Math Questions

USTEM Academy
FINAL
2024
Revision
Prepare yourself for the URT
(University Readiness Test)
Exam in English, Science 1, and
Science 2.
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USTEM Academy Final Revision 01018343471
Physics 2021 exam
PASSAGE I:
It was so noisy before the orchestra started to play.
Daughter: It is a great orchestra, but why is it all that haphazard and noisy every time we come early?
Dad: (laughing) Oh no! They are synchronizing their instruments.
Daughter: What do you mean? A great orchestra like this waits to synchronize their instruments in the
theater. Why don't they do it earlier at home?
Dad: They do it together to compare the sound produced by one instrument to another.
Daughter: Oh, do you mean that it is not haphazard and noisy? How come?
Dad: Yes, they base it on a certain instrument that considered the base instrument; one that does not
require any kind of adjustment. Then, it plays a certain tone, and the other instruments play at the same
time with the same tone. If they hear a beat, then it requires adjustment.
Daughter: What is a beat?

Dad: It is a high sound with certain repetitions per second and increases when there is much difference
between the tv.o instruments and vanishes if the two instruments have the same frequency.
Daughter: Can I conclude that the number of repetitions per second is the difference between the two
frequencies of the two instruments?
Dad: Exactly! Also, you must know that we hear the combination of the sound produced from more than
one instrument. We hear the superposition, which may cause a high or low sound according to the
˄𝐿 ˄𝐿
relation: λ = 0,1,2) for the fully constructive interference. or: λ = 0.5, 1.5, 2.5,.) for the fully
destructive interference (where ˄𝐿 is the pass difference. and λ is the wavelength of sound), and it already
happens to our own voices. Each of us have two vocal cords that act as instruments that produce waves.
(Questions 1-5) belong to passage I:

1. If the (Do)=512 Hz, and a violin produces 4 beats compared to a flute which is considered a base
instrument then the frequency of the violin sound is:
A. 512 Hz or 508 Hz
B. 512 Hz or 516 Hz
C. 514 Hz or 510 Hz
D. 516 Hz or 508 Hz
2. If the wavelength of (Re) is 400/9 cm, and the distance between the audience and the first violin is 5
meters and from the second violin is 7 meters then:
A. Interference takes place, and a low frequency sound is produced.
B. Interference takes place, and a high frequency sound is produced.
C. No Interference takes place, and a high frequency sound is produced.
D. No Interference takes place, and a low frequency sound is produced.
3- Beats depend on:

A. The frequency of the first instrument only
B. The frequency of the second instrument only
C. The difference in frequency between the two instruments only
D. The distance between the audience and the instruments only
4- Since we have two vocal cords:

A. Our sound is a single wave.
B. Our sound is two waves.
C. Our sound is the beats due to the two waves.
D. Our sound is the interference of two waves.
5- A stretched string with a frequency of 258 Hz, whose frequencies overlap with the frequencies of a
tuning fork, and 10 beats occur during a period of 5 seconds If the frequency of the string is the higher
frequency, then the frequency of the tuning fork is
A. 247 Hz
B. 258 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 256 Hz
PASSAGE II:
A Thermistor is a type of Resistor whose Resistance strongly depends on Temperature
If there is a linear relationship between current and voltage when a Resistor is placed in the circuit, the
Resistor is considered an Ohmic device. Some Resistors are sensitive to small external temperature
changes and will show a change in Resistance as a result of these temperature changes. These Resistors
are called Thermistors. The change in Resistance exhibited by a Thermistor can be detected by a change
in the observed current at a given voltage.
When power is supplied to Ohm's law circuit, an electric current will flow through the circuit and it can
be measured by an ammeter in milliamps (mA), The voltage responsible for the current can be measured
by a voltmeter and is measured in volts. When a Resistor is placed in a circuit, it dampens the current
flowing through a circuit at a given voltage. The following procedure was performed to investigate
whether different Resistors acted as Ohmic devices in a circuit. The circuit was constructed as shown in
Figure (1)
Figure (1)
After each Resistor was connected to the circuit, the Resistor was submerged in water to detect
any changes in temperature as well as its sensitivity to different beginning temperatures. The power
source was turned on and the voltage of the power source and the resulting current were recorded.
The voltage was changed several times and corresponding current was noted.
Table (1) summarizes the results when three different Resistors were tested at two different
temperatures. In all cases, no change in water temperature was observed after the Resistor was
submerged.
Resistor A Resistor B Resistor C
23 °C 25 °C 23 °C 25 °C 23 °C 25 °C
Voltage Current Current Current Current Current Current
(V) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA)
0.25 25 25 150 150 5 4.5
0.50 50 50 195 195 10 9.0
1.00 100 100 230 230 20 18.0
2.00 200 200 295 295 40 36.0
3.00 300 300 345 345 60 54.0
4.00 400 400 405 405 80 72.0
4.50 450 450 420 420 90 81.0
5.00 500 500 445 445 100 90.0
(Questions 6-10) belong to passage II:

6- During the trials, when the Resistor's temperature was 25°C and the current was measured at 100 mA,
what was the corresponding voltage?
A. 1.00 volt
B. 2.00 volts
C. 3.00 volts
D. 5.00 volts
7. When the voltage was 4.50 volts and the temperature was 23 °C, what was the current when Resistor C
was used?
A. 60 mA
B. 72 mA
C. 81 mA
D. 90 mA
8- Of the three Resistors used in the trials, which would be considered an Ohmic device but not a
Thermistor?
A. Resistor A and Resistor B only
B. Resistor A only
C. Resistor B only
D. Resistor C only
9- At a temperature of 25 °C, what voltage would produce a current of 126 mA if Resistor C is used?
A. 5.50 volts
B. 6.00 volts
C. 7.00 volts
D. 8.00 volts
10- If the water temperature had increased after submerging Resistor B, which of the following statements
would have been most accurate?
A. The fact that the water temperature increased after submerging Resistor B shows that Resistor B is a
thermistor.
B. Since the measured current was the same when the initial water temperature was 23 °C as when it was
25 °C, Resistor B is not a Thermistor.
C. The fact that the water temperature increased after submerging Resistor B shows that Resistor B is not
an Ohmic device.
D. Since the measured current was the same when the initial water temperature was 23 °C as when it was
25 °C, resistor B is an Ohmic device.
PASSAGE III:
It is interesting to speculate on how far the particle model of light may be carried. Encouraged by the
successful particle explanation of the photoelectric and Compton effects, one may ask whether the photon
possesses an effective gravitational mass, and whether photons will be attracted gravitationally by large
masses, such as those of the Sun or Earth, and experience an observable change in energy.
To investigate these questions, knowing that the photon has zero mass, but its effective inertial mass, m,
may reasonably be taken to be the mass equivalent of the photon energy
𝐸 ℎ𝑣
E, or m¡ = =
𝐶2 𝐶2
The same result is obtained if we divide the photon momentum by the photon's speed
𝑃 ℎ𝑣
c: m¡ = =
𝐶 𝐶2
knowing that the effective inertial mass determines how the photon responds to an applied force such as
that exerted on it during a collision with an electron. The gravitational mass of an object determines the
force of gravitational attraction of that object to another, such as the Earth. Although it is a remarkable
unexplained fact in Newtonian mechanics that the inertial mass of all material bodies is equal to the
gravitational mass to within one part in 1012, Einstein's Equivalence Principle of general relativity
requires this result.
Let us assume that the photon, like other objects, also has a gravitational mass equal to its inertial mass.
In this case a photon falling from a height H should increase in energy by mgH and therefore increase in
frequency, although its speed cannot increase and remains at c. In fact, experiments have been carried out
that show this increase in frequency and confirm that the photon indeed has an effective gravitational
mass of hflc2.
An expression for ƒ ' in terms of ƒ may be derived by applying conservation of energy to the photon at
points A and B.
KEB + PEB = KEA + PEA
Because the photon's kinetic energy is E = pc = hf and its potential energy is mgH, where m = hflc2, we
have: hƒ '+ 0= hƒ + (hflc2) gH
or:
𝑔𝐻
ƒ' = ƒ (1+ 𝐶2
)
The fractional change in frequency is given by:

∆ƒ ƒ′ −ƒ 𝑔𝐻
= =
ƒ ƒ 𝐶2
This incredibly small increase in frequency has been measured (with difficulty)!
(Questions 11-15) belong to passage III:
11- Electron and photon are common in ...
A. both can gain energy.
B. both can increase their mass.
C. both are accompanied with electromagnetic waves.
D. both can affect by magnetic field.
12- According to the properties of photon, which of the following statement is correct?
A. It can gain energy increasing its speed.
B. It can lose energy decreasing its wavelength.
C. It can gain energy increasing its mass.
D. It can lose energy decreasing its frequency.
13- What will happen to the frequency of photons when light ray travel from sun to earth?
A. Increases then remains constant, then decreases.
B. Decreases then remains constant then increases.
C. Increases then remains constant then increases again.

D. Decreases then remains constant then decreases again.
14- When a photon travels vertically upwards, what will be the effect of the elevation of its nature?
A. Increases its mass and its velocity.
B. Decreases its mass and its velocity.
C. Increases its mass while its velocity will not affect.
D. Decreases its mass while its velocity will not affect.
15- The ratio between the increase of photons frequency to the initial frequency, depends on
A. directly proportional to the velocity of photon.
B. directly proportional to the initial frequency of photon
C. directly proportional to the traveling distance
D. directly proportional to the altitude of new position.
PASSAGE IV:
To measure the average speed, students performed three studies by using a flat surface and a remote-
controlled car with different types of wheels. Each study was conducted indoors in a temperature-
controlled room. A straight track was constructed and measured to be 15 meters long. The car's travel time
was measured from start to finish with a stopwatch. The temperature in the room was kept constant at
10°C and the surface was returned to its original condition after each trial. No modifications were made to
the car aside from changing the wheels, and the car's batteries were fully charged before each trial.
Study (1):
The students fitted the car with hard rubber wheels, which had deep treads, and placed it on the surface.
One student started the car as another student simultaneously started the stopwatch. The student stopped
the stopwatch as the car crossed the 15-meter mark. The students calculated the results of three separate
trials and averaged the results as shown in Table (1).
Table (1)
Trial Time (s) Speed (m/s)
1 4.56 0.66
2 4.64 0.65
3 4.50 0.67
Avarage 4.57 0.66
Study (2):
The students repeated the procedure used in Study (1), except they fitted the car with soft rubber wheels,
which were smooth and lacked treads. The results are shown in Table (2).

1 11.40 0.26
2 11.28 0.27
3 11.32 0.26
Avarage 11.30 0.26
Study (3):
The students repeated the procedure used in Study (1), except they fitted the car with hard rubber wheels,
which had studs imbedded into them instead of treads. The results are shown in Table (3).
Table (3)
1 2.26 1.33
2 2.32 1.29
3 2.42 1.24
Avarage 2.33 1.29
(Questions 16-20) belong to passage IV:
16- The use of which wheels resulted in the fastest recorded average speed?
A. The speeds remained constant.
B. Hard rubber wheels with studs.
C. Soft rubber wheels with no treads.
D. Hard rubber wheels with deep treads.
17- According to Study (1), the average speed for all three trials was:
A. greater than the speed measured in Trial (3).
B. less than the speed measured in Trial (1).
C. greater than the speed measured in Trial (2).
D. equal to the speed measured in Trial (2).
18- Which of the following statements is best supported by the results of all three studies?
A. The average speed of a car with deeply treaded hard rubber wheels is approximately half the average
speed of a car with soft rubber wheels.
B. The average speed of a car with studded, hard rubber wheels is approximately half the average speed
of a car with deeply treaded hard rubber wheels.
C. The average speed of a car with soft rubber wheels lacking treads is approximately twice the average
speed of a car with deeply treaded hard rubber wheels.
D. The average speed of a car with studded, hard rubber wheels is approximately twice the average speed
of a car with deeply treaded hard rubber wheels.
19- Based on the passage, the higher average speeds were probably the result of:
A. greater friction.
B. temperature variations.
C. too much sunlight.
D. statistical error.
20- During which of the following was the travel time of the car the slowest?
A. Study 2, Trial 1
B. Study 2, Trial 2
C. Study 3, Trial 1
D. Study 1, Trial 2
PASSAGE V:
Students conducted experiments to study the effects of temperature on density. In the experiments, each
flask was filled to the top with either distilled water or salty (NaCl) water at 20 °C.
A rubber stopper with 2 holes, one fitted with a thermometer and the other fitted
with glass tubing, was placed in the neck of the flask (as shown in figure).
The initial height of the liquid in the tubing was adjusted to 25 mm above the top
of the stopper.
Experiment (1):
A flask filled with distilled water was slowly heated. As the temperature of the water increased, the height
of the water in the tubing increased. At 100°C, water and steam squirted out the top of the tubing.
Experiment (2):
The body of a flask filled with distilled water was submerged in a cold bath at -6 °C. As the temperature
of the water in the apparatus decreased, the height of the water in the tubing decreased. At 4 °C, the height
of the water in the tubing stopped decreasing, and then began to increase. At 0 °C, water and ice were
forced out the top of the tubing. Eventually, the flask cracked in several places.
Experiment (3):
Two salty water solutions were prepared. Solution I had a lower salt concentration (in gm/mL) than did
Solution II. Two flasks containing Solutions I and II, respectively, were slowly heated. In both flasks, the
salt water in the tubing rose and then squirted out the top of the tubing (at 102 °C for Solution I and at 104
°C for Solution II). Two flasks containing Solutions I and II, respectively. were cooled as in Experiment
(2). In both flasks, the height of the salt water in the tubing decreased until the temperature reached -6 °C
and then remained level (no freezing occurred).
(Questions 21-25) belong to passage V:

21- Water in the upper part of a hypothetical (2) compartment container is at 10
°C, and water in the lower part is at 80 °C, as shown in the igure below. If the
barrier separating the 2 compartments could be removed without disturbing the
water, what mixing, if any, would occur?
A. No mixing would occur, because the water in the upper part of the container is
denser than the water in the lower part of the container.
B. No mixing would occur, because the water in the upper part of the container is less dense than the
water in the lower part of the container.
C. Mixing would occur, because the water in the lower part of the container is denser than the water in the
upper part of the container.
D. Mixing would occur, because the water in the lower part of the container is less dense than the water in
the upper part of the container.
22- Based on the results of Experiments (1) and (3), 1 L of distilled water with which of the following
quantities of NaCl added to it would most likely boil at the lowest temperature?
A.0 gm
B. 10 gm
C. 20 gm
D. 30 gm
23. Which of the following changes in the procedure of Experiment (3) would have provided the most
information about the effect of decreasing temperature on the density of salt water?
A. Using a bath at -3 °C to cool the flask.
B. Using a bath at -13 °C to cool the flask.
C. Using a larger flask.
D. Using a smaller flask.
24- Suppose that equal volumes of Solutions I and II from Experiment (3) were mixed and the resulting
solution was then tested as in Experiment (1). Salt water would most likely have started to squirt out of
the top of the tubing when the temperature was:
A. less than 100 °C
B. between 100 °C and 102 °C.
C. between 102 °C and 104 °C.
D. greater than 104 °C.
25- As the height of the water in the glass tubing decreased in Experiment (2), which of the following
properties of the water in the apparatus also changed?
I. Volume-
II. Mass
III. Density
A. I only.
B. I and II only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II, and III.
Chemistry 2021 Exam
PASSAGE I:
In 1864, Cato Maximilian Guldberg (1836-1902) and Peter Waage (1833-1900) postulated their law of
mass action, which expresses, for any reaction, the relationship between the concentrations of the
reactants and products presents at equilibrium. Suppose we have the general equilibrium equation: a A + b
B ↔ d D+e E
where A, B, D, and E are the chemical species involved and a, b, d, and e are their coefficients in the
balanced chemical equation. According to the law of mass action, the equilibrium condition is described
by the
{𝐷}𝑑 {𝐸}𝑒
expression Kc= {𝐴}𝑎 {𝐵}𝑏
We call this relationship the equilibrium-constant expression (or merely the equilibrium expression) for
the reaction. The constant Kc, the equilibrium constant, is the numerical value obtained when we
substitute molar equilibrium concentrations into the equilibrium-constant expression. The subscript c on
the K indicates that concentrations expressed in molarity are used to evaluate the constant.
The numerator of the equilibrium-constant expression is the product of the concentrations of all
substances on the product side of the equilibrium equation, each raised to a power equal to its coefficient
in the balanced equation. The denominator is similarly derived from the reactant side of the equilibrium
equation. Thus, for the Haber process,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g)
The equilibrium-constant expression is
{𝑁𝐻3 }2
Kc = {𝑁2 }{𝐻2 }3
The equilibrium-constant expression depends only on the stoichiometry of the reaction, not on its
mechanism.
In this way equilibrium-constant expressions are different from rate laws. The value of the equilibrium
constant at any given temperature does not depend on the initial amounts of reactants and products. It also
does not matter whether other substances are present, as long as they do not react with a reactant or a
product. The value of Kc. depends only on the particular reaction and on the temperature.
The law of mass action was discovered empirically and demonstrate that the equilibrium constant is
independent of starting concentrations by examining a series of experiments involving dinitrogen
tetroxide and nitrogen dioxide:
{𝑁𝑂2 }2
𝑁2 𝑂4 ←→ 2 𝑁𝑂2(𝑔) , Kc = {𝑁 .
2 𝑂4 }
We start with several sealed tubes containing different concentrations of 𝑁𝑂2 and 𝑁2 𝑂4 .
The tubes are kept at 100 °C until equilibrium is reached. We then analyze the mixtures and determine the
equilibrium concentrations of 𝑁𝑂2 and 𝑁2 𝑂4 , which are shown in Table (1).
To evaluate Kc, we insert the equilibrium concentrations into the equilibrium constant.
TABLE 1 Initial and Equilibrium Concentrations of N2O4(9) and NO2(9) at 100 °C
Experiment Initial [N204] Initial [NO2] Equilibrium Equilibrium Kc

(M) (M) [N204] (M) [NO2] (M)
1 0.0 0.0200 0.00140 0.0172 0.211

2 0.0 0.0300 0.00280 0.0243 0.211
3 0.0 0.0400 0.00452 0.0310 0.213

4 0.0200 0.0 0.00452 0.0310 0.213
Questions (26-29) belong to passage I

26- According to the passage: For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ↔ 2 SO3(g), which of the following is the
correct equilibrium- constant expression?
{𝑆𝑂2 }2 {𝑂2 }
A. Kc = {𝑆𝑂3 }2
2{𝑆𝑂2 } {𝑂2 }
B. Kc = 2{𝑆𝑂3 }
{𝑆𝑂3 }2
C. Kc=
{𝑆𝑂2 }2 {𝑂2 }
2{𝑆𝑂3 }
D. Kc= 2{𝑆𝑂2 }2 {𝑂2 }
27- Based on the passage, the value of the equilibrium constant depends on......
A. The initial amounts of reactants.
B. Whether other substances are present.
C. The particular reaction and on the temperature.
D. The initial amounts of products.
28- According the table (1), which Experiment shows that equilibrium can be achieved beginning with
N2O4 rather than with NO2?
A. Experiment 1.
R. Experiment 2.
C. Experiment 3.
D. Experiment 4.
29- The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2O4(g) ↔ 2NO2(g) at 2 °C is Kc = 2.0. If each yellow
sphere represents 1 mol of N2O4 and each brown sphere 1mol of NO2 which of the following 1.0 L
containers represents the equilibrium mixture at 2 °C?
A. 4 yellow spheres, 8 brown spheres
B. 8 yellow spheres, 4 brown spheres
C. 6 yellow spheres, 2 brown spheres
D. 2 yellow spheres, 6 brown spheres
PASSAGE II:
Heat of fusion is the amount of heat energy required to change the state of matter of a substance from a
solid to a liquid. It's also known as enthalpy of fusion. Its units are usually Joule per gram (J/g) or calory
per gram (Cal/g).
The molar heat of fusion is the amount of heat necessary to melt 1.00 mole of a substance at its melting
point at a constant pressure. The molar heat of fusion for water is 6.02 kilo joules per mole (kJ/mol).
The formula to calculate heat of fusion is 𝑞 = 𝑚 𝑥 ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠
Where: q = heat energy, m = mass, ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 = heat of fusion
The following table lists molar heats of fusion, boiling points, and melting points for several elements.
Element Melting point (℃) Boiling point (℃) ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 (KJ/mol)

Zinc 419.73 907 7.35
Magenesium 649 1090 8.7
Aluminum 660.25 2519 10.7
Copper 1084.6 2562 13.1
Measured at a pressure of 1 atmosphere (atm)
Question (30-35) belong to passage II

30- According to the passage, ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of water:
A. is less than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Zinc.
B. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Magnesium.
C. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Copper.
D. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Aluminum.
31- According to the passage, if the heat of fusion of water is 80 Cal/g, the amount of heat energy
required to change 15.0 grams of ice at 0°C to 15.0 grams of water at 0°C is.....
A. 5.300 Cal.
B. 66.66 Cal.
C. 1200 Cal.
D. 2400 Cal.
32- The energy required to melt 2.00 mole of Copper at 1084.6°C and constant pressure of 1 atm is:
A. 21.4 kJ
B. 26.2 kJ
C. 5038 KJ
D. 2.562 kJ
33- The boiling point of Cadmium is 767°C. If Cadmium follows the general pattern of the other elements
in the table, its heat of fusion would be:
A. between 6.0 and 7.0 kJ/mol.
B. between 7.0 and 9.0 kJ/mol.
C. between 9.0 and 11.0 kJ/mol.
D. between 11.0 and 13.0 kJ/mol.
34- Molar heat of fusion is directly related to the strength of the forces that hold molecules together;
strong forces make it difficult for molecules to break away into the liquid or gaseous phase. Data in the
table support the conclusion that those forces are stronger in:
A. Zinc than in magnesium.
B. Magnesium than in copper.
C. Copper than in zinc.
D. Aluminum than in copper.
35- It was hypothesized that the heat of fusion will increase as the boiling point increases. Based on the
data in the table, which of the following pairs of elements support(s) this hypothesis?
I. copper and Aluminum
II. Water and Zinc
III, magnesium and copper
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
PASSAGE III:
Radioactive decay is the process in which a radioactive atom spontaneously gives off radiation in the
form of energy or particles to reach a more stable state. Some radionuclides go through a series of
transformations before they reach a stable state. For example, Uranium-238 ultimately transforms into a
stable atom of Lead) But in the process, several types of radioactive atoms are generated. This is called a
decay chain. When Uranium-238 decays, it produces several isotopes. As show in Figure (1).
The radioactive isotope (chemical element) spontaneously decays into another element. The unstable
nucleus disintegrates by emitting alpha or beta particles, or gamma rays. This process changes the
composition of the nucleus and continues to take place until a stable nucleus is
reached. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half (50%) of the atoms in a sample to decay.
Figures (2) and (3) show the decay of Radon 222 and Mercury 206.
Figure (2) the decay from Radon 222 to Polonium 218 and other decay product
Figure (3) the decay from Mercury 206 to Thallium 206 to Lead 206.
Table (1) decay products and associated energy in MeV, million electron volts, and the type of particle
emitted from the decay.
Table 1
Question (36-41) belong to passage III

36- According to Figure (1), Uranium-238 decays to lead-207 through a series of nuclear reactions. Only
a particles and B particles are emitted. How many a particles are emitted?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
37. According to Figure (2), what is the approximate half-life of Radon 222?
A. 2 days
B. 4 days
C. 8 days
D. 10 days.
38- Based on Table (1), what is the relationship between decay energy and the type of particle emitted?
A. Alpha particles tend to have lower decay energies.
B. Alpha particles tend to have higher decay energies.
C. Beta particles tend to have higher decay energies.
D. There is no apparent relationship between type of particle and decay energy
39- According to the data in Table (1), When Radium- 225 decays into Actinium 225, the decay energy is
1.42 MeV., the decay particle type is most likely:
A. An alpha particle.
B. A beta particle.
C. Similar to that of Radon 222.
D. Extremely stable.
40- According to Figure (3), approximately when do Mercury 206 and lead 206 have the same percent of
atoms remaining?
A. In 3 min
B. In 7 min
C. In 8 min.
D. In 10 min
41- What statement best explains the meaning of the shape of the Radon 222 curve in Figure (2) and the
Mercury 206 curve in Figure (3)?
A. The rate of decay is erratic.
B. The rate of decay starts off slowly and then speeds up.
C. The rate of decay occurs very quickly at first and slows as the number of atoms is reduced.
D. The rate of decay occurs at a fairly steady rate over time.
PASSAGE IV:
The extent to which one substance dissolves in another depends on the nature of both substances. It also
depends on temperature and, at least for gases, on pressure.
The natural tendency of substances to mix and the various interactions among solute and solvent particles
are all involved in determining solubilities. Nevertheless, insight into variations in solubility can often be
gained by focusing on the interaction between the solute and solvent. The data in Table (1) show that the
attractive forces between the gas molecules and solvent molecules are mainly dispersion forces, which
increase with increasing size and molecular mass. Thus, the solubilities of gases in water increase as the
attraction between solute (gas) and solvent (water) increases. In general, when other factors are
comparable, the stronger the attractions between solute and solvent molecules, the greater the solubility of
the solute in that solvent.
Because of favorable dipole-dipole attractions between polar solvent molecules and polar solute
molecules, polar liquids tend to dissolve in polar solvents. Water is both polar and able to form hydrogen
bonds. Thus, polar molecules, especially those that can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, tend
to be soluble in water.
TABLE 1 Solubilities of Gases in Water at 20°C, at 101.3 kPa Gas Pressure.
Gas Molar mass (g.mol) Solubility (M)

N2 28.0 0.69 𝑥 10−3
O2 32.0 1.38 𝑥 10−3
Ar 39.9 1.50 𝑥 10−3
Kr 83.8 2.79 𝑥 10−3
Liquids that mix in all proportions, such as acetone and water, are miscible, whereas those that do not
dissolve in one another are immiscible. Gasoline, which is a mixture of hydrocarbons, is immiscible with
water. The attraction between the polar water molecules and the nonpolar hydrocarbon molecules is not
sufficiently strong to allow the formation of a solution.
Many organic compounds have polar groups attached to a nonpolar framework of carbon and hydrogen
atoms. Table (2) all contain the polar (OH) group. Organic compounds with this molecular feature are
called alcohols.
One way to enhance the solubility of a substance in water is to increase the number of polar groups the
substance contains. For example, increasing the number of (OH) groups in a solute increases the extent of
hydrogen bonding between that solute and water, thereby increasing solubility.
Over years of study, examination of different solvent-solute
combinations has led to an important generalization: "like dissolves like."
TABLE (2) Solubilities of Some Alcohols in Water and in Hexane*
Alcohol Solubility in H2O Solubility in C6H14

CH3OH (methanol) ∞ 0.12
CH3CH2OH (ethanol) ∞ ∞
CH3CH2CH2OH (Propanol) ∞ ∞
CH3CH2CH3CH2OH (Butanol) 0.11 ∞
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH (Pentanol) 0.030 ∞
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2OH (Hexanol) 0.0058 ∞
Solubility in H2O: expressed in mol alcohol/100 g solvent at 20 °C. The infinity symbol (oo): indicates
that the alcohol is completely miscible with the solvent. dissolve
The solubilities of solids and liquids are not appreciably affected by pressure, whereas the solubility of a
gas in any solvent is increased as the partial pressure of the gas above the solvent increases. We can
understand the effect of pressure on gas solubility by considering Figure (1).
Figure (1) Effect of pressure on gas solubility

The relationship between pressure and gas solubility is expressed by Henry's law: Sg=kPg
where, Sg: is the solubility of the gas in the solvent (usually expressed as molarity),
Pg: is the partial pressure of the gas over the solution, and k: is a proportionality constant known as the
Henry's law constant. The value of this constant depends on the solute, solvent, and temperature.
The temperature of solution affects in the solubility of most solid and gaseous solutes in water as shown
in Figure (2) and Figure (3).
Figure (2) Solubilities of some lonic Figure 3 Solubilities of four gases in water
compounds in water as a function of as a function of temperature. The
temperature. solubilities are in millimoles per liter et
solution, for a constant total pressure of 1
atm in the gas phase
(Questions 42-50) belong to passage IV

42- According to Table (1) the solubilities of gases in water at 20°C, at 101.3 KP. decrease by....
A. Increase the molar mass of gas.
B. Decrease the molar mass of gas.
C. Increase the size of gas.
D. Decrease the size of gas.
43- According to Table (2), arrange the following substances in order of increasing solubility in water:
C5H12 - C5H11OH - C5H10(OH)2 - C5H11Cl.
A. C5H11OH < C5H10(OH)2 < C5H12 < C5H11CI
B. C5H11CI < C5H11OH < C5H10(OH)2 < C5H12
C. C5H10(OH)2 < C5H11OH < C5H11CI < C5H12
D. C5H12 < C5H11CI < C5H11OH < C5H10(OH)2
44-In Figure (1), if the pressure of a gas over the solution is doubled, the concentration of a gas in the
solution would
A. Same without any change.
B. Half.
C. Double.
D. Triple.
45- Calculate the concentration of CO; in a soft drink that is bottled with a partial pressure of CO2 of
(0.41 MP over the liquid at 25°C, the Henry's law constant for CO2 in water at this temperature is 3.4x10
mol/m3. P.
A. 0.14 M
B. 0.28 M
C. 0.41M
D. 0.82M
46- You double the partial pressure of a gas over a liquid at constant temperature. Which of these
statements is then true?
A. The Henry's law constant is doubled.
B. The Henry's law constant is decreased by half.
C. There are half as many gas molecules in the liquid.
D. There are twice as many gas molecules in the liquid.
47- According to Figure(2), at temperature 50°C, the more soluble ionic compound is......
A. K2Cr2O7
B. KCI
C. Pb(NO3)2
D. NaNO3
48- In Figure (3), between which two gases would you expect (N2) to fit on this graph?
A. Between CH4 and O2
B. Between O2 and CO
C. Between CO and He
D. Between CH4 and CO
49. According to the passage, predict whether each of the following substances is more likely to dissolve
in the nonpolar solvent carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) or in water (H2O):
C7H16, Na2SO4, HCI and I2.
A. I2 and C7H16 would be more soluble in CCl4, whereas water would be better for Na2SO4 and HCI
B. C7H16 and HCI would be more soluble in CCL4, whereas water would be better for Na2SO4 and I2.
C. HCL and Na2SO4 would be more soluble in CCl4, whereas water would be better for C7H16 and I2
D. HCL and I2 would be more soluble in CCl4, whereas water would be better for Na2SO4 and C7H16
50- From figures (2) and (3), you can conclude that:
A. The solubility of most solid solutes in water increases as the temperature increases and the solubility of
gas solutes in water increases as the temperature increases
B. The solubility of most solid solutes in water decreases as the temperature increases and the solubility
of gas solutes in water decreases as the temperature increases
C. The solubility of most solid solutes in water increases as the temperature increases, but the solubility of
gas solutes in water doesn't change as the temperature increases
D. The solubility of most solid solutes in water increases as the temperature increases, but the solubility
of gas solutes in water decreases as the temperature increases
Physics 2020 exam
PASSAGE I:
In October 2012, Felix Baumgartner. an Austrian skydiver, ascended 39 km to
the stratosphere in a capsule carried by a balloon. Ar 39 km above sea level, he
stepped out of the capsule and fell to Earth and landed in New Mexico, USA.
On that day he broke several records, includi ng highest freefall and fastest
speed in a freefall which was estimated as 1.357.64 km/h. Felix was the first
human who travels faster than the speed of sound without machine assistance.
The speed of sound is measured in Mach (1 Mach 310 m/s).
Figure (1): Felix Jump

As Felix fell through air, the force of gravity caused him to continuously speed up. During falling, he
experienced an air resistance (a drag force) that acted upward and opposed the force of gravity.
This air resistance depends basically on the size and shape of the falling object. objects with a large
surface area (like a parachute) will have a much lower terminal velocity than objects with a smaller
surface area (like a person falling from a plane).
Also, the air resistance depends on several factors, including the speed at which the object is falling (v),
the surface area of the object (A), the density of the air (d) and the drag coefficient (C), which is
determined by how aerodynamic the object is. The air resistance (R) can be expressed as:
R=1/2 × d × A × C × v2
The most important factor in determining the air drag force is the velocity of the object. As it speeds up,
the drag force gets bigger and bigger. Accordingly, the air resistance to Felix's motion increased as he got
faster and faster. Eventually he went so fast that the air resistance became exactly equal to the force of
gravity that was causing him to speed up. At that point, the two forces were balanced, and the net force
acting on bim equal to zero he did not speed up any more but continued
to fail at the same con velocity. This constant velocity is called the terminal velocity.
Figure (2) ilustrates changes to Felix's velocity with altitude and also the velocity of sound at that altitude
as a reference.
Figure (2) Felix's velocity with altitude and the velocity of sound
Questions (1-7) refers to Passage (I):
1. What causes a falling object to reach a terminal velocity?

A. The air resistance decreases until it becomes equal to the force of gravity.
B. The air resistance increases until it becomes equal to the force of gravity.
C. The force of gravity increases until it becomes equal to the air resistance.
D. The force of gravity decreases until it becomes equal to the air resistance
2. Refering to figure (2). Felix moved at a velocity higher than Mach for vertical distance of
A. about 11.0 km.
B. about 28.0 km
C. about 33.5 km
D. about 39.0 και
3. Referring to figure (2), the drag force due to the air resistance against Felix's motion as he fell freely
was the greatest at the point:
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
4. What do you expect to happen to Felix's velocity when he opened the parachute?
A. It remained constant at a terminal velocity equal to 50 m/s.
B. It remained constant at a terminal velocity slightly greater than 50 m/s.
C. It increased till reaching a terminal velocity higher than 50 m/s.
D. It dropped till reaching a terminal velocity much less than 50 m/s.
5. What reason causes the speed of sound to increase as the altitude decreases?
A. the decrease in air density.
B. the increase in air density.
C. the increase in force of gravity.
D. the increase in free fall acceleration.
6. Two skydivers who weigh the same were dropped from a plane at
the same time. The skydiver (V) dived pointing almost vertically,
while the skydiver (H), stretched his body almost horizontally.
Five seconds later. (before they open parachute):
A. They reach the same terminal velocity.
B. They move at the same acceleration.
C. The skydiver (H) experiences a greater acceleration.
D. The skydiver (V) experiences a greater acceleration.
7. Which graph would represent the acceleration of motion if Felix

repeated a similar skydive 39 km high above the surface of the moon?
PASSAGE II:
Some investigations are carried out to explore the rate of heating and cooling in different circumstances.
Investigation (1):
The temperature inside a parked car can dramatically rise to life-threatening levels especially if the sun is
shining. That contradicts the idea that a parked car can be a safe place for a child or per.
The air temperature outside a parking car on a sunny day was recorded. Also, the temperature inside the
car was recorded every 10 minutes over an hour. The process was repeated on different days. (as shown in
Table 1).
Table 1
Air temperature Day (1) Day (2) Day (3) Day (4) Day (5)
21.1°C 23.8°C 26.7°C 29.4°C 32.2°C
outside the car
Elapsed time Air Temperture inside the car

(minutes) Day (1) Day (2) Day (3) Day (4) Day (5)
10 31.7°C 34.4°C 37.3°C 40.0°C 42.8°C
20 37.2°C 40.0°C 42.8°C 45.6°C 48.3°C
30 40.0°C 42.8°C 45.6°C 48.3°C 51.1°C
40 42.2°C 45.0°C 47.8°C 50.6°C 53.3°C
50 43.9°C 46.6°C 49.4°C 52.2°C 55.0°C
60 45.0°C 47.6°C 50.6°C 53.3°C 56.1°C
Investigation (2):
The rate of heat loss from liquid was investigated. The volume of liquid in a calorimeter that had initial
temperature 42 °C each time in the experiment was varied. The temperature of water was measured once
every 60 seconds for a period of 5 minutes in the experiment, assuming that the surrounding temperature
was kept constant and the experiment was carried out under the same conditions. Table (2) shows the
results of the investigation.
Table (2)
Time Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature (°C)

(minutes) (°C) of 50 ml (°C) of 75 ml (°C) of 125 ml of 150 ml
0 42.0 42.0 42.0 42.0
1 41.0 41.3 41.8 41.9
2 40.0 40.8 41.3 41.6
3 39.0 40.0 40.5 40.9
4 38.0 39.7 40.1 40.4

5 36.0 38.8 39.4 39.6
Questions (8-16) refers to Passage (II):

8. Based on the data recorded in table (1), what was the most likely air temperature inside the car on the
day (3) after three quarters of an hour since temperature had been recorded?
A. 45.0°C
B.47.2°C
C. 48.8 °C
D. 50.2°C
9- If' a trial was carried out at a temperature of 30°C outside the car, how long would it take for the air
inside the car to reach 42.9 C
A. Less than 10 minutes

B. berween 10-20 minutes
C. between 20-30 minutes
D. between 30-40 minutes
10. Referring to table (1), the average rate of temperature rise over the whole daylong inside the car was:
A. The greatest on day I
B. The greatest on day 3
C. The greatest on day 5
D. The same on all days
11. Based on data in table (1), which graph of the following represents the change in temperature inside the car?
12. What independent variable that affect the rate of cooling is investigated?
A. The type of liquid.
B. Total duration of time.
C. The number of liquid molecules.
D. The initial temperature of the liquid.
13. According to table (2), the quantity of liquid that first reached a temperature of 40.0°C. is
A. 50 ml
B. 75 ml
C. 125 ml
D. 150 ml
14. According to sable (2) the nam of cooling the decrease in temperature per unit sine) during the five-
minute period is the greatest for a quantity of liquid of
A. 150ml
B. 125 ml
C. 75 ml
D. 1250 ml
15. Depending on table (2), the average rase of cooling for 100 mi of liquid over a five-minute period
would have a value.
A. between 0.50-0.52°C per minute
B. between 0.32-0.64°C per minute
C. between 0.64-120 °C per minute
D. more than 1.20 °C per minute
16. According to table (2), when the five-minute period is over, in which quantity of the following the
average kinetic energy of the liquid molecules was the greatest
A. In 50 ml
B. In 75 ml
C. In 125 ml
D. In 150 ml
PASSAGE III:
The action of a simple bi-convex thin lens is govemed by the principles of refraction (Which is a function
of lens curvature radius and refractive index) and-can be
understood with the aid of few simple rules about the geometry
involved in tracing lighs rays through the lens. The distance
between the lens and the object is known as the object Lens
distance, and the distance from the lens to the image is termed the
image distance. Most properties of an image can be defined via its
magnification factor (M).
ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑀𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 = ℎ𝑖ℎ𝑔𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
= 𝑝𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
Two groups of students investigated how variations in the refractive index and rodius of a bi-convex lens
affect the relationship berween the object and the image produced by the lens. Each group used a
symmetrical bi-convex thin lens made of a certain type of glass whose refractive index of 1.50 and a
radius of 70 millimeters, as a default lens, to form an image of the object positioned 140 millimeters from
the lens
Investigation (1):
What change may happen to the action of the lens when lenses of the same type of glass (same refractive
index) but of different radii are used instead of the default Lens?
Investigation (2):
What change may happen to the action of the lens when lenses of the same radius but of different
materials (different refractive indices) are used instead of the default lens?
Trial Refractive Radius of Focal Object Iimage Magnifaction of

(index of lens length of postion of postion of lens
lens lens lens lens
material)
1 1.50 70 mm 70 mm 140 mm 140 mm 1.00

2 1.50 80 mm 80 mm 140 mm 185 mm 1.31
3 1.50 90 mm 89 mm 140 mm 250 mm 1.77
4 1.55 70 mm 63 mm 140 mm 117 mm 0.82
5 1.60 70 mm 58 mm 140 mm 99 mm 0.70

6 1.66 70 mm 54 mm 140 mm 88 mm 0.62
Questions (17-21) refers to Passage (III):

17. As the lens radius is bigger, the lens grows thinner (less rounded) and:
A. its focal length is short.
B. its focal length is long.
C. its refractive index is high.
D. its refractive index is low.
18. Increasing or decreasing the radius of a bi-convex lens affects:
A. The size of the image but not its position.
B. The position of the image but not its size.
C. Both the size and the position of the image.
D. Neither the size nor the position of the image.

19. As the refractive index of the lens material is high, what would happen to the positions of its focal
points?
A. The focal point on either side moves closer to the lens.
B. The focal point on either side moves further away from the lens.
C. The focal points of the lens are fixed points, they remain in position.
D. One focal point moves closer while the other moves apart from the lens.
20. In these investigations that were carried out by the students, what parameter has no influence on the
position of the image formed by the lens?
A. Object Height
B. Thickness of lens
C. Focal Length of lens
D. Refractive index of lens material
21. A student used a symmetrical bi-convex thin lens made of material whose refractive index of 1.50 and
a radius of 70 millimeters, to form an image of an object positioned 140 millimeters from the lens. What
step you make to form an image longer than that object?
A. Increase the object distance by 50 millimeters.
B. Use a lens of material whose refractive index 1.65.
C. Use a lens of focal length 50 millimeters.
D. Use a lens of radius 90 millimeters.
PASSAGE IV:
Magnetic, electrostatic force and gravitational forces are the three fundamental non-contact forces in
nature. In the next discussion, there two points of view about magnetism.
Scientist (1):
Attraction of an iron ring to a loadstone (magnetic stone) can be attributed to a stream of tiny particles
given off this magnetic stone which blows, and expels all the air in the place between the stone and the
iron ring. When air in this area is evacuated and this space is emptied, the particles flowing from the stone
were related in shape to those flowing from the iron, so easily interlocked, and after bounding between
the stone and the iron become entangled and draw the two together. In other word, "Tiny particles
emanating from the loadstone sweep away the air and consequently, the iron ring is drawn to the
loadstone". The point that causes loadstone not able to attract gold is that the gold is too heavy, so it
doesn't move.
Scientist (2):
The atoms in ferromagnetic materials can behave like little magnets. Normally the magnetic fields around
atoms direct randomly resulting in almost nil magnetic. However, if a strong external magnetic field is
applied, atoms will align together to produce a stronger magnetic field in the material. They can also keep
their alignment even if the external field is removed creating a permanent magnet. Ferromagnetic
materials are usually very brittle and will easily chip or fracture if dropped or allowed to slam together.
They will also lose their magnetic properties if heated strongly. All of these actions cause the individual
atoms to lose their alignment.
Questions (22-25) refers to Passage (IV):

22. How a magnetic material is demagnetized can be explained by:
A. Scientist (1) only.
B. Scientist (2) only.
C. Both Scientists.
D. None of them.
23. According to scientist (1)'s point of view, the possible reason for the inability of loadstone to attract
gold is that gold atoms:
A. cannot be aligned.
B. have no magnetic fields.
C. have great atomic weight.
D. are not related in shape to the stone atoms.
24. The inability of a magnet to attract a piece of wood contradicts the argument proposed by:
A. Scientist (1).
B. Scientist (2).
C. Both Scientists.
D. None of them.
25. Both arguments proposed by the two scientists can offer an explanation for:
A. The repulsion that takes place between two like magnetic poles.
B. The suspension of a chain of paper clips by a magnetic pole.
C. The ability of the electric current to magnetize an iron nail.
D. The capability of a magnet to attract an iron nail.
Chemistry 2020 Exam
PASSAGE I:
In solution, solvent molecules tend to move from a region of higher concentration to one of lower
concentration. When two different solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane, in this case the
solvent molecules, a net flow of solvent molecules from the side with higher concentration to the side
with lower concentration will occur. This net flow through the semipermeable membrane produces a
pressure called osmotic pressure, indicated as II. It can be defined as the force that must be applied to
prevent the movement of the solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane.
At a constant temperature, osmotic pressure is dependent only on a solute's ability to dissociate or ionize
in the solvent (van't Hoff factor) and the concentration of solute particles.
Figure (1) shows the effect of the van 't Hoff factor on the osmotic pressure.
The Osmotic pressure can be calculated using the following equation:

17-IMRT where: II- Osmotic pressure, i van't Hoff factor, M- Molar concentration of solution (mol/l), R-
Ideal gas constant (0.0821 L atm mot' K') and T-The temperature in Kelvin (K)
Table (1) records van 't Hoff factor for some common substances. Higher van't Hoff factors correlate with
greater dissociation or ionization.
Table 1
Table 1
Substance van ’t Hoff factor *

Glucose 1.0
NaCl 1.9
MgCl2 2.7
FeCl3 3.4
*Values at 300 K
Questions (26-31) belong to Passage I

26. According to Figure (1), which of the following solutions would exhibit the least osmotic pressure?
A. 0.5 M MgCl2 solution
B. 0.5 M FeCl3 solution
C. 1.0 M Glucose solution
D. 1.0 M NaCl solution
27. What is the Molar concentration of FeCl solution when the osmotic pressure equal 122 atm. At 300
K?
A. 1.20 M.
B. 1.45 M.
C. 2.00 M.
D. 2.60 M.
28. Which of the following solutions would exhibit the closest osmotic pressure to that of a 1.5 M MgCl
solution at 300 K, if the gas constant is 0.0821 L atm mol1 K-1?
A. 0.8 M FeCl3 solution
B. 1.0 M FeCl3 solution
C. 1.5 M NaCl solution
D. 2.1 M NaCl solution
29. 12.5 M solutions of various solutes were prepared, which of the following solutions would have the
highest level of ionization?
A. Glucose.
B. FeCl3
C. MgCl2
D. NaCl.
30. Based on Figure (1), the pressure required to hold solvent concentration across a membrane at
equilibrium will only decrease, as the concentration of solute:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains constant.
D. increases then remains constant.
31. A scientist recently discovered a compound that ionizes readily in solution (i=4.2) and results in low
osmotic pressure. Are the findings of this scientist consistent with Figure (1)?
A. Yes, because FeCl3 causes lower osmotic pressure than glucose.
B. Yes, because FeCl3 causes higher osmotic pressure than glucose.
C. No, because glucose causes lower osmotic pressure than FeCl3.
D. No, because glucose causes higher osmotic pressure than FeCl3.
PASSAGE II:
In the fifth century B.C., the Greek philosopher Democritus expressed the belief that all matter consists of
very small, indivisible particles which he named atomos. The turn of the twentieth century. Two ground-
breaking experiments challenged the idea that atoms are the smallest constituent of matter. These
experiments were very different, but both pointed to the fact that atoms contained even smaller parts.
Experiment 1: The Cathode Ray Tube Experiments
Scientists in the late 1890s investigated a new device known as a cathode ray tub (CRT). When high
voltage was applied across the electrodes, inside the CR mysterious green rays appeared at one end of the
tube. These rays were call cathode rays. It was not immediately known if these rays were a type of wave
or type of particle, but several experiments were conducted on them. First it was discovered that the rays
would always be attracted to an area of excess positive charge and away from an area of excess negative
charge. Precise measurements could not determine the exact mass of the cathode rays, but it was
determined that they did have mass. After that discovery, the rays were considered a particle instead of a
wave.
The mass-to-charge ratio of the cathode rays was determined to be more than 1,000 times smaller than the
same ratio for any known atom or ion.
Experiment 2: The Gold Foil Experiment

At the time, the accepted model of the atom was a relatively solid sphere, an experiment in 1911 brought
that model into question. A beam of alpha particles (small, high-energy, positively charged particles) was
shot into a piece of gold foil approximately 8.6×10-8 m in thickness. The alpha particles were thought to
have enough energy to pass straight through the foil and hit a detector on the other side. and most of the
particles did just that. However, a small fraction of alpha particles were deflected a few degrees as they
passed through the foil. Upon closer examination of the data, a more startling fact was found-some alpha
particles never hit the detector.
More detectors were added around the gold foil, and it was discovered that a tiny portion of the alpha
particles (1 out of every 20,000 particies) was deflected 90 degrees or more from the beam. Some
particles even bounced straight back toward the alpha particle source. The scientist was so surprised by
the results that he stated, so it was concluded that there must be some particle inside an atom causing
these major deflections of alpha particles.
Questions (32-38) belong to Passage II
32. Which of the following best describes what experiment 2 concluded about the newly discovered small
particles that make up atoms?
A. Dense and sturdy.
B. Negatively charged.
C. Positively charged.
D. Small, Low energy.
33. Based on the Experiment (1) and Experiment (2), upon which of the following statements both
experiments agree?
A. Atoms are highly charged particles.
B. Atoms are not indestructible and indivisible.
C. Atoms are composed of a dense core known as a nucleus.
D. The mass-to-charge ratio of atoms is much smaller than was originally thought.
34. The opposite figure offers а common diagram of subatomic particles. Which particle would have an
undefined mass-to-charge ratio?
A. Electron.
B. Proton.
C. Neutron.
D. Nucleus.
35. Although atoms were once considered to be solid spheres, it has been proven that they are mostly
empty space with just a few tiny particles. Which one of the following statements explains this fact?
A. Experiment 1: Cathode rays have a small mass-to-charge ratio.
B. Experiment 1: Cathode rays are attracted to areas of positive electric charge.
C. Experiment 2: One out of every 20,000 particles got deflected to a large extent.
D. Experiment 2: Some alpha particles deflected off the beam at large angles.
36. How thick was the gold foil in micrometer (um) in Experiment 2? (knowing that one micrometer is
equivalent to 0.000001 m).
A. 0.086 μm.
B. 0.86 μm.
C. 8.600 μm.
D. 86 μm.
37. Which of the following statements matches the conclusions of the experiment 2?
A. Cathode Rays mostly go through but a few bounce off.
B. Cathode Rays destroy atoms.
C. Gold Foil: solid particles in atoms are incredibly small.
D. Gold Foil: Alpha particles are found inside atoms.
38. "I can see no escape off the conclusion that they are particles of matter carry charges of negative
electricity". Which scientists would conclude the previous statement?
A. Scientists working on Experiment (1)
B. Scientists working on Experiment (2)
C. Scientists working on either experiment
D. Scientists working on both experiments
PASSAGE III:
In science laboratory, students studied the pH strength of acids and bases. The termis strong and weak
describes the ability of acid and base solutions to conduct electricity. Figure (1) displays the pH scale used
to rank solutions as acidic or basic, and Table (1) provides an overview of what pH levels are considered
strong and weak solutions.
table 1
Solution pH
Strong acid 0–3
Weak acid 4–6
Neutral 7
Weak base 8–10
Strong base 11–14
Experiment (1)
Students will test the conductivity of various solutions with a light bulb apparatus. as shown in figure (2).
The light bulb circuit is incomplete. If the circuit is completed by a solution containing a large number of
ions, the light bulb will glow brightly indicating a strong ability to conduct electricity. If the circuit is
completed by a solution containing large numbers of molecules and either no ions or few ions, the
solution does not conduct or conducts very weakly. The results are reported in Table (2).
tabel 2
Solution Acid or Base Light Bulb

H2O Neutral No light
HCl Acid Bright
HC2H3O2 Acid Dim
H2SO4 Acid Bright
H2CO3 Acid Dim
NaOH Base Bright
KOH Base Bright
NH4OH Base Dim
Experiment (2)
Chemical pH
Students mixed 50 mL of each chemical with 1 liter of water and then tested the pH
HCL 0.86
of the solution. Table (3) displays the pH found for each chemical.
HC2H3O2 2.92
H2SO4 1.29
H2CO3 3.73
NaOH 13.1
KOH 11.2
NH4OH 9.2
Questions: (39-45) belong to Passage III

39. Based on the information presented in Figure (1) and Table (1), the solution that would be the weakest
base has pH value of:
A. 0.2
B. 7
C. 9.7
D. 12.5
40. According to the results of experiments (1) and (2), which of the following statements is true?
A. The more the pH value of the solution, the brighter the light bulb glows.
B. The weaker the acid or base, the brighter the light bulb glows.
C. The stronger the acid or base the brighter the light bulb glows.
D. The less the pH value of the solution, the brighter the light bulb glows.
41. Based on the results of Experiment (2), H2CO3, would be classified as:
A. a strong acid.
B. a weak acid.
C. a strong base.
D. a weak base.
42. Based on the information presented in Figure (1) and Table (3), it can be concluded the acidic solution
that contains the highest hydrogen is:
A. HC2H2O2
B. H2SO4
C. H2CO3
D. HCI
43. Based on Table (3), which of the following figures best represents the pH values for the 3 bases
tested?
44. Based on the passage, which of the following summarizes the characteristics of strong acids?
A. Large numbers of molecules, few numbers of ions, high conductivity and pH value between 0-3.
B. Few numbers of molecules, large numbers of ions, high conductivity and pH value between 0-3.
C. Few numbers of molecules, large numbers of ions, strong conductivity and pH value between 10-14.
D. Large numbers of molecules, few numbers of ions, strong conductivity and pH value between 10-14.
45. Assume that the students decided to test the conductivity of an extra solution according to the
procedures outlined in Experiment (1). They tested a solution of Na3PO4, and they found that the solution
caused the light bulb to glow brightly and its pH value was found to be close to the end of scale. The
students would correctly classify Na PO, solution as:
A. A strong base
B. A weak base
C. A weak acid
D. A strong acid
PASSAGE IV:
There are four main variables that can affect the reaction rate at which a reaction in the gas phase occurs;
whose are pressure, temperature, volume, and amount of reactant. A change in any of these variables
changes the likelihood of particles running into each other and reacting: Increasing any one increases
reaction rate; decreasing any one decreases reaction rate.
Pressure is measured in atmospheres, atm., where I atm. is the sea level pressure of earth's atmosphere.
Volume is measured in liters, L. The amount of reactant is measured in moles, where 1 mole is 6.02 ×
1023 molecules.
Figure 1 shows how temperature and pressure affect the gaseous reactants in an experiment. Figures (2)
and (3) show how the rate of Reaction (A) recorded as (% of rate at latm. 50 degrees Celsius) is affected
by pressure and temperature. respectively.
Figure 1
Figure 2
Figure 3
Questions: (46-50) belong to Passage IV

46. Based on figure (2) When the temperature decreases from 80 °C to 40°C the rate of the reaction will:
A. Decrease to half of its value.
B. Decrease to quarter of its value.
C. Increase to double of its value.
D. Increase four time of its value.
47. Based on Figures (2) and (3), the reactions occur at the same rate at what temperature and pressure?
A. 20°C and 2.0 atm.
B. 40°C and 1.5 atm.
C. 70°C and 1.5 atm.
D. 70°C and 3.5 atm.
48. Based on figure 1, if reaction (A) occurs according to the following chemical equation:
2X(g)+ Y(g) → X2Y(g)
If there are two moles of X and two moles of Y in the same container, the rate of the reaction will:
A. increase due to increase the speed of the molecules.
B. increase due to increase the number of the molecules.
C. be constant because the excess molecules do not involve in the reaction.

D. be constant because the volume doesn't change.
49. In the experimental design of reaction (A), which of the following changes can be used to increase the
time of the Reaction (A)?
A. Change the volume of container from 1 litre to 2 litres.
B. Change the pressure from 1.0 atm. to 5.0 atm.
C. Change the temperature from 60°C to 120 °C.
D. Change the number of moles of reactants to double.
50. In reaction (A), the reaction rate can be changed by changing either temperature or pressure of the
gaseous reactants. Based on the data in Figures (2) and (3), which property used to make the greatest
change in the rate of reaction (A)?
A. Temperature: decreased from 50°C to 20°C.
B. Temperature: increased from 50°C to 100°C.
C. Pressure: decreased from 1 atm to 0.5 atm.
D. Pressure: increased from 1 atm to 3 atm.
English 2022 exam

PASSAGE I:
Most people wish they had better memories. They also worry about forgetting things as they get
older. But did you know that we have different kinds of memory? When one or more of these kinds of
memories start to fail, there are a few simple things that everyone can do to improve their memories.
What most people think of as memory is, in fact, five different categories of memory. Our
capability to remember things from the past, that is, years or days ago, depends on two categories of
memory. They are remote memory and recent memory, respectively. Think back to last year’s birthday.
What did you do? If you can’t remember that, you are having a problem with your remote memory. On
the other hand, if you can’t remember what you ate for lunch yesterday, that is a problem with your recent
memory.
Remembering past events is only one way we use memories. When taking a test, we need to draw
on our semantic memories. That is the sum of our acquired knowledge. Or maybe we want to remember
to do or use something in the future, either minutes or days from now. These cases use our immediate and
prospective memories, respectively. Have you ever thought to yourself, “I need to remember to turn off
the light,” but then promptly forgot it? That would be a faulty immediate memory. On the other hand,
maybe you can easily remember to meet your friend for lunch next week. That means that at least your
prospective memory is in good working order.
Many people think that developing a bad memory is unavoidable as we get older, but this is
actually not the case. Of our five kinds of memory, immediate, remote, and prospective (if aided with
cues like memos) do not degrade with age. But how can we prevent a diminishing of our semantic and
unaided prospective memories? The secret seems to be activity. Studies have shown that a little mental
activity, like learning new things or even doing crossword puzzles, goes a long way in positively affecting
our memories. Regular physical activity appears to be able to make our memories better as well. This is
possibly due to having a better blood supply to the brain. The one thing to avoid at all costs, though, is
stress. When we are stressed, our bodies release a hormone called cortisol, which is harmful to our brain
cells and thus our memories. Reducing stress through meditation, exercise, or other activities can help to
preserve our mental abilities.
1. The passage emphasizes mainly on

a) how to reduce stress
b) man memory
c) functions of brain
d) how to stay active
2. ….………….memory refers to the memory's storage of general knowledge.

a) Immediate
b) Recent
c) Semantic
d) Remote
3. ….……………. memory is the category of memory would you use to remember why you went to
the kitchen.
a) Recent
b) Remote
c) Semantic
d) Immediate
4. …………….is one of the activities which would positively affect your memory.
a) Sleeping
b) Stretching
c) Working a lot
d) Producing cortisol
5. According to the passage, ………………can help you to have a good memory.

a) important events
b) physical activity
c) being stressed
d) blood pressure
6. ………… is a synonym of the underlined word “diminishing”.

a) Decreasing
b) Systematizing
c) Degrading.
d) Upgrading.
7. ………….is closest in meaning to the underlined word “secret”.

a) A hidden thing
b) A private thing
c) An unexplainable thing
d) A successful method
8. According to the passage, ……... may change your brain in ways that affect your memory.
a) getting older.
b) body cells.
c) getting stressed.
d) blood supply.
9. Studies have shown that a little mental activity

a) leads to a big beneficial result later.
b) causes serious problems in the future.
c) has a bad effect on memorizing things.
d) results from practicing crossword puzzles.
10. When you forgot……………….; this means, you might have a defect in your prospective
memory.
a) the place where you parked your car.
b) when you will be interviewed for a job.
c) to book tickets for watching your favourite team.
d) how you dealt with a problem in your class.
PASSAGE II:
The immune system is equal in complexity to the combined intricacies of the brain and nervous
system. The success of the immune system in defending the body relies on a dynamic regulatory
communications network consisting of millions and millions of cells. Organized into sets and subsets,
these cells pass information back and forth like clouds of bees swarming around a hive. The result is a
sensitive system of checks and balances that produces an immune response that is prompt, appropriate,
effective, and self-limiting.
At the heart of the immune system is the ability to distinguish between self and nonself. When
immune defenders encounter cells or organisms carrying foreign or nonself-molecules, the immune troops
move quickly to eliminate the intruders. Virtually every body cell carries distinctive molecules that
identify it as self. The body’s immune defenses do not normally attack tissues that carry a self-marker.
Rather, immune cells and other body cells coexist peaceably in a state known as selftolerance. When a
normally functioning immune system attacks a non-self-molecule, the system has the ability to
“remember” the specifics of the foreign body. Upon subsequent encounters with the same species of
molecules, the immune system reacts accordingly. With the possible exception of antibodies passed
during lactation, this so called immune system memory is not inherited. Despite the occurrence of a virus
in your family, your immune system must “learn” from experience with the many millions of distinctive
non-self-molecules in the sea of microbes in which we live. Learning entails producing the appropriate
molecules and cells to match up with and counteract each non-self-invader.
Any substance capable of triggering an immune response is called an antigen. Antigens are not
to be confused with allergens, which are most often harmless substances (such as ragweed pollen or cat
hair) that provoke the immune system to set off the inappropriate and harmful response known as allergy.
An antigen can be a virus, a bacterium, a fungus, a parasite, or even a portion or product of one of these
organisms. Tissues or cells from another individual (except an identical twin, whose cells carry identical
self-markers) also act as antigens; because the immune system recognizes transplanted tissues as foreign,
it rejects them. The body will even reject nourishing proteins unless they are first broken down by the
digestive system into their primary, nonantigenic building blocks. An antigen announces its foreignness
by means of intricate and characteristic shapes called epitopes, which protrude from its surface. Most
antigens, even the simplest microbes, carry several different kinds of epitopes on their surface; some may
even carry several hundred. Some epitopes will be more effective than others at stimulating an immune
response. Only in abnormal situations does the immune system wrongly identify self as non-self and
execute a misdirected immune attack. The result can be a so-called autoimmune disease such as
rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosis. The painful side effects of these diseases are caused
by a person’s immune system actually attacking itself.
11. The successful defense of immune system to the body depends on the ………….. network among
its cells.
a) communications network
b) immune troops
c) immune cells
d microbe's communications.
12. The immune cells and other cells in the body coexist peaceably in a state
known as
a) equilibrium.
b) harmony.
c) self-confidence.
d) self-tolerance.
13. Sensitivity to ………… vary from one person to another and they are allergic to an unusual
number of substances.
a) antigens
b) microbes
c) allergens
d) diseases
14. A/An …………. is the part of an antigen that is recognized by the immune system as “foreign”
or “non-self?”.
a) molecule
b) fragment
c) arthritis
d) epitope
15. The overall function of the immune system is to ……………. infection.

a) increase
b) recognize
c) prevent
d) inherit
16. The main idea of this passage is

a) the immune system and its vital role.
b) an antigen triggers an immune response
c) immune system’s allergic response.
d) the human body is a habitat for microbes
17. When an organ is transplanted from identical twin to another, the recipient’s immune system
…………. it
a) won’t be rejected
b) might not be rejected
c) may be rejected.
d) could be rejected.
18. According to the passage, the underlined word “intricacies” means
a) confusion of pathways.
b) elaborate interconnections.
c) inherent perplexity.
d) comprehensive coverage.
19. One can suffer from systemic lupus erythematosis when one’s body
a) attacks itself.
b) eliminates the intruders.
c) distinguish between self and non-self.
d) recognizes transplanted tissues as foreign.
20. The underlined word “triggering” can be replaced by

a) activating
b) relevant.
c) different.
d) impacting
PASSAGE III:
Nothing is similar to the taste of chocolate. It is simply delicious. What is chocolate? Where does
it come from? In this article, I’ll tell you some facts about it.
Christopher Columbus was probably the first to take cacao beans from the New World to Europe
in around 1502. But the history of chocolate goes back at least 4,000 years! The Aztecs, who lived in
America, thought that their bitter cacao drink was a divine gift from heaven. In fact, the scientist Carolus
Linnaeus named the plant Theobroma, which means “food of the gods.”
The Spanish explorer Hernando Cortez went to America in 1519. He visited the Mexican emperor
Montezuma. He saw that Montezuma drank cacao mixed with vanilla and spices. Cortez took some cacao
home as a gift to the Spanish King Charles. In Spain, people began to drink Cortez’s chocolate in a drink
with chili peppers. However, the natural taste of cocoa was too bitter for most people. To sweeten the
drink, Europeans added sugar to the cacao drink. As a sweet drink, it became more popular. By the 17th
century, rich people in Europe were drinking it.
Many decades later, people started using chocolate in pastries, like pies and cakes. In 1828,
Dutch chocolate makers started using a new process for removing the fat from cocoa beans, and getting to
the center of the cocoa bean. The Dutch chocolate maker Conrad J. van Houten made a machine that
pressed the fat from the bean. The resulting powder mixed better with water than cacao did. Now, some
call van Houten’s chocolate “Dutch chocolate.”
It was easy to mix Dutch chocolate powder with sugar. So other chocolate makers started trying
new recipes that used powdered chocolate. People started mixing sweetened chocolate with cocoa butter
to make solid chocolate bars. In 1849, an English chocolate maker made the first chocolate bar. In the
19th century, the Swiss started making milk chocolate by mixing powdered milk with sweetened
chocolate. Milk chocolate has not changed much since this process was invented.
Today, two countries - Brazil and Ivory Coast - account for almost half the world’s chocolate. The United
States imports most of the chocolate in the world, but the Swiss eat the most chocolate per person. The
most chocolate eaten today is sweet milk chocolate, but people also eat white chocolate and dark
chocolate.
Cocoa and dark chocolate are believed to help prevent heart attacks, or help keep them from
happening. They are supposed to be good for the circulatory system. On the other hand, the high fat
content of chocolate can cause weight gain, which is not good for people’s health. Other health claims for
chocolate have not been proven, but some research shows that chocolate could be good for the brain.
Chocolate is a popular holiday gift. A popular Valentine’s Day gift is a box of chocolate candies
with a card and flowers. Chocolate is sometimes given for Christmas and birthdays. Chocolate eggs are
sometimes given at Easter.
Chocolate is toxic to some animals. An ingredient in chocolate is poisonous to dogs, cats, parrots,
small rodents, and some livestock. Their bodies cannot process some of the chemicals found in chocolate.
Therefore, they should never be fed chocolate.
21. People first knew chocolate

a) Before Christ
b) Anno Domini
c) in1502.
d) in 1519
22. The Aztecs and Carolus Linnaeus thought cocoa was a godly thing, but was only……….. though
a) realistic
b) factual
c) truthful
d) mythical
23. The taste of chocolate is thought to be …………….. taste to others

a) similar
b) incomparable.
c) equivalent
d) analogous
24. Cortez played …………role of transfer the cocoa drinks to Spain.
a) minor
b) tiny
c) neglected
d) essential
25. Cocoa became more popular as a ……….. drink.

a) sweet
b) bitter
c) mixed
d) soft
26. Making powder from cocoa beans was a new era for using it in many
a) drinks
b) countries
c) towns.
d) recipes
27. The first chocolate bar was made in

a) England
b) German
c) Spain
d) Mexica
28. According to the passage, cocoa and dark chocolate are thought to be
a) double-weapon edge
b) have only good effects
c) have only bad effects
d) dangerous for brain
29. It has been proven that chocolate is
a) only bad for livestock
b) toxic for many people
c) only good for dogs

d) poisonous for many animals
30. Although Brazil and Ivory Coast account for almost half the world’s chocolate, they are both
………….. countries
a) developed
b) developing
c) modern
d) ancient
PASSAGE IV:
Many great inventions are greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of the airplane was
no exception. Although many people who heard about the first powered flight on December 17,1903,
were excited and impressed, others reacted with peals of laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was
repulsive to some people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of the first flying
machine, impulsive fools. Negative reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire
to succeed, they continued their experiments in aviation.
Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and mechanics.
As young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys. Later, they designed
a newspaper-folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when
they read about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brother's interest in flight grew into a compulsion.
Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the desired
direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they searched for more efficient
methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous
gliders and developed control techniques. The brothers' inability to obtain enough lift power for the
gliders almost led them to abandon their efforts.
After further study, the Wright brothers concluded that the published tables of air pressure on
curved surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel and began a series of experiments with model
wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were repealed in time and replaced by the first reliable
figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This work, in turn, made it possible for them to design a
machine that would fly. In 1903 the Wrights built their first airplane, which cost less than one thousand
dollars. They even designed and built their own source of propulsion- a lightweight gasoline engine.
When they started the engine on December 17, the airplane pulsated wildly before taking off. The plane
managed to stay aloft for twelve seconds, however, and it flew one hundred twenty feet.
By 1905 the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain airborne
for half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons or in hang gliders, but the Wright brothers were
the first to build a full-size machine that could fly under its own power. As the contributors of one of the
most outstanding engineering achievements in history, the Wright brothers are accurately called the
fathers of aviation.
31. Some people reacted with peals of laughter on the first powered flight this means they thought it
was……. idea
a) ridiculous
b) wonderful
c) exciting.
d) funny
32. Without ……… the Wright brothers couldn’t have succeeded.

a) demotivation
b) conceding
c) determination
d) surrendering
33. The underlined word “repulsive” can be replaced by

a) impressive
b) repellent
c) pleasant
d) appealing
34. Lilenthal's idea about controlling airborne vehicles was ………..the Wrights.
a) proven wrong by
b) opposite to the ideas of
c) disliked by
d) accepted by
35. The old tables were …............. and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on
curved surfaces.
a) destroyed
b) canceled
c) multiplied
d) discarded
36. The underlined word aviation means
a) vain
b) aeroplane
c) availing
d) aeronautics
37. The antonym of the underlined word “aloft” can be

a) forward
b) upward
c) backward
d) downward
38. The Wright brothers succeeded in building the first plane because they
a) were impulsive fools
b) were good students
c) never gave up
d) spent a lot of money
39. According to the passage, the idea of inventing the plane came to Wilbur’s mind while
a) reading about a man experimenting his own invention
b) writing an article for the local paper
c) reading a book about great inventions
d) reading a newspaper story about a woman’s flying trial
40. The Wrights designed and built their own source of

a) a weightless engine
b) force for turning around
c) force for moving forward
d) a magnitude and powerful engine
PASSAGE V:
Mokhles Amin, a famous artist and activist, collapsed in a seat at Grand Café in Aswan. He put
his head in his hands and let out a deep sigh. Mokhles had come to Edfu, a small town in Aswan to do a
public service. He had come up with the idea to develop a play for children affected by torrents, and he
had secured a modest grant from the government to do so. But he hadn’t accounted for the major
hindrance he would face: blistering heat in August with no clean water to drink. Buying water for his
crew of 40 volunteers for weeks on end would be far too expensive to do on his shoestring budget, and
he had no one to turn to on such short notice for help. Mokhles feared he would have to close up the
production and return home.
As he sipped on a glass of soda, he found it ironic that water, which flooded this city and left
many residents without homes or hope, would now be his downfall as he tried to spread the joy of theater
to its children.
“Hello, sir,” a man at the table next to him said. “What brings you to this distant area?” Mokhles shook
his head. Later, he would find it amusing that this man knew just by looking that Mokhles was not a local.
For now, he was just tired and irritated.
“Look, I don’t mean to be rude, but I’ve had a bad day,” Mokhles said. “I don’t much feel like talking.”
“What brings you to town?” the man said, pleasantly.
Mokhles grudgingly talked a bit about his work as a theater director in Cairo and his dream to bring a
top-flight play to the children of Edfu.
The next day, as Mokhles left a blazing hot outdoor studio, he noticed the same man from the
cafe, parked on the street. A shock of fluffy white hair framed his dark face, making him look almost
saintly.
“Look, sir, what do you want?” “To help.”
“How?”
“What do you need?”
“What I really need is clean water. That’s all I need.” Mokhles turned and walked away. He had been
rude, he knew, but he was so frustrated by this problem.
When he arrived back at his hotel room that evening, the front desk clerk handed Mokhles an unmarked
envelope. Inside was a cheque for 5,000£. The memo line read, “For water.” Mokhles was flabbergasted.
Who was this man?
As he pondered his good fortune, the phone rang in his hotel room. “Will that get you some water?” a
voice said on the other end.
“Why, yes, yes it will,” Mokhles said. “Thank you so much for your generosity.” “My wife and I would
like to entertain you to dinner.”
Mokhles could not refuse! This man was his savior, and his curiosity had grown the best of him.
Who was this benefactor?
At dinner, Karim and his wife, Magda, formally introduced themselves. Mr. Karim never graduated from
high school, but inherited 5 acres of land from his father upon his death. For years, Mr. Karim grew
cucumbers on the land, barely making a living. One day, a neighbor offered Karim a bag of money if Mr.
Karim would let him bury three old trucks at the back of his property.
Mr. Karim took the bag and agreed. Later, he could not believe how much money was in the bag. “And
just for letting him bury some trucks!”
The next morning, Mr. Karim said, he woke up, picked all the cucumbers off his land, and converted the 5
acres into a waste management facility. He is now one of Edfu’s few multimillionaires.
“So, I have all this money now and live to help others,” said Mr. Karim. “That is why I’ve helped you.”
41. Which best describes Mokhles's mood at the beginning of this passage?
a) Tired and vindictive.
b) Angry and conniving.
c) Pensive and high-strung.
d) Frustrated and overwhelmed.
42. The climax of this story happens when.
a) Mr. Karim describes how he got so rich
b) Mr. Karim shows up at the studio
c) Mokhles opens the envelope
d) Mokhles accepts Mr. Karim's invitation to dinner
43. Which of the following best describes Mokhles 's mood after he gets the cheque?
a) Suspicious and cautious.
b) Confused and questioning.
c) Excited and nervous.
d) Surprised and curious.
44. The best antonym for “hindrance” is.

a) obstacle
b) assistance
c) profit
d) friend
45. In paragraph 3, the author uses the term “shoestring budget.” This means to
a) accept help when it is offered
b) have to rely on luck
c) operate with little money
d) have extreme patience
46. The best antonym for “irritated” is

a) acclimated
b) bashful
c) melancholy
d) pacified
47. Why does Mokhles grudgingly talk to Mr. Karim in Grand Cafe?
a) He is thirsty and wants to drink fizzy water.
b) He is irritated and does not feel like being bothered.
c) He decided conversation might make him feel better.
d) He wanted to spread the word about his theater program.
48. The underlined words “top-flight” can be replaced by

a) extinguished
b) first-rate
c) satisfied
d) clear-cut
49. What lesson does Mokhles learn in this passage?
a) It is okay to be somewhat rude on first meeting someone.
b) Help can come from the most unlikely places.
c) Frustration can often cloud one's judgment.
d) Theatre programs are an excellent way to help those in need.
50. Mokhles and Mr. Karim are alike because both

a) have charitable interests.
b) are quick to show emotion.
c) lack ambition.
d) are patient.
English 2018 exam

PASSAGE I:
Hides and skins are the raw material of the leather manufacturer or tanner. When man first used
animal skins is not known. Skins, even when preserved by tanning, do not last as long as stone, pottery,
metals and bone, and our knowledge about the early use of skins is vague. However, the numerous flint
scrapers and bone or ivory sewing needles in our museums show that tens of thousands of years ago, in
the early Stone Age, skins were prepared and used long before textiles.
Any animal skin can be made into leather, but the skins chiefly used come from cattle, sheep,
goats, and horses. To a lesser extent the skins from dogs, deer, reptiles, marine animals, fish and birds are
also used. Snakes, lizards, seals, whales, and sharks all contribute to leather manufacture.
'Hide' is the trade word for the skins of the larger animals such as full grown cattle and horses;
and' skin' for the smaller animals, and immature large animals such as ponies and calves. Some skins are
made into leather after the hair or wool has been removed; but the skins of the fur-bearing animals and
sometimes of sheep, lambs and ponies are processed, or 'dressed', with the hair or wool still in place.
Most cattle hides come from South America, the U.S.A. and from Australia with smaller
quantities from East and West Africa, Central America and the Sudan. Sheepskins come from Australia
and New Zealand, and the best goat skins come from India, Pakistan, Ethiopia, Arabia and Nigeria.
There is usually a long interval between the flaying, or stripping, of the skin from the animal and
putting it into the tannery for processing. If the flayed skins were left wet, they would go bad, just like
meat; they must therefore be preserved in some way. The commonest method is salting. This involves
sprinkling the skins with salt on their inner side; or immersing the skins completely in strong salt solution
for some hours, after which they are drained and sprinkled with solid salt.
Another method of drying is to stretch the skins out on the ground, or on frames and to dry them
in the sun, or even better in the shade. Beetles and other insects eat skins and must be kept away by the
use of some chemical such as D.D.T. The dried skins are called 'crust' leather and are sent in this form to
the tanneries for the very complicated process of tanning. After tanning, only the 'corium' or middle layer
of the skin is left to provide leather as we know it. It is to the closely knit fibre structure of the corium that
leather owes its virtues of flexibility, strength and elasticity, its resistance to rubbing and its unique power
of allowing water vapour and air to pass through it while resisting penetration by liquid water itself.
1-Based on the information given in the passage, the start of using “skin” in industry
a- is known for sure
b- is not known at all
c- will be never known
d-is not thought of
2- “Hides” may be the same meaning as

a-skin
b-flesh
c- raw material
d-certain animals
3- According to the writer, …………………. is used in industry.

a- certain animal skin
b-nearly all animal skin
c-few animals skin
d-human skin
4- The best word that describes ―flaying” could be

a-killing
b-cutting animal flesh
c-separating animal skin
d-colouring animal skin
5- The “Tanner” is a type of

a-animal skin
b- leather
c- profession
d- factory
6- Leather is ranked according to

a-its strength
b-its colour
c- structure
d- country
7- According to the writer,

a- all animals skins are of the same quality
b- animals skins are of different ranks
c- certain animals skins are of no value
d- some animals skin are less used than others
8- According to the given information given in the passage

a-skin can be processed directly after slaughtering the animal
b- the animals skin need long time before processing
c-the animals skin need short time before processing
d- time is of no importance
9- There is ………………….. to dry the skin before processing mentioned in the passage.
a-only one method
b- more than two methods
c- two methods
d- no method
10- According to the passage , …………….is essential for correct usage of animal skins.
a- dryness
b-wetness
c-hardness
d-softness
PASSAGE II:
Meteorology is the scientific study of the weather. The scientists who specialize in this area are
called meteorologists. Their job is to collect data, make observations about the data and interpret the data.
To interpret means to say what they think the data means. Their goal is to make informed predictions
about what kind of weather we can expect.
Most weather systems in the United States move from the west to the east.
Meteorologists track weather patterns to the west. Then they can be reasonably sure of the kind
and severity of the weather that is approaching the areas that lie to the east.
Technological advances over the years have made the work of the meteorologists more and more
respected. Over time, their ability to make accurate predictions has increased. Using computers,
meteorologists are able to design and print weather maps. The maps show approaching weather patterns
and how they are likely to behave when they reach us. They are filled with colorful symbols that show the
different strengths and temperatures of wind, cloud formations, and storm systems.
Doppler radar stations provide meteorologists with radar images of weather all over the United
States. They make it possible to anticipate weather systems sooner, and to understand how strong they
are. Weather balloons are sent up into the higher levels of the atmosphere to gather data and take pictures.
Satellites relay weather data from high above Earth down to reporting stations.
In addition to their high-tech computers and radar systems, meteorologists have some basic
weather instruments that have been around for many years. We are all familiar with the first one: a
thermometer. A thermometer allows us to measure the air temperature using either the Celsius or
Fahrenheit scale. The United States mostly uses the Fahrenheit scale. An anemometer is used to measure
the speed of the wind as it blows. A weather vane, or wind vane, is used to show the direction the wind is
blowing. A barometer measures air pressure. In spite of all these tools, there is always a little bit of
mystery involved in the weather.
11-Which direction do most weather systems move in the United States?
a) west to east
b) east to west
c) north to south
d) west to south
12- An anemometer is a tool to measure

a) air pressure
b) wind speed
c) wind direction
d) air thickness
13- Weather maps have become easy to print because of

a) photocopiers
b) weather patterns
c) computers
d) predictions
14- The best word to replace “anticipate” in ―They make it possible to anticipate weather systems
sooner‖ could be
a)wait
b)visualise
c)forecast
d)assume
15- Meteorologists‘ s job is to
a) observe the weather
b) collect data about the weather
c) analyse data and predict the weather
d) A,B and C
16- Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following is a correct sentence?
a) Because of technology, traditional tools are abandoned.
b) Though using technology, meteorologists are still using traditional tools
c) Traditional tools hinders the work of meteorologists
d ) using traditional tools and technological sets hinders the work of meteorologists
17 –Meteorologists in the US track weather patterns to the west to
a- predict the weather in the east
b- study the effect of weather in the west
c)study the effect of weather in the east
d)predict the weather traits in the north
18- According to the passage, weather balloons are sent into the atmosphere to
a) gather data and take pictures
b) give prediction of the weather
c) send data to Doppler radar station
d) collect data from satellites
19- As a result of the work of the meteorologists, people

a- make sure the weather will not affect work
b- draw plans for the weather traits
c-modify weather patterns to suit work
d- adapt to the weather traits
20- Based on the information given in the passage, which sentence is true?
a- Meteorologists are sure about the weather
b- Meteorologists are never sure about any prediction
c- Meteorologists‘ predictions are more accurate these days
d- Meteorologists‘ predictions were better in the past
PASSAGE III:
Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or
neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea,
and drowsiness, these symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of
concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent studies suggest that people
who suffer multiple concussions are at a significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy
(CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and emotional problems to
arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include
depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people
suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these
issues are athletes who participate in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Although both new
sports regulations and improvements in helmet technology can help protect players, the sports media and
fans alike bear some of the responsibility for reducing the incidence of these devastating injuries.
Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence to link severe— and
often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries players receive while on the field. Recent
autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced
cases of CTE in every single victim.
In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has
revised its safety regulations. Players who have suffered a head injury on the field must undergo a
"concussion sideline assessment"—a series of mental and physical fitness tests— before being allowed
back in the game. In an effort to diminish the amount of head and neck injuries on the field, NFL officials
have begun enforcing stricter penalty calls for helmet-to-helmet contact, leading with the head, and hitting
a defenseless player. Furthermore, as of 2010, if a player’s helmet is accidentally wrenched from his head
during play, the ball is immediately whistled dead. There is hope that these new regulations, coupled with
advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions player endure, and thus curb the
number of CTE cases.
Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable; indeed, we
should commend every attempt to protect the mental and physical health of players. However, new
regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases
of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. With appropriate equipment and form, tackling
need not be dangerous. Proper tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s
midsection rather than leading with the top of the head— should be taught at an early age. Youth, high
school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent that the NFL’s.
Furthermore, at an early age, athletes should be educated about the serious dangers of head injuries.
21) The author apparently believes that

A. NFL officials have not thoroughly implemented stricter safety regulations
B. doctors need to do more research about the potential long-term effects of CTE
C. amateur athletes suffer more serious long-term effects of CTE than professional athletes
D. fans share some of the blame for athletes’ injuries
22) According to the author, each of the following statements are true EXCEPT which one?
A. Tackling itself is not dangerous; however, players who use improper tackling form may suffer injury.
B. Scientists have established a link between players who shoot themselves and others and the onset of
CTE.
C. NFL officials have done nothing to address the problem of CTE.
D. Athletes who are praised for exceptionally brutal hits are likely to continue engaging in such
dangerous behaviour.
23) According to the author, which of the following contribute(s) to an increase in incidences of CTE in
amateur players?
I. fewer safety regulations than professional players

II. a lack of education geared to youth players about the dangers of head injuries
III. a desire to emulate professionals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
d. I, II, and III
24) As used in paragraph 4, which is the best synonym for laudable?

A. praiseworthy
B. ineffective
C. determined
D. blameworthy
25) According to the author, the long-term effects of concussions are

a) easy to understand
b) more understood
c) never studied
d) less understood
26) Based on the information given in the passage, the new regulations at the professional level
a) can help both professional and amateur players
b) can protect neither professional and amateur players
c) cannot protect amateur players
d) cannot protect professional players
27) people who suffer a concussion have symptoms that

a) never disappear
b) disappear a few days later
c) disappear after a year
d)appear from time to time later
28) Using the appropriate equipment makes tackling

a) more dangerous
b) less dangerous
c) completely safe
d) less safe
29) Players who suffer concussion

a) must pass certain tests to go back to playing
b) go back to play at once
c) go through physical training before going back to playing
d) get psychological training before going back to playing
30)Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE?
a) The majority of people who suffer from concussion commit suicide
b) No one suffering from concussion commits suicide
C)All people who suffer concussion commit suicide
d) People who suffer severe cases commit suicide
PASSAGE IV:
Although not the longest river in America, the Rio Grande is one of the most important. But,
unlike other significant rivers, it is not used for shipping. In fact, oceangoing ships cannot navigate the
waters. No, what makes the Rio Grande so important is its location. Since 1846, it has been the official
border of Texas and Mexico.
The Rio Grande is either the fourth or fifth longest river system in North America. It all depends
on how it is measured. Because the river twists so much, it occasionally changes course. And these course
shifts can cause it to be longer or shorter. At its last official measure, the Rio Grande clocked in at 1,896
miles. The river starts in Colorado and extends downward to the Gulf of Mexico. Downward is the best
way of describing it too. Not only does the river extend south, but it also starts in the mountains and gets
lower and lower in elevation as it extends to the Gulf.
Its name is Spanish for the ―Big River,‖ but the Rio Grande is actually known as Rio Bravo in
Mexico. ―Bravo‖ translates as ―furious,‖ so the name makes sense. Because of its twists and turns, it
certainly does seem to be angrier than most rivers!
The Rio Grande today is mostly used as a source of drinking water. Sadly, much of the water has
been drained from the river. Parts of the river are almost dry! This is because people use more water from
the river than the river can get back from rain and other sources. Experts are working to correct this,
though, with hopes of restoring the river to its past strength.
Today, the river is important as a source of water for Texans and Mexicans. More important, it is
a symbol of cooperation between two nations. Though borders like the Rio Grande separate nations, they
are also shared spaces. The Rio Grande is therefore a symbol of friendship and peace between two
peoples.
31-The Rio Grande gains its importance because it

a- is a long river
b-is abundant
c- has heavy navigation
d- has important location
32-Because of the twists of the river , the measurement shows that …………….
a-it may seem longer
b- it may seem shorter
c-length is not affected

d- BOTH A and B
33- According to the information given in the passage, the river‘s outlet is …………….than its start .
a-lower
b-higher
c-wider
d-narrower
34-Based on what is given in the passage, the Rio became dry because of
a- less rain
b-more mud in the stream
c-more navigation
d- more usage
35-Based on the information given in the passage, The Rio Grande

a- fosters cooperation between countries.
b-is used for drinking water
c- is a symbol of peace between countries.
d- all the above.
36- The scientists are doing their best to

a-clean the river
b-drain the river
c- increase flow of water
d- none of the above
37- Based on its use in paragraph 4, the word furious most nearly means
a- angry
b- large
c- twisted
d- dry
38. According to the passage, the Rio Grande has endpoints in

a-Texas and the Gulf of Mexico
b- New Mexico and Colorado
c- Texas and Mexico
d- Colorado and the Gulf of Mexico
39- The best word that may replace the word ―clocked” in the extract ―the Rio Grande clocked in at
1,896 miles‖ could be
a- calculated
b- measured
c-distanced
d-deepened
40. The best title for the passage could be

a-The power of a river
b- Natural borders
c- Malusage of water
d- Power of cooperation
PASSAGE V:
Primitive man found out by trial and error how to carry out a certain number of simple chemical
changes, but under the ancient Egyptian civilization men learned how to work copper, tin, iron and
precious metals; knew how to make pottery, glass, soap and coloring agents, and how to bleach and dye
textile fabrics. These arts were the beginnings of the chemical industries of today.
The early scientific study of chemistry, known as alchemy, grew up in the first few centuries A.D.
at Alexandria in Egypt. There two important things came together: one was the practical knowledge of the
Egyptian workers in metals, pottery and dyes; the other was the learning of the earlier Greek
philosophers, such as Hippocrates and Aristotle. At the same time alchemy was much influenced by ideas
from the East about magic and astrology - foretelling the future from the stars.
Greek philosophers regarded debate about the nature of matter as superior to experiment, and
some held that all matter was made up of the same four ‗elements‘- earth, fire, air and water. Many
people therefore thought that if these elements could be rearranged, one substance could be changed into
another. For instance, a base metal could perhaps be turned into gold. The chief aim of the alchemists was
to find a way of doing this.
Alchemy came under Arab influence during the seventh century. The Arabs carried its study into
Western Europe when they advanced into Spain. Many Arabic words are still used in chemistry - 'alkali',
‗alcohol‘ and even' alchemy' itself, which means 'the art of Egypt'. The greatest Arab alchemist was Jabir
ibn Hayyan, possibly the same person as Geber, author of two important books on alchemy known from
the Latin translations of the thirteenth century. Jabir claimed that mercury and sulphur were ‗elements'
like the four Greek ones. He said that all metals were composed of mercury and sulfur in different
proportions. To change a base metal into gold required the proportions to be changed by the action of a
mysterious substance which came to be called ‗the philosopher's stone'. Alchemists searched in vain for
this substance for several hundred years.
Alchemy was studied widely in Europe during the twelfth and following centuries, and attracted
the attention of many learned men. Though they were doomed to fail in their attempts to make gold, their
work led to the growth of a great deal of new chemical knowledge and of methods of making
experiments. Many of the later European alchemists, however, were complete frauds who preyed upon
trusting people by all sorts of tricks, and the subject fell into disrepute. By the first half of the sixteenth
century, the aim of the alchemists had changed from the making of gold to the making of medicines. In
particular they sought a fanciful substance called 'the elixir of life', a powerful medicine which was to
cure all ills, and which some people thought would turn out to be the same substance as 'the philosopher's
stone'. This phase of chemistry lasted till about 1700.
41 - According to the information given in the passage, chemistry was studied at first as
a)an independent science
b)branch of medicine
c) branch of industry
d)branch of religion
42-Based on the information given in the passage, chemistry owes its usage to
a)The Egyptians
b)the Chinese
c)the Greek
d)primitive man
43-The best word to replace “fraud "in ―European alchemists, however, were complete frauds who
preyed upon trusting people by all sorts of tricks‖?
a) fear
b) courage
c) deceit
d)ideas
44-Based on the information given, which of the following sentences is true?

a) Scientists tried to change metals into gold.
b) Scientists tried to show the importance of chemistry.
c) Scientists did not think of material changes.
d) Philosophers encouraged people to study chemistry.
45 The best title of the passage could be

a) History of chemistry
b) gold production
c) medicine production
d) Alchemists
46- According to the given information

a)The Egyptians were more advanced in making use of chemistry
b)The Greek invented new styles
c)The Egyptians were less creative
d)The Europeans were more creative
47- Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following sentences about the early study
of chemistry is true?
a) It was based only on practice.
b)It was based only on theory .
c)It was based on superstition .
d)It was based on both theory and practice.
48- According to the information given in the passage, the scientists

a) could produce gold using 'the philosopher's stone'
b) could never produce gold using 'the philosopher's stone'
c) thought 'the philosopher's stone' is related to .
d) used 'the elixir of life' to produce gold
49-Some Greek philosophers thought that …………….made of four elements.

a) all matters
b) some matters
c) no matter
d) few matters
50- Jabir ibn Hayyan ………………. the idea of Greek philosophers about matter.
a) approved
b) modified
c) disapproved
d) rejected
English 2017 exam

PASSAGE I:
Do you like to shoot hoops or swim? Without the help of your thyroid, you wouldn’t have the
energy to compete or to get off the couch. Your thyroid is a 1ounce gland that controls the speed of your
heartbeat, the speed with which your body burns calories, and the growth of your bones, teeth, and brain.
The pinkish, butterflyshaped gland wraps around the windpipe in front of the throat. It affects nearly
every organ in your body.
The thyroid is your body’s factory for a hormone, or body chemical, called thyroxin. The thyroid secretes
this chemical into your bloodstream, which is your body’s superhighway. The bloodstream delivers the
chemical’s message to your cells: Get to work! Thyroxin controls your body’s metabolism. That means it
sets the pace for how quickly cells transform food into energy. The hormone also affects the speed of
many chemical reactions in your body.
The thyroid is one of many endocrine glands that control body functions. The glands are part of a
system that regulates hormones. When the thyroid springs into action, the original work order comes from
your brain. From atop your brain stem, an organ called the hypothalamus keeps tabs on hormone levels in
your body—about 200 in all. When thyroxin levels drop too low, the hypothalamus sends off a warning to
its neighbor, the pituitary gland. That peasized master gland kicks the thyroid into production—and kicks
you into gear.
Pay attention to your body because diseases of the thyroid are common. These problems affect
millions of people worldwide. An overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism) can affect a person’s heart and
make the person skinny and nervous. People with an underactive thyroid (hypothyroidism) feel
exhausted, gain weight, and are often cold.
Pollution may cause thyroid disease. Some industrial chemicals are absorbed by the body through
air, water, or food. Those substances can disrupt the body’s hormone balance. Toxins from smoking
cigarettes or chewing tobacco can damage the thyroid too. The good news is that there are treatments for
some thyroid conditions. And if you are like most people, your body’s energy control system keeps
everything in balance so that you’re raring to go!
1- According to the text, how does an overactive thyroid lead to weight loss?
a) It can help people eat less fattening foods.
b) It can make people want to do more exercise.
c) It controls people’s metabolism.
d) It can make people feel sleepy and less energetic.
2- Which option below describes the relationship between the following two sentences? “The thyroid is
one of many endocrine glands that control body functions. The glands are part of a system that regulates
hormones.”
a) The sentences make comparisons about the thyroid.

b) The first sentence names a cause, and the second sentence describes an effect.
c) The first and second sentences describe steps in a sequence.
d) The second sentence adds information to the description in the first sentence.
3- In the second paragraph, the word superhighway refers to

a) thyroid
b) bloodstream
c) body
d) chemical
4- What is the other endocrine gland mentioned in the passage?

a) adrenal
b) ovaries
c) pineal
d) pituitary
5- According to the text, which of the following does the thyroid gland NOT play an important role in?
a) the rate at which a person can run
b) the heart rate
c) the rate at which the body converts food into energy
d) a person’s energy level
6- What is the main purpose of the text?
a) To compare and contrast the thyroid with the pituitary gland.
b) To persuade young people to eat better and exercise more.
c) To describe the thyroid gland and explain how it works.
d) To provide a list of hormones and explain what each one does.
7- Why is the pituitary gland called master gland, according to the passage?
a) It can push the thyroid into production.
b) It can push the pancreas into production.
c) It can push the thymus into production.
d) It can push the adrenal into production.
8- According to the text, which of the following explains how living in a highlypolluted area can cause
thyroid disease?
a) The thyroid produces melatonin, and high pollution areas help maintain
circadian rhythm and regulate reproductive hormones.
b) The thyroid produces insulin and glucagon, and high pollution are as
regulate blood glucose.
c) High pollution areas expose people to harmful chemicals that damage the
hormone balance.
d) The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit
pituitary hormone production in high pollution areas.
9- Which of the following is in the brain and sends messages to the pituitary gland?
a) thyroxin
b) hypothalamus
c) thymus
d) ovaries
10- It can be inferred from the text that thyroid imbalance has been totally cured in
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Both conditions
d) None of the above
PASSAGE II:
Everyone knows that belching is rude, but cows do it all the time — every 40 seconds, in fact!
The noisy burst of gas is more than just bad manners. It's bad for the environment. Each belch releases
methane, a colorless, odorless gas. Methane is one of the gases that contribute to global warming, or the
gradual increase in Earth's temperature. Scientists say a single cow releases up to 150 gallons of methane
a day.
All that belching adds up, say scientists. Altogether, the 100 million cows in the US are
responsible for 20 percent of the nation's methane emissions. Cows aren't trying to harm the
environment—they just can't help it. The methane is made by billions of microorganisms, or tiny
creatures that live in cows' stomachs. The microorganisms help the animals digest hay and grass. The gas
comes out when cows exhale. Bad belches haven't stopped cows from being in demand. Cattle and other
livestock currently supply onethird of the world's protein; nevertheless, the gas they release is harmful to
the environment. As Earth's population continues to grow, the market for cattle and other livestock is
expected to increase quickly.
The United Nations predicts that demand for meat and milk will be more than double by 2050.
Meeting that increased demand will require more livestock. As a result, even more methane will be
released into the atmosphere. "Livestock's contribution to environmental problems is on a massive scale,"
U.N. officials wrote in a recent report. They added that, "The impact is so significant that it needs to be
addressed with urgency." Scientists all over the world are trying to figure out ways to lower cows'
methane production. They want to make sure that more cows doesn't mean more pollution.
German scientists have invented a pill that they say could improve cow digestion. The fistsized
pill would release new microorganisms into a cow's stomach. Early studies suggest the pill could help
reduce overall methane emissions in Europe by 4 to 6 percent. Other researchers are fiddling with cows'
food. British scientists think cows should eat more natural sugar. Swiss researchers propose adding extra
fat to cows' diets by mixing coconut or sunflower seeds into cattle feed. Some scientists are even trying
garlic. Early results suggest that garlic may reduce methane, but it also gives cows bad breath and could
give their milk an unusual flavour.
Lowering cows' emissions could make a big difference to the planet's climate. The methane they
produce is more than 20 times more harmful than carbon dioxide which is also a greenhouse gas.
The research on improving cows' digestion might have other benefits too. Jess Miner, an animal
nutritionist at the University of Nebraska, says it could help the animals get more energy from their food.
That would mean cows wouldn't have to eat as much. "We could produce more cows with the same
amount of feed," Miner told CNN. "Agriculture will be
made more efficient." You can help protect the Earth!
1 Get walking: If you're not going far, walk or ride your bike. Cars burn fuel, producing greenhouse
gases.
2 Cool off: Put on a sweater instead of blasting the heat. Running a heater uses a lot of energy. In the
summer, use a fan instead of an air conditioner.
3 Shop locally: Look for foods and products made near your home, such as vegetables at a local farmers'
market. Companies use a lot of fuel to ship products by plane or truck to faraway stores.
11- Which word would best replace nevertheless in the following sentence? “Cattle may seem harmless;
nevertheless, the gas they release is harmful to the environment.”
a) because
b) otherwise
c) however
d) since
12- According to the text, how much methane does a single cow release?
a) up to 100 gallons a day
b) up to 150 gallons a day
c) up to 100 gallons a week
d) up to 150 gallons a week
13- According to the excerpt, what are some ways to solve the problem of pollution created by cows?
a) all of the below
b) adding extra fat into cattle feed
c) adding garlic into the cows’ diet
d) giving cows a pill to help their digestion
14- Based on the text, which of the following conclusions can be drawn about cows?
a) Cows are not an important part of the food chain.
b) Only certain types of cows are releasing methane.
c) Cows have a significant impact on the planet’s health.
d) The demand for cows will decrease after 2050.
15- What is the primary topic of the text?

a) The reason for the high demand of cattle.
b) The different ways of measuring methane released by cows.
c) The way in which cows are polluting the planet.
d) d) The various ways human beings are responsible for polluting the planet.
16- Which word would best replace emissions in the following sentence? “Lowering cows' emissions
could make a big difference to the planet's climate.”
a) containment
b) concealment
c) refrainment
d) emanation
17- According to the text, how many cows are responsible for 20 percent of the nation's methane
emissions in the United States?
a) 10000 million cows
b) 10 million cows
c) 100 million cows

d) 1000 million cows
18- According to the text, if everyone were to shop locally, how would it help the earth?
a) companies would use less vegetables
b) companies would use more fuel
c) companies would use more vegetables
d) companies would use less fuel
19- Why has The United Nations predicted that the demand for meat and milk will increase by more than
double by 2050?
a) Because Earth’s population is growing.
b) Because Earth’s agriculture is growing.
c) Because Earth’s solution is growing.
d) Because Earth’s pollution is growing.
20- Which word would best replace efficient in the following sentence? “Agriculture will be made more
efficient?
a) confusing
b) expensive
c) interesting
d) effective
PASSAGE III:
Mass transportation transformed the social and economic fabric of the American city in three
fundamental ways. It catalyzed physical expansion, it sorted out people and land uses, and it accelerated
the inherent instability of urban life. By opening vast areas of unoccupied land for residential expansion,
the omnibuses, horse railways, commuter trains, and electric trolleys pulled settled regions outward two
to four times more distant from city centers than they were in the premodern era. In 1850, for example,
the borders of Boston lay scarcely two miles from the old business district; by the turn of the century the
radius extended ten miles. Now those who could afford it could live far removed from the old city center
and still commute there for work, shopping, and entertainment. The new accessibility of land around the
periphery of almost every major city sparked an explosion of real estate development and fueled what we
now know as an urban sprawl. Between 1890 and 1920, for example, some 250,000 new residential lots
were recorded within the borders of Chicago, most of them located in outlying areas. Over the same
period, another 550,000 were plotted outside the city limits but within the metropolitan area. Anxious to
take advantage of the possibilities of commuting, real estate developers added 800,000 potential building
sites to the Chicago region in just thirty years – lots that could have housed five to six million people.
Of course, many were never occupied; there was always a huge surplus of subdivided, but
vacant, land around Chicago and other cities. These excesses underscore a feature of residential expansion
related to the growth of mass transportation: urban sprawl was essentially unplanned. It was carried out
by thousands of small investors who paid little heed to coordinated land use or to future land users. Those
who purchased and prepared land for residential purposes, particularly land near or outside city borders
where transit lines and middleclass inhabitants were anticipated, did so to create demand as much as to
respond to it. Chicago is a prime example of this process. Real estate subdivision there proceeded much
faster than population growth.
21 What is the main topic of this text?
a) The mass migration to rural areas and farming communities.
b) The unusual experience of mass transportation in Chicago that has not
taken place anywhere else.
c) The effect of modern technology on mass transportation.
d) The relationship between mass transportation, urban development and
real estate.
22 Which word would best replace sorted out in the following sentence? It catalyzed physical expansion,
sorted out people and land uses.
a) testified
b) stratified
c) ratified
d) modified
23 According to the text, which of the following sentences is correct?

a) Mass transportation revised the social and economic fabric of the
American city in three fundamental ways.
b) Mass transportation revised the social and economic fabric of the
American village in three fundamental ways.
c) In 1850, the borders of Boston lay scarcely two miles from the old tourist district.
d) Mass transportation accelerated the inherent instability of rural life.
24 According to the text, which of the following refers to many in the first sentence of the second
paragraph?
a) buses
b) land lots
c) houses
d) cities
25 What was the effect of mass transportation?

a) It had no effect on the rural or urban life in the USA.
b) It negatively affected the distribution of goods.
c) It accelerated the inherent stability of urban life.
d) It affected the distribution of people over areas surrounding cities.
26 Why did areas of land remain unoccupied around Chicago?

a) in order for new residents of Chicago to look for work opportunities.
b) because people preferred rural life to living in the chaotic city.
c) because the real estate subdivision proceeded much faster than populationgrowth.
d) in order to open daycare centers for people who recently moved to the Chicago suburbs.
27 Which of the following would best replace it in the underlined section: "Now those who could afford
it………’
a) to live outside of the city.
b) to cultivate new areas.
c) to build luxurious houses.
d) to leave their rural lives .
28 How was urban expansion carried out?

a) It was carried out by thousands of large investors.
b) It was well planned.
c) It was done to stimulate economic growth.
d) It was unplanned.
29 Which of the following best fits the underlined section in paragraph 1“the borders of Chicago, most of
them located…”?
a) the borders of Chicago: most of them located.
b) the borders of Chicago. Most of them located.
c) NO CHANGE.
d) the borders of Chicago; most of them located.
30 Which word would best replace anticipated, in the following sentence? “Those who purchased and
prepared land for residential purposes, particularly land near or outside city borders where transit lines
and middleclass inhabitants were anticipated, did so to create demand as much as to respond to it.”
a) doubted
b) amazed
c) expected
d) unprepared
PASSAGE IV:
Palaces are known for their beauty and splendor, but they offer little protection against attacks. It
is easy to defend a fortress, but fortresses are not designed with the comfort of a king or queen in mind.
When it comes to structures that are both majestic and wellfortified, the classic European castle is the
pinnacle of design. Across the ages castles changed, developed, and eventually fell out of use, but they
still command the fascination of our culture.
Castles were originally built in England by Norman invaders in 1066. As William the Conqueror
advanced through England, he fortified key positions to secure the land he had taken. The castles he built
allowed the Norman lords to retreat to safety when threatened by English rebellion. Castles also served as
bases of operation for offensive attacks. Troops were summoned to, organized around, and deployed from
castles. In this way castles served both offensive and defensive roles in military operations.
Not limited to military purposes, castles also served as offices from which the lord would
administer control over his fiefdom. That is to say, the lord of the land would hold court in his castle.
Those that were socially beneath the lord would come to report the affairs of the lands that they governed
and pay tribute to the lord. They would address disputes, handle business, feast, and enjoy festivities. In
this way castles served as important social centers in medieval England. Castles also served as symbols of
power. Built on prominent sites overlooking the surrounding areas, castles constantly loomed in the
background of many peasants’ lives and served as a daily reminder of the lord’s strength.
The first castles constructed in England were made from earth and timber. Those who constructed
them took advantage of natural features, such as hills and rivers, to increase defenses. Since these castles
were constructed from wood, they were highly susceptible to attacks by fire. Wooden castles were
gradually replaced by stone, which greatly increased the strength of these fortifications; however, being
made from stone did not make these castles entirely fireproof. Attackers could hurl flaming objects into
the castle through the windows or ignite the wooden doors. This led to moving the windows and
entrances off the ground floor and up to the first floor to make them more difficult to access. Castles
served many purposes during the Middle Ages.
As the nobility accumulated wealth, England became increasingly attractive to those who sought
to plunder. Raids by Vikings and other marauders increased in regularity. In response to these attacks,
castle defenses were updated and improved. Arrowslits were added. These were small holes in the castle,
large enough for an arrow to fit through, which allowed defenders to fire from nearly invulnerable
positions. Towers were built from which defenders could provide flanking fire. These towers were
connected to the castle by wooden bridges, so that if one tower fell, the rest of the castle was still easy to
defend. Multiple rings of castle walls were constructed, so that even if attackers made it past one wall,
they would be caught on a killing ground between inner and outer walls. Advances such as these greatly
increased the defense of castles.
The demise of castles can ultimately be attributed to gunpowder. Gunpowder was first introduced
to Europe during the 14th century, but the first gunpowder weapons were unreliable, inaccurate, and weak
by later standards. During the 15th century, artillery became powerful enough to break through stone
walls. This greatly undermined the military role of castles. Castles were then replaced by artillery forts
that had no role in civil administration, and country houses that were indefensible. Though castles no
longer serve their original purposes, remaining castles receive millions of visitors each year from those
who wish to experience these majestic vestiges of a time long passed.
31 The idiom pay tribute in paragraph 3 means

a) bold court
b) pay fees
c) offer protection
d) show gratitude
32 Which of the following best describes the main idea in paragraph 2?

a) It describes how and why William the Conqueror took control of England.
b) It explains why castles were first built in England and the military purposes they served.
c) It shows how Norman lords were often scared and frequently retreated.
d) It details all of the purposes that English castles served.
33 Which best explains why the original castles were first made from earth and timber?
a) It takes a lot more time and energy to build a stone castle.
b) It did not occur to people to build castles out of stone.
c) People did not realize how weak wooden castles would be against fire.
d) Wooden castles were prettier than dirty stone castles.
34 Which of the following is not a true statement according to the text?

a) Palaces are designed for luxury, not fortification.
b) Fortresses are designed for fortification, not luxury.
c) Castles are designed for luxury and fortification.
d) Palaces are designed for luxury and fortification.
35 Which explains why castles are no longer built nowadays.
a) They take a long time and effort to build.
b) They lost their defense power.
c) They can be easily destroyed by new weapons.
d) All of the above.
36 Which of the following best describes the structure of the text in the fifth paragraph?
a) Compare and contrast
b) Order of importance
c) Cause and effect
d) Chronological order
37 Which is not described in the text as an improvement in castle defenses?

a) Towers attached to the main castle by wooden bridges.
b) Deep ditches dug around the castle walls and filled with water.
c) Multiple castle walls providing layers of defenses.
d) Windows and entrances raised off of the ground floor.
38 Which choice would best replace ‘fortifications; however,’?

a) fortifications: however;
b) fortifications: however,
c) fortifications; however;
d) NO CHANGE
39 Which of the following titles would best describe the content of this passage?
a) William the Conqueror: Bringing Castles to England.
b) Defending the Castle: Technologies Used to Defend Medieval Castles.
c) History of Castles: The Rise and Fall of Castles in England.
d) Fancy Living: Learning about Castles, Palaces, and Fortresses.
40 The following sentence, This greatly undermined the military role of castles refers to
a) defensible castles
b) first gunpowder weapons
c) strong artillery
d) civil administration
PASSAGE V:
If you are reading this right now, you are taking part in the wonder of literacy. Because of printed
words, people can relay information across both time and space. Ideas are encoded in writing and
transmitted to readers across thousands of miles and years. Because of this development, the words of
people distant to us can influence events, impart knowledge, and change the world. Much of the credit for
the development of this phenomenon can be attributed to one man.
Johannes Gensfleischzur Laden zum Gutenberg, better known as Johannes Gutenberg, was born
in the German city of Mainz. Though most of Gutenberg’s early life is a mystery, historians believe that
he studied at the University of Erfurt in 1418 and spent much of his young adult life practicing the
profession of his father: goldsmithing. Having a penchant for fortune and success, Gutenberg borrowed
money from investors in 1439 and found himself in financial trouble. In the year 1439 the city in which
Gutenberg lived was planning to exhibit its large collection of relics from Emperor Charlemagne (a
famous ruler who had united much of Western Europe around 800 AD). The exhibit was expected to
bring many visitors to the town, so Gutenberg took investments and created many polished metal mirrors
which were to be sold to the visitors (it was a common belief at that time that mirrors were able to capture
holy light from religious relics). The mirrors which Gutenberg produced probably would have sold well,
but due to severe flooding the event was delayed by one year. The impatient investors demanded that
Gutenberg return their investments, but he had already spent the money on producing the unsalable
mirrors. He was trapped in a difficult situation. In order to satisfy the investors, Gutenberg decided to
share his greatest secret with them.
This secret would forever change the world, all of history, and even the process of keeping
history. It’s been argued that Gutenberg’s idea was one of the greatest of all mankind. This one idea
would lead to the spread of countless others. It would play a key role in the development of the
Renaissance, Reformation, the Age of Enlightenment, and the Scientific Revolution. This idea would
bring learning to the masses and form the backbone of the modern knowledgebased economy. Gutenberg
had created the mechanical printing press with movable type. This brilliant idea would soon change the
world, but in the short term he bungled what proved to be a large and risky investment. He found himself
in financial trouble once again and was sued by one of his investors, who accused Gutenberg of
mismanaging money meant for the production of books. The courts ruled against Gutenberg; he lost
control of the shop and was effectively bankrupt.
Before the spread of Gutenberg’s idea, literature was primarily handwritten. That means that each
copy of the Catholic Bible and all of its 73 books were tediously and painstakingly hand scribed, and this
was done before the invention of the ballpoint pen. Given the amount of detail that went into scribing
each text, creating a single copy of a bible could take years. Because of the effort that went into producing
them, books were extremely rare and valuable. Because of the value and scarcity of books, there was little
reason for common people to learn to read or write since it was unlikely that they would ever handle a
book in their lifetimes. Gutenberg’s invention would change all of that. His printing press allowed
literature to be produced on a mass scale. The first major text that Gutenberg produced was a 42 line copy
of the Bible. Most copies of his Bible went to monasteries and universities, though one was sold to a
wealthy private individual. Copies are known to have sold for 30 florins (about three years of wages for a
clerk at the time), which may seem expensive but was nonetheless much cheaper than a hand produced
copy. Only twentyone complete Gutenberg Bibles exist today and the last one traded hands in 1987 for
4.9 million dollars, the highest price ever paid for a book at the time.
Though he had failed as a businessman, the technologies that he had created spread across Europe
rapidly. As these printing technologies and techniques spread, news and books began to travel across
Europe much faster than previously possible. The world has not been the same since. Though Gutenberg
was financially unsuccessful in his own lifetime, he made the world a much richer place.
41 Which best describes the structure of the text in paragraph 2?

a) Compare and contrast
b) Problem and solution
c) Chronological order
d) Spatial order
42 Which of the following expresses the correct order of events?
a) Gutenberg was born in Mainz, invested in mirrors, and then became a goldsmith.
b) Gutenberg created the printing press, printed the bible, and then invented the metal mirror.
c) Gutenberg went to college, revealed his press, and then invested in shiny mirrors.
d) Gutenberg studied goldsmithing, invented the printing press, and then
lost his shop.
43 Which best explains why Gutenberg’s plan to sell mirrors failed?

a) The mirrors were less popular than he had expected.
b) Too many other people had the same idea.
c) Newly invented glass mirrors rendered his metal mirrors obsolete.
d) None of the above.
44 Which of the following replaces the phrase Penchant for in paragraph 2?

a) strong inclination
b) strong disliking
c) weak desire
d) complete failure
45 Which is NOT listed in the text as a movement to which Gutenberg’s idea contributed?
a) The Great Schism
b) The Scientific Revolution
c) The Renaissance
d) The Age of Enlightenment
46 Which of the following is best supported by evidence from the text?

a) Gutenberg’s idea was a tremendous success that made him incredibly
wealthy.
b) Gutenberg’s idea didn’t catch on in his lifetime, but grew very popular
after his death.
c) Gutenberg’s idea did not make him rich but it spread very quickly.
d) Gutenberg’s idea did not catch on right away but made him incredibly
rich over time.
47 Which best explains why most people were illiterate during Gutenberg’s time?
a) Books were rare and very expensive.
b) The public school system had not yet been created.
c) Writing had not yet been invented.
d) Emperor Charlemagne made reading and writing illegal for common people.
48 Which best expresses the author’s purpose in writing this text?

a) To describe what life was like during the Middle Ages.
b) To persuade people to read and write more.
c) To chart the spread of printing technologies across Europe.
d) To provide biographical information about Johannes Gutenberg.
49 Which best explains why so few of Gutenberg’s bibles were sold to private individuals?
a) Gutenberg wanted to use his talents to help churches and universities.
b) Gutenberg’s Bible was pretty expensive and most people couldn’t read.
c) Most Europeans were not religious and did not care about the bible.
d) Gutenberg’s investors forbade him from selling the bibles to private
individuals.
50 Which of the following titles best expresses the main idea of this text?
a) Investing Wisely: Turning Your Good Ideas into Money.
b) How to Make Books Using the Gutenberg Method.
c) The City of Mainz: Life in Medieval Germany.
d) Gutenberg: A Man Who Changed the World.
English 2016 exam

PASSAGE I:
I grew up with buckets, shovels, and nets waiting by the back door, hip-waders hanging in the
closet; tide table charts covering the refrigerator door; and a microscope sat on the kitchen table. My
mother is a marine biologist. Our household might have been described as uncooperative. Our meals
weren't always served in the expected order of breakfast, lunch, and supper. Everything depended on the
tides. When the tide was low, Mom could be found down on the mudflats. When the tide was high, she
would be standing on the inlet bridge with her plankton net.
I have great respect for my mother. I learned early that the moon affected the tides. Mom was always
waiting for a full moon, when low tide would be much lower than usual and high tide much higher. The
moon is closer to the earth when full, so one's gravitational pull is stronger. I knew that it took about eight
hours for the tides to change from high to low and sixteen hours for a complete cycle of tides. I didn't
have to wait to learn these things in school. In our house they were everyday knowledge.
[1] Often, brother and I, joined our mother on her adventures into tidal lands. [2] At the very low tides of
the full moon, when almost all the water was sucked away, we found the hideaways where crabs, snails,
starfish, and sea urchins stored in order not to be seen. [3] Sometimes we would dig with shovels in the
mud, where yellow and white worms lived in their leathery tunnels.
For plankton tows, we would stand on the bridge while Mom lowered a cone-shaped net that is
often used by marine biologists. Then we would patiently wait. After a while, she would pull up the net,
and we would go home. Later, we would see her sitting at the kitchen table, peering through the lenses of
her microscope at a drop of water from the bottle-watching the thousands of tiny swimming organisms.
1. Which choice would best fit the underlined portion in line 1?

A. waiting by the back door.
B. waiting by the back door;
C. waiting, by the back door,
D. NO CHANGE
2. Which choice would best fit the word "sat" in line 3?

A. was sitting
B. sitting
C. NO CHANGE
D. would sit
3. Which choice would best fit "My mother is" in line 3?

A. NO CHANGE
B. As my mother's interest is science, she is
C. My mother's occupation is that of
D. Having studied, my mother is
4. Which choice for "our household might have been described as un cooperative" would most effectively
introduce the rest of paragraph 1?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Our household was not run on a regular routine.
C. There seemed to be no explanation for why mom ran our household the way she did.
D. Mom ran our household in a most remarkable manner.
5. Which choice would best describe "depended on" in line 5?

A. was subservient to the disposal
B. trusted in
C. NO CHANGE
D. was defenseless in the face of
6. Which choice would best replace "The moon is" in line 10?
A. Is
B. Since the moon is
C. NO CHANGE
D. The moon,
7. Which choice would best replace "one's" in line 10?

A. it's
B. its'
C. NO CHANGE
D. Its
8. If the writer were to delete the phrase "sixteen hours for a complete cycle of tides"
in line 12, the essay would primarily lose a detail that:
A. reflects the narrator's knowledge regarding the tides.
B. helps establish the setting for the essay.
C. contradicts a point made earlier in the paragraph.
D. shows how the narrator's interests are different from the mother's interests.
9. Which choice would best fit "brother and I," in line 14?
A. brother, and I
B. NO CHANGE
C. brother, and I,
D. my brother and I
10. Which choice would best fit the underlined words in line 15?
A. away. We
B. away; we
C. NO CHANGE
D. away. Then we
11. Given that all of the choices are true, which one provides information that is relevant to line 20 and
that makes the rest of paragraph 4 understandable?
A. NO CHANGE
B. was shaped like a three-dimensional geometric figure.
C. was woven from flax and nylon material.
D. had a sample bottle tied to its smaller end.
12. The best placement for "at a drop of water from the bottle" in lines 22 and 23 would be:
A. after the word peering.
B. after the word lenses.
C. where it is now.
D. after the word watching.
13. Which choice most effectively signals the shift from paragraph 1 to the first line of paragraph 2?
A. NO CHANGE
B. The moon is a mysterious orb afloat in the sky.
C. A contrast between the moon and the tides.
D. The effects of the phases of the moon on our lives.
14. Which of the following sequences of sentences makes paragraph 3 most logical?
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. NO CHANGE
PASSAGE II:
Surrounded by the ancient city of Rome, Vatican City is an independent nation on the west bank
of the Tiber River. This tiny country-about one-sixth of a square mile in all- is also home to a
disproportionately large number of sites with great historical, artistic, and as well as religious
significance.
The Vatican Museums house a great many valuable paintings, sculptures, pieces of jewelry,
tapestries, and the world's most extensive collections of ancient manuscripts. Scholars often check out the
museums' archives of early written works for insights into lives led long ago.
Accordingly, St. Peter's Basilica, the largest cathedral in the Northern Hemisphere, is
remarkable. Built upon second-century foundations: St. Peter's features a dome designed by the artist and
architect Michelangelo. Intricate mosaics-enormous "paintings" fashioned from millions of tiny cut
stones of various colors-line each of the Basilica's several smaller domes. The marble floor, with its
intricate designs, covers the cathedral's catacombs, where popes are buried. Sculptures by Michelangelo
and Bernini, including Michelangelo's poignant Pietà, contributes to the basilica's beauty.
However, to many, the most spectacular part of Vatican City is the Sistine Chapel. This vast
chapel displays what many consider some of the most important works of Renaissance art:
Michelangelo's awe inspiring frescoes. These frescoes-paintings made on freshly spread, still-moist
plaster capture the attention of viewers with a complex array of religious images. One of his most famous
frescoes, The Last Judgment, is painted on the west wall. A series of interrelated frescoes covers the
vaulted ceiling. Despite its small size, Vatican City offers its many visitors a chance to see a wide range of
historical and artistic wonders. It is easy to understand why the city has become one of the most
frequently visited places in the world.
15. Given that all of the choices are true, which one in lines 1 and 2 best supports the sentence's claim
about Vatican City's status as an independent nation?
A. its own financial system, postal service, military forces and government.
B. an amazing history.
C. NO CHANGE
D. that has to buy most of it needs, even such necessities as water and food.
16. Which choice would best fit "about one-sixth of a square mile in all-" in line 2?
A. NO CHANGE
B. a grand total sum of about one-sixth of a square mile-
C. a total of about one-sixth of a square mile when added together-
D. about one-sixth of a square mile in its center
17. If the writer were to delete the word 'great' in line 3, it would primarily lose: A. an emphasis on the
location of the country.
B. parts of the setting of the essay.
C. a comparison between Vatican City and Rome.
D. information that stresses the importance of the sites.
18. Which choice would best fit the underlined words in line 4?
A. NO CHANGE
B. OMIT the underlined portion.
C. which have
D. having
19. Given that all of the choices are true, which one best emphasizes the extent and worth of the
museums' holdings for "a great many valuable" in line 5?
A. NO CHANGE
B. numerous important
C. a group of precious
D. thousands of treasures
20. Which choice would best fit "check out" in line 7?

A. grab an eyeful of
B. pry out
C. probe through
D. NO CHANGE
A. Nevertheless,
B. NO CHANGE
C. OMIT the underlined portion.
D. For instance,
22. If the writer were to delete the quotation marks around the word "paintings" in line 11, the sentence
would primarily lose a feature that suggests:
A. how carefully mosaics are grouped together.
B. that the mosaics in St. Peter's are the same as the mosaics in general.
C. that mosaics are not paintings in the exact meaning of the word.
D. the huge number of complexity of the mosaics in St. Peter's.
23. In paragraph 3, the writer is considering adding the following true statement: "In addition to being an
architect and artist, Michelangelo wrote poetry, including more than 300 sonnets." Should the writer make
this addition here?
A. No, since it does not focus on the main idea of the paragraph.
B. No, because it limits Michelangelo's contributions.
C. Yes, because it implies that Michelangelo was extremely gifted.
D. Yes, because it provides further details about Michelangelo.
A. NO CHANGE
B. consider as some
C. consider that some
D. consider for some
PASSAGE III:
I was 16 when my father unequivocally decided he would send me to wilderness camp for
several months. He had threatened to do it many times before, but my mother had always managed to
prevent him from actually packing me up and shipping me off. This time he was dead set on it. My latest
transgression was viewed as the last straw. In a fit of unbridled rage, I had shoved my math teacher
down a flight of steps at school. He broke his arm in two places and severely dislocated his shoulder. The
man hadn't done a thing to me. I am hard-pressed to remember why I was so irritated at him.
Anyway, Mr. Ford, my math teacher, had agreed not to press charges as favor to my dad. He
was a friend of my dad's from way back. Mr. Ford knew what was at stake. We all did. Dad was in the
middle of a tight race for sheriff in our town. This latest "Danny Thing." as my reckless behavior was now
called, had all my dad's closest advisors talking. "John, he's your son and he's a kid, but he is dragging
you down," I heard Jake Hutch tell my dad through his closed office door the night after I pushed Mr.
Ford. "If it appears you can't set the course for enforcement in your own home, how can you set the
course for this town?" So, off to Pisgah National Forest I went. I knew in my heart that "Wilderness
Camp" was surely just a euphemism for "Torture Center." I imagined hours of untold abuse at the hands
of some lumberjack-sized drill sergeant. I resolved not to be broken and to emerge from the program
unchanged. I was who I was.
Nearly everyday for six months, a small group of other troubled teens and I lugged our 30-pound
backpacks on a trek that covered about 10 miles. We hiked in a rugged wilderness which seemed
untouched by civilization. The grandeur of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me reverent. Our
counselors were firm but kind, not the ogres I had imagined. We learned how to make a fire without
matches and create a shelter with twigs, branches, and grass. We learned which plants were safe to eat out
in the wild. Late into the night, we talked about our fears and hopes. We were devoid of radios,
televisions, and cell phones. I felt myself change. I was calm and often reflective. My old impulsive self
was gone.
One morning, six months later, my dad came to pick me up. I ran to hug him and saw relief and
love in his eyes. "So what's it like being sheriff?" I asked on the ride home."I lost the race, Danny," he
said."I'm sorry, Dad." I knew my behavior probably had a lot to do with his defeat. Dad squeezed my
shoulder and brought me close. "As long as I don't ever lose you, I'm okay."
25. "I was 16 when my father unequivocally decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several
months."
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence (from paragraph 1) while keeping its
original meaning as used in the story?
A. I was 16 when my father angrily decided he would send me to wilderness
camp for several months.
B. I was 16 when, over the course of several months, my father decided he would send me to wilderness
camp.
C. I was 16 when my father decided without question he would send me to wilderness camp for several
months.
D. I was 16 when my father tentatively decided he would send me to wilderness camp for several months.
26. Which choice would best fit the sentence "my mother had always managed" in lines 2 and 3?
A. NO CHANGE
B. my mother was having always managed
C. my mother always managed
D. my mother has always managed
27. What does the idiomatic expression, "the last straw," in line 4 suggest?
A. the biggest problem of all
B. the worst thing someone could have done
C. the last in a line of unacceptable occurrences
D. the deed someone wishes he or she could take back
28. Which choice would be an appropriate synonym of "unbridled" in line 5?

A. peaceful
B. amusing
C. scarce
D. unrestrained
29. Which choice would best fit the sentence "Anyway, Mr. Ford, my math teacher" in line 8?
A. Away Mr. Ford, my math teacher
B. NO CHANGE
C. Away; Mr. Ford, my math teacher
D. Away, Mr. Ford, my math teacher
30. As it is used in line 16, the underlined word "euphemism" most nearly means:
A. a meaningless title
B. code word
C. a less offensive term
D. a nick name
31. Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the sentence "The grandeur of the sky, rock and
wilderness made me reverent" in lines 21 and 22 without changing its original meaning used in the
passage?
A. I was awed by the majesty of the sky, rock, and wilderness.
B. The inherent danger of the sky, rock, and wilderness made me nervous.
C. The power of the sky, rock and wilderness made me regret my past behavior.
D. I felt small in comparison to the sheer size of the sky, rock, and wilderness.
32. Which choice would best fit the underlined sentence in lines 26 and 27?
A. NO CHANGE
B. My old; impulsive self was gone.
C. My old, impulsive self was gone.
D. My impulsive old self was gone.
33. What is evident at the end of the story?

i. How much Danny has changed
ii. How much John loves his son
iii. How much John wanted the office
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. II and III
D. I and II
PASSAGE IV:
How should the law treat a mentally disturbed person who commits a criminal offense? Should
individuals whose mental faculties are impaired be held responsible for their actions? These questions are
of concern to social scientists, to members of the legal profession, and to individuals who work with
criminal offenders.
Over the centuries, an important part of Western law has been the concept that a civilized society
should not punish a person who is mentally incapable of controlling his or her conduct. In 1724, an
English court maintained that a man was not responsible for an act if "he doth not know what he is doing,
no more than... a wild beast." Modern standards of legal responsibility, however, have been based on the
McNaghten decision of 1843. McNaghten, a Scotsman, suffered the paranoid delusion that the English
Prime Minister, Sir Robert Peel, was persecuting him. In an attempt to kill Peel, he mistakenly shot Peel's
secretary. Everyone involved in the trial were convinced by McNaghten's senseless ramblings that he was
insane. He was judged not responsible by reason of insanity and sent to a mental hospital, where he
remained until his death. But Queen Victoria was not pleased with the verdict-apparently she felt that
political assassinations should not be taken lightly and called on the House of Lords to review the
decision. The decision was upheld and rules for the legal definition of insanity were put into writing. The
McNaghten Rule states that a defendant may be found "not guilty by reason of insanity" only if he were
so severely disturbed at the time of his act that he did not know what he was doing, or that if he did know
what he was doing, he did not know it was wrong.
The McNaghten Rule was adopted in the United States, and the distinction of knowing right from
wrong remained the basis of most decisions of legal insanity for over a century. Some states added to their
*statutes the doctrine of "irresistible impulse," which recognizes that some mentally ill individuals may
respond correctly when asked if a particular act is morally right or wrong but still be unable to control
their behavior.
During the 1970s, a number of state and federal courts adopted a broader legal definition of
insanity proposed by the American Law Institute, which states: "A person is not responsible for criminal
conduct if at the time of such conduct, as a result of mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity
either to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the
law." The word substantial suggests that "any" incapacity is not enough to avoid criminal responsibility
but that "total" incapacity is not required either. The use of the word appreciate rather than know implies
that intellectual awareness of right or wrong is not enough; individuals must have some understanding of
the moral or legal consequences of their behavior before they can be held criminally responsible.
The problem of legal responsibility in the case of mentally disordered individuals is currently a
topic of intense debate, and a number of legal and mental health professionals have recommended
abolishing the insanity plea as a defense. The reasons for this recommendation are varied. Many experts
believe that the current courtroom procedures in which psychiatrists and psychologists for the prosecution
and the defense present contradictory evidence as to the defendant's mental state-are confusing to the jury
and do little to help the cause of justice. Some also argue that the abuse of the insanity plea by clever
lawyers has allowed too many criminals to escape conviction. Others claim that acquittal by reason of
insanity often leads to a worse punishment (an indeterminate sentence to an institution for the criminally
insane that may confine a person for life) than being convicted and sent to prison (with the possibility of
parole in a few years).
Despite the current controversy, actual cases of acquittal by reason of insanity are quite rare.
Jurors seem reluctant to believe that people are not morally responsible for their acts, and lawyers,
knowing that an insanity plea is apt to fail, tend to use it only as a last resort. In California in 1980, only
259 defendants (out of approximately 52,000) were successful in pleading not guilty by reason of
insanity.
34. From information in paragraphs 3 and 4, it can reasonably be inferred that the legal definition of
insanity was changed in the 1970s after:
A. federal courts won a case with state courts over a proposal made by the American Law Institute.
B. the doctrine of "irresistible impulse" was found to be in contrast with accepted notions of justice.
C. supporters of the McNaghten Rule had been using the insanity defense in far too many murder cases.
D. courts found that justice was not always established when the McNaghten Rule was applied.
35. Based on the passage, the primary purpose for the 1970s redefinition of insanity proposed by the
American Law Institute was to:
A. remove the insanity defense from American courtrooms.
B. define more precisely the concepts of responsibility and intellectual capacity.
C. redefine legal insanity to include as many criminals as possible.
D. apply the McNaghten Rule only to trials comprising cases of mistaken identity.
36. According to the explanation provided in paragraph 4, the use of the verb "appreciate" in the phrase
"to appreciate the wrongfulness" (line 30) instead of "know" implies which of the following?
A. The contrast between right and wrong is something people feel rather than know, which makes
deciding legal responsibility difficult.
B. To know suggests inevitability, and distinguishing right from wrong is often a subjective issue in
determining legal responsibility.
C. The verb "appreciate" implies that an action and that action's implications must be understood for there
to be legal responsibility.
D. An insane person would "know" something the way a sane person would "know" something, and be
able to value that knowledge, too.
37. According to the passage, a lawyer contemplating using insanity as a defense for a client should do
which of the following?
A. Carefully assess using the defense, since in actual practice it rarely works
B. Assemble for trial a team of expert witnesses with a wide range of viewpoints on mental illness
C. Ensure that the prosecution in a client's trial does not use the doctrine of
"irresistible impulse"
D. Recommend that the client be acquitted because a doctor has judged him/her criminally insane
38. The passage indicates that individuals who use the insanity defense:
A. are not allowed to do so unless it can be proved that they are really insane.
B. should be tried, convicted, and punished whether or not they are really insane.
C. are legally responsible for their actions even if a jury decides they are not guilty.
D. might risk a lifelong imprisonment even if the acquittal is based on insanity.
39. According to the passage, one of the reasons some mental health and legal groups want to abolish the
insanity defense is that:
A. even skillful lawyers are confused about when to use and when not to use it.
B. juries that must classify conflicting testimony become confused, and justice suffers.
C. when it is invoked, even if the case is won, the punishment often ends up being too lenient.
D. innocent defendants are too often being punished unfairly by unsympathetic juries.
40. The passage states that McNaghten wanted to kill the English prime minister because the Scotsman
thought that he:
A. would establish a confusing legal precedent.
B. had been rejected by Peel's secretary.
C. would be better off in a mental hospital.
D. had been wronged by the prime minister.
41. One of the author's main points about the legal concept of responsibility in the passage is that:
A. the phrase "not guilty by reason of insanity" has made our legal system more effective.
B. responsibility and guilt are legal concepts, and their meanings can be modified.
C. distinguishing right from wrong is a simple issue of admitting the truth to oneself.
D. people can become severely disturbed without a word of warning to anyone.
42. One of the main points made in the last paragraph is that insanity pleas were:
A. unjustifiable to most juries in California in 1980.
B. used in most trials in California in 1980.
C. often successful in California in 1980.
D. common with lawyers in California in 1980.
PASSAGE V:
Clifford Jackson, or Abshu, as he preferred to be known in the streets, had committed himself
several years ago to use his talents as a playwright to broaden the horizons for the young, gifted, and
black-which was how he saw every child milling around that dark street. As head of the community center
he went after every existing grant on the city and state level to bring them puppet shows with the message
to avoid drugs and stay in school; and plays in the park such as actors rapping their way through
Shakespeare's A Midsummer Night's Dream. Abshu believed there was something in Shakespeare for
everyone, even the young of Brewster Place, and if he broadened their horizons just a little bit, there
might be enough room for some of them to slip through and see what the world had waiting. No, it would
not be a perfect world, but definitely one with more room than they had now.
The kids who hung around the community center liked Abshu because he never preached and it
was clear that when they spoke he listened; so he could zero in on the kid who had a real problem. It
might be an offhand remark while shooting a game of pool or a one-on-one out on the basketball court,
but he had a way of making them feel special with just a word or two. Abshu wished that his own family
could have stayed together. There were four of them who ended up in foster care: him, two younger
sisters, and a baby brother. He understood why his mother did what she did, but he couldn't help
wondering if there might have been a better way.
Abshu was put into a home that already had two other boys from foster care. The Masons lived in
a small wooden bungalow right on the edge of Linden Hills. And Mother Mason insisted that they tell
any-body who asked that they actually lived in Linden Hills, a more prestigious address than Summit
Place. It was a home that was kept immaculate. But what he remembered most about the Masons was that
it seemed there was never quite enough to eat. She sent them to school with a lunch of exactly one and a
half sandwiches white bread spread with margarine and sprinkled with sugar-and half an apple.
When Abshu dreamed of leaving--which was every day--he had his own apartment with a
refrigerator overflowing with food that he gorged himself with day and night. The Masons weren't mean
people; he knew he could have ended up with a lot worse. Abshu lived with these people for nine years,
won a scholarship to the local college, and moved out to support himself through school by working in a
dough-nut shop. By this time his mother was ready to take her children back home, but he decided that
since he was already out on his own, he would stay there one less mouth for her to worry about feeding.
After he graduated with his degree in social work, he might even be able to give her a little
money to help her along. One thing he did thank the Masons for was keeping him out of gangs. There was
a strict curfew in their home that was rigidly observed. And church was mandatory. "When you're out on
your own," Father Mason always said, "you can do whatever you want, but in my home you do as I say."
No, they weren't mean people, but they were stingy with their food and with their affection.
Existing that way all the time, on the edge of hunger, on the edge of kindness, gave Abshu an
appreciation for a life fully lived. Do whatever job makes you happy, regardless of the cost; and fill your
home with love. Well, his home became the community center right around the corner from Brewster
Place and the job that made him most fulfilled was working with young kids.
The kids who hung out at the community center weren't all lost yet. They wanted to make use of
the tutors for their homework; and they wanted a safe place to hang. His motto was: Lose no child to the
streets.
43. According to the passage, which of the following most closely identifies Abshu's definition of a life
fully lived?
A. Being loved in your home and satisfied with your job.
B. The realization of your dreams and following of your goal.
C. Togetherness with your family and the sharing of laughter.
D. Working in the community and striving for equality.
44. Which of the following statements about Abshu's attitude toward his mother's choices early in his life
is supported by the passage?
A. Abshu wishes he could overcome his bitterness feeling toward her for placing him and his siblings into
foster care.
B. As an adult, Abshu is concerned that his mother is troubled by her decision to put her children in foster
care and he wants to support and comfort her now.
C. Abshu wonders if she might have made a better decision about letting him and his siblings go into
foster care, even though he understands why she did it.
D. Being ungrateful to his mother as a child, Abshu wants to apologize to her because she was doing her
best for her family.
45. Which of the following statements about the children entering the community center is supported by
the passage?
A. They had unrealistic expectations that Abshu's voice softened while talking to them.
B. Abshu's wanted to raise the children's expectations without toning them down.
C. In Abshu's eyes, the children who would succeed were the ones who cause the most trouble.
D. They were prepared to believe in each other more than in themselves.
46. As can be inferred from the passage, which of the following characters lives according to Abshu's
definition of a life fully lived?
A. Mother Mason
B. Father Mason
C. Abshu as a child
D. Abshu as an adult
47. The point of view from which the passage is told can best be described as that of:
A. An anonymous narrator writing about a man dedicating his life to help children after years of his own
suffering.
B. A friend describing another man's experience with children in a neighborhood where he helped bring
back a falling community center.
C. A man thinking about his best days of his life working as a head of a
community center in a fighting district.
D. A man speaking about his different experiences beginning with his childhood after years of his own
suffering.
48. It can reasonably be inferred from the first paragraph that in obtaining outside funding for the
community center, Abshu could be characterized as:
A. thorough in searching for potential sources for financial aid.
B. reluctant to spoil the children with charity.
C. interested in having the children write grant applications for financial aid.
D. determined on letting the children decide how the money would be spent.
49. As can reasonably be inferred from the passage that Abshu and the Masons would agree with, which
of the following statements is the best way to raise a child?
A. Children must enhance their sense of discipline to shoulder community
responsibility.
B. Children must give priority to the society to accomplish greatness.
C. Achieving happiness for a child requires being religious from the early years.
D. A child must get involved in works of art and literature including universal
themes.
50. Which of the following is a cherished dream that Abshu expects to make a reality in his lifetime, as
can reasonably be inferred from the passage?
A. Establishing similar centers all over the country due to the achievements of the district center.
B. Helping most of the children, if not all, change their views of themselves and their future life.
C. Making a big sum of money to restore his family in one house.
D. Helping most of the children, if not all, at the neighborhood center transition from sports to creative
dramatic arts.

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USTEM Academy

Physics 2021 exam

Daughter: What is a beat?

(Questions 1-5) belong to passage I:

3- Beats depend on:

4- Since we have two vocal cords:

Resistor A Resistor B Resistor C

Voltage Current Current Current Current Current Current

(V) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA) (mA)

0.25 25 25 150 150 5 4.5

0.50 50 50 195 195 10 9.0

1.00 100 100 230 230 20 18.0

2.00 200 200 295 295 40 36.0

3.00 300 300 345 345 60 54.0

4.00 400 400 405 405 80 72.0

4.50 450 450 420 420 90 81.0

5.00 500 500 445 445 100 90.0

(Questions 6-10) belong to passage II:

KEB + PEB = KEA + PEA

The fractional change in frequency is given by:

C. Increases then remains constant then increases again.

Trial Time (s) Speed (m/s)

(Questions 16-20) belong to passage IV:

(Questions 21-25) belong to passage V:

Chemistry 2021 Exam

TABLE 1 Initial and Equilibrium Concentrations of N2O4(9) and NO2(9) at 100 °C

Experiment Initial [N204] Initial [NO2] Equilibrium Equilibrium Kc

1 0.0 0.0200 0.00140 0.0172 0.211

3 0.0 0.0400 0.00452 0.0310 0.213

Questions (26-29) belong to passage I

Where: q = heat energy, m = mass, ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 = heat of fusion

Element Melting point (℃) Boiling point (℃) ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 (KJ/mol)

Question (30-35) belong to passage II

A. is less than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Zinc.

B. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Magnesium.

C. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Copper.

D. is greater than ∆𝐻𝑓𝑢𝑠 of Aluminum.

Question (36-41) belong to passage III

Gas Molar mass (g.mol) Solubility (M)

TABLE (2) Solubilities of Some Alcohols in Water and in Hexane*

Alcohol Solubility in H2O Solubility in C6H14

Figure (1) Effect of pressure on gas solubility

(Questions 42-50) belong to passage IV

Physics 2020 exam

Figure (1): Felix Jump

Questions (1-7) refers to Passage (I):

1. What causes a falling object to reach a terminal velocity?

7. Which graph would represent the acceleration of motion if Felix

Elapsed time Air Temperture inside the car

20 37.2°C 40.0°C 42.8°C 45.6°C 48.3°C

30 40.0°C 42.8°C 45.6°C 48.3°C 51.1°C

40 42.2°C 45.0°C 47.8°C 50.6°C 53.3°C

50 43.9°C 46.6°C 49.4°C 52.2°C 55.0°C

60 45.0°C 47.6°C 50.6°C 53.3°C 56.1°C

Time Temperature Temperature Temperature Temperature (°C)

0 42.0 42.0 42.0 42.0

1 41.0 41.3 41.8 41.9

2 40.0 40.8 41.3 41.6

3 39.0 40.0 40.5 40.9