii) GM GM
(1) (2)
R 2R
2. In the circuit given below, VA – VB can be
1 GM GM
(3) (4) 2
2 R R
Q.12 (CST-8) (Elastic PE of Spring)
[Note:-  0]
1. A spring stores 1.6 mJ of energy when extension in
(1) Greater than zero
it is 1 mm. The spring constant of the spring is
(2) Less than zero
kN kN
(3) Zero (1) 3.2 (2) 1.6
m m
(4) Nothing can be said
kN kN
3. Consider the following segment of a circuit. The (3) 4.8 (4) 6.4
m m
potential at point Q (If potential at point P is 10 V),
will be 2. A spring stores 1.6 mJ of energy when extension in
it is 1 mm. Energy stored in the spring when the
extension in spring is 2 mm will be
(1) 3.2 mJ (2) 4.8 mJ
(1) +21 V (2) –11 V (3) 6.4 mJ (4) 7.2 mJ
(3) –9 V (4) +9 V 3. A spring stores 1.6 mJ of energy when extension in
4. In the segment of circuit given below, if VA = VB, the spring is 1 mm. Now the spring is divided into
then the value of  is two equal parts and joined in parallel. The
combination springs is again pulled by 1 mm. The
energy stored in combination is
(1) 3.2 mJ (2) 6.4 mJ
(1) 10 V (2) 4 V (3) 1.6 mJ (4) 0.5 mJ
(3) 14 V (4) 6 V 4. A spring stored 16 mJ of energy when extension in
Q.8 (CST-8) (Escape Velocity) it is 1 mm as shown in the diagram given below. At
1. If an object in a satellite escapes to infinity, its this position an additional kinetic energy of 48 mJ is
kinetic energy given to the block. The further extension in the
spring is

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Physics

(1) 1 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 3 mm
(4) 4 mm
Q.16 (CST-8) (Energy)
1. When a force of one newton is applied over a
displacement of one metre of a body, the work done

is said to be (1) PT
3 0
(1) 1 Joule
(2) 1 calorie 
(2) PT
(3) Water equivalent of body 0
(4) Thermal capacity of body 
2. If heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of a (3) TP
3 0
substance by 1°C is 4.18 J, then the heat required
in calories is 
(4) TP
(1) 0.5 calorie 0
(2) 1 calorie 3. Statement(A): Electric field inside the cavity of
(3) 4.18 calorie uniformly charged non-conducting solid sphere is
(4) 2 calorie uniform.
3. The amount of water that absorbs or gives out the Statement(B): Electric field inside the cavity of
same amount of heat as is done by the body when uniformly charged conducting solid sphere is zero.
heated or cooled through 1°C is referred as (1) Statement (A) is correct while statement (B) is
(1) Mechanical energy of water incorrect
(2) Potential energy of water
(2) Statement (A) is incorrect while statement (B)
(3) Water equivalent is correct
(4) Mechanical equivalent
(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct
4. The quantity of heat necessary to produce a unit
change of temperature in a body is (4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(1) Thermal capacity 4. Two spherical cavities with centres C1 and C2 are
(2) 1 Joule created in a uniformly charged non-conducting
(3) 1 calorie sphere of charge density  and centre O as shown
(4) Water equivalent below. Electric field at point P can be found by using
Q.41 (CST-8) (Gauss’ Law) expression
1. Assertion(A): If a Gaussian surface is constructed
within the cavity of a uniformly charged sphere, then
q
by Gauss law  E.ds  enclosed  zero
0
Reason(R): This means that electric field inside
cavity, E = zero.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the

correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1)
3 0
OP – C1P – C2P 

 
correct explanation of (A)
(2) OP – C1P  C2P
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 3 0
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

2. A uniformly charged sphere of radius 3R with (3)
3 0
OP  C1P – C2P 
volumetric charge density  is shown in figure given

below. A spherical cavity of radius R and centre T is
cut out. Electric field at centre P of original sphere
(4)
3 0
OP  C1P  C2P 
will be

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Physics

Q.06 (CST-8) (Angular Momentum of Conical 2. Consider a conical pendulum as shown below, it is
Pendulum) known that net force on mass m is along ‘O’
1. A bob of mass is attached to an inextensible string (centripetal force)
of length l suspended from a vertical support. The
bob rotates in a horizontal circle (x–z plane) with an
angular speed  about the vertical. The correct
diagrammatic representation of this situation is

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Based on above information, choose the correct

option.
(1) The magnitude of centripetal force is constant
(2) The direction of centripetal force keeps
(2) changing
(3) The magnitude as well as the direction of
centripetal force keeps changing
(4) Both (1) and (2)
3. In the above question (Q. 2), the torque of net force
(centripetal force) about point of suspension P
(1) is constant in magnitude
(3) (2) is variable in magnitude
(3) Keeps changing in terms of direction
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) All of these


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Based on
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
PHYSICS
Answer Key
Q.104 (CST-7) (Motion Under Gravity) 4. (1)
1. (1) Q.12 (CST-8) (Elastic PE of Spring)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (3)
Q.125 (CST-7) (Faraday’s Experiment) 3. (2)
1. (1) 4. (1)
2. (1) Q.16 (CST-8) (Energy)
3. (2) 1. (1)
4. (3) 2. (2)
Q.129 (CST-7) (Gravitational Potential Energy) 3. (3)
1. (1) 4. (1)
2. (2) Q.41 (CST-8) (Gauss’ Law)
3. (2) 1. (3)
Q.144 (CST-7) (Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law) 2. (1)
1. (2) 3. (3)
2. (1) 4. (1)
3. (2) Q.6 (CST-8) (Angular Momentum of Conical
4. (4) Pendulum)
Q.8 (CST-8) (Escape Velocity) 1. (1)
1. (4) 2. (4)
2. (3) 3. (4)
3. (2)


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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CHEMISTRY

Q159. (CST-07) (The Lanthanoids) (2) B2O3 and [B(OH)4]–

1. Which among the following has fully filled 4f (3) HBO2 and B2O3
subshell? (4) [B(OH)4]– and HBO2
(1) La and Ce (2) Eu and Gd 2. Boric acid acts as
(3) Yb and Lu (4) Pm and Sm (1) Lewis acid
2. The Actinoid which shows only +4 oxidation (2) Bronsted acid
state. (3) Arrhenius acid
(1) Ac (2) Th (4) Tribasic acid
(3) Pa (4) U 3. In the following reaction, product [A] and [B] are
3. Which among the following is colourless
Na2B4O7 + H2O  [A] + [B]
Lanthanoid ion?
(1) B2O3 and NaOH
(1) Ce3+ (2) Eu3+
(2) H3BO3 and NaOH
(3) Tm3+ (4) Lu3+
(3) HBO2 and NaOH
Q162. (CST-07) (Thermodynamic Process)
(4) B2H6 and NaOH
1. Which among the following is extensive
property? Q171. (CST-07) (Analysis of Cation)

(1) Ecell (2) Heat capacity 1. Group reagent for group-I cations is

(3) Molarity (4) Density (1) (NH4)2 CO3 in presence of NH4OH

2. Which among the following is intensive (2) Dilute HCl

property? (3) H2S gas is presence of dil. HCl
(1) Number of moles (2) G (4) NH4OH is presence of NH4Cl
(3) Molar heat capacity (4) Volume 2. On passing ammonia gas over the Nessler’s
reagent, a brown precipitate is formed.
3. The correct relationship between Heat capacity
at constant V and constant P is The brown precipitate formed is
(1) CP – CV = – R (1) (NH4)2 HgI4
(2) CV = R – CP (2) HgO. Hg (NH2)I
(3) Cv = CP + R (3) HgO. Hg (NH2)Cl
(4) CP = R + CV (4) Hg(NH2)Cl
Q151. (CST-07) (Some Important Compounds of 3. Which compound will not give positive chromyl
chloride test?
Boron)
(1) CuCl2
1. Consider the following sequence,
  (2) HgCl2
H3BO3   [A]   [B]
(3) ZnCl2
[A] and [B] respectively are
(4) C6H5NH3 Cl–
(1) B2O3 and HBO2
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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Chemistry

Q154. (CST-08) (Structure of Proteins) Q159. (CST-08) (The Chemistry Involved in the
1. Consider the following statements: Titrimetric Exercises)
(a) All the naturally occurring -amino acids are 1. Working pH range of phenolphthalein indicator
optically active, except glycine. is
(b) The amino acids which can be synthesised (1) 8.2 to 10.2
in the body are known as essential amino (2) 3.1 to 4.5
acids. (3) 6.2 to 8.2
(c) Histidine and Proline are essential amino (4) 4.2 to 6.2
acids. 2. Given below are two statements:
The incorrect statements are Statement I: Phenolphthalein indicator is used
(1) (a) and (b) only for weak acid/strong base titration.
(2) (b) and (c) only Statement II: Methyl orange indicator is used
(3) (a) and (c) only for strong acid/weak base titration.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) In the light of above statements choose the
correct option.
2. Choose the set of essential amino acids.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) Proline, Tyrosine and Cysteine correct
(2) Serine, Glutamine and Aspartic acid (2) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) Arginine, Isoleucine and Lysine incorrect
(4) Alanine, Glycine and Glutamic acid (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
3. Choose the incorrect statement incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) Denaturation of protein leads to the loss of
correct
its biological activity
3. Colour of phenolphthalein and methyl orange
(2) During denaturation of proteins, its tertiary indicators in acidic medium are respectively
structure gets destroyed while primary and
(1) Yellow, yellow
secondary structures remain intact
(2) Orange red, yellow
(3) Curdling the milk and coagulation of egg
(3) Colourless, yellow
white on boiling are the common examples
of denaturation of protein (4) Colourless, orange red
(4) Change in temperature and pH can lead to Q167. (CST-08) (Oxoacids of Phosphorus)
the uncoiling of helix and unfolding of 1. Phosphinic acid is
globules of proteins (1) H3PO4 (2) H3PO3
Q185. (CST-08) (Electrochemical Cell) (3) H3PO2 (4) (HPO3)n
1. Reduction Electrode Potential of Hydrogen 2. Which among the following oxoacid of
electrode at the pH of 10 is phosphorous has P–O–P linkage?
(1) – 1.182 V (1) H4P2O7 (2) H4P2O6
(2) – 0.59 V (3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO3
(3) 1.773 V 3. Which among the following may undergo
(4) Zero disproportionation?
2. Standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is (1) H3PO4
(1) Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 1M) (2) H3PO3
(2) Pt (s) | H2 (g, 1 atm) | H+ (aq, 1M) (3) (HPO3)n
(3) Pt(s) | H2 (g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 0.1 M) (4) H4P2O7
(4) Pt(s) | H2(g, 1 atm)|H+ (aq, 0.1 M) 4. Which among the following oxoacid will have basicity
three?
3. The value of reduction potential for the following
half cell Pt(s) | H2(g) (1 atm) | H+(aq) (0.01 M) is (1) H3PO4 (2) H3PO2
(1) 0.0591 V (2) Zero (3) H3PO3 (4) All of these
(3) – 0.1182 V (4) – 0.1773 V


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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CHEMISTRY
Answer Key
Q159. (CST-07) (The Lanthanoids) Q154. (CST-08) (Structure of Proteins)
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (2)
Q162. (CST-07) (Thermodynamic Process) Q185. (CST-08) (Electrochemical Cell)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (3)
Q151. (CST-07) (Some Important Compounds of Q159. (CST-08) (The Chemistry Involved in the
Boron) Titrimetric Exercises)
1. (3) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (4)
Q171. (CST-07) (Analysis of Cation) Q167. (CST-08) (Oxoacids of Phosphorus)
1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (2)
4. (1)




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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET
CSS-04
BOTANY
Q2. (CST-07) Principles of Inheritance and
Variation: (Inheritance of One Gene)
1. Test cross is used to determine the
(1) Genotype of a plant showing dominant
phenotype in Mendelian inheritance
(2) Number of offspring in F2 generation
(3) Probability of all possible genotypes of
offspring in a genetic cross
(4) Types of gametes produced by parent
2. Which of the following crosses is said to be a test
cross?
(1) TT × TT
(2) Tt × Tt
(3) tt × tt
(4) Tt × tt
3. Which of the following exemplifies incomplete
dominance?
(1) Flower colour of snapdragon
(2) Eye colour of drosophila
(3) Stem height of pea plant
(4) Flower colour in pea plant
Q12. (CST-07) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants:
(The C4 Pathway)
1. All of the following plants have C4 pathway for CO2
fixation, except
(1) Tomato
(2) Sorghum
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Maize
2. Select the odd one out w.r.t. maize plant.
(1) Presence of Kranz anatomy in leaves
(2) RuBisCO enzyme is located in bundle sheath
cells
(3) PEPcase is located in mesophyll cells
(1)
Based on
CST-07 & 08
(4) Three-carbon primary CO2 acceptor molecule
is present in bundle sheath cells
3. Maize and tomato plants show similarity, as in both
(1) CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cells
(2) Calvin cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells
(3) Photorespiration occurs
(4) Have Kranz anatomy in their leaves
Q32. (CST-07) Cell: The Unit of Life: (Eukaryotic
Cells)
1. The fluidic nature of plasma membrane is due to
the presence of
(1) Lipids
(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Cholesterol
2. The ability that enables the lateral movement of
proteins within the plasma membrane is measured
as its
(1) Rigidity
(2) Fluidity
(3) Permeability
(4) Cohesivity
3. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
Statement A: The quasi-fluid nature of lipid
enables lateral movement of proteins within the
overall bilayer of plasma membrane.
Statement B: Plasma membrane possesses two
types of proteins, namely integral protein and
peripheral protein.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Botany

Q15. (CST-07) Anatomy of Flowering Plants: (3) Gram, arhar, sem and moong are source of
(Anatomy of Root) pulses belong to this family
1. Which of the following tissues together constitute (4) Petunia is an ornamental plant of this family
the stele? 2. Floral formula of a family is .
(1) Cortex, endodermis and pericycle Which of the following plants belongs to this
(2) Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith family?
(3) Endodermis, pericycle and pith (1) Groundnut
(4) Epidermis, cortex and endodermis (2) Mustard
2. Which of the following terms is used for all tissues (3) Asparagus
present innerside of the endodermis in flowering (4) Tobacco
plants?
3. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. plants of family
(1) General cortex Fabaceae and their economic importance.
(2) Ground tissue (1) Indigofera – Dye
(3) Stele (2) Soyabean – Edible oil
(4) Pith (3) Sesbania – Fodder
3. Barrel shaped cells having special thickenings of (4) Muliathi – Fibres
suberin in their radial and tangential walls are
Q52. (CST-08) Plant Kingdom: (Angiosperms)
found in which of the following plant parts?
(1) Dicot root 1. In Cycas, coralloid roots are associated with
nitrogen-fixing
(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot stem (1) Fungi
(4) Leaf (2) Azotobacter
Q9. (CST-07) Molecular Basis of Inheritance: (3) Rhizobium
(Translation) (4) Cyanobacteria
1. Read the following statements and select the 2. Process of syngamy and triple fusion occurs in
correct option.
(1) Bryophytes
Statement A: The sequence of mRNA is read
from the 5’ to 3’ end by the adapter molecule. (2) Gymnosperms
Statement B: The anticodon sequence of tRNA (3) Angiosperms
that carries methionine is 3’ UAC 5’.
(4) Pteridophytes
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
3. Select the incorrect statement about conifers
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
such as Pinus.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) They have needle-like leaves
(4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Roots have fungal association in the form of
2. Which of the following is a start codon?
Mycorrhiza
(1) 5’AUG 3’
(3) Winged pollen grains are found
(2) 3’AUG 5’
(3) 5’UGA 3’ (4) Double fertilization event occurs in Pinus
(4) 3’UAC 5’ Q66. (CST-08) Cell Cycle and Cell Division: (Meiosis)
3. The cognate sequence of bases in the anticodon 1. Which event during meiosis lead to reduction in
present in tRNA will be the number of chromosomes?
(1) Identical and parallel to that of codon in mRNA (1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(2) Complementary and antiparallel to that of (2) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids
codon in mRNA of the homologous chromosomes
(3) Similar and antiparallel to the codons in rRNA (3) Separation of two homologous chromosomes
from each other
(4) Identical to the codons present in template
strand of DNA (4) Reappearance of nucleolus and nuclear
membrane
Q61. (CST-08) Description of Some Important
2. During which phase of meiosis homologous
Families: (Fabaceae) chromosomes separate from each other?
1. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t. (1) Prophase I
Fabaceae family?
(2) Anaphase I
(1) Flowers are bisexual and zygomorphic
(3) Metaphase II
(2) Sepals have imbricate/valvate aestivation
(4) Telophase I

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Botany

3. Select the incorrect match (3) Monocot root

(1) Prophase I – Condensation and coiling (4) Monocot stem
of chromatin fibres begins 2. Select the odd one w.r.t. monocot stem.
(2) Metaphase I – Formation of double (1) Cambium is absent in the vascular bundles
metaphasic plate (2) Medullary rays and pith are absent
(3) Anaphase I – Splitting of centromere (3) Water-containing cavities are present within
takes place the vascular bundles
(4) Telophase-I – Spindle fibres disappears (4) Protoxylem lies towards the periphery
Q94. (CST-08) Anatomy of Flowering Plants: 3. Hypodermis of the monocot stem is made up of
(Anatomy of Stem) (1) Living mechanical tissue
1. Conjoint, collateral, endarch and closed vascular (2) Dead lignified cells
bundles are found in (3) Living thin-walled cellulosic cells
(1) Dicot stem (4) Thin strip of primary meristem responsible for
(2) Dicot root secondary growth

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BOTANY
Answer Key

Q2. (CST-07) Principles of Inheritance and 1. (1)

Variation: (Inheritance of One Gene) 2. (1)
3. (2)
1. (1)
2. (4) Q61. (CST-08) Description of Some Important
3. (1) Families: (Fabaceae)
Q12. (CST-07) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants: 1. (4)
(The C4 Pathway) 2. (1)
1. (1) 3. (4)
2. (4) Q52.(CST-08) Plant Kingdom: (Angiosperms)
3. (1) 1. (4)
Q32. (CST-07) Cell: The Unit of Life: (Eukaryotic 2. (3)
Cells) 3. (4)
1. (1) Q66. (CST-08) Cell Cycle and Cell Division: (Meiosis)
2. (2) 1. (3)
3. (3) 2. (2)
Q15. (CST-07) Anatomy of Flowering Plants: 3. (3)
(Anatomy of Root) Q94. (CST-08) Anatomy of Flowering Plants:
1. (2) (Anatomy of Stem)
2. (3) 1. (4)
3. (1) 2. (4)
Q9. (CST-07) Molecular Basis of Inheritance: 3. (2)
(Translation)

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

Based on
CST-07 & 08

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
ZOOLOGY

CST-07: Q.No.53 (Biomolecules: Proteins) 3. Read the statements given below w.r.t. regulation
1. Glucosamine is of respiration in humans.
(1) An amino sugar (2) A polypeptide Statement A: Neural signals from pneumotaxic
(3) A glycolipid (4) A nucleic acid centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
2. Which of the following is the most abundant protein Statement B: Neural signals from pneumotaxic
in animal world? centre can increase the breathing rate.
(1) Elastin (2) Collagen Choose the correct option.
(3) RuBisCO (4) Glycogen (1) Both statements A and B are correct
3. Complete the analogy and select the correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
option.
(3) Only statement A is correct
Collagen : Polymer of amino acids :: Inulin :
__________. (4) Only statement B is correct
(1) Polymer of valine (2) Polymer of fructose 4. In humans, medulla and pons contain centres for
(3) Polymer of ribose (4) Polymer of glucose controlling respiration. Both these structures are
located in the
4. Read the following statements.
(1) Hindbrain
Statement A: Secondary structure of proteins (2) Cerebral hemisphere
exhibits only right handed helices.
(3) Midbrain
Statement B: Protein is a homopolymer of amino
(4) Forebrain
acids.
5. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the
Choose the correct option. respiratory rhythm centre which is highly sensitive
(1) Both statements A and B are correct to
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1) CO2 and H+ (2) O2 only
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) CO2 and O2 (4) H+ only

(4) Only statement B is correct CST-07: Q.No.64 (Reproductive Health: Methods of

Birth Control)
CST-07: Q.No.60 (Breathing and Exchange of
1. All of the following contraceptives inhibit ovulation
Gases: Regulation of Respiration)
and implantation as well as alter the quality of
1. In humans, the respiratory rhythm centre is cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of
present in sperms, except
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebellum (1) Steroidal oral contraceptive pill
(3) Thalamus (4) Pons (2) Injections containing progesterone alone
2. Centre present in the pons region of human brain (3) Implants
that can moderate the functions of the respiratory
(4) Copper releasing IUDs
rhythm centre is called _________.
2. Which of the following comes under the barrier
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
method of contraception?
(1) Association areas (2) Pneumotaxic centre
(1) Multiload 375 (2) Vaults
(3) Corpus callosum (4) Cerebral aqueduct
(3) Lippes loop (4) Saheli

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

3. Select the correct match. CST-07: Q.No.99 (Locomotion and Movement:

(1) CuT – A non-medicated IUD Muscles)
(2) Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUD 1. The contractile proteins involved in the muscle
contraction are
(3) Tubectomy – A method of sterilization
in males (1) Actin and myosin
(4) Cervical cap – Used by males during (2) Myosin and troponin
sexual intercourse (3) Troponin and tropomyosin
4. Use of which of the following is very effective as an (4) Actin and tropomyosin
emergency contraceptive in humans? 2. In resting state, which regulatory protein masks the
(1) Diaphragm active binding sites for myosin on the actin
(2) Nirodh filaments?
(3) A non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill (1) A subunit of tropomyosin
(4) Progesterone-estrogen combination pills (2) A subunit of troponin
CST-07: Q.No.83 (Biotechnology - Principles and (3) Meromyosin
Processes: Processes of Recombinant DNA (4) ATP
Technologies) 3. Read the statements I and II and choose the
1. A 30 kb double stranded linear DNA has two correct option.
restriction sites for the enzyme ‘X’. One restriction Statement I: Each actin filament is made up of two
site is 5 kb apart and other is 10 kb apart from each ‘F’ actins helically wound to each other.
of the two ends respectively.
Statement II: Only one filament of tropomyosin
On performing gel electrophoresis following also run close to the ‘F’ actins throughout its
restriction digestion, the number of DNA bands length.
seen is/are
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(1) One (2) Two
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) Only statement I is correct
2. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. agarose gel
electrophoresis. (4) Only statement II is correct
(1) DNA fragments resolve through sieving effect 4. All of the following proteins are included in thin
provided by agarose gel. filament of skeletal muscle fibre, except
(2) Smaller fragments move more towards anode (1) ‘F’ actins
under electric field than larger fragments. (2) Tropomyosin
(3) Bands of linear DNA fragments having same (3) Meromyosin
length can be distinguished (4) Troponin
(4) Ethidium bromide is used to stain DNA. 5. Read the statements A and B and choose the
3. A double stranded circular DNA has 2 restriction correct option.
sites for the enzyme ‘A’. On performing successful Statement A: Each thick filament in a muscle fibre
restriction digestion with enzyme ‘A’, the number is a polymerized protein called myosin.
of DNA fragments obtained is/are
Statement B: Each myosin is formed of
(1) One (2) Two monomeric proteins which are called tropomyosin.
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Both statements A and B are correct
4. Consider the given gel profile obtained after (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
performing gel electrophoresis.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
CST-08: Q.No.103 (Human Reproduction: The Male
Reproductive System)
1. In humans, how many testicular lobules are
present in each testis?
(1) 500 (2) 250
(3) 125 (4) 700
Choose the correct option w.r.t. size of DNA
fragments obtained in lane A, B and C. 2. How many testis is/are present in a human male?
(1) C > A > B (2) B > A > C (1) One (2) Three
(3) A > B > C (4) C > B > A (3) Two (4) Four

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

3. Read the following statements CST-08: Q.No.114 (Reproductive Health: Methods of

Statement A: 500 testicular lobules are present in Birth Control)
the testes of a healthy human male. 1. A surgical intervention in males, where a small part
Statement B: The testis is covered by a dense of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through
covering. a small incision on the scrotum, prevents
conception by
Select the correct option.
(1) Blockage of gamete transport
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Increasing secretion of androgens
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Inhibiting formation of spermatozoa
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Inhibiting synthesis of androgens
(4) Only statement B is correct
2. Use of all of the following can be effective as
4. Select the correct match w.r.t. human testis. emergency contraceptives, except
(1) Length – 400-500 mm (1) Steroidal contraceptive pills
(2) Width – 20-30 mm (2) Progestasert
(3) Shape – Circular (3) LNG-20
(4) Location – Outside the scrotum (4) Diaphragms
CST-08: Q.No.104 (Biotechnology and its 3. Read the following statements w.r.t. Saheli.
applications: Biotechnological Applications in
Agriculture) (a) ‘Once a week’ pill
1. Green Revolution successfully increased the food (b) Non-steroidal preparation
supply by (c) Very few side effects and high conception
(1) Two times (2) Three times value
(3) Four times (4) Five times (d) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow
2. Which of the following has/have mainly contributed How many above mentioned feature(s) is/are
to increased yields in Green Revolution? incorrect?
(a) Use of better management practices (1) Three (2) Zero
(b) Use of fertilisers (3) Two (4) One
(c) Use of pesticides 4. Consider the given statements and select the
correct option.
Choose the correct option
Statement A: IUDs increase phagocytosis of
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) only
sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) Only (c) suppress sperm motility and increase the fertilising
3. Consider the given statements A and B w.r.t. capacity of sperms.
Green Revolution.
Statement B: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for
Statement A: It increased the food supply upto 10 the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or
folds. space children.
Statement B: It was enough to feed the growing (1) Both statements A and B are correct
human population.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Choose the correct option.
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
5. Select the correct match.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Tubectomy – Vas deferens is
(4) Only statement B is correct
cut and ligated
4. Which of the following is incorrect statement w.r.t.
Green Revolution? (2) Implants – Contain
progestogen and
(1) Norman Ernest Borlaug is considered as the estrogen
father of Green Revolution.
(2) Agricultural productivity of grains—particularly (3) Multiload 375 – Makes cervix
wheat and rice increased. hostile to sperms
(3) Agrochemicals like fertilisers and pesticides (4) Contraceptive – Increase
were not used. injections phagocytosis of
(4) Use of genetically modified crops is a possible sperms in vagina
solution to minimise the use of fertilizers and
chemicals.

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

CST-08: Q.No.122 (Body Fluids and Circulation: CST-08: Q.No.131 (Body Fluids and Circulation:
Double circulation) Circulatory pathways)
1. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from 1. In human, the inter-atrial septum that separates
________ to the liver before it is delivered to the right atrium and left atrium of heart is a
systemic circulation. (1) Thin muscular wall
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (2) Thick epithelial wall
(1) Pancreas (2) Intestine (3) Thin fibrous wall
(3) Kidney (4) Stomach (4) Thick fibrous wall
2. Which of the following is absent in humans? 2. The left and the right ventricles of heart are
(1) Hypophyseal portal system separated by a thick walled structure called
(2) Renal portal system (1) Inter-atrial septum
(3) Hepatic portal system (2) Right atrio-ventricular septum
(4) Coronary circulatory system (3) Inter-ventricular septum
3. Select the option which correctly represents the (4) Left atrio-ventricular septum
sequence of flow of blood in systemic circulation. 3. In a human heart, the atrium and the ventricle of
(1) Right ventricle 
Deoxygenated
blood

 Lungs the same side are separated by _______.

Oxygenated
 Left atrium Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
blood
(1) Inter-atrial septum
(2) Left ventricle 
Deoxygenated
blood

 Aorta
(2) Atrio-ventricular septum

Oxygenated
 Tissues 
Oxygenated
 Right
blood blood (3) Inter-ventricular septum
atrium
(4) Semilunar valves
(3) Right ventricle 
Oxygenated
blood
 Lungs 4. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. a human heart.

Deoxygenated
blood

 Left atrium (1) Tricuspid valve – Between right atrium
and right ventricle
(4) Left ventricle 
Oxygenated
blood
 Aorta 
Oxygenated
blood

(2) Mitral valve – Between right atrium
Tissues 
Deoxygenated
blood

 Vena cava and left atrium

Deoxygenated
blood

 Right atrium (3) Semilunar valve – Between right
ventricle and
4. The hypophyseal portal system is a vascular
pulmonary artery
connection between hypothalamus and
(4) Bicuspid valve – Between left atrium
(1) Pars nervosa and left ventricle
(2) Pineal gland

(3) Anterior pituitary
(4) Posterior pituitary 

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CSS-04 (CST-07 & 08) Zoology

Based on
CST-07 & 08

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-04
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY

CST-07: Q.No.53 (Biomolecules: Proteins) CST-08: Q.No.103 (Human Reproduction: The Male
1. (1) Reproductive System)
2. (2) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (3)
4. (3) 3. (1)
CST-07: Q.No.60 (Breathing and Exchange of 4. (2)
Gases: Regulation of Respiration) CST-08: Q.No.104 (Biotechnology and its
1. (1) applications: Biotechnological Applications in
Agriculture)
2. (2)
1. (2)
3. (1)
2. (1)
4. (1)
3. (2)
5. (1)
4. (3)
CST-07: Q.No.64 (Reproductive Health: Methods of
Birth Control) CST-08: Q.No.114 (Reproductive Health: Methods of
Birth Control)
1. (4)
1. (1)
2. (2)
2. (4)
3. (2)
3. (4)
4. (4)
4. (3)
CST-07: Q.No.83 (Biotechnology - Principles and
Processes: Processes of Recombinant DNA 5. (2)
Technologies) CST-08: Q.No.122 (Body Fluids and Circulation:
1. (3) Double circulation)
2. (3) 1. (2)
3. (2) 2. (2)
4. (2) 3. (4)
CST-07: Q.No.99 (Locomotion and Movement: 4. (3)
Muscles) CST-08: Q.No.131 (Body Fluids and Circulation:
1. (1) Circulatory pathways)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (3)
4. (3) 3. (2)
5. (3) 4. (2)

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