21/06/2022 CODE-A

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INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

FOR MORE TESTS CLICK HERE
MM : 720 Test - 9 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A (1) The extension in steel and copper parts will
1. Two blocks A and B attached to each other by a be in ratio of 1 : 2
massless spring are kept on smooth horizontal
(2) The stress applied on copper rod will be
surface and pulled by a force of 90 N as shown in
more
figure. If at some instant, 10 kg mass has an
acceleration of 6 ms–2, what is acceleration of 20 (3) Extension produced in steel rod will be more
kg mass at the same instant?
(4) Stress in both copper and steel will be equal

3. Monoatomic, diatomic and nonlinear triatomic

gases whose initial pressure and volume are the
same are compressed until their final volume is
(1) 0.5 m s–2
one fourth of initial volume, if the process is
(2) 1.5 m s–2
(1) Isothermal, their final pressures will be
(3) 7.5 m s–2
different
(4) 4.5 m s–2
(2) Adiabatic, final pressures will be same
2. A composite rod consists of a steel rod of length
25 cm and area 2A and a copper rod of length 50 (3) Adiabatic, then triatomic gas will have
cm and area A. This composite rod is subjected maximum final pressure
to two equal and opposite axial forces F. If
Young’s modulus of steel and copper are in the (4) Adiabatic, then monatomic gas will have
ratio 2 : 1, then maximum final pressure

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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

4. If the pressure of an ideal gas is increased at 9. What is equivalent capacitance between points A
constant temperature, then mean free path of and B shown in the figure?
gas molecules
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease
5. Resonance occurs in a series LCR circuit when
frequency of applied ac source is 100 Hz. The
correct option is 5C 8C
(1) (2)
(1) When source frequency is 90 Hz, then 3 5
current through voltage source will be ahead 8C 4C
(3) (4)
of emf of source 21 5
(2) Only at resonance voltage across L and C 10. Three identical resistors are shown in the figure.
differ in phase by 180° If the power dissipation in resistance A is P, then
(3) If value of C is doubled, keeping L fixed, total power consumed in the circuit is
resonance occurs at 50 Hz
(4) When frequency of source is 120 Hz then
current through voltage source will be ahead
of emf of source
6. A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole
pointing magnetic north. The neutral point is
10 cm away from the centre of the magnet. If
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
BH = 0.4 G, then what is magnetic moment of the (1) 3P (2) 4P
magnet? (3) 6P (4) 9P
(1) 0.4 A/m2 (2) 0.8 A/m2 11. Two resistances of 100  and 300  are
(3) 0.2 A/m2 (4) 1.6 A/m2 connected in series with dc supply of emf 64 V
and negligible internal resistance. Now a
7. The position of a body from a reference point is
voltmeter of resistance 900  is connected
given as x = 2t + 3 , where x is in meter and t in
across 300  resistor. What is voltmeter reading
second. What is the acceleration of the body? (nearly)?
(1) 12 m s–2 (2) 8 m s–2
(3) 6 m s–2 (4) –2 m s–2
8. A thin rectangular metal plate 10 cm × 5 cm is
lying on the layer of glycerine of thickness 1 mm
and coefficient of viscosity 0.8 Pa s. What is
horizontal force needed to move the plate with
speed of 15 cm s–1 on the liquid?
(1) 0.2 N (1) 32 V
(2) 0.4 N (2) 15 V
(3) 0.6 N (3) 37 V
(4) 1.4 N (4) 45 V

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-9 (Code-A)

12. Figure shows a spherical interface between air 17. Work done to completely stop a sphere of mass
and glass of refractive index 1.5. Radius of M and radius R rolling with angular speed 
curvature for interface is 60 cm. When object is 2 7
placed at a distance of 30 cm from the interface, (1) M 2R 2 (2) M 2R 2
10 10
its image will form
2 5
(3) M 2R 2 (4) M 2R 2
6 6
18. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Charges were named as positive and
negative by the American scientist Benjamin
Franklin
(1) 30 cm in air from interface (2) Gold leaf electroscope can be used to detect
(2) 30 cm in glass from interface charge on a body

(3) 36 cm in air from interface (3) Charge can be created on any substance by
the process of induction
(4) 36 cm in glass from interface
(4) Both (1) and (2)
13. Minimum deviation for a prism is equal to its
19. A hollow cylinder has a charge ‘q’ coulomb within
prism angle (A). The refractive index of prism is
it. If  is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
 A  A associated with the curved surface B then the
(1) 2 tan   (2) 2 sin  
2 2 flux linked with the plane surface A in units of
voltmeter will be
 A  A
(3) 2cos   (4) 2cosec  
2 2
14. Displacement of a body moving along x-axis is
given as x = 3 sin t + 4 sin 2t
Motion of the body can be said as
(a) SHM (b) Non-periodic motion
1 q  1 q 
(c) Oscillatory motion (d) Periodic motion (1)  +  (2)  – 
2  0  2  0 
(1) All (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
1q
(3) (c), (d) (4) Only (d) (3) (4) Can’t be calculated
3 0
15. A particle having charge q is rotating about a
point with string of length l. A variable magnetic 20. Work done in stretching a spring by x from its
field B0t is directed perpendicular to plane of natural length is W. Work done in stretching the
rotation. The kinetic energy gained by particle in same spring by an additional distance 2x will be
each rotation is (1) 2W (2) 4W
(1) qB0l2 (2) qB02l (3) 8W (4) 9W

B0 l 21. Consider the following statement and choose the

(3) q (4) qB0l correct option(s)
2
Statement-A: In a number less than 1, all zeros
16. A uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R is
on the right of decimal point are significant.
in pure rolling. If it is rotating with angular speed
Statement-B: Zeros between two non-zero
, then its angular momentum about the point of
numbers are not insignificant.
contact is
(1) Statement A is correct
5 7
(1) MR 2  (2) MR 2  (2) Statement B is correct
2 2
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
1 3
(3) MR 2  (4) MR 2  (4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
2 2
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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

22. A book with many printing errors contains some 27. As a result of thermal expansion, the time period
formulae for the displacement y of a particle of simple pendulum
undergoing a certain periodic motion. (1) Increases
 4t  (2) Decreases
(a) y = a sin  
 T  (3) Constant
(b) y = asin(vt) (4) May increase or decrease
a  t  28. Two spherical bodies A(radius, rA) and B(radius,
(c) y = sin  
T  4a  rB) are at temperatures TA and TB respectively.
The maximum intensity in the emission spectrum
 4t 
(d) y = a 2 sin + cos(4tT ) of A is at A and in that of B is at B. Considering
 T 
the bodies, to be ideal black bodies the ratio of
Here a is displacement amplitude, v is speed, T total energy radiated by A to that of B is
is time period of oscillation, t is time. Which
4
formulae is correct? r 2  
(1) A2  A 
(1) (a) (2) (b) rB  B 

(3) (c) (4) (d) 1/2

r  
23. In p-n junction (2) A  A 
rB  B 
(1) Hole diffuses from p to n
4
(2) Hole diffuses from n to p r 2  
(3) A2  B 
(3) Electron diffuses from p to n rB   A 

(4) Both (2) and (3) 1/2

r  
24. Two amplifiers are connected one after other in (4) A  B 
rB   A 
series (cascaded). The first amplifier has voltage
gain 50 and second amplifier has voltage gain of 29. A drone takes off with velocity 40 kmph in
20. If 0.1 mV input is applied to the input of first direction 30° north of east. Wind is blowing at
amplifier, then the output voltage (at the output of 40 kmph from north to south. What is the
second amplifier) is resultant displacement of drone in 2 hrs?
(1) 1 V (2) 0.1 V (1) 40 km (2) 80 km
(3) 10 V (4) 0.02 V (3) 80 2 km (4) 100 km
25. The incorrect condition for the diffraction to take 30. Consider the following relations w.r.t. propagating
place is wave? (Symbols have usual meaning)
(1) Size of obstacle or aperture is nearly equal to 2
y    y 2 y
2
   y
2
wavelength of light (a) =  (b) = 
t  k  x t 2  k  x 2
(2) Size of obstacle or aperture is much larger
than wavelength of light (1) Only (a) is correct

(3) Size of obstacle or aperture is thrice the (2) Only (b) is correct
wavelength of light (3) (a) and (b) both are correct
(4) Size of obstacle or aperture is twice the (4) (a) and (b) both are incorrect
wavelength of light 31. An observer at sea coast observes 60 waves
26. The quantity carried out by electromagnetic reaching the coast per minute. If the wavelength
waves is of each wave is 10 m, the velocity of waves is
(1) Energy (2) Momentum (1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Charge (3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-9 (Code-A)

32. Which graph represents the best possible (1) A B Y

variation of escape velocity (vE) of earth with
mass of earth (M) (Radius of earth constant)? 0 0 0

0 1 1

(1) (2) 1 0 1

1 1 1

(2) A B Y
(3) (4)
0 0 1

33. A long straight wire of diameter d carrying a 0 1 0

current i is replaced by another wire of diameter
1 0 0
2d carrying same current. The magnetic
induction at a distance r (r > 2d) from the centre 1 1 0
is
(1) Half the previous value
(2) Twice of previous value (3) A B Y
(3) Unchanged
0 0 1
(4) Quarter of its previous value
34. A hypothetical function defined as Yn = En – En–1 0 1 1
where En is the total energy of an orbit of
1 0 1
hydrogen atom having principal quantum number
n, then 1 1 0
(1) Y2 > Y3 (2) Y2 < Y3
(3) Y2 = Y3 (4) 2Y2 = Y3
12 (4) A B Y
35. The radius of nucleus of 6
C is nearly

(1) 1.3 × 10–15 m (2) 9 × 10–15 m 0 0 1

(3) 2.75 × 10–15 m (4) 7 × 10–15 m 0 1 0

SECTION-B
1 0 0
36. An object is oscillating about certain position.
Time period of oscillation is being measured by a 1 1 1
stop watch of least count 0.1 s and time for 100
oscillations is found to be 200 s. The measured 38. A canon ball is fired with a velocity 300 m/s at an
value of length of pendulum is L = 20.0 cm angle of 30° with the vertical. At the highest point
known to 1 mm accuracy. The accuracy in the of its flight it explodes in to 3 equal fragments,
determination of ‘g’ is one going vertically upwards with a velocity of
(1) 0.5% (2) 0.1% 100 m/s, the second one falling vertically
downwards with a velocity 100 m/s. The third
(3) 0.6% (4) 1%
fragment will be moving with a velocity
37. Truth table for the given logic circuit is
(1) 200 m/s along horizontal direction
(2) 300 m/s at an angle 45° with the horizontal
(3) 450 m/s along horizontal direction
(4) 300 m/s at an angle 60° with the horizontal
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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

39. A glass slab of refractive index 1.5 is introduced 42. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are taken from
between object and a concave mirror of focal A to C via three paths ABC, AC and ADC.
length of 20 cm as shown in figure. What should
be thickness of slab so that the final image is
formed over object?

If WABC = W1, WAC = W2, WADC = W3, then correct

relation is
(1) W2 > W3 > W1 (2) W3 > W2 > W1
(1) 10 cm (2) 12.5 cm
(3) W3 > W1 > W2 (4) W3 = W2 > W1
(3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
43. A 100  resistance is connected in series with a
40. A rod of mass M and length L is hinged about its
4 H inductor and an ac source voltage. The
corner and the other end of rod is tied to a string
instantaneous voltage across resistance is
as shown. The speed of centre of mass when rod VR = 2 sin (1000 t) volt. Which among the
becomes vertical after the string is cut will be following is mismatched?

Column I Column II

A Current in circuit P I = 2 × 10–2 sin

(1000 t) A
3gL 3g B Inductive Q 4000 
(1) (2)
2 L reactance of the
inductor
(3) 3gL (4) gL
C Peak voltage R 80 V
41. Three balls each of mass 1 kg are attached with
across inductor
three light strings each of length 1 m as shown in
figure. They are rotated in a horizontal circle with D Average power S 4 × 10–2 W
angular velocity  = 4 rad/s. Which among the consumption in
following options is correct? circuit

(1) A-P
(2) D-S
(3) B-Q
(4) C-R
44. A sphere of relative density  and radius R has
concentric cavity of radius r. It just floats on water
R
in a pond if the ratio is
r

  + 1
1/3
(1) T1 = 16 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 48 N   
(1)   (2)  
(2) T1 = 48 N, T2 = 32 N, T3 = 16 N      + 1
(3) T1 = 96 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N 1/3 2/3
     + 1
(3)   (4)  
(4) T1 = 16 N, T2 = 80 N, T3 = 48 N   – 1   

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-9 (Code-A)

45. A soap bubble of radius r, is charged to a 1 1

potential V. If the radius is increased to nr, the (1) (2)
4 2
potential on the bubble will become
1 1
(1) nV (2) n2V (3) (4)
3 8
V V 49. Two infinite length wires carries current 4 A and 3
(3) (4)
n n 2 A and are placed along x and y axis respectively.
Magnetic field at point P (0, 0, d) m will be
46. A uniform wire of length 4 m and resistance 2 
50 50
is used in a potentiometer. The wire is connected (1) (2)
in series with a battery of emf 5 V and an d 2d
external resistance of 3 . With a cell of emf E 30 40
balancing length is found to be 2.40 m. What is (3) (4)
d d
emf E?
50. Two coherent narrow slits emitting light of
(1) 1.20 V (2) 1.25 V wavelength  are placed parallel to each other at
(3) 1.50 V (4) 1.75 V a small separation of 2. The light is collected on
a screen S which is placed at a distance D(≫)
47. The photoelectric emission from a metal begins
from slit SA. If the intensity at R is equal to
at a frequency of 6 × 1014 Hz. The emitted
intensity at T, then finite distance y is
photoelectrons are fully stopped by a retarding
potential of 3.3 V. The frequency of incident
radiation is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s)
(1) 1.6 × 1015 Hz
(2) 1.2 × 1015 Hz
(3) 3.2 × 1014 Hz
(4) 1.4 × 1015 Hz
D
48. A mass M is split into two parts m and (M – m), (1) (2) 2D
which are then separated by certain distance. 3
What ratio (m/M) maximises the gravitational D
(3) (4) 3D
force between the two parts? 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Which among the following is the most stable
conformation of n-butane?
51. Consider the following reaction sequence
Jones
CH OH
CH3CH2CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯ → A(Major) ⎯⎯⎯
reagent 3
+ → B(Major)
H
Major product B is (1) (2)

(1) CH3CH2CH2–O–CH3 (2)

(3) CH3CH2COOCH3 (4) CH3CH2COCH3

52. Incorrect statement among the following is (3) (4)
(1) In DNA the sugar moiety is -D-2-
deoxyribose
54. In Carius method of estimation of chlorine, 0.71 g of
(2) Thymine is absent in RNA an organic compound gave 0.574 g of AgCl. The
(3) Nucleotides are joined together by percentage of chlorine present in the compound is
phosphodiester linkage between 5 and 3 (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and Cl = 35.5 u)
carbon atoms of pentose sugar (1) 20% (2) 35%
(4) Cytosine is a bicyclic nitrogenous base (3) 30% (4) 45%

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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

55. G° for a reversible reaction having equilibrium 63. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous NaCl
constant 10–2 at 27°C will be solution at 27°C will be (Assume 100% ionisation)
(1) 500R (2) 2.303 × 600R (1) 4.9 atm (2) 2.45 atm
(3) 600R (4) 2.303 × 500R (3) 9.8 atm (4) 7.35 atm
56. Correct IUPAC name of [Co(H2O)4ClBr]I is 64. Reactive species formed on reaction of CHCl3
(1) Tetraaquachlorobromocobalt(II) iodide and warm KOH will be

(2) Tetraaquachloridobromidocobalt(III) iodide (1) Cl2 (2) ClO–

(3) Tetraaquabromidochloridecobalt(III) iodide (3) :CCl2 (4) CHCl

(4) Tetraaquabromidochloridocobalt(III) iodide 65. Dipole-dipole interaction is present in
57. Statement-I: For complex reaction, order has no (1) He and H2 (2) CCl4 and CH3OH
meaning. (3) NH3 and H2O (4) H2O and O2
Statement-II: Order of a reaction is experimental 66. Which of the following compounds will be
quantity. colourless?
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) KMnO4 (2) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2
correct answer from the options given below.
(3) Na2[ZnCl4] (4) K2Cr2O7
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
correct 67. Incorrect statement regarding kinetic theory of
gases is,
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(1) There is no force of attraction between the
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
particles of gas at ordinary temperature and
incorrect
pressure
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(2) Collision of gas molecules are perfectly
incorrect
elastic
58. Optimum pH range of enzyme catalysis is
(3) At any particular time, different particles in
(1) 1-2 (2) 5-7 gas have same speed
(3) 7-9 (4) 13-14 (4) Particles of gas move in all possible direction
59. Which of the following mixture in aqueous in straight line
medium can act as buffer solution? 68. Correct order of basic strength in aqueous
(1) NaOH + Ca(OH)2 (2) NaCl + HCl medium for the given compounds is
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (4) CH3COOH + HCl (1) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3
60. Which of the following conversion results into (2) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
decrease in bond order and change in magnetic
(3) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > NH3
behaviour?
(4) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
(1) O2 → O2− (2) O2 → O2+
69. Identify the major product obtained in the given
(3) N2+ → N2 (4) N2 → N2− reaction.

61. Mass of H2O formed on reaction of 11.2 L H2 and CH3 − CH = CH − CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯
PCC
→
excess O2 at STP will be
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(1) 18 g (2) 9 g
(3) 36 g (4) 4.5 g
(2)
62. If mass ratio of CO2 and O2 is 1 : 2 then the ratio
of their number of atoms will be (3) CH3–CH=CH–CHO

(1) 8 : 11 (2) 6 : 11
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 4 (4)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-9 (Code-A)

70. Consider the following reaction sequence 75. The maximum number of orbital(s) with the
quantum numbers n = 3,  = 2, m = 0 in an atom
is
(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
Major product C is
76. Which of the following properties generally
(1) Phthalic acid (2) Benzoquinone
decreases along the period?
(3) Salicylic acid (4) Salicylaldehyde
a. Ionization enthalpy b. Electronegativity
71. Identify the incorrect match c. Atomic size d. Metallic character
Polymers Uses (1) a and b only (2) a, b and c only
(3) c and d only (4) b, c and d only
(1) Urea- : For making unbreakable
formaldehyde- cups and laminated 77. The concentration of Na+ ion and K+ ion are
resin sheets higher in which sides of the cell?
(1) Na+ = Outside, K+ = Inside
(2) PVC : Manufacture of paints
(2) Na+ = Inside, K+ = Outside
and lacquers
(3) Na+ = Inside, K+ = Inside
(3) Bakelite : For making combs,
(4) Na+ = Outside, K+ = Outside
electrical switches,
handles of utensils 78. The hybridisations of each boron atom in diborane
is/are
(4) Polystyrene : As insulator, wrapping (1) sp3 only (2) sp3 and sp2
material, manufacture of
(3) sp2 only (4) sp only
toys, radio and television
cabinets 79. Green chemistry is the branch of chemistry which
involves
72. The other name of Zantac is (1) Chemical reactions which produces colour
(1) Cimetidine (2) Brompheniramine (2) Practices to reduce the production and use of
(3) Ranitidine (4) Histamine pollutants

73. The gas evolved when Zn reacts with dilute (3) Chemical reactions to increase BOD value of
HNO3 is water
(4) The study of chemical reactions occurring in
(1) NO (2) N2O
plants
(3) NO2 (4) O2
80. Statement-I: Synthetic resin method is more
74. Statement-I: Boiling point increases in the order efficient than zeolite process for softening of hard
HCl < HBr < HI < HF water.

Statement-II: Intermolecular hydrogen bonding Statement-II: Sodium hexametaphosphate

exist in HF molecules. (Na6P6O18), commercially called ‘Calgon’ is used
to remove permanent hardness of water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
correct option among the following
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
incorrect correct

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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

81. Which of the following reactions does not take The compounds which will show keto-enol
place in blast furnace at 500-800 K? tautomerism are
(1) 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2 (1) a, b and c only (2) b and c only
(2) Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2 (3) a, b and d only (4) a, b, c and d
(3) Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2 88. Statement-I: Cycloheptatrienyl cation is an
(4) FeO + CO → Fe + CO2 aromatic species.
82. Identify the substance oxidised in the following Statement-II: Cycloheptatrienyl cation contains
reaction 6 electrons in conjugation.
N2H4() + 2H2O2() → N2(g) + 4H2O() In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) N2H4 (2) H2O2 correct answer from the options given below.

(3) N2 (4) H2O (1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is

correct
83. The ionic radii of A+ and B– ions are 160 pm and
181 pm respectively. The coordination number of (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
A+ ion is
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(1) 8 (2) 4 incorrect
(3) 2 (4) 6 (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
84. When 0.2 mol MnO −4 is converted into MnO2, the incorrect
quantity of electricity required is 89. 1 mol monoatomic ideal gas expanded
(1) 38600 C (2) 28950 C adiabatically, against a constant pressure of 2
(3) 57900 C (4) 77200 C atm from 10 L to 20 L. Select the correct option
for above process.
85. Percentage of free space in a face-centred cubic
unit cell is (1) q = 20 L-atm (2) U = 0
(1) 26% (2) 30% (3) U = –20 L-atm (4) w = 10 L-atm
(3) 28% (4) 32% 90. Correct order of ligand field strength for the given
SECTION-B species is
86. Consider the following statements (1) OH  Br −  Cl−  H2O
a. Benzoic acid does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
reaction. (2) OH  Cl−  Br −  H2O
b. Methanoic acid is a stronger acid than picric
acid. (3) Br −  OH  Cl−  H2O

c. Ethanoic acid on reaction with diborane (4) H2O  OH  Cl−  Br −

followed by hydrolysis give ethanol as major
product 91. Cottrell precipitator is used for
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) Electrical precipitation of smoke
(1) c only (2) a and b only (2) Purification of drinking water
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c (3) Tanning
87. Consider the following compounds.
(4) Cleansing action of soaps
92. Fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy
greater than Ea at T temperature is given by
(1) k (2) A
Ea Ea
−
(3) e RT (4) e RT

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93. A sample of AB2(g) was introduced into an The compound P and its colour respectively are
evacuated vessel. After equilibrium is attained,
concentration of AB2(g) is found to be 0.5 mol L–1. (1) , orange coloured dye
If value of KC is 0.5, then the concentration of
(2) , Yellow coloured dye
A(g) at equilibrium for the reaction AB2(g)  A(g)
+ B2(g) is (3) , yellow coloured dye
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.5 M (4) 1 M
(4) , Orange coloured dye
94. Polar molecule among the following is
(1) SO3 (2) SO2 97. Which of the following electronic transition in
(3) BCl3 (4) XeF4 hydrogen atom releases maximum amount of
95. Match reactions in column-A with their name in energy?
column-B and identify the correct code. (1) n = 5 to n =4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
Column-A Column-B (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1

a. (i) Sandmeyer 98. The correct order of increasing reducing nature

reaction of the given elements is represented by
b. (ii) Wurtz reaction (1) Be < Mg < Ca < Ba (2) Ba < Ca < Mg < Be

c. (iii) Finkelstein (3) Be < Ca < Mg < Ba (4) Ba < Mg < Be < Ca
reaction 99. In Br3O8, the oxidation state of terminal bromine
d. (iv) Swarts atoms is
reaction
(1) +4 (2) +5
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (3) 2 (4) +6
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 100. Select the correct conditions for a spontaneous
96 Consider the following reaction sequence, cell reaction in standard state.

(1) Ecell = 0, K eq  1 (2) Ecell  0, K eq  1

(3) Ecell  0, K eq = 1 (4) Ecell  0, K eq  1

BOTANY

SECTION-A 103. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the DNA of T 2

101. The light reaction of photosynthesis supplies phase was made radioactive by using

which of the given to C3 cycle in biosynthetic (1) S32

phase? (2) S35
(3) P32
(1) Light energy (2) H2O and NADH
(4) N14
(3) Sugar and O2 (4) ATP and NADPH
104. Tailing of hnRNA is catalysed by
102. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
(1) Peptidyl transferase
genetic material of  × 174 bacteriophage?
(2) Guanylyl transferase
(1) 48501 (2) 5385 (3) Poly A Polymerase
(3) 5384 (4) 5386 (4) Aminoacyl synthetase

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105. Select the correct option w.r.t biodiversity in 112. In which of the following population interactions
different regions in ascending order. one partner is adversely affected and the other
(1) Temperate < Tropical < Arctic one is neither affected nor harmed?

(2) Tropical < Temperate < Arctic (1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism

(3) Arctic < Temperate < Tropical (3) Ammensalism (4) Parasitism

(4) Temperate < Arctic < Tropical
106. Which of the given chlorinated hydrocarbon
results in biological magnification?
(1) DDT (2) PCB
113. Select the correct sequence of tissue (from
inside to outside) of wall layer in microsporangia.
(1) Epidermis → Middle layer → Endothecium →
Tapetum

(3) BHC (4) Aldrin (2) Tapetum → Middle layer → Epidermis →

Endodermis
107. Which of the following features is seen in all
living organisms including microbes without (3) Tapetum → Middle layer → Endothecium →
exception? Epidermis
(1) Self- consciousness (2) Metabolism (4) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layer →
(3) Reproduction (4) Photosynthesis Tapetum

108. Order poales includes 114. Which among the following is not a main source
of biofertilisers?
(1) Wheat (2) Mango
(1) Azotobacter (2) Baculoviruses
(3) Makoi (4) Potato
(3) Glomus (4) Oscillatoria
109. Select the correct pair of statements.
115. Select the odd one w.r.t. simple diffusion
(A) In Lactic acid fermentation CO2 is released
(1) It is a slow process than active transport
(B) Enzymes for TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix. (2) It is not dependent on a ‘living system’.
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase is found in cytosol (3) It is the only means for gaseous movement
(D) Cytochromes are found in cristae of within the plant body.
mitochondria (4) It requires ATP energy
(1) A & B (2) A & C 116. How many ATP are required for production of
(3) B & D (4) B & C one NH3 molecule during nitrogen fixation?

110. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus (1) 16 (2) 2

and powdery mildew were introduced by (3) 8 (4) 4
(1) Hybridisation method 117. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted by 4C,
(2) Mutation breeding then the amount of DNA present after S phase
will be
(3) Tissue culture
(1) 2 C (2) 8 C
(4) Genetic engineering
(3) 4 C (4) 16 C
111. If 10 J of energy is trapped at producer level,
then how much energy will be available to 118. Which of the following is the final stage of meiotic
peacock as food in the following chain? prophase I ?
Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock (1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis
(1) 1 J (3) Pachytene (4) Leptotene
(2) 0.1 J 119. The seeds are not covered in members of
(3) 0.01 J (1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms
(4) 0.001 J (3) Pteridophytes (4) Both (1) and (3)

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120. Algin is obtained from A B

(1) Blue green algae (2) Brown algae
(1) Epidermis Endodermis
(3) Green algae (4) Red algae
(2) Pith Medullary rays
121. A bacterial cell does not have
(1) Polynucleotides (2) Kinetochores (3) Epidermis Vascular bundles

(3) Flagella (4) Phospholipid bilayer (4) Pericycle Vascular bundles

122. Which mineral element is found in the middle 127. Water containing cavities within the vascular
lamella of plants? bundles is the feature of
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen (1) Dicotyledonous stem
(3) Calcium (4) Boron (2) Monocotyledonous roots
123. A pair of microtubules present singly in the centre (3) Monocotyledonous stem
of (4) Dicotyledonous roots
(1) Pili (2) Cilia 128. Identify the incorrect one for Neurospora.
(3) Centrioles (4) Fimbriae (1) It has coenocytic mycelia
124. Consider the given diagram of a (2) It asexually reproduces by conidia
monocotyledonous seed. (3) It is a sac fungus
(4) It has a short dikaryophase
129. Choose the odd one w.r.t. sexual spore and the
fungus in which it is produced.
(1) Albugo – Oospore
(2) Agaricus – Basidiospore
(3) Claviceps – Zygospore
Select the option which is not true w.r.t. the
(4) Aspergillus – Ascospore
labelled part.
130. The causal agent of scrapie disease
(1) A – Formed by the integument of the ovule
(1) Is a proteinaceous particle
(2) B – Cells are triploid
(2) Has ss RNA
(3) C – A large cotyledon
(3) Is composed of protein and DNA
(4) D – Enclosed in coleoptile
(4) Is non infectious to humans
125. A flower of which of the following plants has
131. Which of the given genetic disorders is not
variation in the length of filaments of stamens?
shown by the below given pedigree chart?
(a) China rose (b) Onion
(c) Saliva (d) Mustard
The correct one(s) is/are
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d) only
126. In flowering plants, all the tissues except A (1) X linked recessive
and B constitute the ground tissue. (2) Autosomal dominant

Complete the statement by selecting the correct (3) X linked dominant

option for A and B. (4) Autosomal recessive

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132. In birds 139. Read the following statements and mark true (T)
(1) Male and female have unequal number of or false (F)
sex chromosomes (I) During post-fertilisation events, zygote
(2) ZZ – ZO type of sex determination is seen develops into endosperm in angiosperms
(3) Males are homogametic (II) The synergids and antipodals degenerate
after fertilisation.
(4) Sex chromosomes are homomorphic in
female I II
133. In incomplete dominance
(1) T T
(1) F1 phenotype is intermediate between
dominant and recessive phenotype (2) T F
(2) F1 resemble both the parents (3) F T
(3) A single gene product produces more than
(4) F F
one effects
(4) The F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratio are 140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. symplastic
different. pathway.
134. Formation of different kind of structures in plants (1) It may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming
due to response of environment is called (2) Water movement is relatively slower.
(1) Maturity (2) Plasticity (3) Movement is down a potential gradient
(3) Photoperiodism (4) Flexibility (4) Does not involve crossing the cell membrane.
135. Match the following and select the correct 141. Select the incorrect match from the following
option.
(1) Rough – Has 80S ribosomes
Column I Column II
endoplasmic
a. Penicillium (i) Zoospores reticulum
b. Chlamydomonas (ii) Buds (2) Polysome – Single ribosome having
many rRNA molecules
c. Sponges (iii) Conidia
d. Hydra (iv) Gemmules (3) Amyloplast – Starch-storing
leucoplast
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Golgi – Made up of cisternae
apparatus
SECTION-B
136. The codon in genetic code is read in mRNA in a 142. All of the following features are common to both
contiguous fashion. It reflects which of the given pea and makoi plants, except
features of genetic code? (1) Bisexual flowers
(1) Degeneracy (2) Commaless (2) Number of corolla in each flower is five
(3) Universality (4) Non-overlapping (3) Ovary is superior
137. Species which are more susceptible to extinction (4) Seed is endospermous
have all of the given population characteristics,
143. Read the following statements and choose the
except option which is true for them.
(1) Large body size Statement A: Buds which are present in the axil
(2) Large population size and high reproductive of leaves have meristematic cells left behind from
rate shoot apical meristem.
(3) High trophic level in food chain Statement B: In grasses, intercalary meristem is
(4) Fixed habitat and migratory routes responsible for regeneration of removed parts.
138. Pyrolysis is anaerobic combustion of solid waste (1) Only statement A is correct
having organic waste inside chambers at (2) Only statement B is correct
(1) 850°C (2) 1000°C (3) Both the statements are correct
(3) 1650°C (4) 1050°C (4) Both the statements are incorrect

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144. A flagellated protozoan among these is 148. Select the incorrect match among the following.
(1) Paramoecium (1) Gibberellins – Promotes bolting
(2) Euglena (2) Auxin – Widely used to kill monocot weeds
(3) Trypanosoma (3) Cytokinin – Delay leaf senescence
(4) Amoeba (4) Abscisic acid – Promote seed dormancy
145. In human, skin colour inheritance is an example 149. Read the following statements and state them
of true (T) or false (F).
(1) Pleiotropy A. In angiosperm, most of the pollen grain shed
(2) Polygenic inheritance at 3-celled stage
(3) Codominance B. The outer hard layer of pollen is made up of
(4) Multiple allelism sporopollenin.

146. The rate of formation of new organic matter by C. The pollen grain of members of Solanaceae
cow (herbivore) in a forest is called family remain viable only for 30 minutes after
their release.
(1) NPP
D. Pollen grains cannot be used as food
(2) Secondary productivity
supplement by humans.
(3) GPP
A B C D
(4) Community productivity
147. Select the incorrect match. (1) T F T T

(1) Parasite – Found on living plants (2) F T T F

(2) Predator – Overexploits its prey (3) F T F F

(3) Lichen – Symbiotic association (4) T T T F

between algae and fungi 150. In which stage of sewage treatment large and
(4) Mycorrhiza – Symbiotic association small particles of debris are removed?
between fungi and roots of (1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
higher plants. (3) Tertiary treatment (4) Biological treatment

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 152. How many of the following structures given in the
151. Read the given statements and select the correct box below are included in renal tubules?
option. Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, PCT, Loop of
Statement-A: One can breathe out air through Henle, DCT, Collecting duct
eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and
(1) Four (2) Five
the mouth.
(3) Three (4) Two
Statement-B: External inter-costal and
153. The restoration of the resting potential of the
abdominal muscles are muscles involved in
neuronal membrane at the site of excitation
inspiration under normal breathing. within a fraction of a second occurs mainly due to
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (1) Sodium potassium pump
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Efflux of potassium ions
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) Influx of sodium ions
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) Influx of chloride ions

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154. How many of the given statements are correct?
a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres
is the store house of calcium ions.
b. The type of muscles present in our thigh are
striated and voluntary.
c. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due
to the central gap between myosin filaments
in the A-band.
d. Production of body heat and storage of
minerals are the functions of the skeletal
system.
157. Consider the statements given below w.r.t.
enzymes and select the correct one.
(1) High temperature preserves the enzymes
(2) Enzymes get denatured at low temperature
(3) Enzymes work by lowering the activation
energy
(4) Ribozymes are proteinaceous enzymes
158. 'A' is chemically diacetylmorphine, obtained
by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted
from 'B ' . Select the correct option to fill in

Select the correct option. the blanks ‘A’ and ‘B’.

(1) One (2) Three A B

(3) Two (4) Four (1) Smack Erythroxylum coca
155. Match column I with column II and select the (2) Datura Atropa belladona
correct option.
(3) Smack Papaver somniferum
Column-I Column-II
(4) Marijuana Cannabis sativa
a. I-band (i) Contains both thin and
159. ‘X’ is a substance that provides active immunity
thick filaments
whereas ‘Y’ provides natural passive immunity.
b. A-band (ii) Elastic fibre that Select the correct option for ‘X’ and ‘Y’ w.r.t.
bisects I-band humans.
c. M-line (iii) Contains thin filaments X Y

d. Z-line (iv) Thin fibrous membrane (1) Antivenom OPV

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) Anti tetanus serum Vaccination
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Colostrum Anti tetanus serum
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Oral polio vaccine Colostrum
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
160. New castle disease is a _____ disease of poultry.
156. Read the statements given below and select the Select the option that fills the blank correctly.
option that correctly identifies them as True(T) or
(1) Bacterial (2) Viral
False(F).
(3) Fungal (4) Helminthic
a. Alanine is a sulphur containing amino acid
161. Which of the labelled parts in the given figure are
b. Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid absent in the main circulating fluid of human
c. Uracil is a substituted pyrimidine found in body?
nucleic acids containing deoxyribose sugar
d. The nitrogenous bases are projected more or
less perpendicular to the sugar-phosphate
backbone of polynucleotide chain
a b c d
(1) F T T T
(2) F T F T
(3) T F T T (1) A and D (2) A and C
(4) T T T T (3) B and C (4) A and B

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162. The kind of epithelium which forms inner lining of 169. Choose the correct option to complete the
pancreatic ducts is analogy.

(1) Compound epithelium Taenia : Flame cells : : Bombyx : _______

(2) Squamous epithelium (1) Comb plates (2) Radula

(3) Flame cells (4) Malpighian tubules
(3) Ciliated epithelium
170. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(4) Cuboidal epithelium correct option.
163. Assertion(A): The food and the acidic gastric
Column-I Column-II
juice in stomach are mixed thoroughly to form
chyme. a. Asterias (i) Notochord in
larval tail
Reason(R): Muscular layer present in the
stomach enables better churning of food. b. Balanoglossus (ii) Spiny body
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the c. Ascidia (iii) Cloaca present
correct explanation of (A)
d. Hyla (iv) Worm-like marine
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
animal
correct explanation of (A)
a b c d
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
164. Which of the following is not secreted by a
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
composite digestive gland?
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Insulin (2) Chymotrypsinogen
171. Which of the following is not a hermaphrodite
(3) Nucleotidases (4) Glucagon animal?
165. If 2100 mL of blood is filtered by the kidneys per (1) Pheretima (2) Spongilla
minute and each ventricle pumps out (3) Taenia (4) Periplaneta
approximately 100 mL of blood per cycle, then
172. Which of the following hormonal levels will cause
calculate the heart beat rate. release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian
(1) 75 beats/min (2) 105 beats/min follicle?
(3) 70 beats/min (4) 90 beats/min (1) High concentration of estrogen and
progesterone
166. Blood pressure in aorta is
(2) Low concentration of FSH and estrogen
(1) Same as that in pulmonary artery
(3) High concentration of LH and estrogen
(2) Less than that in vena cava (4) Low concentration of estrogen and
(3) More than that in pulmonary vein progesterone
(4) Less than that in carotid artery 173. Choose the correct match.

167. When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by (1) Proliferative – Mature follicle develops into
an inadequate blood supply it is termed as phase corpus luteum
(1) Cardiac arrest (2) Heart attack (2) Secretory – Rapid regeneration of
(3) Atherosclerosis (4) Heart failure phase myometrium

168. Tissue level of organisation first of all evolved in (3) Ovulatory – Release of ovum and corpus
members of phylum phase luteum from mature follicle

(1) Porifera (2) Coelenterata (4) Pregnancy – All events of menstrual cycle
stop
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes

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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

174. During oogenesis, first meiotic division of primary 180. Complete the analogy and choose the correct
oocyte is completed within the option.
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle lacZ gene: -galactosidase : : rop sequence:
(3) Tertiary follicle (4) Graafian follicle ________

175. What does RCH stands for? (1) Origin of replication

(1) Reproductive and Complete Health
(2) Regional and Central Health Care
(3) Reproductive and Child Health Care
(4) Reproductive and Cumulative Health
176. Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was
necessary because:
(1) It is very expensive.
(2) Ampicillin resistance
(3) Proteins involved in replication
(4) Selectable marker gene
181. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
Statement(A): DNA cannot pass through cell
membranes as it is a hydrophobic molecule.

(2) It can tell about chromosomal aberrations. Statement(B): Treatment with Ca+2 ions
increases the efficiency with which DNA enters
(3) It is an invasive procedure and carries high
into the bacterium.
risk abortions.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) It can be used for pre-natal sex determination
of the foetus leading to female foeticides. (2) Only statement A is incorrect
177. Two polypeptide chains of human insulin are (3) Both A and B statements are correct
linked together by (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(1) Phosphodiester bonds 182. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(2) Ionic bonds correct option.
(3) Disulphide bridges Column-I Column-II
(4) Glycosidic bonds
a. Biosynthetic stage (i) Increased surface
178. Select the correct statement about hormones and
area for oxygen
their actions.
transfer
(1) Parathyroid hormone increases K+ absorption
from the digested food b. Downstream (ii) Large scale
processing production in
(2) Insulin and glucagon help to maintain blood
fermenter
sugar levels.
(3) Old aged people have weak immunity due to c. Sparged stirred-tank (iii) With foam braker
increased activity of thymus. bioreactor and flat bladed
(4) Osteoporosis in women occurs due to impeller
increased levels of estrogen. d. Simple stirred-tank (iv) Separation and
179. Select the correct match among the following. bioreactor purification

(1) EcoRI – Produces blunt ends (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

(2) pBR322 – Cloning vector (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
183. Which of the following dinosaur has three horns
(3) BamHI – Cloning site
with collared neck?
(4) Taq polymerase – Thermolabile DNA (1) Tyranosaurus (2) Brachiosaurus
polymerase
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Triceratops

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-9 (Code-A)

184. All of the following plants were present during
carboniferous period except
(1) Lycopods (2) Sphenopsids
(3) Ferns (4) Dicots
185. Choose the odd one w.r.t. artificial selection.
(1) Animal husbandry
(2) Plant breeding programmes
(3) Man-made breeds of dog
(4) Industrial melanism
SECTION-B
186. Read the following statements (a to e) carefully
and choose the correct option.
a. In human females, oogenesis is initiated
during the embryonic development stage.
b. Primary follicles are formed at puberty.
c. At puberty only 60,000 to 80,000 primary
follicles are formed in ovaries.
d. The primary follicles surrounded by more
layers of granulosa cells and a new theca
form secondary follicles.
e. Tertiary follicle is characterised by a fluid
filled cavity called antrum.
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) c, d and e are correct
(3) a, d and e are correct
(4) a, b and d are correct
187. Which one of the following statements among all
the four i.e., Sycon, Hirudinaria, Delphinus and
Psittacula is correct?
(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical.
(2) Psittacula is homeothermic whereas Sycon,
Hirudinaria and Delphinus are poikilothermic.
(3) Hirudinaria is a fresh water form whereas all
other are marine.
(4) Sycon has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining
three.
189. Read the given statements and select the correct
option.
Statement-A : Though the human heart is
autoexcitable, its functions can be moderated by
both neural and hormonal mechanisms.
Statement-B : Lymph is almost similar to blood
except for the protein content and the formed
elements.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(4) Only statement B is incorrect
190. Select the correct statement.
(1) Mammals have negative pressure breathing.
(2) Inspiration is initiated by the relaxation of
diaphragm.
(3) There is an increase in the volume of thoracic
chamber in the dorso-ventral axis due to the
contraction of diaphragm.
(4) Forceful expiration is a passive process.
191. Cortical nephrons differ from juxtamedullary
nephrons on all of the following basis except in
(1) Number
(2) Location in kidney
(3) Size
(4) Number of parts
192. Read the statements given below w.r.t.
cannabinoids carefully.
a. They interact with cannabinoid receptors
present principally in GIT.
b. They are naturally obtained from
inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
c. They can be used as medicine to overcome
the pain.
d. They can increase heart rate.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?

188. Choose the diploblastic acoelomate animal from (1) One

the following given options. (2) Two
(1) Sea anemone (2) Tapeworm (3) Three
(3) Hookworm (4) Pearl oyster (4) Four

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CST-9 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022

193. Match the column I with column II and select the (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct option. correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Column I Column II
correct explanation of (A)
a. Structural (i) Malonate (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
component of cell
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
wall of fungi
197. Which one of the following pairs is the correct
b. Competitive inhibitor (ii) Sucrose match of the source and the hormone it
of succinic secretes?
dehydrogenase
(1) Anterior pituitary – Thyroxine
c. Glycosidic bond (iii) Chitin
(2) -cells of pancreas – Glucagon
d. Alkaloid used as (iv) Morphine
(3) Thyroid – Epinephrine
painkiller
(4) Stomach epithelium – Secretin
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 198. If alien DNA is inserted at PvuI restriction site in
pBR322, then which of the following holds true
194. A lady is diagnosed to have both her fallopian
for resultant host (E. coli)?
tubes blocked. Which of the following ART can
help her to conceive a child? (1) Non-transformants will grow on ampicillin
containing medium
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(2) Non-recombinants will grow on ampicillin
(3) AI (4) IUT
containing medium
195. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue (3) Recombinants will grow on ampicillin
as protoxin is converted into active toxin due to containing medium
(1) Alkaline pH of the insect gut (4) Recombinants will not grow on tetracycline
(2) Acidic pH of the insect gut containing medium
(3) Action of gut microorganisms 199. Lizards are considered to be phylogenetically
more close to
(4) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
(1) Turtles (2) Crocodiles
196. Assertion(A): When glucose is catabolised to
lactic acid, energy is liberated. (3) Tuataras (4) Snakes

Reason(R): In an exothermic reaction, the 200. A population has 700 individuals, 85 of genotype
energy level of ‘Product’ (lactic acid) is lower than AA and 295 of genotype aa. What is the
that of ‘Substrate’ (glucose). frequency of dominant allele?

In the light of above statements, select the (1) 0.3 (2) 0.5
correct answer from the options given below. (3) 0.7 (4) 0.4

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