All India Test Series (2023-24)

AITS TEST - 08

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 17/03/2024 M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Botany: Full Syllabus
Zoology: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
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candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 5. The density of a sphere is measured by measuring its

A projectile is given an initial velocity u = (iˆ + 3 ˆj)

mass and diameter. If it is known that the maximum
1.
percentage errors in the measurement of mass and
m/s where i is along the ground and ĵ is along the diameter are 3% and 4% respectively, then find the
vertical. The equation of trajectory of the particle is maximum percentage error in the measurement of
(g = 10 m/s2) density.
(1) 18% (2) 19%
(1) y = x − 5x 2 m
(3) 11% (4) 15%
(2) y = 3x − 5x2 m
6. The radius of newly discovered planet is 3 times
(3) 6 y = 2x − 5x2 m
that of the earth but having same density. If
(4) 3y = 6x − 25x2 m acceleration due to gravity on surface of the earth
is g and that on surface of new planet is g', then
2. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance (1) g' = 2g
B x (2) g' = g
3
x from a fixed origin is given as U =   , where 2
 x + A
(3) g' = 3g
B
A and B are constants. The dimension of are; (4) g' = 27g
A
(1) [ML2T-2]
7. The plane face of a plano convex lens is silvered. If
(2) [ML3/2T-2]
 be the refractive index of material and R be the
(3) [ML1/2T-2]
(4) [ML3/2T-3/2] radius of curvature of curved surface. Then the
system will behave like a concave mirror of radius
3. Hydrogen atoms are excited from ground state to of curvature.
another state with principle quantum number equal (1) R
to 5. Then the number of spectral lines in the R
(2)
emission spectra will be:  −1
(1) 3 R
(3)
(2) 6 
(3) 5 R
(4) 10 (4)
 +1

4. A block is placed on top of a fixed smooth inclined

8. A liquid is filled upto a height of 80 cm in a
plane as shown. The length of plane is 5 m. The
cylindrical vessel. The speed of liquid coming out
block slides down the plane and reaches at bottom.
of a small hole at the bottom of the vessel is;
The speed of the block at bottom will be nearly.
(a << A) (take g = 10 m/s2)
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s
(2) 1 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

9. A steel ball of mass 2 g is thrown downward with

velocity 20 ms-1 from height 9.4 m. It penetrates into
(1) 6 m/s the sand by 60 cm and then it stops. The change in
(2) 7.0 m/s mechanical energy of steel ball will be [g = 10 ms-2]
(3) 3.5 m/s (1) +1 J (2) –0.6 J
(4) 9.2 m/s (3) –1.6 J (4) +2.6 J

[2]
10. Two balls are projected upward simultaneously 16. Two cells having emf 4 V and 2 V and internal
with speeds of 40 m/s and 60 m/s. Relative distance resistances 1  , 1  are connected to the circuit as
of the second ball with respect to the first ball at shown in figure. Current through 6  resistance is
time t = 5 sec will be [Neglect air resistance]
(1) 20 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 120 m

11. The susceptibility of certain magnetic material is

5000. What is the class of magnetic material?
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic 1 2
(1) A (2) A
(3) Ferromagnetic 3 3
(4) None of these 2
(3) 1 A (4) A
9
12. Five beats are produced by simultaneously blowing
two closed organ pipes of different lengths in their 17. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging
fundamental mode. If the shorter organ pipe is 25 through a resistor R. Suppose t1 is the time taken
cm in length and speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce to
What is the length of other organ pipe? one-fourth its initial value and t2 is the time taken
(1) 25.4 cm (2) 27.2 cm for the charge to reduce to one-eighth its initial
(3) 19.6 cm (4) 32.5 cm t
value. Then the ratio 1 will be:
t2
13. An alpha particle is moving in magnetic field of 2
(1) 1 (2)
B = (2iˆ + 4 ˆj ) tesla with velocity of 2 106 iˆ m/s. 3
The magnetic force acting on the particle is; 1
(3) (4) 3
(1) 1.56  10−12 N 3

(2) 3.2  10−13 N 18. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of

(3) 2.56  10−12 N length and resistance R  and it is moving with
a speed v as shown. The set up is placed in a
(4) 6.4  10−12 N
uniform magnetic field B going into the plane of
the paper, then the value of current I is;
14. A car moves on a circular path with constant speed v.
What is the change in magnitude of velocity after its
radius vector has described an angle of 90°?
v 3v
(1) (2)
2 2
(3) 2v (4) v

15. Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarised

beam of intensity I0 such that no light is emitted
from the second polaroid. If a third Polaroid whose 2B v
(1) I =
polarization axis makes an angle  with the R
polarization axis of first polaroid is placed between B v
(2) I =
these polaroids, the intensity of light emerging 2R
from the last polaroid will be: B v
(3) I =
I  I 
(1)  0  sin 2 (2) (2)  0  sin 2 (2)
R
 8  4 2B v
(4) I =
I  3R
(3)  0  cos4 () (4) I0 cos4 ()
 2

[3]
19. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons 24. Suppose a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atoms m-3. It
per second, the radiations belong to a part of the is doped with 1 ppm concentration of pentavalent
spectrum called: Arsenic. Calculate the number of holes formed.
(1) X-rays (ni = 2.5  1016 m−3 ) .
(2) Radio waves
(3) Micro waves (1) 8  109 m−3
(4) -rays (2) 1.25  1010 m−3
(3) 6.25  1022 m−3
20. An aluminium sphere of 20 cm diameter is heated
(4) 4.5  1022 m−3
from 50°C to 150°C. Its volume changes by
(Coefficient of linear expansion for aluminium
25. Assertion (A): The fundamental frequency of an
( Al = 23  10−6 C−1) organ pipe decreases as the temperature increases.
(1) 28.9 cc Reason (R): As the temperature increases, the
(2) 2.89 cc velocity of sound increases more rapidly than
(3) 0.289 cc length of the pipe during expansion.
(4) 9.28 cc (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
21. One mole of an ideal gas having initial volume V of Assertion (A).
pressure 2P and temperature T undergoes a cyclic (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
process ABCDA as shown below. The net work true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
done in the complete cycle is; explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true

26. A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving

along the positive x-direction with a velocity ‘v’ that
varies as v =  x –1/2 where  is a constant and x is
(1) Zero
position. The position of particle varies with time as
1
(2) RT ln2 (1) t1
2
(2) t2/3
(3) RTln2
(3) t3/2
3 (4) t1/3
(4) RT ln2
2
27. A pendulum bob of mass 8 mg carries an electric
22. Two moles of oxygen is mixed with ten moles of charge of 39.2 × 10-10 C is hanging in a horizontal
helium. The effective specific heat of the mixture electric field of 20 × 103 NC-1. The angle made by
at constant volume is; (Where R is universal gas pendulum with vertical at rest is nearly
constant) (take g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 1 R (2) 1.66 R (1) 37°
(3) 2 R (4) 0.08 R (2) 45°
(3) 60°
23. A smooth sphere of mass 5 kg is moving with (4) 30°
horizontal speed of 4 m/s strikes perpendicularly
with a vertical wall and bounces off the wall with 28. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a ball
horizontal speed of 3 m/s. What is the coefficient of mass 240 g moving at a speed of 25 m/s is;
of restitution between sphere and wall?
(1) 4.4 10−34 m
4 1
(2) 1.110−34 m
(1) (2)
3 3
(3)
1
(4)
3 (3) 3.3 10−34 m
2 4
(4) 2.2 10−34 m

[4]
29. A sphere is attached to an inextensible string of length 33. What is the ratio of the initial radius of gyration to
1 m whose upper end is fixed to ceiling. The sphere the final radius of gyration when the angular
has mass of 0.3 kg and is made to describe horizontal velocity of a body changes from 7 rad/sec to 63
circle of radius 0.6 m. The speed of sphere is; rad/sec without torque, but by altering the moment
(g = 10m/s2) of inertia?
3 6 1 1
(1) m/s (2) m/s (1) (2)
2 2 2 9
4 2 (3) 5 (4) 3
(3) m/s (4) m/s
3 3
34. A small square loop of wire of side  is placed
30. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0°C inside a large square loop of side L (L >>). If the
but their temperature coefficient of resistance are
loops are co-planar and their centres coincide, then
1 and 2 . The effective temperature coefficient
mutual inductance of the system is directly
of their series combination is;
proportional to:
1 + 2
(1)
4
(2) 1  2
(3) 1 + 2
1 + 2
(4)
2

31. The distance of the centre of mass of T-shaped L

uniform plate of same material from O is (1) (2)
L
2 2
L
(3) (4)
L

35. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is

connected to a coil of self-inductance ‘L’ at t = 0.
The time at which the stored energy in the electric
field is half of the stored energy in magnetic field
is;
(1) LC tan −1 2 (2) LC cot −1 2

(3) LC tan −1 3 (4) LC
4
(1) 7m
(2) 2.71 m SECTION-B
(3) 4m 36. A body of mass 4 kg is suspended as shown in the
(4) 1m figure. The tension in the horizontal string is
(g = 10m/s2)
32. A 3 cm × 10 cm rectangular coil with number of
turns 300 is placed in uniform magnetic field of
strength 0.2 T. The maximum magnetic torque
acting on it when a current of 10–4 A is passed
through it;
(1) 3.6  10−6 Nm
(2) 2.4  10−5 Nm
(3) 2.4  10−6 Nm
(4) 1.8  10−5 Nm (1) 30 N (2) 3 N
(3) 40 N (4) 4 N

[5]
37. A uniform rod smoothly pivoted at one of its ends 40 r  2 r 
(1) −
is released from rest. If it swings in vertical plane, 0  9 2R 
the maximum speed of the end P of the rod is;
0 r  2 r 
(2) −
0  9 2R 
(1) 2 3g (2) 3g 0 r  2 r 
(3) −
40  9 2 R 
(3) 2 2g (4) g
0 r  2 r 
(4) −
38. What is the potential difference between points A 0  9 4R 
and B in the circuit shown?
41. Four particles each of mass 2M are placed at the
corners of a square. All particles moves in a circle
of radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
is
GM
(1)
R
GM
(2) 2 2
R
GM (
20 40 (3) 1 + 2 2)
(1) V (2) V R
7 7
GM (
25 11 (4) 1 + 2 2)
(3) V (4) V 2R
7 7
42. A rod breaks when strain produced is 0.2%. The
39. The truth table of given combination of gates
Young’s modulus of material of rod is 2 × 1011
shown is;
N/m2. What should be the minimum area of cross-
section to support a load of 105 N?
(1) 2.5  10−4 m2
(2) 6.25  10−3 m2
(3) 1.25  10−4 m2
(4) 4.1 10−4 m2

(1) (2)
43. In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at
t = 0. The current through the battery is;

(3) (4)
VR1R2 V
(1) at t = 0 and at t = 
R12 + R22 R2

V V (R1 + R2 )
40. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge (2) at t = 0 and = at t = 
distribution with charge density varying as R2 R1R2
 2 2r  V VR1R2
(r ) = 0  −  upto r = R and (r) = 0 for (3) at t = 0 and = at t = 
3 R  R2 R12 + R22
r  R, where r is the distance from origin. The
V (R1 + R2 ) V
electric field at a distance r ( r  R ) from the origin (4) at t = 0 and at t = 
is given by: R1R2 R2

[6]
44. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium 48. In Young’s double slit experiment, how many
by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion maxima’s can be obtained on screen on both sides
reaction is 0.02866 amu. The energy liberated per of central maxima (including central maxima) if
atomic mass unit of helium is; (given 1amu = 931 wavelength of monochromatic light is  = 3500 Å
MeV) and slit separation is 8000 Å?
(1) 13.35 MeV (2) 2.67 MeV (1) 6
(3) 26.7 MeV (4) 6.675 MeV (2) 3
(3) 5
45. A concave mirror gives an image size which is two (4) 4
times as large as the object placed at distance of 30
cm from it. For the image to be real, the focal length 49. A man measures the period of simple pendulum
should be: inside a stationary lift and he finds it T second. Now
(1) –10 cm (2) –15 cm the lift accelerates upwards and the time period is
(3) –30 cm (4) –20 cm 2T
. The acceleration of the lift is; (where g is
3
46. At a depth of 3 km in an ocean, what is the force acceleration due to gravity)
acting on a window of area 30 cm × 25 cm of a (1) 2 g
submarine, the interior of submarine is maintained (2) 3 g
at sea level atmospheric pressure? (The density of (3) 3.5 g
sea water is 1030 kg m-3, g = 10 m/s2) (4) 4.2 g
(1) 4.64 105 N (2) 1.02 108 N
(3) 2.32 106 N (4) 2.06 105 N 50. 14 gm of nitrogen gas at constant pressure has
temperature of 300 K. How much approximate heat
47. In a series LCR circuit, R = 300  and the voltage energy would be required to change its temperature
and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and to 350 K at the same pressure?
50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitor (1) 672 J
from the circuit, the current lags behind the voltage (2) 935 J
by 37°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit, (3) 727 J
the current leads the voltage by 37°, The power (4) 1234 J
dissipated in the LCR circuit when all elements are
present nearly is;
(1) 205 W (2) 210 W
(3) Zero W (4) 161 W

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A N
53. 100 mL of NaOH solution exactly neutralize
51. What is the molarity of a solution containing 3.42 10
g sucrose in 2500 ml solution? 80 mL of an acidic solution. What is the normality
[Molecular of sucrose = 342 g/mol] of an acidic solution?
(1) 0.04M (1) 0.0125N
(2) 0.4M (2) 0.125N
(3) 4M (3) 1.25N
(4) 0.004M (4) 12.5N

52. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can 54. The correct order of energy for H atoms;
be identified with the following quantum numbers? (1) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s
n = 4, l = +2, m = 0 (2) 1s < 2s = 2p = 3s
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1s = 2s = 2p = 3s
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s

[7]
 Glucose ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→Z . 61. Assertion (A): The total energy of the universe is
conc.HNO
3
55. [O]
not constant.
What is molecular formula of ‘Z’? Reason (R): When a quantity of some form of
(1) C6H12O7 energy disappears, an exactly equivalent amount
(2) C6H10O8 of some other form of energy is produced.
(3) C6H12O5 (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(4) C6H10O6 true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
56. Which of the following pairs are isoelectronic? (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) H–, He true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) K+ , Sc3+
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(3) Na + , Mg2+ false.
(4) All of these (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
57. Which of the following molecule has sp3
hybridisation and non-zero dipole moment? 62. A dilute solution of HCl contains [H3O+] =5.4
(1) Ni(CO)4 (2) CCl4 ×10–7 mol L–1 at 298 K. What is the concentration
of hydroxyl ions in this solution?
(3) NH+4 (4) NF3
(1) 1.8 × 10–10 mol L–1
(2) 1.8 × 10–8 mol L–1
58. Among the following molecules/ions which have (3) 18 × 10–6 mol L–1
same bond order? (4) 1.8 × 10–12 mol L–1
(1) C2, O2, F2
(2) N2 , O2 , O22− 63. The molar solubility (in mol L–1) of a sparingly
salt M2X3 is ‘S’. The solubility product is Ksp, then
(3) C2 ,O2 , N22−
solubility in terms of Ksp is;
(4) C2, N2, O2 1
 K sp  3
(1) S =  
59. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the  108 
correct answer. 1
List-I List-II  K sp  2
(2) S =  
(Compounds) (Hybridisation)  108 
2–
(A) [PtCl4] , (I) sp3d 1
[Cu(CN)4] 2–  K sp  5
(3) S =  
(B) [Ni(CO)4], [XeO4] (II) sp3d2  54 
(C) [IF6]+ (III) sp3d3 1

(D) Fe(CO)5, ClF3, XeF2 (IV) dsp2  K sp  5

(4) S =  
(E) XeF6 (V) sp3  108 
(1) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I, E-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-III 64. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III correct answer.
(4) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III List-I List-II
(Compounds/ion) (Oxidation state of
60. Statement I: In cyclic process U and H is zero. central metal atom)
(A) + (I) +5
Statement II: When initial and final state of a NH4
system in a process are the same the process is (B) PO34− (II) +1
called a cyclic process.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(C) S2O32− (III) +4
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (D) [Pt(CN)4] (IV) +2
incorrect. (E) K[Ag(CN)2] (V) –3
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-III, E-II
correct. (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-I, E-III
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (3) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I, E-III
incorrect. (4) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III
[8]
65. The value of a, b and c in the following balanced 71. ‘A’ is an acidic compound having molecular
equation is/are; formula C3H4 when passed through a red hot iron
aMnO2 + bAl → cMn + 2Al2O3 tube gives 1,3,5-Trimethylbenzene. A is;
(1) 4, 3, 3 (2) 3, 3, 4 (1) Propene
(3) 3, 4, 3 (4) 4, 3, 1 (2) Propyne
(3) Cyclopropane
66. The correct IUPAC name of given compound is; (4) Propane

72. Among the following pairs of compound which

show negative deviation from Raoult’s law is/are;
(1) H2O, HCl
(1) 2-Bromo-6-chloro-5-ethyl-3- (2) CHCl3, CH3COCH3
oxocyclohexan-1-oic acid (3) CH3COOH, C5H5N
(2) 6-Bromo-2-chloro-5-ethyl-3-oxocyclo- (4) All of these
hexan-1-oic acid
(3) 6-Bromo-2-chloro-3-ethyl-5-oxo- 73. A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with
cyclohexan-1-oic acid. 0.877% solution of unknown compound. Find the
(4) 2-Bromo-3-oxo-5-ethyl-6-chloro- molecular weight of unknown compound.
cyclohexan-1-oic acid. (Molecular weight of cane sugar = 342)
(1) 55.55 g/mol
67. Which of the following compounds will show (2) 5.99 g/mol
geometrical isomerism? (3) 59.99 g/mol
(1) But-2-ene (4) 61 g/mol
(2) 1,2-Dibromoethene
(3) But-2-ene-1,4-dioic acid 74. What is the amount of CaCl2(i=2.9) dissolved in 4
(4) All of these litre of water such that its osmotic pressure is 1
atm at 27ºC?
68. CH2=CHCH2CH(OH)CH3 ⎯⎯⎯ PCC
→A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
I +NaOH
2
→B + (1) 6.50 g
C Products ‘B’ and ‘C’ in above reaction are; (2) 6.21 g
(1) B = CH3CH2CH2COONa, C = CH3I (3) 6.00 g
(2) B = CH2=CHCH2COONa, C = CH3I (4) 6.40 g
(3) B = CH2=CHCH2COONa, C = CH2I2
(4) B = CH2=CHCH2COONa, C = CHI3 75. Which of the following is incorrect?
2.303RT
(1) E0cell = – logKc
nF
69. (2) G0 = –n FEcell
0

(3) G0 = 2.303RTlogKc

The value of R in above reaction is; (4) Both (1) and (3)

(1) (2) 76. How much time (in sec) does it take to reduce 3
moles of Fe3+ to Fe2+ with 5A of current?
(1) 6000
(3) (4) (2) 60000
(3) 50000
(4) 57900

70. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯

K2Cr2O7
→A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
NaOH,CaO
623K
→B 77. The standard electrode potentials of four elements
A, B, C and D are –3.10, 1.60, –0.50 and 0.80 volts
The product ‘B’ in the above reaction is;
respectively. The highest chemical reactivity
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3
shown by;
(2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(1) A (2) B
(3) CH3CH3
(3) C (4) D
(4) CH3CH2CH3

[9]
78. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate 84. Which of the following interhalogen compound
of 10–1 s–1. How much time will it take for 100 g will be exist?
of its reactant to be reduced to 25 g? (1) IF7
(1) 14 sec (2) BrF7
(2) 28 sec (3) ClF7
(3) 12 sec (4) ICl4
(4) 39 sec
85. The electronic configuration of Gadolinium
79. When a graph is plot for log[A] against time (t), (Atomic number = 64) is;
then the slope and intercept of the line for first (1) [Xe]4f85d96s2
order reaction is equal to; (2) [Xe]4f75d16s2
k (3) [Xe]4f35d56s2
(1) , log[A]0
2.303 (4) [Xe]4f65d26s2
+k
(2) , log[A]0
2.303 SECTION-B
–k 86. The equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 in acidic
(3) , log[A]0
2.303 medium is equal to;
(4) –2.303k, log[A]0 (1) 98 (2) 49
(3) 147 (4) 294
80. The slope of the line in the graph of log k (k=rate
1 87. An element whose atomic number is 26, after
constant) versus for a reaction is –5050.
T losing its three valence electrons it becomes half
Calculate the energy of activation for this reaction. filled. The magnetic moment of this element after
(R=8.314 J K–1 mol–1) loosing three electrons is;
(1) 111.8 kJ mol–1 (1) 5.92 BM
(2) 11.18 kJ mol–1 (2) 4.90 BM
(3) 96.70 kJ mol–1 (3) 3.89 BM
(4) 99.99 kJ mol–1 (4) 2.90 BM

81. Total number of sigma and π bonds in P4O10 are; 88. The correct set of hybridisation of the central
(1) σ = 12, π = 4 atom in the following species respectively is;
(2) σ = 16, π = 2 XeO4, [PtCl4]2–, BrF3, CO32−
(3) σ = 14, π = 4
(1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3
(4) σ = 16, π = 4
(2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
(3) dsp2, sp3, sp3d, sp3
82. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is
(4) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3d
colourless and anhydride of HNO3?
(1) NO2 (2) N2O3
89. Among the following compounds, the most stable
(3) N2O4 (4) N2O5
compound is;
(1) [Co(EDTA)]–1
83. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
correct option.
(3) [Co(H2O)3]3+
List-I List-II
(4) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(Compounds) (Basicity)
(A) H3PO2 (I) Tetrabasic
90. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound
(B) H4P2O5 (II) Dibasic
is;
(C) H3PO4 (III) Monobasic
[Pt(Py)4][PtCl4]
(D) H4P2O7 (IV) Tribasic
(1) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II)tetrachloridoplatinate (II)
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II)tetrachloridoplatinum (II)
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-IV
(3) Tetrapyridineplatinum(II)tetrachloridoplatinum (IV)
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) Tetrapyridineplatinum(IV)tetrachloridoplatinum (IV)
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

[10]
91.
(1) (2)

IUPAC name of product ‘C’ is;

(1) Butanoic acid
(2) Butanal (3) (4)
(3) Ethanal
(4) But-2-en-1-al

92. Statement I: Lactose is a disaccharide made up of

96.
glucose and galactose unit and it is a reducing
sugar.
Statement II: In lactose, glycosidic linkage held
between C1 of galactose and C4 of glucose unit. The final product ‘C’ in the above reaction is;
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. (1) (2)
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.

93. The correct decreasing order of reactivity of the (3) (4)

following compounds towards SN1 reaction is;
(I) (C6H5)3C–Br
(II) CH2=CH–CH2–Br
(III) CH3–Br
97.

(IV)
The product ‘C’ is;
(1) IV > II > III > I
(1) Methyl benzene
(2) III > IV > I > II
(2) Ethyl benzene
(3) I > II > III > IV
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) II > I > IV > III
(4) Benzyl alcohol

94. The product ‘B’ in the following reaction is;

98.

The product ‘C’ in the above reaction is;

(1)
(2) CH3CH=CHCHO
(3) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH (1) (2)

95. (3) (4)

Product ‘D’ in the above reaction is;

[11]
99. Assertion (A): The acidic strength of CH3COOH
is more than that of FCH2COOH.
Reason (R): –CH3 groups electron donating while
–F groups is an electron withdrawing group.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(BOTANY)
SECTION-A
101. Identify the number of processes that are basic to
taxonomy and choose the correct option.
Characterisation, identification, classification,
nomenclature.
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
102. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t the
archaebacteria.
(1) Archaebacteria are special since they live in
some of the most harsh habitats.
(2) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different cell wall structure.
(3) Methanogens are present in the gut of several
carnivorous animals.
(4) Archaebacteria living in salty areas are called
halophiles and that in hot springs as
thermoacidophiles.
103. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t reproduction
in algae.
(1) Zoospores - Flagellated spores
(2) Anisogamous - Eudorina
(3) Isogamous - Gametes similar in size
(4) Oogamous - Spirogyra
104. A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite
to each other as in;
(1) Calotropis.
(2) Alstonia.
(3) china rose.
(4) mustard.
105. Statement I: In dicotyledonous stems, cambium
is present between phloem and xylem.
Statement II: In conjoint type of vascular
bundles, the xylem and phloem are jointly situated
along the same radius of vascular bundles.
100. Statement I: (CH3)2NH is more basic than
(CH3)3N in aqueous medium.
Statement II: In aqueous medium electron
releasing effect of alkyl group is responsible for
basic character of amines only.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
106. All of the following act as inclusion bodies in
prokaryotes except;
(1) phosphate granules
(2) cyanophycean granules
(3) mesosome
(4) gas vacuoles
107. All of the following are included in the
photochemical phase of photosynthesis, except;
(1) light absorption.
(2) formation of high-energy chemical
intermediates.
(3) water splitting.
(4) several carbohydrate complexes.
108. Assertion (A): In anaerobic organisms,
glycolysis is the only process in respiration.
Reason (R): Glycolysis occurs in the
mitochondria of the cell.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
[12]
109. Choose the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t the 115. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
phases of cell cycle. option.
(1) G1 phase - Cell is metabolically active. List-I List-II
(2) S phase - DNA amount per cell doubles. I. George A. Instrumental in the synthesis of
(3) G2 phase - Proteins are synthesized. Gamow RNA molecules with defined
(4) Quiescent stage - Cell remains metabolically combinations of bases
inactive. II. Har Gobind B. Developed cell-free system for
Khorana protein synthesis
110. Identify the plant that shows heterophylly due to III. Marshall C. Hypothesised that code should
environment. Nirenberg be made up of three
(1) Cotton. (2) Coriander. nucleotides
(3) Buttercup. (4) Larkspur. I II III
(1) C B A
111. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the stamen. (2) A C B
(1) A typical angiosperm anther is dithecous. (3) B A C
(2) Often a longitudinal groove runs lengthwise (4) C A B
separating the theca.
(3) The microsporangia develop and become 116. In an ecosystem, fishes and wolf are the examples
pollen sacs. of;
(4) The anther is a tetragonal structure consisting (1) primary consumer.
of four microsporangia. (2) primary carnivores.
(3) secondary carnivores.
112. Statement I: Genes are the units of inheritance. (4) herbivores.
Statement II: Genes which code for a pair of
contrasting traits are known as alleles. 117. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (F) and select the correct option.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is A. Among animals, insects are the most species-
incorrect. rich taxonomic group, making up more than
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is 70 per cent of the total.
correct. B. Plants comprise more than 22 percent of the
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are total recorded species.
incorrect. A B
(1) T T
113. Industrial production of butyric acid is done by (2) T F
using the bacterium; (3) F F
(1) Lactobacillus. (4) F T
(2) Clostridium butylicum.
(3) Acetobacter aceti. 118. Classes comprising fishes, amphibians, reptiles,
(4) Staphylococcus. birds along with mammals constitute the;
(1) Phylum. (2) Order.
(3) Family. (4) Division.
114. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t the population
growth;
119. Assertion (A): Numerical Taxonomy which is
(1) Natality - number of births during a
now easily carried out using computers is based
given period in the population that are added
on all chemical constituents of the plant.
to the initial density.
Reason (R): In numerical taxonomy number and
(2) Mortality - results in decreasing the
codes are assigned to all the characters and the
population density.
data are then processed.
(3) Immigration - individuals of different
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
species that came into the habitat from
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
elsewhere during the time period under
of Assertion (A).
consideration.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(4) Emigration - individuals of the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
population who left the habitat and gone explanation of Assertion (A).
elsewhere during the time period under (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
consideration. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

[13]
120. ‘Red tides’ are caused by; 124. Consider the statements and choose the correct
(1) Dinoflagellates. stage of cell cycle.
(2) Euglenoids. A. Four chromatids of each bivalent
(3) Chrysophytes. chromosome become distinct and clearly
(4) Protozoans. appear as tetrads.
B. Appearance of recombination nodules.
121. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the regions C. Recombination between homologous
of the root. chromosomes is completed.
(1) Root cap protects the tender apex of the root (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
as it makes its way through the soil. (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(2) A few millimetres above the root cap is the
region of elongation. 125. Assertion (A): When only PS I is functional, the
(3) The cells of the region of meristematic phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of
activity are thin-walled and with dense electrons.
protoplasm. Reason (R): A possible location of cyclic
(4) From the region of maturation some of the photophosphorylation is the stroma lamellae.
epidermal cells form root hairs. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
122. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct of Assertion (A).
option. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
List-I List-II
explanation of Assertion (A).
(Elements of xylem) (Characteristics)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
I. Tracheids A. Store food materials in
false.
the form of starch.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
II. Vessel B. Cells with thick and
true.
lignified walls and
tapering ends.
126. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t the
III. Xylem fibres C. Lignified walls and a
fermentation.
large central cavity.
(1) In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation
IV. Xylem D. Obliterated central not much energy is released.
parenchyma lumens. (2) The incomplete oxidation of glucose is
I II III IV achieved under anaerobic conditions.
(1) C B A D (3) The reducing agent is NAD+ which is
(2) A D B C reoxidised to NADH+H+ in fermentation.
(3) B C D A (4) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the
(4) C A B D concentration of alcohol reaches about 13
percent.
123. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the cell
theory. 127. Identify the autosome linked dominant trait.
(1) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated (1) Myotonic dystrophy
the cell theory. (2) Sickle-cell anaemia
(2) Theodore Schwann concluded that the (3) Colour Blindness
presence of cell wall is a unique character of (4) Haemophilia
the plant cells.
(3) Matthias Schleiden observed that all plants 128. Identify the mismatched pair w.r.t the PGRs.
are composed of different kinds of cells (1) Indole compound : IAA
which form the tissues of the plant. (2) Adenine derivative : Kinetin
(4) Robert brown explained Omnis cellula-e (3) Carotenoid : N6-furfurylamino purine
cellula. (4) Terpene : Gibberellic acid

[14]
129. In majority of insect-pollinated flowers;
(1) pollen grains possess mucilaginous covering.
(2) foul odours are secreted.
(3) large often-feathery stigma is present.
(4) pollen grains are ribbon-like.
130. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the tRNA.
(1) Francis Crick postulated the presence of an
adapter molecule.
(2) tRNAs are specific for each amino acid.
(3) tRNA has an anticodon loop which binds to
amino acids.
(4) There are no tRNAs for stop codons.
131. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
option.
List-I List-II
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
135. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t the loss of
biodiversity.
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation - The Amazon
rain forest
(2) Over-exploitation - Steller’s sea cow
(3) Alien species invasions - Lantana and water
hyacinth
(4) Co-extinctions - African catfish Clarias
gariepinus

I. Bacillus A. Species-specific, narrow SECTION-B

thuringiensis spectrum insecticidal 136. Assertion (A): M.W. Beijerinek showed that
applications viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist
II. Trichoderma B. Controls aphids largely of proteins.
III. Baculoviruses C. Kills butterfly caterpillars Reason (R): In addition to proteins, viruses also
IV. Ladybird D. Very common in the root contain genetic material, that could be either RNA
ecosystems or DNA.
I II III IV (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) C D A B true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(2) A D C B of Assertion (A).
(3) A C D B (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(4) C A B D true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
132. Identify the mismatched pair. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Production of (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
ethanol.
(2) Lipases - Remove oily stains from the 137. Gemma cups are located on the thalli of;
laundry. (1) Marchantia.
(3) Streptokinase - Blood-cholesterol lowering (2) Funaria.
agent. (3) Polytrichum.
(4) Cyclosporin A - Immunosuppressive agent. (4) Sphagnum.

133. In the exponential growth equation, Nt= N0ert, the 138. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
‘r’ stands for; option.
(1) population density after time t. List-I List-II
(2) intrinsic rate of natural increase. (Type of aestivation) (Example)
(3) the base of natural logarithms. I. Valvate A. Bean
(4) carrying capacity. II. Twisted B. Calotropis
III. Imbricate C. Lady’s finger
134. Statement I: In fragmentation, bacterial and IV. Vexillary D. Gulmohur
fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler I II III IV
inorganic substances. (1) C D A B
Statement II: By the process of leaching, water- (2) A D C B
soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil (3) B C D A
horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts. (4) C A B D

[15]
139. Certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins
modify themselves into large, empty, colourless
cells known as bulliform cells are observed in;
(1) isobilateral leaf.
(2) monocotyledonous stem.
(3) dicotyledonous root.
(4) dicotyledonous stem.
140. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cilia and
flagella.
(1) Cilia are small structures causing the
movement of either the cell or the
surrounding fluid.
(2) Flagella are comparatively longer than cilia
and responsible for cell movement.
(3) Prokaryotic bacteria possess flagella which
are structurally similar to that of eukaryotic
flagella.
(4) The axoneme usually has nine doublets of
radially arranged peripheral microtubules
and a pair of centrally located microtubules.
141. Statement I: In an animal cell, cytokinesis is
achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the
plasma membrane.
Statement II: In coconut, karyokinesis is not
followed by cytokinesis leading to the formation
of syncytium.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
142. Increase in ___________ beyond a point causes
the breakdown of chlorophyll and decrease in
photosynthesis.
(1) water
(2) incident light
(3) CO2 concentration
(4) temperature
143. For ______ ATP produced, ______ H+ passes
through F0 from the intermembrane space to the
matrix.
(1) one, four (2) two, six
(3) half, five (4) three, half
144. Assertion (A): Ethylene breaks seed and bud
dormancy, initiates germination in peanut seeds.
Reason (R): Ethylene promotes rapid petiole
elongation in deep water rice plants.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
145. Identify the mis-matched pair.
(1) Pleiotropy - Height in humans
(2) Codominance - AB blood group in humans
(3) Polygenic inheritance - Human skin color
(4) Incomplete dominance - Antirrhinum species
146. Statement I: The portion of the embryonal axis
above the level of cotyledons is the hypocotyl.
Statement II: Hypocotyl has a shoot apex and a
few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar
structure, the coleoptile.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
147. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the salient
features of the double-helix structure of DNA.
(1) In DNA, backbone is constituted by sugar-
phosphate, and the bases project inside.
(2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
(3) Adenine forms three hydrogen bonds with
Thymine from opposite strand and vice-
versa.
(4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm and there are
roughly 10 bp in each turn.
148. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t the energy
flow.
(1) The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with
dead organic matter.
(2) Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that
breakdown dead and waste materials into
simple, inorganic materials.
(3) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major
conduit for energy flow.
(4) In the terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger
fraction of energy flows through the GFC
than through the DFC.
[16]
149. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct 150. Identify the number of ex-situ conservation
option. strategies from the list given below and choose the
List-I List-II correct option.
(Name of interaction) (Example) Zoological parks, sacred groves, biodiversity
I. Predation A. Sea anemone and the hotspots, botanical gardens, wildlife safari parks.
clown fish (1) Five
II. Competition B. Mycorrhizae (2) Three
III. Commensalism C. Sparrow eating seed (3) Four
IV. Mutualism D. Barnacle Balanus and (4) Two
barnacle Chathamalus
I II III IV
(1) A D C B
(2) C D A B
(3) B C D A
(4) C A B D

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 154. In humans, ciliated epithelial cells are mainly
present in;
151. Agent responsible for causing the most serious form
(1) Bronchioles (2) Eustachian tube
of malaria which can even be fatal is;
(3) Pancreatic duct (4) Salivary duct
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) Plasmodium falciparum
155. Which one of the following is incorrect about
(3) Plasmodium ovale
notochord?
(4) Plasmodium malaria
(1) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian.
(2) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult
152. The effect of adrenaline on heart is that it;
frog.
(1) increases cardiac output.
(3) It is absent throughout life in humans from the
(2) reduces force of contraction of heart.
very beginning.
(3) reduces conduction velocity of impulse.
(4) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus.
(4) decreases heart rate.

156. Choose odd one w.r.t. properties of non-striated

153. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
muscle fibres.
option.
(1) Myofibrils show alternate light and dark bands.
List-I List-II
(2) Fibres are taper at both ends.
(A) Tight (I) Perform cementing to keep (3) Fibres are unbranched.
junction neighbouring cells together (4) They are uninucleated.
(B) Adhering (II) Transmit impulses through
junction chemicals to adjacent cells 157. How many of the given structures in the box below
(C) Gap (III) Establish a barrier to are surrounded by incomplete cartilaginous rings?
junctions prevent leakage of Trachea, Pharynx, Secondary bronchus, Initial
substances across the bronchiole, Alveoli
epithelial cells (1) One (2) Four
(D) Synaptic (IV) Channels to facilitate (3) Three (4) Two
junctions communication between
adjacent cells 158. Blood is a fluid connective tissue which does not
A B C D contains;
(1) IV III I II (1) Thrombocytes
(2) II IV I III (2) Erythrocytes
(3) IV II I III (3) Leucocytes
(4) III I IV II (4) Osteocytes

[17]
159. In fishes, heart pumps out _____A_____ blood and 166. Proteins produced by some strains of Bacillus
having ____B____ circulation. thuringiensis kill all the following organisms
A B except;
(1) oxygenated double (1) Meloidegyne
(2) deoxygenated single (2) Armyworm
(3) mixed single (3) Flies
(4) oxygenated single (4) Mosquitoes

160. The process of release of mature spermatozoa from 167. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous tubules (1) MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid
is called; tissue in human body.
(1) Insemination (2) The envelope of AIDS virus encloses RNA
(2) Ejaculation genome.
(3) Spermiation (3) Cancer cells show the property of contact
(4) Spermiogenesis inhibition.
(4) Chronic use of drugs and alcohol can damage
161. Chondrichthyes, exhibit all of the following nervous system and liver.
characters, except;
(1) Endoskeleton is cartilaginous. 168. Natural selection leads to the directional change
(2) Notochord persists throughout life. when;
(3) Fertilisation is usually external and most of (1) more individuals acquire mean character value
them are oviparous. in the distribution curve.
(4) Air bladder and lungs are absent.
(2) more individuals acquire peripheral character
value of both ends of distribution curve.
162. Whales, bats, cheetahs and humans share
(3) more individuals acquire value other than the
similarities in;
mean character value at any one end of
(1) total number of bones in body.
distribution curve.
(2) pattern of bones of forelimbs.
(4) no individual acquires the peripheral character
(3) habitat.
value.
(4) feeding habit.

169. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

163. In vitro fertilisation is not associated with;
option.
(1) ZIFT
List-I List-II
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI (A) First cellular form of (I) 4.5 bya
(4) IUT life
(B) First non-cellular (II) 2000 mya
164. Dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body can form of life
be seen in; (C) Origin of Earth (III) 350 mya
(1) Amoebiasis (D) Origin of jawless fish (IV) 3 bya
(2) Ringworm infection
A B C D
(3) Filariasis
(1) IV II I III
(4) Polio
(2) IV III II I
(3) II I III IV
165. For more yield of recombinant protein on industrial
(4) II IV I III
scale ____A____ were developed having capacity
____B____ for culture.
A B 170. During parturition birth canal is formed by;
(1) Incubators 1000-10000 litres (1) Uterus and cervix
(2) Bioreactors 1000-10000 litres (2) Cervix and labia majora
(3) Biolistics 100-10000 litres (3) Cervical canal and vagina
(4) Bioreactors 100-1000 litres (4) Oviduct and uterus

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171. Statement I: Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects 177. Statement I: Neural tissue exerts the greatest
several dicot plants and transforms normal plant control over the body's responsiveness to changing
cells into a tumor. conditions.
Statement II: Retroviruses in animals have the Statement II: Neurons are excitable cells.
ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
incorrect. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
correct. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
178. Which among the following pair is matched
172. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t. correctly?
contraceptives. (1) Troponin - Binding site for calcium
(1) Natural method of - Periodic (2) M-line - Binding site for tropomyosin
contraception abstinence to ATP
(2) Copper releasing IUDs - CuT (3) ADP - Inhibits actin-myosin
(3) Hormone releasing IUDs - Multiload 375 interaction
(4) F-actin - These subunits polymerize to
(4) Non-medicated IUDs - Lippes loop
form the G-actin filaments

173. Assertion (A): DNA is cleaved at specific sites by

179. Uridine differs from uridylic acid in;
endonucleases.
(1) presence of nitrogenous base.
Reason (R): Endonucleases are found in viruses.
(2) type of pentose sugar.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(3) absence of phosphate.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(4) presence of OH at ‘2’ position of pentose sugar.
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
180. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
reduction in urine volume is synthesized by;
Assertion (A).
(1) Posterior pituitary gland.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(2) Juxta glomerular apparatus.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Hypothalamic nuclei.
(4) Adenohypophysis.
174. Which of the following cells are diploid and
contains 46 chromosomes? 181. The extensions of cortex in between the medullary
(1) Secondary spermatocytes pyramids in kidney are called;
(2) Spermatogonium (1) Nephrons (2) Columns of Bertini
(3) Ootid (3) Medulla (4) Renal pelvis
(4) Secondary oocyte
182. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
175. Complete the analogy. option.
Aquatic arthropods : Gills :: Earthworm: X List-I List-II
Choose the correct option for (X).
(A) Multipolar (I) Retina
(1) Trachea (2) Moist cuticle
neuron
(3) Book lungs (4) Book gills
(B) Bipolar neuron (II) Embryo

176. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. lymph. (C) Unipolar neuron (III) Cerebral
(1) It is colourless as it lacks erythrocytes. cortex
(2) It has different mineral distribution as that in A B C
plasma. (1) III II I
(3) It is an important carrier for nutrients, (2) III I II
hormones etc. (3) I III II
(4) Lymphatic capillaries are lined by endothelium. (4) II I III

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183. There are ______ types of nucleotides and (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
_____types of amino acid present in living system. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1) 10, 20 (2) 5, 20 Assertion (A).
(3) 10, 10 (4) 10, 15 (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
184. Which one of the following statements is correct Assertion (A).
regarding Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin? (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(1) Penguin is homoithermic while the remaining (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
three are poikilothermic.
(2) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are 189. Zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct
marine. towards the uterus with the help of;
(3) Spongilla has special collared cells called (1) ciliary movement of sperms.
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three. (2) ciliary movement of epithelium in oviduct.
(4) All are bilaterally symmetrical. (3) Fimbriae.
(4) pseudopodial movement.
185. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B
and C. 190. Which is incorrect match regarding cockroach?
Source Secretion Effect on body (1) Thorax - Divided into 3 segments
A Estrogen Maintenance of secondary prothorax, mesothorax and
sexual characters metathorax
Alpha cells B Raises blood sugar level (2) Female - Contain anal style
of islets of cockroach
Langerhans (3) Mouth parts - Biting and chewing type
Anterior C Over secretion leads to of cockroach
pituitary gigantism (4) Malpighian - Excretion
A B C tubules
(1) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(2) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin 191. How many of animals given below are examples of
(3) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin Australian marsupials?
(4) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial Mole,
Lemur, Tasmanian tiger cat, Spotted cuscus,
SECTION-B Marsupial rat, Flying phalanger, Flying squirrel
(1) Five
186. Return of ventricles from excited to normal state is
(2) Six
represented by which wave of ECG?
(3) Seven
(1) P wave (2) QRS wave
(4) Eight
(3) P-Q interval (4) T wave
192. Interferons are;
187. Assertion (A): Amphibians can perform respiration
(1) antibacterial cytokines.
through lungs.
(2) antiviral glycolipids.
Reason (R): Amphibians like frogs can also respire
(3) proteins which make uninfected cells less
through their moist skin surface.
susceptible to viral attacks.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(4) phospholipids which act as antifungal agents.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
193. Choose the incorrect option.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) First clinical Gene therapy for - 1997
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
ADA deficiency
Assertion (A).
(2) First production of - 1983
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
recombinant insulin
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Production of human protein - 1997
enriched milk by first
188. Assertion (A): The maximum volume of air a
transgenic cow
person can breathe in after a forced expiration is
called vital capacity. (4) Basmati patent by American - 1997
Reason (R): The vital capacity includes RV, ERV, company
TV and IRV.

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194. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a 198. Select the correct match with respect to nephron in
year all over the world which accounts to; human kidney.
(1) 1/3rd of the total number of conceived (1) Vasa recta - Is absent in juxta
pregnancies in a year. medullary nephrons
(2) 1/4th of the total number of conceived (2) Bowman’s - Single walled cup like
pregnancies in a year. capsule structure
(3) 1/5th of the total number of conceived (3) Afferent - Carries the blood away
pregnancies in a year. arteriole from the glomerulus
(4) 2/5th of the total number of conceived (4) Podocytes - Create minute spaces
pregnancies in a year. (slit pore) for the
filtration of blood into
195. If a foreign gene is inserted at Pst I site of pBR322 the lumen of
followed by its insertion in a host cell, then; Bowmann’s capsule
(1) the recombinants lose resistance to tetracycline
but are resistant to ampicillin. 199. Select the mismatch among the following w.r.t.
(2) all transformants are ampicillin and disorders associated with endocrine glands.
tetracycline resistant. (1) Addison’s - Underproduction of
(3) the non-recombinants are ampR and tetR disease hormones by adrenal
resistant. medulla
(4) the recombinants will grow on ampicillin
(2) Cretinism - Hypothyroidism
containing medium.
(3) Acromegaly - Excessive secretion of
196. How many of the following statements is/are GH in adults
incorrect? (4) Graves’ - Hyperthyroidism
A. Scapula is situated in the dorsal part of thorax disease
between the second and the seventh ribs.
B. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to 200. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
the distribution pattern of sarcoplasmic answer.
reticulum. List-I List-II
C. Myosin possess oxygen storing capacity. (A) GLUT-4 (I) Saturated fatty acid
D. The central hollow portion of vertebra is called (B) Stearic (II) Transport protein
neural canal. acid
E. I-band shortens during muscle contraction. (C) Keratin (III) Structural protein
(1) Two (2) Three (D) Glycogen (IV) Storage
(3) Four (4) One polysaccharides
A B C D
197. When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting (1) II I III IV
any impulse, the axonal membrane; (2) II III I IV
(1) comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions (3) II I IV III
and nearly impermeable to K+ ions. (4) I II III IV
(2) equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions.
(3) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions.
(4) comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and
nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
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