DIVISION OF ROMBLON

LOOC NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Clemente St., Poblacion, Looc, Romblon
THIRD SUMMATIVE TEST
GRADE 10 SCIENCE

Directions: Write the letter of the best answer.

1. Which hypothalamic hormone contributes to the regulation of the male reproductive system?
a. luteinizing hormone c. gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b. follicle-stimulating hormone d. androgens

2. In female reproductive system, which hormone(s) promote uterine gland secretion?

a. testosterone b. progesterone c. estrogen d. estrogen and progesterone
3. Which of the following hormone is responsible for male secondary sex characteristics?
a. estrogen b. luteinizing c. progesteron d. testosterone
4. Hormones are chemicals produced by gland and act as messengers. Which of the following are the
hormones secreted by the female organs.
a. estrogen and testosterone c. parathormone and progesterone
b. estrogen and progesterone d. testosterone and parathormone
5. The testes are the main reproductive organs in male. How will you describe its function?
a. the testes are made up of thousands of tiny tubules in which meiosis occurs
b. the testes are made up of tiny tubules where hormones are produced
c. the testes are made up of tiny tubules where ova are formed
d. all of the above
6. Predict the hormonal change when ovulation happens?
a. There is a sudden decrease of FSH on the 14th day
b. There is a low secretion of hormones by the hypothalamus
c. There is a sudden increase of luteinizing hormone on the 14th day.
d. There is a constant secretion of estrogen and progesterone from the 1 st day to the 14th day.
7. Which hormone helps control the menstrual cycle and stimulates the growth of eggs in the ovaries.
a. follicle stimulating hormone c. luteinizing hormone
b. progesterone d. testosterone

8. In the menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones would induce a negative feedback to the
hypothalamus and pituitary gland?
a. LH b. GnRH c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
9. Which of the following is controlled by positive feedback mechanism?
a. Spermatogenesis in the testes c. Uterine contractions during childbirth
b. Temperature regulation after exercise d. Insulin and glucagon release for sugar
10. What part of neuron carries the impulse towards the cell body?
a. axon b. cell body c. dendrites d. nucleus
11. Central Nervous System serves as the main processing center of the nervous system. Which of the
following is considered as the control center of the nervous system?
a. brain b. spinal cord c. stomach d. heart
12. What is the role of nervous systems in the feedback mechanism and homeostasis?
a. hormones produce in the brain act as messengers that influence other organs
b. hormones produce in the brain stimulate the testes and ovaries to secrete sex hormones
c. hormones produced in the brain is responsible in the circulation of blood and all parts of the body
d. hormone produced in the brain stimulate the pituitary gland to secrete follicle stimulating hormone
13. What might happen to a person whose nervous system and endocrine systems fail to maintain
homeostasis?
a. he may be stable and healthy
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 b. a person may lead to various diseases and even death
c. he will stay as normal
d. he may increase immune system

14. When you touches a hot object, what is the automatic response to such stimulus?
a. call for help c. Let your hand remain touching the hot object
b. pour out water into the hot object d. withdraw your hand

15. Jane ate too many sweet foods. Select from the choices below on how the hormone (insulin) from
the pancreas help her body cope up as the blood sugar level rise above normal?
a. Pancreas will release insulin to decrease blood sugar level into normal
b. The blood sugar level will continue to increase
c. Pancreas will stop producing insulin
d. No changes in the amount of insulin content in the body.

16. Suppose a girl skipped her lunch for the day. How will the hormones (glucagon) from his pancreas
help her body to cope when her blood sugar level drops below normal?
a. The pancreas will stop producing the hormone
b. Pancreas will not release a glucagon
c. Pancreas will release glucagon to increase blood sugar level into normal
d. Pancreas will burst out due to the absence of the hormone

17. Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?

a. UAA b. UAG c. UGA d. GGA

18. During translation, proteins are synthesized by ribosomes using the information on:
a. DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. rRNA

19. Where does transcription take place?

a. Golgi bodies b. mitochondria c. nucleus d. ribosome

20. If the DNA template reads “ATA”, which of the following would be the corresponding mRNA codon?
a. ATA b. TUT c. UAU d. UCU

21. Events that take place during the synthesis of a specific protein are listed below. Which of the
following is the correct order of these events.
A. Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome.
B. DNA serves as a template for the production of RNA.
C. Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon.
D. Amino acids are bonded together.
E. RNA exits from the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
a. B E A C D b. D A E C B c. B C E D A d. C B A E D

22. What is the complementary messenger-RNA sequence for the DNA sequence C A A G G T?
a. C-A-A-G-G- b. G-T-T-C-C-A c. G-U-U-C-C-A d. C-A-A-G-G-T

23. What is the correct order of the following events in eukaryotic protein synthesis?
I. RNA processing II. Translation III. rRNA attachment to promoter IV. Transcription
a. I,IV,III,II b. II,IV,I,III c. III,II,IV,I d. IV,I,III,I

24. How are amino acids joined together to form a protein?

a. Hydrogen bonds b. Ionic bonds c. Savings bonds d. Peptide bonds

25. Given the DNA template strand below, if nucleotide base number 12 is substituted with guanine,
what will be its effect to amino acid sequence? 3’TAC TTC AAA CCG ATT 5’
a. The amino acid will be changed to serine
b. It will result in massive nonsense or frameshift
c. The amino acid will become a stop codon
d. None, since the codon still code for the same amino
26. Translation is the process where proteins are synthesized from the codes in the mRNA. Predict
which molecule is carried by tRNA and corresponds to the codons in mRNA?

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a. amino acid b. glucose c. ribosomes d. glycosine

27.Which mutations will most likely cause a protein to be non-functional?

a. Point b. Inversion c. Insertion d.Deletion
28. Which of the following describes a frameshift mutation?
a. It introduces a section of amino acids not normally found.
b. It joins two different proteins.
c. It removes part of the protein.
d.It replaces one amino acid with another.
29.Classify type of mutation being shown below:
Normal gene: ABCDEFGH
Mutated gene: ABCDCEFGH
a. insertion b. inversion c. deletion d. duplication
30. Which of the following best explains the importance of mutation?
a. Mutations are used to learn how genes normally function and to develop new varieties of crop plants
b. Mutations change the original composition of an individual
c. Mutation can improve the gene structure of an organism
d. Mutation has no importance
31. Where can most of the fossils be found?
a. Sedimentary rock b. Granite rock c. Lava flows d. Black soil
32. Which pairs of animals shows a correct example of ANALOGOUS STRUCTURES?
a. Forelimbs of dog and lizard
b. Fingers of human and whale flipper
c. Human arm and alligator forelimb
d. Wings of butterfly and bat

33. Which of the following statements does NOT describe Darwin's theory of
natural selection?
a. The members of a population of the organisms will strive.
b. Populations tend to replicate in minimal numbers.
c. Members of a population have genetic differences.
d. Some members of a inhabitants have adaptive behaviors.
34.The two organisms shown are both mammals despite their known differences. These organisms
lived and evolved separately but ended up having the same characteristics. What do the two
organisms represent?
Mole
Marsupial Mole

a. Parallel evolution b. organic evolution c. divergent evolution d. convergent evolution

35. The strongest evidence for change over a long period of time comes from:
a. DNA b. fossils c. embryo studies d. direct observation of living species
36. Why is it important to know the age of the fossil fuel?
a. It will determine the particular era or period the organism existed on earth
b. It will determine what organisms are existing that time
c. it will remain in history
d. It will reminisces the past events
37. According to Lamarck’s Theory, “ organs not in use will disappear while organs in use will
develop”. Which of the following theories of Lamarck correctly describe the above statement?
a. The Theory of Need c. The Theory of Use and Disuse
b. The Theory of Acquired Characteristics d. The Theory of Evolution
38. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection?
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 a. competition for food and space c. inheritance of acquired characteristics
b. variation among species d. survival and reproduction
39. Which of the following statement/s correctly describe Divergent Evolution?
I. A population of a certain organisms went separate ways and produce different structures.
II. Two organisms which live in a certain area formed the same characteristics.
III. Different organism in an area formed the same structure.
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II, and III
40. A technique used in dating a rock can be used to accurately predict the age of the fossils occurring
in the rocks. This technique involves_____.
a. fossil dating. c. radioactive isotope decay.
b. successive rock layering d. structural geology.
41. Which of the following is not a vestigial trait in humans?
a. ear-wiggling muscles c. muscles that make body hairs stand on end
b. fingers d. appendix
42. Snakes are believed to have legs for locomotion but since these were not used for its purpose it was
eventually lost. Choose the possible source of evidence for this belief.
a. fossils b. anatomy c. DNA analysis d. molecular homologies

43. Which of the following statements BEST describes adaptation?

a. It improves the organism’s ability to survive.
b. It is a place where an organism lives.
c. It is a stage in an animal’s life cycle.
d. It prevents an organism’s ability to survive.

44. Farmers in crop fields have coexisted with field rats because damages to their crops were small and
tolerable. Until recently when farmers were devastated by the huge loss of crops because of field rats.
The loss started when snake hunters collected snakes in the area for trade. Which inference about the
rat population is true?
a. Rat population increased because of the bountiful harvest.
b. Rat population increased because of the decrease of natural predator.
c. Rats migrated from nearby area to this field due to more available food.
d. Rat population increased because there were more female rats than male rats.
45. Decreasing wildlife population such as wild boar is one of the major problems in most of the places
in our country. The decrease in population of wild boar is due to ___________.
a. loss of limiting factor c. loss of carrying capacity
b. loss of habitat d. loss of natural disturbances
46. Field observations have confirmed that there is a relationship between the size of an area and the
number of species it contains. This means that, if a patch of habitat decreases to one-tenth of its
original size, it is likely to lose half of the species originally present. What does the statement
means?
I. Species survival rate depends on the size of the area where they lived.
II. Small areas could cater for a large number of species.
III. Large areas of habitat could accommodate large number of species.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I, II, and III
47. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the places in our country?
a. loss of limiting factor c. loss of habitat
b. loss of natural disturbances d. loss of carrying capacity
48. Which of the following would extend the carrying capacity of an ecosystem?
a. Fertility b. Resource partitioning c. Competitive exclusion d. Character displacement

49. Which of the following is/are included in the Limiting Factor/s which depends on the population
density?
I. Competition for Resources II. Predation III. Emigration IV. Disease and Parasites
a. I and II only b. I, II, and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, III, and IV
50. What will happen if a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the
environment?
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a. death rate may rise c. population size will increase
b. birth rate may rise d. carrying capacity will change