UNIT EXAM (Ma’am Jackie)

1. it is the artificial rupturing of membrane during labor if they do not rupture spontaneously to allow the fetal head to
contact the cervix more directly which increases the efficiency of contractions and therefore increases the speed of labor.
– AMNIOTOMY

2. What is the best position for amniotomy procedure to induce the labor and delivery?
- DORSAL RECUMBENT POSITION

3. it is the artificial rupturing of membrane during labor if they do not rupture spontaneously to allow the fetal head to
contact the cervix more directly which increases the efficiency of contractions and therefore increases the speed of labor.
– AMNIOTOMY

4. Cesarean came from the latin word which means to cut?

- CAEDORE

5. In CS birth in what factor does dystocia belong?

- MATERNAL FACTOR

6. The incision is made through both the abdominal skin and the uterus, made high on the uterus so that it can be used
on a placenta previa is called
- CLASSIC CS INCISION

7. The term for rupture of the incision in post operative mother is called
– DEHISCENCE

8. How many mi to be considered for blood loss or hemorrhage after delivery?

- 1000ml

9. What are the 4 T in post partum hemorrhage?

- TONE,TRAUMA,TISSUE,THROMBIN.

10. What is the first step in controlling hemorrhage in uterine atony?

- FUNDAL MASSAGE

11. Tranexamic acid is used to uterine atony for what reason?

- TO REDUCE BLEEDING

12. this procedure insert one hand into the vagina while pushing against the fundus through the abdominal wall with
the other hand is
- BIMANUAL COMPRESSION

13. the medical term used to remove the uterus is called:

- HYSTERECTOMY

14. what test does confirming a retained placental fragments?

- HCG TEST

15. It is a prolapse of the fundus of the uterus through the cervix so that the uterus turns outside out, happened
immediately after birth is called:
- UTERINE INVERSION

16. Infection of the breast, may occur as early as the seventh postpartum day or not until the baby is weeks or months
old is called
- MASTITIS

17. Bilirubin is toxic to cells of the brain. If a baby has severe jaundice, there's a risk of bilirubin passing into the brain, a
condition
- ACUTE BILIRUBIN ENCEPHALOPATHY

18. Other term for respiratory distress syndrome

- HYALINE MEMBRANE DISEASE

19. The early stage of sepsis development is also known as

- WARM SHOCK

20. It is a way of treating jaundice with Special lights help break down the bilirubin in the baby's skin so that it can be
removed from his or her body is called
- PHOTOTHERAPY

21. Other term for physiologic jaundice is called

- transient jaundice and icterus neonatrum

22. What are the therapeutic management for meconium aspiration syndrome, except
- CHEST XTRAY

23. Which of the following is not included on opthalmia neonaturum signs and symptoms?
- conjunctivitis

24. What is the drug of choice for opthalmia neonatrum?

-ERYTHROMYCIN OINTMENT

25. is the presence of one or more additional fingers or toes.

– POLYDACTYL

Recitation (Ma’am Jackie)

What is the best position for amniotomy procedure to induce the labor and delivery?
a) Dorsal recumbent
b) Sim’s position
c) supine
d) lithotomy

it is the artificial rupturing of membrane during labor if they do not rupture spontaneously to allow the fetal head to
contact the cervix more directly which increases the efficiency of contractions and therefore increases the speed of
labor.
a) AMNIOTOMY
b) VAGINAL DELIVERY
c) BIMANUAL MASSAGE
d) EPISIOTOMY

Cesarean came from the latin word

a) Caedore
b) Ceadore
c) Caeddore
d) Caedorre
The incision is made through both the abdominal skin and the uterus, made high on the uterus so that it can be used
on a placenta previa is called
a) Classic es
b) Low segment
c) Nsd

What is the first step in controlling hemorrhage in uterine atony?

a) Fundal massage
b) Medication
c) Iv infusion
d) Fc insertion

Tranexamic acid is used to uterine atony for what reason?

a) Reduce bleeding
b) For uterine contraction
c) For infection
d) For pain

Give two examples of fetal factor in CS BIRTH?

The term used to remove the uterus is called:

HYSTERECTOMY

It is a prolapse of the fundus of the uterus through the cervix so that the uterus turns outside out, happened
immediately after birth is called:
UTERINE INVERSION

It is an infection of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, occur at birth or common associated to chorioamnionitis
and CS is called
ENDOMETRITIS

When the illness coincides with the postpartum period or occurs during the following year is called
POSTPARTUM DEPRESSION

Bilirubin is toxic to cells of the brain. If a baby has severe jaundice, there's a risk of bilirubin passing into the brain, a
condition called
ACUTE BILIRUBIN ENCEPHALOPATHY

The molding due to large head exposing to more than enough pressure during delivery is called
Cephalohematoma

WHAT IS THE MEANING OF VBAC?

- Vaginal Birth After Cesarean

A client with a diagnosis of depression who has attempted suicide says to the nurse, I should have died. I've always been
a failure. Nothing ever goes right for me." Which response by the nurse demonstrates therapeutic communication?
a. "You have everything to live for."
b. "Why do you see yourself as a failure?"
c. “Feeling like this is all part of being depressed."
d. "You've been feeling like a failure for a while?"
When planning the discharge of a client with chronic anxiety, the nurse directs the goals at promoting a safe
environment at home. Which is the most appropriate maintenance goal?
a. Suppressing feelings of anxiety
b. Identifying anxiety-producing situations
c. Continuing contact with a crisis counselor
d. Eliminating all anxiety from daily situations

The nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The following
assessment findings are nurse expect to note except?
a. Dental decay
b. Loss of tooth enamel
c. electrolyte imbalances
d. Body weight well below ideal range

Which behavior observed by the nurse indicates a suspicion that a depressed adolescent client may be suicidal?
a. The adolescent gives away a DVD and a cherished autographed picture of a performer.
b. The adolescent runs out of the therapy group, swearing af the group leader, and to her room.
c. The adolescent becomes angry while speaking on the telephone and slams down the receiver.
d. The adolescent gets angry with her roommate when the roommate borrows the client's clothes without asking.

The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which client problem would
the nurse select as the priority in the plan of care?
A. Disrupted appearance because of weight
B. Inability to feed self because of weakness
C. Pain because of an inflamed gastric mucosa
D. Nutritional imbalance because of lack of intake

The nurse notes documentation that a newly admitted client experiences flashbacks. What diagnosis would this
notation support?
a. Anxiety
b. Agoraphobia
c. Schizophrenia
d. Post traumatic stress disorder

What statement should the nurse make to a client diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who appears to be
experiencing anxiety?
A. Try not to worry so much."
B. I can see that you are becoming upset."
C. Everything is going to be all right, just relax.”
D. Why are you having trouble controlling your anxiety?"

A 10-year-old referred for evaluation after drawing sexually explicit scenes says to the psychiatric nurse, "1 just felt
like it." Which response by the nurse is focused on assessing for abuse related symptoms?
a. I check my weight every day without fail."
b. The been told that I am 10% below ideal body weight."
C. 7 exercise 3 to 4 hours every day to keep my sim figure."
d. My best friend was in the hospital with this disease a year ago."
"I am concerned about you. Are you now or have you ever been abused?"

When planning activities for a child diagnosed with autism, the nurse should give priority to which consideration?
a. Encouraging social interactions between
b. Assessing all activities for safety risks.
c. Focus upon providing verbal stimulation
d. Providing detailed instructions to ensure success
 Unit Exam (Ma’am Phoebe)
Augmentation of labor includes the following, except:
a. Amniotomy
b. Infusion of Pitocin
c. Insertion of prostaglandin hormone suppositories into the cervix
d. Spontaneous cervical dilatation

The physician attending to a woman in labor made an order of prostaglandin suppository. As the nurse to carry out this
order, the patient’s best position is:
a. Side lying position
b. Trendelenburg position
c. Supine position
d. Prone position

The rationale of positioning the woman is to:

a. to promote client’s privacy
b. to promote client’s safety
c. prevent the leakage of the medication
d. to promote nurse’s comfort in administering the medication

A woman’s physician has told her he wants to use an episiotomy for delivery. She asks you what the purpose of this is.
Which of the following would be your best answer?
a. ”It aids contraction of the uterus following delivery.”
b. ”It relieves pressure on the fetal head”
c. ”It is done primarily for the physician’s benefit.”
d. ”It prevents distention of the bladder.”

A nurse is admitting a woman for a scheduled cesarean section. Which of the following assessment data should be
immediately reported to the physician?
a. Platelet count of 97,000
b. Hematocrit of 33%
c. White cell count of 11,000
d. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

The best time for the post CS patient to walk so as to prevent circulatory complication is:
a. 5Hours
b. 10 Hours
c. 12 Hours
d. 4Hours

Where does the name "Cesarean" come from

a. After a Roman law
b. After the Latin word "caedere" which means to cut
c. named after the Roman emperors
d. Named after Julius Caesar

The reason for teaching client about deep breathing technique prior to cesarean birth is:
a. Prevents urinary stasis
b. None from the given options
c. Improves blood circulation
d. Prevents stasis of lung mucus
A post partum mother after cesarean birth complains of lightheadedness after performing deep breathing exercises. This
means the client is having:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypoventilation
c. Shock
d. Increased intracranial pressure

To prevent circulatory complication after cesarean birth, the best nursing advice to give is:
a. None from the given options
b. Coughing
c. Coughing
d. Turning

To prevent risk for impaired urinary elimination, the post CS patient will receive:
a. Foley catheter insertion
b. Analgesics
c. None from the given options
d. Antypyretic

To prevent ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion after cesarean birth, the patient should be advised to do the
following except:
a. urination
b. Ambulation
c. Wearing of thromboembolic stockings
d. Leg exercise

If oxytocin is ordered postoperatively for the client who has had a cesarean birth, the most important nursing
intervention would be to:
a. Implement measures to promote comfort
b. Prevent infection at the incision site
c. Assess for increased lochia discharge
d. Monitor the woman’s blood pressure

What is the most important responsibility of the healthcare team before surgery starts?
a. Assessing the woman’s hygiene
b. Securing an informed consent and ensuring that it is obtained.
c. Inserting a urinary catheter.
d. Decreasing the stomach secretions

Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
a. More than 400 ml
b. More than 300 ml
c. More than 500 ml
d. More than 200 ml

Instrument used for amniotomy:

a. retractor
b. hemostat
c. none from the given options
d. hysterometer

A postpartum nurse is preparing to care for a woman who has just delivered a healthy newborn infant. In the immediate
postpartum period, the nurse plans to take the woman’s vital signs:
a. Every hour for the first 2 hours and then every 4 hours.
b. Every 5 minutes for the first 30 minutes and then every hour for the next 4 hours.
c. Every 30 minutes during the first hour and then every hour for the next two hours.
d. Every 15 minutes during the first hour and then every 30 minutes for the next two hours.

A postpartum nurse is taking the vital signs of a woman who delivered a healthy newborn infant 4 hours ago. The nurse
notes that the mother’s temperature is 100.2°F. Which of the following actions would be mostappropriate?
a. Notify the physician.
b. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids
c. Retake the temperature in 15 minutes
d. Document the findings.

The nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hours PP after delivering a full-term healthy infant. The client complains to the
nurse of feelings of faintness and dizziness. Which of the following nursing actions would be mostappropriate?
a. Inform the nursery room nurse to avoid bringing the newborn infant to the mother until the feelings of
lightheadedness and dizziness have subsided.
b. Elevate the mother’s legs.
c. Instruct the mother to request help when getting out of bed.
d. Obtain hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

What is involution as relates to maternity nursing?

a. postpartum constriction of bowels postpartum
b. the shrinking of the uterus postpartum
c. the inability of breasts to lactate properly
d. when the fetus is positioned improperly in the womb

During labor, the nurse check the perineum of the client, which of the following characteristics of amniotic fluid would
cause an alarm to the nurse
a. clear
b. Greenish
c. bloody tinged
d. scanty

The nurse is assessing the lochia on a 1 day post - partum patient. The nurse notes that the lochia is red and has foul
smelling odor. The nurse determines that this assessment finding is:
a. indicates the need for increasing oral fluids
b. indicates the presence of infection
c. indicates the need for increasing oral fluids
d. normal

Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the umbilicus and midline,
which of the following should the nurse do first?
a. Assess the vital signs
b. Administer analgesia
c. Assist her to urinate
d. Ambulate her in the hall

Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore
nipples?
a. Use soap and water to clean the nipples
b. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
c. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
d. Tell her to breast feed more frequently

The nurse is caring for a client on her 2nd postpartum day. The nurse should expect the client’s lochia to be:
a. red and moderate
b. brown and scanty
c. thin and white
d. continuous with red clots

The nurse assess a swollen ecchymosed area to the right of an episiotomy on a primiparous client 6H after a vaginal
delivery. Which of the following would the nurse do next?
a. Assess the client’s temperature
b. Apply an ice pack to the perineal area
c. Contact the physician to order for an antibiotic
d. Have the client to take a warm sitz bath

The process of uterine atony means:

a) non compliance of the uterus to contract adequately after delivery
b) when the fetus is positioned improperly in the womb
c) constriction of bowels postpartum
d) the inability of breasts to lactate properly

The nurse is helping to prepare a client for discharge following childbirth. During teaching a session, the nurse instructs
the client to do kegel exercise. What is the purpose of this exercise?
a) to relieve lower back pain
b) tone the abdominal muscles
c) to strengthen the perineal muscles
d) to prevent urine retention

A 28 year old woman gave birth to a full term baby boy, which finding should the nurse expect when palpating the
client’s fundus?
a) boggy, midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
b) firm, at the level of the umbilicus
c) soft, at the level of the umbilicus
d) firm, ¾ (2 cm) below the umbilicus

Baby Melody is a neonate who has a very-low-birth-weight. Josie, a level 2 nursing student understands that the
following are major contributory factors to this condition, except:
a) Mother’s compliance to prenatal check up
b) Intrauterine growth restrictions
c) Chromosomal abnormality
d) Mother’s nutritional intake before and during the entire period of pregnancy

The nurse is aware that the most common physical assessment finding in a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia is:
a) Yellowish discoloration of the sclera
 b) Bluish discoloration of the skin
c) Ruddy pigmentation on the skin
d) Acrocyanosis

Sandybells, a newborn is suspected for prematurity and admitted to the NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit). When
assessing the newborn’ physical appearance, the nurse considers which information to be most important?
a) Head is disproportionately large greater than 3 cm compared to the chest size
b) With good cry
c) Creases are present on the palms
d) Arms and legs resist when flexed

A nurse assess a rise in the fundal height and a sudden gush of blood from the vagina of postpartum client 5 minutes
after birth. The nurse appropriately interprets these findings as:
a) immediate postpartum hemorrhage
b) separation of the placenta
c) late postpartum hemorrhage

When examining a postpartal woman, the nurse should immediatley report:

a) a fundus that cannot be located by palpation on the ninth postpartal day
b) a fundus that is palpated 2 cm below umbilicus on the second postpartal day
c) a soft, spongy uterine fundus noted during the first hour postpartum
d) red, bloody vaginal discharge on the perineal pad on the first day postpartum

Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate?
a) Helps the lungs remain expanded after the initiation of breathing
b) Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern
c) Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways
d) Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract

A baby who is SGA is born precipitously in the ER. The nurse’s initial action should be to:
a) Quickly tie and cut the umbilical cord
b) Establish an airway for the baby
c) Move mother and baby to the birthing unit
d) Ascertain the condition of the fundus

A postpartum nurse is providing instructions to the mother of a newborn infant with hyperbilirubinemia who is being
breastfed. The nurse provides which most appropriate instructions to the mother?
a) Stop the breast feedings and switch to bottle-feeding permanently
b) Feed the newborn infant less frequently
c) Continue to breast-feed every 2-4 hours
d) Switch to bottle-feeding the baby for 2 weeks

A nurse in the newborn nursery is monitoring a preterm newborn infant for respiratory distress syndrome. Which
assessment signs if noted in the newborn infant would alert the nurse to the possibility of this syndrome?
a) Hypotension and Bradycardia
b) The presence of a barrel chest with grunting
c) Tachypnea and retractions
d) Acrocyanosis and grunting

A nurse in a delivery room is assisting with the delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery, the nurse prepares to
prevent heat loss in the newborn resulting from evaporation by:
 a) Drying the infant in a warm blanket
b) Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
c) Closing the doors to the room
d) Turning on the overhead radiant warmer

Mr. and Ms. Byers’ child failed to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth; this may indicate which of the
following?
a) Imperforated anus
b) Abdominal wall defect
c) Intussusception
d) Celiac Disease

The following are considered as contributory factors for sepsis among neonates, except:
a) Vertical transmission
b) None from the given options
c) PROM
d) Using of electrodes for monitoring

A woman delivers a 3.250 g neonate at 42 weeks' gestation. Which physical finding is expected during an examination if
this neonate?
a) Absence of sole creases
b) Leathery. cracked. and wrinkled skin
c) Breast bud of 1-2 mm in diameter
d) Absence of sole creases

A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain
surfactant therapy to the parents?
a) "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."
b) "The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation."
c) "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide
d) "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."

The most common neonatal sepsis and meningitis infections seen within 24 hours after birth are caused by which
organism?
a) Chlamydia trachomatis
b) Candida albicans
c) Escherichia coli
d) Group B beta-hemolytic streptococci

All of the following are signs that the premature infant is ready for nipple feeding, except:
a) Swallowing
b) Strong sucking
c) Babinski reflex
d) Gag reflex

The neuromuscular maturity assessment of the New Ballard Score includes all of the following except?
a) Scarf sign
b) Posture
c) Lanugo
d) Square window
What occurrence results from obstruction within the ventricles of the brain or inadequate reabsorption of cerebrospinal
fluid?
a) Febrile Seizure
 b) None from the given options
c) Hydrocephalus
d) Seizure Disorder

Ballard score is used to test the newborn’s:

a) Neuromuscular and Physical maturity
b) None from the given options
c) Physical and Mental Development
d) Physical and Cognitive development

bonus question Question: anorectal anomaly Answer: my child need high fiber diet