Answer Key: 2023-2024 - Comprehensive Test 08 - Comprehensive Test

2023-2024 | Comprehensive Test 08 | Comprehensive Test
ANSWER KEY
Question Number Answer
1 D
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 C
7 B
8 B
9 A
10 B
11 B
12 C
13 A
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 B
18 A
19 D
20 B
21 C
22 A
23 D
24 C
25 C
26 B
27 B
28 C
29 D
30 A
31 B
32 B
33 D
34 B
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35 B
36 C
37 A
38 B
39 B
40 C
41 B
42 B
43 C
44 B
45 C
46 B
47 B
48 B
49 A
50 B
51 D
52 D
53 D
54 C
55 B
56 A
57 C
58 C
59 C
60 A
61 B
62 B
63 A
64 B
65 B
66 C
67 C
68 B
69 A
70 B
71 D
72 C
73 C
74 C
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75 B
76 B
77 B
78 C
79 C
80 A
81 B
82 C
83 B
84 D
85 A
86 C
87 D
88 C
89 B
90 C
91 A
92 D
93 B
94 A
95 B
96 B
97 B
98 A
99 D
100 D
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Solution
Q 1) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) All four
The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative
divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and
administrative autonomy within a state.
The Sixth Schedule applies to the Northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram (three
Councils each), and Tripura (one Council).
If there are different Scheduled Tribes in an autonomous district, the Governor may, by public
notification, divide the area or areas inhabited by them into autonomous regions.
The Governor may, by public notification,—
(a) include any area in any of the Parts,
(b) exclude any area from any of the Parts,
(c) create a new autonomous district,
(d) increase the area of any autonomous district,
(e) diminish the area of any autonomous district,
(f) unite two or more autonomous districts or parts thereof so as to form one autonomous
district,
(ff) alter the name of any autonomous district],
(g) define the boundaries of any autonomous district.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 2) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) 2 only
Article 166 of the Constitution of India provides for Conduct of Business of the Government of
a State.
All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of
the Governor. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
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Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the Governor shall be
authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the Governor, and
the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question
on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the Governor.
The Governor establish regulations to facilitate the State Government’s business transactions
and to distribute said business among the Ministers when it does not involve matters
pertaining to which the Governor is mandated by law to exercise discretion. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 3) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) 3 — 5 — 1 — 4 — 2
State Formation Year

Arunachal Pradesh 1987 (20 Feb)
Goa 1987 (30 May)
Haryana 1966
Manipur 1972
Telangana 2014
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 4) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: (a) Only one
Article 356 empowers the President to withdraw to the Union the executive and legislative
powers of any state “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of
the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
According to the provisions of Article 356, President’s Rule in a state can be imposed for six
months at a time for a maximum duration of three years. Every six months, Parliamentary
approval to impose President’s Rule will be required again. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
However, in the past, President’s Rule has been extended for significantly longer periods
under specific circumstances. For instance, Punjab was under President’s Rule from
1987-1992 due to the growing militancy.
Article 356 was inspired by Section 93 of the Government of India Act, 1935. Hence, statement
3 is not correct.
Article 356 of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the imposition of “President’s
Rule” in a state, removing an elected government. Between 1970 and 1974, President’s Rule
was imposed 19 times.
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Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 5) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) While political equality removes legal hurdles, equality of opportunities
requires the minimization of socio-economic inequalities and guarantees of certain minimum
life conditions like adequate health care and education.
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it misunderstands the concept of political equality, which is
about equal legal rights and does not ensure the same socio-economic status for all
individuals. Equality of opportunities is still necessary in the pursuit of social equality.
Option (b) is correct. It accurately captures the essence of the text: political equality is a
necessary first step in ensuring no legal barriers to participation in government and access to
social goods. However, true equality in society also requires equality of opportunities, which
involves minimizing socio-economic disparities and ensuring minimum conditions like
adequate health care, education, and nourishment for all.
Option (c) is incorrect as it overlooks the importance of equality of opportunities. Political

equality alone is insufficient for achieving social equality, as it does not address socio-
economic inequalities.
Option (d) is incorrect because it narrows down the concept of equality of opportunities to only
legal rights. The text emphasizes that equality of opportunities also includes addressing socio-
economic disparities and ensuring basic life conditions.
Target Shots
Social Equality
Political equality or equality before the law is an important first step
in the pursuit of equality but it often needs to be supplemented by
equality of opportunities. While the former is necessary to remove
any legal hurdles which might exclude people from a voice in
government and deny them access to available social goods, the
pursuit of equality requires that people belonging to different groups
and communities also have a fair and equal chance to compete for
those goods and opportunities. For this, it is necessary to minimise
the effects of social and economic inequalities and guarantee certain
minimum conditions of life to all the members of the society —
adequate health care, the opportunity for good education, adequate
nourishment and a minimum wage, among other things. In the
absence of such facilities it is exceedingly difficult for all the members
of the society to compete on equal terms. Where equality of
opportunity does not exist a huge pool of potential talent tends to
be wasted in society.
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Q 6) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) A just society is one where the gap between rich and poor is not excessively
large, and all citizens have the opportunity to improve their condition, with governments
responsible for providing basic needs, which can be challenging in populous countries.
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it suggests an unrealistic scenario where there are no
differences in wealth and power, which is not the essence of social justice as described.
Additionally, it underestimates the challenges governments face in providing for basic needs.
Option (b) is incorrect as it overstates the expectation of minimal differences in living

standards. Social justice is not about absolute sameness but about reasonable opportunities
and access to basic needs.
Option (c) is correct. This option aligns with the text's description of social justice, where a
just society does not have excessively large disparities between rich and poor, and where all
citizens, regardless of their starting point, have the opportunity to improve their conditions. It
also correctly identifies the responsibility of democratic governments to provide basic needs,
such as nourishment, housing, and education, and acknowledges the challenges faced,
especially in populous countries like India.
Option (d) is incorrect because it misconstrues social justice as requiring equal wealth and
power for all, which is not the point made in the text. It also incorrectly states that it is not the
government's responsibility to provide basic life conditions.
Q 7) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) A right is a justified claim or entitlement that society must recognize as
legitimate and uphold, distinct from personal wants or desires.
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect because it confuses rights with personal desires or wants. Rights are
not merely about what an individual desires or finds necessary, but are justified claims
recognized by society.
Option (b) is correct. This option aligns with the text's definition of a right as an entitlement or
a justified claim that is recognized by society as legitimate. It also correctly distinguishes
between rights and personal preferences or desires.
Option (c) is incorrect as it limits the concept of rights to only those privileges granted by the
government. Rights encompass broader entitlements and justified claims beyond government-
granted privileges.
Option (d) is incorrect because it mistakenly equates rights with personal preferences or
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desires. Rights are more than individual choices; they are claims that society recognizes and
upholds as legitimate.
Target Shots
WHAT ARE RIGHTS?

A right is essentially an entitlement or a justified claim. It denotes
what we are entitled to as citizens, as individuals and as human
beings. It is something that we consider to be due to us; something
that the rest of society must recognise as being a legitimate claim
that must be upheld. This does not mean that everything that I regard
to be necessary and desirable is a right. I may want to wear the
clothes of my choice to school rather than the prescribed uniform. I
may want to stay out late at night but this does not mean that I have
a right to dress in any way I like at school or to return home when I
choose to do so. There is a distinction between what I want and
think I am entitled to, and what can be designated as rights
Q 8) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Only two
Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Representation of People Act (1951), if a person is

elected to both Houses of Parliament, they must inform within 10 days which House they
choose to serve in. If they fail to do so, their seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant by
default.
Statement 2 is correct. If a sitting member of one House of Parliament is elected to the other
House, their seat in the first House indeed becomes vacant.
Statement 3 is correct. A person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and a state
legislature simultaneously. If elected to both, they must resign their seat in the state
legislature within 14 days, or their seat in Parliament becomes vacant.
Additional Context:
Prevention of Dual Membership:

The rules regarding the vacating of seats in Parliament are designed to prevent dual
membership, ensuring that a person does not hold seats in both Houses of Parliament or
simultaneously in Parliament and a state legislature. This is essential for maintaining clear and
distinct legislative roles and responsibilities.
Clear Choice for Elected Representatives:

These provisions require elected representatives to make a clear choice about which
legislative body they wish to serve in, ensuring that their focus and representation are not
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divided. This contributes to more effective and dedicated legislative service.
Q 9) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
statement 1 is correct only.
Explanation
Look Out Notice

o A Lookout notice (LOC) is issued to make sure that an individual who is absconding or
wanted by law enforcement agencies is not able to leave the country. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o It is mostly used at immigration checkpoints at international airports and seaports by the
immigration branch.
o The police can approach a court asking for the restriction of a person‘s movement outside
the country when a person is a suspect and the police apprehend that the person may not join
the investigation at a later stage.
o The subject of a LOC can challenge the circular and get relief from a court.
Who can issue a LOC?
o A LOC can be initiated by a large number of authorized officers, including an officer not
below the rank of deputy secretary, an officer not below the rank of joint secretary in the state
government, a district magistrate or superintendent of police, designated officers of various
law enforcing and security agencies, a designated officer of Interpol, an officer not below the
rank of additional director in the Serious Fraud Investigation Office, and the Ministry of
Corporate Affairs. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Since 2018, an officer not below the rank of chairman/managing director/chief executive of
any public sector bank can make a request.
o A LOC can be modified/deleted/withdrawn by the Bureau of Immigration only on the specific
request of the authorized originator on whose request the LOC was issued.
Does a LOC lead to arrest? -Not necessarily. LOC is of many types. Hence, statement 3 is not
correct.
o They can seek to merely stop a person against whom the circular has been issued from
traveling outside the country, to prevent a person from entering the country, or inform the
concerned investigation agencies.
o The proforma of the LOC also contains a request to detain the individual at the local police/
investigation agency, which generally leads to arrest.
Q 10) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
statement 1and 2 are correct only.
Explanation
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Electoral Rolls for Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies:
The Representation of Peoples Act, 1950 (RPA), provides for the preparation, correction, and
revision of Electoral rolls for both parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies.
Besides it also has provisions for Council constituencies. The electoral roll for each
constituency is prepared in the prescribed manner and comes into force immediately upon its
final publication in accordance with the rules made under RPA, 1950. This electoral roll:
(a) shall, unless otherwise directed by the Election Commission, be revised in the prescribed
manner by reference to the qualifying date
a. before each general election to the House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of a
State; and
b. before each bye-election to fill a casual vacancy in a seat allotted to the constituency;
(b) shall be revised in any year, if such revision has been directed by the Election Commission.
If the electoral roll is not revised, the validity or continued operation of the previous electoral
roll shall not be affected. Besides, the Election Commission may direct a special revision of the
electoral roll for any constituency or part of a constituency at any time in such manner as it
thinks fit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll The name of any person who becomes so
disqualified after registration is struck off the electoral roll in
which it is included. It is important to note that a person shall not be entitled to be registered
in the electoral roll for more than one constituency. Furthermore, no person shall be entitled
to be registered in the electoral roll for any constituency more than once. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
Target Shots
How many types of electoral rolls do we have in our country and why the distinction?
In many states, the voters‘ list for the panchayat and municipality elections is different from
the one used for Parliament and Assembly elections. The distinction stems from the fact that
the supervision and conduct of elections in our country are entrusted to two constitutional
authorities — the Election Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions
(SECs). Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the
offices of the President and Vice-President of India, and
to Parliament, the state assemblies, and the legislative councils. The SECs, on the other hand,
supervise municipal and panchayat elections. They are free to prepare their own electoral rolls
for local body elections, and this exercise does not have to be coordinated with the EC. So do
all states have a separate voters list for their local body elections?
No. Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Some state laws allow the SEC to borrow
and use the EC‘s voter rolls in toto for the local body elections. In others, the state commission
uses the EC‘s voters list as the basis for the preparation and revision of rolls for municipality
and panchayat elections. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 11) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Solution:
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Statement 1 is correct. Cabinet Committees are indeed extra-constitutional bodies, set up by
the Prime Minister under the Government of India Transaction of Business Rules, 1961. Their
number, nomenclature, and composition can vary over time based on the exigencies of the
time and the requirements of the situation.
Statement 2 is correct. Cabinet Committees are of two types: standing and ad hoc. The former
is of a permanent nature, while the latter is temporary. These committees usually include only
Cabinet Ministers, but non-cabinet Ministers can also be members.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Cabinet Committees are mostly headed by the Prime Minister,
other Cabinet Ministers can also act as their Chairman. However, if the Prime Minister is a
member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.
Target Shots
Importance of Cabinet Committees:

Cabinet Committees play a crucial role in the Indian governance system. They facilitate
detailed examination and discussion of policy issues and other matters at a smaller level
before they are taken up for consideration by the full Cabinet.
Flexibility and Efficiency:

The flexibility in their constitution and functioning allows the government to respond
effectively to varying needs and priorities. This structure also contributes to the efficiency and
effectiveness of the government's decision-making process.
Q 12) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) The Panchayats
Explanation
The Constitution of India at present has 25 parts:

o Part I The Union and its territory (Articles 1 to 4)
o Part II Citizenship (Articles 5 to 11)
o Part III Fundamental Rights ( Articles 12 to 35)
o Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy (Articles 36 to 51)
o Part IV-A Fundamental Duties (Articles 51-A)
o Part V The Union Government (Articles 52 to 151)
o Part VI The State Governments (Articles 152 to 237)
o Part VII The States in Part B of the First Schedule (deleted) 238 (deleted)
o Part VIII The Union Territories (Articles 239 to 242)
o Part IX The Panchayats (Articles 243 to 243– 0)
o Part IX-A The Municipalities (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG)
o Part IX-B The Co-operative Societies (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT)
o Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Areas (Articles 244 to 244- A)
o Part XI Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245 to 263)
o Part XII Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits (Articles 264 to 300- A)
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o Part XIII Trade, Commerce and Intercourse within the Territory of India (Articles 301 to 307)
o Part XIV Services under the Union and the States (Articles 308 to 323)
o Part XIV-A Tribunals (Articles 323-A to 323-B)
o Part XV Elections (Articles 324 to 329- A)
o Part XVI Special Provisions relating to Certain Classes (Articles 330 to 342- A)
o Part XVII Official Language (Articles 343 to 351- A)
o Part XVIII Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to 360)
o Part XIX Miscellaneous (Articles 361 to 367)
o Part XX Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
o Part XXI Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions (Articles 369 to 392)
o Part XXII Short title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals (Articles 393
to 395)
Q 13) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation
The Central Bureau of Investigation traces its origin to the Special Police Establishment (SPE)
which was set up in 1941 by the Government of India.
The functions of the SPE then were to investigate cases of bribery and corruption in
transactions with the War & Supply Deptt. Of India during World War II.
The CBI derives its powers to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE)
Act, 1946 which grants the CBI power to investigate a case in Delhi, without any permission,
since it is part of the Centre. However, in all the states, the CBI needs the consent of the state
to investigate any case relating to that state or having jurisdiction of that state since law and
order is a state
Subject. There are two types of consent for a probe by the CBI. These are: general and
specific.
o When a state gives general consent (Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act)
to the CBI for probing a case, the agency is not required to seek fresh permission every time it
enters that state in connection with an investigation or for every case.
o When general consent is withdrawn, CBI needs to seek case-wise consent for investigation
from the concerned state government. If specific consent is not granted, the CBI officials will
not have the power of police personnel when they enter that state.
For other matters, the CBI needs the consent of the state government in whose territorial
jurisdiction, the CBI has to conduct an investigation. This is unlike other central government
agencies, for example, the National Investigation Agency (NIA), which by law, enjoys an all-
India jurisdiction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The CBI can begin a probe under certain circumstances:
o if a state government makes a request and the Union government agrees to it, if the
Supreme Court or any High Court orders the CBI to take up such investigations, or
o if the state government issues a notification of consent under section 6 of the DSPE Act and
the Union government issues notification under section 5 of the DSPE Act for an investigation.
o The CBI can initiate suo-moto investigations only in Union Territories, under section 2 of the
DSPE Act. It will have no impact on the investigation of cases already registered with CBI as
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old cases were registered when general consent existed. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 14) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
pair 3 is incorrectly matched
Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar
Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only extending loans to them, but also
for their holistic development and economic upliftment. The scheme intends to facilitate
collateral free working capital loans of up
to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume
their businesses in the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas. PM-
SAVNidhi Portal - The portal developed by SIDBI will provide an integrated end to end IT
interface to users for availing benefits under the scheme.
Shagun portal:
It is an initiative to improve school education system by creating a junction for all online
portals and websites relating to various activities of the Department of School Education and
Literacy in the Government of India and all States and Union Territories.
The term ‘Shagun’ is coined from two different words- ‘Shala’ meaning Schools and ‘Gunvatta’
meaning Quality.
The portal seeks to provide a very robust feedback mechanism which will increase public
participation and will ensure accountability and transparency.
It also provides vital information relating to the availability of nearby schools, navigable
distance vis-a-vis aerial distance between schools.
By ministry of Education PENCIL stands for Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child
Labour. It is an efficient enforcement
mechanism contributing towards the ultimate goal of a “child labour free society”. It facilitates
the uploading and sharing of awareness generation activities.
Launched by Ministry of Labour and Employment
Q 15) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
statement 1 is correct only
Explanation
Private Member:
Any MP who is not a Minister is referred to as a private member.
What are Government Bills?
Bills introduced by Ministers are referred to as government bills.
They are backed by the government, and reflect its legislative agenda. Private member’s bills
purpose is to draw the government’s attention to what individual MPs see as issues and gaps
in the existing legal framework, which require legislative intervention.
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Introduction in the House: The admissibility of a private member’s Bill is decided by the Rajya
Sabha Chairman. In the case of Lok Sabha, it is the Speaker; the procedure is roughly the
same for both Houses.
The Member must give at least a month’s notice before the Bill can be listed for introduction;
the House secretariat examines it for compliance with constitutional provisions and rules on
legislation before listing.
Up to 1997, private members could introduce up to three Bills in a week. This led to a piling
up of Bills that were introduced but never discussed; Chairman K R Narayanan, therefore,
capped the number of private member’s Bills to three per session.
While government Bills can be introduced and discussed on any day, private member’s Bills
can be introduced and discussed only on Fridays.
Fourteen private member’s Bills — five of which were introduced in Rajya Sabha — have
become law so far. They can bring in constitutional amendment bills but not money bills.
Q 16) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
— Reaching its highest point since July 2007, the yield on US 10-year government bonds—the
global benchmark for asset prices—rose to 5.02 per cent.
— In India, the yield on 10-year government bonds is already at a high of 7.38 per cent, a rise
on 24 basis points in the last one month.
— There are various factors like rising crude oil prices, inflation risks and interest rate signals
from the US Federal Reserve have contributed to the hardening of bond yields. If inflation is
likely to rise, investors will demand higher yields on their bond investments. Hence, 3 is
correct.
— Higher government borrowing is also a reason for the rise in bond yields. Hence, 1 is not
correct.
— The rise indicates that the cost of funds in the financial system is rising and interest rates
are on the upswing. Hence, 2 is not correct.
— The rising bond yield means the government will have to pay more as yield (or return to the
investors), leading to a rise in cost of borrowings.
— This will have an overall impact on the financial system, putting upwards pressure on the
general interest rates in the banking system.
Q 17) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
— According to an official statement, Puri held talks with OPEC Secretary General Haitham Al-
Page 14
Ghais in Abu Dhabi and called for “balancing global energy markets by ensuring that crude oil
prices do not outstrip the paying ability of the consuming countries”.
— India is the world’s third-largest consumer of crude oil. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— India depends on imports to meet over 85 per cent of its requirement. Hence, statement 4 is
correct.
— Oil prices have been unpredictable for some time, but the overall trend has been upward
during the last three months. The price increase is the result of a number of interdependent
factors:
(i) Production cuts by major oil-producing countries of OPEC and OPEC+. Hence, statement 3
is correct.
(ii) Signs of improved macroeconomic conditions and easing of inflation in major oil consumers
like the US
(iii) Global oil demand touching record highs with expectations of further demand expansion.
— OPEC+ is a larger group of major oil-producing nations and includes members of OPEC
along with Russia and a few other producers. OPEC+ produces around 40 per cent of the
world’s crude oil, with Saudi Arabia as the top producer and Russia in the second spot. Hence,
statement 2 is not correct.
Q 18) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
— With the scheduled seven rounds of Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)
negotiations coming to a close this month, New Delhi remains sceptical of joining the trade
pillar, citing a lack of “tangible benefits.”
— IPEF was launched jointly by the US and other partner countries of the Indo-Pacific region
last year in Tokyo. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
— It is structured around four key negotiating subjects or pillars relating to trade, supply
chains, clean economy and fair economy (issues like tax and anti-corruption). Hence,
— Unlike traditional trade deals, IPEF does not deal with market access. Hence, statement 3 is
not correct.
— The trade pillar is one of the most crucial parts of IPEF that seeks commitment on sensitive
areas as agriculture, digital trade and labour and could require changes in domestic
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regulation.
— The IPEF agreement refers to avoiding restrictions on food and agriculture imports or
exports. However, India has been extensively using such restrictions to arrest food prices.
Q 19) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) All four
— The government unveiled a report on the country’s artificial intelligence programme, which
it believes will be a kinetic enabler for India to achieve the goal of USD 1 trillion digital
economy by 2026. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— This is a comprehensive, multi-year plan to make Indian AI a kinetic enabler of the trillion-
dollar digital economy.
— India’s AI programme will focus on comprehensive skills in the country, building computer
infrastructure etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
— The report recommends creation of India data sets platform to be used by domestic startups
and researchers, building GPU (graphical processing unit)-based computer infrastructure to
provide resources for development of AI engines or models to indigenous firms. Hence,
— The India AI computer platform will be a PPP project that will create significant GPU
capacity for our startups and researchers to train their models.
— Indian AI will also support development of AI chips in partnership with the Semicon India
Program. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 20) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
— NFTs are defined as anything which can be converted into digital forms like your drawings,
photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies, and even a tweet that can be turned into an
NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The unique feature of NFTs is that they are backed by blockchain technology. Terra Nulius
was the first NFT on Ethereum Blockchain.
— NFTs are gaining massive popularity now because they are becoming an increasingly
popular way to showcase and sell your digital artwork. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
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— NFT works on blockchain as it gives users complete ownership of a digital asset. Hence,
statement 3 is not correct.
— An NFT is thus created, or as crypto enthusiasts say, it is “minted”, to get exclusive

ownership rights. NFTs can have only one owner at a time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Q 21) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Only three
— FRP is the price declared by the government, which mills are legally bound to pay to
farmers for the cane procured from them. The FRP has been determined on the basis of
recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and announced by
the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
— The payment of FRP across the country is governed by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— It mandates payment within 14 days of the date of delivery of the cane. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
— Delays in payment can attract an interest up to 15 per cent per annum, and the sugar
commissioner can recover unpaid FRP as dues in revenue recovery by attaching properties of
the mills.
— Sugar recovery is the ratio between sugar produced versus cane crushed, expressed as a
percentage. The higher the recovery, the higher is the FRP, and higher is the sugar produced.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 22) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
statement 2 is correct only.
Explanation:
Economic Censuses:
The 7th Economic Census -2019 is being conducted by MoSPI to provide disaggregated
information on various operational and structural aspects of all establishments in the country.
Implementing agency:MoSPI has partnered with Common Service Centres, CSC e- Governance
Services India Limited, a Special Purpose Vehicle under the MEITY as the implementing
agency. Launched in 1976 as a plan scheme.
Page 17
Coverage: All entrepreneurial units in the country which are involved in any economic
activities of either agricultural or non-agricultural sector which are engaged in production
and/or distribution of goods and/or services not for the sole purpose of own consumption.
It is conducted every five years and very crucial for framing of policies and planning for the
government and other organisations.
Objective: It provides detailed information on operational and other characteristics such as
number of establishments, number of persons employed, source of finance, type of ownership
etc.
Significance: This information used for micro level/ decentralized planning and to assess
contribution of various sectors of the economy in the gross domestic product (GDP).
Total Six Economic Censuses (EC) have been conducted till date. First one was conducted in
1977 by CSO.
Q 23) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) It is a situation in which there inflation results in deterioration of customer
service across the industries.
Explanation
Skimpflation is a situation where firms – in response to higher costs – reduce the quality of a
good/service. Skimpflation means consumers get less for the same price. The term was coined
by the NPR show Planet Money to describe the deterioration of customer service across many
industries. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Skimpflation is related to inflation in that rising prices and costs in the economy lead to lower
living standards for consumers. The difference is that although prices do not rise directly, you
would effectively have to spend more to get the same service that you did before. Shrinkflation
is a very similar concept. Shrinkflation is when firms reduce the size of the product, rather
than increase the price. For example, a firm may reduce the size of a chocolate bar from 50
grams to 40 grams in order to be able to keep the same price.
Q 24) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) The area of operation of LAB is limited to a maximum of ten geographically
contiguous districts.
Explanation
The Local Area Banks (LABs) are small private banks, conceived as low-cost structures which
would provide efficient and competitive financial intermediation services in a limited area of
operation, i.e., primarily in rural and semi-urban areas, comprising three contiguous districts.
LABs were set up to enable the mobilization of rural savings by local institutions and, at the
same time, to make them available for investments in the local areas.
LABs were created following an announcement made by the then Finance Minister in the
Union Budget in August 1996. RBI issued guidelines for setting up of Local Area Banks (LABs)
in1996. LABs were required to have a minimum capital of Rs. 5 crores. The promoters of the
bank may comprise of private individuals, corporate entities, trusts and societies with a
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minimum capital contribution of Rs. 2 crores.
The area of operation of LAB is limited to a maximum of three geographically contiguous
districts and are allowed to open branches only in its area of operation. Hence, option (c) is
not correct.
LABs are also required to observe the priority sector lending targets at 40% of net bank credit
(NBC) as applicable to other domestic banks.
Around 5 LABs were licensed by 2002 under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949
from amongst hundreds of applicants. Presently, four LABs are functioning satisfactorily.
Q 25) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India launched the Account Aggregator Framework aimed at
making financial data more easily accessible.
What is an Account Aggregator?
According to the Reserve Bank of India, an Account Aggregator is a non-banking financial
company engaged in the business of providing, under a contract, the service of retrieving or
collecting financial information pertaining to its customer.
It is also engaged in consolidating, organising and presenting such information to the
customer or any other financial information user as may be specified by the bank.
The Account Aggregator framework was created through an inter-regulatory decision by RBI
and other regulators including Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory
and Development Authority, and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA) through and initiative of the
Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
The licence for Account Aggregator is issued by the RBI, and the financial sector will have
many AAs. The Account Aggregator framework allows customers to avail various financial
services from a host of providers on a single portal based on a consent method, under which
the consumers can choose what financial data to share and with which entity.
Q 26) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Only two
2 is incorrect
Explanation:
International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)

IFAD is an international financial institution and specialized United Nations agency based in
Rome, the UN’s food and agriculture hub.
About IFAD:
1. It is a specialized United Nations agency created in 1977 engaged in providing grants and
loans with low interest for allied projects.
2. The IFAD works with rural people allowing them to enhance their food security, improve
Page 19
nutrition and raise their incomes.
3. It also helps people to expand their businesses.
4. The organization is an outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
5. It is headquartered in Rome and headed by a President.
6. It has 177 member countries.
7. IFAD brings out the Rural Development Report every year.
The objectives of the IFAD are three-fold:
1. To increase the productive capacity of poor people.
2. To increase benefits for them from market participation.
3. To strengthen the environmental sustainability & climate resilience of their economic
activities.
Every year, FAO publishes a number of major 'State of the World' reports related to food,
agriculture,
forestry, fisheries and natural resources.
The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets.
The State of Food and Agriculture.
The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World.
Q 27) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
3 is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. A patent is indeed a statutory right granted for a limited period to the
patentee by the Government, in exchange for full disclosure of their invention, for the purpose
of excluding others from making, using, selling, or importing the patented product or process
without consent.
Statement 2 is correct. The term of every patent granted in India is 20 years from the date of
filing of the application. This also applies to applications filed under the national phase under
the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT), where the term is 20 years from the international filing
date accorded under PCT.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Patent protection is territorial and is effective only within the
territory of India. There is no concept of a global patent, although filing an application in India
enables the applicant to file corresponding applications in convention countries or under PCT
within 12 months from the filing date in India.
Additional Context:
Territorial Nature of Patents:

The territorial nature of patent protection means that inventors need to apply for patent
protection in each country where they seek protection. The PCT facilitates this process but
does not grant a "global patent."
Page 20
Amendments to the Patents Act:
The Patents Act, 1970 has been amended several times, most notably in 2005, to align with
international practices and treaties. These amendments have expanded the scope of what can
be patented in India and introduced provisions like compulsory licensing.
Q 28) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. India is a member of the World Trade Organisation and is committed to
the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property (TRIPS Agreement), which
sets down minimum standards for many forms of intellectual property regulation.
Statement 2 is correct. India is a member of the World Intellectual Property Organization

(WIPO) and a signatory to several important WIPO-administered international treaties and
conventions relating to IPRs, including the Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition
of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent Procedure, the Paris Convention
for the Protection of Industrial Property, the Convention Establishing the World Intellectual
Property Organization, the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works,
and the Patent Cooperation Treaty.
Statement 3 is correct. The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 is a
national policy of India. It was adopted as a vision document to guide the future development
of IPRs in the country with the slogan “Creative India; Innovative India.”
Target Shots
Importance of International Treaties and Conventions:

India's membership in these international treaties and conventions helps in aligning its IPR
laws with global standards, promoting international cooperation and ensuring the protection
of IPRs across borders.
Role of National IPR Policy:

The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 of India plays a significant role in
strengthening the IPR regime in the country, fostering innovation, and contributing to
economic growth. It aims to incorporate and adapt global best practices to the Indian context.
Q 29) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation: Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the

Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition at
shares/stock/bonds/debentures/ securities issued by government or local authority or other
securities of marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business.
Page 21
NBFCs are finance companies but not banks and are thus not allowed to function as bank but
to take deposits in other forms like fixed deposits. They are not allowed to open savings bank
accounts and are not members of the clearing houses.
Q 30) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: (a) 1-MPI, 2-HDI, 3-Both
Solution:
Statement 1 describes the MPI. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) measures
deprivations in three key dimensions - health, education, and standard of living - using 10
indicators to capture the intensity and incidence of poverty.
Statement 2 describes the HDI. The Human Development Index (HDI) measures the
achievements of countries in three dimensions: life expectancy, education, and income per
capita, and uses three indicators to capture the average level of human development.
Statement 3 applies to both MPI and HDI. Both indices are indeed published annually by the
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), with each focusing on different aspects -
MPI on multidimensional poverty and HDI on broader human development.
Target Shots
Distinct Goals of MPI and HDI:

The MPI and HDI serve different purposes in assessing development and poverty. While MPI
focuses on various aspects of poverty at the individual level, HDI provides a broader measure
of overall human development in countries.
Importance in Policy Making:

Both indices are critical tools for policymakers and international organizations. They provide
valuable insights for formulating policies and strategies aimed at poverty reduction and human
development.
Q 31) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Only two.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The physical differences between dolphins and porpoises are notable.
Dolphins typically have prominent, elongated “beaks” and cone-shaped teeth, while porpoises
have smaller mouths and spade-shaped teeth. Additionally, the shape of their dorsal fins
differs, with dolphins having a hooked or curved dorsal fin and porpoises possessing a more
triangular dorsal fin. These distinctions in their faces, fins, and figures are key identifiers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the statement, dolphins are more talkative than
porpoises. Dolphins are known for making whistling sounds through their blowholes to
Page 22
communicate underwater. Porpoises are generally not known to make these sounds, which
may be due to differences in the structure of their blowholes.
Statement 3 is correct: Both dolphins and porpoises share similarities in terms of intelligence
and certain anatomical features. They both have large, complex brains and a structure in their
foreheads called the melon, which is used to focus sound waves for navigation in their
underwater environments.
TargetShots
Differences between Dolphins and Porpoises:
• Dolphins have elongated beaks and cone-shaped teeth; porpoises have smaller mouths with
spade-shaped teeth.
• Dolphins are more vocal, using whistles for communication, unlike porpoises.
• Body shape differences: dolphins are leaner, porpoises are more portly.
Common Traits:
• Both exhibit high intelligence and complex brain structures.

• Use the melon for echolocation and navigation underwater.
Q 32) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect
- Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species (measured in
terms of its r the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in the presence of another
species.
- It is generally believed that competition occurs when closely related species compete for the
same resources that are limiting, but this is not entirely true.
- The female mosquito is not considered a parasite, although it needs our blood for
reproduction.
statement 2 is correct
- In contrast, endoparasites are those that live inside the host body at different sites (liver,
kidney, lungs, red blood cells, etc.).
- The life cycles of endoparasites are more complex because of their extreme specialisation.
Their morphological and anatomical features are greatly simplified, while emphasising their
reproductive potential. hence statement 3 is correct
Target Shots :: parasitism
- Parasitism is an interaction between two species in which one species (parasite) derives
benefit, while the other species (host) is harmed. For example, ticks and lice (parasites)
present on the human body represent this interaction wherein the parasites receive benefits.
On the other hand, these parasites reduce host fitness and cause harm to the human body.
Page 23
- Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific (they can parasitise only a single species of
host) in such a way that both host and the parasite tend to co-evolve; that is, if the host evolves
special mechanisms for rejecting or resisting the parasite, the parasite has to evolve
mechanisms to counteract and neutralise them, in order to be successful with the same host
species.
- In accordance with their life styles, parasites evolved special adaptations, such as the loss of
unnecessary sense organs, presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host, loss
of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.
- The life cycles of parasites are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or
vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host. The human liver fluke (a trematode
parasite) depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle. The
malarial parasite needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts
- Majority of the parasites harm the host; they may reduce the survival, growth and
reproduction of the host and reduce its population density. They might render the host more
vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.
- Parasites, that feed on the external surface of the host organism, are called ectoparasites.
The most familiar examples of this group are the lice on humans and ticks on dogs. Many
marine fish are infested with ectoparasitic copepods. Cuscuta, a parasitic plant, that is
commonly found growing on hedge plants, has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of
evolution. It derives its nutrition from the host plant, which it parasitises.
- Firstly, totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resource. For instance, in
some shallow South American lakes, visiting flamingoes and resident fish compete for their
common food, the zooplankton in the lake.
- Secondly, resources need not be limiting for competition to occur; in interference
competition, the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the interfering and
inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources (food and space) are abundant.
Therefore, it is relatively easy to demonstrate in laboratory experiments, as experimental

ecologists did, when resources are limited, the competitively superior species will eventually
eliminate the other species, but evidence for such competitive exclusion occurring in nature is
not always conclusive. Strong and persuasive circumstantial evidence does exist, however, in
some cases.
- The Abingdon tortoise in the Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats
were introduced on the island, apparently due to the greater browsing efficiency of the goats.
Q 33) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) None
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The India chapter of the Alliance of CEO Climate Action Leaders has
been launched on the 23rd of May 2022 by the World Economic Forum (WEF) to boost India’s
decarbonization and climate action efforts. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Page 24
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian chapter of the Alliance will be bringing together the
businesses, government, and various other key stakeholders to achieve India’s target of net
zero by 2070. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Target Shots :: About the Alliance

- The alliance is a collaboration between which organizations ?
- This Alliance is a collaboration between the Indian think-tank Observer Research Foundation
and the management consultancy Kearney.
- This alliance will be serving as a high-level platform with the aim of supporting business
leaders of the country to plan and implement programmes through which climate targets,
including the net-zero economic growth, can be achieved.
- The Alliance will also be taking collaborative and decisive steps to scale up efforts to meet
the net-zero targets of the country.
Q 34) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
1. Predation: Correct. In predation, one species (the predator) benefits by feeding on the other
species (the prey), which is harmed. This interaction involves the predator gaining nutrients
and the prey being negatively affected, often resulting in death.
2. Commensalism: Incorrect. Commensalism is an interaction where one species benefits, and
the other is unaffected, not harmed. This relationship is characterized by one species obtaining
some benefit (like habitat or transportation), while the other neither benefits nor suffers.
3. Symbiosis: Incorrect, depending on interpretation. Symbiosis is often used to describe a
relationship where both species benefit (mutualism). However, it can also broadly refer to any
persistent biological interaction (mutualistic, commensalistic, or parasitic). If considering only
the mutualistic aspect, this statement is incorrect.
4. Amensalism: Incorrect. In amensalism, one species is harmed while the other is unaffected.
It is not a relationship where one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor
benefitted.
Q 35) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Panna Biosphere Reserve o Established in 1981, Panna Biosphere
Reserve is located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh with an area of
around 540 km. sq. It was declared in 1993 as the twenty-second Tiger reserve of India and
the fifth in Madhya Pradesh.
In 2011, It was designated as a Biosphere Reserve by the Union Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). In 2020, it has been included in the Man and Biosphere
programme of UNESCO. The Panna Biosphere Reserve is the third in Madhya Pradesh to be
included in the list after Pachmarhi and Amarkantak
Page 25
Statement 2 is not correct. It is situated in the Vindhya mountain range in the northern part of
Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct. Ken River (one of the least polluted tributaries of the Yamuna River)
flows through the reserve and theKen-Betwa river interlinking project will also be located in it.
Target shorts
• Panna Biosphere Reserve falls in bio-geographic zones of Deccan Peninsula and Biotic
Province of Central highlands . It comprises effectively protected and minimally disturbed
areas.
• The areas have different landuses, forests, agriculture, water bodies, settlements and
wasteland which provide ample scope for research and management.
• Panna Biosphere Reserve area is the habitat of various rare and endangered species. Panna
National Park has also been declared as Panna Tiger Reserve, apart from this the entire area
of Panna national Park and 3 parts of Gangau Sanctuary have also been notified as Critical
Tiger Habitat Area.
Ecological Characteristics
• The Panna Biosphere Reserve in India encompasses Panna National Park, three sections of
the Gangau Sanctuary (I, III and IV) and the Reserved and Protected Forests of the North
Panna Forest Division.
• The Panna Tiger Reserve is one of the most critical in North Central Highlands for protecting
the Bengal Tiger(Panthera tigris tigris).
• Other 2 species of cats claim this region as their home; the Siyah Gosh (Felis caracal) and
Jungle cat (Felis chaus). The avifauna in this region is rich with over 280 species recorded.
• The Ken River is a beautiful location to witness the beautiful and skilled songster that is the
Indian Paradise Flycatcher(Terpsiphone paradisi). The site is characterized by forests,
seasonal as well as aquatic, and marshy vegetation.
Q 36) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) All three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) was indeed established
under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986. It serves as a permanent statutory body and
was formed to replace an ad hoc CEC that was set up in 2002 for monitoring the
implementation of the Supreme Court’s orders in the T.N. Godavarman vs. Union of India case.
Statement 2 is correct: The CEC consists of a Chairman and three Expert Members who are
appointed for a tenure of three years. This term can be extended once until they reach the age
of 60. Additionally, there is a Chief Coordinating Officer in the CEC, who is a serving officer of
the government, holding a rank not below that of DIG of Forests or Director.
Statement 3 is correct: The CEC has jurisdiction across the entire country. In cases where a
State’s recommendations differ from those of the CEC, the matter is referred to the Centre.
The decision made by the Centre in such cases is final and binding, emphasizing the central
Page 26
role of the CEC in environmental governance and decision-making.
Q 37) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) organisms capable of feeling and displaying emotions
TargetShots
'Sentient Beings'
• Context: The UK government has declared octopuses, crabs and lobsters as “sentient
beings”.
• Sentience is defined as having "the capacity to have feelings, such as feelings of pain,
pleasure, hunger, thirst, warmth, joy, comfort and excitement."
• Animal sentience/consciousness, or animal awareness is the quality or state of self-
awareness within a non-human animal, or of being aware of an external object or something
within itself.
• The UK government had said that there is strong scientific evidence that decapod
crustaceans and cephalopod molluscs are sentient.
• It further stated that lobsters and crabs shouldn't be boiled alive and also suggested best
practices for their transport, stunning and slaughter.
• Vertebrates - animals with a backbone - are already classified as sentient under its
legislation.
• UK classifies crabs, lobsters as 'sentient beings' after report says then can experience pain
• Octopuses, crabs, and lobsters will be recognized as 'sentient beings' in UK after a review
concluded they feel pain and distress
Q 38) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, the Government of India, and the
US Agency for International Development (USAID) announced the launch of a new program,
“Trees Outside Forests in India”. The move will enhance carbon sequestration, support local
communities, and strengthen the climate resilience of agriculture. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
• This initiative with a monetary component of USD 25 million dollars will bring together
farmers, companies, and private institutions in India to rapidly expand tree coverage outside of
traditional forests by 28 lakh hectares. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Through agroforestry, or integrating trees into farming systems, the program will improve
the resilience of farming systems while increasing the income of farmers.
• The program will also use innovative financing models and leverage India’s private sector to
promote treebased enterprises, helping to create sustainable markets and improve rural
economies and livelihoods, with the potential to benefit more than 13 million people.
• The program will be implemented by a consortium led by the Center for International
Forestry Research (CIFOR) and World Agroforestry (ICRAF), in seven states including Andhra
Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Odisha, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh
Page 27
Q 39) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
- There has been growing environmental concern in Turkey over the accumulation of 'sea snot',
a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the country's seas, which can cause considerable
damage to the marine ecosystem.
- 'Sea snot' is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a
result of water pollution combined with the effects of climate change. The nutrient overload
occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming. Water pollution adds to
the problem.
- Environmental experts have said that overproduction of phytoplankton caused by climate
change and the uncontrolled dumping of household and industrial waste into the seas has led
to the present crisis.
- The growth of the mucilage, which floats up on the surface of the sea like a brown phlegm, is
posing a severe threat to the marine ecosystem of the country.
- The mucilage is now covering the surface of the sea and has also spread to 80-100 feet below
the surface. If unchecked, this can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing
major damage to the marine ecosystem.
- Over a period of time, it could end up poisoning all aquatic life, including fishes, crabs,
oysters, mussels and sea stars.
TargetShots: Sea Snot- Outbreak in Turkey

Why in News?
Recently, Turkey's Sea of Marmara, which connects the Black Sea to the Aegean Sea, has
witnessed the largest outbreak of 'sea snot'.
- A 'sea snot' outbreak was first recorded in the country in 2007.
Key Points
- Sea Snot and its Formation:
- It is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of
water pollution combined with the effects of climate change.
- The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm weather caused by global warming.
- It looks like a viscous, brown and foamy substance.
- Concerns:
- Threat to the Marine Ecosystem:
- It has caused mass deaths among the fish population, and also killed other aquatic organisms
such as corals and sponges.
- It is now covering the surface of the sea and has also spread to 80-100 feet below the surface
which eventually can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor.
- Livelihoods of Fishermen Affected:
- As the sludge is getting collected in their nets, making them so heavy that they break or get
lost.
- Moreover, the mucilage coating the strings makes the nets visible to fish and keeps them
away.
- Water-borne Diseases:
Page 28
- It can cause an outbreak of water-borne diseases such as cholera in cities like Istanbul.
- Steps that are being Taken:
- The entire Sea of Marmara will be turned into a protected area.
- Moreover, steps are being taken to reduce pollution and improve treatment of waste water
from coastal cities and ships.
- Turkey's biggest maritime clean-up operation is being launched and called on local residents,
artists and NGOs to join hands to extend assistance.
Nutrient Pollution
- About:
- It is the process where too many nutrients, mainly nitrogen and phosphorus, are added to
bodies of water and can act like fertilizer, causing excessive growth of algae.
- This process is also known as eutrophication.
- Sources of Nutrients:
- They can occur naturally as a result of weathering of rocks and soil in the watershed and they
can also come from the ocean due to mixing of water currents.
- There are more nutrients entering our coastal waters from wastewater treatment facilities,
runoff from land in urban areas during rains, and from farming.
- Impact:
- Severe algal growth blocks light that is needed for plants, such as seagrasses, to grow.
- When the algae and seagrass die, they decay and in this process the oxygen in the water is
used up and this leads to low levels of dissolved oxygen in the water. This, in turn, can kill fish,
crabs, oysters, and other aquatic animals.
World Oceans Day

- The World Oceans Day is celebrated every year on 8th June to create awareness about the
benefits that mankind gets from the ocean.
- The Day was designated by the United Nations General Assembly in 2008.
- Oceans are considered to be the lungs of the planet, a critical part of the biosphere and are a
major source of food and medicine.
- The theme of the World Oceans Day 2021 is 'The Ocean: Life and Livelihoods'.
- It is especially relevant in the lead-up to the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable
Development, which will run from 2021 to 2030.
- The decade is aimed at strengthening international cooperation to develop scientific research
and innovative technologies that are capable of connecting ocean science with the needs of
modern society.
Q 40) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) All three
Explanation:
Dip in eastern swamp deer population in Kaziranga National Park.
Target Shost :: About Swamp Deer

- Barasingha, (Cervus duvauceli), also called swamp deer, graceful deer, dolhorina belongs to
Page 29
the family Cervidae (order Artiodactyla).
- Swamp Deer Stags have 10 to 14-tine antlers, which explains their Hindi name, barasingha,
or twelve-horned.
- Habitat - Barasingha are found in open forests and grasslands of India and Nepal.
- Formerly more widespread, the barasingha is now found only in scattered areas and in
national parks and reserves.
- Subspecies - There are three subspecies of Barasingha found in India -
- Wetland Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii duvacelii) - The largest among all the swamp deer
of India.
- Hard-ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi).
- They are the state animal of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. statement 2 is correct.
- Eastern Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhii) - The smallest of Barasinghas
- Eastern swamp deer is the smallest of Barasinghas. It has smaller tail and antlers compared
to other sub-species.
- Eastern Barasingha is endemic to Kaziranga and is not the primary prey of the park's
carnivores, primarily the tiger.
- But its population is crucial for the ecological health of the tiger reserve.
- The encouraging sign is the animal has now moved to other areas such as Orang National
Park and Laokhowa-Burachapori wildlife sanctuaries.
- It is listed in the IUCN Red Data Book as a Vulnerable species and in CITES in Appendix I
and in Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 in Schedule I.
- The swamp deer differs from all other Indian deer species; the antlers of swamp deer carry
more than three tines.
Q 41) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Maintenance of a stable internal environment by living organisms.
Explanation:
Homeostasis refers to the process by which living organisms maintain a stable internal
environment. This is crucial for the survival and functioning of organisms as it involves the
regulation of various physiological processes. It ensures that factors like body temperature,
water balance, and chemical levels are kept within a certain range, regardless of external
environmental changes.
Target Shots:
1. Stable Equilibrium Maintenance: Homeostasis is about maintaining a stable equilibrium in

the body. This involves physiological processes, such as sweating to cool the body, that help
maintain this balance despite external environmental changes.
2. Regulation in Organisms: Many organisms, including all birds and mammals, regulate their
internal environment. This includes maintaining a constant body temperature
(thermoregulation) and osmotic concentration (osmoregulation), which is essential for their
survival in various environments, from the Sahara Desert to Antarctica.
3. Conformers vs. Regulators: While some species can regulate their internal environment,
many others, like most plants and aquatic animals, are conformers. Their internal environment
Page 30
varies with the external conditions.
4. Adaptation Strategies: Organisms have different strategies for dealing with environmental
stress. These include migration to more hospitable areas, entering states like hibernation or
aestivation to avoid extreme conditions, and forming resistant structures like spores or seeds.
5. Homeostasis in Ecosystems: Ecosystems themselves exhibit homeostasis by regulating
species structure and functional processes. This self-regulation is evident in food chains,
where fluctuations in one population can cause cascading effects on others, maintaining an
overall balance.
6. Limits of Homeostasis: Despite the efficiency of homeostatic mechanisms, their capacity is
not unlimited. Extreme conditions can disrupt these processes, and not all aspects of an
ecosystem are always perfectly regulated.
Q 42) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) A cooperative society that received a GI tag for its Sago produced in Salem,
Tamil Nadu
Explanation: SAGOSERVE refers to a cooperative society that has been recognized for its
production of Sago in Salem, Tamil Nadu, and has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag
for the same. Sago, derived from raw tapiocas, is known for its small, hard, pearl-like
appearance and is pearl white in color. It is a product that thrives in tropical, warm, and
humid climates, requiring substantial rainfall. Sago is characterized by its high carbohydrate
content while being low in protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins. It is known for being easy to
digest and providing rapid energy. This recognition is specific to the Sago produced in Salem
and is not related to wheat, rice cultivation, or organic farming initiatives.
Q 43) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Karnataka
Explanation: Agumbe Forest is located in the Shivamogga district of Karnataka. It is often

referred to as the “Cherrapunji of South India” due to its high average rainfall of 8000 mm.
Situated at an elevation of 650 meters within the Central Western Ghats, Agumbe boasts a
unique tract of tropical moist evergreen forest. Additionally, it is adjacent to the Someshwara
Wildlife Sanctuary and the Kudremukh National Park. Agumbe is renowned as the world’s only
natural habitat of the King Cobra, earning it the nickname “The Cobra Capital.” This distinct
ecological significance places it in Karnataka, not in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, or Andhra Pradesh.
Q 44) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Cadmium poisoning causes hypertension, liver cirrhosis, brittle
bones, kidney damage and lung cancer & Itai-itai disease
Statement 3 is incorrect: Zinc is a skin irritant and affects the pulmonary system
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statement 1 is correct
Mercury Toxicity
- Source: electrical and electronic equipment, medical devices, etc
- Health Effects: Minamata disease- damages organs, shrinks brain, impairs bodily functions,
causes lesions in mouth- skim & neurological problems
statement 4 is also correct :: Lead toxicity

- Source: Petrol w/lead+ Computer devices+ Many industrial processes uses lead, etc
- Health Effects: bio accumulation, bio- magnification, neurological damage, lung/kidney
cancer, developmental problems w/in children and acute & chronic effects on plants, animals
& microorganisms.
Target Shots :: varoius other toxicities

Arsenic Toxicity
- Source: associated with copper, iron and silver ores+ emitted from fossil fuel burning+ used
in fertilizers+ Ground water contamination
- Health Effects: melanosis, keratosis, loss of appetite, weight, diarrhea, gastrointestinal
disturbances and skin cancer
Cadmium Toxicity
- Sources: Mining, especially of zinc and metallurgical operations, electroplating industries
- Health Effects: Hypertension, liver cirrhosis, brittle bones, kidney damage and lung cancer+
Itai-itai disease
Others
- Zinc, chromium, antimony and tin | Source- food from cheap cooking utensils, tin cans
- Health Effects- Zinc is a skin irritant and affects the pulmonary system
Q 45) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Only three
Explanation:
These are mostly evergreen forests that grow in sheltered low lying coasts estuaries, mudflats,
tidal creeks backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes and lagoons of tropical
and subtropical regions.
- Mangroves grow below the high water level of spring tides.
-Features are prop roots; pneumatophores; enhance the deposition of sediment; stabilise the
coastal shores; breeding ground for fishes
- moderate monsoonal tidal floods; reduce inundation of coastal lowlands; prevent coastal soil
erosion; prevent coastal lands from tsunami, hurricanes & floods; enhance natural recycling;
- Supports florae, avifauna and wildlife; safe & favourable environment for breeding,
spawning, rearing of several fishes; supply woods, firewood, medicinal plants & edible plants
to local people; numerous employment opportunities to locals and augment livelihood
Statement 2 is correct: Threats are conversion of the area for agricultural purpose, over
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harvesting, river changes, fuel, fodder and, salinisation, mining, oil spills, aqua cultural
(shrimp farming), use of chemical pesticides & fertilisers, industrial purposes, pollution,
climate change
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangroves in India exists in Sundarbans, Bhitarkanika, Godavari-

Krishna delta, Pichavaram and Vedaranyam, intertidal region of estuaries and creeks in
Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka+ in the coastal zone of Kerala, Gujarat in Gulf of Kutch and
the Kori creek & Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
- The mangroves of Bhitarkanika (Orissa), which is the second largest in the Indian sub-
continent, harbour high concentration of typical mangrove species and high genetic diversity.
hence statement 4 is also correct
Q 46) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
2 is incorrect only
Explanation:
Home Rule Movement (1915–1916)

Introduction:
The home rule movement was the Indian response to the First World War in a less charged but
in a more effective way. With people already feeling the burden of war time miseries caused by
high taxation and a rise in prices, Tilak and Annie Besant ready to assume the leadership the
movement started with great vigour. Two Indian
Home Rule Leagues were organised on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they
represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. The League campaign aimed
to convey to the common man the message of home rule as self-government.
Objectives of Home Rule Movement:
To achieve self-government in India.
To promote political education and discussion to set up agitation for self-government.
To build confidence among Indians to speak against the government’s suppression.
To demand a larger political representation for Indians from the British government.
To revive political activity in India while maintaining the principles of the Congress Party.
Major contributions of Home Rule Movement to the freedom struggle of India:
The leagues organised demonstrations and agitations.
There were public meetings in which the leaders gave fiery speeches.
They were able to create a stir within the country and alarm the British to such an extent that
Annie Besant was arrested in June 1917.
This move by the British created a nation-wide protest and now even moderate leaders joined
the league. Besant was released in September 1917.
The Home Rule League functioned throughout the year as opposed to the Congress Party
whose activities were confined to once a year.
Many members of the Congress and the Muslim League joined the league. Many prominent
leaders like Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Joseph Baptista, G S Kharpade and Sir S Subramanya Iyer
were among its members.
Page 33
Q 47) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
2 is incorrect only
Explanation:
The Revolutionarywas published by the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) - renamed in

1928 as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) – a revolutionary organisation
that was set up in 1923.
It was written by Ram Prasad Bismil, a leader of the Association, but was signed under a fake
name. The document expressed the ideology, plans and vision of the HRA on questions
regarding foreign rule, the independence movement and the future of India. It was widely
circulated in different parts of the country and aimed to galvanise the people of India to mount
a revolution to overthrow British rule.
The Revolutionary was a 4-page document written in a non-legal style and read more like a
manifesto or a declaration rather than a stiff legal/constitutional document - the rhetorical
style resembled the Purna Swaraj Declaration,1930.
The document rejected foreign rule and advocated for a revolutionary approach towards
obtaining independence for the country – dismissing constitutional means adopted by other
political parties like the Indian National Congress. Para 7 of the document, though only brief
and incomplete, contains an articulation of a constitutional vision. The document aimed to
establish (through ‘organised and armed revolution’) a ‘Federal
Republic of the United States of India’. It called for a Constitution to be framed, and the
resulting Constitutional republic would be based on principles that included: universal adult
suffrage, nationalisation of major industries, right to recall elected representatives and group
rights.
Q 48) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: (b) Kuchipudi
Explanation
Kuchipudi
Originally performed by group of actors going from village to village, known as Kusselavas,
Kuchipudi derives its name from theAndhra village of Kusselavapuri or Kuchelapuram. In 17th
century,Siddhendra Yogi formalized and systematized the tradition. Heauthored ‘Bhama
Kalapam’ and many other plays.
The performance has :
Sollakath or Patakshara : the Nritta part, where movement of the body is made.
Kavutvams : The Nritya part which involves extensive acrobatics. It may also be performed as
Nritta(pure dance)
The Kuchipudi dance style is a manifestation of the earthly elements in the human body.
In a Kuchipudi recital, the dancer may combine the role of a singer into himself/herself as well.
Hence, it becomes adrance-drama performance.
Both Lasya and Tandava elements are important in the Kuchipudi dance form.
Page 34
Apart from group performances, there are some popular solo elements in Kuchipudi as well.
Some of them are:
Manduk shabdam – Tells the story of a frog.
Tarangam – The dancer performs with his/her feet on the edges of a brass plate and balancing
a pot of wateron the head or a set of diyas.
Jala Chitra Nrityam – In this item, the dancer draws pictures on the floor with his or her toes
while dancing.
A Kuchipudi recital is generally accompanied with Carnatic music; Violin and Mridgangam
being the principalinstruments. The recital is in Telugu language.
Q 49) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) 1 only
Bhumisparsha Mudra
One of the most common Mudras found in statues of Buddha. It depicts the Buddha sitting in
meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap, and his right hand touching the earth.
This mudra is commonly associated with the blue Buddha known as Akshobya.
Significance: ‘Calling the Earth to Witness the Truth’ Mudra, and it represents the moment of
Buddha’s
attaining enlightenment.
Dhyana Mudra
Indicates Meditation and is also called ‘Samadhi’ or ‘Yoga’ Mudra. It depicts Buddha with both
the hands in the lap, with the back ofthe right hand resting on the palm of the left hand with
fingersextended. In many statues the thumbs of both hands are shown touching at the tips,
thus forming a mystic triangle.
It signifies attainment of spiritual perfection. This Mudra was used by Buddha during the final
meditation under the bodhi tree.
Q 50) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
1 and 2 are correct only
Explanation:
Babur (1526-1530)
Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India. His original name was Zahiruddin
Muhammad. He was related to Timur from his father’s side and to Chengiz Khan through his
mother.Babur succeeded his father Umar Shaikh Mirza as the ruler of Farghana. But he was
soon defeated byhis distant relative and as a result lost
his kingdom. He became a wanderer for some time till he captured Kabul from one of his
uncles. Then, Babur took interest in conquering India and launched fourexpeditions between
1519 and 1523.
Estimate of Babur
Babur was a great statesman and a man of solid achievements. He was also a great scholar in
Arabic and Persian languages. Turki was his mother tongue. He wrote his memoirs, Tuzuki-
Page 35
Baburi in Turki language. It provides a vivid account of India. He frankly confesses his own
failures without suppressing any facts. He was also a naturalist
and described the flora and fauna of India.
Q 51) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) All
Explanation:
Sher Shah’s Administration

Although his rule lasted for five years, he organized a brilliant administrative system. The
central government
consisted of several departments. The king was assisted by four important ministers:
1. Diwan –i- Wizarat – also called as Wazir - in charge of Revenue and Finance.
2. Diwan-i-Ariz – in charge of Army.
3. Diwan-i-Rasalat- Foreign Minister.
4. Diwan-i-Insha- Minister for Communications.
Sher Shah’s empire was divided into forty seven sarkars. Chief Shiqdar (law and order) and
Chief Munsif (judge) were the two officers in charge of the administration in each sarkar. Each
sarkar was divided into several parganas. Shiqdar (military officer), Amin (land revenue),
Fotedar (treasurer) Karkuns (accountants) were in charge of the administration of each
pargana. There were also many administrative units called iqtas.
Q 52) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) All
Explanation:
The most important disciples of Buddha were Sariputta, Moggallanna, Ananda, Kassapa and
Upali. Kings like Prasenajit of Kosala and Bimbisara and Ajatasatru of Magadha accepted his
doctrines and became his disciples.
Buddha in his lifetime spread his message far and wide in north India and visited places like
Benares, Rajagriha, Sravasti, Vaisali, Nalanda and Pataligrama. It should be noted that he did
not involve himself in fruitless controversies regarding metaphysical questions like god, soul,
karma, rebirth, etc., and concerned himself with the practical problems confronting man.
Q 53) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
The annual session of Indian National Congress in 1906 was organised in Calcutta. During this
time the rift between the extremists and the moderates was growing, differences regarding
the pace of the movement and the techniques of struggle to be adopted during the Swadeshi
Page 36
Movement were becoming stark. During this session both sides wanted their leaders to be
elected as the President of the Congress,
ultimately Dadabhai Naoroji (the grand old man of India) emerged as a compromise.
• As the President of the Congress, in 1906, Dadabhai Naoroji laid down the goal of the
national movement as “self-government or Swaraj,” on lines of self-governing colonies (Canada
and Australia) of the British Empire. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• To prevent the split within Congress four resolutions on the Swadeshi, Boycott, National
Education, and Self-Government demands were passed during 1906 Calcutta session. Though
election of Dadabhai Naoroji as the President and passage of the above four resolution
prevented immediate split of Congress, but it inevitably took place a year later during 1907
annual session at Surat, which was presided over by Rash Behari Bose. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
Q 54) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) 2-4-3-1
Explanation
In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim
law and related subjects. In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started Sanskrit College at Varanasi
where he was the resident for the study of Hindu Law and Philosophy. Both these institutions
were designed to provide a regular supply of qualified Indians to help the administration of
law in the courts of the company.
• In 1784, Asiatic Society of Bengal was set up by Sir William Jones. It was set up to encourage
oriental studies as Sir Jones was a British Lawyer and an orientalist himself.
• In 1800, Lord Wellesley established College of Fort William at Calcutta for the education of
young recruits to the civil service. The Directors of the Company disapproved his action and in
1806 replaced it by their own East Indian College at Haileybury in England.
• In 1857, University of Calcutta was established based on the recommendations of the
Secretary of State’s Educational Despatch of 1854.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 55) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Option 2 is incorrect.
Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu performed in praise of the rain goddess
Mariamman. The ancient Tamil epic says that this type of dance has derived from Bharatham
and a mixture of multiple forms of Tamil dance forms.
Tamang Selo is a genre of Nepali Folk song sung by the Tamang people and widely popular
amongst the Nepali speaking community in Nepal, India and around the world. It is usually
accompanied by Tamang instruments, the Damphu, Madal and Tungna.
Koli dance is the folk dance of fisher community of Maharashtra. In this dance, we can see the
dance movements of girls are inspired from their daily life of fishing. Sea waves, throwing net
Page 37
in the sea, catching fishes are some of those movements
Q 56) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Phad
Explanation
It is a type of scroll painting mainly found in the Bhilwara district. The main themes of the
phad paintings depict the deities and their legends and the stories of erstwhile Maharajas.
Therefore, they depict the heroic deeds of a heroic figure, the daily life of a peasant, rural life,
animals and birds, flora and fauna.
These paintings are created using bright colours and subtle colours. The outlines of the
paintings are first drawn in black and later filled with colours.
Raw colours are used for these paintings. The unique features of phad paintings are the bold
lines and a two-dimensional treatment of figures with the entire composition arranged in
sections.
Q 57) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation
The Treaty of Sevres signed with Turkey in May 1920 made it amply clear that the
dismemberment of the Turkish Empire was complete. Indian Muslims were in anger due to the
treatment meted out to Turkey by the British after the First World War. In early 1919, a
Khilafat Committee was formed under the leadership of the Ali brothers (Shaukat Ali and
Muhammad Ali), Maulana Azad, Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani, to force the British
Government to change its attitude to Turkey.
• The All India Khilafat Conference held at Delhi in November 1919 decided to withdraw all
cooperation from the Government if their demands were not met. The Muslim League, now
under the leadership of nationalists, gave full support to the National Congress and its
agitation on political issues. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Meanwhile, the Government had refused to annul the Rowlatt Act, make amends for the
atrocities in Punjab, or satisfy the nationalist urge for self-governance. In June 1920, an all-
party conference met at Allahabad and approved a program of a boycott of schools, colleges
and law courts. The Khilafat Committee launched a non-cooperation movement on 1st August
1920. Gandhiji was the first to join and he returned the Kaiser-i-Hind medal awarded to him
earlier for services during World War
I. Lokamanya Tilak passed away in the early hours of 1 August, and the day of mourning and of
the launching of the movement merged as people all over the country observed hartal and took
out processions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Page 38
• In December 1920, the Congress met for its annual session at Nagpur. By then The
programme of non- cooperation included within its ambit the surrender of titles and honours,
boycott of government-affiliated schools and colleges, law courts, foreign cloth. The goal of the
Congress was changed from the attainment
of self-government by constitutional and legal means to the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful
and legitimate means.
• The years 1921 and 1922 were to witness an unprecedented movement of the Indian people.
It was at this time that the Jamia Millia Islamia of Aligarh, the Bihar Vidyapith, the Kashi
Vidyapith and the Gujarat Vidyapith came into existence. Hundreds of lawyers including CR
Das, Motilal Nehru, Rajendra Prasad gave up their legal practice. The Tilak Swarajya Fund
was started to finance the non-cooperation movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 58) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Sanjibni was a marathi newspaper founded in 1883.
Explanation
Sanjibni was the Bengali journal (and not Marathi) founded by Krishna Kumar Mitra in 1883.
In 1886, a series of articles were published on the condition of the Indian workers in the tea
plantations of Assam forcing the government to provide legal protection to tea garden
workers. Also, It was the first newspaper to announce the partition of Bengal in 1905. Hence
option (c) is not correct.
• The Bengalee newspaper was founded by Girish Chandra Ghosh. Surendra Nath Banerjee
served as its editor.
Amrita Bazar Patrika was started as a Bengali newspaper by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal
Ghosh. it is one of the oldest newspapers in India. It functions as a bilingual newspaper until
the passage of the Vernacular Press act of 1878. After this, it was converted overnight into an
English newspaper.
• Kesari newspaper was founded by the Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was a Marathi newspaper
founded in 1881. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar was the co-founder of the newspaper and also its first
editor.
Q 59) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Only three
Explanation:
Sargasso Sea:
o The Sargasso Sea is a vast patch of ocean named for a genus of free-floating seaweed called
Sargassum.
o While there are many different types of algae found floating in the ocean all around world,
the Sargasso Sea is unique in that it harbors species of sargassum that are 'holopelagic' — this
means that the algae not only freely floats around the ocean, but it reproduces vegetatively on
the high seas.
Other seaweeds reproduce and begin life on the floor of the ocean.
• Sargassum provides a home to an amazing variety of marine species. Turtles use sargassum
Page 39
mats as nurseries where hatchlings have food and shelter. Sargassum also provides essential
habitat for shrimp, crab, fish, and other marine species that have adapted specifically to this
floating algae.
• The Sargasso Sea is a region in the gyre in the middle of the North Atlantic Ocean.
• It is the only sea on Earth which has no coastline.
• It is bounded on the
o west by the Gulf Stream;
o north, by the North Atlantic Current;
o east, by the Canary Current; and
o south, by the North Atlantic Equatorial Current.
• This system of ocean currents forms the North Atlantic Gyre.
• All the currents deposit the marine plants and refuse they carry into this sea.
• NOTE: The Benguela Current is the broad, northward flowing ocean current that forms the
eastern portion of the South Atlantic Ocean gyre.
Q 60) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Only one
Explanation:
All meridians are of equal length. Thus, it was difficult to number the meridians. Hence, all
countries decided that the count should begin from the meridian which passed through
Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located. This meridian is called the Prime
Meridian. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is, however, interesting to note that 180° East and 180° West meridians are on the same
line. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Target Shots
• All meridians are of equal length. Thus, it was difficult to number the meridians. Hence, all
countries decided that the count should begin from the meridian which passed through
Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located. This meridian is called the Prime
Meridian.
• Its value is 0° longitude and from it, we count 180° eastward as well as 180° westward.
• It is, however, interesting to note that 180° East and 180° West meridians are on the same
line. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Prime Meridian and 180° meridian divide the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern
Hemisphere and the Western Hemisphere. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Therefore, the longitude of a place is followed by the letter E for the east and W for the west.
Q 61) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Page 40
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Atlantification is actually making the Arctic Ocean saltier and
warmer, not fresher and cooler. This process involves warm, salty water from the Atlantic
flowing into the Arctic Ocean, affecting its temperature and salinity.
Statement 2 is correct: The process of Atlantification involves warm Atlantic water being
advected into the Arctic Ocean in increasing amounts. This is causing parts of the Barents Sea
to increasingly resemble the Atlantic, with a change in the ocean’s thermal and saline
characteristics.
Statement 3 is correct: Atlantification is believed to be driven by a phenomenon known as the

Arctic Dipole. This involves a pattern of anticyclonic winds over North America and cyclonic
winds over Eurasia, which alternate approximately every 15 years. The positive phase of the
Arctic Dipole can slow Arctic sea-ice loss, while the negative phase can accelerate sea-ice
decline.
Q 62) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
The Damanganga river rises in the Sahyadri hill range near village Ambegaon in Dindori
taluka of Nasik district of Maharashtra State at an elevation of 950 m above MSL and
traverses a total distance of about 131.30 km before it drains into the Arabian Sea at Daman.
• Damanganga along with its tributaries mainly flows through the hilly areas of Maharashtra,
Gujarat, and Union Territory Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
• The Pinjal river is a right-bank tributary of the Vaitarna river flowing in the state of
Maharashtra. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Damanganga-Pinjal project proposes to divert the surplus water of the Bhugad
and Khargihill reservoirs in the Damanganga basin to Mumbai, via the Pinjal dam on
the Pinjal river in the Vaitarna basin. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 63) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: As the human population grows there is unsustainable pressure on earth’s
resources, which in turn acts as a check on the further rise in population.
Explanation:
About Malthusian trap:
- The Malthusian trap is a theory of population that says as the human population grows there
is unsustainable pressure on earth’s resources, which in turn acts as a check on the further
rise in population.
- It is named after English economist Thomas Malthus who elaborated on the concept in his
1798 book An Essay on the Principle of Population, which also inspired Charles Darwin.
- While rise in food production in a country can led to improved living standards for the
Page 41
general population, the benefit is likely to be temporary. This is because, Malthus argued,
increasing availability of food would encourage people to have more kids since they could
afford to feed them now, thus leading to a rise in the total population and a drop in per capita
income levels.
- The Malthusian trap was at the core of the Simon-Ehrlich wager in 1980. While Ehrlich, like
Malthus, argued that there are natural limits to economic growth; Simon argued that private
property rights and the price mechanism in a market economy offered tremendous incentives
for people to use scarce resources carefully and to come up with innovations and living
standards could rise along with increasing population levels.
How it works:
- In the pre-modern age, whenever there was a rise in food production, it caused per
capita income to rise for a while as long as population levels remained stable.
- However, the population of the country rose quite quickly which ensured that per
capita income decreased and returned to its historical trend.
- Whenever food production dropped on the other hand, there was famine which caused the
death of a large number of people. The drop in human population continued until the
country’s per capita income rose to subsistence levels.
- Either way, resource constraints kept a check on human population.
Q 64) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) United States of America
Explanation: Kilauea volcano, known as one of the world’s most active volcanic masses, is
located in the United States of America, specifically in the state of Hawaii. It is situated on the
southeastern part of the island of Hawaii. A volcano is a geological formation, a vent in the
Earth’s crust, from which eruptions of molten rock, hot rock fragments, and hot gases occur.
Kilauea’s recent eruption highlights its ongoing geological activity. This volcano is not located
in Indonesia, Japan, or the Philippines, which are also known for their volcanic activity, but
specifically in the U.S. state of Hawaii.
Q 65) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Lake Urmia, located in northwest Iran, is the largest lake in West Asia and the sixth-largest
Salt Lake in the world with a water surface area of 5,000 to 6,000 km2. Hence pair 1 is
correctly matched
• The lake is designated for the List of Wetlands of International Importance, Ramsar Site, as
well as a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve, which is a protected area with the aim of
conserving nature and culture in the region and community development.
• The lake once covered 5,000 square kilometers (1,930 square miles). Since 1995, it has been
shrinking, according to the UN Environment program, due to a combination of rising
temperatures, reduced rainfall, dam-building and over-farming.
• In 2013, Iran and the UN Development Program launched a campaign to save the lake with
Page 42
funding from the Japanese government.
• Pakistan’s largest freshwater lake Manchar overflowed in early September 2022 as
devastating floods hit the Indus River Valley. The lake lies west of the Indus River in Sindh
province, one of the hardest hit by flooding. Sindh has so far this year received more than five
times its average rainfall. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
• Central Kashmir’s Manasbal Lake is once again open for training drills, more than three
decades after raging militancy forced the Navy to abandon it. Manasbal Lake is a freshwater
lake. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Lake is encircled by three villages viz., Jarokbal, Kondabal, Ganderbal. The large growth of
lotus (Nelumbo nucifera) at the periphery of the lake adds to the beauty of the clear waters of
the lake.
• The Mughal garden, called the Jaroka, (meaning bay window) built by Nur Jahan overlooks
the lake.
Q 66) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) Only five.
Explanation:
Delhi is not a part of the UESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
Target shots
UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network (UCCN):
• Established in 2004 to foster collaboration among cities recognizing creativity as vital for
sustainable urban development.
• Comprises nearly 300 cities worldwide.
• Goal: Integration of creativity and cultural industries into local development strategies and
active international cooperation.
• UNESCO designates creative cities in seven domains: craft, folk art, media arts, film design,
gastronomy, literature, and music.
• Annually, UNESCO invites global city applications for UCCN participation.
• In India, applications are processed through the Ministry of Culture.
• Kozhikode hosts the annual Kerala Literature Festival and various book festivals.
• Gwalior boasts a rich musical heritage, including classical Hindustani, folk, and devotional
music, with prestigious music institutes and festivals.
• Additional Indian cities in the network:
• Srinagar and Jaipur: Crafts and folk arts
• Mumbai: Film category
• Chennai and Varanasi: Music category
• Hyderabad: Gastronomy category.
Q 67) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
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Explanation:
The earth’s crust is composed of rocks. A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. There
are many different kinds of rocks which are grouped under three families on the basis of their
mode of formation.
They are: (i) Igneous Rocks — solidified from magma and lava; (ii) Sedimentary Rocks — the
result of deposition of fragments of rocks by exogenous processes; (iii) Metamorphic Rocks —
formed out of existing rocks undergoing recrystallisation.
Sedimentary Rocks
Statement 1 is correct: The word ‘sedimentary’ means settling. Rocks (igneous, sedimentary
and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken
up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous
agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is
called lithification. Thus, metamorphic rocks can lead to formation of sedimentary rocks.
Statement 2 is correct: In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their
characteristics even after lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness
in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale etc.
Statement 3 is correct: Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are
classified into three major groups: (i) mechanically formed — sandstone, conglomerate,
limestone, shale, loess etc. are examples; (ii) organically formed—geyserite, chalk, limestone,
coal etc. are some examples; (iii) chemically formed — chert, limestone, halite, potash etc. are
some examples
Q 68) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Only four
Explanation:
The climate of India is strongly influenced by the South West Monsoon (SWM) winds. These
flow from the south Indian Ocean towards the Indian subcontinent. They are responsible for
the majority of rainfall in the subcontinent. They reach Indian shores during the month of June.
This season is known as ‘Monsoon’ based on the arabic word ‘Mausim’.
To understand the mechanism of monsoon in India, the following facts are important.
(a) The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the
landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure. This leads to
rise of warm air over the plains of North India which travels through the upper troposphere
and after losing its energy it cools down and descends near 20°S in the southern Indian ocean.
This descending and outflowing air results in the formation of SWM winds after it crosses the
equator.
(b) The shift of the position of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer, over the
Ganga plain. ITCZ is an equatorial trough normally positioned about 5°N of the equator – also
known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season. It is a low-pressure zone that is
formed over the Ganga plains as the Sun moves north to the Tropic of Cancer during the
months of April, May and June. This low-pressure zone augments and strengthens the SWM
winds originating in the southern Indian Ocean. Thus option (6) is incorrect.
(c) The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20°S over
the Indian Ocean. The intensity and position of this high-pressure area affects the Indian
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Monsoon. This is caused due to the descending air from the upper troposphere. The greater is
the Mascarene High the stronger are the SWM winds.
(d) The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical
air currents. This leads to shifting of the ITCZ northwards and intensifies the low pressure
above the plains. This in turn strengthens the Mascarene high and results in a stronger SWM
winds..
(e) The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of
the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer also results in the
burst of the monsoon.
Q 69) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) It occurs only in the North East of India.
Explanation:
• Himalayas extend in the east-west direction from the Indus gorge in the west to the
Brahmaputra gorge in the east.
• Statement 2 is correct. Himalayan ranges take sharp southward bends at these gorges.
These bends are called Syntaxial bends of the Himalayas.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The western Syntaxial bend occurs near the Nanga Parbat where
the Indus River has cut a deep gorge.
• Statement 3 is correct. The eastern Syntaxial bend occurs near the Namche Barwa.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Syntaxial bend forms a barrier to the oncoming moisture laden
Southwest monsoon winds and thus forms an ‘orographic effect’ leading to the heavy rainfall
in the Northeast region of the country.
Q 70) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) 2-4-1-3-5
Explanation
The prominent mountain passes of India are:
1) Nathu La Pass: Located in Sikkim it is a border trade post between India and China.
2) Shipki La Pass:It is in Himachal Pradesh and is also a trade post between India and China. It
is located through Sutlej Gorge.
3) Jelep La Pass: This pass links Sikkim to Lhasa in Tibet autonomous region of China. It
passes through the Chumbi valley which was in the news due to Dokhlam stand-off.
4) Khardung La:It links Leh to Siachen. It is the highest motorable pass in the country..
5) Bara-Lacha La: This pass links Himachal Pradesh to Ladakh, connecting Manali with Leh.
6) Lipu Lekh:This pass connects Uttarakhand with Tibet autonomous region of China.
Mansarovar pilgrims travel through this pass. It is also a border trade post between India and
China.
7) Niti Pass:This pass joins Tibet ARC with Uttarakhand.
8) Rohtang Pass:It is located on eastern Pir Panjal Range and connects Kullu valley with
Lahaul and Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh.
9) Bomdi-La:The Bomdi-La pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, in Tibet ARC.
10) Dihang pass: Located in Arunachal Pradesh, this pass provides connectivity with Myanmar.
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11) Diphu pass:This pass also connects Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar. It remains open all
round the year and is hence important for trade and transportation.
12) Zoji La:It connects Srinagar with Kargil and Leh. Beacon Force of Border Road
Organization is responsible for clearing and maintaining this pass.
13)Senkotta Gap:It is located in the Western Ghats and connects Madurai in Tamil Nadu with
Kottayam in Kerala.
Q 71) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) None
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Atoms which have the same atomic number but different mass
numbers are known as isotopes. Isotopes are variants of the same chemical element that have
the same number of protons (and thus the same atomic number) but different numbers of
neutrons, resulting in different mass numbers. For example, carbon-12 (¹²C) and carbon-14
(¹⁴C) are isotopes of carbon, both having an atomic number of 6 but different mass numbers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemical properties of isotopes are similar, but their physical
properties are different. The chemical behavior of an atom is mostly determined by its electron
configuration, which is the same for all isotopes of an element. However, physical properties
like boiling point, melting point, and density can vary among isotopes due to the difference in
mass. For instance, heavy water (D₂O, containing deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen) has
different physical properties than ordinary water (H₂O).
TargetShots
Isotopes:
• Atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
• Examples: Hydrogen isotopes (protium ¹H, deuterium ²H, tritium ³H), Carbon isotopes (¹²C,
¹³C, ¹⁴C).
• Same chemical properties due to identical electron configurations.
• Different physical properties influenced by the difference in neutron count and overall mass.
• Natural abundance and average atomic mass are determined considering the proportion of
each isotope in nature.
Applications of Isotopes:
1. Nuclear reactors use specific uranium isotopes as fuel.

2. Medical field: Cobalt isotopes in cancer treatment, iodine isotopes in thyroid treatment.
3. Scientific research: Carbon-14 for radiocarbon dating, tracing pathways in metabolic
studies.
Understanding Isotopes:
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• Key in studying chemical and physical processes.
• Variations in isotopes provide insights into geological and environmental changes.
• Used in various industries for tracing, dating, and imaging purposes.
Q 72) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Both
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Acquired immunity is indeed pathogen-specific and characterized by

memory. This type of immunity involves the body’s response to a specific pathogen, and upon
re-encounter with the same pathogen, the immune system responds more rapidly and
effectively. This enhanced response is due to the immune memory formed during the initial
exposure to the pathogen.
Statement 2 is correct: T-cells, a type of lymphocyte, play a crucial role in the immune
response but do not directly secrete antibodies. Instead, they assist B-cells, another type of
lymphocyte, in producing antibodies. T-cells can stimulate B-cells to produce antibodies or can
help in enhancing the response of other immune cells.
TargetShots
Acquired Immunity:
• Pathogen-specific and characterized by memory.

• Involves primary (initial) and secondary (subsequent) immune responses.
• Mediated by B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
B-Lymphocytes:
• Produce antibodies in response to pathogens.

• Antibodies are proteins that specifically target antigens (foreign substances).
• Different types of antibodies include IgA, IgM, IgE, IgG.
T-Lymphocytes:
• Do not secrete antibodies themselves but assist B-cells in doing so.

• Mediate cell-mediated immune response (CMI).
• Crucial in distinguishing ‘self’ from ‘non-self’, important in graft rejection.
Immune Responses:
• Antibody-mediated (humoral) response involves antibodies in blood.

• Cell-mediated immunity involves T-cells and is critical for transplant compatibility and
rejection.
Page 47
Q 73) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: DNA is located in the nucleus of a cell and in the mitochondria. RNA is
found in the cytoplasm, nucleus and in the ribosome.
Statement 2 is correct: The DNA is a double-stranded molecule that has a long chain of
nucleotides. The RNA is a single-stranded molecule which has a shorter chain of nucleotides.
Statement 3 is correct: DNA replicates on its own, it is self-replicating. DNA replication is the
process by which DNA makes a copy of itself during cell division. RNA does not replicate on its
own. It is synthesized from DNA when required.
TargetShots
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid):
1. It occurs inside the nucleus of the cell and some cell organelles but it plants it is present in
mitochondria and plant cells. It occurs inside the nucleus of the cell and some cell organelles
but it plants it is present in mitochondria and plant cells.
2. It is a double-stranded molecule consisting of a long chain of nucleotides.
3. It stores and transfers genetic information to generate new cells and organisms.
4. It has two nucleotide strands consisting of a phosphate group, five carbon sugar (stable
deoxyribose 2) and four nitrogen bases.
5. Nitrogen base pairs are Adenine links to Thymine (A-T) and Cytosine links to Guanine (C-G)
6. DNA is self-replicating
7. The DNA helix geometry is in the form of B and can be damaged by exposure to ultraviolet
rays.
8. It is a long polymer chain.
9. DNA produces a regular helix i.e. it is spirally twisted.
10. It occurs in the form of chromosomes or chromatin fibres.
11. The quantity of DNA is fixed for the cell.
12. It is of two types: intra-nuclear and extra-nuclear.
13. Life of DNA is long.
14. After melting its renaturation is slow.
RNA (Ribonucleic acid):
1. It is found in the cytoplasm of the cell but very little is found inside the nucleus.
2. It is a single-strand helix having shorter chains of nucleotides.
3. It is used to transfer genetic code from the nucleus to the ribosomes to make proteins and
carries the DNA blueprint’s guidelines.
4. It is single stranded consisting of a phosphate group, five carbon sugar (less stable ribose)
and four nitrogen base.
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5. Here nitrogen base pairs are Adenine links to Uracil (A-U) and Cytosine links to Guanine (C-
G).
6. It is synthesised from DNA when needed.
7. The RNA helix geometry is in the form of A. It is more resistant to damage by ultraviolet
rays.
8. It is a short polymer.
9. It produces a secondary helix or pseudo helix as its strand may get folded at places.
10. It occurs in ribosomes or forms an association with ribosomes.
11. The quantity of RNA for a cell is variable.
12. It is of four types: m-RNA, t-RNA and rRNA.
13. Its life is short. Some RNA’s have very shorter life but some have longer but in all its life is
short.
14. After melting its renaturation is fast.
Q 74) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Mini-proteins are a diverse group of protein scaffolds characterized by
small size, stability, and versatility in drug-like roles. These mini proteins are artificial helical,
hairpin-shaped peptides, each capable of pairing up with another of its kind, forming what is
known as a dimer. Each dimeric 'bundle' presents two 'faces' to interact with two target
molecules. A peptide is a short chain of amino acids. The amino acids in a peptide are
connected to one another in a sequence by bonds called peptide bonds.
Statement 2 is correct: Mini proteins that can not only block virus entry into the cells but also
clump virions (virus particles) together, reducing their ability to infect. For example, mini
proteins can bind to and block the spike protein on the surface of the SARS-CoV-2 virus.
Statement 3 is correct: The mini protein is found to be thermostable - it can be stored for
months at room temperature without deteriorating.
TargetShots
Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore have designed a new class of
artificial peptides or miniproteins that they say can render viruses like SARS-CoV-2 inactive.
Mini-protein:
1. The mini proteins can not only block virus entry into our cells but also clump virus particles
together, reducing their ability to infect.
2. The researchers noted that a protein-protein interaction is often like that of a lock and a
key.
3. This interaction can be hampered by a lab-made mini protein that mimics, competes with,
and prevents the 'key' from binding to the 'lock', or vice versa.
Characteristics of a mini-protein:
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1. These mini proteins are helical, hairpin-shaped peptides, each capable of pairing up with
another of its kind, forming what is known as a dimer.
2. Each dimeric ‘bundle’ presents two ‘faces’ to interact with two target molecules.
Q 75) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Web 5.0 is a decentralized web platform and is being built to return
"ownership of data and identity to individuals". Simply put, Web 5.0 is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0
that will allow users to 'own their identity on the Internet and 'control their data'.
Statement 2 is incorrect: For Web 5, developers don't need a blockchain for everything. And
they can build decentralised applications on well-understood distributed centralised systems of
computer science.
Statement 3 is correct: Web 5.0 will have a series of decentralised apps and protocols. Instead
of multiple blockchains, Web 5.0 developers are trying to leverage only Bitcoin and build
everything on top of it. In Web 5.0, users will hold a digital wallet that securely manages their
identity, data, and authorisations for external apps and connections.
TargetShots
About Web 5.0

1. Developed by?
o Bitcoin business unit, The Block Head (TBH).
2. Meaning:
o Referred to as the Next web: web 5.0 combines the attributes of an open, linked and
intelligent web to produce an emotional web.
o It will map individuals' feelings in real time and know what the person is feeling due to his
interaction with the web.
3. Aim:
o It is aimed at building an extra decentralised web that puts you in control of your data and
identity.
o Web 5.0 is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to own their identity on the Internet
and control their data.
4. Applications/ Use:
o Changing the control of identity: It holds a digital wallet that securely manages her identity,
data, and authorizations for external apps and connections.
o Wallet will be used to sign in to a new decentralised social media app.
o Decentralised web node: Wallet has connected to the app with her decentralised identity,
she does not need to create a profile, and all the connections, relationships, and posts she
creates through the app are stored with her, in her decentralised web node.
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Extras:
- WEB 1.0 (The Read-only Web)
o The early Internet consisted mostly of web pages linked together by hyperlinks.
o It is labelled as a read-only network because it was a static platform with no social features.
o Moreover, for the most part, the web user was a passive observer, and most of the user
feedback occurred offline.
- Web 2.0 (The Social (Read-Write) Web)

o A Platform 2.0 website enables users to engage and communicate with one another as
developers of user-generated content in a virtual environment through social media
discussion.
o This is in contrast to the first generation of Web 1.0-era websites, where users were
restricted to passively browsing content.
- Web 3.0 (The Semantic (Read-Write-Execute) Web)

o Web 3.0 is the advanced wave of information technology for websites and smartphones,
focusing on delivering a data-driven and interactive web through machine-based information
processing.
o The semantic web’s ultimate aim is to build more knowledgeable, connected, and accessible
websites.
o Smart home systems that use cellular networks, as well as the Internet of Things are two
such examples of just how Web 3.0 is now influencing innovation.
- Web 4.0 (The Mobile Web)

o The mobile web is already a work in progress, with no clear understanding of what it would
entail.
o Platform 4.0 is often referred to as the symbiotic web. The symbiotic web’s fantasy is contact
between humans and computers in symbiosis.
- Web 5.0 (The Intelligent / Emotional (Symbiotic) Web)

o The arrival of smart devices that predict your needs based on your habits without including
many clues foreshadows what is to come with the Intelligent Web.
o Symbiotic web programs will be able to interpret evidence on a more complex level, both
emotionally and intellectually.
Q 76) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) mRNA vaccines contain synthetic mRNA that encodes for a pathogen’s
protein, triggering an immune response, and are known for their quick and cost-effective
production and adaptability to new variants.
Explanation:
• mRNA Function: mRNA, or messenger RNA, is a molecule that carries instructions from DNA
to the cell’s protein-making machinery. In the context of vaccines, synthetic mRNA is used to
encode a specific protein from a pathogen, like the spike protein of the coronavirus.
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• Immune Response Activation: When an mRNA vaccine is administered, it instructs some cells
in the body to produce the pathogen’s protein. This protein then stimulates the immune system
to produce antibodies and memory cells, preparing the body to recognize and combat the
actual pathogen if encountered in the future.
• Production Advantages: mRNA vaccines offer significant advantages in terms of production.
They are faster and cheaper to produce compared to traditional vaccines, as they do not
require cell culture or complex purification processes.
• Flexibility and Adaptability: Another key advantage of mRNA vaccines is their adaptability.
They can be rapidly modified to target new variants or strains of pathogens, making them
highly effective in responding to evolving infectious diseases.
Q 77) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Cookies are indeed small pieces of data stored on a user’s device,
commonly as text files. They are generated by websites to retain information about the user’s
online interactions and preferences.
Statement 2 is correct: Session cookies are temporary and function only during an active
browsing session. In contrast, persistent cookies last beyond the browsing session,
remembering information such as login details and language preferences.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Secure cookies are used for safeguarding sensitive data, like login
credentials, by transmitting over encrypted connections. They are not primarily used for
tracking and advertising purposes; that role is more commonly associated with third-party
cookies.
Statement 4 is correct: Cookies play various roles, including assisting in user authentication,
enabling the personalization of content, maintaining items in shopping carts across sessions,
collecting analytics data, and facilitating targeted advertising based on user interests and
browsing history.
TargetShots
Digital World of Cookies:
• Small data pieces stored on devices to retain user-specific information.

• Enhance user experience through personalization and convenience.
• Raise concerns in privacy and data security.
Types and Functions of Cookies:
• Session Cookies: Temporary, for active browsing sessions.

• Persistent Cookies: Last beyond browsing sessions, storing login credentials and
Page 52
preferences.
• Secure Cookies: Protect sensitive data via encrypted connections.
• Third-party Cookies: Often used for tracking and advertising, originating from domains
different from the visited site.
• Roles of Cookies: Include user authentication, personalization, maintaining shopping carts,
analytics, and targeted advertising.
Q 78) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer:
(c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Cholera is indeed a water-borne disease primarily caused by Vibrio

cholerae strains O1 and O139. The O1 strain is more commonly associated with outbreaks,
while O139 is rarer and mostly found in Asia.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Cholera is an acute diarrheal illness caused by infection of the

intestine, not a chronic respiratory illness.
Statement 3 is correct: The symptoms of cholera typically include profuse watery diarrhea,
vomiting, and leg cramps. The severity of the illness can vary from mild or asymptomatic to
severe.
Statement 4 is correct: The World Health Organization has pre-qualified three Oral Cholera
Vaccines: Dukoral, Shanchol, and Euvichol-Plus. Each of these vaccines requires two doses for
full protection.
TargetShots
Cholera:
• A significant public health challenge, especially in areas with inadequate water and sewage
treatment.
• Caused by the Vibrio cholerae bacteria, leading to severe diarrheal illness.
Symptoms and Vaccination:
• Common symptoms include watery diarrhea, vomiting, and leg cramps.

• Preventative measures include safe water practices and vaccination.
• WHO has pre-qualified three vaccines for cholera, each requiring a two-dose regimen for full
efficacy.
Q 79) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Page 53
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Blue Hydrogen is Produced from natural gas via steam reformation and
most of the GHGs emissions are captured and stored.
Statement 2 is correct. Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called pyrolysis to

produce hydrogen and solid carbon.
Statement 3 is correct. Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear

energy. Nuclear-produced hydrogen can also be referred to as purple hydrogen or red
hydrogen.
TargetShots
- Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using renewable sources of energy such as
solar, wind or hydel power. Green hydrogen can be stored for a long periods of time. The
stored hydrogen can be used to produce electricity using fuel cells.
- Grey hydrogen is generated through fossil fuels such as coal and gas and currently accounts
for 95% of the total production in South Asia.
- Blue hydrogen, too, is produced using electricity generated by burning fossil fuels but with
technologies to prevent the carbon released in the process from entering the atmosphere.
- Brown hydrogen is produced using coal where the emissions are released to the air.
- Pink hydrogen is generated through electrolysis powered by nuclear energy. Nuclear-

produced hydrogen can also be referred to as purple hydrogen or red hydrogen.
- Turquoise hydrogen is made using a process called methane pyrolysis to produce hydrogen
and solid carbon. In the future, turquoise hydrogen may be valued as a low-emission hydrogen,
dependent on the thermal process being powered with renewable energy and the carbon being
permanently stored or used.
- Yellow hydrogen is a relatively new phrase for hydrogen made through electrolysis using
solar power.
- White Hydrogen is a naturally occuring geological hydrogen found in undergroung deposits

and created through fracking.
Q 80) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Gene Editing
Explanation:
The term ZFN and TALEN are associated with Gene Editing.
Page 54
TargetShots
- Gene-editing tools are based on the engineered nucleases comprised of sequence-specific

binding domains and non-specific DNA cleavage modules.
- ZFN (Zinc finger nucleases), TALEN (Transcription activator-like effectors nucleases), and
CRISPR are three types of gene editing techniques. ZEN and TALEN are man-made systems,
while CRISPR is a natural system occurring in bacteria. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
- All three systems recognize sequences and cleave target DNA.
- Zinc finger–domain-containing proteins bind to DNA and are widespread in nature, often
functioning as transcription factors (proteins that regulate gene expression by binding directly
or indirectly to regulatory DNA sequences usually found in the promoter regions of genes3).
The zinc finger domains can be manipulated to bind specific sequences of DNA; when fused to
the DNA-cutting nuclease domain of the FokI protein, a ZFN is the resulting hybrid molecule.
- CRISPR RNA (crRNA): Once a spacer is incorporated and the virus attacks again, a portion of
the CRISPR is transcribed and processed into CRISPR RNA, or "crRNA." The nucleotide
sequence of the CRISPR acts as a template to produce a complementary sequence of single-
stranded RNA. Each crRNA consists of a nucleotide repeat and a spacer portion.Cas9: The
Cas9 protein is an enzyme that cuts foreign DNA. The protein typically binds to two RNA
molecules: crRNA and another called tracrRNA (or "trans- activating crRNA").
- Transcription activator-like effectors (TALEs) were discovered in the bacterial plant pathogen
Xanthomonas and could be engineered to bind to virtually any DNA sequence. Their ease of
design for specific target DNA sequences revolutionized genome editing. In nature,
Xanthomonas species secrete TALEs into plant cells to enable pathogenicity. TALEs bind to
promoters in plant genes to suppress the plant‘s resistance to the pathogen.
Q 81) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
Pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched
3. Strontium salts : Red
4. Sodium salts : Yellow
Pairs 1 and 2 are incorrectly matched

1. Copper salts : Blue
2. Calcium salts : Orange
TargetShots
- Composition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:

- Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
- Oxidising Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
- Reducing Agents: Something like sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the
firecracker
- Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
- Coloring Agents: Multiple colours appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the
Page 55
colouring
agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colours:
- Strontium salts – Red Colour
- Burning of metals – White Colour
- Sodium salts – Yellow Colour
- Barium salts – Green Colour
- Calcium Salts – Orange Colour
- Copper Salts – Blue Colour
- Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them
Q 82) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: c) overly vigorous immune response to a triggering event
Explanation:
Cykotine is an an overly vigorous immune response to a triggering event, frequently certain
viral infections.
TargetShots
- CSS is an overly vigorous immune response to a triggering event, frequently certain viral
infections.
- Severe COVID-19 patients are defined by manifestations that include respiratory failure
requiring mechanical ventilation and shock or organ failure that requires intensive care, and
which may lead to death.
Cytokine Storm Syndrome:
Body’s Immune Response Working:

o The immune systems in our bodies protect us from bacteria, viruses, and parasites by
removing them from our systems.
o The immune system gets activated by things that the body does not recognise as its own.
These things are called antigens, and include bacteria, fungi and viruses.
o An effective immune system response involves inflammation, an important and indispensable
part of the process. For example, Inflammation is visible when one hurts one's knee or ankle —
the area of this external injury becomes red and swollen.
o Immune system deploys white blood cells to the injured area to begin work on repairs.
o Without such an immune response, injuries would not heal, and infections would become
deadly.
Role of Cytokines:
o Cytokines are inflammatory immunological proteins that are there to fight off infections and
ward off cancers.
o The release of inflammatory mediators increases the blood flow to the area, which allows
larger numbers of immune system cells to be carried to the injured tissue, thereby aiding the
repairing process. Thus, inflammation has an important protective function.
o However, if this inflammatory response is not regulated, very dangerous consequences can
Page 56
follow. This is when a ‘cytokine storm’ can be triggered.
Cytokine Storm Syndrome:

o CSS is characterised by the overproduction of immune cells and the cytokines themselves
because of a dysregulation in the process.
o Reasons: A cytokine storm can occur due to an infection, auto-immune condition (when the
body's immune system attacks healthy cells as in case of coeliac disease- an immune disorder
that primarily affects the small intestine), or other diseases.
o Signs and symptoms include high fever, inflammation (redness and swelling), severe fatigue,
and nausea.
o In the case of any flu infection, a cytokine storm is associated with a surge of activated
immune cells into the lungs, which, instead of fighting off the antigen, leads to lung
inflammation and fluid build-up, and respiratory distress.
Q 83) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer:
(b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Measles is caused by the highly contagious Morbillivirus. It can be

transmitted to over 90% of unprotected close contacts by an infected person.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Measles is a human disease and does not naturally occur in animals.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no specific antiviral treatment for measles. Treatment is

generally supportive, focusing on managing symptoms and complications.
Statement 4 is correct: Prevention of measles is primarily through a two-dose vaccine. Routine

vaccination for children and mass immunization campaigns in high-risk areas are essential
public health strategies to control and reduce measles globally.
TargetShots
Measles:
• A contagious viral infection caused by the Morbillivirus.

• Primarily affects humans, infecting the respiratory tract and spreading throughout the body.
Prevention and Treatment:
• Preventable through a two-dose vaccination regimen.

• Key public health strategies include routine vaccination and mass immunization campaigns.
• No specific antiviral treatment; care focuses on symptom management and preventing
complications.
Page 57
Q 84) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer:
(d) All
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Sickle Cell Disease is indeed a group of inherited red blood cell
disorders characterized by red blood cells that become hard, sticky, and resemble a sickle.
Statement 2 is correct: The symptoms of SCD can vary but commonly include chronic anemia,
which leads to fatigue and weakness, painful episodes or crises, and delayed growth and
puberty.
Statement 3 is correct: Treatment options for SCD include blood transfusions, Hydroxyurea
medication, and bone marrow or stem cell transplantation, each addressing different aspects
of the disease.
Statement 4 is correct: The National Sickle Cell Anemia Eradication Mission in India is a
governmental initiative with the goal to eliminate sickle cell anemia by 2047. The technical
operational guidelines for this mission were released in 2016.
TargetShots
Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
• A genetic blood disorder affecting red blood cells.

• Causes red blood cells to become deformed and resemble a sickle.
Treatment and Government Initiatives:
• Treated with blood transfusions, Hydroxyurea, and bone marrow or stem cell
transplantation.
• India’s National Sickle Cell Anemia Eradication Mission targets the elimination of the
disease by 2047.
Q 85) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer:
(a) Only one
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Phosphorus, with the symbol “P” and atomic number 15, is essential
for life and has various important properties and applications, including roles in biological
Page 58
systems and industrial uses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Phosphorus compounds are highly reactive, not inert, and are
fundamental components of biological systems like DNA, RNA, and ATP.
Statement 3 is correct: Phosphorus is naturally found in the Earth’s crust in forms like apatite.
It has significant industrial uses, particularly in the production of fertilizers and detergents.
Statement 4 is incorrect: India is not abundant in Apatite and Rock Phosphate resources. The
country largely depends on imports for its phosphorus needs, particularly for apatite, and has
limited Rock Phosphate production.
TargetShots
Phosphorus:
• Essential chemical element with wide-ranging biological and industrial applications.

• Found naturally as phosphate minerals, including apatite.
Properties and Uses:
• Reactive, forming various phosphates, used in fertilizers, detergents, and metallurgical

processes.
Phosphorus in India:
• India faces a scarcity of Apatite and Rock Phosphate, relying heavily on imports.
Q 86) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) All three
Explanation:
International Treaties & Conventions relating to IPRs:

1. Paris Convention (1883)for the Protection of Industrial Property
2. Berne Convention (1886) for the Protection of Literary & Artistic Works
3. Budapest Treaty (1977) on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms
for the Purposes of Patent Procedure
4. World Intellectual Property Organization(WIPO) Convention (1967)
5. Patent Cooperation Treaty (1998) - used by :
o World’s major corporations, research institutions & universities when they seek international
patent protection.
o Small & medium sized enterprises (SMEs) & individual inventors. India is a member of all
the above treaties & conventions.
Q 87) :
Page 59
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) Black holes have immense gravitational attraction, while wormholes are
bridges in space-time
Explanation:
The key difference b/w black holes & wormholes is

that black holes are known for their strong
gravitational pull, while wormholes are theoretical
structures that could potentially serve as shortcuts in
space-time.
Black Holes - Black holes are known for their immense
gravitational pull, which is so strong that not even
light can escape from them. This property is why they
are called "black" holes. Light that approaches or
crosses the event horizon of a black hole is trapped
within it, and no light is emitted from a black hole
itself.
Wormholes - Wormholes, if they exist, are theoretical
structures that are primarily associated with spacetime
shortcuts. They are not known to emit light
either. Wormholes are concepts from theoretical
physics & have not been observed or proven to exist,
so their properties are still the subject of scientific
speculation and study.
Q 88) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: (c) Israel
Explanation
India is set to acquire additional Israeli-made Hermes Starliner 900 drones that will enhance
the Indian Army’s surveillance capabilities along its northern borders.
About Hermes 900 Starliner:
It is an Israeli-made medium-altitude, long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).

It is the larger variant of the Hermes 900.
Features:
It has a wing span of 17m and a maximum take-off weight of 1,600kg.
The aircraft has a service ceiling of 30,000ft and offers a flight endurance of up to 36 hours.
The aircraft’s automatic take-off and landing (ATOL) capability allows it to take-off and land in
near-zero visibility environments.
An active de-icing system is installed for removing ice from surfaces to ensure safe operation
in icing conditions.
It can carry a range of multi-sensor payloads weighing up to 450kg for multiple applications.
Page 60
The onboard imaging sensors capture real-time imagery/video and provide wide-area
persistent surveillance during both the day and night.
It is equipped with a terrain avoidance warning system (TAWS) for terrain prediction and
obstacle avoidance.
It is equipped with synthetic aperture radar (SAR), a ground moving target indicator (GMTI)
radar, and maritime patrol radar to detect, locate and acquire targets.
It can also carry electronic warfare payloads to provide airborne electronic attack capability.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/india-set-to-boost-surveillance-capabilities-with-isra
eli-hermes-900-starliners-drones-2763002
Q 89) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Statement 2 and 3 are correct only
Explanation
ENACT Initiative
Launch and Participants:
Launched By: Germany and Egypt in collaboration with the International Union for
Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Occasion: Unveiled at the Conference of Parties (COP27) held in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt in
2022.
Objectives:
Climate Impact Mitigation:

Enhance protection and resilience against climate impacts for over 1 billion vulnerable
individuals.
Ecosystem Preservation:
Secure approximately 2.4 billion hectares of healthy, natural, and sustainable ecosystems.
Carbon Mitigation:
Significantly increase global mitigation efforts by protecting and restoring carbon-rich
ecosystems.
Member Countries:
Germany and Egypt lead the initiative.
Other participating countries include Canada, European Union, France, Japan, Malawi,
Norway, Republic of Korea, Slovenia, Belgium, Pakistan, Spain, the Netherlands, Switzerland,
and the United States.
Page 61
Secretariat:
The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) serves as the host for the
secretariat of the ENACT initiative.
Q 90) :
Ans ) [C] : 3
Exp ) Answer: C) It highlights the exclusivity of indigenous knowledge in healthcare.
Explanation:
The Gujarat Declaration reaffirms global commitments towards three key aspects: indigenous
knowledge, biodiversity, and Traditional, Complementary, and Integrative Medicine (TCIM). It
underscores the unique and valuable contributions of indigenous knowledge in the realm of
healthcare. By emphasizing the importance of biodiversity, the declaration recognizes the
diverse range of traditional medicines derived from natural sources.
Moreover, the declaration serves as a catalyst for change by urging the harnessing of the
potential of traditional medicine. It specifically encourages the integration of traditional
medicine into national health systems, recognizing its role in providing holistic healthcare
solutions. Therefore, the Gujarat Declaration promotes inclusivity and collaboration between
traditional and modern medical practices for the overall enhancement of global health.
Q 91) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation
EFTA (European Free Trade Association) Overview:
Establishment:
Formed in 1960 under the Stockholm Convention.

Objective:
Promotion of free trade and economic integration among its member countries within Europe
and on a global scale.
Customs Arrangements:
Unlike the European Union (EU), EFTA is not a customs union.

Individual EFTA States have the autonomy to set their own customs tariffs and establish
foreign trade measures independently concerning non-EFTA States.
Member Countries:
Current EFTA Members: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.

EFTA member nations are characterized by open, competitive economies, and they are
dedicated to advancing the liberalization of trade both in the international arena and through
free trade agreements.
Page 62
Q 92) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) ISRO’s successful test for the Cryogenic engine in “Mission Gaganyaan.”
Explanation:
The CE-20 Cryogenic engine was successfully tested by ISRO for its application in “Mission
Gaganyaan.” Cryogenic engines operate using fuels at extremely low temperatures (-150 to
-273 degrees Celsius) and are known for their higher power compared to solid and liquid
propellant engines.
Notably, the CE-20 is distinctive as it is the first cryogenic engine to use a Gas-generator cycle
employing a combination of Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen propellants. With a fuel
capacity of 28 tonnes, it is designated to serve as the upper stage of the Geosynchronous
Satellite Launch Vehicle Mk III (LVM3).
This achievement marks a significant milestone for ISRO as it strengthens India’s capabilities
in space exploration, particularly in the context of the ambitious “Mission Gaganyaan,” which
aims to send Indian astronauts into space. The successful testing of the CE-20 engine
underscores the nation’s commitment to advancements in space technology and exploration.
Q 93) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Chronic disease of the central nervous system
Explanation:
Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic disease of the central nervous system. In individuals with
MS, the immune system targets and attacks cells in the myelin, the protective covering around
nerves in the brain and spinal cord. This immune system response leads to damage to the
myelin sheath, disrupting nerve signals between the brain and other parts of the body. The
resulting symptoms can affect the brain, spinal cord, and eyes.
Over time, MS can cause permanent damage or deterioration of nerve fibers. The disorder is
most commonly diagnosed between ages 20 to 40, and it tends to affect women more than
men. While the exact cause of MS is not fully understood, it is believed to involve a
combination of factors, including autoimmune disorders, infectious agents like viruses,
environmental factors, and genetic factors.
The symptoms of MS vary widely among patients, ranging from mild symptoms such as blurred
vision and numbness to severe cases with paralysis, vision loss, and mobility problems. While
there is no cure for MS, there are treatments available to manage symptoms, modify the
disease’s course, and aid in recovery from attacks.
Q 94) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Least Concern
Explanation:
Page 63
The Megamouth Shark, scientifically known as Megachasma pelagios, currently holds the
conservation status of “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List. Despite being an extremely rare
and unusual species of deep-water shark, its population is not currently facing a significant
threat that would classify it as vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered.
The Megamouth Shark is known for its unique features, including a large, soft head, a large
mouth positioned at the anterior margin of the head, and a filter-feeding behavior. Although
the species is rarely observed in the wild, with less than 60 individuals known to scientists, the
current assessment indicates that its overall population is not at immediate risk of decline.
It’s worth noting that conservation statuses on the IUCN Red List are regularly updated based
on ongoing assessments of species’ populations, threats, and conservation efforts.
Q 95) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
The New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration stated the G20 countries recognised that safe and trusted
deployment of digital public infrastructure (DPI) can “enable service delivery and innovation”.
— G20 members welcomed the ‘Framework for Systems of Digital Public Infrastructure’. The
framework calls for building interoperable solutions and formulating laws that can ensure that
DPIs are safe, secure, trusted, and governed transparently. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
— Approaches to building DPI should incorporate privacy-enhancing and security technology
into the core design of the services to ensure privacy, data, and customer protection.
— The framework is non-binding.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The declaration also stated that member countries will “spare no effort in fostering safe and
resilient digital ecosystems, as well as ensuring that every citizen on our planet is financially
included.”
— They committed to promote responsible, sustainable and inclusive use of digital technology
by farmers and an ecosystem of agri-tech start-ups and MSMEs.
— The countries also stated that they will use digital technologies to “protect and promote
culture and cultural heritage.” Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 96) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Explanation:
— Karnataka demanded immediate resumption of the Open Market Sale scheme-Domestic
(OMSS-D) for rice and wheat in states. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
— The Centre had discontinued the scheme on June 13 for all states except North Eastern
states, hilly states, and those facing law and order situations and natural calamities.
— Open Market Sale Scheme has following objectives:
Page 64
(i) To enhance the supply of food grains during the lean season and deficit regions.
(ii) To moderate the open market prices.
(iii) To offload the excess stocks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(iv) To reduce the carrying cost of food grains. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 97) :
Ans ) [B] : 2
Exp ) Answer: b) Karnataka
Explanation:
— National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) favoured the construction of a canopy walk
inside Dandeli Wildlife Reserve, located in Karnataka.
— Canopy Walk Tourism Project was implemented with the financial aid provided by the
Karnataka Tourism Department.
— The project began near Kuveshi in the Castlerock Wildlife Range, which is part of the
Dandeli Wildlife Reserve.
— However, for better protection and management, the Director of the Kali Tiger Project has
administrative control of the area.
— The canopy is a 240-metre walkway at around 30 feet above the ground.
Q 98) :
Ans ) [A] : 1
Exp ) Answer: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Explanation:
Statement-I highlights the reduced risk of bank runs in a full-reserve banking system. This
reduction in risk stems from the requirement that banks cannot lend out the demand deposits
they receive from customers. In such a system, all customer deposits are available for
withdrawal at any time, significantly lowering the likelihood of a bank run, which occurs when
a large number of customers withdraw their funds simultaneously due to fears the bank may
run out of money.
Statement-II provides a detailed explanation of how full-reserve banking functions,

emphasizing that banks must maintain 100% of the demand deposits in their vaults. This is a
stark contrast to the fractional-reserve banking system, which permits banks to lend out a
significant portion of deposits they receive. The fractional-reserve system operates on the
premise that not all depositors will seek to withdraw their funds at the same time, allowing
banks to create loans and thereby generate profits from the interest earned. This practice,
however, introduces the possibility of bank runs if depositors lose confidence in the bank’s
ability to return their deposits upon request.
The relationship between these two statements underscores why full-reserve banking is
considered to offer a higher level of financial stability compared to fractional-reserve banking.
By ensuring that 100% of the demand deposits are kept in the bank’s vaults, full-reserve
banking directly addresses and mitigates the primary cause of bank runs—fear that the bank
will not have enough cash to fulfill withdrawal requests. This requirement ensures that banks
Page 65
in a full-reserve system do not engage in the creation of money through lending activities to
the extent practiced in fractional-reserve banking, thus providing a solid foundation for the
assertion that full-reserve banking leads to a reduction in the risk of bank runs.
In the broader context of the ongoing debate between full-reserve and fractional-reserve
banking, the contrast hinges on their respective impacts on economic stability and growth.
While fractional-reserve banking is recognized for its role in facilitating economic expansion
through credit creation, it carries inherent risks, including the potential for bank runs. Full-
reserve banking, by prohibiting the lending of demand deposits and mandating the
maintenance of 100% reserves, offers a more conservative approach that prioritizes financial
stability and the minimization of systemic risks associated with bank runs.
In conclusion, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, with Statement-II providing the
necessary explanation for the premise outlined in Statement-I, thereby illustrating how the
operational principles of full-reserve banking contribute to its ability to mitigate the risk of
bank runs, contrasting with the vulnerabilities inherent in the fractional-reserve system.
Q 99) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) Operation Ajay
Explanation
India had initiated “Operation Ajay” to evacuate its citizens from conflict-stricken Israel.
This marks the second evacuation operation of the year, following Operation Kaveri, which
brought back Indian citizens from Sudan earlier.
Target Shots
Various other past operations are: –
Operation Name Year Reason for Evacuation

Operation Dost 2023 Turkey-Syria earthquake
Operation Ganga 2022 Tensions between Russia and Ukraine
Vande Bharat 2020 Covid-19 pandemic
Operation Samudra Setu 2020 Covid-19 pandemic
Evacuation from Brussels 2016 Terrorist strikes
Operation Raahat 2015 Conflict in Yemen
Operation Maitri 2015 Nepal earthquake
Operation Safe Homecoming 2011 Conflict in Libya
Operation Sukoon 2006 Conflict in Lebanon
1990 Kuwait Airlift 1990 Invasion of Kuwait by Iraq
Q 100) :
Ans ) [D] : 4
Exp ) Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Page 66
Explanation
In August 2023, the Union Ministry of New & Renewable Energy, Government of India,
provided a definition for green hydrogen, specifying it as having a well-to-gate emission
(encompassing water treatment, electrolysis, gas purification, drying and compression of
hydrogen) not exceeding 2 kg CO2 equivalent per kg H2. In contrast, grey hydrogen, on
average, emits 10 kg of CO2 per kg of H2 produced.
Nodal Agency: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) (under the Union Ministry of Power) is
the nodal authority responsible for accrediting agencies for monitoring, verifying and
certifying green hydrogen production projects.
Page 67

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2023-2024 | Comprehensive Test 08 | Comprehensive Test

The Governor may, by public notification,—

(a) include any area in any of the Parts,

(b) exclude any area from any of the Parts,

(c) create a new autonomous district,

(d) increase the area of any autonomous district,

(e) diminish the area of any autonomous district,

(ff) alter the name of any autonomous district],

(g) define the boundaries of any autonomous district.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

State Formation Year

Option (c) is incorrect as it overlooks the importance of equality of opportunities. Political

Option (b) is incorrect as it overstates the expectation of minimal differences in living

WHAT ARE RIGHTS?

Statement 1 is incorrect. According to the Representation of People Act (1951), if a person is

Prevention of Dual Membership:

Clear Choice for Elected Representatives:

statement 1 is correct only.

Look Out Notice

statement 1and 2 are correct only.

Importance of Cabinet Committees:

Flexibility and Efficiency:

The Constitution of India at present has 25 parts:

pair 3 is incorrectly matched

statement 1 is correct only

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

— An NFT is thus created, or as crypto enthusiasts say, it is “minted”, to get exclusive

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

statement 2 is correct only.

International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)

Territorial Nature of Patents:

Statement 2 is correct. India is a member of the World Intellectual Property Organization

Importance of International Treaties and Conventions:

Role of National IPR Policy:

Explanation: Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the

Distinct Goals of MPI and HDI:

Importance in Policy Making:

Differences between Dolphins and Porpoises:

• Both exhibit high intelligence and complex brain structures.

Therefore, it is relatively easy to demonstrate in laboratory experiments, as experimental

Target Shots :: About the Alliance

(c) All three

TargetShots: Sea Snot- Outbreak in Turkey

World Oceans Day

Target Shost :: About Swamp Deer

1. Stable Equilibrium Maintenance: Homeostasis is about maintaining a stable equilibrium in

Explanation: Agumbe Forest is located in the Shivamogga district of Karnataka. It is often

statement 4 is also correct :: Lead toxicity

Target Shots :: varoius other toxicities

Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangroves in India exists in Sundarbans, Bhitarkanika, Godavari-

Home Rule Movement (1915–1916)

The Revolutionarywas published by the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) - renamed in

Sher Shah’s Administration

(b) Only two

Statement 3 is correct: Atlantification is believed to be driven by a phenomenon known as the

UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network (UCCN):

1. Nuclear reactors use specific uranium isotopes as fuel.

Statement 1 is correct: Acquired immunity is indeed pathogen-specific and characterized by