CHAPTER 1
depending on their genetics, health, past
WHAT IS PSYCHOLOGY?
PSYCHOLOGY
- the scientific study of behavior and
mental
processes
- i n the late 1800s and early 1900s,
psychology was defined as the scientific
study ofx` the mind
- derived from the greek word
“psyche” which
means breath, principle of life, life, and soul,
and “logia” which means speech, word, and
reason
- officially started as a discipline in
1879
when the first psychology lab was
established in the University of Leipzig, in
Germany
“IT DEPENDS”
- That is, few statements apply to all
people’s
behavior at all times. For example, almost
any statement depends on age. (Newborn
infants differ drastically from older children,
and children from adults.) Almost any
behavior varies among individuals
experiences, and whether they are currently
awake or asleep. Some aspects of behavior
differ between males and females or
between one culture and another. Some
aspects depend on the time of day, the
temperature of the room, or how recently
someone ate. The way people answer a
question depends on exactly how the
question is worded, what other questions
they have already answered, and who is
asking the question.
PSYCHOLOGISTS
- are actively involved in studying and
understanding human mental processes,
their brain functions, and their behavior
WHY STUDY PSYCHOLOGY?
- studying Psychology provides a deep
understanding of how people behave and
think, giving individuals valuable insights to
promote personal growth and contribute
positively in various fields like counseling,
research or organizations. It offers a solid
basis to exploring the human mind
GOALS OF PSYCHOLOGY
1. DESCRIPTION
- describe particular behaviors by careful
observations WILLIAM JAMES
2. EXPLANATION - first american psychologist
- explain behaviors by conducting - developed functionalism
experiments SIGMUND FREUD
3. PREDICTION - started school of thought called
- predict when a behavior that is being ‘psychoanalysis’
studied will happen in the future - challenged structuralism and functionalism
4. CONTROL JOHN B. WATSON
- modify inappropriate behavior - father of behaviorism within Psychology
SOCRATES & PLATO IVAN PAVLOV
- mind and body are separate - russian physiologist
- knowledge is inborn - conducted experiment with dogs using a
ARISTOTLE bell
- mind and body are one B.F. SKINNER
- knowledge grows from experience and - operant conditioning
Memories CARL ROGERS
- logic combined with empirical - importance of choice in human behavior
observations
ABRAHAM MASLOW
- first systematic treatise on Psychology
- theory of motivation (emphasized the
RENE DESCARTES
importance of psychological growth)
- doctrine of interactive dualism
- Hierarchy of needs
- mind and body are separate entities
MAJOR PERSPECTIVES IN
WILHELM WUNDT
PSYCHOLOGY
- one of the founders of Psychology
● Biological
- created the first Psychology lab
● Psychodynamic
- posited Psychology as the study of
● Behavioral
consciousness
● Humanistic
EDWARD TITCHENER
● Positive Psychology
- developed structuralism approach
● Cognitive
● Cross-cultural
● Evolutionary
MAJOR PHILOSOPHICAL ISSUES
1. FREE WILL VS. DETERMINISM
(ARE THE
CAUSES OF BEHAVIOR KNOWABLE,
AND IS
BEHAVIOR PREDICTABLE?)
- The scientific approach seeks the
immediate causes of an event (what led to
what) instead of the final or ultimate causes
(the purpose of the event in an overall plan).
● Free will
- is the belief that behavior is caused
by an individual’s independent
decisions
● Determinism
- is the assumption that everything
that happens has a cause or
determinant in the observable world
2. THE MIND-BODY PROBLEM (HOW
IS
EXPERIENCE RELATED TO THE
ORGAN
SYSTEM CALLED THE BRAIN?)
- The philosophical question of how
experience relates to the brain is the
mind–brain problem (or mind–body
problem).
● Dualism
- is the belief that the mind is separate
from the brain but somehow controls
the brain and through it also the rest
of the body
● Monism
- is the view that conscious
experience is generated by and
therefore is inseparable from the
brain
3. THE NATURE-NURTURE ISSUE
(HOW DO
DIFFERENCES IN BEHAVIOR
RELATE TO
DIFFERENCES IN HEREDITY AND
ENVIRONMENT?)
- some scientists assume the larger
proportion of differences in potential and
behavior are due to the influence of genes
- others assume that most differences are a
result of aspects of the environment such as
culture, expectations and resources
- this issue arises in virtually every field of
Psychology, and knowledge gained through
research seldom provides a simple answer
BRANCHES IN PSYCHOLOGY
● Abnormal psychology - the branch of
psychology that studies unusual patterns of
behavior, emotion, and thought, which could
possibly be understood as a mental disorder
● Behavioral psychology - a theory
suggesting
that environment shapes human behavior
● Clinical psychology - is the psychological
specialty that provides continuing and
comprehensive mental and behavioral
health care for individuals, couples, families,
and groups; consultation to agencies and
communities; training, education and
supervision; and research-based practice.
● Cognitive psychology - study how the
human brain works, how we think,
remember and learn.
● Community psychology - integrates
social,
cultural, economic, political, environmental,
and international influences to promote
positive change, health, and empowerment
at individual and systemic levels.
● Educational psychology - the study of
how
humans learn and retain knowledge,
primarily in educational settings like
classrooms.
● Engineering psychology - concerned with
the adaptation of the equipment and
environment to people, based upon their
psychological capacities and limitations.
● Environmental psychology - a
multidisciplinary social science that
examines the relationship between human
beings and our surroundings.
● Forensic psychology - the practice of
psychology applied to the law.
DIFFERENT TYPES OF
PSYCHOLOGISTS
● Biopsychologist - (behavioral
neuroscientist)
tries to explain behavior in terms of
biological factors, such as electrical and
chemical activities in the nervous system,
the effects of drugs and hormones,
genetics, and evolutionary pressures.
● Clinical psychologist - have an advanced
degree in psychology, with a specialty in
understanding and helping people with
psychological problems.
● Cognitive psychologist - refers to the
study
of thoughts and other processes
● Evolutionary psychologist - tries to
explain
behavior in terms of the evolutionary history
of the species, including reasons evolution
might have favored a tendency to act in
particular ways.
AIAI 3
TRANS: Module 1
● Social psychologist - study how an psychological condition of students, usually
individual influences other people and how in kindergarten through the 12th grade.
the group influences an individual. PSYCHIATRY
● Developmental psychologist - study how - is a branch of medicine that deals with
behavior changes with age “from womb to emotional disturbances.
tomb” - they listen, ask questions, and try to help.
● Cross-cultural psychologist - compares Psychiatrists, however, are medical doctors
the
and can therefore prescribe drugs, such as
behavior of people from different cultures.
tranquilizers and antidepressants, whereas
● Counselling psychologist - help people
in most places psychologists cannot.
with
CLINICAL SOCIAL WORKER
educational, vocational, marriage,
- is similar to a clinical psychologist but
health-related, and other decisions.
with
● Forensic Psychologist - those who
different training.
provide
- in most cases a clinical social worker has a
advice and consultation to police, lawyers,
master’s degree in social work with a
courts, or other parts of the criminal justice
specialization in psychological problems
system.
SERVICE PROVIDERS TO
● Psychometrician - measuring
ORGANIZATIONS
intelligence,
1. Industrial/Organizational Psychology
personality and interests through tests.
2. Ergonomics
● I/O Psychologist - people at work
3. School Psychology
● Ergonomist - communication between
PSYCHOLOGY THEN AND NOW
person and machine. They attempt to
THE EARLY ERA
facilitate the operation of machinery so that
1. WILHELM WUNDT AND THE
ordinary people can use it efficiently and
FIRST
safely. The term ergonomics is derived from
PSYCHOLOGICAL LABORATORY
Greek roots meaning “laws of work.”
- the origin of psychology as we now know
● School Psychologist - are specialists in it
the
is generally dated to 1879, when medical
doctor and sensory researcher Wilhelm
Wundt set up the first psychology laboratory
in Leipzig, Germany. Psychological
research was not new, but this was the first
laboratory intended exclusively for
psychological research.
- one of Wundt’s fundamental questions
was:
What are the components of experience, or
mind?
- he presented various kinds of lights,
textures, and sounds and asked subjects to
report the intensity and quality of their
sensations. That is, he asked them to
introspect—to look within themselves.
2. EDWARD TITCHENER AND
STRUCTURALISM
- at first most of the world’s psychologists
received their education from Wilhelm
Wundt himself. One of Wundt’s students,
Edward Titchener, came to the United
States in 1892 as a psychology professor at
Cornell University. Like Wundt, Titchener
believed that the main question of
psychology was the nature of mental
experiences.
- Titchener (1910) typically presented a
stimulus and asked his subject to analyze it
into its separate features—for example, to
look at a lemon and describe its yellowness,
brightness, shape, and other characteristics.
He called his approach structuralism, an
attempt to describe the structures that
compose the mind, particularly sensations,
feelings, and images.
3. WILLIAM JAMES AND
FUNCTIONALISM
- in the same era as Wundt and Titchener,
Harvard University’s William James
articulated some of the major issues of
psychology and earned recognition as the
founder of American psychology. James’s
book The Principles of Psychology (1890)
defined many of the questions that
dominated psychology long afterward and
still do today.
- he focused on what the mind does rather
than what it is. That is, instead of trying to
isolate the elements of consciousness, he
preferred to learn how people produce
useful behaviors. For this reason we call his
approach functionalism.
4. STUDYING SENSATION
- one of early psychologists’ main research
topics was the relationship between
physical stimuli and psychological
sensations. To a large extent, the study of
sensation was psychology.
- the mathematical description of the variations were based on heredity. Galton
relationship between the physical properties was fascinated with trying to measure
of a stimulus and its perceived properties is almost everything (Hergenhahn, 1992). For
called the psychophysical function example, he invented the weather map,
because it relates psychology to physics. measured degrees of boredom during
5. DARWIN AND THE STUDY OF lectures, suggested the use of fingerprints
ANIMAL
to identify individuals, and—in the name of
INTELLIGENCE
science—attempted to measure the beauty
- Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by
of women in different countries.
natural selection (Darwin, 1859, 1871) had
- Galton also tried to measure intelligence
an enormous impact on psychology as well
using simple sensory and motor tasks, but
as biology. Darwin argued that humans and
his measurements were unsatisfactory. In
other species share a remote common
1905 a French researcher, Alfred Binet,
ancestor.
devised the first useful intelligence test.
- based on this last implication, early
7. RISE OF BEHAVIORISM (JOHN B.
comparative psychologists, specialists who WATSON)
compare different animal species, did - Many regard John B. Watson as the
founder
something that seemed more reasonable at
of behaviorism, a field of psychology that
first than it did later: They set out to
concentrates on observable, measurable
measure animal intelligence. They
behaviors and not on mental processes.
apparently imagined that they could
8. STUDIES OF LEARNING
rank-order animals from the smartest to the
- Inspired by Watson, many researchers set
dullest.
out to study animal behavior, especially
6. MEASURING HUMAN
INTELLIGENCE animal learning. One advantage of studying
- Francis Galton, a cousin of Charles nonhuman animals is that the researcher
Darwin,
can control the animals’ diet,
was among the first to try to measure
waking–sleeping schedule, and so forth far
intelligence and to ask whether intellectual
more completely than with humans. The childhood experiences, including children’s
other supposed advantage was that
sexual fantasies.
nonhuman learning might be simpler to
- Mary Calkins – one of the first prominent
understand.
women in U.S. psychology
RECENT TRENDS IN PSYCHOLOGY
CHAPTER 2
- Instead of asking people about their
thoughts, today’s cognitive psychologists
SCIENTIFIC METHODS IN
PSYCHOLOGY
carefully measure the accuracy and speed
of responses under various circumstances
CRITICAL THINKING
to draw inferences about the underlying
- means making reasoned judgements
processes. They also use brain scans to
(Beyer, 1995). This also includes the ability
determine what happens in the brain while
to ask and seek answer for critical questions
people perform various tasks.
at the right time ( Browne and Keeley, 2009)
1. FROM FREUD TO MODERN
- It can also help us avaoid false beliefs that
CLINICAL
may lead to poor decisions or even prove
PSYCHOLOGY
dangerous to our mental and physical
- in the early 1900s, clinical psychology was
a health.
small field devoted largely to visual, FOUR BASIC CRITERIA FOR
CRITICAL THINKING
auditory, movement, and memory disorders
1. There are few "truths" that do not need to
(Routh, 2000).
be
- The treatment of psychological disorders
subjected to testing.
(or
2. All evidence is not equal in quality.
mental illness) was the province of
3. Just because someone is considered to be
psychiatry, a branch of medicine. The
an
Austrian psychiatrist Sigmund Freud
authority or to have a lot of expertise does
revolutionized and popularized not

psychotherapy with his methods of make everything that person claims

automatically
analyzing patients’ dreams and memories.
true.
He tried to trace current behavior to early
4. Critical thinking requires an open mind. purpose of research is to find which theories
SCIENTIFIC RESEARCH are incorrect.
- is a critical tool for successfully navigating - A well-formed theory is falsifiable- that is,
our complex world. Scientific knowledge is stated in such clear, precise terms that we
advanced through a process known as the can see what evidence would count against
scientific method. it.
BURDEN OF PROOF
DEDUCTIVE REASONING
- is the obligation to present evidence to
- ideas are tested against the empirical world
support one's claim.
INDUCTIVE REASONING
PARSIMONY
- empirical observations lead to new ideas
- literally "stingeness" or Occam's razor
THEORIES (after
- a theory is a well developed set of ideas the philosopher William of Occam). The
that propose an explanation for observed principle of parsimony is a conservative
phenomena. idea: we stick with ideas that work and try
as hard as we can to avoid new
HYPOTHESIS
assumptions (e. ghost)
- A hypothesis is a testable prediction about
RESEARCH
how the world will behave if our idea is
- as we know of is a systematic inquiry
correct, and it is often worded as an ifthen aimed
statement. It bridges the gap between the at the discovery of new knowledge
realm of ideas and the real world. Psychological Research aims to:
REPLICABLE RESULTS a. describe
- are those that anyone can obtain, at least b. explain
approximately, by following the same c. predict
procedures. d. change
SCIENTIFIC METHOD
KARL POPPER
1. Technique using tools such as
- emphasized scientists' willingness to
observation,
disconfirm their theories by saying that the
experimentation, and statistical analysis to 2. Sampling bias - Sampling bias occurs
learn when the
about the world. sample studied in an experiment does not
correctly
2. Through its use, psychology is thereby
represent the population the researcher
considered a science.
wants to
STEPS TO THE SCIENTIFIC METHOD
draw conclusions about.
1. Form a research question
3. Experimenter bias - Experimenter bias
2. Develop a hypothesis occurs

3. Test hypothesis when researchers' preference or expectations

influence the outcome of their research.
4. Analyze data / results Researchers see what they want to see.
5. Draw a conclusion
6. Report results ELIMINATING BIAS

-Publication • Single Blind Study - Participants do not

-Replication
BIAS
- A researchers worst enemy
- Situation in which a factor unfairly
increases
the likelihood of a researcher reaching a
particular conclusion. Bias should be
minimized as much as possible in research.
TYPES OF BIAS
1. Subject bias - Research subjects'
expectations
know if
they are receiving the treatment of the
placebo
• Double Blind Study - Neither the
participants nor
the researchers know if they are
administering the
treatment or the placebo.
TYPES OF RESEARCH DESIGN
1. OBSERVATIONAL
- a research technique where you observe

can affect and change the subjects' behavior, participants and phenomena in their most

resulting in subject bias. Such a bias can natural settings.

manifest TYPES OF OBSERVATIONAL
itself in two ways: RESEARCH

•Placebo effect DESIGN

•Social desirability bias a. naturalistic observation- a careful

examination of
what happens under more or less natural
conditions. This is a method of observation
where
subjects are observed in their "natural"
environment. Subjects are not aware they are
being
watched – researcher does not interfere (e.g.
Jane
Goodall)
b. case - this is a through description of
someone
including abilities and disabilities, medical
condition, life history, unusual experiences,
and
whatever seem relevant. This is an in depth
study
of one individual with the hopes of
determining
universal principles. This type of design are
generally used to investigate rare, unusual,
or
extreme conditions
c. survey - Research method that relies on
selfreports; uses surveys, questionnaires
interviews. This method is usually a very
efficient
and inexpensive method. This is when
people
chosen to represent a larger population are
asked a
series of questions about their behavior,
thoughts,
or attitudes.
d. correlations - This examines relationship
between variables that are outside the
investigators
control. This specific type of study seeks to
find
correlation between 2 or more variables.
Correlation examine the relationship of how
closely
one thing is related to another and are
helpful in making predictions.
2. EXPERIMENTAL
- determination of the effect of a variable
controlled by the investigator on some other
variable that is measured; the only method
that can inform us about cause and effect.
EXPERIMENTAL TERMINOLOGIES
1. Variable - part of experiment that changes
2. Independent Variable (IV) - controlled by
researcher. This variable causes something
to
happen.
3. Dependent Variable (DV) - watched by
the
researcher to see the impact of the IV. This
variable
is the effect that is caused by the IV.
GROUPS
1. Experimental group - receives the
treatment;
frequently a drug.
2. Control group - receives no treatment;
usually
receives a placebo (fake drug).
3. "Placebo Effect" - participants react
because
they THINK they are receiving treatment
(sugar pill)
Mind over Matter.
4. "Nocebo" - If told a drug won't work, the
person
will feel it doesn't work even if it is a
legitimate drug
OPERATIONAL DEFINITIONS
- These are definitions the specifies the
operations or procedures used to produce
or measure something, ordinarily a way to
give it a numerical value.
POPULATION SAMPLES
- In psychology, the results of a study on one
group of people may or may not apply to
other groups of people.
RESEARCH ETHICS
1. CONFIDENTIALITY
- participants are more likely to be truthful if
they know their privacy is protected.
Confidentiality can be broken if information
reveals harm to another person.
2. INFORMED CONSENT
- some studies may have long term threats or
irreversible effects. Participants must be
given a choice to participate after being
informed of the study.
3. DECEPTION
- is allowable when benefit out weighs harm
and participants receive full explanation at
its conclusion.
ANIMAL ETHICS
- Animal experiments lead to solutions with
humans eating disorders, drug treatments.
Still controversial due to the fact that
animals can be harmed in study
CHAPTER 3. BIOLOGICAL
PSYCHOLOGY
Physiological explanation - describes the
mechanisms that produce a behavior.
Evolutionary explanation - relates
behavior to the evolutionary history of the
species.
A developmental (or ontogenetic)
explanation deals with changes over age.
Your brain consists of an enormous number
of separate cells called neurons (NOO-rons).
The nervous system also contains other
kinds of cells called glia (GLEE-uh), which
support the neurons in many ways such as
by insulating them, synchronizing activity
among neighboring neurons, and removing
waste products.
A neuron consists of three parts: a cell
body, dendrites, and an axon. The cell
body contains the nucleus of the cell. The
dendrites (from a Greek word meaning
“tree”) are widely branching structures that
receive input from other neurons. The axon
is a single, long, thin, straight fiber with
branches near its tip. Some vertebrate axons
are covered with myelin, an insulating
sheath that speeds up the transmission of
impulses along an axon.
Action potential - an excitation that travels
along an axon at a constant strength, no
matter how far it must travel.
Resting potential - an electrical polarization
across the membrane (or covering) of an
axon.
Synapse (SIN-aps) - the specialized
junction between one neuron and another, a
neuron releases a chemical that either
excites or inhibits the next neuron.
A typical axon has several branches, each
ending with a little bulge called a
presynaptic ending, or terminal bouton,
when an action potential reaches the
terminal bouton, it releases
neurotransmitter a chemical that activates
receptors on other neurons.
Postsynaptic neuron - the neuron on the
receiving end of the synapse.
Parkinson’s disease - a condition that
affects about 1% of people over the age of
50. The main symptoms are difficulty in
initiating voluntary movement, slow
movement, tremors, rigidity, and depressed
mood.
All of these symptoms can be traced to a
gradual decay of a pathway of axons that
release the neurotransmitter dopamine
(DOPE-uh-meen).
Psychoactive drugs have analogous effects
on behavior. They enhance certain
experiences, weaken others, and garble
thinking and speech by their effects on
synapses.
Stimulants - are drugs that increase energy,
alertness, and activity.
Depressants - are drugs that decrease
arousal, such as alcohol and anxiolytics
(anxiety-reducing drugs).
Alcohol - is a class of molecules that
includes methanol, ethanol, propyl alcohol
(rubbing alcohol), and others. Ethanol is the
type that people drink.
Anxiolytic drugs or tranquilizers - help
people relax. The most common examples
are benzodiazepines, including diazepam
(Valium) and alprazolam (Xanax).
Narcotics - are drugs that produce
drowsiness, insensitivity to pain, and
decreased responsiveness. The classic
examples, opiates, are either natural drugs
derived from the opium poppy or synthetic
drugs with a chemical structure resembling
natural opiates.
Neuroscientists then found that the brain
produces several chemicals, called
endorphins, that bind to the opiate
receptors.
Marijuana (cannabis) - is difficult to
classify. It is certainly not a stimulant. It has
a calming effect but not like that of alcohol
or tranquilizers. It softens pain but not as
powerfully as opiates. It produces sensory
distortions, especially an illusion that time is
passing more slowly than usual, but not
distortions like those from LSD. Because
marijuana does not closely resemble any
other drug, we discuss it separately.
Hallucinogens - Drugs that induce sensory
distortions.
Central nervous system - consists of the
brain and the spinal cord.
The central nervous system communicates
with the rest of the body by the peripheral
nervous system, which consists of bundles
of nerves between the spinal cord and the
rest of the body.
The forebrain consists of two hemispheres,
left and right. Each hemisphere controls
sensation and movement on the opposite
side of the body.
Cerebral cortex - The outer covering of the
forebrain.
Occipital lobe at the rear of the head, is
specialized for vision. People with damage
in this area have cortical blindness: They
have no conscious vision, no object
recognition, and no visual imagery (not even
in dreams), although they still have eye
blinks and other visual reflexes that do not
require the cerebral cortex.
Temporal lobe of each hemisphere, located
toward the left and right sides of the head, is
the main area for hearing and some of the
complex aspects of vision.
Amygdala - a subcortical structure deep
within the temporal lobe, responds strongly
to emotional situations.
People with damage to the amygdala are
slow to process emotional information, such
as facial expressions and descriptions of
emotional situations (Baxter & Murray,
2002).
Parietal lobe - just anterior (forward) from
the occipital lobe, is specialized for the body
senses, including touch, pain, temperature,
and awareness of the location of body parts
in space.
Primary somatosensory (so-ma-toh-SEN-
soree, meaning body-sensory) cortex, a strip
in the anterior portion of the parietal lobe,
has cells sensitive to touch in different body
areas.
The frontal lobe, at the anterior (forward)
pole of the brain, includes the primary
motor cortex, important for the planned
control of fine movements, such as moving
one finger at a time.
The anterior sections of the frontal lobe,
called the prefrontal cortex, contribute to
certain aspects of memory and to the
planning of movements—that is, decision
making.
Mirror neurons - which are found in
several brain areas but especially the
frontal cortex. Mirror neurons are active
when you make a movement and also when
you watch someone else make a similar
movement (Dinstein, Hasson, Rubin, &
Heeger, 2007).
Hypothalamus - located just below the
thalamus, is important for hunger, thirst,
temperature regulation, sex, and other
motivated behaviors.
Pons and medulla (parts of the hindbrain),
which control the muscles of the head (e.g.,
for chewing, swallowing, breathing, and
talking).
Spinal cord - which controls the muscles
from the neck. The spinal cord also controls
many reflexes, such as the kneejerk reflex,
without relying on input from the brain.
Reflex - is a rapid, automatic response to a
stimulus, such as unconscious adjustments
of your legs while you are walking or
quickly jerking your hand away from
something hot.
Cerebellum (Latin for “little brain”) - part
of the hindbrain, is important for any
behavior that requires aim or timing, such as
tapping out a rhythm, judging which of two
visual stimuli is moving faster, and judging
whether one musical tempo is faster or
slower than another (Ivry & Diener, 1991;
Keele & Ivry, 1990).
Electroencephalograph (EEG) - uses
electrodes on the scalp to record rapid
changes in brain electrical activity.
Magnetoencephalograph (MEG) - which
records magnetic changes. Both methods
provide data on a millisecond-by-
millisecond basis, so they measure the
brain’s reactions to lights, sounds, and other
events.
Positron-emission tomography (PET) -
records radioactivity of various brain areas
emitted from injected chemicals (Phelps &
Mazziotta, 1985).
Functional magnetic resonance imaging
(fMRI) - uses magnetic detectors outside the
head to compare the amounts of hemoglobin
with and without oxygen in different brain
areas (J. D. Cohen, Noll, & Schneider,
1993). (Adding or removing oxygen changes
the response of hemoglobin to a magnetic
field.)
Autonomic nervous system - closely
associated with the spinal cord, controls the
internal organs such as the heart. The term
autonomic means involuntary, or automatic,
in the sense that we have little voluntary
control of it.
Endocrine system - a set of glands that
produce hormones and release them into the
blood. Hormones controlled by the
hypothalamus and pituitary gland also
regulate the other endocrine organs.
Hormones - are chemicals released by
glands and conveyed via the blood to alter
activity in various organs.
Plasticity - change as a result of experience.
Corpus callosum - a set of axons that
connect the left and right hemispheres of the
cerebral cortex.
Epilepsy - a condition in which cells
somewhere in the brain emit abnormal
rhythmic, spontaneous impulses.
Binding problem - The question of how
separate brain areas combine forces to
produce a unified perception of a single
object.
CHAPTER 4: SENSATION AND
PERCEPTION
Stimuli - energies from the world around us
that affect us in some way.
Receptors - specialized cells that convert
environmental energies into signals for the
nervous system.
What we call light is part of the
electromagnetic spectrum, the continuum
of all the frequencies of radiated energy—
from gamma rays and x-rays with very short
wavelengths, through ultraviolet, visible
light, and infrared, to radio and TV
transmissions with very long wavelengths.
Pupil - an adjustable opening in the eye.
Iris - is the colored structure on the surface
of the eye surrounding the pupil. It is the
structure we describe when we say someone
has brown, green, or blue eyes.
Retina - is a layer of visual receptors
covering the back surface of the eyeball.
Cornea - a rigid transparent structure on the
outer surface of the eyeball, always focuses
light in the same way.
Lens - is a flexible structure that can vary in
thickness, enabling the eye to
accommodate, that is, to adjust its focus for
objects at different distances.
Fovea (FOE-vee-uh) - the central area of
the human retina, is adapted for highly
detailed vision.
TWO TYPES OF VISUAL RECEPTORS
Cones - are adapted for color vision,
daytime vision, and detailed vision.
Rods - are adapted for vision in dim light.
Dark adaptation - Gradual improvement in
the ability to see in dim light.
Ganglion cells - are neurons that receive
their input from the bipolar cells. The axons
from the ganglion cells join to form the optic
nerve, which turns around and exits the eye.
The retinal area where the optic nerve exits
is called the blind spot.
Negative afterimages - Experiences of one
color after the removal of another.
Color constancy - tendency of an object to
appear nearly the same color under a variety
of lighting conditions.
Sound waves - vibrations of the air or of
another medium.
The frequency of a sound wave is the
number of cycles (vibrations) that it goes
through per second, designated hertz (Hz).
Pitch - is a perception closely related to
frequency. We perceive a high-frequency
sound wave as high pitched and a low-
frequency sound as low pitched.
Loudness - is a perception that depends on
the amplitude of sound waves—that is, their
intensity.
The ear converts relatively weak sound
waves into more intense waves of pressure
in the fluid-filled canals of the snail-shaped
organ called the cochlea (KOCK-lee-uh),
which contains the receptors for hearing.
When sound waves strike the eardrum, they
cause it to vibrate. The eardrum connects to
three tiny bones: the hammer, the anvil, and
the stirrup (also known by their Latin names:
malleus, incus, and stapes). As the weak
vibrations of the large eardrum travel
through these bones, they are transformed
into stronger vibrations of the much smaller
stirrup. The stirrup in turn transmits the
vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea, where
the vibrations displace hair cells along the
basilar (BASS-uh-ler) membrane in the
cochlea. These hair cells, which act like
touch receptors on the skin, connect to
neurons whose axons form the auditory
nerve. The auditory nerve transmits
impulses to the brain areas responsible for
hearing.
Conduction deafness - results when the
bones connected to the eardrum fail to
transmit sound waves properly to the
cochlea.
Nerve deafness - results from damage to the
cochlea, the hair cells, or the auditory nerve.
Nerve deafness can result from disease,
heredity, or exposure to loud noises.
Frequency principle - a sound wave
through the fluid of the cochlea vibrates all
the hair cells, which produce action
potentials in synchrony with the sound
waves.
Volley principle - to each vibration by
producing an action potential (Rose, Brugge,
Anderson, & Hind, 1967).
Place principle - the highest frequency
sounds vibrate hair cells near the stirrup end,
and lower frequency sounds (down to about
100–200 Hz) vibrate hair cells at points
farther along the membrane (Warren, 1999).
Vestibular sense - detects the tilt of the
head, acceleration of the head, and
orientation of the head with respect to
gravity. It plays a key role in posture and
balance. Intense vestibular sensations are
responsible for motion sickness. The
vestibular sense also enables you to keep
your eyes fixated on a target as your head
moves.
Cutaneous senses - meaning the skin
senses. Although they are most prominent in
the skin, we also have them in our internal
organs. Therefore, the cutaneous senses are
also known as the somatosensory system,
meaning body-sensory system.
Several medications also reduce pain. All
pains release the neurotransmitter glutamate,
and intense pain also releases a
neurotransmitter called substance P. Mice
that lack substance P receptors react to all
painful stimuli as if they were mild
(DeFelipe et al., 1998).
Other neurons release endorphins,
neurotransmitters that inhibit the release of
substance P and thereby weaken pain
sensations (Pert & Snyder, 1973).
The term endorphin is a combination of the
terms endogenous (self-produced) and
morphine. The drug morphine, which
stimulates endorphin synapses, has long
been known for its ability to inhibit dull,
lingering pains. Pleasant experiences, such
as sexual activity or thrilling music, also
release endorphins (A. Goldstein, 1980).
(That effect helps explain why a pleasant
view eases postsurgical pain.) In short,
endorphins are a powerful way to close pain
gates
Chemical capsaicin - stimulates receptors
that respond to painful heat (Caterina,
Rosen, Tominaga, Brake, & Julius, 1999).
Capsaicin is the chemical that makes
jalapeños and similar peppers taste hot.
Injecting capsaicin or rubbing it on the skin
produces a temporary burning sensation
(Yarsh, Farb, Leeman, & Jessell, 1979).
Taste - which detects chemicals on the
tongue, serves just one function: It governs
our eating and drinking. The taste receptors
are in the taste buds, located in the folds on
the surface of the tongue, almost exclusively
along the outside edge of the tongue in
adults
The sense of smell is known as olfaction.
The olfactory receptors, located on the
mucous membrane in the rear air passages of
the nose, detect the presence of certain
airborne molecules. Chemically, olfactory
receptors are much like synaptic receptors.
The axons of the olfactory receptors form
the olfactory tract, which extends to the
olfactory bulbs at the base of the brain.
Pheromones - chemicals they release into
the environment.
Synesthesia - a condition in which a
stimulus of one type, such as sound, also
elicits another experience, such as color.
Absolute sensory threshold - the intensity
at which a given individual detects a
stimulus 50% of the time.
Signal-detection theory - is the study of
people’s tendencies to make hits, correct
rejections, misses, and false alarms (D. M.
Green & Swets, 1966).
Subliminal perception - is the idea that
stimuli sometimes influence our behavior
even when they are presented so faintly or
briefly that we do not perceive them
consciously. (Limen is Latin for “threshold.”
Brightness contrast - is the increase or
decrease in an object’s apparent brightness
by comparison to objects around it.
Specialized neurons in the visual cortex,
called feature detectors, respond to the
presence of simple features, such as lines
and angles. One neuron might detect the
feature “horizontal line,” while another
detects a vertical line, and so forth.
Gestalt psychology - a field that focuses on
our ability to perceive overall patterns.
Gestalt (geh-SHTALT) is a German word
meaning pattern or configuration
Gestalt psychology does not deny the
importance of feature detectors. It merely
insists that feature detectors are not enough.
Feature detectors represent a bottom-up
process, in which tiny elements combine to
produce larger items. However, perception
also includes a top-down process, in which
you apply your experience and expectations
to interpret what each item must be in
context.
Figure and ground— that is, you
distinguish the object from the background.
Ordinarily, you make that distinction almost
instantly. You become aware of the process
only when it is difficult (as it is here).
Reversible figures, stimuli that can be
perceived in more than one way.
Proximity - is the tendency to perceive
objects that are close together as belonging
to a group.
Similarity - tendency to perceive objects
that resemble each other as a group.
Continuation - a filling in of the gaps.
Another Gestalt principle is common fate:
We perceive objects as part of the same
group if they change or move in similar
ways at the same time. Suppose you see two
or more objects. If they move in the same
direction and speed, you see them as parts of
the same object or group.
Good figure —a simple, familiar,
symmetrical figure.
Visual constancy—our tendency to
perceive objects as keeping their shape, size,
and color, despite certain distortions in the
light pattern reaching our retinas.
Induced movement – a phenomenon that
incorrectly perceive the object as moving
against a stationary background.
Stroboscopic movement - an illusion of
movement created by a rapid succession of
stationary images.
Depth perception, our perception of
distance, enables us to experience the world
in three dimensions. This perception
depends on several factors.
Retinal disparity— the difference in the
apparent position of an object as seen by the
left and right retinas.
A second cue for depth perception is the
convergence of the eyes—that is, the degree
to which they turn in to focus on a close
object.
Retinal disparity and convergence are called
binocular cues because they depend on
both eyes. Monocular cues enable someone
to judge depth and distance with just one
eye or when both eyes see the same image,
as when you look at a picture.
Principle of motion parallax - difference in
speed of movement of images across the
retina as you travel.
Optical illusion - is a misinterpretation of a
visual stimulus.
CHAPTER 4: NATURE,
NURTURE AND HUMAN
DEVELOPMENT
Chromosomes - strands of hereditary
material.
Each human nucleus has 23 pairs of
chromosomes, except those in egg and
sperm cells, which have 23 unpaired
chromosomes. At fertilization, the 23
chromosomes from an egg cell combine
with the 23 of a sperm cells to form 23 pairs
for the new person
Sections along each chromosome, known as
genes, control the chemical reactions that
direct development —for example,
controlling height or hair color. Genes are
composed of the chemical DNA, which
controls the production of another chemical
called RNA, which among other functions
controls the production of proteins. The
proteins either become part of the body’s
structure or control the rates of chemical
reactions in the body.
Recessive—its effects appear only if the
dominant gene is absent.
Sex chromosomes – determine whether an
individual develops as a male or as a female.
A female has two X chromosomes in each
cell; a male has one X chromosome and one
Y chromosome. The mother contributes an
X chromosome to each child, and the father
contributes either an X or a Y. Because men
have one X chromosome and one Y
chromosome, they have unpaired genes on
these chromosomes. Women have two X
chromosomes, but in each cell, one of the X
chromosomes is activated and the other is
silenced, apparently at random.
Genes located on the X chromosome are
known as sex-linked or X-linked genes.
Genes on the Y chromosome are also sex-
linked, but the Y chromosome has fewer
genes. An X-linked recessive gene shows its
effects more in men than in women.
A sex-limited gene occurs equally in both
sexes but exerts its effects mainly or entirely
in one or the other.
Heritability - an estimate of the variance
within a population that is due to heredity.
Heritability ranges from 1, indicating that
heredity controls all the variance, to 0,
indicating that it controls none of it.
Multiplier effect: A small initial advantage
in some behavior, possibly genetic in origin,
alters the environment and magnifies that
advantage (Dickens & Flynn, 2001).
Monozygotic (mon-oh-zie-GOT-ik) twins
develop from a single fertilized egg (zygote)
and therefore have identical genes. Most
people call them “identical” twins, but that
term is misleading. Some monozygotic
twins are mirror images—one right-handed
and the other left-handed. It is also possible
for a gene to be activated in one twin and
suppressed in the other.
Dizygotic (DIE-zie-GOT-ik) twins develop
from two eggs and share only half their
genes, like any brother and sister. They are
often called “fraternal” twins because they
are only as closely related as brother and
sister. If dizygotic twins resemble each other
almost as much as monozygotic twins do in
some traits, then we conclude that the
heritability of that trait is low because the
amount of genetic similarity did not have
much influence on the outcome.
Interaction—an instance in which the effect
of one variable depends on some other
variable. For example, people with different
genes react differently to marijuana and
tobacco (Moffitt, Caspi, & Rutter, 2006).
Temperament—the tendency to be active
or inactive, outgoing or reserved, and to
respond vigorously or quietly to new stimuli.
Temperament depends partly on genetics.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) - is an inherited
condition that, if untreated, leads to mental
retardation.
Evolution - a gradual change in the
frequency of various genes from one
generation to the next.
If the mother drinks alcohol during
pregnancy, the infant may develop fetal
alcohol syndrome, a condition marked by
stunted growth of the head and body;
malformations of the face, heart, and ears;
and nervous system damage, including
seizures, hyperactivity, learning disabilities,
and mental retardation (Streissguth,
Sampson, & Barr, 1989). The more alcohol
the mother drinks during pregnancy, the
greater the damage.
Habituation - is decreased response to a
repeated stimulus. When the experimenters
substituted a new sound, the sucking rate
increased. Evidently, the infant was aroused
by the unfamiliar sound. When a change in a
stimulus increases a previously habituated
response, we say that the stimulus produces
dishabituation.
Cross-sectional study - compares groups of
individuals of different ages at the same
time.
Longitudinal study - follows a single group
of individuals as they develop.
Selective attrition - is the tendency for
certain kinds of people to drop out of a
study.
A sequential (or “cross-sequential”) design
combines cross-sectional and longitudinal
designs. In a sequential design, researchers
start with groups of people of different ages,
studied at the same time, and then study
them again at one or more later times.
Cohort - a group of people born at a
particular time or a group of people who
enter an organization at a particular time.
Schema - is an organized way of interacting
with objects. For instance, infants have a
grasping schema and a sucking schema.
Older infants gradually add new schemata to
their repertoire and adapt their old ones. The
adaptation takes place through the processes
of assimilation and accommodation.
Assimilation - means applying an old
schema to new objects or problems. For
example, a child who observes that animals
move on their own may believe that the sun
and moon, which seem to move, must be
alive also. (Many ancient adults believed the
same thing.)
Accommodation - means modifying an old
schema to fit a new object or problem. For
example, a child may learn that “only living
things move on their own” is a rule with
exceptions and that the sun and moon are
not alive.
Equilibration - is the establishment of
harmony or balance between the two, and
according to Piaget, equilibration is the key
to intellectual growth. A discrepancy occurs
between the child’s current understanding
and some evidence to the contrary. The child
accommodates to that discrepancy and
achieves an equilibration at a higher level.
INFANCY: PIAGET’S SENSORIMOTOR
STAGE
Piaget called the first stage of intellectual
development the sensorimotor stage
because at this early age (the first 11 ⁄2 to 2
years) behavior is mostly simple motor
responses to sensory stimuli—for example,
the grasp reflex and the sucking reflex.
According to Piaget, infants respond only to
what they see and hear at the moment. In
particular, he believed that children during
this period fail to respond to objects they
remember seeing even a few seconds ago.
EARLY CHILDHOOD: PIAGET’S
PREOPERATIONAL STAGE
By age 1½ to 2, children begin speaking. A
child who asks for a toy obviously
understands object permanence.
Nevertheless, young children still
misunderstand much. They do not
understand how a mother can be someone
else’s daughter. A boy with one brother will
assert that his brother has no brother. Piaget
refers to this period as the preoperational
stage because the child lacks operations,
which are reversible mental processes. For a
boy to understand that his brother has a
brother, he must be able to reverse the
concept of “having a brother.” According to
Piaget, three typical aspects of
preoperational thought are egocentrism,
difficulty distinguishing appearance from
reality, and lack of the concept of
conservation.
According to Piaget, young children’s
thought is egocentric. Piaget did not mean
selfish. Instead, he meant that a child sees
the world as centered around himself or
herself and cannot easily take another
person’s perspective
Theory of mind - which is an understanding
that other people have a mind, too, and that
each person knows some things that other
people don’t know.
According to Piaget, preoperational children
lack the concept of conservation. They fail
to understand that objects conserve such
properties as number, length, volume, area,
and mass after changes in the shape or
arrangement of the objects. They cannot
perform the mental operations necessary to
understand the transformation.
Stage of formal operations - adolescents
develop the mental processes that deal with
abstract, hypothetical situations. Those
processes demand logical, deductive
reasoning and systematic planning.
According to Piaget, children reach the stage
of formal operations at about age 11.
Zone of proximal development - is the
distance between what a child can do alone
and what the child can do with help.
Attachment—a long-term feeling of
closeness toward another person. The first
attachments begin in infancy.
Strange Situation (usually capitalized),
pioneered by Mary Ainsworth (1979). In
this procedure, a mother and her infant
(typically 12 to 18 months old) come into a
room with many toys. Then a stranger
enters the room. The mother leaves and then
returns. A few minutes later, both the
stranger and the mother leave; then the
stranger returns, and finally, the mother
returns.
Identity crisis - adolescent’s concern with
decisions about the future and the quest for
self-understanding.
The term crisis implies more emotional
turbulence than is typical. Identity
development has two major elements:
whether one is actively exploring the issue
and Those who have not yet given any
serious thought to making any decisions and
who have no clear sense of identity are said
to have identity diffusion. They are not
actively concerned with their identity at the
moment. Identity diffusion is more common
among people with low self-esteem and a
hopeless, pessimistic attitude toward life
(Phillips & Pittman, 2007). People in
identity moratorium are considering the
issues but not yet making decisions. They
experiment with various possibilities and
imagine themselves in different roles before
making a choice.
Identity foreclosure - is a state of reaching
firm decisions without much thought.
Identity achievement - is the outcome of
having explored various possible identities
and then making one’s own decisions.
Identity achievement does not come all at
once.
Midlife transition - a time when they
reassess their personal goals, set new ones,
and prepare for the rest of life. This
transition often occurs in response to a
divorce, illness, death in the family, a career
change, or some other event that causes the
person to question past decisions and current
goals (Wethington, Kessler, & Pixley,
2004).
According to terror-management theory,
we cope with our fear of death by avoiding
thoughts about death and by affirming a
worldview that provides self-esteem, hope,
and value in life (Pyszczynski, Greenberg, &
Solomon, 2000). When something reminds
you of your mortality, you do whatever you
can to reduce your anxiety. You reassure
yourself that you still have many years to
live.
Sex roles - the different activities expected
of males and females. Sex roles attract
research interest because of their potential to
constrain people’s behaviors.
Androgyny - is the ability to display both
male and female characteristics. The word
comes from the Greek roots andr-, meaning
“man” (as in the words androgen and
android), and gyn-, meaning “woman” (as in
the word gynecology).
Biculturalism - partial identification with
two cultures.
Authoritative parents: These parents set
high standards and impose controls, but
they are also warm and responsive to the
child’s communications. They set limits but
adjust them when appropriate. They
encourage their children to strive toward
their own goals.
Authoritarian parents: Like the
authoritative parents, authoritarian parents
set fi rm controls, but they tend to be
emotionally more distant from the child.
They set rules without explaining the
reasons behind them.
Permissive parents: Permissive parents are
warm and loving but undemanding.
Indifferent or uninvolved parents: These
parents spend little time with their children
and do little more than provide them with
food and shelter.
CHAPTER 6: GROWING
AND DEVELOPING
In the 1970s, American millionaire Robert
Klark Graham established the Repository for
Germinal Choice, a controversial sperm
bank aimed at countering what he perceived
as a decline in human genetics. Graham
collected sperm from highly accomplished
individuals, including scientists, athletes,
and Nobel Prize winners, and matched them
with married, educated, and financially
stable women. The offspring born from this
program were reported to have notable
achievements and talents, with some
displaying exceptional intelligence.
However, it is challenging to definitively
attribute these outcomes solely to genetics.
The parents of these children were deeply
involved in their upbringing, taking their
roles seriously, reading childcare manuals,
coaching sports teams, and providing a
nurturing environment. Additionally, the
families were financially well-off, and the
mothers typically sought the repository as a
last resort for conceiving children.
While some repository offspring displayed
remarkable abilities and accomplishments,
the overall impact of genetics versus
nurturing on their development remains
inconclusive. The project sheds light on the
potential influence of genetics on child
development, but it's clear that both genetic
backgrounds and nurturing played
significant roles in shaping these children's
outcomes.
6.1 CONCEPTION AND
PRENATAL
DEVELOPMENT
Conception occurs when an egg from the
mother is fertilized by a sperm from the
father. In humans, the conception process
begins with ovulation, when an ovum, or
egg (the largest cell in the human body),
which has been stored in one of the
mother’s two ovaries, matures and is
released into the fallopian tube. Ovulation
occurs about halfway through the woman’s
menstrual cycle and is aided by the release
of a complex combination of hormones. In
addition to helping the egg mature, the
hormones also cause the lining of the uterus
to grow thicker and more suitable for the
implantation of a fertilized egg.
If the woman has had sexual intercourse
within 1 or 2 days of the egg’s maturation,
one of the up to 500 million sperm deposited
by the man’s ejaculation, which are traveling
up the fallopian tube, may fertilize the egg.
Although few of the sperm are able to make
the long journey, some of the strongest
swimmers succeed in meeting the egg. As
the sperm reach the egg in the fallopian tube,
they release enzymes that attack the outer
jellylike protective coating of the egg, each
trying to be the first to enter. As soon as one
of the millions of sperm enters the egg’s
coating, the egg immediately responds by
both blocking out all other challengers and
at the same time pulling in the single
successful sperm.
 Zygote Stage: After fertilization, the egg
and sperm chromosomes merge to form
a zygote. This zygote travels to the
uterus, and only a portion of zygotes
survive this journey. The zygote's cells
 divide and differentiate, with some
becoming the developing human and
others forming a protective environment
in the uterus.
 Embryonic Stage: Once the zygote
attaches to the uterine wall, it becomes
an embryo. Over the next six weeks,
major internal and external organs begin
to form. The inner layer forms the
embryo itself, while the outer layer
creates protective structures like the
amniotic sac (fluid-filled cushion),
placenta (nutrient exchange and filtering
organ), and umbilical cord (connecting
the embryo to the placenta).
 Fetal Stage: Starting in the 9th week
after conception, the embryo transitions
into the fetal stage, characterized by
rapid growth. Major aspects of the
organism have already developed, and
the fetus grows from less than an ounce
to 6 to 8 pounds. During this stage, the
fetus exhibits human-like characteristics
such as movement, sleeping, early forms
of swallowing and breathing, sensory
development (taste and sound
recognition), and even some initial
preferences. Sexual organs become
visible by the end of the 3rd month of
pregnancy.
HOW THE ENVIRONMENT CAN AFFECT
THE VULNERABLE FETUS
 Prenatal development is complex, and it
doesn't always go smoothly. The
amniotic sac and placenta are meant to
protect the embryo, but harmful
substances called teratogens can still
cause issues. Teratogens include
environmental factors like pollution and
radiation, as well as things like
cigarettes, alcohol, and drugs that a
mother might use. The harm they cause
depends on factors like the amount,
duration, and timing of exposure.
 Harmful substances the mother
consumes can affect the child. For
example, smoking can reduce oxygen for
both mother and child and result in a
severely underweight baby. Fetal alcohol
syndrome (FAS) is another serious
concern caused by maternal alcohol
consumption, leading to various
developmental problems, including
physical abnormalities and mental
retardation.
6.2 INFANCY AND
CHILDHOOD EXPLORING
AND LEARNING
COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT DURING
CHILDHOOD
Childhood is a rapid period of growth and
development, both physically and
cognitively. It's a time when children learn
to interact with and adapt to their
surroundings. Erik Erikson emphasizes that
during this phase, kids must tackle
challenges related to developing initiative,
competence, and independence. This
includes exploring the world, becoming self-
reliant, and navigating societal expectations,
such as controlling bodily functions.
Piaget argued that children do not just
passively learn but also actively try to make
sense of their worlds. He argued that, as they
learn and mature, children develop schemas
—patterns of knowledge in long-term
memory—that help them remember,
organize, and respond to information.
Furthermore, Piaget thought that when
children experience new things, they attempt
to reconcile the new knowledge with
existing schemas. Piaget believed that the
children use two distinct methods in doing
so, methods that he called assimilation and
accommodation (see Figure 6.5
"Assimilation and Accommodation").
Piaget’s most important contribution to
understanding cognitive development, and
the fundamental aspect of his theory, was
the idea that development occurs in unique
and distinct stages, with each stage
occurring at a specific time, in a sequential
manner, and in a way that allows the child to
think about the world using new capacities.
SOCIAL DEVELOPMENT DURING
CHILDHOOD
It is through the remarkable increases in
cognitive ability that children learn to
interact with and understand their
environments. However, these cognitive
skills are only part of the changes that are
occurring during childhood. Equally crucial
is the development of the child’s social skills
—the ability to understand, predict, and
create bonds with the other people in their
environments.
KNOWING THE SELF: THE
DEVELOPMENT OF THE SELF-CONCEPT
One of the important milestones in a child’s
social development is learning about his or
her own self-existence. This self-awareness
is known as consciousness, and the content
of consciousness is known as the self-
concept. The self-concept is a knowledge
representation or schema that contains
knowledge about us, including our beliefs
about our personality traits, physical
characteristics, abilities, values, goals, and
roles, as well as the knowledge that we exist
as individuals (Kagan, 1991).
6.3 ADOLESCENCE:
DEVELOPING
INDEPENDENCE AND
IDENTITY
Adolescence is defined as the years between
the onset of puberty and the beginning of
adulthood. In the past, when people were
likely to marry in their early 20s or younger,
this period might have lasted only 10 years
or less—starting roughly between ages 12
and 13 and ending by age 20, at which time
the child got a job or went to work on the
family farm, married, and started his or her
own family. Today, children mature more
slowly, move away from home at later ages,
and maintain ties with their parents longer.
PHYSICAL CHANGES IN ADOLESCENCE
Adolescence begins with the onset of
puberty, a developmental period in which
hormonal changes cause rapid physical
alterations in the body, culminating in sexual
maturity. Although the timing varies to some
degree across cultures, the average age range
for reaching puberty is between 9 and 14
years for girls and between 10 and 17 years
for boys (Marshall & Tanner, 1986).
COGNITIVE DEVELOPMENT IN
ADOLESCENCE
Although the most rapid cognitive changes
occur during childhood, the brain continues
to develop throughout adolescence, and even
into the 20s (Weinberger, Elvevåg, & Giedd,
2005). During adolescence, the brain
continues to form new neural connections,
but also casts off unused neurons and
connections (Blakemore, 2008). As
teenagers mature, the prefrontal cortex, the
area of the brain responsible for reasoning,
planning, and problem solving, also
continues to develop (Goldberg, 2001). And
myelin, the fatty tissue that forms around
axons and neurons and helps speed
transmissions between different regions of
the brain, also continues to grow (Rapoport
et al., 1999).
Although the most rapid cognitive changes
occur during childhood, the brain continues
to develop throughout adolescence, and even
into the 20s (Weinberger, Elvevåg, & Giedd,
2005). During adolescence, the brain
continues to form new neural connections
but also casts off unused neurons and
connections (Blakemore, 2008). As
teenagers mature, the prefrontal cortex, the
area of the brain responsible for reasoning,
planning, and problem solving, also
continues to develop (Goldberg, 2001). And
myelin, the fatty tissue that forms around
axons and neurons and helps speed
transmissions between different regions of
the brain, also continues to grow (Rapoport
et al., 1999).
SOCIAL DEVELOPMENT IN
ADOLESCENCE
During adolescence, significant changes
occur in self-concept and attachment. While
young children primarily attach to their
parents, adolescents increasingly form
attachments with peers, reducing parental
influence. Adolescents' main social task,
according to Erikson, is to discover their
unique identity, leading to a quest to answer,
"Who am I?" This journey may involve role
confusion, balancing identities, adopting
negative roles, or temporarily abandoning
the search if it becomes challenging.
6.4 EARLY AND MIDDLE
ADULTHOOD: BUILDING
EFFECTIVE LIVES
In this section, we will consider the
development of our cognitive and physical
aspects that occur during early adulthood
and middle adulthood—roughly the ages
between 25 and 45 and between 45 and 65,
respectively. These stages represent a long
period of time—longer, in fact than any of
the other developmental stages—and the
bulk of our lives is spent in them. These are
also the periods in which most of us make
our most substantial contributions to society,
by meeting two of Erik Erikson’s life
challenges: We learn to give and receive
love in a close, long-term relationship, and
we develop an interest in guiding the
development of the next generation, often by
becoming parents.
PSYCHOLOGY IN EVERYDAY LIFE: WHAT
MAKES A GOOD PARENT?
Parenting styles can be divided into four
types, based on the combination of
demandingness and responsiveness. The
authoritative style, characterized by both
responsiveness and also demandingness, is
the most effective.
PHYSICAL AND COGNITIVE CHANGES IN
EARLY AND MIDDLE ADULTHOOD
Compared with the other stages, the physical
and cognitive changes that occur in the
stages of early and middle adulthood are less
dramatic. As individuals pass into their 30s
and 40s, their recovery from muscular strain
becomes more prolonged, and their sensory
abilities may become somewhat diminished,
at least when compared with their prime
years, during the teens and early 20s (Panno,
2004).
MENOPAUSE
The stages of both early and middle
adulthood bring about a gradual decline in
fertility, particularly for women. Eventually,
women experience menopause, the cessation
of the menstrual cycle, which usually occurs
at around age 50. Menopause occurs because
of the gradual decrease in the production of
the female sex hormones estrogen and
progesterone, which slows the production
and release of eggs into the uterus. Women
whose menstrual cycles have stopped for 12
consecutive months are considered to have
entered menopause (Minkin & Wright,
2004).
SOCIAL CHANGES IN EARLY AND
MIDDLE ADULTHOOD
The key aspect of adulthood is the capacity
to establish a self-sufficient and independent
life. Unlike children and adolescents who
rely on parental support, adults must earn a
living and form their own families.
Additionally, the needs of adults
significantly differ from those of younger
individuals.
The passage discusses how major life events
in early and middle adulthood can vary
among individuals but often follow a general
sequence called the social clock. This social
clock represents the culturally preferred
timing for significant life events like leaving
home, getting married, and having children.
Those who don't adhere to this timing, such
as young adults living with parents, those
who remain unmarried, or couples choosing
not to have children, may be viewed as
unconventional and could face social stigma.
6.5 LATE ADULTHOOD:
AGING, RETIRING, AND
BEREAVEMENT
DEMENTIA AND ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE
Dementia is defined as a progressive
neurological disease that includes loss of
cognitive abilities significant enough to
interfere with everyday behaviors, and
Alzheimer’s disease is a form of dementia
that, over a period of years, leads to a loss of
emotions, cognitions, and physical
functioning, and which is ultimately fatal.
Dementia and Alzheimer’s disease are most
likely to be observed in individuals who are
65 and older, and the likelihood of
developing Alzheimer’s doubles about every
5 years after age 65.
Development begins at conception, leading
to the growth of a zygote into an embryo and
then a fetus. Babies are born with reflexes
and cognitive skills for survival. Piaget's
cognitive development stages are mentioned,
including sensorimotor, preoperational,
concrete operational, and formal operational
stages.
Social skills, self-concept formation, and
attachment are vital aspects of development.
Adolescence involves physical and cognitive
changes, with moral development
continuing. In Western cultures, adolescence
transitions into emerging adulthood (from
age 18 to mid-20s).
Early and middle adulthood bring gradual
declines in muscle strength, reaction time,
cardiac output, and sensory abilities, along
with decreased fertility and menopause in
women. Many older adults maintain an
active lifestyle and value social connections.
While cognitive processing slows (fluid
intelligence) in older adults, crystallized
intelligence, which is existing knowledge,
remains strong. Some elderly individuals
suffer from age-related brain diseases like METHODS OF TESTING MEMORY
dementia and Alzheimer's.
FREE RECALL
CHAPTER 7: MEMORY • states what you remember
TYPES OF MEMORY • is just simply free-recalling something

 Ebbinghaus’s Pioneering Studies of Example: Reciting names of your classmates

Memory
 Methods of Testing Memory Suspect
Lineups as Recognition Memory
 Children as Eyewitnesses
 The Information-Processing View of
Memory
 Working Memory
MEMORY
-retention of information
• facts that never change
• facts that seldom change
• facts that frequently change
EBBINGHAUS'S PIONEERING STUDIES
OF MEMORY
Hermann Ebbinghaus pioneered the
scientific study of memory by observing his
own capacity for memorizing lists of
nonsense syllables.
in grade 6
CUED RECALL
• Receive significant hints about the
material.
Example: Naming your classmates in your
grade 6 class picture.
RECOGNITION
• Chooses the correct item among several
options
Example: Identifying who is [Name] in
your grade 6 class picture
SAVINGS
• Savings Method or Relearning Method
comparing the speed of original learning
to the speed of relearning

METHODS OF TESTING MEMORY Example: Relearning the names of your

classmates in grade 6.
• Free Recall
• Cued Recall
• Recognition
• Savings
• Implicit Memory
 IMPLICIT MEMORY
• Free recall, cued recall, recognition, and
savings are tests of explicit (or direct)
memory.
• In implicit memory (or indirect
memory), an experience influences what
you say or do even though you might not
be aware of the influence.
IMPLICIT MEMORY
PROCEDURAL MEMORY
memories of motor skills
DECLARATIVE MEMORY
memories we can state in words
APPLICATION: SUSPECT LINEUPS AS
RECOGNITION MEMORY
Suspect lineups are an example of the
recognition method of testing memory.
Unfortunately, witnesses sometimes choose
the best available choice and then decide
they are sure. Psychologists have
recommended ways to decrease inaccurate
identifications.
WAYS TO IMPROVE SUSPECT LINEUPS:
• Supervise the lineup with a blind
observer
• Postpone as long as possible any
feedback
• Present the lineup sequentially
CHILDREN AS EYEWITNESSES
Researchers find that children as young as 3
years old report with reasonable accuracy
even 6 weeks later (Baker-Ward, Gordon,
Ornstein, Larus, & Clubb, 1993).
FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE THE
ACCURACY OF YOUNG CHILDREN’S
REPORTS:
• Delay of questioning
• Type of question
• Hearing other children
• Repeating the question
• Using doll props
• Understanding a question
THE INFORMATION PROCESSING VIEW
OF MEMORY
The information-processing model compares
human memory to that of a computer:
Information that enters the system is
processed, coded, and stored.
The information-processing model of
memory resembles a computer’s memory
system, including temporary and permanent
memory.
SHORT-TERM AND LONG-TERM
MEMORY
SHORT-TERM MEMORY
• temporary storage of recent events
• fades over time if not rehearsed
LONG-TERM MEMORY
• a relatively permanent store
• last varying periods, up to a lifetime
2 MAJOR TYPES OF LONG-TERM
MEMORY
 SEMANTIC MEMORY
• memory of principles and facts
Example: Your learnings in this particular
topic.
EPISODIC MEMORY
• memory for specific events in your life
Example: Your memory while listening to
the discussion.
DIFFERENCE IN CAPACITY AND DECAY
OVER TIME.
DIFFERENCE IN CAPACITY DECAY
Long-term memory has a vast, hard-to-
measure capacity. Short-term memory, in
contrast, has a limited capacity.
DECAY OVER TIME
A short-term memory, by definition,
doesn’t last very long. Long-term memory
on the other hand can last up to a lifetime.
WORKING MEMORY
• A system for working with current
information
• Good working memory requires
attending to the relevant and screening
out the irrelevant.
COMPONENTS OF WORKING MEMORY:
• PHONOLOGICAL LOOP
-stores and rehearses speech
• VISUOSPATIAL SKETCHPAD
-temporarily stores and manipulates
visual and spatial information
• CENTRAL EXECUTIVE
-governs shifts of attention
• EPISODIC BUFFER
-binds together the various parts of a
meaningful experience
ENCODING, STORAGE, AND
RETRIEVAL
ENCODING
We get information into our brains through a
process called encoding, which is the input
of information into the memory system.
Encoding involves the input of information
into the memory system.
There are three main ways in which
information can be encoded
1. Visual (picture)
2. Acoustic (sound)
3. Semantic (meaning)
The primacy effect refers to the cognitive
bias whereby people remember the first
thing in a sequence more than things that
come after it.
The recency effect refers to the
psychological phenomenon where people
tend to remember the last thing in a
sequence more than things that come before
it.
ENCODING SPECIFICITY
The encoding specificity principle is a
cognitive principle stating that an
individual’s recall of information is
enhanced when the environment in which
they originally learned something is similar
to the environment in which they are
attempting to recall it.
 STATE DEPENDENT MEMORY STATE
DEPENDENT MEMORY REFERS TO
IMPROVED RECALL OF SPECIFIC
EPISODES OR INFORMATION WHEN
CUES RELATING TO EMOTIONAL AND
PHYSICAL STATE ARE THE SAME
DURING ENCODING AND RETRIEVAL.
SPAR IS A METHOD
SPAR is a method for improving memory. It
can help you with the need of remembering
something for long term usage. SPAR
includes four segments:
SCAN/SURVEY - Overview of the material
that needs to be remembered.
PROCESS - Process meaningfully. Reading
and thinking about the connections it makes
with other subjects, knowledges and
experiences
ASK QUESTIONS - Create your own
questions and answers. Make them relevant
to what you need to remember
REVIEW - Reviewing while taking breaks.
Testing yourself with answers.
MNEMONICS
Mnemonics are memory devices that help
learners recall larger pieces of information,
especially in the form of lists like
characteristics, steps, stages, parts, etc.
STORAGE
• This concerns the nature of memory
stores, i.e., where the information is
stored, how long the memory lasts
(duration), how much can be stored at
any time (capacity) and what kind of
information is held. The way we store
information affects the way we retrieve
it. There has been a significant amount
of research regarding the differences
between Short Term Memory (STM )
and Long Term Memory (LTM).
MEMORY RETRIEVAL
• This refers to getting information out of
storage. If we can’t remember
something, it may be because we are
unable to retrieve it. When we are asked
to retrieve something from memory, the
differences between STM and LTM
become very clear.
FORGETTING
We all forget, and forgetting doesn’t surprise
us.
Forgetting is the loss or change in
information that was previously stored in
short-term or long-term memory.
RETRIEVAL AND INTERFERENCE
2 TYPES OF INTERFERENCE
PROACTIVE INTERFERENCE
• Acting Forward in Time
• The old materials increase forgetting of
the new materials
RETROACTIVE INTERFERENCE
• Acting Forward in Time
• The old materials increase forgetting of
the new materials
MEMORY AND TRAUMATIC EVENTS
REPRESSION ISSOCIATION
• The process of moving an unbearably
unacceptable memory or impulse from
the conscious mind to the unconscious
mind
ISSOCIATION
-Referring to memory that one has stored
but cannot retrieve
"Recovered Memories?" or "Fake
Memories?
RECOVERED MEMORIES
Reports of long-lost memories, prompted by
clinical techniques.
FAKE MEMORIES
A Report that someone believes to be a
memory but that does not correspond to real
events.
Amnesia after damage to the hippocampus
Hippocampus is a part of the brain that
helps with learning and storing memories
Types of Amnesia after damage of the
hippocampus
1. ANTEROGRADE AMNESIA - Difficulty
storing new memories
2. RETROGRADE AMNESIA - Difficulty
recalling memories before the damage.
AMNESIA AFTER DAMAGE TO THE
PREFRONTAL CORTEX
Prefrontal Cortex damage can be a result to
the following:
- Stroke, head trauma, or KORSAKOFF’S
SYNDROME (A condition caused by a
prolonged deficiency of vitamin B, usually
as a result of chronic alcoholism.)
Patient having damaged prefrontal cortex
damage answer questions with
CONFABULATIONS (Attempts to fill in
the gaps in their memories)
ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE
A more common cause of memory loss is
Alzheimer’s disease, a condition occurring
mostly in old age, characterized by
increasingly severe memory loss, confusion,
depression, disordered thinking, and
impaired attention
Alzheimer’s disease is marked by a gradual
accumulation of harmful proteins in the
brain and deterioration of brain cells, leading
to a loss of arousal and attention.
-the areas of damage include the
hippocampus and the prefrontal cortex
making them experience both retrograde and
anterograde amnesia.
INFANT AMNESIA
The scarcity of early episodic memories is
known as infant amnesia, or childhood
amnesia.
• Repression by Freud where children at
the age 4-5 represses their memories due
to traumatic experiences.
• According to Moscovitch, 1985, the
hippocampus is slow to mature.
• Another proposal is that a permanent
memory of an experience requires a
“sense of self” that develops between
ages 3 and 4 (Howe & Courage, 1993)
CATEGORIZATION IN COGNITIVE
At this point, none of these hypotheses is
well established. Infant amnesia PSYCHOLOGY
probably has several explanations, not What is Categorization?
just one.
• Categorization is the process of
CHAPTER 8: COGNITION grouping similar items or concepts
together based on shared features or
AND LANGUAGE
attributes. It helps us organize and
ATTENTION AND CATEGORIZATION make sense of the world around us.

• In cognitive psychology, attention and How does it work?

categorization are two key processes
used to understand how the brain
processes information. Let's explore
these processes and the relationship
between them.
ATTENTION IN COGNITIVE
PSYCHOLOGY
What is Attention?
Attention is the ability to focus on a specific
aspect of the environment while ignoring
others. This selective focus helps us process
important information and ignore
distractions.
• Categorization involves comparing
incoming information to existing mental
representations, or categories, and
placing it into the appropriate category
based on its similarity to other items or
concepts in that same category.
What are the implications?
• Understanding categorization can help
us improve learning and memory, and
develop more accurate and efficient
problem-solving strategies.
What challenges can arise?

How does it work? • Categorization can also lead to

oversimplification or biases when we
After detecting a stimulus, attention helps us
rely too heavily on existing categories
process and analyze it by enhancing neural
and fail to consider novel or unique
activity in relevant brain regions. This
aspects of new information.
allows us to perceive and understand what
we're focusing on.
What are the implications?
Understanding the mechanisms of attention
THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN
can help us optimize our cognitive processes
and mitigate distractions in everyday life. ATTENTION AND CATEGORIZATION
How are they related?
Attention and categorization are two closely
related processes that operate in tandem to
help us navigate and make sense of the
world around us. Both processes involve
top-down and bottom-up mechanisms that
allow us to selectively focus on relevant
information.
What happens if attention is disrupted?
If attention is disrupted, categorization can
be impaired as well. For example, if we're
distracted while trying to categorize new
information, we may miss important features
and incorrectly categorize it.
What happens if categorization is
disrupted?
If categorization is disrupted, attention may
be affected too. For example, if we're not
familiar with a certain category or don't have
a mental representation of it, we may have
trouble selectively attending to relevant
features and distinguishing them from
irrelevant distractions.
ATTENTIONAL PROCESSES IN
CATEGORIZATION
What is the role of attention?
Attention plays a critical role in
categorization by selectively enhancing
neural activity in relevant brain regions and
suppressing activity in irrelevant regions.
This helps us retrieve and utilize relevant
information to categorize incoming stimuli.
What are the different types of attention?
There are different types of attention that
can influence categorization, such as
selective attention, divided attention, and
sustained attention. These types determine
how we allocate our attention over time and
space.
How does attention interact with
perception?
Attention also interacts with perception by
modulating how we process incoming
sensory information and influencing how we
categorize it. This allows us to prioritize
certain categories and ignore others,
depending on our goals and context.
FACTORS INFLUENCING ATTENTION
AND CATEGORIZATION
What are some internal factors?
• Internal factors can include motivation,
emotion, and individual differences in
cognitive abilities or processing styles.
For example, emotional stimuli may
capture attention more strongly than
neutral stimuli, and highly motivated
individuals may exhibit more selective
attention.
What are some external factors?
• External factors can include physical
characteristics of the stimuli, such as
salience, novelty, or complexity, as well
as contextual factors, such as task
demands, social cues, or culture. For
example, salient stimuli may capture
attention more strongly than less salient
stimuli, and cultural background may
influence how we categorize certain
concepts.
How do they interact?
• Internal and external factors can interact
and influence attention and
categorization together. For example, an
 individual's motivation may depend on
the context and salience of the stimuli,
and cultural background may influence
how emotional stimuli are categorized.
EXPERIMENTAL STUDIES ON
ATTENTION AND CATEGORIZATION
What are some typical experimental
designs?
Experimental studies on attention and
categorization often use paradigms such as
visual search, priming, and attentional blink
to investigate different aspects of these
processes. These designs can vary in
complexity and ecological validity,
depending on the research question and
goals.
What are some imaging techniques?
Imaging techniques such as EEG, fMRI, and
PET can also be used to measure brain
activity associated with attention and
categorization. These techniques can provide
insights into the neural mechanisms and
networks involved in these processes.
What are some findings?
Experimental studies have revealed many
interesting findings about attention and
categorization, such as the effects of
attentional load, scene context, and feature
conjunctions on categorization performance
and neural activity.
IMPLICATIONS FOR UNDERSTANDING
COGNITIVE PROCESSES IN EVERYDAY
LIFE
What can we learn from these processes?
• Understanding attention and
categorization can help us improve our
cognitive processes in everyday life,
such as learning, problem-solving,
communication, and creativity. By
learning how to selectively attend to
relevant information and categorize it
accurately, we can enhance our overall
performance and well-being.
What are some challenges and
opportunities?
• However, attention and categorization
can also lead to biases, errors, and
oversimplification if we rely too heavily
on existing categories or ignore relevant
information. By recognizing these
challenges and opportunities, we can
develop more nuanced and flexible
cognitive strategies that reflect the
complexity and diversity of the world
around us.
SOLVING PROBLEMS, MAKING
DECISIONS, AND THINKING
ALGORITHMS AND HEURISTICS
ALGORITHM
• a rule that, if applied appropriately,
guarantees a solution to a problem
• a mechanical, repetitive procedure for
solving a problem or testing every
hypothesis
HEURISTIC
• a thinking strategy that may lead us to a
solution to a problem or decision, but -
unlike algorithms - may sometimes lead
to errors.
• strategies for simplifying a problem and
generating a satisfactory guess.
MAXIMIZING
• means thoroughly considering every
possibility to find the best one
• approximates the use of an algorithm
SATISFICING
• is searching only until you find
something satisfactory
• more of a heuristic approach
CRITICAL THINKING
• the careful evaluation of evidence for
and against any conclusion.
• a kind of thinking in which you question,
analyze, interpret, evaluate and make a
judgement about what you read, hear,
say, or write
OTHER COMMON ERRORS IN HUMAN
COGNITION
OVERCONFIDENCE
a type of cognitive bias that causes us to
think we are better in some areas than we
really are.
CONFIRMATION BIAS
the tendency to search, interpret, and recall
information in a way that aligns with our
pre-existing values, opinions, or beliefs.
FRAMING QUESTIONS
people’s tendency to process information by
looking for, or interpreting, information that
is consistent with their existing beliefs.
THE SUNK COST EFFECT
• a special case of the framing effect
• that we are making irrational decisions
that lead to suboptimal outcomes
UNCONSCIOUS THINKING AND
PROBLEM SOLVING
• this is an “insight” or “aha” problem.
you can’t go through a set formula to
solve it, and if you do solve it, you
probably don’t know how you found the
answer. you say, “it just came to me”.
the processes in your head were
apparently unconscious.
• unconscious thoughts enter into our
decisions- unconscious in the sense that
we can’t verbalize them.
LANGUAGE
• A system of communication that uses
symbols in a regular way to create
meaning. Language gives us the ability
to communicate our intelligence to
others by talking, reading, and writing.
NONHUMAN PRECURSORS TO
LANGUAGE
• Language training in nonhumans.
Bonobos, and to a smaller extent other
species, have learned certain aspects of
language. Human evolution evidently
elaborated on potentials found in our
apelike ancestors but developed that
potential further.
HUMAN SPECIALIZATIONS FOR
LEARNING LANGUAGE
I. LANGUAGE AND GENERAL
INTELLIGENCE
• Language and intelligence. It is possible
to have intelligence without language or
language without other aspects of
intelligence. Therefore, many
psychologists regard language as a
specialized capacity, not just a byproduct
of overall intelligence.
II. LANGUAGE LEARNING AS A
SPECIALIZED CAPACITY
• Noam Chomsky has argued that people
learn language so easily that children
must begin with preconceptions.
LANGUAGE ACQUISITION DEVICE
a built-in mechanism for acquiring
language
III. LANGUAGE AND THE HUMAN
BRAIN
• Studies of people with brain damage
have long pointed to two brain areas as
particularly important for language.
People with damage in the frontal cortex,
including Broca’s area
LANGUAGE DEVELOPMENT
I. LANGUAGE IN EARLY CHILDHOOD
• Stages of language development.
Children advance through several stages
of language development, reflecting
maturation of brain structures. From the
start, children’s language is creative,
using the rules of language to make new
word combinations and sentences.
II. CHILDREN EXPOSED TO NO LANGUAGE
OR TWO LANGUAGES
• Some children grow up in a bilingual
environment, learning two languages.
Bilingualism is especially common
among immigrant children, who are
generally bicultural as well, learning
both their parents’ customs and those of
their new country
UNDERSTANDING LANGUAGE
• Understanding language. Much of
speech is ambiguous. We understand
words and sentences in context by
applying the knowledge we have about
the world in general.
I. UNDERSTANDING A WORD
The context not only determines how we
interpret a word, but it also primes us to hear
an ambiguous sound one way or another.
For example, a computer generated a sound
halfway between a normal s sound and a
normal sh sound. When this intermediate
sound replaced the s sound at the end of the
word embarrass, people heard it as an s
sound. When the same sound replaced sh at
the end of abolish, people heard the same
sound as sh (Samuel, 2001).
II. UNDERSTANDING SENTENCES
Making sense of language requires
knowledge about the world. For example,
consider the following sentences (from Just
& Carpenter, 1987)
• That store sells horse shoes.
• That store sells alligator shoes
III. LIMITS TO OUR LANGUAGE
UNDERSTANDING
Some sentences are grammatical but almost
incomprehensible. One example is a doubly
embedded sentence, a sentence within a
sentence within a sentence. A singly
embedded sentence is understandable,
though not simple:
• The dog the cat saw chased a squirrel.
• The squirrel the dog chased climbed the
tree.
Students of language distinguish between
phonemes and morphemes. A phoneme is a
unit of sound, such as f or sh. A morpheme
is a unit of meaning.
IV. WORD RECOGNITION
The act of seeing a word and recognizing its
pronunciation immediately and without any
conscious effort.
V. READING AND EYE MOVEMENTS
• Reading requires eye movements. When
psychologists monitored eye
movements, they discovered that a
reader’s eyes move in a jerky fashion.
You move your eyes steadily to follow a
moving object.
FIXATIONS- when your eyes are stationary
SACCADES - quick eye movements from
one fixation point to another.
CHAPTER 9: INTELLEGENCE
AND INTELLECT TESTS
WHAT IS INTELLIGENCE?
Intelligence clearly has something to do with
learning’ memory, and cognition— the
topics of the last three chapters. Defining it
more precisely is not easy.
HERE ARE SOME ATTEMPTS TO DEFINE
INTELLIGENCE (KANAZAWA, 2004;
STERNBERG, 1997; WOLMAN, 1989):
• The mental abilities that enable one to
adapt to, shape, or select one’s
environment.
• The ability to deal with novel situations.
• The ability to judge, comprehend, and
reason.
• The ability to understand and deal with
people, objects, and symbols.
• The ability to act purposely, think
rationally, and deal effectively with the
environment.
SPEARMAN’S PSYCHOMETRIC APP AND
THE G FACTOR
One of the ear research studies in
psychology was Charles Spearman’s (1940)
psychometric approach to intelligence, based
on the measurement on individual
differences in performance. Spearman began
by measuring how well a group of people
performed various tasks, such as following
directions, judging musical pitch, matching
colors, and doing arithmetic. He found that
performance on any of his tasks correlated
positively with performance on any of the
others. Spearman therefore inferred that all
the tasks have something in common. To
perform well on any test of mental ability,
Spearman argued, people need a "general"
ability, which he called “g“
SPEARMAN’S PSYCHOMETRIC
APPROAH AND THE G FACTOR
The symbol g is italicized and always
lowercase, like the mathematical terms e the
base of natural logarithms) and i (the square
root of -1).
To account for the fact that performances on
various tasks do not correlate perfectly,
Spearman suggested that each task also
requires a "specific" ability.
Thus, intelligence consists of a general
ability plus an unknown number of specific
abilities, such as mechanical, musical,
arithmetical, logical, and spatial abilities.
Spearman called his theory a "monarchic"
theory of intelligence because it included a
dominant ability, or monarch (g), that ruled
over the lesser abilities.
POSSIBLE EXPLANATIONS FOR G
The observations underlying g indicate that
whatever causes people to do well on one
test also increases their probability of doing
well on other test.
Most people who excel at running a 100-
meter race also do well at the high jump and
the long jump. We can hardly imagine an
outstanding high jumper who could not
manage a better than average long jump.
The reason for his high correlation is that all
three events depend on the same on the leg
muscles.
CRYSTALLIZED INTELLIGENCE
consists of acquired skills and knowledge
and the ability to apply that knowledge in
specific situations.
STERNBERG’S TRIARCHIC THEORY OF
INTELLIGENCE
Spearman’s concept of intelligence has been
called “monarchic” because it proposes g as
a “monarch” that rules over the more
specialized abilities. Robert Sternberg
(1985) attempted to go beyond this view by
proposing a triarchic theory that deals with
three aspects of intelligence: (a) cognitive
processes, (b) identifying situations that
require intelligence, and (c) using
intelligence in practical ways.
GARDNER’S THEAORY OF MULTIPLE
INTELLIGENCES
According to Howard Gardner (1985, 1999),
if we could test intellectual abilities in pure
form, we might find multiple intelligences-
unrelated forms of intelligence, consisting of
language, musical abilities, logical and
mathematical reasoning, spatial reasoning,
ability to recognize and classify objects,
body movement skills, self-control and self-
understanding, and sensitivity to other
people's social signals. Gardner argues that
people can be outstanding in one type of
intelligence but not for others.
On the one hand, we have all known people
who seem high in academic intelligence but
not in creativity or practical intelligence. On
the other hand, thinking of examples is; not
enough; the question is whether analytical
intelligence is strongly or weakly correlated
with creativity and practical intelligence in
general. Furthermore, measuring creativity
and practical intelligence is easier said than
done.
Sternberg has explored other possible
distinctions among types of intelligence. He
argued that we have at least three types of
intelligence: analytical (or academic),
creative (planning approaches to new
problems), and practical (actually doing
something). Sternberg tried to develop new
tests that tap creative and practical aspects as
well. Controversy persists regarding the
status of creative and practical intelligence.
On the one hand, we have all known people
who seem high in academic intelligence but
not in creativity or practical intelligence.
THE STANFORD-BINET TEST
The test that Binet and Simon designed was
later modified for English speakers by
Stanford psychologists and published as the
Stanford-Binet IQ test. The test's items are
designated by age (Table9.2). An item
designated as "age 8," for example, will be
answered correctly by 60 to 90% of 8-year-
olds.
THE STANFORD-BINET TEST
Stanford-Binet 1Q scores are computed from
tables set up to ensure that a given IQ score
means the same at different ages. The mean
IQ at each age is 100. A 6-year-old with an
1Q score of, say, 116 has performed better
on the test than 84% of other 6-year-olds.
Similarly, an adult with an IQ score of 116
has performed better than 84% of other
adults. The Stanford-Binet provides sub-
scores reflecting visual reasoning, short-term
memory, and other specialized skills
(Daniel, 1997;V. W. McCall et al., 1989).
THE WETCHSLER TESTS
Two IQ tests originally devised by David
Wechsler, and later modified by others,
known as the Wechsler Adult Intelligence
Scale-Fourth Edition (WAIS-IV) and the
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-
Fourth Edition (WISC-IV), produce the
same average, 100, and almost the same
distribution of scores as the Stanford-Binet.
The Stanford-Binet and Wechsler tests are
the most widely used IQ tests in the English
language.
A Wechsler test provides an overall score
and four major.
One is the Verbal Comprehension Index,
based on such items as
• “Define the word letter” and “How are a
peach and a plum similar?”
The second part is the Perceptual Reasoning
Index, which calls for nonverbal answers.
Example:
The examiner might arrange four blocks
in a particular pattern and then ask the child
to arrange four blocks to match the pattern.
A third part, the Working Memory Index,
includes such items as
• "Listen to these numbers and then repeat
them: 3 6 2 5"
• "Listen to these numbers and repeat
them in reverse order: 4 7 6."
The fourth part is Processing Speed. An
example of an item is
• "Here is a page full of shapes. Put a
slash (/) through all the circles and an X
through all the squares." This task is
simple, but the question is how quickly
someone can proceed accurately.
CULTURE-REDUCED TESTING
The most widely used culture-reduced test is
the Progressive Matrices test devised by
John C. Raven. These matrices, which
progress gradually from easy to difficult
items, attempt to measure abstract reasoning.
That is, they measure mostly fluid
intelligence, whereas the Stanford-Binet and
Wechsler tests measure a combination of
fluid and crystallized intelligence. To
answer questions on the Progressive
Matrices, a person must generate
hypotheses, test them, and infer rules. Figure
9.4 presents three matrices similar to those
on this test. The first is relatively easy, the
second is harder, and the third is harder still.
EVALUATION OF INTELLEGENCE
TEST
THE DISTRIBUTION OF IQ SCORES
Binet, Wechsler, and the others who
devised IQ tests chose items and arranged
the scoring method to establish a mean
score of 100. The standard deviation is 15
for the Wechsler test, and 16 for the
Stanford-Binet. (As discussed in chapter 2,
the standard deviation measures the
variability of performance.
RESTANDARDIZATIONS AND THE
FLYNN EFFECT
In 1920 a question that asked people to
identify Mars was considered difficult
because most people knew little about the
planets. Today, the same question is easy.
Researchers periodically standardize tests to
keep the overall difficulty about the same.
The effect has occurred for a wide variety of
1Q tests, including the Wechsler tests
(Kaufman, 2001), Raven's Progressive
Matrices (Pind, Gun-narsdóttir, &
Jóhannesson, 2003), and others (Co-lom &
García-López, 2003). The increase is
greatest on reasoning tasks, such as Raven's
Progressive Matrices, and weak or absent on
tests of knowledge (Flynn, 1999; Rodgers &
Wänström, 2006) and speed of responding
(Nettelbeck & Wilson, 2004).
RELIABILITY
The reliability of a test is defined as the
repeat- ability of its scores (T. B. Rogers,
1995). A reliable test produces consistent,
repeatable results. To determine the
reliability of a test, psychologists calculate a
correlation coefficient. (Recall from chapter
2 that a correlation coefficient measures how
accurately we can use one measurement to
predict another.) Psychologists may test the
same people twice, either with the same test
or with equivalent versions of it, and
compare the two sets of scores. Or they may
compare the scores on the first and second
halves of the test or the scores on the test’s
odd-numbered and even-numbered items.
A negative reliability would mean that most
people who score high the first time they
take some test do worse than average the
second time.
VALIDITY
A test's validity is defined as the degree to
which evidence and theory support the
interpretations of test scores for its intended
purposes (Joint Committee on Standards,
1999). To determine the validity of a test,
researchers examine five types of evidence:
• Content- A test to determine which
children have successfully completed
fifth grade should correspond to the
main aspects of the fifth-grade
curriculum.
• Response processes- If a test claims to
measure a certain skill, then the test-
takers should need to use that skill to
answer the questions.
• Internal structure- If a test claims to
measure a single skill, such as working
memory, then all the items should
correlate with one another.
Relation to other variables- If a test is valid,
the scores predict important kinds of
performance.
Consequences of testing- Finally, we need to
consider IQ tests' costs and benefits. Test
publishers claim that their tests enable
schools to choose the right students for
advanced placement courses, help colleges
admit the best applicants, and help
employers fill jobs.
GENE IDENTIFICATION
The heritability of variations in IQ scores
does not mean that genes dictate people’s
intellectual accomplishments. Obviously, if
we gave every child either an extremely
good or extremely bad environment, we
could raise or lower everyone’s IQ scores.
Positive heritability of IQ scores merely
means that when children grow up in the
same environment, some do better than
others, and part of that difference relates to
genetics.
CONSEQUENCES OF TESTING
Regardless of what we say about
intelligence theoretically, testing continues
for practical reasons. Just as a coach tries to
choose the best players for an athletic team,
colleges and employers try to choose the
applicants who will learn the fastest. If
people are going to make those judgments—
as they no doubt will—we want them to use
the best available tests and evaluate the
results accurately. Testing has consequences
for the individuals who take them and the
institutions that evaluate the scores, but it
can also have another kind of consequence:
If we begin to better understand the factors
that influence intelligence, we may be able
to do something about them. As a society,
we would like to intervene early to help
children develop as well as possible, but to
make those interventions work, we need
research.
9.2 EVALUATION OF
INTELLEGENCE TEST THE
DISTRIBUTION OF IQ
SCORES
Binet, Wechsler, and the others who
devised IQ tests chose items and ar-
ranged the scoring method to establish
a mean score of 100. The standard
deviation is 15 for the Wechsler test,
and 16 for the Stanford-Binet. (As
discussed in chapter 2, the standard
deviation measures the variability of
performance.
RESTANDARDIZATIONS AND THE
FLYNN EFFECT
In 1920 a question that asked people to
identify Mars was considered difficult
because most people knew little about
the planets. Today, the same question is
easy. Researchers periodically re-
standardize tests to keep the overall
difficulty about the same. The effect has
occurred for a wide variety of 1Q tests,
including the Wechsler tests (Kaufman,
2001), Raven's Progressive Matrices
(Pind, Gun-narsdóttir, & Jóhannesson,
2003), and others (Co-lom & García-
López, 2003). The increase is greatest
on reasoning tasks, such as Raven's
Progressive Matrices, and weak or
absent on tests of knowledge (Flynn,
1999; Rodgers & Wänström, 2006) and
speed of responding (Nettelbeck &
Wilson,2004).
RELIABILITY
The reliability of a test is defined as the
repeat- ability of its scores (T. B.
Rogers, 1995). A reliable test produces
consistent, repeatable results. To
determine the reliability of a test,
psychologists calculate a correlation
coefficient. (Recall from chapter 2 that a
correlation coefficient measures how
accurately we can use one
measurement to predict another.)
Psychologists may test the same people
twice, either with the same test or with
equivalent versions of it and compare
the two sets of scores. Or they may
compare the scores on the first and
second halves of the test or the scores
on the test’s odd-numbered and even-
numbered items.
A negative reliability would mean that
most people who score high the first
time they take some tests do worse than
average the second time. That pattern
simply never happens. Figure 9.7
illustrates test–retest reliability, the
correlation between scores on a first test
and a retest.
VALIDITY
A test's validity is defined as the degree
to which evidence and theory support
the interpretations of test scores for its
intended purposes (Joint Committee on
Standards, 1999). To determine the
validity of a test, researchers examine
five types of evidence:
• Content- A test to
determine which children
have successfully
completed fifth grade
should correspond to the
main aspects of the fifth-
grade curriculum.
• Response processes- If a
test claims to measure a
certain skill, then the test-
takers should need to use
that skill to answer the
questions.
• Internal structure- If a test
claims to measure a single
skill, such as working
memory, then all the items
should correlate with one
another.
• Relation to other variables-
If a test is valid, the scores
 predict important kinds of
performance.
Consequences of testing- Finally, we
need to consider IQ tests' costs and
benefits. Test publishers claim that their
tests enable schools to choose the right
students for advanced placement
courses, help colleges admit the best
applicants, and help employers fill jobs.
GENE IDENTIFICATION
The heritability of variations in IQ scores
does not mean that genes dictate
people’s intellectual accomplishments.
Obviously, if we gave every child either
an extremely good or extremely bad
environment, we could raise or lower
everyone’s IQ scores. Positive
heritability of IQ scores merely means
that when children grow up in the same
environment, some do better than
others, and part of that difference relates
to genetics.
Consequences of Testing
Regardless of what we say about
intelligence theoretically, testing
continues for practical reasons. Just as
a coach tries to choose the best players
for an athletic team, colleges and
employers try to choose the applicants
who will learn the fastest. If people are
going to make those judgments—as
they no doubt will—we want them to use
the best available tests and evaluate the
results accurately. Testing has
consequences for the individuals who
take them and the institutions that
evaluate the scores, but it can also have
another kind of consequence: If we
begin to better understand the factors
that influence intelligence, we may be
able to do something about them. As a
society, we would like to intervene early
to help children develop as well as
possible, but to make those
interventions work, we need research.
CHAPTER 10:
CONSCIOUSNESS, SLEEP
AND DREAM, AND
HYPNOSIS
What is Consciousness?
consciousness as the subjective
experience of perceiving oneself and
one’s surroundings. This definition is
only marginally useful, however, as it
relies on the undefined phrase
“subjective experience.” For practical
purposes, researchers use the
operational definition that you are
conscious of something if you can report
it in words. This definition works only for
people who speak. One-year-olds do not
talk, but we don’t assume they are
unconscious. Similarly, nonhuman
animals do not talk, nor do adults with
brain damage, people when they are
dreaming, or monks of certain religious
orders. Silence does not always mean
unconsciousness.
•Many psychologists have despaired of
any scientific approach to
consciousness. As Karl Lashley (1923)
observed, some psychologists have
gone so far as to imply that
consciousness does not exist at all.
Some philosophers have suggested
wishfully that a future psychology may
dispense altogether with any concept of
mind or consciousness so that we shall
not need to explain it (Churchland,
1986)
BRAIN MECHANISMS NECESSARY
FOR CONSCIOUSNESS
Not all nervous system activity is
conscious, as the spinal cord controls
reflexes and the hypothalamus regulates
body temperature. Sensory stimuli
striking receptors at any moment are
present but unconscious until attention
is turned to them. Consciousness of a
stimulus depends on the amount of
brain activity. Research designs involve
presenting a stimulus under conditions
where people report it (conscious) and
the same stimulus under conditions
where they cannot report it
(unconscious). Brain scans measure
how brain activity differs under the two
conditions
Examples of unconscious processing
include binocular rivalry, where input
from one eye is unconscious but
continues to reach the brain. For
example, when two eyes view different
scenes on a computer screen, the
experimenter gradually changes the
scene in the left eye when the subject
reports being conscious of the right eye.
This process demonstrates how the
brain processes information and
processes information to become
conscious
CAN WE USE BRAIN
MEASUREMENTS TO INFER
CONSCIOUSNESS?
Consciousness is defined as brain
activity over much of the cortex, and it
differs from unconsciousness in terms of
total brain activity. Physiologists
distinguish various gradations of brain
activity, including brain death, coma,
vegetative state, and minimally
conscious state. People in a vegetative
state respond to stimuli but show no
purposeful actions. New research
methods have challenged the
assumption that people in a vegetative
state are unconscious. For example, a
young woman in a vegetative state
showed brain activity activation in motor
areas and spatial navigation, suggesting
the possibility of using brain scans to
measure consciousness in unresponsive
individuals or identifying patients with
the best potential to recover from a
vegetative state.
CONSCIOUSNESS AS A THRESHOLD
PHENOMENON
Does awareness grow throughout time?
Let's say a stimulation results in a
relatively little mental activity. Could you
first say that you are "a little bit" aware
of the action as it increases before
becoming more and more aware?
Contrarily, a fascinating study contends
that consciousness is an all-or-nothing
process. For varyingly brief periods (less
than a twentieth of a second), words
appeared. second) with different levels
of masking, including mere and sole a
similar study made a determination
using the attentional blink technique
mentioned in Chapter 8. difficult to pin
down term. Both researches modified
their methods so that participants
sometimes but not always denoted
words. Researchers sought definitions
for each word. also, "How visible are
you on a scale of 0 to 100?" when the
word? “Most respondents rated nearly
all Either 0 or 100 is a valid word
(Sergent & Dehaene, 2004). Rarely do
people claim to be only partially aware
of a word. These findings imply that the
brain's lower than a specific point,
unconscious. Above that threshold, it
reverberates, spreads, and occupies
brain, and it becomes conscious.
The similar result is suggested by a
different study. There are times when it
is possible to implant electrodes inside
single brain cells in patients undergoing
specific types of brain surgery. Brain
Local anesthetic can be applied before
surgery to the-since the brain does not
have pain receptors of its own,
researchers identified cells in the
temporal cortex that activated when an
individual saw a certain stimulus, like a
photograph. Next, they demonstrated
that stimulus regularly presented over
very brief periods of time in situations
where people occasionally reported
sometimes not being aware of it. The
cells that responded to a certain image
were visible. a strong, lasting response
on every trial when the person reported
awareness of the stimulus. They
responded only briefly and weakly when
the person reported no awareness.
Intermediate responses did not occur
(Quiroga, Mukamel, Isham, & Fried,
2008). Again, the conclusion is that a
stimulus either reaches a certain
threshold, producing a sustained
response associated with
consciousness, or it fails to do so.
CONSCIOUSNESS AS A
CONSTRUCTION
When you see or hear something, you
believe that you see or hear it as it
happens. However, if you consider the
experiments with very brief
presentations of stimuli, you see a
reason to doubt that assumption:
Suppose a word flashes on a screen for
29 ms with interfering stimuli before,
after, or superimposed on the word,
such that you are not aware of seeing
any word. Now the experimenter
presents words with similar interference
but extends the duration to 50 ms. With
this longer presentation, you do see the
word. More important, you see it for the
whole 50 ms. It is not as if you had 29
ms of unconscious perception and 21
ms of conscious perception. Rather, the
final part of that 50-ms presentation
enabled you to become conscious of the
first part retroactively! In some way, your
brain constructed an experience of a 50-
ms stimulus, even though it had to wait
until the second half of the stimulus to
perceive the first part at all
PHI EFFECT
With proper timing between the lights,
you experience an illusion of the light
moving back and forth between the two
locations.
UNCONSCIOUS OR ALTERED
PERCEPTION
Given that only some of the information
reaching the brain becomes conscious,
what happens to the rest of it? The brain
does use it to a limited degree. Recall
subliminal perception from chapter 4: A
brief, faint stimulus that you do not
detect primes you to detect something
similar. Also recall the discussion of
implicit memory from chapter 7: You
might not remember seeing or hearing
some word, but you become more likely
than usual to think of that word and use
it
SPATIAL NEGLECT
• a tendency to ignore the left side
of the body, the left side of the
world, or the left side of objects
(Buxbaum, 2006).
• Symptoms are severest shortly
after a righthemisphere stroke,
with partial recovery over the next
few weeks (Farnè et al., 2006).
THE DÉJÀ VU EXPERIENCEI
Is the sense that an event is uncannily
familiar. The experience is fairly
common in young adults and becomes
less so as people grow older (A. S.
Brown, 2003). Because it takes several
forms, a single explanation may not
suffice. Occasionally, someone is in a
place for the first time and sees
everything as familiar, as if he or she
had been there before. Perhaps the
person really had seen something
similar, possibly in a movie or photo, but
forgot when and where.
CONSCIOUSNESS AND ACTION
Given that some sensations become
conscious, and others don’t, but the
unconscious information still influences
behavior, the question arises: Exactly
what does consciousness do, if
anything? Does it control our decisions
and actions?
readiness potential - The increased
motor cortex activity prior to the start of
the movement
10.1 SLEEP AND
DREAMS
Why do we sleep?
• Sleep is important to a number of
brain functions, including how
nerve cells (neurons)
communicate with each other. In
fact, your brain and body stay
remarkably active while you
sleep. Recent findings suggest
that sleep plays a housekeeping
role that removes toxins in your
brain that build up while you are
awake.
OUR CIRCADIAN RHYTHMS
Animal life follows biological cycles,
such as hibernation and migration.
Ground squirrels hibernate in winter,
while females awaken in spring. Males
wake earlier to prepare for mate
opportunities, such as females’ mate
once a year. Humans have internal
timing mechanisms to prepare for
activity during the day and sleep at
night. They generate a circadian rhythm,
a rhythm of activity and inactivity lasting
about a day. The genes controlling
circadian rhythms vary, with some mice
having genes that cause their rhythms to
run faster or slower than 24 hours.
People with a faster than average
rhythm go to sleep earlier and wake up
earlier. Sleepiness and alertness
depend on one ' s position within the
circadian rhythm. Sleep deprivation
produces a pattern of progressive
deterioration superimposed on the
normal circadian cycle of rising and
falling body temperature and alertness.
In summary, sleepiness depends partly
on how long one has gone without sleep
and partly on the time of day (i.e.,
circadian rhythm).
WHY WE SLEEP
Sleep is essential for our survival, as it
saves energy and helps maintain body
temperature. Sleeping mammals and
birds lower their body temperatures, and
all animals decrease muscle activity,
saving energy. Animal species vary in
their sleep patterns based on their way
of life. Predatory animals sleep most of
the day, while predatory animals sleep
fewer hours and rouse easily. Migratory
birds forage during the day and fly at
night, reducing their need for sleep.
Whales and dolphins sleep in half of the
brain at a time to stay alert and enable
breathing. Seals also sleep in half of the
brain when at sea but shift to sleeping
on both sides when on land. Sleep also
provides an opportunity for restorative
functions in the brain, as inhibitory
transmitters accumulate in the brain
when deprived of sleep, interfering with
attention and learning.
Sleep is essential for various aspects of
life, including health, learning, and
memory. Some people need less sleep
than others, while others can tolerate
sleep deprivation better. Randy
Gardner, a high school student who
stayed awake for 11 days, slept for 14
hours and 40 minutes before waking
refreshed. People's ability to tolerate
sleep deprivation varies, with evening
people generally tolerating it better than
morning people. Sleep also strengthens
learning and memory, and a good
night's sleep improves learning the next
day
STAGES OF SLEEP
In the mid-1950s, American and French
researchers discovered paradoxical
sleep, or rapid eye movement (REM)
sleep. This stage is light in some ways
and deep in others, due to the active
brain and relaxed muscles controlling
posture and locomotion. REM sleep also
has features that are hard to classify as
deep or light. Early research suggested
that people awakened during REM sleep
usually reported dreaming, but later
research weakened this link. Dreams in
REM are longer, more complicated, and
more visual, with more action by the
dreamer.
Vivid dreams are common during REM
sleep due to paralyzed postural
muscles. Some people with REM
behavior disorder fail to inhibit muscular
activity during REM, leading to arm
flailing. Muscles remain paralyzed after
REM sleep arousal. The brain does not
wake up all at once, but certain areas
remain in REM stage, causing
temporary arm or leg movement.
•Sleep Cycles During the Night
The brain is more active than you might
guess during sleep. Neurons’ metabolic
rate, spontaneous activity, and
responsiveness to stimuli decrease less
than 20% (Hobson, 2005). The main
characteristic of sleep is an increase of
inhibitory messages, preventing brain
messages from reverberating widely
(Massimini et al., 2005). Anesthetic
drugs given to surgical patients also
increase inhibition and prevent
messages from spreading around the
brain (Alkire et al., 2008).
ABNORMALITIES OF SLEEP
Insomnia means “lack of sleep.” A better
definition of insomnia is not enough
sleep for the person to feel rested the
next day. Insomnia can result from many
causes, including noise, worries,
indigestion, uncomfortable
temperatures, use of alcohol or caffeine,
and medical or psychological disorders
(Ohayon, 1997). If you have persistent
insomnia, consult a physician, but for
occasional or minor insomnia, you can
try a few things yourself (Hauri, 1982;
Lilie & Rosenberg, 1990):
• Keep a regular time schedule for
going to bed and waking up each
day.
• Avoid caffeine, nicotine, and
other stimulants, especially in the
evening.
• Don ’t relies on alcohol or
tranquilizers to fall asleep. After
repeated use, you may be unable
to sleep without them.
• Keep your bedroom cool and
quiet.
• Exercise daily but not shortly
before bed
SLEEP APNEA
One type of insomnia is sleeping apnea
(AP-nee-uh). Apnea means “no
breathing.” Many people have
occasional brief periods without
breathing during their sleep. People with
sleep apnea, however, fail to breathe for
a minute or more and then wake up
gasping for breath. They may lie in bed
for 8 to 10 hours but sleep less than half
that time. During the following day, they
feel sleepy and may have headaches.
Although many people with sleep apnea
have mild brain abnormalities (Macey et
al., 2002), some of the brain
abnormalities are probably the result of
persistent poor sleep rather than the
cause of it (Zhu et al., 2007). The most
common cause of apnea is obstructions
in the breathing passages. When
someone with a large abdomen—
usually, a middle-aged man—lies on his
back, the abdomen’ s weight interferes
with the diaphragm muscles that control
breathing. Also, the airways and blocks
the attacks of muscle weakness. Future
research may develop medications
based on orexin, but none are available
currently.
SLEEP TALKING, SLEEP WALKING,
NIGHTMARES, AND NIGHT TERRORS
Many people have unsettling
experiences during their sleep. Sleep
talking is the most common and least
troublesome. It ranges from a grunted
word to a clear paragraph. Most people
talk in their sleep more often than they
realize because they do not remember
sleep talking and usually no one else
hears them. Sleep talking is most
common during stage 2 sleep, but it
occurs in all stages (Moorcroft, 2003).
Sleep talkers sometimes pause between
utterances, as if they were carrying on a
conversation. In fact, it is possible to
engage some sleep talkers in a
dialogue. Sleep talking is not related to
mental or emotional disorders, and
sleep talkers rarely say anything
embarrassing.
NARCOLEPSY
People with narcolepsy experience
sudden attacks of extreme sleepiness in
the middle of the day. They also
experience sudden attacks of muscle
weakness or paralysis and occasional
dreamlike experiences while awake.
These symptoms can be interpreted as
a sudden intrusion of REM sleep into the
waking period of the day (Guilleminault,
Heinzer, Mignot, & Black, 1998).
LEG MOVEMENTS WHILE TRYING TO
SLEEP
Do you ever lie in bed, trying to fall
asleep, when suddenly one leg kicks?
An occasional leg jerk while trying to fall
asleep is common and no cause for
concern. In contrast, some people have
prolonged “creepy-crawly ” sensations in
their legs, accompanied by repetitive leg
movements strong enough to awaken
the person, especially during the first
half of the night (Moorcroft, 1993). This
condition, known as periodic limb
movement disorder (or more informally
as restless leg syndrome), interrupts
sleep in many people, mostly over age
50. The causes are unknown, and the
best advice is to avoid factors that make
the condition worse, such as caffeine,
stress, or fatigue. Tranquilizers
sometimes suppress these leg
movements (Schenck & Mahowald,
1996).
THE CONTENT OF OUR DREAMS
Even a saint is not responsible for what
happens in his dreams. —St. Thomas
Aquinas In ancient times, people
believed that dreams foretold the future.
Occasionally, of course, they do, either
by coincidence or because the dreamer
had a reason to expect some outcome.
Today, scientists do not believe dreams
tell us about the future, although many
other people in both Eastern and
Western societies do. If you dream
about a plane crash tonight, will you
hesitate to take a plane trip tomorrow? If
you dream your friend treats you badly
or your lover is unfaithful, will you
become suspicious in real life? If so, you
have plenty of company (Morewedge &
Norton, 2009).
DESCRIPTIVE STUDIES OF
DREAMING
To determine dream content, some
studies ask people to keep dream
diaries. Another approach is to awaken
people in the laboratory and ask for
immediate dream reports (Domhoff,
2003). Table 10.1 lists common dream
themes of college students in the United
States and Japan in 1958 and Canada
in 2003. Note the similarity across the
three samples.
Freud’s Approach
The Austrian physician and founder of
psychoanalysis, Sigmund Freud,
maintained that dreams reveal the
dreamer’s unconscious thoughts and
motivations. To understand a dream, he
said, one must probe for hidden
meanings. Each dream has a manifest
content—the content that appears on
the surface—and a latent content—the
hidden ideas that the dream experience
represents symbolically.
The Activation-Synthesis Theory
A modern theory relates dream content
to spontaneous activity that arises in the
brain during REM sleep. According to
the activation-synthesis theory of
dreams, input arising from the pons
(Figure 3.16) activates the brain during
REM sleep. The cortex takes that
haphazard activity plus whatever stimuli
strike the sense organs and does its
best to synthesize a story to make
sense of this activity (Hobson &
McCarley, 1977). The activation-
synthesis theory does not regard our
dreams as meaningless. Even if dreams
begin with random brain activity, the
dreamer’ s interpretations of this activity
reflect his or her personality,
motivations, and previous experiences.
Still, the activation-synthesis theory
sees.
The Neurocognitive Theory
Sometimes, you may have a dream that
strikes you as so odd that you never
would have thought of such a thing in
waking life. Nevertheless, you did think
of it while dreaming. The neurocognitive
theory treats dreams as a kind of
thinking that occurs under special
conditions (Domhoff, 2001; Foulkes,
1999; Solms, 2000). These conditions
include: • persisting activity of much of
the cortex • reduced sensory
stimulation, especially in the brain’ s
primary sensory areas • loss of
voluntary control of thinking the brain is
active enough to engage in imagination
that sensory information does not
override. According to this theory, REM
sleep is not necessary for dreaming,
although the arousal associated with
REM intensifies dreams. As with Freud’
s theory and the activation-synthesis
theory, the problem with the
neurocognitive theory is that it makes
few testable predictions.
10.3 HYPNOSIS
hypnosis is a condition of increased
suggestibility that occurs in the context
of a special hypnotist–subject
relationship. The term hypnosis comes
from Hypnos, the Greek god of sleep,
although the similarity between hypnosis
and sleep is superficial. People in both
states lose initiative, and hypnotized
people, like dreamers, accept
contradictory information without protest.
Hypnotized people, however, walk
around and respond to objects in the
real world.
Franz Anton Mesmer (1734- 1815) an
Austrian physician. When treating
medical problems, Mesmer would pass
a magnet back and forth across the
patient’s body to redirect the flow of
blood, nerve activity, and undefined
“fluids.” Mesmer, however, drew the
quirky conclusion that he did not need a
magnet because he himself was a
magnet. With that claim, he gave us the
term “Animal Magnetism” After his
death, others studied “animal
magnetism” or “Mesmerism, ” eventually
calling it “hypnotism.” By that time, many
physicians and scientists had already
associated hypnosis with charlatans and
hocus-pocus.th that claim, he gave us
the term animal magnetism
WAYS OF INDUCING HYPNOSIS One well-established effect of hypnosis
is to inhibit pain. Some people can
Mesmer thought hypnosis was a power
undergo medical or dental surgery with
emanating from his body. If so, only
only hypnosis and no anesthesia. The
special people could hypnotize others.
benefits of hypnosis are most easily
Today, we believe that becoming a
demonstrated for acute (sudden) pains,
successful hypnotist requires practice
but hypnosis can help with chronic
but no unusual powers. The first step
pains, too (Patterson, 2004). Hypnosis is
toward being hypnotized is agreeing to
particularly helpful for people who react
give it a try. Contrary to what you may
unfavorably to anesthetic drugs and
have heard, no one can hypnotize an
those who have developed a tolerance
uncooperative person. The hypnotist
for painkilling opiates.
tells you to sit down and relax, and you
do so because you would like to POSTHYPNOTIC SUGGESTION
experience hypnosis. The whole point of
suggestion to do or experience
hypnosis is following the hypnotist’s
something after coming out of
suggestions, and when you sit down and
hypnosis
relax, you are already starting to follow
suggestions. Perceptual Distortions under
Hypnosis
THE USES AND LIMITATIONS
hallucinations (sensory experiences not
Hypnosis can produce relaxation,
corresponding to reality) under
concentration, and changes in behavior,
hypnosis, and many report touch
some of which persist after the end of
hallucinations after being told, “your
the hypnotic state. Hypnotizability
nose itches” or “your left hand feels
resembles ordinary suggestibility. If I
numb” (Udolf, 1981). When hypnotized
asked you to imagine a bright, sunny
people report hallucinations, are they
day, you almost certainly would, even
telling the truth or are they just saying
without being hypnotized. If I asked you
what the hypnotist wants them to say?
to please stand and put your hands on
People are often telling the truth. In one
your head, you probably would (if I
study, researchers performed brain
asked nicely), again without being
scans while people listened to sounds,
hypnotized. If I asked you to stand, flap
imagined them, or hal lucinated them
your arms, and cluck like a chicken, you
under hypnotic suggestion. The hypnotic
might or might not. People vary in how
experiences activated some of the same
far they will follow suggestions without
brain areas as actual sounds did, but
hypnosis, and suggestibility without
imagining sounds did not (Szechtman,
hypnosis correlates with hypnosis.
Woody, Bowers, & Nahmias, 1998).
People follow suggestions a little more
Evidently, hypnotic hallucina tions are
with hypnosis than without, but only a
more like real experiences than like
little (J. Kirsch & Braff man, 2001).
imagination.
WHAT HYPNOSIS CAN DO
WHAT HYPNOSIS DOES NOT DO
Many of the spectacular claims made for
the power of hypnosis turn out to be less
impressive on closer scrutiny. For
instance, as in Figure 10.19, people
under hypnosis can balance their head
and neck on one chair and their feet on
another chair and even allow someone
to stand on their body! Amazing? Not
really. It’s easier than it looks, even
without hypnosis. Give it a try. (But don’t
invite someone to stand on you.
Someone who does not balance
correctly could injure you.) Many people
have attempted to use hypnosis to
enhance memory. For example, a
distressed per son tells a
psychotherapist, “I don’t know why I
have such troubles. Maybe I had some
bad experience when I was younger. I
just can’t remember.” Or a witness to a
crime says, “I saw the culprit for a
second or two, but now I can’t give you
a good description.” Therapists and
police officers have sometimes turned to
hypnotism in the hope of uncovering lost
memories. However, hypnotized people
are highly suggestible. When given a
suggestion such as “you will remember
more than you told us before, ”
hypnotized people report more
information, some of it correct and most
of it incorrect, with increased confidence
in both the correct and the incorrect
(Fligstein, Barabasz, Barabasz,
Trevisan, & Warner, 1998; J. P. Green &
Lynn, 2005; Wagstaff et al., 2004).
Is hypnosis an altered state of
consciousness?
At one extreme, some psychologists
regard hypnosis as a special state of
consciousness characterized by
increased suggestibility. At the other
extreme, some psychologists emphasize
the similarities between hypnosis and
normal wakeful consciousness,
including the fact that people who
respond well to hypnosis also respond
strongly to suggestions without
hypnosis. Most psychologists take
intermediate positions, noting that
hypnotized people are neither
“pretending to be hypnotized” nor under
a hypnotist’s control. That is, hypnosis is
a special state in some ways but not
others (I. Kirsch & Lynn, 1998).
How Well Can Someone Pretend to
Be Hypnotized?
Fooling the hypnotist turned out to be
easier than expected. The pretenders
tolerated sharp pain without flinching
and pretended to re call old memories.
They made their bodies as stiff as a
board and lay rigid between two chairs.
When standing people were told to sit
down, they did so immediately (as
hypnotized people do) without first
checking to make sure they had a chair
behind them (Orne, 1959, 1979). When
told to experience anger or another
emotion, they exhibited physiological
changes such as increased heart rate
and sweating, just as hypnotized people
do (Damaser, Shor,
MEDITATION
Meditation, a systematic procedure for
inducing a calm, relaxed state through
the use of special techniques, follows
traditions that have been practiced in
much of the world for thousands of
years, especially in India. Meditation
takes many forms. One variety seeks
“thoughtless awareness, ” in which the
person is aware of the sensations of the
moment but otherwise completely
passive. While seeking this state, the
person might concentrate on a single
image, repeat a simple sound (e.g., “ om
”), or repeat a short religious statement
(e.g., “God is good”). Meditators may
observe their own thoughts, attempt to
modify them, or distance themselves
from certain thoughts. Goals of
meditation vary from the development of
wisdom to general well-being (Walsh &
Shapiro, 2006).
Many studies document that meditation
increases relaxation, decreases pain,
decreases anxiety, and alleviates
problems related to anxiety, including
migraine headaches (Wachholtz &
Pargament, 2008; Yunesian, Aslani,
Vash, & Yazdi, 2008). It also improves
attention and concern for others (Walsh
& Shapiro, 2006). However, most
studies fail to control for participants’
expectations of benefits. Few studies
have used double-blind procedures. The
medical and psychological benefits
appear attributable to relaxation
(Holmes, 1987)
CHAPTER 11
11.1 MOTIVATED
BEHAVIORS
Views of Motivation
 Motivation is what activates and
directs behavior.
 Motivation is what makes our
behavior more vigorous and
energetic.
 Motivation as the process that
determines the reinforcement
value of an outcome. In more
everyday language, motivation is
what makes you want something
more at one time and less at
another
Drive Theories
One views motivation as a drive, a state
of unrest or irritation that energizes one
behavior after another until one of them
removes the irritation.
According to the drive-reduction theory
that was popular among psychologists
of the 1940s and 1950s, humans and
other animals eat to reduce their hunger,
drink to reduce their thirst, and have
sexual activity to reduce their sex drive.
Homeostasis
• An important advance upon the
idea of drive reduction is the
concept of homeostasis, the
maintenance of an optimum level
of biological conditions within an
organism.
• The idea of homeostasis
recognizes that we are motivated
to seek a state of equilibrium,
which is not zero stimulation.
• Motivated behaviors do not
maintain exact constancy
because our behavior often
anticipates future needs.
• A revised concept of
homeostasis is allostasis, defined
as maintaining levels of biological
conditions that vary according to
an individual's needs and
circumstances.
Incentive Theories
The drive-reduction and homeostasis
concepts overlook the power of new
stimuli to arouse behaviors
Motivation includes more than the
internal forces that push us toward
certain behaviors.
It also includes incentives-external
stimuli that pull us toward certain
actions.
Intrinsic and Extrinsic Motivations
Intrinsic Motivation
An intrinsic motivation is a motivation to Abraham
do an act for its own sake. Maslow
(1970)

Extrinsic motivation Proposed

that we
An extrinsic motivation is based on the resolve
reinforcements and punishments that conflicts by
the act may bring. a hierarchy
of needs, an
EXAMPLE
organization
An artist paints for the joy of creation from the
(intrinsic) and for the hope of profit most
(extrinsic).) insistent
needs to the ones that receive attention
Over Justification Effect
only when all others are under control.
When people receive more extrinsic
 A further criticism Is that
motivation than necessary to perform
Maslow’s theory is culture
a task, their intrinsic motivation
specific. For people in
declines.
much of North
Conflicting Motivations America and
Europe, self-esteem
Maslow’s Hierarchy of and self-actualization
Needs: are important goals.
For

people
in China, the
individual’s
 accomplishments are less
important than the sense of
belonging to one’s group and
one’s family. an alternative
hierarchy of needs (Yang, 2003).
Motivation Conflict as a Way to
Measure Motivation
• Psychological researchers
sometimes measure the strength
of someone's motivation by self-
reports. Furthermore, self-reports
are impossible for nonhuman
animals and very young children.
• Another way to measure
motivation is to offer
reinforcement for certain levels of
work.
Delay of Gratification
• People differ in how well they
defer gratification-that is, choose
the action that produces the
bigger payoff later instead of the
smaller pleasure now.
• You might be offered a choice
between a small, immediate
reward and a larger, delayed one.
You would like to wait for the
delayed reward, but that
immediate reward is tempting.
Work Motivation
Deadlines
In general, people who are forced to
meet deadlines manage their time to do
so. If it is possible to postpone all work
until later, many find it hard to resist that
temptation. Setting deadlines for parts of
one’s own work can help.
Overcoming Procrastination
People get started toward their goals if
they set specific plans about what they
will do, when, and where. Making any
kind of decision helps end
procrastination.
Goal Setting
Setting a goal motivates strong effort if
the goal is high but realistic. Other
important factors include making a
serious commitment to the goal,
receiving feedback on progress, and
believing that the goal will bring a fair
reward.
Making Goals Realistic
People tend to underestimate how much
time and effort they will need to achieve
their goals. It is best to plan for more
time and resources than seem
necessary and to start as quickly as
possible.
MOD. 11.2 HUNGER MOTIVATION
THE PHYSIOLOGY OF HUNGER AND
SATIETY
Hunger is a homeostatic drive that
keeps fuel available for the body. When
supplies drop, brain mechanisms trigger
eating behaviors. Fuel is present
throughout the body, especially in fat
and liver cells, and circulates in blood.
Mechanisms control short-term changes
in hunger and long-term adjustments for
fluctuations in intake.
Short-Term RegulatIon of Hunger
Short-term regulation of hunger. Meals
end by several mechanisms, principally
distension of the stomach and
intestines. Hunger resumes when the
cells begin to receive less glucose and
other nutrients. The hormone insulin
regulates the flow of nutrients from the
blood to storage.
• Glucose, the most abundant
sugar in your blood, is an
important source of energy for the
body and almost the only source
for the brain.
• Insulin increases the flow of
glucose and several other
nutrients into body cells.
Long-Term RegulatIon of Hunger
An individual meal can be larger or
smaller than necessary to provide the
energy that the body needs. The body’s
fat cells secrete the hormone leptin in
proportion to their mass; an increase of
leptin decreases hunger.
• Set point - a level that the
body works to maintain.
• Leptin which the body’s fat
cells release in amounts
proportional to their mass.
BRAIN MECHANISMS
Aim depends on various factors
including food taste, appearance,
stomach contents, glucose availability,
body fat supplies, health, body
temperature, time of day, and social
influences.
SOCIAL AND CULTURAL
INFLUENCES ON EATING
Social factors play a significant role in
our eating habits. The Native American
Pima of Arizona are obese due to
genetics and high blood pressure, but
their ancestors were not obese and ate
abundantly.
EATING TOO MUCH OR TOO LITTLE
Obesity is a widespread issue, but not
universal. Social and physiological
influences contribute to the differences
in obesity and eating habits among
individuals.
Obesity - Obesity is the excessive
accumulation of body fat.
The Limited Role of Emotional
Disturbances
Emotional distress can cause temporary
fluctuations in eating and body weight,
often leading to eating binges.
Genetics and Energy Output
Obesity, a genetic health issue, is
influenced by high-fat consumption and
low energy output. Infants of overweight
mothers are inactive, and low energy
expenditure predicts weight gain in
adults.
Portion Size
Obesity is attributed to the abundance of
tasty food, possibly due to French
restaurants serving smaller meals than
American ones. People tend to eat one
portion of food, leading to revised
recipes with larger portions.
Losing Weight
Weight loss often involves balancing
enjoyment of eating now and feeling
good about it later. Diets and
interventions often yield temporary
results, while successful treatments
require lifestyle changes like exercise
and reduced eating. Follow-ups are
crucial for continued efforts.
Social Pressures About Weight and
Body Dimensions
Weight dissatisfaction is common
among women, especially height-to-
waist, and can lead to worries about
eating.
AnorexIa Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a condition in which
someone refuses to eat enough to
maintain a stable weight, intensely fears
gaining weight, and misperceives his or
her body as fatter than it actually is.
BulImIa Nervosa
bulimia nervosa (literally, “ox hunger”),
in which people—again, mostly women
—alternate between self-deprivation and
periods of excessive eating when they
feel they have lost their ability to control
themselves.
The ComplexItIes of Hunger
This module explores the interplay of
physiological, social, and cognitive
factors influencing motivations, including
genetic and cultural influences on weight
loss and attractiveness.
11.3 SEXUAL MOTIVATION
compared to Hunger Motivation in some
ways.
• both depend on physiological
drive and incentives.
• both increase during times of
deprivation.
Sexuality is Different in some
Important ways.
A man doesn’t need to be around foods
to feel hungry. But many people need a
partner to feel arousal.
Hunger & Sex serves important
biological functions.
We enjoy eating because it keeps us
alive. We eat to survive. Same to sex,
wherein we evolved mechanisms like
how sex leads to reproduction. Sex
causes reproduction and reproduction
means survival of race.
The Kinsey Survey
Alfred C. Kinsey (1940s)
• an insect biologist
• He used to teach a biological
portion on a marriage course in
Indiana University
• He conducted the so-called "the
first important survey of human
sexual behavior. "
• Kinsey defined nymphomaniac as
"someone who wants sex more
than you do."
Later Surveys
Researchers in later years identified
random samples and got more people to
cooperate. A survey of a random sample
of almost 3,500 U.S. adults explored
what people enjoy.
Variations by Culture and Cohort
Pre-marital Sex in human history is
uncommon and considered scandalous
in most of the world. Mostly on Asian
and African countries, sex before
marriage on men is considered
acceptable but not for women. In some
research and studies, results vary
enormously among cultures and
subcultures.
Sexual Behavior in the Era of AIDS
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is
a virus which attacks and weakens the
immune system in humans. While AIDS
(Acquired Immune Deficiency
Syndrome) is a medical condition that
can happen as a result of an HIV
infection when your immune system is
severely weakened. For HIV to spread
from one person to another, it must
enter the other person's blood.
Three (3) Common Routes of
Transmission of HIV
(1) transfusions of contaminated
blood.
(2) sharing needles used for
intravenous injections of illegal
drugs.
(3) sexual contact
How To Prevent HIV
— Avoid sex with someone who might
be infected
— To make sure, use condoms (safe
sex)
Sexual Arousal
Sexual arousal happens in the presence
of a suitable partner, a willingness to be
aroused and a lack of anxiety.
In 1996, William master’s and Virginia
Johnson pioneered the study of human
sexual response, wherein they
discovered similarities in physiological
arousal between men and women.
Four Physiological Stages in Sexual
Arousal
 Excitement
o In the first stage, man's penis
becomes erect, and woman's
vagina becomes lubricated.
 Plateau
o In the second stage, excitement
remains high. This stage lasts
depends on the person's age and
intensity of the stimulation .
 Climax or Orgasm
o On the third stage, there is a
sudden release of tension.
 Resolution
o On the fourth and last stage, the
person relaxes.
SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION ALSO
KNOWN AS SEXUAL DIFFICULTIES
Many people experience sexual
difficulties such as decreased interest in
sex.
SEXUAL ANATOMY & IDENTITY
Gender Identity
• the sex that a person regards him
or herself as being. Most people
with male genitals have a male
identity and most with female
genitals have a female identity.
If the genetic male fetuses wherein there
is a higher level of the hormone
TESTOSTERONE, then it will cause the
tiny fetal structures to grow in to a penis
and scrotum.
Genetic female fetuses wherein the
testosterone is low, fetal structures
developed into clitoris and labia.
ESTROGEN increase more in females
than in males.
Intersexe
• is called to those people with an
anatomy that appears
intermediate between male and
female.
Sexual Orientation
— someone's tendency to respond
sexually to make or female partners or
both or not.
People vary in their sexual orientations,
just as they do in their food preferences
and other motivations.
Homosexual Orientation (gay or
lesbian)
— To those who prefer partners of their
own sex have a homosexual orientation.
* It is said that if natural means that
something occurs in nature then
homosexuality is natural. *
Differences Between Men and
Women
1. Most men became aware of
being homosexual or
heterosexual by early
adolescence, and later changes
are.
2. A fair number of women develop
a homosexual orientation
(lesbian) in young adulthood
without any previous indications.
3. Also, women are more likely to
experience sexual reaction to
both men and women
(bisexuality).
Heterosexual Men showed great
arousal to two women; less in man and
woman; and little or nothing at all at man
and man.
Homosexual Men oppose the
heterosexual; showed great arousal on
two men.
Women it shows that most women, both
lesbians and heterosexuals showed
responses to each kind of film.
POSSIBLE INFLUENCES ON SEXUAL
ORIENTATION
The available research suggests that
genetic factors contribute to sexual
orientation for both men and women.
* Homosexuality is more prevalent in the
monozygotic (identical) twins than in
their dizygotic (fraternal) twins. *
Another factor in sexual orientation is
biological but not genetic.
The probability of a sexual orientation is
slightly elevated among men who have
an older brother. One hypothesis to
explain this is the first one sometimes
causes the mother’s immune system to
build up antibodies that impair
development of later sons.
11.4 PAY AND JOB
SATISFACTION
Workers as workers in nature do their
job accordingly. And as an employer, to
make them satisfied—in return for their
hard work—must pay careful attention to
PayScale.
Money is certainly part of everyone's
work motivation. Ex. One person would
probably quit his/her job when the
employer pays no more.
Many people take a lower-paying job
because it offers self-accomplishment.
Even after people retire, many find that
they miss work.
For many people, work is an enjoyable
and important part of who they are.
LEADERSHIP
Do you believe that how hard you are
motivated to work also depends on how
you perceive your organization's
leadership?
What does good leadership require?
Later research concluded that no single
personality factor is decisive because
what matters is the combination of many
qualities.
A good leader has the right combination
of personality, intelligence, expertise,
motives, values, and people-handling
skills. (Zaccaro, 2007)
However, good leadership depends on
the situation. Just as no one is creative
in all situations, no one is a good leader
in all situations. (Vroom & Jago, 2007)
INDUSTRIAL-ORGANIZATIONAL
PSYCHOLOGISTS DISTINGUISH
BETWEEN TRANSFORMATIONAL
AND TRANSACTIONAL LEADERSHIP
STYLES.
Transformational leader
o articulates a vision of the future,
intellectually stimulates
subordinates, and motivates
them to use their imagination to
advance the organization.
Transactional leader
o tries to make the organization
more efficient at doing what it is
already doing by providing
rewards (mainly pay) for effective
work.
People who are described as
transformational leaders are perceived
as effective in almost any organization.
(Lowe, Kroeck, & Sivasubramaniam,
1996)
Transformational Leader is often
described as "a visionary who
intellectually stimulates and motivates
someone to reach their potential.
Transactional Leaders are often
effective in organizations where
activities stay the same from year to
year.
CHAPTER 12
1. How do psychologists primarily
measure emotions?
a. Through physiological measures
b. Through self-reports
c. Through behavioral observations
d. All of the above
2. What are "microexpressions"?
a. Long-lasting emotional
expressions
b. Sudden, brief emotional
expressions
c. Controlled emotional expressions
d. Involuntary emotional expressions
3. According to the James-Lange
theory of emotions, what comes first in
the emotional process?
a. Interpretation of a stimulus
 b. Physiological changes
c. Muscle actions
d. Cognitive appraisal
4. How do people with weakened
autonomic responses experience
emotions according to the JamesLange theory?
a. They experience strong emotional
feelings.
b. They experience normal emotional
feelings.
c. They experience little emotional
feeling.
d. They experience a wider range of
emotions.
5. Schachter and Singer's theory of
emotions suggests that the intensity of
the physiological state determines:
a. The type of emotion
b. The emotional duration
c. The cognitive appraisal
d. The muscle actions involved
6. What is the term for a full facial
expression, including the muscles
around the eyes?
a. Voluntary smile
b. Duchenne smile
c. Microexpression
d. Emotional mask
7. What does the text imply about the
universality of facial expressions?
a. They are entirely culturedependent.
b. They are learned behaviors.
c. They are unlearned and universal.
d. They vary greatly across cultures.
8. What is one function of emotions
according to the text?
a. Distracting from important
information
b. Enhancing memory for neutral
information
c. Focusing attention on important
information
d. Reducing readiness to explore new
ideas
9. Emotions or moods also adjust our
priorities. What happens when you are
in a happy mood?
a. You focus on potential threats
b. You concentrate on dangers
c. You expand your focus
d. You become less attentive to your
surroundings
10. What is the term for the ability to
perceive, imagine, understand, and use
emotions in making decisions?
a. Emotional intelligence
b. Emotional suppression
c. Emotional contagion
d. Emotional manipulation
11. What is the main difference
between fear and anxiety?
a. Fear is a vague, long-lasting sense
of potential harm, while anxiety refers to
an immediate danger.
b. Fear is a response to pleasant
events, while anxiety is a response to
unpleasant events.
c. Fear is a stronger emotion than
anxiety.
d. Fear and anxiety are essentially
the same.
12. What physiological response is
involved in the startle reflex when
experiencing anxiety?
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Increased muscle relaxation
c. Tensed muscles and sympathetic
nervous system activation
d. Reduced sensory perception
13. What is the concept of stress
according to Selye?
a. The specific response of the body
to any demand made upon it.
b. The emotional response to a
situation.
c. The cognitive appraisal of a
stressful event.
d. The body's reaction to pleasant
experiences.
14. How do people primarily cope with
stress in the problem-focused
category?
a. Gaining a sense of control over the
situation
b. Reinterpreting the situation to
make it less threatening
 c. Trying to control their emotional
reactions
d. Avoiding the stressor altogether
15. What is an effective approach to
reducing stress according to the text?
a. Suppression of emotions
b. Social support
c. Vigorous exercise
d. High stress levels
16. What is the term for the ability to
handle stress naturally and remain
happy and productive?
a. Optimistic individuals
b. Pessimistic individuals
c. Resilient individuals
d. Highly anxious individuals
17. Although many people say more
money would make them happier, few
say their money does make them
happy. How important is money for
happiness?
a. Money is the sole determinant of
happiness.
b. Money has no influence on
happiness.
c. Money is important but doesn't
guarantee happiness.
d. Money is irrelevant to happiness.
18. What are some of the personality
factors strongly correlated with high
subjective well-being?
a. Introversion and neuroticism
b. Extroversion and emotional
stability
c. Conscientiousness and
agreeableness
d. Openness and impulsiveness
19. What is the relationship between
age and happiness?
a. Older people are generally less
happy than younger people.
b. Older people are generally happier
than younger people.
c. Age has no impact on happiness.
d. Happiness decreases with age,
then increases.
20. What is sadness primarily
associated with?
a. A sense of gain
b. A sense of loss
c. A sense of excitement
d. A sense of achievement
21. How do severely sad people often
react, according to the text?
a. They laugh uncontrollably.
b. They become emotionally numb.
c. They cry.
d. They experience intense anger.
22. What is the startle reflex associated
with?
a. Happiness
b. Anxiety
c. Surprise
d. Contentment
23. What does the polygraph primarily
measure in relation to lie detection?
a. Respiratory rate
b. Skin temperature
c. Sympathetic nervous system
arousal
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
arousal
24. What is the guilty-knowledge test
used for in lie detection?
a. Detecting psychopathy
b. Detecting physiological arousal
c. Detecting signs of guilt
d. Detecting knowledge of
undisclosed facts
25. What is anger primarily associated
with?
a. A desire to harm people or drive
them away
b. A desire to help and support others
c. A desire to build connections and
relationships
d. A desire for solitude and
introspection
26. According to the frustrationaggression
hypothesis, what is the
main cause of anger?
a. High self-esteem
b. Low self-esteem
c. Social support
d. Emotional intelligence
27. What is the primary cause of
violence in relationships, including
romantic couples?
a. Lack of emotional connection
b. Disagreements over finances
c. Substance abuse
d. Mental illness
28. What is rape defined as?
a. Unwanted sexual attention
b. Sexual activity without the
partner's consent
c. Consensual sexual activity
d. Inappropriate flirtation
29. What is positive psychology the
study of?
a. The negative aspects of human
behavior
b. The factors that detract from life
c. The features that enrich life, such
as happiness and hope
d. The treatment of psychological
disorders
30. What is the best behavioral
indicator of happiness, according to the
text?
a. Smiling
b. Laughing loudly
c. Crying
d. Frowning
31. What is the term for the ability to
perceive, imagine, understand, and use
emotions in making decisions?
a. Emotional quotient (EQ)
b. Emotional regulation
c. Emotional intelligence
d. Emotional resilience
32. Which term best describes the
concept that happiness can vary
depending on individual expectations
and outlook?
a. Emotional variability
b. Subjective well-being
c. Hedonic adaptation
d. Emotional intelligence
33. What is the strongest known
psychological influence on heart
disease?
a. Physical exercise
b. Diet and nutrition
c. Social support
d. Genetics
34. What does the text suggest about
the relationship between stress and
cancer?
a. Stress has no impact on cancer.
b. Stress directly causes cancer.
c. Highly stressful events are related
to shorter survival in cancer patients.
d. Stress increases the likelihood of
cancer.
35. What is posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD) marked by?
a. Short-term anxiety and depression
b. Prolonged anxiety and depression
c. Mild irritability and impatience
d. Emotional numbness and
indifference
36. What term refers to reinterpreting a
situation to make it seem less
threatening?
a. Problem-focused coping
b. Distraction
c. Reappraisal
d. Emotional intelligence
37. How do people in high-stress
situations react to distractions like video
games or comedies, according to the
text?
a. They become more stressed.
b. They experience less pain.
c. They tend to cry more.
d. They get agitated.
38. Which personality factor is strongly
correlated with high subjective wellbeing?
a. Neuroticism
b. Introversion
c. Emotional stability
d. Impulsiveness
39. What does the text suggest about
the universality of facial expressions?
a. They are entirely culturedependent.
b. They are learned behaviors.
c. They are unlearned and universal.
d. They vary greatly across cultures.
40. What are microexpressions, as
mentioned in the text?
a. Long-lasting emotional
expressions 46. Which type of coping primarily
b. Sudden, brief emotional focuses on controlling emotional
expressions reactions to stress?
c. Controlled emotional expressions a. Problem-focused coping
d. Voluntary emotional expressions b. Reappraisal
41. Which part of the autonomic c. Emotion-focused coping
nervous system prepares the body for d. Distraction
vigorous action, often called the "fightor-flight" 47. What is one function of emotions
response? according to the text?
a. Parasympathetic nervous system a. Distracting from important
b. Sympathetic nervous system information
c. Central nervous system b. Enhancing memory for neutral
d. Enteric nervous system information
42. According to Schachter and c. Focusing attention on important
Singer's theory of emotions, what information
determines the type of emotion d. Reducing readiness to explore
experienced? new ideas
a. The intensity of physiological 48. How do people with weakened
arousal autonomic responses experience
b. The cognitive appraisal of the emotions according to the JamesLange theory?
situation a. They experience strong emotional
c. The type of facial expression feelings.
displayed b. They experience normal emotional
d. The level of emotional intelligence feelings.
43. What are the two primary branches c. They experience little emotional
of the autonomic nervous system? feeling.
a. Somatic and visceral nervous d. They experience a wider range of
systems emotions.
b. Central and peripheral nervous 49. What is the guilty-knowledge test
systems used for in lie detection?
c. Sympathetic and parasympathetic a. Detecting psychopathy
nervous systems b. Detecting physiological arousal
d. Sensory and motor nervous c. Detecting signs of guilt
systems d. Detecting knowledge of
44. What does the James-Lange theory undisclosed facts
of emotions propose comes first in the 50. What is the startle reflex associated
emotional process? with?
a. Interpretation of a stimulus a. Happiness
b. Physiological changes b. Anxiety
c. Cognitive appraisal c. Surprise
d. Emotional expression d. Contentment
45. What is the term for a full facial
expression, including the muscles
CHAPTER 13
1. According to Lawrence Kohlberg,
around the eyes?
what does moral reasoning resemble?
a. Voluntary smile
A. Arbitrary rules
b. Duchenne smile
B. Stages of cognitive development
c. Microexpression
C. Personal beliefs
d. Emotional mask
 D. Cultural norms
2. What are moral dilemmas?
A. Problems without a moral
dimension
B. Situations with clear right and
wrong answers
C. Problems that pit one moral value
against another
D. Ethical guidelines
3. What are the limitations of Kohlberg's
theory?
A. Different orientations to morality
and the relationship between moral
reasoning and behavior
B. Lack of empirical evidence and
cultural bias
C. Age-related bias and
oversimplification
D. Complexity and inconsistency
4. In non-Western cultures, people
often focus on what aspect of morality?
A. Justice
B. Duty toward others
C. Legal rules
D. Personal gain
5. Carol Gilligan emphasized a "caring"
orientation in moral reasoning, which
focuses on what?
A. Justice
B. Duty
C. Helping or hurting other people
D. Legal principles
6. Which stage of Kohlberg's moral
development theory is associated with
a "Punishment and Obedience
Orientation"?
A. Preconventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Postconventional morality
D. None of the above
7. According to Kohlberg, in the
"Instrumental Relativist Orientation,"
why is it good to help others?
A. It is a moral duty
B. It's a way to gain popularity
C. Others may return the favor
D. It's required by law
8. Which stage of moral development is
characterized by the "Law and Order
Orientation"?
A. Preconventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Postconventional morality
D. None of the above
9. According to Kohlberg, in the
"Universal Ethical Principle
Orientation," when is it right to violate a
law?
A. Never
B. When it conflicts with higher ethical
principles
C. When it benefits you personally
D. When a majority agrees to change
it
10. What is the main focus of
Kohlberg's theory?
A. Moral behavior
B. Moral reasoning
C. Moral consequences
D. Moral emotions
11. What is the term for helping others
despite some cost or risk to oneself?
A. Self-interest
B. Cooperation
C. Altruistic behavior
D. Competition
12. The Prisoner's Dilemma is a
situation that involves a choice
between:
A. Cooperation and compliance
B. Cooperation and competition
C. Compliance and obedience
D. Competition and opposition
13. In the Prisoner's Dilemma, why
does the competitive move seem best
from an individual's point of view?
A. It benefits the group
B. It results in immediate rewards
C. It avoids punishment
D. It's morally justifiable
14. What is the most dependable
strategy in repeated games like the
Prisoner's Dilemma?
A. Reciprocity
B. Competition
C. Cooperation
 D. Apathy
15. How do people learn to cooperate
and develop cooperative behaviors
according to the text?
A. Genetic predisposition
B. Social reinforcement
C. Cultural transmission
D. Individual instinct
16. What term is used to describe the
situation in which people say nothing,
assuming others have a betterinformed
opinion?
A. Normative influence
B. Informational influence
C. Pluralistic ignorance
D. Conformity bias
17. Social loafing is the tendency to:
A. Work harder in groups
B. Work less hard when alone
C. Conform to social norms
D. Reject social influence
18. What is the primacy effect in the
context of first impressions?
A. The tendency to remember recent
information better
B. The tendency to be influenced by
the most persuasive argument
C. The influence of the first
information learned about someone
D. The tendency to focus on physical
appearance
19. A stereotype is a:
A. Belief or expectation about a
group of people
B. Strong emotional reaction to a
situation
C. Rational decision-making process
D. Form of conformity
20. Prejudice is often associated with:
A. Discrimination
B. Empathy
C. Tolerance
D. Equality
21. What is the Implicit Association Test
(IAT) used to measure?
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Stereotypes and prejudice
C. Altruistic behavior
D. Conformity
22. What is aversive racism also known
as?
A. Subtle prejudice
B. Explicit racism
C. Overt bias
D. Cultural intolerance
23. In what stage of Kohlberg's moral
development is it considered right to
violate a law that conflicts with higher
ethical principles?
A. Preconventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Postconventional morality
D. None of the above
24. What is the term for attributing one's
successes to skill and failures to
external influences?
A. Self-serving bias
B. Fundamental attribution error
C. Self-handicapping
D. Reciprocity
25. In the context of persuasion, what is
the central route to persuasion based
on?
A. Superficial factors
B. Emotional appeals
C. Logical arguments and evidence
D. Group pressure
26. Which technique of influence
involves offering an extremely favorable
deal and then making additional
demands?
A. Foot in the door
B. Bait and switch
C. Reciprocation
D. Persuasive appeal
27. According to Milgram's obedience
study, what percentage of participants
were willing to deliver the maximum
voltage shock to another person?
A. 10%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 65%
28. What is the term for altering one's
behavior to match other people's
behavior or expectations?
 A. Obedience
B. Conformity
C. Altruism
D. Reciprocation
29. Group polarization is the
phenomenon where group discussions
tend to:
A. Strengthen individual opinions
B. Moderate extreme views
C. Move the group even further in the
same direction
D. Create disagreements
30. What is groupthink?
A. A strategy for group decisionmaking
B. A type of conformity
C. An extreme form of group
polarization
D. A situation where group members
suppress doubts
31. Which social influence
phenomenon is characterized by group
members failing to express their
opposition to a decision due to fear of
disrupting group harmony?
A. Conformity
B. Obedience
C. Group polarization
D. Groupthink
32. What is the term for a state of
unpleasant tension that arises from
contradictory attitudes or a behavior
that conflicts with an attitude?
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Confirmation bias
C. Selective perception
D. Social facilitation
33. According to the text, what do
people do when their behavior does not
match their attitudes in the context of
cognitive dissonance?
A. Change their behavior
B. Change their attitudes
C. Ignore the inconsistency
D. Seek external validation
34. What is the central route to
persuasion based on, according to
Richard Petty and John Cacioppo?
A. Superficial factors
B. Emotional appeals
C. Logical arguments and evidence
D. Group pressure
35. What technique of persuasion
involves making an offer and then
improving the offer before the other
person has a chance to reply?
A. Foot in the door
B. Bait and switch
C. Reciprocation
D. Persuasive appeal
36. Messages that appeal to fear are
effective when:
A. People perceive the danger as
real and believe they can do something
about it
B. People ignore the danger
C. People perceive the danger as
fake
D. People believe they are immune
to danger
37. What is the term for the principle
that the more often we come in contact
with someone or something, the more
we tend to like that person or object?
A. Proximity effect
B. Confirmation bias
C. Social facilitation
D. Persuasion effect
38. What type of individuals are people
generally more likely to choose as
friends and romantic partners in the
early stages of attraction?
A. Those who live far away
B. Those who are physically
attractive
C. Those who are the opposite of
themselves
D. Those who are dissimilar to them
39. What type of love is characterized
by passion, desire, and intense
emotions?
A. Companionate love
B. Romantic love
C. Platonic love
D. Familial love
40. In romantic relationships, what
follows the passionate love stage?
 A. Indifference
B. Companionate love
C. Apathy
D. Hostility
41. What is conformity?
A. Altering one's behavior to match
other people's behavior or expectations
B. Resistance to group pressure
C. Obedience to authority figures
D. Group polarization
42. In Milgram's obedience study, what
percentage of participants delivered the
maximum voltage shock to another
person when instructed to do so by the
experimenter?
A. 10%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 65%
43. Which of the following is NOT a
limitation of Kohlberg's theory of moral
development?
A. Lack of empirical evidence
B. Cultural bias
C. Focus on moral reasoning but not
behavior
D. Complexity and inconsistency
44. What is the term for the tendency to
attribute people's behavior to internal
causes, even when there is evidence of
external influences?
A. Self-serving bias
B. Fundamental attribution error
C. Self-handicapping
D. Groupthink
45. According to Kohlberg, in which
stage of moral development is it
considered right to violate a law that
conflicts with higher ethical principles,
such as justice and respect for human
life?
A. Preconventional morality
B. Conventional morality
C. Postconventional morality
D. None of the above
46. What are stereotypes?
A. Beliefs or expectations about a
group of people
B. Strong emotional reactions to a
situation
C. Rational decision-making
processes
D. Forms of conformity
47. What term is used to describe the
situation in which people say nothing,
assuming others have a betterinformed
opinion?
A. Normative influence
B. Informational influence
C. Pluralistic ignorance
D. Conformity bias
48. What term is used to describe the
tendency to "loaf" or work less hard
when sharing work with other people?
A. Social conformity
B. Social facilitation
C. Social loafing
D. Social comparison
49. In the context of attribution theory,
what is external attribution based on?
A. Individual characteristics
B. The situation or external factors
C. Social norms
D. Internal factors
50. According to the text, what do
people do when their behavior does not
match their attitudes in the context of
cognitive dissonance?
A. Change their behavior
B. Change their attitudes
C. Ignore the inconsistency
D. Seek external validation
CHAPTER 14
1. Personality is defined as the stable,
consistent ways in which each person's
behavior differs from that of others.
Which of the following is true about
personality theories?
a. They relate to conceptions of
human nature and behavior.
b. They primarily focus on individual
differences in intelligence.
c. They explain sociocultural
influences on personality.
d. They primarily address the study of
abnormal psychology.
2. Which type of theories relate
personality to the interplay of conflicting
forces within the individual, including
unconscious forces?
a. Behavioral theories
b. Humanistic theories
c. Psychodynamic theories
d. Trait theories
3. Who is considered the founder of
psychoanalysis, a prominent
psychodynamic theory of personality?
a. Carl Rogers
b. B.F. Skinner
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Abraham Maslow
4. According to Sigmund Freud, what is
the goal of psychoanalysis?
a. Eliminate all unconscious thoughts
and emotions.
b. Repress all traumatic memories
permanently.
c. Bring repressed memories to
consciousness to achieve catharsis.
d. Keep all traumatic memories in the
unconscious forever.
5. In Freud's theory, what happens
during the Oedipus complex in early
childhood?
a. Boys develop a sexual interest in
their fathers and competitive
aggression toward their mothers.
b. Boys develop a sexual interest in
their mothers and competitive
aggression toward their fathers.
c. Girls develop a sexual interest in
their fathers and competitive
aggression toward their mothers.
d. Girls develop a sexual interest in
their mothers and competitive
aggression toward their fathers.
6. According to Freud, which
psychosexual stage is associated with
intense pleasure from stimulation of the
mouth, particularly while sucking at the
mother's breast?
a. Anal stage
b. Phallic stage
c. Latent period
d. Oral stage
7. According to Freud, what happens if
normal sexual development is blocked
or frustrated at any stage of
psychosexual development?
a. The individual skips that stage and
moves on to the next.
b. The person becomes sexually
promiscuous.
c. Part of the libido becomes fixated
at that stage.
d. The person experiences amnesia
for that stage.
8. What is the term for the defense
mechanism of motivated forgetting,
where unacceptable thoughts, desires,
and memories are banished to the
unconscious?
a. Projection
b. Repression
c. Denial
d. Regression
9. When someone refuses to believe
information that provokes anxiety, they
are using which defense mechanism?
a. Rationalization
b. Displacement
c. Denial
d. Reaction formation
10. Which of the following is NOT one
of the Big Five personality traits?
a. Extraversion
b. Agreeableness
c. Introversion
d. Conscientiousness
11. Who emphasized the distinction
between extraversion (attending to the
outside world) and introversion
(concentrating on one's inner world)?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Carl Jung
c. Abraham Maslow
d. Karen Horney
12. Which neo-Freudian psychologist
proposed that people have a natural
striving for superiority and a unique
method of striving for personal
excellence? b. Reaction time
a. Carl Rogers c. Personality traits
b. Abraham Maslow d. Implicit associations
c. Karen Horney 19. What does the Rorschach Inkblots
d. Alfred Adler test, a projective technique, ask
13. According to Alfred Adler, what is participants to do?
the healthiest style of life that a. Answer a set of true-false
emphasizes concern for the welfare of questions
others? b. Describe their concerns indirectly
a. Narcissism while talking about ambiguous stimuli
b. Inferiority complex c. Name the colors in a series of
c. Social interest inkblots
d. Self-actualization d. Identify shapes and patterns in
14. According to Adler, what motivates abstract images
individuals to strive for superiority? 20. In the Thematic Apperception Test
a. Fear of punishment (TAT), participants are asked to:
b. Fear of failure a. Identify shapes and patterns in
c. Desire for personal excellence abstract images
d. Fear of rejection b. Describe what events led up to a
15. Who believed that selfactualization, the scene, what is happening now, and
achievement of one's what will happen in the future in
full potential, is a natural drive in human response to a set of pictures
beings? c. Make up a story for each word
a. Abraham Maslow presented to them
b. Carl Jung d. Answer questions about their
c. Karen Horney preferences and interests
d. Alfred Adler 21. Which of the following is NOT one
16. What is the term for the complete, of the Big Five personality traits?
unqualified acceptance of another a. Openness to experience
person as they are, similar to the love of b. Neuroticism
a parent for a child? c. Conscientiousness
a. Conditional positive regard d. Rationalization
b. Unconditional positive regard 22. What do family environment factors
c. Social interest primarily contribute to in terms of
d. Inferiority complex personality development?
17. Abraham Maslow proposed that a. Unshared environment
people's highest need is: b. Heredity
a. Self-actualization c. Sociocultural influences
b. Self-esteem d. Shared environment
c. Social interest 23. What is the term for the cumulative
d. Inferiority complex experience of preceding generations,
18. The Emotional Stroop Test shared by all people, and present at
measures people's delays in naming birth?
the color of ink on the assumption that a. Personal unconscious
they will pause longer if the word has b. Individual experience
emotional meaning to them. What does c. Collective unconscious
this test primarily assess? d. Social interest
a. Memory recall 24. Which psychological trait refers to a
tendency to experience unpleasant
emotions frequently?
a. Extraversion
b. Neuroticism
c. Agreeableness
d. Conscientiousness
25. Compared to younger people, older
individuals tend to be higher in which
personality trait?
a. Neuroticism
b. Agreeableness
c. Extraversion
d. Openness to experience
26. Which of the following is a criticism
of personality tests and their results?
a. They are highly accurate in
predicting individual behavior.
b. Personality tests should be the
sole basis for important decisions.
c. People tend to accept vague
descriptions of their personality based
on test results.
d. Personality tests have no validity
in any context.
27. What term describes the tendency
to accept vague descriptions of our
personality based on personality test
results?
a. Projection
b. Barnum effect
c. Self-actualization
d. Reaction formation
28. Standardized personality tests are
administered according to explicit rules,
and their results are interpreted based
on:
a. Expert intuition
b. The norms for the population
c. Personal preferences
d. Ambiguity
29. Which of the following is an
example of a widely used personality
test consisting of a series of true-false
questions to distinguish among various
personality types?
a. NEO PI-R
b. Rorschach Inkblots
c. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
d. MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Inventory)
30. How does the MMPI (Minnesota
Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
guard against lying?
a. By asking direct questions about
personal history
b. By including items about common
faults and rare virtues
c. By providing open-ended
questions
d. By utilizing projective techniques
31. The NEO PI-R (NEO Personality
Inventory-Revised) measures which of
the Big Five personality traits?
a. Introversion
b. Neuroticism
c. Agreeableness
d. Extraversion
32. Which test is loosely based on Carl
Jung's theories and emphasizes the
distinction between extraversion and
introversion?
a. MMPI
b. Thematic Apperception Test
c. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
(MBTI)
d. Emotional Stroop Test
33. What is the term for a type of
personality test that encourages people
to project their characteristics onto
ambiguous stimuli?
a. Implicit personality test
b. Thematic Apperception Test
c. Projective technique
d. Trait assessment
34. The Emotional Stroop Test primarily
assesses which psychological
construct?
a. Memory recall
b. Reaction time
c. Personality traits
d. Emotional intelligence
35. Personality tests can be valuable
tools for assessing personality, but their
results should be interpreted in
conjunction with what other evidence?
a. Peer reviews
 b. Self-reports
c. Clinical interviews
d. Other objective data
36. Some psychologists use personality
tests to construct profiles of the kind of
person who would commit a certain
crime. What is this practice called?
a. Criminal psychology
b. Psychological profiling
c. Offender assessment
d. Forensic psychology
37. Research on personality profiling for
criminal investigations suggests:
a. High accuracy in creating criminal
profiles
b. Moderate accuracy in creating
criminal profiles
c. Low accuracy in creating criminal
profiles
d. It is not possible to create criminal
profiles
38. Which of the following is NOT one
of the Big Five personality traits?
a. Conscientiousness
b. Openness to experience
c. Neuroticism
d. Narcissism
39. What does an implicit personality
test, like the Emotional Stroop Test,
primarily measure?
a. Explicit beliefs and attitudes
b. Unconscious associations
between concepts
c. Long-term personality traits
d. Short-term personality fluctuations
40. Which of the following projective
techniques asks participants to make
up a story for each picture, describing
what events led up to a scene, what is
happening now, and what will happen in
the future?
a. Rorschach Inkblots
b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
(MBTI)
c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
d. NEO PI-R
41. What term describes the special
experiences that vary from one person
to another, even within a family, and are
believed to contribute to personality
differences?
a. Heredity
b. Shared environment
c. Sociocultural influences
d. Unshared environment
42. What is the term for the cumulative
experience of preceding generations,
shared by all people, and present at
birth?
a. Personal unconscious
b. Individual experience
c. Collective unconscious
d. Social interest
43. What term describes a tendency to
experience unpleasant emotions
frequently and is often considered the
opposite of emotional stability?
a. Conscientiousness
b. Neuroticism
c. Agreeableness
d. Openness to experience
44. What are the major dimensions of
personality known as the Big Five
traits?
a. Extraversion, openness to
experience, introversion, emotional
stability, and conscientiousness
b. Neuroticism, introversion,
conscientiousness, emotional stability,
and agreeableness
c. Extraversion, agreeableness,
conscientiousness, neuroticism, and
openness to experience
d. Emotional intelligence, creativity,
self-esteem, agreeableness, and
introversion
45. What is the term for the process of
striving for personal excellence and
fulfillment, according to Alfred Adler?
a. Self-actualization
b. Inferiority complex
c. Social interest
d. Narcissism
46. According to Carl Rogers, what is
the term for the complete, unqualified
acceptance of another person as they
are, similar to the love of a parent for a
child?
a. Conditional positive regard
b. Unconditional positive regard
c. Social interest
d. Inferiority complex
47. What is the term for the desire to
seek success for a larger group, such
as one's family, community, or all of
humanity?
a. Narcissism
b. Social interest
48. What do psychologists often use
with projective techniques to encourage
people to project their personality
characteristics onto ambiguous stimuli?
a. Unconditional positive regard
b. Reaction formation
c. Displacement
d. Denial
49. Which projective technique uses a
series of ambiguous inkblots that
participants are asked to describe or
interpret?
a. Rorschach Inkblots
b. Thematic Apperception Test
c. Emotional Stroop Test
d. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
(MBTI)
50. Which of the following is NOT one
of the Big Five personality traits?
a. Neuroticism
b. Agreeableness
c. Extraversion
d. Rationalization
CHAPTER 15
1. According to the American
Psychiatric Association, what are the
criteria for defining behavior as
abnormal?
a. Increased risk of harm
b. Distress
c. Disability
d. All of the above
2. How is abnormal behavior typically
explained in modern psychology?
a. Spirit possession
b. Biological, psychological, and
social influences
c. Supernatural forces
d. None of the above
3. What is the predominant view in
Western cultures regarding abnormal
behavior?
a. The psychodynamic model
b. The sociocultural model
c. The biopsychosocial model
d. The cognitive model
4. In the biopsychosocial model of
abnormal behavior, what are the three
major aspects considered?
a. Biological, psychological, and
cultural
b. Cognitive, emotional, and social
c. Genetic, environmental, and
neurological
d. Biological, psychological, and
sociological
5. How do cultural influences impact the
perception of abnormality?
a. They have no influence on
abnormal behavior.
b. They lead to universal symptoms of
disorders.
c. They influence the prevalence and
symptoms of disorders.
d. They only affect personality
disorders.
6. What is an example of a disorder
influenced by suggestion?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Dissociative identity disorder (DID)
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD)
7. Which manual classifies
psychological disorders in five axes?
a. DSM-III
b. DSM-V
c. DSM-IV
d. None of the above
8. What does Axis III of the DSM-IV list?
a. Psychological disorders
b. Physical ailments
c. Sociological factors
 d. None of the above
9. Personality disorders are
characterized by:
a. Temporary and changeable traits
b. Maladaptive and inflexible traits
c. Mood swings
d. Bipolar tendencies
10. According to the DSM-IV, what is a
personality disorder?
a. A fixed way of dealing with the
environment
b. A normal variation in personality
c. A result of effective coping
strategies
d. A trait shared by everyone
11. What is a criticism of the DSM-IV?
a. It lacks standardized criteria for
diagnosis.
b. It gives labels to minor difficulties.
c. It emphasizes cultural diversity.
d. It doesn't consider biological
factors.
12. What is psychotherapy?
a. A medical treatment for
psychological disorders
b. A treatment that doesn't require a
therapist
c. A treatment for psychological
disorders that involves a therapist-client
relationship
d. A type of medication for
depression
13. What is the purpose of empirically
supported treatments?
a. To offer traditional therapies
b. To rely solely on medications
c. To provide effective therapies with
scientific evidence
d. To combine psychoanalysis and
cognitive therapy
14. Which therapy attempts to uncover
unconscious reasons behind selfdefeating
behaviors?
a. Cognitive therapy
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Humanistic therapy
d. Behavior therapy
15. In which technique does the client
report everything that comes to mind
without censoring it?
a. Transference
b. Free association
c. Rational-emotive therapy
d. Group therapy
16. What is transference in
psychoanalysis?
a. The transfer of physical symptoms
to the therapist
b. The transfer of behaviors from the
therapist to the client
c. The transfer of behaviors and
feelings onto the therapist from another
important person in the client's life
d. The transfer of conscious thoughts
to the unconscious mind
17. What is the focus of behavior
therapy?
a. Altering unconscious thoughts
b. Setting specific behavioral goals
c. Enhancing self-understanding
d. Promoting self-acceptance
18. Which therapy seeks to change
people's irrational beliefs and
unrealistic goals?
a. Psychoanalysis
b. Behavior therapy
c. Cognitive therapy
d. Humanistic therapy
19. What is the primary focus of
cognitive-behavior therapy?
a. Altering unconscious thoughts
b. Setting specific behavioral goals
c. Changing people's interpretation
of their situation
d. Promoting self-acceptance
20. Which type of therapy emphasizes
the importance of a caring relationship
between therapist and client?
a. Humanistic therapy
b. Cognitive therapy
c. Behavior therapy
d. Psychoanalysis
21. What is the primary assumption of
humanistic therapy?
a. People can solve their own
problems if they accept themselves
 b. People need strict advice and
interpretation from the therapist
c. People must confront their
unconscious conflicts
d. People need to focus on irrational
thoughts
22. What is the guiding assumption of
family systems therapy?
a. Most problems develop outside
the family setting
b. Family relationships have no
impact on individual problems
c. Most problems develop within a
family setting, and improving family
relationships can help
d. Family systems therapy is
ineffective
23. What is eclectic therapy?
a. A type of therapy that combines
multiple methods and approaches
b. A therapy that focuses on a single
treatment approach
c. A therapy that only addresses
biological factors
d. A therapy that excludes cognitive
and emotional components
24. What is brief therapy?
a. A therapy that lasts for several
years
b. A therapy with no time limit
c. A therapy that sets a time limit for
treatment
d. A therapy for severe psychological
disorders
25. What is the primary difference
between group therapy and self-help
groups?
a. Group therapy involves a
therapist, while self-help groups do not
b. Self-help groups have no structure
or goals
c. Group therapy is more effective
than self-help groups
d. Self-help groups are always
facilitated by a therapist
26. In terms of effectiveness, what is
the average outcome for people in
therapy compared to those not in
therapy?
a. People in therapy usually worsen
over time
b. People in therapy improve more
than those not in therapy
c. There is no significant difference
between the two groups
d. Therapy is only effective for
specific disorders
27. Which concept is NOT shared by
various types of therapy?
a. Caring therapist-client relationship
b. Self-understanding
c. Improving clients' morale
d. Exclusive focus on medication
28. What is deinstitutionalization?
a. The process of committing
individuals to mental hospitals
involuntarily
b. The removal of patients from
mental hospitals for less restrictive care
c. The process of releasing patients
from mental hospitals without
alternative care
d. The standardization of psychiatric
care
29. What is the purpose of laws on
involuntary commitment to mental
hospitals?
a. To ensure treatment for those who
need it while protecting the rights of
those who refuse it
b. To commit anyone with a mental
disorder to a hospital
c. To provide therapy for all
individuals in distress
d. To limit the rights of individuals
with psychological disorders
30. What is the duty to warn in
psychotherapy?
a. The therapist's duty to maintain
confidentiality at all costs
b. The therapist's duty to report any
thoughts of violence or harm expressed
by the client
c. The therapist's duty to protect the
rights of the client
d. The therapist's duty to provide free
therapy
31. What is the insanity defense in the
legal context?
a. A defense strategy based on
medical and psychological evaluations
b. A defense strategy based on the
client's mental illness
c. A legal concept used to excuse
defendants with severe psychological
disorders
d. A medical concept used to treat
individuals with criminal tendencies
32. Which of the following describes
prevention of psychological disorders?
a. Identifying a disorder in its early
stages and relieving it
b. Avoiding a disorder from the start
c. Preventing psychological
disorders is not possible
d. Providing treatment only after the
disorder has progressed significantly
33. What does intervention involve in
preventing psychological disorders?
a. Preventing psychological
disorders in their early stages
b. Avoiding a disorder from the start
c. Taking steps to keep a disorder
from becoming more serious
d. Treating only those with severe
psychological disorders
34. What do community psychologists
focus on in the prevention of
psychological disorders?
a. Preventing disorders at the
individual level
b. Providing therapy for individuals
with severe disorders
c. Focusing on the needs of large
groups rather than individuals
d. Researching the causes of
psychological disorders
35. What percentage of U.S.
psychotherapists practice eclectic
therapy?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
36. Why is brief therapy appropriate in
many cases?
a. It provides long-term treatment for
severe disorders
b. It helps clients understand their
unconscious thoughts
c. It sets a time limit for treatment
without compromising effectiveness
d. It is the only treatment option for
psychological disorders
37. In community psychology, what is
prevention primarily focused on?
a. Individual-level interventions
b. Providing therapy to individuals
with psychological disorders
c. The needs of large groups rather
than individuals
d. Researching the causes of
psychological disorders
38. What is the role of self-help groups
in providing support to individuals with
psychological disorders?
a. Self-help groups offer individual
therapy with trained professionals.
b. Self-help groups are not effective
in providing support.
c. Self-help groups operate like
group therapy, with a therapist leading
the sessions.
d. Self-help groups involve
participants both giving and receiving
help without a therapist.
39. Which therapy approach
emphasizes the importance of the
therapist listening with unconditional
positive regard?
a. Humanistic therapy
b. Cognitive therapy
c. Behavior therapy
d. Psychoanalysis
40. What does the term
"deinstitutionalization" refer to?
a. The process of releasing patients
from mental hospitals without
alternative care
b. The process of involuntary
commitment to mental hospitals
c. The removal of patients from
mental hospitals for less restrictive care
d. The process of diagnosing
psychological disorders
41. Which concept is NOT shared by
various types of therapy?
a. Caring therapist-client relationship
b. Self-understanding
c. Promoting self-acceptance
d. Exclusive focus on medication
42. How is the duty to warn typically
used in psychotherapy?
a. To protect the therapist's interests
b. To ensure complete confidentiality
c. To report thoughts of violence or
harm expressed by the client
d. To withhold information from the
client
43. What is the main purpose of laws on
involuntary commitment to mental
hospitals?
a. To limit the rights of individuals
with psychological disorders
b. To provide free therapy to those in
need
c. To protect the rights of individuals
who refuse treatment
d. To ensure treatment for those who
need it while protecting the rights of
others
44. Which therapy approach focuses on
changing irrational thoughts and
beliefs?
a. Humanistic therapy
b. Behavior therapy
c. Cognitive therapy
d. Psychoanalysis
45. In which technique does the client
report everything that comes to mind
without censoring it?
a. Transference
b. Rational-emotive behavior therapy
c. Free association
d. Group therapy
46. What is transference in
psychoanalysis?
a. The transfer of physical symptoms
to the therapist
b. The transfer of behaviors from the
therapist to the client
c. The transfer of behaviors and
feelings onto the therapist from another
important person in the client's life
d. The transfer of unconscious
thoughts to the conscious mind
47. What does Axis II of the DSM-IV
list?
a. Psychological disorders
b. Physical ailments
c. Sociological factors
d. Mental retardation and personality
disorders
48. What is the primary assumption of
humanistic therapy?
a. People who accept themselves as
they are can solve their own problems
b. People need strict advice and
interpretation from the therapist
c. People must confront their
unconscious conflicts
d. People need to focus on irrational
thoughts
49. What is the focus of behavior
therapy?
a. Altering unconscious thoughts
b. Setting specific behavioral goals
c. Enhancing self-understanding
d. Promoting self-acceptance
50. Which approach emphasizes the
importance of a caring therapist-client
relationship and self-understanding?
a. Psychoanalysis
b. Behavior therapy
c. Humanistic therapy by Carl Rogers
d. Cognitive therapy
CHAPTER 16
1. What is a common characteristic of
people with generalized anxiety
disorder?
a. They experience anxiety only in
response to actual dangers.
b. They have occasional episodes of
disabling anxiety.
c. They have a fear of open or public
places.
d. They experience excessive anxiety
throughout the day, even when actual
dangers are low.
2. Which of the following is a
characteristic of panic disorder?
a. A severe fear of open or public
places
b. Frequent periods of relaxation and
low heart rate
c. Frequent episodes of disabling
anxiety and occasional panic attacks
d. A preference for crowded and busy
environments
3. What do people with panic disorder
often develop in addition to their anxiety
and panic attacks?
a. Social phobia
b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Agoraphobia
d. Generalized anxiety disorder
4. Why do phobias and obsessivecompulsive
disorder persist?
a. Because they are highly enjoyable
b. Because people consciously
choose to maintain them
c. Because people do not discover
that their avoidance behaviors are
unnecessary
d. Because they are biologically
determined
5. How are phobias typically learned?
a. Through genetics
b. Through physical trauma
c. Through observation and
experience
d. Through medication
6. What is a common therapy for
phobias?
a. Electroconvulsive therapy
b. Medication
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Electroshock therapy
7. What is an obsession in the context
of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. A repetitive, unwelcome stream of
thought
b. An almost irresistible action
c. A type of hallucination
d. A fear of open places
8. What is a compulsion in the context
of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. A repetitive, unwelcome stream of
thought
b. A habit of avoiding social
interactions
c. A repetitive, almost irresistible
action
d. A tendency to relax excessively
9. Which type of compulsion involves
trying to avoid any type of
contamination?
a. Cleaning
b. Checking
c. Counting
d. Talking
10. What is the definition of substance
dependence (addiction)?
a. The ability to easily quit using a
substance
b. The need to use a substance to
maintain physical health
c. The habitual overuse of a
substance with difficulty or impossibility
of quitting
d. The temporary enjoyment of a
substance
11. What is the difference between
physical dependence and
psychological dependence?
a. Physical dependence is the result
of genetic factors, while psychological
dependence is the result of
environmental factors.
b. Physical dependence involves
strong, repetitive desires for a
substance without physical symptoms
of withdrawal, while psychological
dependence involves experiencing
withdrawal symptoms.
c. Physical dependence is
characterized by a strong desire for a
substance with physical symptoms of
withdrawal, while psychological
dependence does not involve any
withdrawal symptoms.
d. Physical dependence is a desire
for a substance without any physical
symptoms, while psychological
dependence is characterized by a
strong desire for a substance with
physical symptoms.
12. What neurotransmitter is often
stimulated by addictive substances in
the brain?
a. Serotonin
b. Acetylcholine
c. Dopamine
d. GABA
13. Why do some people continue
using drugs frequently despite little
apparent pleasure?
a. They use drugs to escape
displeasure.
b. They use drugs to fit in with a
social group.
c. They use drugs to enhance their
physical health.
d. They use drugs for recreational
purposes only.
14. What is one hypothesis regarding
the motivations behind addiction?
a. People use drugs to enhance their
overall well-being.
b. People use drugs to escape
displeasure.
c. People use drugs to enhance their
physical health.
d. People use drugs to improve their
relationships.
15. Is substance abuse considered a
disease or not?
a. It is considered a disease based
on genetic factors.
b. It is not considered a disease.
c. Whether or not it is considered a
disease depends on the definition of
"disease."
d. It is considered a disease based
on environmental factors.
16. What risk factor is associated with a
predisposition to alcoholism?
a. Having a low tolerance for alcohol
b. Finding that alcohol relieves stress
more than for other people
c. Having a family history of
alcoholism
d. Being a frequent social drinker
17. Which type of alcoholism often
occurs in people with no family history
of the disorder and is generally less
severe?
a. Type I alcoholism
b. Type II alcoholism
c. Type A alcoholism
d. Type B alcoholism
18. What is the most common treatment
for alcoholism in North America?
a. Psychotherapy
b. Medication
c. Alcoholics Anonymous
d. Self-help groups
19. How long does it typically take for
the behavioral effects of antidepressant
drugs to become apparent after starting
treatment?
a. Within minutes
b. Within hours
c. Within a few days
d. Within 2-3 weeks
20. Which of the following is an
example of a selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
a. Prozac
b. Thorazine
c. Nardil
d. Haldol
21. What is the main effect of tricyclic
drugs like imipramine?
a. Blocking the reabsorption of
serotonin
b. Blocking the metabolic breakdown
of neurotransmitters by MAO
c. Blocking the reabsorption of
dopamine, norepinephrine, and
serotonin
d. Stimulating dopamine synapses
22. What is the purpose of
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in the
treatment of depression?
a. To provide relaxation and stress
relief
b. To improve sleep patterns
c. To help patients who fail to
respond to antidepressant drugs
d. To alter brain development before
birth
23. What is the characteristic feature of
bipolar disorder?
a. Continuous depression without
periods of mania
b. Constant, uninhibited activity
without depressive episodes
c. Alternation between periods of
depression and mania
d. A milder degree of mania
compared to depression
24. What is the primary treatment for
bipolar disorder?
a. Antidepressant drugs
b. Antipsychotic drugs
c. Lithium salts
d. Electroconvulsive therapy
25. What distinguishes bipolar II
disorder from bipolar I disorder?
a. The presence of delusions
b. The presence of hallucinations
c. The presence of hypomania
d. The presence of severe mania
26. What warning signs are associated
with an increased risk of suicide?
a. Increased interest in life and
pleasure
b. Social isolation and avoidance of
people
c. Clear communication of feelings
and thoughts
d. Several specific warning signs,
although it is difficult to predict who will
attempt suicide
27. What is a diagnosis of
schizophrenia based on?
a. A single symptom such as
hallucinations
b. The presence of delusions alone
c. Deterioration in everyday
functioning and at least two of the
following symptoms
d. Frequent episodes of anxiety and
panic attacks
28. What is a positive symptom of
schizophrenia?
a. A lack of speech and emotional
expression
b. Impaired ability to take care of
oneself
c. Behaviors that are notable by their
presence
d. The absence of hallucinations
29. What is a negative symptom of
schizophrenia?
a. Delusions and hallucinations
b. A lack of thought disorders
c. A lack of speech and emotional
expression
d. Frequent episodes of mania
30. What is the difference between
positive and negative symptoms of
schizophrenia?
a. Positive symptoms involve a lack
of behaviors, while negative symptoms
involve the presence of unusual
behaviors.
b. Positive symptoms are those that
are present and negative symptoms are
those that are absent.
c. Positive symptoms involve
unusual behaviors, while negative
symptoms involve lack of thought
disorders.
d. Positive symptoms involve a lack
of speech, while negative symptoms
involve a lack of hallucinations.
31. What is a characteristic feature of
the thought disorder of schizophrenia?
a. Enhanced use of abstract
concepts
b. Impaired use of abstract concepts
c. Rapid thinking and creativity
d. A strong grasp of language
32. How many types of schizophrenia
are typically distinguished by
psychologists?
a. One
b. Two
c. Five
d. Ten
33. What is a common characteristic of
catatonic schizophrenia?
a. Incoherent speech and absence of
social relationships
b. Elaborate hallucinations and
delusions
c. Prominent movement disorders,
including rigid inactivity or excessive
activity
d. A mild lingering symptom after
recovery
34. What is a characteristic of
disorganized schizophrenia?
a. Elaborate hallucinations and
delusions
b. Incoherent speech and absence of
social relationships
c. Prominent movement disorders,
including rigid inactivity or excessive
activity
d. A mild lingering symptom after
recovery
35. Which type of schizophrenia is
characterized by incoherent speech,
absence of social relationships, and
odd behavior?
a. Catatonic schizophrenia
b. Paranoid schizophrenia
c. Disorganized schizophrenia
d. Residual schizophrenia
36. What is a current hypothesis
regarding the development of
schizophrenia?
a. It can result from changes in any
of a large number of genes.
b. It can result from a single genetic
factor.
c. It can result from changes in one
specific gene.
d. It is entirely caused by prenatal
environment.
37. What is the neurodevelopmental
hypothesis of schizophrenia?
a. Schizophrenia is entirely caused
by genetics.
b. Schizophrenia is entirely caused
by prenatal environment.
c. Schizophrenia originates with
nervous system impairments due to
genetics or early environment.
d. Schizophrenia originates with
nervous system impairments due to
excessive drug use.
38. What type of brain abnormalities are
often seen in people with
schizophrenia?
a. Severe brain damage
b. Brain abnormalities that do not
affect the prefrontal cortex
c. Mild brain abnormalities,
especially in the prefrontal cortex
d. Perfectly normal brain structure
39. What is the primary effect of
antipsychotic drugs in the treatment of
schizophrenia?
a. Blocking dopamine synapses
b. Blocking serotonin reuptake
c. Stimulating GABA synapses
d. Increasing acetylcholine release
40. What is the primary side effect of
antipsychotic drugs that is
characterized by tremors and
involuntary movements?
a. Tardive dyskinesia
b. Depression
c. Mania
d. Anxiety
41. Which class of antipsychotic drugs,
such as risperidone and clozapine,
relieves schizophrenia without causing
tardive dyskinesia?
a. Typical antipsychotic drugs
b. Selective serotonin reuptake
inhibitors (SSRIs)
c. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
(MAOIs)
42. What is the primary function of
typical antipsychotic drugs like
chlorpromazine?
a. Blocking serotonin reuptake
b. Blocking the reabsorption of
dopamine, norepinephrine, and
serotonin
c. Blocking the metabolic breakdown
of neurotransmitters by MAO
d. Stimulating GABA synapses
43. What is the underlying problem
related to the development of
schizophrenia? d. Rapid, uninhibited activity
a. An excess of glutamate 50. What is an obsession in the context
b. Excessive stimulation of certain of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
types of dopamine synapses a. A repetitive, unwelcome stream of
c. An absence of serotonin thought
d. An excess of acetylcholine b. An almost irresistible action
44. What condition is characterized by c. A type of hallucination
impaired social contact, impaired d. A fear of open places
language, and stereotyped
movements?
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
b. Autism
c. Bipolar Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
45. What is the primary characteristic
feature of autism?
a. Impaired social contact
b. Hallucinations
c. Manic episodes
d. Hallucinations and delusions
46. What is the primary
neurotransmitter affected by addictive
substances in the brain?
a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. GABA
d. Norepinephrine
47. What is the typical approach to
treating alcoholism in North America?
a. Electroconvulsive therapy
b. Self-help groups
c. Medication
d. Bright light therapy
48. What are the similarities between
autism and schizophrenia?
a. They both involve impaired social
contact
b. They both have superficial
characteristics
c. They both involve rapid thinking and
creativity
d. They both require treatment with
antipsychotic drugs
49. What is the primary characteristic
feature of autism?
a. Stereotyped movements
b. Impaired social contact
c. Hallucinations