GME Mech Questions Modified

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Fluid Mechanics & Pumps:
Ques 1. One litre of water occupies a volume of

A. 100 cm3
B. 250 cm3
C. 500 cm3
D. 1000 cm3
Answer: Option D
Ques 2. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine

A. Reynold's number
B. Froude's number
C. Mach number
D. Euler's number
Answer: Option C
Ques 3. In a depressed nappe

A. the pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
B. the pressure below the nappe is negative
C. the pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
D. the pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option B
Ques 4. In one dimensional flow, the flow

A. is steady and uniform
B. takes place in straight line
C. takes place in curve
D. takes place in one direction
Answer: Option B
Ques 5. The kinematic viscosity is the

A. ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
B. ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
C. product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
D. product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
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Answer: Option A
Ques 6. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of
liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
A. wH
B. wH/2
C. wH2/2
D. wH2/3
Answer: Option C
Ques 7. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and
is suddenly enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss
of head due to sudden enlargement is
A. (v 1 - v 2 )2/g
B. (v 1 2 – v 2 2)/g
C. (v 1 - v 2 )2/2g
D. (v 1 2 – v 2 2)/2g
Answer: Option C
Ques 8. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length.
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube
due to viscosity of water.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. According to equation of continuity,

A. w1a1 = w2a2
B. w1v1 = w2v2
C. a1v1 = a2v2
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D. a1/v1 = a2/v2
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. In a venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is __________ than at inlet.
A. higher
B. lower
Answer: Option A
Ques 12. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous
flow is taking place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
A. 1/RN
B. 4/RN
C. 16/RN
D. 64/RN
Answer: Option C
Ques 13. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?

A. Under ground flow
B. Flow past tiny bodies
C. Flow of oil in measuring instruments
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 14. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as

A. suction pressure
B. vacuum pressure
C. negative gauge pressure
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 15. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is

A. 50%
B. 56.7%
C. 66.67%
D. 76.66%
Answer: Option C
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Ques 16. An ideal fluid is frictionless and incompressible.

A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 17. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called
A. centre of pressure
B. centre of buoyancy
C. metacentre
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has
an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank
completely will be
A. (2A√H 1 )/(C d x a√2g)
B. (2AH 1 )/(C d x a√2g)
C. (2AH 1 3/2)/(C d x a√2g)
D. (2A√H 1 2)/(C d x a√2g)
Answer: Option A
Ques 19. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different levels intervened by a
high ridge.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 20. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a
small angular displacement, the body is said to be in
A. neutral equilibrium
B. stable equilibrium
C. unstable equilibrium
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 21. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3,
and Q = Discharge in m3/s)
A. w x Q x H
B. w x Q x hf
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C. w x Q (H - hf)
D. w x Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option C
Ques 22. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is
called
A. specific weight
B. mass density
C. specific gravity
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 23. The metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m and 1.5 m
respectively. Select the correct statement.
A. The bodies A and B have equal stability
B. The body A is more stable than body B
C. The body B is more stable than body A
D. The bodies A and B are unstable
Answer: Option C
Ques 24. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that

A. there is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
B. the velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of the pipe
C. no force except gravity acts on the fluid
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 25. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called

A. sub-sonic velocity
B. super-sonic velocity
C. lower critical velocity
D. higher critical velocity
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply
head, and hf = Head lost due to friction in the pipe)
A. (H-h f ) / H
B. (H)/ (H-h f )
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C. (H + h f ) / H
D. (H)/ (H + h f )
Answer: Option A
Ques 27. A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity is called
turbulent flow.
A. elastic
B. surface tension
C. viscous
D. inertia
Answer: Option D
Ques 28. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

A. 103 kN/m2
B. 10.3 m of water
C. 760 mm of mercury
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to

A. pressure force
B. elastic force
C. gravity force
D. viscous force
Answer: Option D
Ques 30. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is

A. N-m/s2
B. N-s/m2
C. poise
D. stoke
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.

A. remains same
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B. decreases
C. increases
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by the water per
metre length of the tank is
A. 2.89 kN
B. 8.29 kN
C. 9.28 kN
D. 28.9 kN
Answer: Option B
Ques 33. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called two dimensional flow.
B. The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and
pressure energy.
C. The length of divergent portion in a venturimeter is equal to the convergent portion.
D. A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe.
Answer: Option C
Ques 34. A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of its
centre of pressure from the water surface is
A. bd2/12 + x
B. d2/12x + x
C. b2/12 + x
D. d2/12 + x
Answer: Option B
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Ques 35. The Francis formula for the discharge over Cippoletti weir is
A. 1.84 LH1/2
B. 1.84 LH
C. 1.84 LH3/2
D. 1.84 LH5/2
Answer: Option C
Ques 36. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
A. Velocity
B. (velocity)2
C. (velocity)3
D. (velocity)4
Answer: Option A
Ques 37. The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin is an example
of
A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. free vortex
D. forced vortex
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The two pipes are
said to be equivalent, if
A. length of both the pipes is same
B. diameter of both the pipes is same
C. loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
D. loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
Answer: Option C
Ques 39. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its metacentre
coincides with its centre of gravity.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
Ques 40. Water is __________ liquid.

A. a compressible
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B. an incompressible
Answer: Option B
Ques 41. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as

A. 9.81 kN/m3
B. 9.81 x 103 N/m3
C. 9.81 x 10-6 N/mm3
D. any one of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 42. The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
A. same as
B. less than
C. more than
Answer: Option C
Ques 43. According to Pascal's law, the intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest
is the same in all directions.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Ques 44. The buoyancy depends upon the

A. weight of the liquid displaced
B. pressure with which the liquid is displaced
C. viscosity of the liquid
D. compressibility of the liquid
Answer: Option A
Ques 45. Stoke is the unit of

A. kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
B. kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
C. dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
D. dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
Answer: Option A
Ques 46. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric
pressure, then the difference of these two pressures is called
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A. gauge pressure
B. absolute pressure
C. positive gauge pressure
D. vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C
Ques 47. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when

A. there is excessive leakage in the pipe
B. the pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
C. the flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
D. the flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve
Answer: Option C
Ques 48. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
A. gravitational force is equal to the upthrust of the liquid
B. gravitational force is less than the upthrust of the liquid
C. gravitational force is more than the upthrust of the liquid
D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
Ques 49. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is

A. directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
B. directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
C. directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
D. inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
Answer: Option B
Ques 50. A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water. If the depth of
immersion is 0.6 m, then the weight of the body is
A. 3.53 kN
B. 33.3 kN
C. 35.3 kN
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 51. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle θ with the liquid
surface is
A. wA
B. wx
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C. wAx
D. wAx/sin θ
Answer: Option C
Ques 52. When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to a
pressure __________ that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
A. less than
B. more than
Answer: Option A
Ques 53. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
A. atmospheric pressure
B. gauge pressure
C. absolute pressure
D. mean pressure
Answer: Option B
Ques 54. The metacentric height is the distance between the

A. centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
B. centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
C. metacentre and centre of buoyancy
D. original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option B
Ques 55. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its
sides. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum.
B. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum.
C. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom of the wall is
maximum
D. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero.
Answer: Option C
Ques 56. Water is a __________ fluid.

A. real
B. ideal
C. newtonian
D. non-newtonian
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Answer: Option C
Ques 57. The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a liquid is (where w =
Specific weight of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface)
A. w
B. wh
C. w/h
D. h/w
Answer: Option B
Ques 58. When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the
resultant pressure is the __________ of the two pressures.
A. sum
B. difference
C. arithmatic mean
D. geometric mean
Answer: Option B
Ques 59. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is
A. 15.3 m
B. 25.3 m
C. 35.3 m
D. 45.3 m
Answer: Option A
Ques 60. The metacentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The
time of rolling of a ship is
A. 4.1 s
B. 5.2 s
C. 10.4 s
D. 14.1 s
Answer: Option C
Ques 61. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is known
as
A. centre of gravity
B. centre of depth
C. centre of pressure
D. centre of immersed surface
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Answer: Option C
Ques 62. The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the

A. elastic properties of the pipe material
B. elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe
C. speed at which the valve is closed
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 63. Bernoulli's equation is applied to

A. venturimeter
B. orifice meter
C. pitot tube
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 64. A fluid having no viscosity is known as

A. real fluid
B. ideal fluid
C. newtonian fluid
D. non-newtonian fluid
Answer: Option B
Ques 65. In a lockgate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure
on the lock gate, and a = Inclination of the gate with the normal to the side of the lock)
A. P / sin a
B. 2p / sin a
C. P / 2 sin a
D. 2p / (sin a/2)
Answer: Option C
Ques 66. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a
standard temperature is called
A. density of liquid
B. specific gravity of liquid
C. compressibility of liquid
D. surface tension of liquid
Answer: Option B
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Ques 67. The force of buoyancy is always __________ the weight of the liquid displaced
by the body.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
Answer: Option A
Ques 68. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force
equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
A. Pascal's law
B. Archimedes’s principle
C. principle of floatation
D. Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option B
Ques 69. According to Archimede's principle, if a body is immersed partially or fully in a

fluid then the buoyancy force is _______ the weight of fluid displaced by the body.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
D. unpredictable
Answer: Option A
Ques 70. One litre of a certain fluid weighs 8N. What is its specific volume?
A. 2.03 x 10– 3 m3/kg
B. 20.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
C. 12.3 x 10– 3 m3/kg
D. 1.23 x 10– 3 m3/kg
Answer: Option D
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Ques 71. The sum of components of shear forces in the direction of flow of fluid is called
as
A. shear drag
B. friction drag
C. skin drag
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 72. Which of the following devices does not use Bernoulli's equation as its working
principle?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice-meter
C. Pitot tube
D. None of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 73. Which of the following sentences are true for Bernoulli's equation?
1. Bernoulli's principle is applicable to ideal incompressible fluid

2. The gravity force and pressure forces are only considered in Bernoulli's principle
3. The flow of fluid is rotational for Bernoulli's principle
4. The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be zero to apply Bernoulli's principle
A. (1), (2) and (3)

B. (1), (3) and (4)
C. (1), (2) and (4)
D. (1), (2), (3) and (4
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Answer: Option C
Ques 74. When the angle between surface tension with the liquid (θ) is greater than 90o,
the liquid becomes
A. flat
B. concave upward
C. convex upward
D. unpredictable
Answer: Option B
Ques 75. The fluid will rise in capillary when the capillary is placed in fluid, if
A. the adhesion force between molecules of fluid and tube is less than the cohesion
between liquid molecules
B. the adhesion force between molecules of fluid and tube is more than the cohesion
C. the adhesion force between molecules of fluid and tube is equal to the cohesion
D. cannot say
Answer: Option B
Ques 76. What is an ideal fluid?

A. A fluid which has no viscosity
B. A fluid which is incompressible
C. A fluid which has no surface tension
D. All of the above
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Answer: Option D
Ques 77. Minor losses do not make any serious effect in

A. short pipes
B. long pipes
C. both the short as well as long pipes
D. cannot say
Answer: Option B
Ques 78. Minor losses occur due to
A. sudden enlargement in pipe

B. sudden contraction in pipe
C. bends in pipe
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 79. The head loss through fluid flowing pipe due to friction is
A. the minor loss

B. the major loss
C. both a. and b.
Answer: Option B
Ques 80. The flow of fluid will be laminar when,
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A. Reynold's number is less than 2000

B. the density of the fluid is low
C. both a. and b.
Answer: Option C
Ques 81. Which of the following forces generally act on fluid while considering fluid
dynamics?
1. Viscous force
2. Pressure force
3. Gravity force
4. Turbulent force
5. Compressibility force
A. (1), (3), (4) and (5)

B. (1), (2), (3) and (5)
C. (1), (2), (3) and (4)
D. (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
Answer: Option D
Ques 82. The specific weight of the fluid depends upon
A. gravitational acceleration
B. mass density of the fluid
C. both a. and b.
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Answer: Option C
Ques 83. For an incompressible fluid does density vary with temperature and pressure?
A. It varies for all temperature and pressure range
B. It remains constant
C. It varies only for lower values of temperature and pressure
D. It varies only for higher values of temperature and pressure
Answer: Option A
Ques 84. If there is bucket full of oil and bucket full of water and you are asked to lift
them, which one of the two will require more effort given that volume of buckets
remains same?
A. Oil bucket
B. Water bucket
C. Equal effort will be required to lift both of them
D. None of the mentioned
Answer: Option B
Ques 85. Density of water is maximum at

A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C
E. 20°C.
Answer: Option C
Ques 86. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
A. adhesion
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B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
E. surface tension.
Answer: Option B
Ques 87. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility
Answer: Option C
Ques 88. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. viscosity
D. surface tension
E. elasticity.
Answer: Option D
Ques 89. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

A. law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. principle of buoyancy
D. all of the above
E. continuity equation.
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Answer: Option D
Ques 90. Surface tension

A. acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. is also known as capillarity
C. is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. decreases with fall in temperature
E. has no units.
Answer: Option A
Ques 91. The units of viscosity are

A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/metre
C. newton-sec per metre2
D. newton-sec per meter
E. none of the above.
Answer: Option B
Ques 92. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

A. pressure
B. distance
C. level
D. flow
E. density.
Answer: Option E
Ques 93. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury
will be following cm of water
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A. 51 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 52 cm
D. 52.2 cm
E. 51.7 cm.
Answer: Option A
Ques 94. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

A. dynamic viscosity/density
B. dynamicviscosity x density
C. density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
E. same as dynamic viscosity.
Answer: Option A
Ques 95. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

A. 25 kN/m2
B. 245 kN/m2
C. 2500 kN/m2
D. 2.5kN/m2
E. 12.5 kN/m2.
Answer: Option B
Ques 96. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A. dissolved air
B. dissolved salt
C. suspended matter
D. all of the above
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E. heavy water.
Answer: Option D
Ques 97. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
A. specific weight
B. specific mass
C. specific gravity
D. specific density
Answer: Option C
Ques 98. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended
into water without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance
reading will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
E. unpredictable.
Answer: Option C
Ques 99. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
E. compressibility.
Answer: Option C
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Ques 100. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the
liquid may be taken to act is known as
A. meta center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
Answer: Option B
Ques 101. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight
of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes' principle
D. Bernoulli's theorem
E. Metacentric principle.
Answer: Option C
Ques 102. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. all the above are correct
E. none of above is correct.
Answer: Option B
Ques 103. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
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A. the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity

B. the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all the above are correct
E. none of the above is correct.
Answer: Option B
Ques 104. Metacentric height is given as the distance between

A. the center of gravity of the body and the meta center
B. the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. center of buoyancy and metacentre
Answer: Option A
Ques 105. The buoyancy depends on

A. mass of liquid displaced
B. viscosity of the liquid
C. pressure of the liquid displaced
D. depth of immersion
Answer: Option A
Ques 106. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body
is called
A. meta-center
C. center of buoyancy
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D. center of gravity
Answer: Option C
Ques 107. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its
different layers is called
A. surface tension
B. co-efficient of viscosity
C. viscosity
D. osmosis
E. cohesion.
Answer: Option C
Ques 108. Capillary action is due to the

A. surface tension
B. cohesion of the liquid
C. adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 109. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will
A. sink to bottom
B. float over fluid
C. partly immersed
D. be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Answer: Option D
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Ques 110. Manometer is used to measure

A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
E. velocity.
Answer: Option A
Ques 111. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity

A. U-tube with water
B. inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. micro-manometer with water
E. displacement type.
Answer: Option D
Ques 112. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
A. water surface
C. center of gravity
D. center of buoyancy
Answer: Option C
Ques 113. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its
tendency to uplift the sub-merged body is called
A. upthrust
B. reaction
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C. buoyancy
D. metacentre
E. center of pressure.
Answer: C
Ques 114. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
A. on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
B. on the surface at which gravitational force acis
C. at which all hydraulic forces meet
D. similar to metacentre
E. where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
Answer: Option A
Ques 115. Buoyant force is

A. the resultant force acting on a floating body
B. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
C. equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
D. the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
Answer: Option B
Ques 116. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A. centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
B. centre of the volume of floating body
C. center of gravity of any submerged body
D. centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
Answer: Option D
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Ques 117. Center of buoyancy is the

A. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. center of pressure of displaced volume
C. e.g. of floating 'body
D. does not exist
Answer: Option A
Ques 118. A body floats in stable equilibrium

A. when its meatcentric height is zero
B. when the metancentre is above e.g.
C. when its e.g. is below it's center of buoyancy
D. metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
Answer: Option B
Ques 119. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water.
Its specific gravity is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: Option D
Ques 120. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6
m high, when the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
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C. 4.0 m
D. 2.5 m
E. 5.0 m.
Answer: Option B
Ques 121. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2
kg/cm", the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
E. 7 meters of water column.
Answer: Option D
Ques 122. Metacentre is the point of intersection of

A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 123. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a
fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
A. the weight of the body
B. more than the weight of the body
C. less than the weight of the body
D. weight of the fluid displaced by the body
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E. weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
Answer: Option D
Ques 124. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
(a) e.g. of body
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) liquid surface.
Answer: D
Ques 125. Buoyant force is
(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(e) none of the above.
Answer: D
Ques 126. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Answer: C
Ques 127. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
(a) below the center of gravity
(b) below the center of buoyancy
(c) above the center of buoyancy
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(d) between e.g. and center of pressure

(e) above the center of gravity.
Answer: E
Ques 128. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
Answer: D
Ques 129. The two important forces for a floating body are
(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Answer: A
Ques 130. Choose the wrong statement
(a) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly
below the center of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral
equilibrium for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below the
center of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.
Answer: A
Ques 131. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
(a) at the centroid
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(b) above the centroid

(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at center of pressure.
Answer: C
Ques 132. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water
surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
Answer: C
Ques 133. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
Answer: D
Ques 134. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
Answer: B
Ques 135. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body
is called
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(a) centre of gravity

(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) centroid.
Answer: D
Ques 136. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Answer: C
Ques 137. Head developed by centrifugal pump depends on
A. Impeller diameter
B. speed
C. fluid density
D. type of casing
E. Both (a) & (b)
Answer : E
Ques 138. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing on density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Answer: C
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Ques 139. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive
periods of time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the
fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are
identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Answer: E
Ques 140. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Answer: B
Ques 141. Uniform flow occurs when
(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniformly along length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Answer: C
Ques 142. A streamline is defined as the line
(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
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(e) which occurs in all flows.

Answer: C
Ques 143. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6.
What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
Answer: C
Ques 144. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under
the liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
Answer: B
Ques 145. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is
proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Answer: C
Ques 146. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
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(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Answer: C
Ques 147. Hydrometer is used to determine
(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.
Answer: A
Ques 148. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
Answer: D
Ques 149. A large Roynold number is indication of
(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Answer: E
Ques 150. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
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(d) less than 4000

Answer: A
Ques 151. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Answer: C
Ques 152. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is
required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Answer: A
Ques 153. Cavitation is caused by
(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Answer: D
Ques 154. Cavitation will begin when
(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated
vapour pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
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(c) flow is increased

(d) pressure is increased
Answer: A
Ques 155. Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. None of the above
ANSWER: C
Ques 156. Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling ________.
a. oils
b. gritty liquids
c. both oils as well as gritty liquids
ANSWER: A
Ques 157. Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high pressure is
required to be developed at moderate discharge?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Turbine
ANSWER: A
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Ques 158. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
ANSWER: C
Ques 159. The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by ________
a) Throttle
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor
Answer: B
Ques 160. The specific gravity of water is taken as
A. 0.001
B. 0.01
C. 0.1
D. 1
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Thermodynamics:
Ques 1. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas
through one degree at constant volume, is called
A. specific heat at constant volume
B. specific heat at constant pressure
C. kilo Joule
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.

A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 3. An adiabatic process is one in which

A. no heat enters or leaves the gas
B. the temperature of the gas changes
C. the change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical workdone
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 4. Which of the following represents Otto cycle on temperature - entropy (T - s)

diagram?
A.
B.
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C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Ques 5. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A. Gasoline
B. Kerosene
C. Fuel oil
Answer: Option A
Ques 6. Workdone in a free expansion process is

A. zero
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B. minimum
C. maximum
D. positive
Answer: Option A
Ques 7. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is __________ of the kinetic energy of all
the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
A. one-half
B. one-third
C. two-third
D. three-fourth
Answer: Option C
Ques 8. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. 20 to 30
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. cut-off is increased
B. cut-off is decreased
C. cut-off is zero
D. cut-off is constant
Answer: Option C
Ques 10. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.

A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. increases
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, p/T = constant, if v is kept
constant.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
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Ques 12. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process.

A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 13. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A. constant volume process
B. adiabatic process
C. constant pressure process
D. isothermal process
Answer: Option C
Ques 14. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with

A. decrease in cut-off
B. increase in cut-off
C. constant cut-off
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 15. According to Avogadro's law, the density of any two gases is __________ their
molecular masses, if the gases are at the same temperature and pressure.
A. equal to
B. directly proportional to
C. inversely proportional to
Answer: Option B
Ques 16. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to
Otto cycle efficiency.
A. zero
B. 1/5
C. 4/5
D. 1
Answer: Option A
Ques 17. An isothermal process is governed by

A. Boyle's law
B. Charles' law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro's law
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Answer: Option A
Ques 18. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?

A. It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat engines.
B. All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
C. It provides concept of maximising work output between the two temperature limits.
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 19. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T - s curve) of any
thermodynamic process represents
A. heat absorbed
B. heat rejected
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 20. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is

A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. 20 to 30
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. In an isothermal process,

A. there is no change in temperature
B. there is no change in enthalpy
C. there is no change in internal energy
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 22. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of
thermodynamics?
A. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is
to convert heat energy into work.
B. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
C. There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given
quantity of heat energy.
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D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. The diesel engines are also known as __________ engines.
A. compression ignition
B. spark ignition
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder
occurs at the
A. beginning of suction stroke
B. end of suction stroke
C. beginning of exhaust stroke
D. end of exhaust stroke
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The gas law PV/T = Constant, is true for….
A. Isothermal changes only

B. Adiabatic changes only
C. Both Isothermal and Adiabatic changes
D. Neither Isothermal not Adiabatic changes
Answer: Option C
Ques 26. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called….
A. Absolute scale temperature

B. Absolute zero temperature
C. Absolute temperature
Answer: Option B
Ques 27. The specific volume of water when heated at 00 C ……
A. First increases then decreases

B. First decreases and then increases
C. Increases steadily
D. Decreases steadily
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Answer: Option B
Ques 28. Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on….
A. Temperature, specific heat and pressure

B. Temperature, specific heat and enthalpy
C. Temperature, specific heat and entropy
D. Temperature only
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. An isentropic process is always…..
A. Irreversible and adiabatic

B. Reversible and isothermal
C. Frictionless
D. Reversible and adiabatic
Answer: Option D
Ques 30. Second law of thermodynamics defines……
A. Heat
B. Work
C. Enthalpy
D. Entropy
Answer: Option D
Ques 31. A chemical fuel is a substance which releases ……………. on combustion.
A. Chemical Energy
B. Heat Energy
C. Sound Energy
D. Magnetic Energy
Answer: Option B
Ques 32. The relative humidity during cooling and dehumidification of moist air…..
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Can increase or decrease
D. Remains constant
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Answer: Option C
Ques 33. The reversible engines are ………..
A. Least efficient
B. Most efficient
C. Having same efficiency as irreversible engines
Answer: Option B
Ques 34. Exhaust gases from and engine posses which of the following energies?
A. Chemical Energy
B. Potential energy
C. Solar Energy
D. Kinetic energy
Answer: Option D
Ques 35. ………….. Cycle has maximum efficiency?
A. Brayton
B. Carnot
C. Rankine
D. Stirling
Answer: Option B
Ques 36. Carnot cycle is a …………….cycle.
A. Quasi-static
B. Semi-reversible
C. Reversible
D. Irreversible
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient if its exhaust temperature is
A. 0o C
B. 0o K
C. Equal to internal temperature
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Answer: Option B
Ques 38. Internal energy of a perfect gas is a function of…………..
A. Temperature only
B. Temperature and pressure
C. Pressure only
D. Volume only
Answer: Option A
Ques 39. Work done will be zero in case of……..
A. Isothermal process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Free expansion
Answer: Option C
Ques 40. A refrigeration system works on…….
A. Second law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
Answer: Option A
Ques 41. Which of the following cycle has the highest efficiency?
A. Otto cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Stirling cycle
D. Joule cycle
Answer: Option B
Ques 42. Bomb calorimeter is used for determining ………….
A. Specific gravity of fuel

B. Calorific value of fuel
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C. Specific heat of fuel

D. Viscosity of fuel
Answer: Option B
Ques 43. Atmospheric pressure is equal to……….
A. 1.013 bar
B. 760 mm of Hg
C. 101.3 kN/m2
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 44. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic property?
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heat
D. Specific volume
Answer: Option C
Ques 45. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to otto cycle efficiency when….
A. Cut off is increased

B. Cut off is decreased
C. Cut off is zero
D. Cut off is constant
Answer: Option B
Ques 46. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will
be
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 100%
Answer: Option B
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Internal Combustion Engines:
Ques 1. Which of the following is an S.I. Engine?
A. Diesel Engine
B. Petrol Engine
C. Gas Engine
Answer: Option B
Ques 2. Which of the following is an C.I. Engine?
A. Diesel Engine
B. Petrol Engine
C. Gas Engine
Answer: Option A
Ques 3. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, during suction stroke…
A. Only air is sucked in

B. Only petrol is sucked in
C. Mixture of petrol and air is sucked in
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, during suction stroke…
E. Only air is sucked in

F. Only fuel is sucked in
G. Mixture of fuel and air is sucked in
H. None of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 5. Carburetor is used in…….
A. SI Engine
B. Gas Engine
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C. CI Engine
Answer: Option A
Ques 6. Fuel Injector is used in……..
A. SI Engine
B. Gas Engine
C. CI Engine
Answer: Option C
Ques 7. Cetane number is the measure of…….
A. Viscosity of fuel
B. Ignition quality
C. Calorific value of fuel
Answer: Option B
Ques 8. In 4 stroke engine the camshaft rotates at……….. the crank shaft speed?
A. Half
B. Three fourth
C. Equal
D. Double
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. The top ring nearest to piston crown is know as……
A. Compression ring
B. Oil ring
C. Scrapper ring
D. Groove ring
Answer: Option A
Ques 10. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine is…
A. Less efficient
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B. More efficient
C. Equal efficient
Answer: Option B
Ques 11. The term bore in IC Engine is used for….
A. Inside diameter of cylinder

B. Diameter of Piston
C. Diameter of Piston Ring
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. The main bearings of the engine support……..
A. Crank shaft
B. Cam shaft
C. Both
Answer: Option A
Ques 13. The flywheel is located on the ……..
A. Rocker arm shaft

B. Crank shaft
C. Cam shaft
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. An engine indicator is used to find out…..
A. BHP
B. FHP
C. Piston speed
D. Mean Effective Pressure
Answer: Option D
Ques 15. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine
A. opens at 50° before bottom dead centre and closes at 15° after top dead centre
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B. opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre

C. opens at 50° after bottom dead centre and closes at 15° before top dead centre
D. may open and close anywhere
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be
increased by
A. decreasing the density of intake air
B. increasing the temperature of intake air
C. increasing the pressure of intake air
D. decreasing the pressure of intake air
Answer: Option C
Ques 17. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of very fine spray, into the
engine cylinder, which gets ignited due to high temperature of the compressed air.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
A. starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
B. starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
C. starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre
D. may start and end anywhere
Answer: Option C
Ques 19. The object of supercharging the engine is

A. to reduce mass ofthe engine per brake power
B. to reduce space occupied by the engine
C. to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
D. all ofthe above
Answer: Option D
Ques 20. a governor in an Ic engine controls the

A. mean speed variation
B. cyclic speed variation
C. load fluctuations
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D. exhaust gas temperature
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is
known as
A. pre-ignition period
B. delay period
C. period of ignition
D. burning period
Answer: Option B
Ques 22. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Ques 23. A diesel engine has

A. one valve
B. two valves
C. three valves
D. four valves
Answer: Option C
Ques 24. A carburettor is used to supply

A. petrol, air and lubricating oil
B. air and diesel
C. petrol and lubricating oil
D. petrol and air
Answer: Option D
Ques 25. Morse test can be conducted for

A. petrol engines
B. diesel engines
C. multi-cylinder engines
D. all of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 26. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is compressed when both the
valves (i.e. inlet valve and exit valve) are closed,
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A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Ques 27. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about

A. 10 bar
B. 100 bar
C. 150 bar
D. 500 bar
Answer: Option B
Ques 28. High speed compression engines operate on

A. Otto cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual-combustion cycle
D. all of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 29. A two stroke cycle engine gives __________ mechanical efficiency than a four
stroke cycle engine.
A. higher
B. lower
Answer: Option A
Ques 30. Lubrication in I.C. engines dissipates the heat generated from the moving parts
due to friction.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. The ratio of the heat equivalent to one kW hour to the heat in fuel per B.P. hour
is termed as brake thermal efficiency.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
Ques 32. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is

A. 10:1
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B. 15:1
C. 20:1
D. 25:1
Answer: Option B
Ques 33. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine

A. requires smaller foundation
B. is lighter
C. consumes less lubricating oil
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 34. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?
A. Fuel pump
B. Fuel injector
C. Governor
D. Carburettor
Answer: Option D
Ques 35. Supercharging __________ the power developed by the engine.

A. has no effect on
B. increases
C. decreases
Answer: Option B
Ques 36. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally

A. white
B. bluish
C. black
D. violent
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

A. In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the beginning of combustion.
B. Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the end of compression
stroke, therefore, there will be no pre-ignition.
C. To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to achieve auto-ignition
not early and desire a long delay period.
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D. In compression ignition engines, because of hetrogeneous mixture, the rate of pressure

rise is comparatively lower.
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will __________ knocking
tendency.
A. increase
B. reduce
C. not effect
Answer: Option A
Ques 39. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by

A. retarding the spark
B. increasing the engine speed
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 40. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called
A. mechanical efficiency
B. overall efficiency
C. indicated thermal efficiency
D. volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option A
Ques 41. The two stroke cycle engines have lighter flywheel.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
Answer: Option A
Ques 42. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is
A. below 50%
B. between 50 and 85%
C. between 85 and 95%
D. between 95 and 100%
Answer: Option D
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Ques 43. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking
points is
A. 2000 to 4000 volts
B. 4000 to 6000 volts
C. 6000 to 10 000 volts
D. 10 000 to 12 000 volts
Answer: Option C
Ques 44. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
Answer: Option A
Ques 45. The petrol engines are also known as __________ engines.
A. compression ignition
B. spark ignition
Answer: Option B
Ques 46. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
A. 0.2 kg
B. 0.25 kg
C. 0.3 kg
D. 0.35 kg
Answer: Option B
Ques 47. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are
__________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.
A. equal to
B. one-half
C. twice
D. four-times
Answer: Option A
Ques 48. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a
sufficiently high pressure in order to
A. inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
B. inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
C. ensure that penetration is not high
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D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 49. The indicated mean effective pressure of an engine is obtained from the
indicator diagram drawn with the help of an engine indicator.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 50. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

A. A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a two stroke cycle
engine.
B. For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is lighter, less bulky and
occupies less floor area.
C. The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines.
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 51. Which of the following statement is correct ?

A. Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10.
B. Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures.
C. Petrol engines work on Otto cycle.
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 52. A 4 cylinder 4 stroke diesel engine has 3000 power strokes per minute; its speed
in RPM is
A. 3000
B. 6000
C. 750
D. 1500
Answer: Option B
Ques 53. Indicated thermal efficiency of an engine is

A. Brake power/Indicated power
B. Indicated power/Mechanical efficiency
C. Brake thermal efficiency/Mechanical efficiency
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D. Brake power/Mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option C
Ques 54. The thermo dynamic cycle used in a petrol engine is the
A. constant pressure cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. constant volume cycle
Answer: Option D
Ques 55. The gudgeion pin connects the

A. connecting rod and the crank
B. piston and crank
C. crank and connecting rod
D. piston and the connecting rod
Answer: Option D
Ques 56. The inlet valve in a 4 stroke IC engine opens

A. after TDC
B. before BDC
C. before TDC
D. after BDC
Answer: Option C
Ques 57. In a six cylinder 4 stroke petrol engine running at 2000 RPM, the cam shaft runs
at
A. 1000 RPM
B. 2000 RPM
C. 6000 RPM
D. 500 RPM
Answer: Option A
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Refrigeration & Air Conditioning:
Ques 1. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is rejected by refrigerant at….
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Compressor
D. Expansion valve
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. In a refrigeration cycle the flow of refrigerant is controlled by…
A. Compressor
B. Evaporator
C. Expansion valve
D. Condenser
Answer: Option C
Ques 3. Which part of the vapor compression refrigeration cycle produces refrigeration
effect?
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In a refrigeration cycle oil separator is installed between …….
A. Condenser and TEV

B. Compressor and condenser
C. Condenser and evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 5. What removes moisture from a refrigerant?
A. Dehumidifier
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B. Solenoid
C. TEV
D. Drier
Answer: Option D
Ques 6. In VCRS the condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor is……
A. Wet vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Dry saturated liquid
D. Superheated vapor
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. The highest temperature during the VCRS cycle occurs after……
A. Condensation
B. Expansion
C. Evaporation
D. Compression
Answer: Option D
Ques 8. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator

A. increases heat transfer
B. improves C.O.P. of the system
C. increases power consumption
D. reduces power consumption
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is
called
A. dry bulb depression
B. wet bulb depression
C. dew point depression
D. degree of saturation
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the compressor for a short
period.
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A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A. higher in winter than in summer
B. lower in winter than in summer
C. same in winter and summer
D. not dependent on season
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve
Answer: Option B
Ques 13. A refrigeration system

A. removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body
B. removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body
C. rejects energy to a low temperature body
Answer: Option A
Ques 14. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too
high. The reasons will be
A. lack of cooling water
B. water temperature being high
C. dirty condenser surface
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 15. The freon group of refrigerants are

A. halo-carbon refrigerants
B. azeotrope refrigerants
C. inorganic refrigerants
D. hydro-carbon refrigerants
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Answer: Option A
Ques 16. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. Air conditioning means

A. cooling
B. heating
C. dehumidifying
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential
in the stratophere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Flourine
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A. 21 kJ/min
B. 210 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 620 kJ/min
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in __________ type of evaporators.
A. flooded
B. DX coil
C. dry
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. A good refrigerant should have
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A. high latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point

B. high operating pressures and low freezing point
C. high specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
D. low C.O.P. and low freezing point
Answer: Option A
Ques 22. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
A. cost is too high
B. capacity control is not possible
C. it is made of copper
D. required pressure drop can not be achieved
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
A. degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
B. temperature of the evaporator
C. pressure in the evaporator
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the
expansion or throttle valve is
A. high pressure saturated liquid
B. wet vapour
C. very wet vapour
D. dry vapour
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A. suction pressure
B. discharge pressure
C. critical pressure
D. back pressure
Answer: Option B
Ques 26. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A. one tonne is the total mass of machine
B. one tonne refrigerant is used
C. one tonne of water can be converted into ice
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D. one tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is
equivalent to 210 kJ/min
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of refrigerant.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

A. ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
B. is suitable only for constant load systems
C. maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
Answer: Option A
Ques 29. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since
A. it has low operating pressures
B. it gives higher coefficient of performance
C. it is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
D. all of the above
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of freon refrigerant,
will change to
A. bright green
B. yellow
C. red
D. orange
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. For comfort air conditioning the conditions maintained are
A. 15 deg dbt to 20 deg Wbt
B. 25 deg dbt to 60 % RH
C. 40 deg dbt and 40 deg Wbt
D. 25 deg dbt and 80 % RH
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Answer: Option B
Ques 32. In a mechanical refrigeration system, the highest temperature of refrigerant

occurs
A. Between condenser and evaporator
B. In evaporator
C. Before expansion value
D. Between compressor and condenser
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion
valve into
A. high pressure liquid refrigerant
B. low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
C. low pressure vapour refrigerant
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
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Compressors & Turbines:
Ques 1. With increase in clearance volume of air compressor, the ideal work of
compressing of air………
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains same
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 2. Why is inter cooling in multistage compressor done?
A. To minimize the work of compressor

B. To cool the air at delivery
C. To cool the air during compression
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 3. Why is an after cooler used in air compressor?
A. To remove impurities from air

B. To reduce the volume of air
C. To cool the air
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In a compressor the clearance volume should be…….
A. As small as possible
B. As large as possible
C. about 25% of swept volume
D. About 80% of swept volume
Answer: Option A
Ques 5. The volumetric efficiency of compressor……………with ………..in compression ratio.
A. Decreases, Increases
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B. Increases, Increases
C. Decreases, decreases
D. Increases, Decreases
Answer: Option D
Ques 6. Which of the following type of compressor is mostly used for supercharging I.C.
Engines?
A. Reciprocating compressor
B. Axial flow compressor
C. Roots blower
D. Radial flow compressor
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip
at __________ to the direction of the blade motion.
A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Answer: Option B
Ques 8. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as

A. constant volume flow
B. constant pressure flow
C. isothermal flow
D. isentropic flow
Answer: Option D
Ques 9. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the

throat (i.e. in the divergent portion of the nozzle)
A. remains constant
B. decreases
C. increases
Answer: Option A
Ques 10. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between

A. inlet and thoroat
B. inlet and outlet
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C. throat and exit

D. all of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic
enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A. 0.4
B. 0.56
C. 0.67
D. 1.67
Answer: Option A
Ques 12. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force
A. as an impulsive force
B. as a reaction force
C. partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
Answer: Option C
Ques 13. A regenerative steam cycle renders

A. increased work output per unit mass of steam
B. decreased work output per unit mass of steam
C. increased thermal efficiency
D. decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: Option D
Ques 14. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is parallel to the
turbine axis, is called axial flow turbines
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 15. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
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Ques 16. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at
exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
A. choked
B. underdamping
C. overdamping
D. none of these
Ques 17. The steam leaves the nozzle at a

A. high pressure and a low velocity
B. high pressure and a high velocity
C. low pressure and a low velocity
D. low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. The Parsons' reaction turbine has

A. only moving blades
B. only fixed blades
C. identical fixed and moving blades
D. fixed and moving blades of different shape
Answer: Option C
Ques 19. The turbine blades are

A. straight
B. circular
C. curved
Answer: Option C
Ques 20. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at

that pressure is called
A. degree of supersaturation
B. degree of superheat
C. degree of undercooling
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by

A. reheating of steam
B. regenerative feed heating
C. binary vapour plant
D. any one of these
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Answer: Option D
Ques 22. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
A. pressure increases while velocity decreases
B. pressure decreases while velocity increases
C. pressure and velocity both decreases
D. pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. For maximum efficiency of an impulse turbine, the steam should leave the
blades at right angles to their motion.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third stage are 1 bar
and 16 bar, then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage will be
A. 1 bar
B. 16 bar
C. 64 bar
D. 256 bar
Answer: Option C
Ques 25. The compressed air may be used

A. in gas turbine plants
B. for operating pneumatic drills
C. in starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is about
A. 10 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 70%
D. 70 to 90%
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. Which of the following statement is wrong?
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A. In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling, maximum work
is saved.
B. The minimum work required for a two stage reciprocating air compressor is double the
work required for each stage.
C. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston
is called volumetric efficiency.
Answer: Option D
Ques 28. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction, compression and
delivery of air takes place in __________ of the piston.
A. one stroke
B. two strokes
C. three strokes
D. four strokes
Answer: Option B
Ques 29. Intercooling in multi-stage compressors is done

A. to cool the air during compression
B. to cool the air at delivery
C. to enable compression in two stages
D. to minimise the work of compression
Answer: Option D
Ques 30. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is called compressor
efficiency.
B. The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than unity.
C. The compressor capacity is the ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume.
D. During isothermal compression of air, the workdone in a compressor is maximum.
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called

A. free air delivery
B. compressor capacity
C. swept volume
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
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Ques 32. Rotary compressors are used for delivering

A. small quantities of air at high pressures
B. large quantities of air at high pressures
C. small quantities of air at low pressures
D. large quantities of air at low pressures
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. A large clearance Volume in a reciprocating compressor results in

A. reduced volume flow rate
B. increased volume flow rate
C. lower suction pressure
D. lower delivery pressure
Answer: Option A
Ques 34. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two stage compression
with intercooler, is __________ the original atmospheric air temperature, then the
intercooling is known as perfect or complete intercooling.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. more than
Answer: Option A
Ques 35. An aftercooler is used to

A. remove impurities from air
B. reduce volume of air
C. cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D. cool the air
Answer: Option C
Ques 36. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the
piston, is known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. volumetric efficiency
C. isothermal efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option B
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A. The reciprocating compressors are best suited for high pressure and low volume
capacity
B. The effect of clearance volume on power consumption is negligible for the same volume
of discharge
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis, then the
compressor is
A. reciprocating compressor
B. centrifugal compressor
C. axial flow compressor
D. turbo-compressor
Answer: Option C
Ques 39. The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called
A. back pressure
B. critical pressure
C. discharge pressure
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 40. The compressor capacity is defined as the

A. actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when reduced to normal
temperature and pressure conditions
B. volume of air delivered by the compressor
C. volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
Answer: Option B
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Steam Boilers:
Ques 1. In a boiler fusible plug is situated …………
A. Near the man hole

B. Just below the water level
C. At the crown of the furnace
D. At the base of the boiler
Answer: Option C
Ques 2. The function of fusible plug is…….
A. To drain off the water of the shell

B. To prevent damage of boiler against over heating
C. To blow off excess steam
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 3. The function of super heater in steam boiler is …….
A. Pre-heat the feed water

B. Pre heat the air
C. Increase the temperature of steam above saturation temp.
D. Increase the rate of combustion of fuel
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In water tube boilers

A. water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
B. the flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
C. forced circulation takes place
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 5. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected
to water space and the other end is connected to
A. water space also
B. chimney
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C. steam space
D. superheater
Answer: Option C
Ques 6. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure, is called
A. blow off cock
B. fusible plug
C. superheater
D. stop valve
Answer: Option C
Ques 7. An economiser __________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. has no effect on
Answer: Option A
Ques 8. The function of a safety valve is

A. to blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working
pressure
B. to indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
C. to measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is
A. lever safety valve
B. dead weight safety valve
C. high steam and low water safety valve
D. spring loaded safety valve
Answer: Option D
Ques 10. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat
the air before it passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is knwon as
A. superheater
B. air preheater
C. economiser
D. injector
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Answer: Option B
Ques 11. In a fire tube boiler, the water is contained inside the tubes which are
surrounded by flames and hot gases from outside.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. Water tube boilers produce steam at a __________ pressure than that of fire
tube boilers.
A. lower
B. higher
Answer: Option B
Ques 13. The performance of a boiler is measured by the

A. amount of water evaporated per hour
B. steam produced in kg/h
C. steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
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Workshop Technology:
Ques 1. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat surfaces.

A. True
B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be checked by a

A. feeler gauge
B. slip gauge
C. ring gauge
D. plug gauge
Answer: Option B
Ques 3. The type of file used for a wood work is

A. single-cut file
B. double cut file
C. rasp-cut file
D. any one of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the work and the electrode
by
A. voltage
B. flow of current
C. contact resistance
D. all of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 5. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrodes?

A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Manual arc welding
D. Submerged arc welding
Answer: Option A
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Ques 6. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
A. lower critical temperature
B. upper critical temperature
C. eutectic temperature
D. recrystallisation temperature
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a

A. carbon electrode and the work
B. metal electrode and the work
C. bare metal electrode and the work
D. two tungsten electrodes and the work
Answer: Option C
Ques 8. In arc welding the electric arc is produced between the work and the electrode
by…..
A. Flow of current
B. Contact resistance
C. Voltage
D. All of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. In shielded arc welding

A. large electrode is used
B. welding rod coated with slag is used
C. welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
Answer: Option C
Ques 10. A file removes the metal during

A. forward stroke
B. return stroke
C. both forward and return strokes
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. An oxidising flame is obtained when equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene are
supplied.
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A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. A neutral flame is obtained by supplying

A. equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
B. more volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
C. more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
Answer: Option A
Ques 13. For welding plates of thickness less than 5 mm, its edges
A. do not require bevelling
B. should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
C. should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
D. should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
Answer: Option A
Ques 14. Most of the oxy-acetylene welding is done with

A. neutral flame
B. oxidising flame
C. carburising flame
D. all of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 15. The current in electric resistance welding can be regulated by

A. varying the input supply
B. changing the primary turns of the transformer
C. changing the secondary turns of the transformer
D. any one of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 16. The teeth of hacksaw blade are bent

A. towards right
B. towards left
C. alternately towards right and left and every third or fourth left straight
D. may be bent in any direction
Answer: Option C
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Ques 17. The torch used for oxygen cutting is same as for oxy-acetylene welding.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. The flux commonly used in brazing is…….
A. Borax
B. Zinc Chloride
C. ammonium chloride
Answer: Option A
Ques 19. A neutral flame is obtained by supplying…….
A. More oxygen and less acetylene

B. Equal volume of oxygen and acetylene
C. More acetylene and less oxygen
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. Most of the oxy acetylene welding is done with…
A. Oxidizing flame
B. Carburizing flame
C. Neutral Flame
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. The maximum flame temperature in oxy acetylene flame occurs ……
A. At the inner core

B. At the outer core
C. At the torch tip
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D. Between the outer and inner core
Answer: Option A
Ques 22. The cold chisel is made from….
A. Mild steel
B. High speed steel
C. Cast tool steel
D. Stainless steel
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. The hacksaw blade cuts on the…..
A. Return stroke
B. Forward stroke
C. Cutting depends upon the direction of force
D. Both forward and return stroke
Answer: Option B
Ques 24. The teeth of hacksaw blades are bent ……
A. Towards left
B. Any direction
C. Towards right
D. Alternately towards right and left
Answer: Option D
Ques 25. A file removes the metal during…….
A. Return stroke
B. Forward stroke
C. Both in return and forward stroke
Answer: Option B
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Ques 26. Brasses and bronzes are welded using

A. neutral flame
B. oxidizing flames
C. carburising flame
D. reducing flame
Answer: Option A
Ques 27. Reducing flame is obtained in oxyactetylane welding with

A. excess oxygen
B. equal parts of both gases
C. excess of acetylene
D. reduced acetylene
Answer: Option C
Ques 28. One of the following objectives is not achieved by the process of annealing
A. to relieve internal stress
B. to refine grain structure
C. to increase the yield point
D. to soften the metal
Answer: Option C
Ques 29. Feeler gauges are used for measuring the

A. thickness of plates
B. clearances between mating parts
C. pitch of screw threads
D. radius of curvature
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. One of the following function is not performed by coating on the welding
electrodes
A. increase the cooling rate
B. provide protective atmosphere
C. refuce oxidation
D. stabilize the arc
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Answer: Option A
Ques 31. Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by
A. Die casting
B. Slush casting
C. Investment casting
D. True centrifugal casting
Answer: Option D
Ques 32. The oxy-acetylene gas used in gas welding produce a flame temperature of
A. 1800°C
B. 2100°C
C. 2400°C
D. 3200°C
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Strength of Materials:
Ques 1. The combined effect of external forces acting on a body is called…
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Load
Answer: Option C
Ques 2. The internal resistance which the body offers to meet with the load is called….
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Pressure
Answer: Option A
Ques 3. The deformation per unit length is called…..
A. Strain
B. Tensile stress
C. Compressive stress
D. Shear stress
Answer: Option A
Ques 4. The value of Poisson’s ratio depends on the….
A. Size of the material

B. Type of material
C. Magnitude of load
D. Nature of load
Answer: Option B
Ques 5. The type of stresses set up in a rotating shaft due to torsion is….
A. Shear
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B. Compressive
C. Bending
D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 6. The property of material to withstand deformation without fracture is called…
A. Plasticity
B. Toughness
C. Brittleness
D. Ductility
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. The property of material which allows it to deform without fracture is known
as…
A. Brittleness
B. Toughness
C. Elasticity
D. Plasticity
Answer: Option D
Ques 8. The behavior of metals under the action of cyclic stresses is termed as……
A. Creep
B. Fatigue
C. Endurance
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. Strain energy is the

A. energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
B. energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a specimen
C. maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
D. proof resilience per unit volume of a material
Answer: Option A
Ques 10. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40° C and it is free to expand. The bar
Will induce
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A. no stress
B. shear stress
C. tensile stress
D. compressive stress
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another
tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to
a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
A. 400 MPa
B. 500 MPa
C. 900 MPa
D. 1400 MPa
Answer: Option D
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Mechanical Reasoning:
Ques 1. How much weight is required to balance the lever?
A. 15kg
B. 5kg.
C. 10kg
D. 7.5kg
E. 20kg
Answer : C
Ques 2. If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm. How does gear Y turn?
A. Anti Clockwise 10 rpm

B. Clock wise 10 rpm
C. Clock wise 5 rpm
D. Anti Clock wise 5 rpm
E. Clock wise 20 rpm
Answer : A
Ques 3. If drive wheel X rotates clockwise at a speed of 10 rpm. How does wheel Y turn?
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A. Anti Clockwise faster

B. Clock wise slower
C. Clock wise faster
D. Anti Clock wise slower
E. Anti Clock wise same
Answer : B
Ques 4. If bulb 1 is removed, how many bulbs will light up when the switch is closed?
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. Four
Answer : C
Ques 5. How much force is required to lift the weights?
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A. 25lbs B. 35lbs C. 40lbs D. 45lbs
Answer : B
Ques 6. Which weight requires the least force to move?
A. Weight A B. Weight B
Answer : B
Ques 7. If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm, how does gear Y turn?

C. Clock wise 5 rpm
Answer : A
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Ques 8. If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm. How does gear Y turn?

C. Clock wise 5 rpm
Answer : D
Ques 9. If bar Y moves left a constant speed, how does bar X move?
A. Left , faster
B. Right , Same
C. Left Slower
D. Left Same
E. Right Slower
Answer : D
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Answer : B

Answer : E
Ques 12. A force of 5 Kg compresses the springs in series 10cm.What will be the total
distance that the springs in parallel are compressed?
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A. 10 cm B. 2.5 cm C. 5cm D. 7.5 cm
Answer : C
Ques 13. How many switches need to be closed to light up one bulb?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer : B
Ques 14. How many bulbs will light up when the switch is closed?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
D. 4
Answer : D
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Ques 15. If bulb 1 is removed, how many bulbs will light up when the switch is closed?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer : B
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Applied Mechanics:
Ques 1. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor.
One of the ball with velocity v is made to struck the second ball. Both the balls after
impact will move with a velocity
A. v
B. v/2
C. v/4
D. v/8
Answer: Option B
Ques 2. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle θ to the horizontal
and weight being pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is
A. sin θ
B. cos θ
C. tan θ
D. cosec θ
Answer: Option A
Ques 3. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is __________ the range
on upward inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A. less than
B. more than
C. equal to
Answer: Option B
Ques 4. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle
of inclination with the horizontal is α. The effort applied parallel to the plane is given
by(where μ = tanφ = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
A. P = W tanα
B. P = W tan(α + φ)
C. P = W (sinα + μcosα)
D. P = W (cosα + μsinα)
Answer: Option C
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Ques 5. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50
percent, then tension in the string will be
A. same
B. half
C. double
Answer: Option B
Ques 6. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant will be inclined at an
angle θ with the horizontal, such that
A. tan θ = ∑H/∑V
B. tan θ = ∑V/∑H
C. tan θ = ∑Vx∑H
D. tan θ = √(∑V + ∑H)
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased, then
acceleration of the system will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
Answer: Option B
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Ques 8. The total time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height and to return back
to the ground, is known as time of flight.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
Ques 10. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio of

A. distance moved by effort to the distance moved by load
B. load lifted to the effort applied
C. output to the input
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 11. Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction.

A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the angle of inclination of
the plane is __________ the angle of friction.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
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Answer: Option C
Ques 13. The bodies which rebound after impact are called
A. inelastic bodies
B. elastic bodies
C. neither elastic nor inelastic bodies
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. The centre of gravity of an equilateral triangle with each side a, is __________
from any of the three sides.
A. 3a/2
B. 23a
C. a/23
D. 32a
Answer: Option C
Ques 15. The angle between two forces when the resultant is maximum and minimum
respectively are
A. 0° and 180°
B. 180° and 0°
C. 90° and 180°
D. 90° and 0°
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which gives the same frequency as
compound pendulum is
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Answer: Option B
Ques 17. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after impact is
__________ the relative velocity of the two bodies before impact.
A. equal to
B. equal and opposite to
C. less than
D. greater than
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. Work done is said to be zero, when

A. some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero
B. no force acts on a body but some displacement takes place
C. either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option C
Ques 19. Two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart and their
resultant is 20 N. It the line of action of the resultant is 6 mm from any given force, the
two forces are
A. 15 N and 5 N
B. 20 N and 5 N
C. 15 N and 15 N
D. none of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 20. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal kinetic energies,
the momentum of body having mass m1 is __________ the momentum of body having
mass m2.
A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its
position, is known as
A. moment of inertia
B. centre of gravity
C. centre of percussion
D. centre of mass
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Answer: Option B
Ques 22. The overturning of a vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the velocity
of vehicle is __________ √(gra) / h .
A. less than
B. greater than
Answer: Option A
Ques 23. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force,
and takes place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
A. Newton's first law of motion
B. Newton's second law of motion
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 24. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.

A. equal to
B. less than
C. greater than
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is

A. 1/m
B. V.R./m
C. m/V.R.
D. 1/(m x V.R.)
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. A differential pulley block has larger and smaller diameters of 100 mm and 80
mm respectively. Its velocity ratio is
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Answer: Option B
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A. The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant.

B. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
C. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body after
impact.
D. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body
after impact.
Answer: Option D
Ques 28. Two bodies of masses m1,and m2 are hung from the ends of a rope, passing oyer
a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure below. The acceleration of the string will be
A. g(m 1 -m 2 )/(m 1 +m 2 )
B. 2g(m 1 -m 2 )/(m 1 +m 2 )
C. g(m 1 +m 2 )/(m 1 -m 2 )
D. 2g(m 1 +m 2 )/(m 1 -m 2 )
Answer: Option A
Ques 29. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as

A. reversible machine
B. non-reversible machine
C. neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
D. ideal machine
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. One end of a helical spring is fixed while the other end carries the load W which
moves with simple harmonic motion. The frequency of motion is given by(where δ =
Deflection of the spring.)
A. 2n √(g/δ)
B. (1/2n) x √(g/δ)
C. 2n √(δ/g)
D. (1/2n) x √(δ/g)
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Answer: Option B
Ques 31. The radius of gyration is the distance where the whole mass (or area) of a body is
assumed to be concentrated.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 32. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after
rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
A. 1m
B. 2m
C. 3m
D. 4m
Answer: Option B
Ques 33. In a wormed geared pulley block, if the number of teeth on the worm wheel is
doubled, then its velocity ratio is also doubled.
A. True
B. False
Ques 34. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
__________ at the mean position.
A. zero
B. minimum
C. maximum
Answer: Option A
Ques 35. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies

A. is constant at every instant
B. varies from point to point
C. is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
D. is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
Answer: Option A
Ques 36. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m, radius r and length l about
the longitudinal axis or polar axis is
A. mr2/2
B. mr2/4
C. mr2/6
D. mr2/8
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Answer: Option A
Ques 37. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational acceleration is taken
as
A. +8.9 m/s2
B. -8.9 m/s2
C. +9.8 m/s2
D. -9.8 m/s2
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in magnitude, direction and
line of action by the three sides of a triangle taken in order. The forces are equivalent to
a couple whose moment is equal to
A. area of the triangle
B. twice the area of the triangle
C. half the area of the triangle
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 39. If tension in the cable supporting a lift moving downwards is half the tension
when it is moving upwards, the acceleration of the lift is
A. g/2
B. g/3
C. g/4
D. none of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 40. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, then the weight of a
body will be
A. g/2
B. g
C. 2g
D. 2g
Answer: Option D
Ques 41. When a particle moves along a circular path, its acceleration has two
components, one is normal component and the other is tangential component of
acceleration.
A. True
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B. False
Answer: Option A
Ques 42. A machine which is not capable of doing any work in the reversed direction, after
the effort is removed, is called a reversible machine.
A. True
B. False
Answer: Option B
Ques 43. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two
isentropic processes is known as
A. Carnot cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Diesel cycle
Answer: Option D
Ques 44. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating
element is approximately
A. 385 Ω
B. 38.5 Ω
C. 3.1 Ω
D. 31 Ω
Answer: Option D
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Basic Electricals & Electronics:
Ques 1. How much resistance is required to limit the current from a 12 V battery to 3.6
mA?
A. 3.3 k Ω
B. 33 k Ω
C. 2.2 k Ω
D. 22 k Ω
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. When there is 12 mA of current through a 1.2 k Ω resistor, the voltage across the
resistor is
A. 14.4 V
B. 1.4 V
C. 100 V
D. 10 V
Answer: Option A
Ques 3. A series circuit consists of three resistors with values of 120Ω , 270Ω , and 330Ω
. The total resistance is
A. less than 120Ω
B. the average of the values
C. 720 Ω
D. 120 Ω
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. When one of three series resistors is removed from a circuit and the circuit is
reconnected, the current
A. increases
B. increases by one-third
C. decreases by one-third
D. decreases by the amount of current through the removed resistor
Answer: Option A
Ques 5. Two 1.2 k Ω resistors are in series and this series combination is in parallel with a
3.3 k Ω resistor. The total resistance is
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A. 138 Ω
B. 1,389 Ω
C. 5,700 Ω
D. 880 Ω
Answer: Option B
Ques 6. A certain Wheatstone bridge has the following resistor values: R1 = 10 k Ω, R2 =

720Ω , and R4 = 2.4 kΩ . The unknown resistance is
A. 24 Ω
B. 2.4 Ω
C. 300 Ω
D. 3,000 Ω
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. A 12 k Ω resistor, a 15 k Ω resistor, and a 22 k Ω resistor are in series with two 10

k Ω resistors that are in parallel. The source voltage is 75 V. Current through the 15 k Ω
resistor is approximately
A. 14 mA
B. 1.4 mA
C. 5 mA
D. 50 mA
Answer: Option B
Ques 8. A balanced Wheatstone bridge consists of an RV of 3,500 Ω , an R2 of 200Ω , and

an R3 of 680 Ω . The value of RUNK is
A. 680 Ω
B. 1,029 Ω
C. 200 Ω
D. 880 Ω
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. To produce an 800 Hz sine wave, a four-pole generator must be operated at

A. 200 rps
B. 400 rps
C. 800 rps
D. 1,600 rps
Answer: Option B
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Ques 10. If the rms current through a 4.7 kΩ resistor is 4 mA, the peak voltage drop
across the resistor is
A. 4 V
B. 18.8 V
C. 26.6 V
D. 2.66 V
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. If the peak of a sine wave is 13 V, the peak-to-peak value is

A. 6.5 V
B. 13 V
C. 26 V
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. A sinusoidal current has an rms value of 14 mA. The peak-to-peak value is
A. 45.12 mA
B. 16 mA
C. 39.6 mA
D. 22.6 mA
Answer: Option C
Ques 13. Two series resistors are connected to an ac source. If there are 7.5 V rms across
one resistor and 4.2 V rms across the other, the peak source voltage is
A. 16.54 V
B. 1.65 V
C. 10.60 V
D. 5.93 V
Answer: Option A
Ques 14. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days,
how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume?
A. 20.16 kWh
B. 201.6 kWh
C. 2.01 kWh
D. 8.4 kWh
Answer: Option B
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Ques 15. A given power supply is capable of providing 6 A for 3.5 h. Its ampere-hour rating
is
A. 0.58 Ah
B. 2.1 Ah
C. 21 Ah
D. 58 Ah
Answer: Option C
Ques 16. A 120 Ω resistor must carry a maximum current of 25 mA. Its rating should be at
least
A. 4.8 W
B. 150 mW
C. 15 mW
D. 480 mW
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. Three hundred joules of energy are consumed in 15 s. The power is
A. 2,000 W
B. 2 W
C. 20 W
D. 200 W
Answer: Option C
Ques 18. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance
are called
A. insulators
B. inductors
C. semi-conductors
D. conductors
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
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(d) inductance
Answer: Option C
Ques 20. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(a) length
(6) area of cross-section
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Answer: Option B
Ques 21. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: Option a
Ques 22. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: Option A
Ques 23. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Answer: Option D
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Ques 24. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Answer: Option A
Ques 27. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15
minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
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(d) end-to-end
Answer: Option A
Ques 29. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. A thermistor has

(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. Conductance : mho ::

(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Answer: Option a
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Ques 33. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Answer: Option A
Ques 34. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: Option A
Ques 35. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: Option B
Ques 36. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Answer: Option A
Ques 37. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
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(d) becomes zero
Answer: Option A
Ques 38. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Answer: Option C
Ques 39. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Answer: Option B
Ques 40. A dead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Answer: Option D
Ques 41. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Answer: Option D
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Ques 42. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Answer: Option D
Ques 43. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Answer: Option C
Ques 44. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15
the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state
Answer: Option B
Ques 45. Over charging

(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Answer: Option D
Ques 46. Undercharging

(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
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(d) increases the temperature
Answer: Option A
Ques 47. Each cell has a vent cap

(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Answer: Option D
Ques 48. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Answer: Option D
Ques 49. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Answer: Option D
Ques 50. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Answer: Option D
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Ques 51. _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Answer: Option D
Ques 52. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Answer: Option D
Ques 53. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Answer: Option D
Ques 54. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
Ques 55. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
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(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Answer: Option A
Ques 56. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Answer: Option A
Ques 57. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Answer: Option D
Ques 58. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Answer: Option A
Ques 59. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: Option A
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Ques 60. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: Option C
Ques 61. The main function of a fuse is to

(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
(e) none of the above
Answer: Option D
Ques 62. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminium alloy
Answer: Option A
Ques 63. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Answer: Option D
Ques 64. A fuse is connected

(a) in series with circuit
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(b) in parallel with circuit

(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Answer: Option A
Ques 65. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by

(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
(d) any of the above
Answer: Option B
Ques 66. The operating voltage of a meggar is about

(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: Option D
Ques 67. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.
a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
Answer: Option C
Ques 68. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur
Answer: Option B
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Ques 69. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: Option D
Ques 70. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ………
a. An insulator
b. An intrinsic semiconductor
c. p-type semiconductor
d. n-type semiconductor
Answer: Option D
Ques 71. An n-type semiconductor is ………
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically neutral
Answer: Option C
Ques 72. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
Answer: Option D
Ques 73. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
a. Holes
b. Free electrons
c. Valence electrons
d. Bound electrons
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Answer: Option A
Ques 74. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
a. A free electron
b. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. A free proton
d. A free neutron
Answer: Option B
Ques 75. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
a. Only holes
b. Only free electrons
c. Holes and free electrons
Answer: Option C
Ques 76. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
a. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n

b. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
Answer: Option A
Ques 77. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
a. Very narrow depletion layer

b. Almost no current
c. Very low resistance
d. Large current flow
Answer: Option B
Ques 78. A zener diode is used as …………….
a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
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d. a multi vibrator
Answer: Option B
Ques 79. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
d. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 80. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
d. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 81. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
a. Proper forward bias

b. Proper reverse bias
c. Very small size
Answer: Option B
Ques 82. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we wish
to measure
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
d) None of the above
Answer: Option a
Ques 83. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………

a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
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c) A wattmeter
Answer: Option B
Ques 84. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
a) Infinite
b) Very large
c) Very low
Answer: Option C
Ques 85. A voltmeter should have ………. Resistance
a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
Answer: Option B
Ques 86. An SCR has …………….. pn junctions
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: Option B
Ques 87. An SCR has ………….. semiconductor layers
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: Option C
Ques 88. An SCR behaves as a ……………. Switch
a) Unidirectional
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b) Bidirectional
c) Mechanical
Answer: Option A
Ques 89. The control element of an SCR is ………….
a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Anode supply
d) Gate
Answer: Option D
Ques 90. An SCR is turned off by …………….
a) Reducing anode voltage to zero

b) Reducing gate voltage to zero
c) Reverse biasing the gate
Answer: Option A
Ques 91. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
a) Exactly zero
b) Small leakage current
c) Large leakage current
Answer: Option B
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Concepts and Tricks to solve General Aptitude Questions
Time and Distance Formulae
1. Speed, Time and Distance

Speed = (Distance/Time)
Time = (Distance/Speed)
Distance = (Speed x Time).
2. km per hr to m per sec conversion x km/hr = (x*5/18) m/sec.

3. m/sec to km/hr conversion x m/sec = (x *18/5) km/hr.
Simple Interest Formulae
SI = Simple Interest; A = Amount; P = Principal; T = Time; R = Rate of interest

SI = (P * T * R) / 100
A = P + SI
P = (100 * A) / (100 + RT)
SI = ART / (100 + RT)
P = (100 * SI) / TR
T = (100 * SI) / PR
R = (100 * SI) / PT
Averages Formulae
1. Average
Average = (Sum of observations/Number of observations)
2. Average Speed
Suppose a man covers a certain distance at X kmph and an equal distance at Y kmph.
Then, the average speed during the whole journey is {2xy/(x+y)} kmph.
Compound Interest Formulae
Compound Interest basic terms
A = Amount
P = Principal
R = Rate of Interest
N = Number of Years
1. Interest Compounded Yearly
Amount (A) = Principal (P) X ( 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 100 )Number of Years (N)
2. Interest Compounded Half-Yearly

Amount (A) = Principal (P) X [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 2 / 100 ]2 X Number of Years (N)
(or) Principal (P) = [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 200 ] 2 X Number of Years (N)
3. Interest Compounded Quarterly

Amount (A) = Principal (P) X [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 4 / 100 ]
(or) Principal (P) [ 1 + Rate of Interest (R) / 400 ] 4 X Number of Years (N)
Profit and Loss Formulae
1. Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.)

2. Loss = (C.P.) - (S.P.)
3. Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P.
4. Gain Percentage = Gain x 100/C.P
5. Loss Percentage = Loss x 100/C.P
6. Selling Price = (100 + Gain %)x C.P/100
7. Selling Price = (100 - Loss %)x C.P/100
8. Cost Price = 100x S.P/(100 + Gain %)
9. Cost Price = 100x S.P/(100 - Loss %)
Permutations and Combinations Formulae
1. Factorial Notation - Let n be a positive integer. Then, factorial n denoted n! is defined as:
n! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... 3.2.1.
2. Number of Permutations - Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time, is given
by:
nPr = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... (n - r + 1) = n!/(n - r)!
3. Then, the number of permutations of these n objects is = n!/(p1!).(p2)!.....(pr!)
4. Number of Combinations - The number of all combinations of n things, taken r at a time is:
nCr = n!/(r!)(n - r)! = n(n - 1)(n - 2) ... to r factors/r!
Probability Formulae
1. Probability Range = 0 = P(A) = 1
2. Rule of Complementary Events = P(AC) + P(A) = 1
3. Rule of Addition = (A or B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(AnB)
4. Disjoint Events
Events A and B are disjoint iff = P(AnB) = 0
5. Conditional Probability = P(A | B) = P(AnB) / P(B)
6. Bayes Formula = P(A | B) = P(B | A) · P(A) / P(B)
7. Independent Events
Events A and B are independent iff = P(AnB) = P(A) · P(B)
8.Cumulative Distribution Function = FX(x) = P(X = x)
Boats and Streams Formulae
1. Speed downstream = (u + v) km/hr.

2. Speed upstream = (u - v) km/hr.
3. Speed in still water = 1(a + b)/2 km/hr.
4. Rate of stream = 1(a - b)/2 km/hr.
Areas Formulae
1. Area of a rectangle = (Length x Breadth).

2. Length = Area/Breadth and Breadth = Area/Length
3. Perimeter of a rectangle = 2(Length + Breadth)
4. Area of a square = (side)2 = 1/2(diagonal)2.
5. Area of 4 walls of a room = 2 (Length + Breadth) x Height
6. Area of a triangle = 1/2x Base x Height.
7. Area of parallelogram = (Base x Height).
8. Area of a rhombus = 1/2x (Product of diagonals).
9. Area of a trapezium = 1/2x (sum of parallel sides) x distance between them.
Problems on LCM and HCF Formulae
1. H.C.F. = H.C.F. of Numerators/L.C.M. of Denominators

2. L.C.M. = L.C.M. of Numerators/H.C.F. of Denominators
Time- Distance and Train Related Questions
Ques 1. Express a speed of 36 kmph in meters per second?

A. 10 mps
B. 12 mps
C. 14 mps
D. 17 mps
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
36 * 5/18 = 10 mps
Ques 2. Express 25 mps in kmph?

A. 15 kmph
B. 99 kmph
C. 90 kmph
D. None
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
25 * 18/5 = 90 kmph
Ques 3. The speed of a train is 90 kmph. What is the distance covered by it in 10

minutes?
A. 15 kmph
B. 12 kmph
C. 10 kmph
D. 5 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
90 * 10/60 = 15 kmph
Ques 4. A car covers a distance of 624 km in 6 ½ hours. Find its speed?

A. 104 kmph
B. 140 kmph
C. 104 mph
D. 10.4 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
624/6 = 104 kmph
Ques 5. In what time will a railway train 60 m long moving at the rate of 36 kmph pass a
telegraph post on its way?
A. 9 sec
B. 8 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 6 sec
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
T = 60/36 * 18/5 = 6 sec
Ques 6. A train 240 m in length crosses a telegraph post in 16 seconds. The speed of the
train is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 52 kmph
C. 54 kmph
D. 56 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
S = 240/16 * 18/5 = 54 kmph
Ques 7. The speed of a car is 90 km in the first hour and 60 km in the second hour. What
is the average speed of the car?
A. 72 kmph
B. 75 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 80 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
S = (90 + 60)/2 = 75 kmph
Ques 8. Walking with 4/5 of my usual speed, I miss the bus by 5 minutes. What is my
usual time?
A. 35 min
B. 30 min
C. 25 min
D. 20 min
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:4/5 = 5:4Time Ratio = 4:51 -------- 5 4 --------- ? è 20
Ques 9. If a man walks to his office at ¾ of his usual rate, he reaches office 1/3 of an hour
late than usual. What is his usual time to reach office?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Speed Ratio = 1:3/4 = 4:3
Time Ratio = 3:4
1 -------- 1/3
3 --------- ? 1 hour
Ques 10. Two cars cover the same distance at the speed of 60 and 64 kmps respectively.
Find the distance traveled by them if the slower car takes 1 hour more than the faster
car.
A. 906 km
B. 960 m
C. 960 km
D. 966 km
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
60(x + 1) = 64x
X = 15
60 * 16 = 960 km
Ques 11. A man leaves a point P at 6 a.m. and reaches the point Q at 10 a.m. another man
leaves the point give at 8 a.m. and reaches the point P at 12 noon. At what time do they
meet?
A. 8 a.m.
B. 8 p.m.
C. 9 a.m.
D. 9 p.m.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
9 a.m.
Ques 12. A thief goes away with a SANTRO car at a speed of 40 kmph. The theft has been
discovered after half an hour and the owner sets off in a bike at 50 kmph when will the
owner over take the thief from the start?
A. 2 hours
B. 2 hours 45 min
C. 2 hours 30 min
D. 2 hours 50 min
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
|-----------20--------------------|
50 40
D = 20
RS = 50 – 40 = 10
T = 20/10 = 2 hours
Ques 13. If I walk at 3 kmph, I miss the train by 2 min, if however, I walk at 4 kmph. I reach
the station 2 min before the arrival of the train. How far do I walk to reach the station?
A. 4/5 km
B. 5/4 km
C. 6/5 km
D. 3/4 km
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
x/3 – x/4 = 4/60
x = 4/5 km
Ques 14. Two trains each 250 m in length are running on the same parallel lines in
opposite directions with the speed of 80 kmph and 70 kmph respectively. In what time
will they cross each other completely?
A. 10 sec
B. 11 sec
C. 12 sec
D. 14 sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 250 m + 250 m = 500 m
RS = 80 + 70 = 150 * 5/18 = 125/3
T = 500 * 3/125 = 12 sec
Ques 15. Two trains of equal length, running with the speeds of 60 and 40 kmph, take 50
seconds to cross each other while they are running in the same direction. What time will
they take to cross each other if they are running in opposite directions?
A. 10 sec
B. 9 sec
C. 8 sec
D. 7 sec
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
RS = 60 -40 = 20 * 5/18 = 100/18
T = 50
D = 50 * 100/18 = 2500/9
RS = 60 + 40 = 100 * 5/18
T = 2500/9 * 18/500 = 10 sec
Ques 16. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the
length of the train?
A. 120 metres
B. 180 metres
C. 324 metres
D. 150 metres
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in
which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr
B. 50 km/hr
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C. 54 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per
hour?
A. 3.6
B. 7.2
C. 8.4
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Ques 19. An aeroplane covers a certain distance at a speed of 240 kmph in 5 hours. To
cover the same distance in 1 hours, it must travel at a speed of:
A. 300 kmph
B. 360 kmph
C. 600 kmph
D. 720 kmph
Answer: Option D
Ques 20. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time
and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the train
lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
A. 100 kmph
B. 110 kmph
C. 120 kmph
D. 130 kmph
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its
average speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by
30 minutes. The duration of the flight is:
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 3 hours
D. 4 hours
Answer: Option A
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Ques 22. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform
in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The
ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the
platform?
A. 120 m
B. 240 m
C. 300 m
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 24. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at
46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The
length of each train is:
A. 50 m
B. 72 m
C. 80 m
D. 82 m
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. If a train, travelling at a speed of 90 kmph, crosses a pole in 5 sec, then the
length of train is?
A. 104 m
B. 125 m
C. 140 m
D. 152 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
D = 90 * 5/18 * 5 = 125 m
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Ques 26. Two trains travelling in the same direction at 40 and 22 kmph completely pass
off another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, what is the length of the
second train?
A. 125 m
B. 150 m
C. 175 m
D. 185 m
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
RS = 40 – 22 = 18 * 5/18 = 5 mps
T = 60 sec
D = 5 * 60 = 300 m
125
--------
175 m
Ques 27. How many seconds will a train 100 meters long take to cross a bridge 150 meters
long if the speed of the train is 36 kmph?
A. 18
B. 22
C. 25
D. 28
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 100 + 150 = 250
S = 36 * 5/18 = 10 mps
T = 250/10 = 25 sec
Ques 28. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a train is 45 kmph and including stoppages it is
36 kmph. Of how many minutes does the train stop per hour?
A. 10 min
B. 11 min
C. 12 min
D. 13 min
Answer: Option C
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Explanation:
T = 9/45 * 60 = 12
Ques 29. A motorcyclist goes from Bombay to Pune, a distance of 192 kms at an average
of 32 kmph speed. Another man starts from Bombay by car 2 ½ hours after the first, and
reaches Pune ½ hour earlier. What is the ratio of the speed of the motorcycle and the
car?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 10:27
D. 5:4
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
T = 192/32 = 6 h
T=6-3=3
Time Ratio = 6:3 = 2:1
Speed Ratio = 1:2
Ques 30. A car after covering ½ of a journey of 100 km develops engine trouble and later
travels at ½ of its original speed. As a result, it arrives 2 hours late than its normal time.
What is the normal speed of the car is?
A. 50 kmph
B. 40 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 25 kmph
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
[50/x + 50/(x/2)] – 100/x = 2
x = 25
Ques 31. A train passes a man standing on the platform. If the train is 170 meters long and
its speed is 72 kmph, how much time it took in doing so?
A. 10 ½ sec
B. 9 ½ sec
C. 8 ¾ sec
D. 8 ½ sec
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
D = 170
S = 72 * 5/18 = 20 mps
T = 170/20 = 8 ½ sec
Ques 32. A train 540 meters long is running with a speed of 54 kmph. The time taken by it
to cross a tunnel 180 meters long is?
A. 40 sec
B. 44 sec
C. 48 sec
D. 52 sec
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
D = 540 + 180 = 720
S = 54 * 5/18 = 15 mps
T = 720/15 = 48 sec
Ques 33. Two trains are moving at 50 kmph and 70 kmph in opposite directions. Their
lengths are 150 m and 100 m respectively. The time they will take to pass each other
completely is?
A. 3 sec
B. 4 ½ sec
C. 5 sec
D. 7 ½ sec
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
70 + 50 = 120 * 5/18 = 100/3 mps
D = 150 + 100 = 250 m
T = 250 * 3/100 = 15/2 = 7 ½ sec
Ques 34. Convert the 13/36 m/s into kilometers per hour?
A. 1.5
B. 1.2
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. None of these
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
13/36 m/s = 13/36 * 18/5 = 13/10 = 1.3 kmph.
Ques 35. If a man can cover 12 metres in one second, how many kilometres can he cover
in 3 hours 45 minutes?
A. 168
B. 162
C. 150
D. 156
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
12 m/s = 12 * 18/5 kmph
3 hours 45 minutes = 3 3/4 hours = 15/4 hours
Distance = speed * time = 12 * 18/5 * 15/4 km = 162 km.
Ques 36. In a kilometer race, A beats B by 50 meters or 10 seconds. What time does A
take to complete the race?
A. 200 sec
B. 190 sec
C. 210 sec
D. 150 sec
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Time taken by B run 1000 meters = (1000 * 10)/50 = 200 sec.
Time taken by A = 200 - 10 = 190 sec.
Ques 37. A can give B 100 meters start and C 200 meters start in a kilometer race. How
much start can B give C in a kilometer race?
A. 111.12 m
B. 888.88 m
C. 777.52 m
D. 756.34 m
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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A runs 1000 m while B runs 900 m and C runs 800 m.
The number of meters that C runs when B runs 1000 m,
= (1000 * 800)/900 = 8000/9 = 888.88 m.
B can give C = 1000 - 888.88 = 111.12 m.
Ques 38. A can run a kilometer race in 4 1/2 min while B can run same race in 5 min. How
many meters start can A give B in a kilometer race, so that the race mat end in a dead
heat?
A. 150 m
B. 125 m
C. 130 m
D. 100 m
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A can give B (5 min - 4 1/2 min) = 30 sec start.
The distance covered by B in 5 min = 1000 m.
Distance covered in 30 sec = (1000 * 30)/300 = 100 m.
A can give B 100m start.
Ques 39. In a race of 1000 m, A can beat by 100 m, in a race of 800m, B can beat C by
100m. By how many meters will A beat C in a race of 600 m?
A. 57.5 m
B. 127.5 m
C. 150.7 m
D. 98.6 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
When A runs 1000 m, B runs 900 m and when B runs 800 m, C runs 700 m.
When B runs 900 m, distance that C runs = (900 * 700)/800 = 6300/8 = 787.5 m.
In a race of 1000 m, A beats C by (1000 - 787.5) = 212.5 m to C.
In a race of 600 m, the number of meters by which A beats C = (600 * 212.5)/1000 =
127.5 m.
Ques 40. In a game of billiards, A can give B 20 points in 60 and he can give C 30 points in
60. How many points can B give C in a game of 100?
A. 50
B. 40
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C. 25
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A scores 60 while B score 40 and C scores 30.
The number of points that C scores when B scores 100 = (100 * 30)/40 = 25 * 3 = 75.
In a game of 100 points, B gives (100 - 75) = 25 points to C.
Ques 41. In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B's time over the course is:
A. 86 sec
B. 80 sec
C. 76 sec
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 42. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race,
A can beat C by:
A. 21 m
B. 26 m
C. 28 m
D. 29 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 43. If in a game of 80, P can give 16 points to Q and R can give 20 points to P, then in
a game of 150, how many points can R give to Q?
A. 48
B. 60
C. 54
D. 90
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. If X can run 48m and Y 42m, then in a race of 1km, X beats Y by:
A. 140m
B. 125m
C. 100
D. 110m
Answer: Option B
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Time & Work Related Questions
Ques 1. A and B complete a work in 6 days. A alone can do it in 10 days. If both together
can do the work in how many days?
A. 3.75 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1/6 + 1/10 = 8/30 = 4/15
15/4 = 3.75 days
Ques 2. A and B together can do a piece of work in 8 days. If A alone can do the same
work in 12 days, then B alone can do the same work in?
A. 20 days
B. 16 days
C. 24 days
D. 28 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
B = 1/8 – 1/2 = 1/24 => 24 days
Ques 3. A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B can do it in 5 days. With the assistance of C
they completed the work in 2 days. Find in how many days can C alone do it?
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 5 days
D. 4 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
C = 1/2 - 1/4 - 1/5 = 1/20 => 20 days
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Ques 4. A and B can do a piece of work in 6 2/3 days and 5 days respectively. They work
together for 2 days and then A leaves. In how many days after that B will complete the
work alone.
A. 2 days
B. 1 ½ days
C. 3 days
D. 3 ½ days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3/20 * 2 + (2 + x)/5 = 1
x = 1 ½ days
Ques 5. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He works at it for 5 days and then B finishes
it in 20 days. In what time can A and B together it?
A. 16 2/3 days
B. 13 1/3 days
C. 17 1/3 days
D. 16 1/2 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5/30 + 20/x = 1
x = 24
1/30 + 1/24 = 3/40
40/3 = 13 1/3 days
Ques 6. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days and 16 days respectively. Both work
for 3 days and then A goes away. Find how long will B take to complete the remaining
work?
A. 15 days
B. 12 days
C. 10 days
D. 9 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
3/12 + (3 + x)/16 = 1
x = 9 days
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Ques 7. A and B can do a piece of work in 3 days, B and C in 4 days, C and A in 6 days.
How long will C take to do it?
A. 18 days
B. 20 days
C. 24 days
D. 30 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
2c = ¼ + 1/6 – 1/3 = 1/12
c = 1/24 => 24 days
Ques 8. A can do a piece of work in 40 days; B can do the same in 30 days. A started
alone but left the work after 10 days, then B worked at it for 10 days. C finished the
remaining work in 10 days. C alone can do the whole work in?
A. 24 days
B. 30 days
C. 44 days
D. 17 1/2 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
10/40 + 10/30 + 10/x = 1
x = 24 days
Ques 9. A work which could be finished in 9 days was finished 3 days earlier after 10
more men joined. The number of men employed was?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x ------- 9
(x + 10) ---- 6
x * 9 = (x + 10)6
x = 20
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Ques 10. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 24, 30 and 40 days respectively. They start
the work together but C leaves 4 days before the completion of the work. In how many
days is the work done?
A. 15 days
B. 14 days
C. 13 days
D. 11 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
x/24 + x/30 + x/40 = 1
x = 11 days
Ques 11. A is thrice as efficient as B and is, therefore, able to finish a piece of work 10 days
earlier than B. In how many days A and B will finish it together?
A. 3 1/2 days
B. 3 4/5 days
C. 3 days
D. 5 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
WC = 3:1
WT = 1:3
x 3x
1/x – 1/3x = 1/10
x = 20/3
3/20 + 1/20 = 1/5 5 days
Ques 12. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 7 days, 14 days and 28 days respectively.
How long will they taken, if all the three work together?
A. 3 days
B. 4 days
C. 5 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1/7 + 1/14 + 1/28 = 7/28 = 1/4 => 4 days
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Ques 13. After working for 6 days, Ashok finds that only 1/3 rd of the work has been done.
He employs Ravi who is 60% as efficient as Ashok. How many days more would Ravi take
to complete the work?
A. 19 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 12 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1/3 ---- 6
1 -------? A = 18
R = 1/18 * 60/100 = 1/30
1 ----- 1/30
2/3 ----? 20 days
Ques 14. A is twice as good a work man as B and together they finish the work in 14 days.
In how many days A alone can finish the work?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/14 => x = 1/42
2x = 1/21
A can do the work in 21 days.
Ques 15. A, B and C can do a work in 6, 8 and 12 days respectively doing the work
together and get a payment of Rs.1800. What is B’s share?
A. Rs.600
B. Rs.450
C. Rs.300
D. Rs.500
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
WC = 1/6:1/8:1/12 4:3:2
3/9 * 1800 = 600
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Ques 16. 5 men and 12 boys finish a piece of work in 4 days, 7 men and 6 boys do it in 5
days. The ratio between the efficiencies of a man and boy is?
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 2:3
D. 6:5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
5M + 12B ----- 4 days
7M + 6B ------- 5 days
20M + 48B = 35M + 30B
18B = 15M 5M = 6B
M: B = 6:5
Ques 17. 9 men and 12 boys finish a job in 12 days, 12 men and 12 boys finish it in 10
days. 10 men and 10 boys shall finish it in how many days?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
9M + 12B ----- 12 days
12M + 12B ------- 10 days
10M + 10B -------?
108M + 144B = 120M +120B
24B = 12M => 1M = 2B
18B + 12B = 30B ---- 12 days
20B + 10B = 30B -----? => 12 days
Ques 18. If 12 men do a work in 80 days, in how many days will 16 men do it?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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B = 1/16 – 1/24 = 1/48 => 48 days
Ques 19. A and B can do a piece of work in 8 days. B and C can do it in 12 days and A and C
in 16 days. Working together they will complete the work in how many days?
A. 14.76 days
B. 12.2 days
C. 9.48 days
D. 7.38 days
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A + B = 1/8
B + C = 1/12
C + A = 1/16
-------------------------------
2(A + B +C) = 1/8 + 1/12 + 1/16 = 13/48
A + B +C = 13/96
96/13 = 7.38 days
Ques 20. Two men and three women working 7 hours a day finish a work in 5 days. Four
men and four women working 3 hours a day complete the work in 7 days. The number
of days in which only 7 men working 4 hours a day will finish the work is?
A. 5 days
B. 6 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2M + 3W ----- 35 h
4M + 4W ------- 21 h
7M -------? d
70M + 105W = 84M +84M
21W = 14M => 2M = 3W
4 * 35 = 7 * x x = 20 hours
20/4 = 5 days
Ques 21. 3 men or 6 women can do a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days will 12
men and 8 women do the same work?
A. 7/2
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B. 15/4
C. 5
D. 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3M = 6W ---- 20 days
12M + 8W -----?
24W + 8 W = 32W ---?
6W ---- 20 32 -----?
6 * 20 = 32 * x => x = 15/4 days
Ques 22. A is twice as good a workman as B and they took 7 days together to do the work
B alone can do it in.
A. 12 days
B. 18 days
C. 21 days
D. 27 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
WC = 2:1
2x + x = 1/7
x = 1/21 21 days
Ques 23. A does half as much work as B in three –fourth of the time if together they take
18 days to complete a work. How much time shall B take to do it?
A. 30days
B. 35 days
C. 40 days
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
B takes x days to do the work
Therefore, A takes (2 × 3/4x)i.e.., 3x/2 days to do it
Now , (A +B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/18
Therefore, 1/x + 2/3x = 1/18 or x =30.
Ques 24. 12 Men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days. The number of days that 8 men
and 16 women will take to reap it?
A. 5
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B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
12 men = 18 women or 1 man = 3/2 women
Therefore 8 men + 16 women = (8 × 3/2 + 16) women i.e.., 28 women
Now 18 women can reap the field in 14 days
Therefore, 28 women can reap it in = 9 days
Ques 25. 10 men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. Whereas it takes 12 women to
finish it in 10 days if 15 men and 6 women undertake to complete the work. How many
days will they take to complete it?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 11
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10 men = 12 women or 1 man = 6/5 women
Therefore 15 men + 6 women = (15 x 6/5 +6)women i.e,, 24 women
Now 12 women can do the work in 10 days
Therefore, 24 women can do it in = 5 days
Ques 26. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how
many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days
Answer: Option B
Ques 27. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B
undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days.
How much is to be paid to C?
A. Rs. 375
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800
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Answer: Option B
Ques 28. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women
can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
A. 35
B. 40
C. 45
D. 50
Answer: Option B
Ques 29. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the
same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a
woman?
A. 3 : 4
B. 4 : 3
C. 5 : 3
D. Data inadequate
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. 8 Children and 12 men complete a certain piece of work in 9 days. If each child
takes twice the time taken by man to finish the work. In how many days will 12 men
finish the same work?
A. 8
B. 15
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2 children = 1 man
Therefore (8 children +12 men) = 16 men
Now less men more days 12: 16 : : 9 : x
Therefore, x = (144/12) = 12 days
Ratios
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Ques 1. 1: 3 = 1 2/3: x. The value of x is?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4 1/6
D. 5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
x * 1 = 3 * 5/3
x=5
Ques 2. What number has a 5:1 ratio to the number 10?

A. 42
B. 50
C. 55
D. 62
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5:1 = x: 10
x = 50
Ques 3. If a: b = 7: 5, b: c = 9: 11, find a: b: c?

A. 63: 14: 55
B. 63: 45: 55
C. 14: 14: 15
D. 7: 14: 15
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
a: b = 7: 5
b: c = 9: 11
a: b: c = 63: 45: 55
Ques 4. If a: b = 3:4, b:c = 7:9, c:d = 5:7, find a:d?

A. 5:12
B. 7:12
C. 3:11
D. 5:11
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
a/d = (3/4)*(7/9)*(5/7) => 5/12
Ques 5. The inverse ratio of 3: 2: 1 is?

A. 1:2:3
B. 2:3:1
C. 3:1:2
D. 2:3:6
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1/3: 1/2: 1/1 = 2:3:6
Ques 6. The duplicate ratio of 3:4 is?

A. 4:3
B. 6:8
C. 9:16
D. 3:4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
32: 42 = 9:16
Ques 7. The triplicate ratio of 1:2 is?

A. 8:1
B. 1:8
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13: 23 = 1:8
Ques 8. The greatest ratio out of 2:3, 5:4, 3:2 and 4:5 is?
A. 4:5
B. 3:2
C. 5:4
D. 2:3
Answer: Option B
Ques 9. The smallest ratio out of 1:1, 2:1, 1:3 and 3:1 is?
A. 3:1
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B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 1:2
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. The proportion of copper and zinc in the brass is 13:7. How much zinc will there
be in 100 kg of brass?
A. 20 kg
B. 35 kg
C. 55 kg
D. 14 kg
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
7/20 * 100 = 35
Ques 11. The ratio of two numbers is 2:3 and the sum of their cubes is 945. The difference
of number is?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2x 3x
8x cube + 27x cube = 945
35x cube = 945
x cube = 27 => x = 3
Ques 12. The ratio of the number of ladies to gents at a party was 1:2 but when 2 ladies
and 2 gents left, the ratio became 1:3. How many people were at the party originally?
A. 36
B. 24
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
x, 2x
(x-2):(2x-2) = 1:3
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3x-6 = 2x-2
x=4
x+2x = 3x
=> 3*4 = 12
Ques 13. The first three terms of a proportion are 3, 9 and 12. The fourth term is?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 18
D. 36
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
(9*12)/3 = 36
Ques 14. 96 is divided into two parts in such a way that seventh part of first and ninth part
of second are equal. Find the smallest part?
A. 38
B. 40
C. 42
D. 48
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
x/7 = y/9 x:y = 7:9
7/16 * 96 = 42
Ques 15. A 70 cm long wire is to be cut into two pieces so that one piece will be 2/5th of
the other, how many centimeters will the shorter piece be?
A. 10cm
B. 20cm
C. 25cm
D. 30cm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1: 2/5 = 5: 2
2/7 * 70 = 20
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Ques 16. 1000 men have provisions for 15 days. If 200 more men join them, for how many
days will the provisions last now?
A. 10.5
B. 11.5
C. 12.5
D. 10.4
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1000*15 = 1200*x
x = 12.5
Ques 17. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had
partnered for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of
their investments?
A. 5 : 7 : 8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. A garrison of 400 men had a provision for 31 days. After 28 days 280 persons re-
enforcement leave the garrison. Find the number of days for which the remaining ration
will be sufficient?
A. 3 days
B. 8 days
C. 10 days
D. 6 days
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
400 --- 31
400 --- 3
120 --- ?
400*3 = 120*x => x =10 days
Ques 19. An amount of money is to be divided between P, Q and R in the ratio of 3:7:12. If
the difference between the shares of P and Q is Rs.2400, what will be the difference
between Q and R's share?
A. Rs.2800
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B. Rs.3000
C. Rs.2400
D. Rs.3200
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4 --- 2000
5 --- ? => 3000
Ques 20. A, B and C play a cricket match. The ratio of the runs scored by them in the
match is A:B = 2:3 and B:C = 2:5. If the total runs scored by all of them are 75, the runs
scored by B are?
A. 15
B. 18
C. 21
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A:B = 2:3
B:C = 2:5
A:B:C = 4:6:15
6/25 * 75 = 18
Ques 21. A share is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that for each rupee X gets, Y
gets 45 paisa and Z gets 30 paisa. If the share of Y is RS. 27, what is the total amount?
A. Rs.90
B. Rs.105
C. Rs.96
D. Rs.120
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x:y:z = 100:45:30
20:9:6
9 --- 27
35 --- ? => 105
Ques 22. Rs.160 contained in a box consists of one rupee, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins in
the ratio 4:5:6. What is the number of 25 paisa coins?
A. 100
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B. 115
C. 120
D. 110
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4x 5x 6x
100 50 25
400x + 350x + 150x = 16000
x = 20
6x = 120
Ques 23. A vessel contains 20 liters of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. 10 liters
of the mixture are removed and replaced with an equal quantity of pure milk. If the
process is repeated once more, find the ratio of milk and water in the final mixture
obtained?
A. 9:1
B. 4:7
C. 7:1
D. 2:5
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Milk = 3/5 * 20 = 12 liters, water = 8 liters
If 10 liters of mixture are removed, amount of milk removed = 6 liters and amount of
water removed = 4 liters.
Remaining milk = 12 - 6 = 6 liters
Remaining water = 8 - 4 = 4 liters
10 liters of pure milk are added, therefore total milk = (6 + 10) = 16 liters.
The ratio of milk and water in the new mixture = 16:4 = 4:1
If the process is repeated one more time and 10 liters of the mixture are removed, then
amount of milk removed = 4/5 * 10 = 8 liters.
Amount of water removed = 2 liters.
Remaining milk = (16 - 8) = 8 liters.
Remaining water = (4 -2) = 2 liters.
The required ratio of milk and water in the final mixture obtained = (8 + 10):2 = 18:2 =
9:1.
Ques 24. In what ratio should two varieties of sugar of Rs.18 per kg and Rs.24 kg be mixed
together to get a mixture whose cost is Rs.20 per kg?
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A. 1:3
B. 3:1
C. 1:2
D. 2:1
Answer: Option D
Ques 25. How many liters of oil at Rs.40 per liter should be mixed with 240 liters of a
second variety of oil at Rs.60 per liter so as to get a mixture whose cost is Rs.52 per
liter?
A. 120 liters
B. 180 liters
C. 110 liters
D. 160 liters
Answer: Option D
Ques 26. Two varieties of wheat - A and B costing Rs. 9 per kg and Rs. 15 per kg were
mixed in the ratio 3 : 7. If 5 kg of the mixture is sold at 25% profit, find the profit made?
A. Rs. 13.50
B. Rs. 14.50
C. Rs. 15.50
D. Rs. 16.50
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the quantities of A and B mixed be 3x kg and 7x kg.
Cost of 3x kg of A = 9(3x) = Rs. 27x
Cost of 7x kg of B = 15(7x) = Rs. 105x
Cost of 10x kg of the mixture = 27x + 105x = Rs. 132x
Cost of 5 kg of the mixture = 132x/10x (5) = Rs. 66
Profit made in selling 5 kg of the mixture = 25/100 (cost of 5 kg of the mixture) = 25/100
* 66 = Rs. 16.50
Ques 27. The marks obtained by Vijay and Amith are in the ratio 4:5 and those obtained
by Amith and Abhishek in the ratio of 3:2. The marks obtained by Vijay and Abhishek are
in the ratio of?
A. 2:1
B. 5:3
C. 6:5
D. 5:6
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4:5
3:2
-------
12:15:10
12:10
6:5
Simple & Compound Interests
Ques 1. Find the principle on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 2/5 years if
the amount being Rs.1120?
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.1100
C. Rs.1050
D. Rs.1200
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1120 = P [1 + (5*12/5)/100]
P= 1000
Ques 2. What sum of money will produce Rs.70 as simple interest in 4 years at 3 1/2
percent?
A. Rs.525
B. Rs.500
C. Rs.550
D. Rs.555
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
70 = (P*4*7/2)/100
P = 500
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Ques 3. At what rate percent on simple interest will Rs.750 amount to Rs.900 in 5 years?
A. 5%
B. 3 1/2%
C. 4%
D. 5 1/2 %
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
150 = (750*5*R)/100
R = 4%
Ques 4. What is the rate percent when the simple interest on Rs.800 amount to Rs.160 in
4 Years?
A. 5%
B. 6%
C. 4 1/2%
D. 3 1/2 %
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
160 = (180*4*R)/100
R = 5%
Ques 5. Find the simple interest on Rs.500 for 9 months at 6 paisa per month?
A. Rs.345
B. Rs.270
C. Rs.275
D. Rs.324
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
I = (500*9*6)/100 = 270
Ques 6. A certain sum amounts to Rs.1725 in 3 years and Rs.1875 in 5 years. Find the
rate % per annum?
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 4%
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
3 --- 1725
5 --- 1875
--------------
2 --- 150
N = 1 I = 75 R = ?
P = 1725 - 225 = 1500
75 = (1500*1*R)/100
R = 5%
Ques 7. At what rate percent on simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 30
years?
A. 3 1/3 %
B. 3 1/2%
C. 4 %
D. 4 1/2 %
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P = (P*30*R)/100
R = 3 1/3%
Ques 8. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounted Rs.840 in 10 years at 3%

per annum, find the sum?
A. Rs.500
B. Rs.515
C. Rs.525
D. None
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
840 = P [1 + (10*3)/100]
P = 646
Ques 9. In what time a sum of money double itself at 3% per annum simple interest?
A. 29 years
B. 33 1/3 years
C. 23 1/3 years
D. 13 1/3 years
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
P = (P*3*R)/100
R = 33 1/3%
Ques 10. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs.600 after 10 years. If the
principal is trebled after 5 years what will be the total interest at the end of the tenth
year?
A. Rs.800
B. Rs.900
C. Rs.1200
D. Rs.1500
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
P --- 10 ---- 600
P --- 5 ----- 300
3P --- 5 ----- 900
------
=> 1200
Ques 11. Sonika deposited Rs.8000 which amounted to Rs.9200 after 3 years at simple
interest. Had the interest been 2% more. She would get how much?
A. Rs.9680
B. Rs.9860
C. Rs.9380
D. Rs.9800
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(8000*3*2)/100 = 480
9200
--------
9680
Ques 12. If Re.1 amounts to Rs.9 over a period of 20 years. What is the rate of simple
interest?
A. 26 2/3 %
B. 30 %
C. 27 1/2%
D. 40 %
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
8 = (1*20*R)/100
R = 40%
Ques 13. 4000 was divided into two parts such a way that when first part was invested at
3% and the second at 5%, the whole annual interest from both the investments is
Rs.144, how much was put at 3%?
A. Rs.2500
B. Rs.2700
C. Rs.2800
D. Rs.5000
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
(x*3*1)/100 + [(4000 - x)*5*1]/100 = 144
3x/100 + 200 – 5x/100 = 144
2x/100 = 56 x = 2800
Ques 14. A certain sum of money doubles itself in 10 years in how much many years will it
trible itself at the same rate?
A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 30 years
D. 17 1/2 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
100 ---- 100 --- 10
100 --- 10
--------------------
300 ---- 20 years
Ques 15. The simple interest on a sum of money is 4/9 of the principal and the number of
years is equal to the rate percent. Find the rate and the time?
A. 6 2/3 years; 6 2/3 %
B. 5 1/3 years; 5 1/3 %
C. 4 2/3 years; 4 2/3 %
D. None
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
4/9 P = (P*R*R)/100
R = 20/3 = 6 2/3%
Ques 16. In what time will Rs.4000 lent at 3% per annum on simple interest earn as much
interest as Rs.5000 will earn in 5 years at 4% per annum on simple interest?
A. 8 1/3 years
B. 9 years
C. 7 1/2 years
D. 7 1/3 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(4000*3*R)/100 = (5000*5*4)/100
R = 8 1/3
Ques 17. In how many years will a sum of money doubles itself at 5% per annum on
simple interest?
A. 22 years
B. 20 years
C. 21 years
D. 29 years
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
P = (P*5*R)/100
R = 20%
Ques 18. A sum of money becomes triple itself in 5 years at simple interest. How many
years will it become six times at the same rate?
A. 12 1/2 years
B. 12 years
C. 11 1/2 years
D. 11 years
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
100 ---- 200 ---- 5
200 ---- 5
100 ---- 2 1/2
------------------
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600 ---- 12 ½ years
Ques 19. A sum of money becomes double itself in 8 years at simple interest. How many
times will it become 10 years at the same rate?
A. 2 ¼
B. 4 ¼
C. 5 ¼
D. None
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P ---- 2P ---- 8 years
2 1/4 P ---- 10 years
Ques 20. A part of certain sum of money is invested at 9% per annum and the rest at 12%
per annum, if the interest earned in each case for the same period is equal, then ratio of
the sums invested is?
A. 2:3
B. 3:4
C. 4:3
D. None
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
12:9
= 4:3
Ques 21. The equal amounts of money are deposited in two banks each at 15% per annum
for 3.5 years and 5 years respectively. If the difference between their interests is Rs.144,
find the each sum?
A. Rs.3467
B. Rs.640
C. Rs.500
D. None
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
(P*5*15)/100 - (P*3.5*15)/100 = 144
75P/100 – 52.5P/100 = 144
22.5P = 144 * 100
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P = Rs.640
Ques 22. Find the compound interest and the amount on Rs.8000 at 5% per annum for 3
years when C.I is reckoned yearly?
A. Rs.1261
B. Rs.1440
C. Rs.1185
D. Rs.1346
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A = 8000(21/20)3
= 9261
= 8000
---------
1261
Ques 23. If Rs.7500 are borrowed at C.I at the rate of 4% per annum, then after 2 years
the amount to be paid is?
A. Rs.8082
B. Rs.7800
C. Rs.8100
D. Rs.8112
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
A = 7500(26/25)2 = 8112
Ques 24. Rs.8000 become Rs.9261 in a certain interval of time at the rate of 5% per
annum of C.I. Find the time?
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
9261 = 8000(21/20)N
(21/20)3 = (21/20)N => N = 3
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Ques 25. At the end of three years what will be the compound interest at the rate of 10%
p.a. on an amount of Rs.20000?
A. Rs.6620
B. Rs.6500
C. Rs.6800
D. Rs.6400
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A = 20000(11/10)3
= 26620
= 20000
----------
6620
Ques 26. The difference between compound and simple interest on a certain sum of
money for 3 years at 6 2/3% p.a is Rs.184. Find the sum?
A. Rs.12000
B. Rs.14200
C. Rs.17520
D. Rs.13500
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P = (184*106) / [6 2/3 * 6 2/3 *(300*6 2/3)]
P = 13500
Ques 27. A sum of money is put out at compound interest for 2 years at 20%. It would
fetch Rs.482 more if the interest were payable half-yearly, then it were pay able yearly.
Find the sum.
A. Rs.4000
B. Rs.1000
C. Rs.1250
D. Rs.2000
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P(11/10)4 - P(6/5)2 = 482
P = 2000
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Ques 28. Find the sum The difference between the compound and S.I. on a certain sum of
money for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs.15of money?
A. 1500
B. 1800
C. 2100
D. 1950
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
P = 15(100/10)2 => P = 1500
Ques 29. What sum of money put at C.I amounts in 2 years to Rs.8820 and in 3 years to
Rs.9261?
A. Rs.8000
B. Rs.8400
C. Rs.7500
D. None
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
8820 ---- 441
100 ---- ? 5%
x *105/100 * 105/100 = 8820
x*1.1025=8820
x=8820/1.1025 => 8000
Ques 30. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually
on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
A. 625
B. 630
C. 640
D. 650
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be
the compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
A. Rs. 2160
B. Rs. 3120
C. Rs. 3972
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D. Rs. 6240
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. What amount does Kiran get if he invests Rs.8000 at 10% p.a. compound interest
for two years, compounding done annually?
A. Rs.9630
B. Rs.9680
C. Rs.9610
D. Rs.9650
E. None of these
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
A= P{1 + R/100}n
=> 8000{1 + 10/100}2 = Rs.9680
Ques 33. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854
in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650
B. Rs. 690
C. Rs. 698
D. Rs. 700
Answer: Option C
Ques 34. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes
A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total
amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested
in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 35. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs. 4016.25 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5
years. What is the sum?
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A. Rs. 4462.50
B. Rs. 8032.50
C. Rs. 8900
D. Rs. 8925
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 36. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at
4.5% per annum of simple interest?
A. 3.5 years
B. 4 years
C. 4.5 years
D. 5 years
Answer: Option B
Ques 37. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate
of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the
rate of interest?
A. 3.6
B. 6
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 38. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same
rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 39. The compound interest earned by Sunil on a certain amount at the end of two
years at the rate of 8% p.a. was Rs.2828.80. Find the total amount that Sunil got back at
the end of two years in the form of principal plus interest earned.
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A. Rs.18,828.80
B. Rs.19,828.80
C. Rs.18,028.80
D. Rs.17,828.80
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the sum be Rs.P
P{ [ 1 + 8/100]2 - 1 } = 2828.80
P(8/100)(2 + 8/100) = 2828.80 [a2 - b2 = (a - b) ( a + b)] P = 2828.80 / (0.08)(2.08) =
1360/0.08 = 17000 Principal + Interest = Rs. 19828.80
Averages
Ques 1. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of first six is 10.5 and that of
the last six is 11.4 the sixth number is?
A. 11.0
B. 11.3
C. 11.4
D. 11.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
1 to 11 = 11 * 10.9 = 119.9
1 to 6 = 6 * 10.5 = 63
6 to 11 = 6 * 11.4 = 68.4
63 + 68.4 = 131.4 – 119.9 = 11.5
Ques 2. The average of first ten prime numbers which are odd is?
A. 12.9
B. 13.8
C. 17
D. 15.8
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sum of first 10 prime no. which are odd = 158
Average = 158/10 = 15.8
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Ques 3. The average of first 10 natural numbers is?
A. 5
B. 5.5
C. 6.5
D. 6
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sum of 10 natural no. = 110/2 = 55
Average = 55/10 = 5.5
Ques 4. The average of first 10 odd numbers is?

A. 11
B. 10
C. 17
D. 9
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Sum of 10 odd no. = 100
Average = 100/10 = 10
Ques 5. The average age of three boys is 15 years and their ages are in proportion 3:5:7.
What is the age in years of the youngest boy?
A. 15
B. 9
C. 18
D. 21
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3x + 5x + 7x = 45
x =3
3x = 9
Ques 6. The average of 1st 3 of 4 numbers is 16 and of the last 3 are 15. If the sum of the
first and the last number is 13. What is the last numbers?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 5
D. 2
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A + B + C = 48
B + C + D = 45
A + D = 13
A–D= 3
A + D = 13
2D = 10
D=5
Ques 7. The average of 9 observations was 9, that of the 1st of 5 being 10 and that of the
last 5 being 8. What was the 5th observation?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
1 to 9 = 9 * 9 = 81
1 to 5 = 5 * 10 = 50
5 to 9 = 5 * 8 = 40
5th = 50 + 40 = 90 – 81 = 9
Ques 8. The average of 10 numbers is calculated as 15. It is discovered later on that while
calculating the average, one number namely 36 was wrongly read as 26. The correct
average is?
A. 12.4
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18.6
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10 * 15 + 36 – 26 = 160/10 = 16
Ques 9. The average age of 8 men increases by 2 years when two women are included in
place of two men of ages 20 and 24 years. Find the average age of the women?
A. 36 years
B. 24 years
C. 30 years
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D. 18 years
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20 + 24 + 8 * 2 = 60/2 = 30
Ques 10. The average salary of workers in an industry is Rs.200 the average salary of
technicians being Rs.400 and that of non-technicians being Rs.125. What is the total
number of workers?
A. 250
B. 275
C. 550
D. 400
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. A team of eight entered for a shooting competition. The best marks man scored
85 points. If he had scored 92 points, the average scores for. The team would have been
84. How many points altogether did the team score?
A. 625
B. 665
C. 632
D. 656
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8 * 84 = 672 – 7 = 665
Ques 12. The average of 13 numbers is 60. Average of the first 7 of them is 57 and that of
the last 7 is 61. Find the 8th number?
A. 46
B. 32
C. 68
D. 51
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Sum of all the 13 numbers = 13 * 60 = 780
Sum of the first 7 of them = 7 * 57 = 399
Sum of the last 7 of them = 7 * 61 = 427
So, the 8th number = 427 + 399 - 780 = 46.
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Ques 13. A batsman makes a score of 64 runs in the 16th innings and thus increased his
average by 3. Find his average after the 16th inning?
A. 17
B. 29
C. 18
D. 19
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the average after the 16th inning be P.
So, the average after the 15th inning will be (P-3) Hence, 15(P-30) + 64 = 16P => P = 19.
Ques 14. The average marks of a class of 30 students is 40 and that of another class of 50
students is 60. Find the average marks of all the students?
A. 50
B. 47.5
C. 59
D. 52.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sum of the marks for the class of 30 students = 30 * 40 = 1200
Sum of the marks for the class of 50 students = 50 * 60 = 3000
Sum of the marks for the class of 80 students =
1200 + 3000 = 4200
Average marks of all the students = 4200/80 = 52.5
Ques 15. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be
greater than zero?
A. 0
B. 1
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C. 10
D. 19
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be
the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes
in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg
B. 76.5 kg
C. 85 kg
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 19. The average salary of a person for the months of January, February, March and
April is Rs.8000 and that for the months February, March, April and May is Rs.8500. If his
salary for the month of May is Rs.6500, find his salary for the month of January?
A. 3000
B. 2500
C. 4500
D. 5000
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Sum of the salaries of the person for the months of January, February, March and April =
4 * 8000 = 32000 ----(1)
Sum of the salaries of the person for the months of February, March, April and May = 4 *
8500 = 34000 ----(2)
(2)-(1) i.e. May - Jan = 2000
Salary of May is Rs.6500
Salary of January = Rs.4500
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Profit, Loss & Percentage
Ques 1. A cycle is bought for Rs.900 and sold for Rs.1080, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 20%
C. 18%
D. 25%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
900 ---- 180
100 ---- ? 20%
Ques 2. An article is bought for Rs.675 and sold for Rs.900, find the gain percent?
A. 16 2/3%
B. 30%
C. 33 1/3%
D. 33 1/6%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
675 ---- 225
100 ---- ? 33 1/3%
Ques 3. An article is bought for Rs.600 and sold for Rs.500, find the loss percent?
A. 16 4/3%
B. 100/3%
C. 16%
D. 16 2/3%
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
600 ---- 100
100 ---- ? => 16 2/3%
Ques 4. A watch was sold at a loss of 10%. If it was sold for Rs.140 more, there would
have been a gain of 4%. What is the cost price?
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A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.1140
C. Rs.860
D. Rs.760
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
90%
104%
--------
14% ---- 140
100% ---- ? Rs.1000
Ques 5. The sale price sarees listed for Rs.400 after successive discount is 10% and 5% is?
A. Rs.357
B. Rs.340
C. Rs.342
D. Rs.338
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
400*(90/100)*(95/100) = 342
Ques 6. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the
profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but
the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is
the profit?
A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%
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Answer: Option B
Ques 8. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to
gain 20%?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more
than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by
them are:
A. 39, 30
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33
D. 43, 34
Answer: Option C
Ques 10. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples
Answer: Option D
Ques 11. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?
A. 1
B. 14
C. 20
D. 21
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. The list price of an article is Rs.65. A customer pays Rs.56.16 for it. He was given
two successive discounts, one of them being 10%. The other discount is?
A. 3%
B. 4%
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C. 5%
D. 6%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
65*(90/100)*((100-x)/100) = 56.16
x = 4%
Ques 13. A single discount equivalent to the discount series of 20%, 10% and 5% is?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 31.6%
D. 33.5%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
100*(80/100)*(90/100)*(95/100) = 68.4
100 - 68.4 = 31.6
Ques 14. What profit percent is made by selling an article at a certain price, if by selling at
2/3rd of that price, there would be a loss of 20%?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 13 1/30%
D. 12%
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
SP 2 = 2/3 SP 1
CP = 100
SP 2 = 80
2/3 SP 1 = 80
SP 1 = 120
100 --- 20 20%
Ques 15. A trader bought a car at 20% discount on its original price. He sold it at a 40%
increase on the price he bought it. What percent of profit did he make on the original
price?
A. 10%
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B. 11%
C. 12%
D. 15%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Original price = 100
CP = 80
S = 80*(140/100) = 112
100 - 112 = 12%
Ques 16. A man sells a horse for Rs.800 and loses something, if he had sold it for Rs.980,
his gain would have been double the former loss. Find the cost price of the horse?
A. Rs.900
B. Rs.875
C. Rs.850
D. Rs.860
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
CP = SP + 1CP = SP - g
800 + x = 980 - 2x
3x = 180 x = 60
CP = 800 + 60 = 860
Ques 17. If a man lost 4% by selling oranges at the rate of 12 a rupee at how many a rupee
must he sell them to gain 44%?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
96% ---- 12
144% ---- ?
96/144 * 12 = 8
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Ques 18. By selling 150 mangoes, a fruit-seller gains the selling price of 30 mangoes. Find
the gain percent?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 18%
D. 30%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
SP = CP + g
150 SP = 150 CP + 30 SP
120 SP = 150 CP
120 --- 30 CP
100 --- ? => 25%
Ques 19. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was
agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs.
10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive
5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.
A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 2660
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 2840
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B
and B Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700
Answer: Option D
Ques 21. A tradesman by means of his false balance defrauds to the extent of 20%? in
buying goods as well as by selling the goods. What percent does he gain on his outlay?
A. 20%
B. 45%
C. 44%
D. 48%
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
g% = 20 + 20 + (20*20)/100
= 44%
Ques 22. A dishonest dealer professes to sell goods at the cost price but uses a weight of
800 grams per kg, what is his percent?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 15%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
800 --- 200
100 --- ? => 25%
Ques 23. Ram professes to sell his goods at the cost price but he made use of 900 grms
instead of a kg, what is the gain percent?
A. 11%
B. 11 2/9%
C. 11 1/9%
D. 10%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
900 --- 100
100 --- ? 11 1/9%
Ques 24. A man purchases 8 pens for Rs.9 and sells 9 pens for Rs.8, how much profit or
loss does he make?
A. 20.98% profit
B. 20.98% loss
C. 20.89% profit
D. 20.89% loss
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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81 ---- 17
100 ----- ? 20.98%loss
Ques 25. I bought two books; for Rs.480. I sold one at a loss of 15% and other at a gain of
19% and then I found each book was sold at the same price. Find the cost of the book
sold at a loss?
A. Rs.28
B. Rs.280
C. Rs.140
D. Rs.70
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
x*(85/100) = (480 - x)119/100
x = 280
Ques 26. A man buys an article and sells it at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20%
less and sold it for Rs.75 less, he could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.370
B. Rs.375
C. Rs.350
D. Rs.300
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
CP 1 = 100 SP 1 = 120
CP 2 = 80 SP 2 = 80 * (125/100) = 100
20 ----- 100
75 ----- ? => 375
Ques 27. A person bought an article and sold it at a loss of 10%. If he had bought it for
20% less and sold it for Rs.75 less, he could have gained 25%. What is the cost price?
A. Rs.250
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B. Rs.225
C. Rs.275
D. Rs.200
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
CP 1 = 100 SP 1 = 90
CP 2 = 80 SP 2 = 80 * (140/100) = 112
22 ----- 100
55 ----- ? => Rs.250
Ques 28. If goods be purchased for Rs.840 and one-fourth be sold at a loss of 20% at what
gain percent should the remainder be sold so as to gain 20% on the whole transaction?
A. 30%
B. 33%
C. 33 1/3%
D. 35%
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
1/4 CP = 210 SP = 21*(80/100) = 168
SP = 840*(120/100) = 1008
1008 - 168 = 840
3/4 SP = 630
Gain = 210
630 --- 210
100 --- ? => 33 1/3%
Ques 29. Oranges are bought at 11 for a rupee and an equal number more at 9 a rupee. If
these are sold at 10 for a rupee, find the loss or gain percent?
A. 1% gain
B. 2% gain
C. 1% loss
D. 2% loss
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. A mixture of 150 liters of wine and water contains 20% water. How much more
water should be added so that water becomes 25% of the new mixture?
A. 7 liters
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B. 15 liters
C. 10 liters
D. 9 liters
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Number of liters of water in150 liters of the mixture = 20% of 150 = 20/100 * 150 = 30
liters.
P liters of water added to the mixture to make water 25% of the new mixture.
Total amount of water becomes (30 + P) and total volume of mixture is (150 + P).
(30 + P) = 25/100 * (150 + P)
120 + 4P = 150 + P => P = 10 liters.
Simple Equations
Ques 1. Solve the equation for x : 6x - 27 + 3x = 4 + 9 - x

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. -4
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9 x + x = 13 + 27
10 x = 40 => x = 4
Ques 2. Solve the equation for x : 19(x + y) + 17 = 19(-x + y) - 21

A. -1
B. -2
C. -3
D. -4
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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19x + 19y + 17 = -19x + 19y - 21
38x = -38 => x = -1
Ques 3. The cost of 2 chairs and 3 tables is Rs.1300. The cost of 3 chairs and 2 tables is
Rs.1200. The cost of each table is more than that of each chair by?
A. Rs.70
B. Rs.75
C. Rs.50
D. Rs.60
E. None of these
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
2C + 3T = 1300 --- (1)
3C + 3T = 1200 --- (2)
Subtracting 2nd from 1st, we get
-C + T = 100 => T - C = 100
Ques 4. The denominator of a fraction is 1 less than twice the numerator. If the
numerator and denominator are both increased by 1, the fraction becomes 3/5. Find
the fraction?
A. 2/3
B. 3/5
C. 4/7
D. 5/9
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Let the numerator and denominator of the fraction be 'n' and 'd' respectively.
d = 2n - 1
(n + 1)/(d + 1) = 3/5
5n + 5 = 3d + 3
5n + 5 = 3(2n - 1) + 3 => n = 5
d = 2n - 1 => d = 9
Hence the fraction is : 5/9.
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Ques 5. The cost of 10 kg of apples is equal to the cost of 24 kg of rice. The cost of 6 kg of
flour equals the cost of 2 kg of rice. The cost of each kg of flour is Rs.20.50. Find the total
cost of 4 kg of apples, 3 kg of rice and 5 kg of flour?
A. Rs.849.40
B. Rs.877.40
C. Rs.901.60
D. Rs.815.20
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the costs of each kg of apples and each kg of rice be Rs.a and Rs.r respectively.
10a = 24r and 6 * 20.50 = 2r
a = 12/5 r and r = 61.5
a = 147.6
Required total cost = 4 * 147.6 + 3 * 61.5 + 5 * 20.5
= 590.4 + 184.5 + 102.5 = Rs.877.40
Ques 6. The tens digit of a two-digit number is two more than its unit digit. The two-digit
number is 7 times the sum of the digits. Find the units digits?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the two-digit number be 10a + b
a = b + 2 --- (1)
10a + b = 7(a + b) => a = 2b
Substituting a = 2b in equation (1), we get
2b = b + 2 => b = 2
Hence the units digit is: 2.
Ques 7. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 12. The difference of the digits is 6.
Find the number?
A. 93
B. 39
C. 75
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D. 48
E. Either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Let the two-digit number be 10a + b
a + b = 12 --- (1)
If a>b, a - b = 6
If b>a, b - a = 6
If a - b = 6, adding it to equation (1), we get
2a = 18 => a =9
so b = 12 - a = 3
Number would be 93.
if b - a = 6, adding it to the equation (1), we get
2b = 18 => b = 9
a = 12 - b = 3.
Number would be 39.
There fore, Number would be 39 or 93.
Ques 8. In a series of six consecutive even numbers, the sum of the second and sixth
numbers is 24. What is the fourth number?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 6
D. 14
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8 and x + 10.
Given (x + 2) + (x + 10) = 24
=> 2x + 12 = 24 => x = 6
The fourth number = x + 6 = 6 + 6 = 12.
Ques 9. The sum of five consecutive even numbers of set x is 440. Find the sum of a
different set of five consecutive integers whose second least number is 121 less than
double the least number of set x?
A. 248
B. 240
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C. 228
D. 236
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the five consecutive even numbers be 2(x - 2), 2(x - 1), 2x, 2(x + 1) and 2(x + 2)
Their sum = 10x = 440
x = 44 => 2(x - 2) = 84
Second least number of the other set = 2(84) - 121 = 47
This set has its least number as 46.
Sum of the numbers of this set = 46 + 47 + 48 + 49 + 50
= 48 - 2 + 48 - 1 + 48 + 48 + 1 + 48 + 2 => 5(48) = 240
Ques 10. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of
your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
A. 14 years
B. 19 years
C. 33 years
D. 38 years
Answer: Option A
Ques 12. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three
years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's
present age in years?
A. 24
B. 27
C. 40
E. None of these
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Answer: Option A
Ques 13. Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36
years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference
between the ages of her parents?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years
Answer: Option C
Ques 14. A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will
be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?
A. 32 years
B. 36 years
C. 40 years
D. 48 years
Answer: Option C
Ques 15. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes
and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the
total number of notes that he has ?
A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90
Answer: Option D
Ques 16. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B,
then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B
to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The
number of students in room A is:
A. 20
B. 80
C. 100
D. 200
Answer: Option C
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Ques 17. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2
tables together is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:
A. Rs. 3500
B. Rs. 3750
C. Rs. 3840
D. Rs. 3900
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a
day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of
270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce
in 4 minutes?
A. 648
B. 1800
C. 2700
D. 10800
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is
less than the original number by 45. If the sum of the two digits of the number so
obtained is 13, then what is the original number?
A. 49
B. 94
C. 83
D. Either (a) or (b)
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Let the number be in the form of 10a + b
Number formed by interchanging a and b = 10b + a.
a + b = 13 --- (1)
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10b + a = 10a + b - 45
45 = 9a - 9b => a - b = 5 --- (2)
Adding (1) and (2), we get
2a = 18 => a = 9 and b = 4
The number is: 94.
Probability and Permutation & Combination
Ques 1. A boy has nine trousers and 12 shirts. In how many different ways can he select a
trouser and a shirt?
A. 21
B. 12
C. 9
D. 108
E. 101
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The boy can select one trouser in nine ways.
The boy can select one shirt in 12 ways.
The number of ways in which he can select one trouser and one shirt is 9 * 12 = 108
ways.
Ques 2. How many three letter words are formed using the letters of the word TIME?
A. 12
B. 20
C. 16
D. 24
E. 30
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The number of letters in the given word is four.
The number of three letter words that can be formed using these four letters is ⁴P₃ = 4 *
3 * 2 = 24.
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Ques 3. Using all the letters of the word "THURSDAY", how many different words can be
formed?
A. 8
B. 8!
C. 7!
D. 7
E. 6!
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Total number of letters = 8
Using these letters the number of 8 letters words formed is ⁸P₈ = 8!.
Ques 4. Using all the letters of the word "NOKIA", how many words can be formed,
which begin with N and end with A?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 24
D. 120
E. 12
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
There are five letters in the given word.
Consider 5 blanks ....
The first blank and last blank must be filled with N and A all the remaining three blanks
can be filled with the remaining 3 letters in 3! ways.
The number of words = 3! = 6.
Ques 5. The number of arrangements that can be made with the letters of the word
MEADOWS so that the vowels occupy the even places?
A. 720
B. 144
C. 120
D. 36
E. 204
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The word MEADOWS has 7 letters of which 3 are vowels.
-V-V-V-
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As the vowels have to occupy even places, they can be arranged in the 3 even places in
3! i.e., 6 ways. While the consonants can be arranged among themselves in the
remaining 4 places in 4! i.e., 24 ways.
Hence the total ways are 24 * 6 = 144.
Ques 6. The number of permutations of the letters of the word 'MESMERISE' is_.
A. 9!/(2!)2 3!
B. 9!/(2!)3 3!
C. 9!/(2!)2 (3!)2
D. 5!/(2!)2 3!
E. 8!/(2!)2 (3!)2
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
n items of which p are alike of one kind, q alike of the other, r alike of another kind and
the remaining are distinct can be arranged in a row in n!/p!q!r! ways.
The letter pattern 'MESMERISE' consists of 10 letters of which there are 2M's, 3E's, 2S's
and 1I and 1R.
Number of arrangements = 9!/(2!)2 3!
Ques 7. A committee has 5 men and 6 women. What are the number of ways of selecting
2 men and 3 women from the given committee?
A. 150
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of ways to select two men and three women = ⁵C₂ * ⁶C₃
= (5 *4 )/(2 * 1) * (6 * 5 * 4)/(3 * 2)
= 200
Ques 8. What are the number of ways to select 3 men and 2 women such that one man
and one woman are always selected?
A. 100
B. 60
C. 30
D. 20
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E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The number of ways to select three men and two women such that one man and one
woman are always selected = Number of ways selecting two men and one woman from
men and five women
= ⁴C₂ * ⁵C₁ = (4 * 3)/(2 * 1) * 5
= 30 ways.
Ques 9. There are 18 stations between Hyderabad and Bangalore. How many second
class tickets have to be printed, so that a passenger can travel from any station to any
other station?
A. 200
B. 190
C. 95
D. 100
E. 380
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The total number of stations = 20
From 20 stations we have to choose any two stations and the direction of travel (i.e.,
Hyderabad to Bangalore is different from Bangalore to Hyderabad) in ²⁰P₂ ways.
²⁰P₂ = 20 * 19 = 380.
Ques 10. A letter lock consists of three rings each marked with six different letters. The
number of distinct unsuccessful attempts to open the lock is at the most -.
A. 216
B. 243
C. 215
D. 729
E. 728
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since each ring consists of six different letters, the total number of attempts possible
with the three rings is = 6 * 6 * 6 = 216. Of these attempts, one of them is a successful
attempt.
Maximum number of unsuccessful attempts = 216 - 1 = 215.
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Ques 11. The number of ways in which six boys and six girls can be seated in a row for a
photograph so that no two girls sit together is -.
A. (6!)2
B. 6! * ⁷P₆
C. 2(6!)
D. 6! * 7
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
We can initially arrange the six boys in 6! ways.
Having done this, now three are seven places and six girls to be arranged. This can be
done in ⁷P₆ ways.
Hence required number of ways = 6! * ⁷P₆
Ques 12. How many four digit numbers can be formed using the digits {1, 3, 4, 5,
7,9}(repetition of digits is not allowed)?
A. 360
B. 60
C. 300
D. 180
E. 240
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The given digits are six.
The number of four digit numbers that can be formed using six digits is ⁶P₄ = 6 * 5 * 4 * 3
= 360.
Ques 13. In how many ways can six members be selected from a group of ten members?
A. ⁶C₄
B. ¹⁰C₄
C. ¹⁰C₅
D. ¹⁰P₄
E. ¹⁰P₅
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Six members can be selected from ten members in
¹⁰C₆ = ¹⁰C₄ ways.
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Ques 14. The probability that a number selected at random from the first 50 natural
numbers is a composite number is -.
A. 21/25
B. 17/25
C. 4/25
D. 8/25
E. 9/25
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of exhaustive events = ⁵⁰C₁ = 50.
We have 15 primes from 1 to 50.
Number of favourable cases are 34.
Required probability = 34/50 = 17/25.
Ques 15. A coin is tossed five times. What is the probability that there is at the least one
tail?
A. 31/32
B. 1/16
C. ½
D. 1/32
E. None of thes3e
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Let P(T) be the probability of getting least one tail when the coin is tossed five times.
= There is not even a single tail.
i.e. all the outcomes are heads.
= 1/32 ; P(T) = 1 - 1/32 = 31/32
Ques 16. If a number is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, ...., 100}, then the
probability that the chosen number is a perfect cube is -.
A. 1/25
B. ½
C. 4/13
D. 1/10
E. 9/13
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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We have 1, 8, 27 and 64 as perfect cubes from 1 to 100.
Thus, the probability of picking a perfect cube is
4/100 = 1/25.
Ques 17. Out of first 20 natural numbers, one number is selected at random. The
probability that it is either an even number or a prime number is -.
A. ½
B. 16/19
C. 4/5
D. 17/20
E. 3/5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
n(S) = 20
n(Even no) = 10 = n(E)
n(Prime no) = 8 = n(P)
P(EᴜP) = 10/20 + 8/20 - 1/20 = 17/20
Ques 18. If two dice are thrown together, the probability of getting an even number on
one die and an odd number on the other is -.
A. ¼
B. ½
C. ¾
D. 3/5
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The number of exhaustive outcomes is 36.
Let E be the event of getting an even number on one die and an odd number on the
other. Let the event of getting either both even or both odd then = 18/36 = 1/2
P(E) = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2.
Ques 19. If four coins are tossed, the probability of getting two heads and two tails is -.
A. 3/8
B. 6/11
C. 2/5
D. 4/5
E. 5/11
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Since four coins are tossed, sample space = 24
Getting two heads and two tails can happen in six ways.
n(E) = six ways
p(E) = 6/24 = 3/8
Ques 20. If a card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of cards, the probability of drawing a
spade or a king is -.
A. 19/52
B. 17/52
C. 5/13
D. 4/13
E. 9/26
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
P(SᴜK) = P(S) + P(K) - P(S∩K), where S denotes spade and K denotes king.
P(SᴜK) = 13/52 + 4/52 - 1/52 = 4/13
Ques 21. If six persons sit in a row, then the probability that three particular persons are
always together is -.
A. 1/20
B. 3/10
C. 1/5
D. 4/5
E. 2/5
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Six persons can be arranged in a row in 6! ways. Treat the three persons to sit together
as one unit then there four persons and they can be arranged in 4! ways. Again three
persons can be arranged among them selves in 3! ways. Favourable outcomes = 3!4!
Required probability = 3!4!/6! = 1/5
Ques 22. A bag contains 7 green and 8 white balls. If two balls are drawn simultaneously,
the probability that both are of the same colour is -.
A. 8/15
B. 2/5
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C. 3/5
D. 11/15
E. 7/15
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Drawing two balls of same color from seven green balls can be done in ⁷C₂ ways.
Similarly from eight white balls two can be drawn in ⁸C₂ ways.
P = ⁷C₂/¹⁵C₂ + ⁸C₂/¹⁵C₂ = 7/15
Ques 23. A basket has 5 apples and 4 oranges. Three fruits are picked at random. The
probability that at least 2 apples are picked is -.
A. 25/42
B. 9/20
C. 10/23
D. 41/42
E. 1/42
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Total fruits = 9
Since there must be at least two apples,
(⁵C₂ * ⁴C₁)/⁹C₃ + ⁵C₃/⁹C₃ = 25/42.
River and Current Related
Ques 1. A person can swim in still water at 4 km/h. If the speed of water 2 km/h, how
many hours will the man take to swim back against the current for 6km?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 4 (1/2)
D. Insufficient data
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
M=4
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S=2
US = 4 - 2 = 2
D=6
T = 6/2 = 3
Ques 2. A boat goes 100 km downstream in 10 hours, and 75 m upstream in 15 hours.

The speed of the stream is?
A. 7 km/h
B. 5 km/h
C. 3 km/h
D. 2 (1/2) km/h
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
100 --- 10 DS = 10
? ---- 1
75 ---- 15 US = 5
? ----- 1 S = (10 - 5)/2
= 2 2 ½ kmph
Ques 3. A man can row his boat with the stream at 6 km/h and against the stream in 4
km/h. The man's rate is?
A. 1 kmph
B. 5 kmph
C. 8 kmph
D. 3 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
DS = 6
US = 4
S=?
S = (6 - 4)/2 = 1 kmph
Ques 4. A man can swim in still water at 4.5 km/h, but takes twice as long to swim
upstream than downstream. The speed of the stream is?
A. 3
B. 7.5
C. 2.25
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D. 1.5
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
M = 4.5
S=x
DS = 4.5 + x
US = 4.5 + x
4.5 + x = (4.5 - x)2
4.5 + x = 9 -2x
3x = 4.5
x = 1.5
Ques 5. A man can row upstream at 25 kmph and downstream at 35 kmph, and then find
the speed of the man in still water?
A. 60 kmph
B. 10 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 5 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
US = 25
DS = 35
M = (35 + 25)/2 = 30
Ques 6. A boat can move upstream at 25 kmph and downstream at 35 kmph, then the
speed of the current is?
A. 5 kmph
B. 10 kmph
C. 30 kmph
D. 15 kmph
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
US = 25
DS = 35
M = (35 - 25)/2 = 5
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Ques 7. A man swims downstream 30 km and upstream 18 km taking 3 hours each time,
what is the speed of the man in still water?
A. 2 kmph
B. 8 kmph
C. 16 kmph
D. 4 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30 --- 3 DS = 10
? ---- 1
18 ---- 3 US = 6
? ---- 1 M=?
M = (10 + 6)/2 = 8
Ques 8. The current of a stream runs at the rate of 4 kmph. A boat goes 6 km and back to
the starting point in 2 hours, then find the speed of the boat in still water?
A. 10 kmph
B. 21 kmph
C. 8 kmph
D. 12 kmph
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
S=4
M=x
DS = x + 4
US = x - 4
6/(x + 4) + 6/(x - 4) = 2
x=8
Ques 9. A man whose speed is 4.5 kmph in still water rows to a certain upstream point
and back to the starting point in a river which flows at 1.5 kmph, find his average speed
for the total journey?
A. 8 kmph
B. 4 kmph
C. 2 kmph
D. 10 kmph
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
M = 45
S = 1.5
DS = 6
US = 3
AS = (2 * 6 * 3) /9 = 4
Ques 10. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5
km/hr. The man's speed against the current is:
A. 8.5 km/hr
B. 9 km/hr
C. 10 km/hr
D. 12.5 km/hr
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance,
while it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio
between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
A. 2 : 1
B. 3 : 2
C. 8 : 3
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 13. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream
and comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
A. 4
B. 5
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C. 6
D. 10
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. The speed of a boat in still water is 60kmph and the speed of the current is
20kmph. Find the speed downstream and upstream?
A. 35, 25 kmph
B. 80, 40 kmph
C. 40, 60 kmph
D. 50, 55 kmph
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Speed downstream = 60 + 20 = 80 kmph
Speed upstream = 60 - 20 = 40 kmph
Mathematical Reasoning
Ques 1. The area of a triangle is with base 4m and height 5m?

A. 20 sq m
B. 10 sq m
C. 5 sq m
D. 3 sq m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
1/2 * 4 * 5 = 10 m2
Ques 2. The length of each side of an equilateral triangle having an area of 4√3 cm2 is?
A. 4/3 cm
B. 3/4 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 4 cm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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Ques 3. What is the area of a square field whose diagonal of length 20 m?
A. 300 sq m
B. 250 sq m
C. 200 sq m
D. 400 sq m
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
d2/2 = (20 * 20)/2 = 200
Ques 4. What is the perimeter of a square field whose diagonal is 8√2?

A. 64 m
B. 32 m
C. 30 m
D. 16 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4a = 32 m
Ques 5. A man walked 20 m to cross a rectangular field diagonally. If the length of the
field is 16 cm. Find the breadth of the field is?
A. 11 m
B. 12 m
C. 13 m
D. 14 m
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ques 6. The side of a rhombus is 26 m and length of one of its diagonals is 20 m. The area
of the rhombus is?
A. 529 sq m
B. 240 sq m
C. 260 sq m
D. 480 sq m
Answer: Option D
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Explanation:
262 – 102 = 242
d 1 = 20 d 2 = 48
1/2 * 20 * 48 = 480
Ques 7. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of
ground is:
A. 75 cu. M
B. 750 cu. M
C. 7500 cu. M
D. 75000 cu. m
Answer: Option B
Ques 8. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the
ceiling is equal to the sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is:
A. 720
B. 900
C. 1200
D. 1800
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. A hollow iron pipe is 21 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the
thickness of the pipe is 1 cm and iron weighs 8 g/cm3, then the weight of the pipe is:
A. 3.6 kg
B. 3.696 kg
C. 36 kg
D. 36.9 kg
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. The perimeter of a rhombus is 68 cm and one of its diagonals is 16 cm. Find its
area?
A. 260 cm2
B. 240 cm2
C. 280 cm2
D. 220 cm2
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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4a = 68 a = 17
172 – 82 = 152
1/2 * 16 * 30 = 240
Ques 11. LCM of 455, 117, 338 is:

A. 10670
B. 106470
C. 104670
D. 107470
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. HCF of 3/16, 5/12, 7/8 is:

A. 2/47
B. 3/47
C. 1/48
D. 5/48
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
HCF of numerators = 1
LCM of denominators = 48
=> 1/48
Ques 13. The product of two digits number is 2160 and their HCF is 12. The numbers are:
A. 36,60)
B. (12,180)
C. (96,25)
D. (72,30)
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
(36,60)
Ques 14. The least number of four digits which is divisible by 4, 6, 8 and 10 is?
A. 1080
B. 1085
C. 1075
D. 1095
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
LCM = 120
120) 1000 (8
960
-------
40
1000 + 120 - 40 = 1080
Ques 15. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

A. 31
B. 61
C. 71
D. 91
Answer: Option D
Ques 16. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the
smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?
A. 240
B. 270
C. 295
D. 360
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same
remainder in each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12
seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15
D. 16
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Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the
same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: Option A
Ques 20. The greatest number of five digits which is divisible by 32, 36, 40, 42 and 48 is:
A. 90730
B. 90725
C. 90715
D. 90720
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
LCM = 10080
10080) 99999 (8
90720
---------
9279
99999 - 9279 = 90720
Ques 21. Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of
elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45°
respectively. If the lighthouse is 100 m high, the distance between the two ships is:
A. 173 m
B. 200 m
C. 273 m
D. 300 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 22. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60º and the foot of the
ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is:
A. 2.3 m
B. 4.6 m
C. 7.8 m
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D. 9.2 m
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30º. If
the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:
A. 149 m
B. 156 m
C. 173 m
D. 200 m
Answer: Option C
Ques 24. The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree √3
times the height of the tree, is:
A. 30º
B. 5º
C. 60º
D. 90º
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Friday
D. Wednesday
Answer: Option C
Ques 26. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

A. Wednesday
B. Saturday
C. Tuesday
D. Thursday
Answer: Option B
Ques 27. How many days are there in x weeks x days?

A. 7x2
B. 8x
C. 14x
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D. 7
Answer: Option B
Ques 28. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will
the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A. 144º
B. 150º
C. 168º
D. 180º
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time
is 4.20, is:
A. 0º
B. 10º
C. 5º
D. 20º
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 44
D. 48
Answer: Option C
Odd one OUT
Ques 1. Find the one which does not belong to that group?
A. Curd
B. Butter
C. Oil
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D. Cheese
E. Cream
Answer: Option C
Hint: Except Oil all others are milk product
A. Rose
B. Lotus
C. Marigold
D. Tulip
Answer: Option B
Hint: Lotus grows in water.
A. Book
B. Paper
C. Pencil
D. Pen
E. Sharpner
Answer: Option A
Hint: Except Book all others are stationery items
A. Geometry
B. Algebra
C. Trigonometry
D. Mathematics
E. Arithmetic
Answer: Option D
Hint: All others are part of Mathematics.
A. Copper
B. Tin
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C. Brass
D. Platinum
E. Zinc
Answer: Option C
Hint: Brass is the only alloy in the group
A. Carrot
B. Potato
C. Tomato
D. Ginger
E. Beetroot
Answer: Option C
Hint: Except Tomato all others grow underground
A. lake
B. sea
C. river
D. pool
E. pond
Answer: Option B
Hint: Sea is of salt water. All others are not.
A. sun
B. moon
C. stars
D. mars
E. universe
Answer: Option E
Hint: All others are part of Universe
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A. hostel
B. hotel
C. inn
D. club
E. motel
Answer: Option D
Hint: You can’t stay in club
A. wheat
B. mustard
C. rice
D. gram
E. peanut
Answer: Option C
Hint: Rice is not a Rabi crop
A. pineapple
B. orange
C. malta
D. banana
E. lemon
Answer: Option D
Hint: All others are juicy except Banana
A. Ear
B. Lung
C. Eye
D. Heart
E. Kidney
Answer: Option D
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Hint: Heart is not in pair
A. Tailor
B. Carpenter
C. Blacksmith
D. Barber
E. Engineer
Answer: Option D
Hint: Barber does not require raw material to work
A. Whale
B. Dolphin
C. Shark
D. Cod
E. Starfish
Answer: Option A
Hint: Whale is the only mammal
A. Goat
B. Dog
C. Sheep
D. Cow
E. Camel
Answer: Option B
Hint: Dog milk cannot be consumed
A. Inch
B. Foot
C. Yard
D. Quart
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E. Meter
Answer: Option D
Hint: Quart is not an unit of length
A. X-ray
B. telephone
C. radio
D. computer
E. television
Answer: Option A
Hint: X-ray is not a mode of communication
A. Arc
B. Diagonal
C. Tangent
D. Radius
E. Diameter
Answer: Option B
Hint: Diagonal is not related to circle, but others are related.
A. Biscuit
B. Chocolate
C. Cake
D. Bread
E. Pastry
Answer: Option B
Hint: Except chocolate all others are baked items
A. Listen
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B. Swim
C. Walk
D. Climb
E. Run
Answer: Option A
Hint: Listen is not a physical activity
A. Carrot
B. Guava
C. Tomato
D. Pears
E. Brinjal
Answer: Option E
Hint: Brinjal cannot be eaten directly without cooking
A. 43
B. 53
C. 63
D. 73
E. 83
Answer: Option C
Hint: 63 is not a prime number
A. 51
B. 144
C. 64
D. 121
E. 256
Answer: Option A
Hint: 51 is not a perfect square.
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A. 15
B. 21
C. 24
D. 28
E. 30
Answer: Option D
Hint: 28 is not divisible by 3
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 9
E. 7
Answer: Option E
Hint: & is the only prime number
A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 17
Answer: Option C
Hint: 15 is not a prime number
A. 10
B. 11
C. 15
D. 16
Answer: Option B
Hint: 11 is the only prime number
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A. 37
B. 49
C. 132
D. 154
Answer: Option A
Hint: 37 is the only prime number
A. 21
B. 69
C. 81
D. 83
Answer: Option C
Hint: 81 is the only perfect square
A. 27
B. 37
C. 47
D. 67
E. 17
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
37, 47, 67 and 17 are prime numbers but not 27.
Ques 31. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?
A. 36
B. 49
C. 64
D. 81
E. 100
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
36 = 62, 49 = 72, 64 = 82, 81 = 92 and 100 = 102.
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36, 64, 81 and 100 are squares of composite numbers, but not 49.
Ques 32. Find odd one out : 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21

A. 21
B. 17
C. 14
D. 3
Answer: Option C
Ques 33. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Inch
B. Ounce
C. Centimeter
D. yard
Answer: Option B
A. Tyre
B. steering wheel
C. engine
D. car
Answer: Option D
A. Leopard
B. Cougar
C. Elephant
D. lion
Answer: Option C
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Pupil
D. vision
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Answer: Option D
Ques 37. Find odd one out : 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264
A. 396
B. 427
C. 671
D. 264
Answer: Option B
A. 4422
B. 2442
C. 4242
D. 2244
E. 4224
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Except 4242, all other numbers are divisible by 11.
A. 508
B. 328
C. 608
D. 148
E. 706
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The sum of the digits in 508, 328, 706 and 148 is 13, but not in 608.
A. CAT
B. DOG
C. TIGER
D. ELEPHANT
E. LION
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Cat, Dog, Tiger and Lion are carnivores, while Elephant is a herbivore.
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A. Baseball
B. Boxing
C. Chess
D. Wrestling
E. Squash
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Boxing, Chess, Wrestling and Squash are individual events, while Baseball is a team
event.
A. Ganga
B. Hirakud
C. Yamuna
D. Sutlej
E. Krishna
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej and Krishna are rivers, Hirakud is a dam.
A. 30
B. 630
C. 10
D. 520
E. 130
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30 = 33 + 3, 630 = 54 + 5, 10 = 23 + 2, 520 = 83 + 8 and 130 = 53 + 5.
30, 10, 130 and 520 can be expressed as n3 + n but not 630.
Series Completion
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Ques 1. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: Option B
Hint: Alternate numbers are in sequence
Ques 2. Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26
Answer: Option C
Hint: Alternate numbers are in sequence
Ques 3. Complete the series: 5, 7, 12, 19, ……., 39.

A. 29
B. 28
C. 26
D. 24
Answer: Option B
Ques 4. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ……

A. 35
B. 36
C. 48
D. 49
Answer: Option B
Hint: Square of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Ques 5. 20, 19, 17, ……., 10, 5

A. 12
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B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is -1, -2, -3,…..Therefore 17-3 = 14
Ques 6. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, ……

A. 44
B. 45
C. 46
D. 47
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is +5, +7, +9, +11, ….Therefore 33+13=46
Ques 7. 3, 9, 27, 81, …..

A. 324
B. 243
C. 210
D. 162
Answer: Option B
Hint: Every term is multiplied by 3. Therefore 81*3=243
Ques 8. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, ……

A. 97
B. 98
C. 99
D. 100
Answer: Option A
Hint: Pattern is +8, +8, +16, +16, +24, +24…….Therefore 73+24=97
Ques 9. 2, 5, 9, ……, 20, 27
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A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 24
Answer: Option A
Hint: Pattern is +3, +4, +5, +6,…… Therefore 9+5=14
Ques 10. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, …….

A. 92
B. 115
C. 127
D. 131
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is (previous number*2+1=Next number), Therefore( 63*2)+1=127
Ques 11. 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ……..

A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
Answer: Option C
Hint: Sum of last two terms=Next term. Therefore 5+8=13
Ques 12. 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 13.5, ……

A. 45.5
B. 39.5
C. 30.5
D. 40.5
Answer: Option D
Hint: Next term = previous term * 3. Therefore 13.5 * 3= 40.5
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Ques 13. 66, 36, 18, ……
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
Answer: Option C
Hint: Next number = product of digits in last number. Therefore 1*8=8
Ques 14. 1, 2, 6, 24, ……

A. 60
B. 95
C. 120
D. 150
Answer: Option C
Hint: Pattern is next term = Last term *2, *3, * 4….. Therefore 24*5=120
Ques 15. 4, 10, ……., 82, 244, 730

A. 24
B. 28
C. 77
D. 218
Answer: Option B
Hint: Next number = (Previous number*3) – 2. Therefore 10*3-2=28
Ques 16. 5, 16, 49, 104, …..

A. 115
B. 148
C. 170
D. 181
Answer: Option D
Hint: Pattern is Next term =Previous term + (11*1), +(11*3), +(11*5)….Therefore

104+(11*7)=181
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Ques 17. 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, …..
A. 1
B. 7
C. 9
D. 12
Answer: Option B
Hint: Previous term=Next term*5, *4, *3, *2……Therefore 7=1*7
Ques 18. Look at this series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ... What number should come next?
A. 404
B. 414
C. 420
D. 445
Answer: Option A
Hint: Next number is 35 less than the previous number
Directions to Solve
In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the
blank in the middle of the series or end of the series.
Ques 19. SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL

A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT
Answer: Option C
Hint: First letters are in sequence. S, T, U, V, W
Ques 20. B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D

A. B2C2D
B. BC3D
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C. B2C3
D. BCD7
Answer: Option B
Hint: Number is increasing by 1 and shifting 1 letter after. so after B2, C3 should come.
Ques 21. FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____

A. JAK
B. HA
C. HAK
D. JAI
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letters are in sequence. FGHIJ. Second letter is A. Last letter is next to first letter.
Ques 22. ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA

A. OLPA
B. KLMA
C. LLMA
D. KLLA
Answer: Option D
Hint: First letters are skipping 1 letter. Third letter is also skipping by 1 letter.
Ques 23. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, …….

A. XVZ
B. ZYA
C. YXW
D. VWX
E. AZY
Answer: Option C
Hint: Letters are in reverse order. The first letter of each term and the last letter of the next term
are same.
Ques 24. DEF, HIJ, MNO, …..
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A. STU
B. RST
C. RTV
D. SRQ
E. TUV
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letter starts with a gap of 1 letter, 2 letter, 3 letter etc.
Ques 25. LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ……

A. PHV
B. PIU
C. PJW
D. PKX
E. PPV
Answer: Option A
Hint: First letters are one step forward. Second letter is 4 steps back. Third letter is 4 steps
forward.
Ques 26. AB, BA, ABC, CBA, ABCD, …….

A. ACBD
B. BACD
C. CABD
D. DCBA
Answer: Option D
Hint: Every next term is the reverse of previous term.
Analogy
Marine Republic
Ques 1. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A. Winter
B. Bear
C. Dream
D. sleep
Answer: Option D
Ques 2. Window is to pane as book is to

A. Novel
B. Glass
C. Cover
D. page
Answer: Option D
Ques 3. Yard is to inch as quart is to

A. Gallon
B. Ounce
C. Milk
D. liquid
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the
word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.
Ques 4. harvest
A. autumn
B. stockpile
C. tractor
D. crop
Answer: Option D
Ques 5. desert
A. cactus
B. arid
C. oasis
D. flat
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Answer: Option B
Ques 6. book
A. fiction
B. pages
C. pictures
D. learning
Answer: Option B
Ques 7. language
A. tongue
B. slang
C. writing
D. words
Answer: Option D
Ques 8. school
A. student
B. report card
C. test
D. learning
Answer: Option A
Ques 9. Newspaper: Press :: Cloth: ?

A. Tailor
B. Textile
C. Factory
D. Mill
Answer: Option D
Ques 10. Melt: Liquid :: Freeze: ?

A. Ice
B. Condense
C. Solid
D. Crystal
Answer: Option C
Ques 11. Clock: Time :: Thermometer: ?
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A. Heat
B. Radiation
C. Energy
D. Temperature
Answer: Option D
Ques 12. Flower: Bud :: Plant: ?

A. Seed
B. Taste
C. Flower
D. Twig
Answer: Option A
Ques 13. Car: Garage :: Aero plane: ?

A. Port
B. Depot
C. Hangar
D. Harbour
Answer: Option C
Ques 14. Oxygen: Burn :: Carbon dioxide: ?

A. Isolate
B. Foam
C. Extinguish
D. Explode
Answer: Option C
Ques 15. Cobbler: Leather:: Carpenter: ?

A. Furniture
B. wood
C. hammer
D. chair
Answer: Option B
Ques 16. Court: Justice:: School: ?

A. teacher
B. student
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C. ignorance
D. education
Answer: Option D
Ques 17. Skeleton: Body :: Grammar: ?

A. Language
B. Sentence
C. Meaning
D. Education
Answer: Option A
Ques 18. Atom: Matter :: Particle: ?

A. Proton
B. Electron
C. Molecule
D. Dust
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. Professor: Lecture :: Doctor: ?

A. Hospital
B. Disease
C. Medicine
D. Patient
Answer: Option C
Ques 20. Ship: Sea :: Camel: ?

A. Forest
B. Land
C. Mountain
D. Desert
Answer: Option D
Ques 21. Girl: Beautiful :: Boy: ?

A. Smart
B. Heroic
C. Courageous
D. Handsome
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Answer: Option D
Ques 22. Earth: Sun :: Moon: ?

A. Orbit
B. Sky
C. Star
D. Earth
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. Good: Bad :: Virtue: ?

A. Blame
B. Sin
C. Despair
D. Vice
Answer: Option D
Ques 24. Mountain: Valley :: Genius: ?

A. Brain
B. Idiot
C. Think
D. Intelligence
Answer: Option B
Ques 25. Eye: Wink :: Heart: ?

A. move
B. throb
C. pump
D. quiver
Answer: Option B
Ques 26. Circle: Circumference :: Square: ?

A. Volume
B. Area
C. Diagonal
D. Perimeter
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. Car: Petrol :: Television: ?
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A. Electricity
B. Transmission
C. Entertainment
D. Antenna
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. Doctor is related to Patient in the same way as Lawyer is related to……?
A. Customer
B. Accused
C. Magistrate
D. Client
Answer: Option D
Ques 29. Bread is related to Bakery in the same way as Brick is related to……?
A. Mint
B. Kiln
C. Furnace
D. Mine
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. Life is related to Death in the same way as Hope is related to……?
A. Sad
B. Despair
C. Pain
D. Cry
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. Maths is related to Numbers in the same way as History is related to……?
A. People
B. Events
C. Dates
D. Wars
Answer: Option B
Ques 32. Mirror is related to Reflection in the same way as Water is related to……?
A. Conduction
B. Dispersion
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C. Immersion
D. Refraction
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. Wood is related to Charcoal in the same way as Coal is related to……?
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Coke
D. Ash
Answer: Option C
Ques 34. Appreciation is related to Reward in the same way as Disgrace is related to……?
A. Crime
B. Guilt
C. Allegation
D. Punishment
Answer: Option D
Ques 35. Book is related to Magazine in the same way as Newspaper is related to……?
A. Journal
B. News
C. Article
D. Headline
Answer: Option A
Ques 36. Mouse is related to Cat in the same way as Fly is related to……?
A. Animal
B. Horse
C. Spider
D. Rat
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. Kilogram is related to Quintal in the same way as Paisa is related to……?
A. Rupee
B. Coin
C. Wealth
D. Money
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Answer: Option A
Ques 38. Which one of the following is same Dozen, Score, Decade?
A. Century
B. Number
C. Measurement
D. Counting
Answer: Option A
Ques 39. Which one the following is same as Flood, Fire, Cyclone?
A. Damage
B. Earthquake
C. Rain
D. Accident
Answer: Option B
Ques 40. Which of the following is same as Kathak, Bihu, Garbha?

A. Kathkkali
B. Pongal
C. Bhangra
D. Bharatnatyam
Answer: Option C
Ques 41. Which of the following is the same as Steel, Bronze, Brass?
A. Calcite
B. Magnesium
C. Methane
D. Zinc
Answer: Option D
Ques 42. Which of the following is the same as wrestling, Karate, Boxing?
A. Swimming
B. polo
C. Pole vault
D. Judo
Answer: Option D
Ques 43. 21: 3 :: 574: ?
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A. 23
B. 82
C. 97
D. 113
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. 25: 37 :: 49: ?

A. 41
B. 56
C. 60
D. 65
Answer: Option D
Ques 45. CAT:DDY :: BIG: ?

A. CLL
B. CLM
C. CML
D. CEP
Answer: Option A
Ques 46. LOGIC: BHFNK :: CLERK: ?

A. XVRPA
B. QBKJA
C. LPRTU
D. JQDKB
Answer: Option D
Ques 47. PALE: LEAP :: POSH: ?

A. HSOP
B. POHS
C. SHOP
D. HOPS
Answer: Option C
Ques 48. BUCKET: ACTVBDJLDFSU :: BONUS: ?

A. ACMNMOTVRT
B. SUNOB
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C. ACNPMOTVRT
D. ACMNMOTURT
Answer: Option C
Ques 49. CIRCLE: RICELC :: SQUARE: ?

A. QSUERA
B. QUSERA
C. UQSAER
D. UQSERA
Answer: Option D
Ques 50. DWH: WDS :: FUL: ?

A. UFO
B. OFU
C. FOU
D. ELV
Answer: Option A
Ques 51. MADRAS: NBESBT :: BOMBAY: ?

A. CPNCBX
B. CPNCBZ
C. CPOCBZ
D. CQOCBZ
E. NONE
Answer: Option B
Hint: All letters are written as one step forward.
Ques 52. TRIPPLE: SQHOOKD :: DISPOSE: ?

A. CHRONRD
B. DSOESPI
C. ESJTPTF
D. ESOPSID
E. NONE
Answer: Option A
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Hint: All letters are written as one step backward.
Ques 53. MONKEY: XDJMNL :: TIGER: ?

A. QDFHS
B. SDFHS
C. SHFDQ
D. UJHFS
E. NONE
Answer: Option A
Hint: Letters are first written in reverse order and then moved one step backward.
Ques 54. FRAGRANCE: SBHSBODFG :: IMPOSING: ?

A. NQPTJHOJ
B. NQPTJOHI
C. NQTPJOHJ
D. NQPTJOHJ
E. NONE
Answer: Option D
Hint: All letters are moved one step forward. and then first letters is shifted to end.
Ques 55. COMPUTER: RFUVQNPC :: MEDICINE: ?

A. EOJDJEFM
B. EOJDEJFM
C. MFEJDJOE
D. MFEDJJOE
E. NONE
Answer: Option A
Hint: Letters are written in reverse order. Then except first and last letter all others are moved
one step forward.
Assertion & Reason
Marine Republic
Ques 1. An Informal Gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual,
relaxed manner. Which situation below is the best example of an Informal Gathering?
A. The book club meets on the first Thursday evening of every month.
B. After finding out about his promotion, Jeremy and a few coworkers decide to go out
for a quick drink after work.
C. Mary sends out 25 invitations for the bridal shower she is giving for her sister.
D. Whenever she eats at the Mexican restaurant, Clara seems to run into Peter.
Answer: Option B
Ques 2. People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be
true based on inconclusive evidence. Which situation below is the best example of
Speculation ?
A. Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on
Friday after reading about "Casual Fridays" in her employee handbook.
B. Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train
instead of driving.
C. After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels confident
that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate.
D. When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that she's had a death in her
family.
Answer: Option D
Ques 3. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product

that is either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person
selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?
A. Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its category.
B. The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a
guarantee.
C. The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars.
D. Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will refund
Lori's money if the camera's performance is not of the highest quality.
Answer: Option D
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Ques 4. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The
Pacific yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark
of the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug.
A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases.
C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.
Answer: Option C
Ques 5. Erin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a
dog. Her parents have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an
apartment, but they have given her permission to have a bird. Erin has not yet decided
what kind of bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
B. Erin does not like birds.
C. Erin and her parents live in an apartment.
D. Erin and her parents would like to move.
Answer: Option C
Ques 6. When they heard news of the hurricane, Maya and Julian decided to change
their vacation plans. Instead of traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room
at a fancy new spa in the mountains. Their plans were a bit more expensive, but they'd
heard wonderful things about the spa and they were relieved to find availability on such
short notice.
A. Maya and Julian take beach vacations every year.
B. The spa is overpriced.
C. It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.
D. Maya and Julian decided to change their vacation plans because of the hurricane.
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the
effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes
without having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your
answer as
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(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Statements:
Ques 7. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged
for the past few months.
The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last
few months.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
Answer: Option D
Statements:
Ques 8. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by
the unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting
against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.

Answer: Option B
Statements:
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Ques 9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the
country.
The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position to
withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

Answer: Option B
Statements:
Ques 10. All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week.
Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

Answer: Option D
Statements:
Ques 11. India has surpassed the value of tea exports this year over all the earlier years
due to an increase in demand for quality tea in the European market.
There is an increase in demand of coffee in the domestic market during the last two
years.

Answer: Option C
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Directions to Solve
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.
Ques 12. Statements: No women teacher can play. Some women teachers are athletes.
Conclusions:
Male athletes can play.
Some athletes can play.
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Answer: Option D
Ques 13. Statements: All bags are cakes. All lamps are cakes.
Conclusions:
Some lamps are bags.
No lamp is bag.

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Answer: Option C
Ques 14. Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are
cheap.
Conclusions:
All mangoes are cheap.
Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap.

Answer: Option B
Ques 15. Statements: Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
All kings are beautiful.
All queens are kings.

Answer: Option D
Ques 16. Statements: Some doctors are fools. Some fools are rich.
Conclusions:
Some doctors are rich
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Some rich are doctors.

Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular
circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.
Ques 17. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She
wants the evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather
be in jeans at a baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant
below should Eileen choose?
A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as
though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.
B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best
tacos in town.
C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty.
Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.
D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball
clubhouse in honor of the owner,Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star.
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the
description that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider
actresses who do not resemble the character as she is described in the screenplay, no
matter how talented they are. The screenplay describes Lucy as an average-sized, forty
something redhead, with deep brown eyes, very fair skin, and a brilliant smile. The
casting agent has four actresses in mind.
Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her eyes are
brown and she has an olive complexion.
Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-forties and is
5'5".
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Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her early forties.
Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and stands at 5'.
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 4
Answer: Option B
Ques 19. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the
school yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as
possible, so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should the
recess aides report to the principal?
A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her peers.
B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her backpack.
C. Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the last
basket scored.
D. Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to be on
school grounds.
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting
for her outside the restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see
her friends that she left her tote bag in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her
friends took notice of the license plate number so they would be able to identify the car
when they called the taxi company.
#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.
#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.
#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third
letter is K.
The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks she saw.
Which one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?
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A. JXK 12L
B. JYK 12L
C. JXK 12I
D. JXX 12L
Answer: Option A
Ques 21. Zachary has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his
wide-screen television. They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food. Just
as they are arguing about who should make the food run, a commercial comes on for a
local pizze-ria that delivers. The phone number flashes on the screen briefly and they all
try to remember it. By the time Zachary grabs a pen and paper, each of them recollects
a different number.
#1: All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995.
#2: Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9.
#3: Three agree that the fifth number is 2.
#4: Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also
6.
Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizzeria?
A. 995-9266
B. 995-9336
C. 995-9268
D. 995-8266
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third
statement may be true, false, or uncertain.
Ques 22. Tanya is older than Eric.
Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
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A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.
Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.
Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. Mara runs faster than Gail.
Lily runs faster than Mara.
Gail runs faster than Lily.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
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Answer: Option B
Ques 26. Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight
Commons.
Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the The Gaslight Commons.
Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the most.
A. True
B. False
C. uncertain
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is trying to make. What
conclusion can be drawn from the argument? Each paragraph is followed by five statements.
One statement supports the author's argument better than the others do.
Ques 27. One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the
United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William
Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars
point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing
even today.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today.

B. people even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters.
C. academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work.
D. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare.
E. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright.
Answer: Option B
Ques 28. One of the warmest winters on record has put consumers in the mood to spend
money. Spending is likely to be the strongest in thirteen years. During the month of
February, sales of existing single-family homes hit an annual record rate of 4.75 million.
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A. consumer spending will be higher thirteen years from now than it is today.
B. more people buy houses in the month of February than in any other month.
C. during the winter months, the prices of single-family homes are the lowest.
D. there were about 4 million homes for sale during the month of February.
E. warm winter weather is likely to affect the rate of home sales.
Answer: Option E
Ques 29. Generation Xers are those people born roughly between 1965 and 1981. As
employees, Generation Xers tend to be more challenged when they can carry out tasks
independently. This makes Generation Xers the most entrepreneurial generation in
history.
This paragraph best supports the statement that Generation Xers
A. work harder than people from other generations.

B. have a tendency to be self-directed workers
C. have an interest in making history
D. tend to work in jobs that require risk-taking behavior.
E. like to challenge their bosses work attitudes.
Answer: Option B
Ques 30. If you're a fitness walker, there is no need for a commute to a health club. Your
neighborhood can be your health club. You don't need a lot of fancy equipment to get a
good workout either. All you need is a well-designed pair of athletic shoes.
A. fitness walking is a better form of exercise than weight lifting.

B. a membership in a health club is a poor investment.
C. walking outdoors provides a better workout than walking indoors.
D. fitness walking is a convenient and valuable form of exercise.
E. poorly designed athletic shoes can cause major foot injuries.
Answer: Option D
Ques 31. In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-
fat ice cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness
combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made
low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.
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A. low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
B. ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream.
C. ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item.
D. low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream.
E. consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read
each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.
Ques 32. The attainment of individual and organisational goals is mutually interdependent
and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organisational
members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts
to the attainment of organisational objectives as means of achieving these personal
goals.
The passage best supports the statement that motivation -
A. encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organisational goals.

B. is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.
C. is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy.
D. is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.
E. makes organisation and society inseparable.
Answer: Option A
Ques 33. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been
attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires
overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has been
a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great impunity.
There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the
enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the
smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that
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A. smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
B. smuggling ought to be curbed.
C. authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
D. smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.
Answer: Option D
Ques 34. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet
fashions have come to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is now
required is that strong efforts should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion
from the minds of these youngsters.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A. fashion is the need of the day.

B. the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's personality.
C. the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive
development.
D. work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance.
Answer: Option C
Ques 35. One of the important humanitarian by-products of technology is the greater
dignity and value that it imparts to human labour. In a highly industrialized society,
there is no essential difference between Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are
equally useful and hence equally valuable for in the industrial society individual
productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and this fixes social status.
A. technology decides individual's social status.

B. castes and religions are man-made.
C. human labour has dignity and value.
D. all individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal.
E. industrial society is a great leveller of men.
Answer: Option C
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Ques 36. The future of women in India is quite bright and let us hope that they will justify
their abilities by rising to the occasion. Napoleon was right when he declared that by
educating the women we can educate the whole nation. Because a country can never
rise without the contribution of 50% of their population.
A. India is striving hard for the emancipation of women.

B. all women should be well educated.
C. a nation can progress only when women are given equal rights and opportunities as
men.
D. women ought to be imparted full freedom to prove their worth and contribute to the
progress of the nation.
Answer: Option D
Ques 37. Answer the questions based on the following information:
Four sisters- Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha are playing a game such that the loser doubles the
money of each of the other players from her share. They played four games and each sister lost
one game in alphabetical order. At the end of fourth game, each sister has Rs. 32.
How many rupees did Suvarns start with?
A. Rs. 60
B. Rs. 34
C. Rs. 66
D. Rs. 28
Answer: Option C
Ques 38. Answer the questions based on the following information:
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the
third place.
Which of the following must be false?
A. A is at the first place

B. A is at the second place
C. A is at the third place
D. A is at the fouth place
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MEC HANIC AL &
SP A TIAL APTITUDE
–GETTING READY FOR A MECHANICAL/SPATIAL APTITUDE TEST–
SAMPLE MECHANICAL APTITUDE 6. What is the main function of a pulley?

QUESTIONS a. to decrease the strength of a construction
crane
Now use what you’ve learned by reading this chapter b. to override the power of an electric motor
to answer the following mechanical aptitude ques- c. to add energy to a system
tions. Answers are at the end of the chapter. d. to change the direction of a pulling force
1. Which of the following tools is used to smooth 7. Steve has a lever whose pivot point is 3 feet from
or level a piece of wood? the 50-pound box he wants to lift. Steve is stand-
a. a wrench ing at the other end of the lever, 6 feet from the
b. a screwdriver pivot point. How much force must he apply to
c. a plane lift the box?
d. a hammer
Force
50 lb
2. A compass is used for what purpose? Lever Pivot
Box
Point
a. to measure angles
b. to tighten and loosen nuts and bolts Floor
c. to drive and remove nails
6 ft 3 ft
d. to draw circles of various sizes
3. Which of the following is NOT a carpenter’s a. 50 pounds

hand tool? b. 25 pounds
a. a winch c. 100 pounds
b. a level d. 6 pounds
c. a compass
8. Which of the following is NOT a mechanical
d. a chisel
process for fastening?
4. Vice grips are a type of a. welding
a. ax b. buttoning
b. locking pliers c. bolting
c. ladder d. covalent bonding
d. mechanical jack
5. How can gears be used to change the speed of a

machine?
a. use more gears
b. use two gears of the same size
c. use two gears of different sizes
d. use two large gears
LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude • CHAPTER 1 11

9. When three identical springs are arranged in a 11. What type of outside energy source could be
series and a pulling force of 10 pounds is applied, used to operate a pump?
the total stretch is 9 inches. If these same three a. a battery
springs were arranged in parallel and the same b. an internal combustion engine
10-pound force is applied to the new arrange- c. an electric motor
ment, what will be the total distance of stretch? d. all of the above
Springs in Series: 12. What type of mechanical device is used to aid

in the cooling of an internal combustion engine?
Spring #1 Spring #2 Spring #3
a. a pump
b. a lever
Pulling Force =
10 Pounds c. a gauge
Wall d. a hammer
Springs in Parallel:
13. Of the following mechanical devices on an auto-
mobile, which one uses friction to accomplish
Rigid Bar its purpose?
a. the steering system
Pulling Force = b. the exhaust system
10 Pounds
c. the braking system
d. the internal combustion engine
Wall
14. The suspension system on a bicycle is likely to
use which of the following mechanical devices?
a. 3 inches a. a chain
b. 4.5 inches b. a pulley
c. 9 inches c. a gear
d. 18 inches d. a spring
10. What type of gauge uses units of rpm?

a. a pressure gauge
b. a tachometer
c. a speedometer
d. a thermometer
12 CHAPTER 1 • LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude

ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS 13. c. The braking system uses friction to slow
or stop the rotation of the wheels.
1. c. See the table under “Hand Tools” earlier 14. d. Springs are commonly used in suspension
in this chapter for the functions of the systems.
items listed.
2. d. As defined under “Hand Tools,” a compass
is used to draw circles. WHAT IS SPATIAL APTITUDE?
3. a. A level, a compass, and a chisel are all car-
penter’s hand tools. If you can imagine a box unfolded, see two-dimensional
4. b. Vice grips are a type of locking pliers. objects in three dimensions, read maps, or see hidden
5. c. Changing gears on a ten-speed bicycle is a figures in geometric shapes, you have spatial aptitude.
good example of using different size gears Imagine you are shopping in a local mall.You look
to change speed. at the store directory to find the closest restaurant. You
6. d. Pulleys are used to change not the locate the arrow that says,“You Are Here.” Do you know
strength of a force but its direction. where you are? Do you know which way to go to find
7. b. Apply the distance formula, w d1 f the restaurant?
d2, to come up with the equation 50 3 The store directory has just asked a typical spa-
f 6. Solve for the unknown f by mul- tial relations question. Spatial relations can be defined
tiplying 3 times 50 to get 50 and then as the ability to visualize in three dimensions. As the
dividing by 6 to get 25 pounds. store directory example suggests, everyone needs to be
8. d. A covalent bond is a chemical bond. able to translate a two-dimensional representation into
Welding, buttoning, and bolting are all a three-dimensional sense in order to know location and
mechanical fastening processes. direction. But this ability is particularly important for
9. a. The total pulling force will be divided people who want to enter fields that rely on these skills.
equally, with each spring experiencing For instance, if you want to be a firefighter, a police offi-
one-third of the total force. Since the cer, electrician, carpenter, plumber, or an emergency
force is divided by 3, the amount of medical technician, these skills are essential. Similar skills
movement will be divided by 3 also. The are needed to read electric mazes and schematics.
original configuration stretched 9 inches, Spatial relations questions, especially in the map-
so the new arrangement will stretch only reading skills section, are based on floor plans, pictures,
3 inches. or maps. Test questions will often ask you to locate cer-
10. b. A tachometer measures rotation in units tain points or routes on the diagram. While the answer
of revolutions per minute or rpm. is there in the diagram, you must know how to read it
11. d. Any of the energy sources listed could be correctly and how to pay attention to details.
used to operate a pump. In addition to the map-reading exercises, sections
12. a. As discussed in the section “Internal of this book are devoted to other spatial ability aptitudes
Combustion Engines” earlier in this chap- such as hidden figures, block counting, rotated blocks,
ter, a pump is used to help cool an ICE.

matching parts, spatial analysis, understanding patterns, fused by incorrect choices purposely included
and eye-hand coordination. to distract you.
3. Return to the map. Locate the information
READING A MAP asked for in the question. Look at the street
Many spatial relations questions are based on maps names and traffic patterns.
because map-reading skills are essential in many pro- 4. Prepare your answer by tracing your route.
fessions. Firefighters and police officers are expected to Remember to observe any traffic rules that are
be able to figure out the quickest route to the scene of necessary. Write down the route you have
an emergency without hesitation; ambulance drivers selected. Read the question again. Have you
would be required to do the same. Truck drivers, elec- understood what was asked, and have you
tricians, plumbers, and repairmen have to know the answered correctly?
shortest routes to make their jobs easier and faster. Car- 5. Read the answer choices. Be very observant, as
penters have to be able to read floor plans. And, in many the choices may be very similar to each other.
of those professions, you may find that you need to give Does one of the choices match your route
directions to motorists or pedestrians. exactly? Some answers may almost match your
route but contain one wrong direction. For
Questions On The Most Direct Route example, the answer may use north when you
Map-based questions typically ask for the most direct are supposed to go south. If you do not find an
route between two points. As you answer such questions, answer choice that matches yours exactly,
keep in mind that you must choose the best legal route, reread the question and try again. Carefully
observing one-way streets and traffic rules. When giv- review the question to see what is being asked.
ing directions to pedestrians, you would not have to con- Do you understand the question? Have you
sider the flow of traffic, so providing them with the mapped out the correct directions in selecting
shortest route may be easier to do. Take a systematic this route?
approach to answering a map question by using the fol-
lowing procedure: A street map is on the next page. Following the
map are questions that ask you to find the best route,
1. Look at the map. Take a moment to scan the based on the map. After each question is a detailed
buildings and streets. Locate the legend, if any; explanation of how to use the procedure outlined
it tells you which way is north and explains any above to find the correct answer.
special symbols, such as those indicating one- The map below shows a section of the city where
way streets. some public buildings are located. Each of the squares
2. Read the question. Read carefully and be sure represents one city block. Street names are as shown.
you understand what is being asked. Do not If there is an arrow next to the street name, it means
read the answer choices at this time. Read only the street traffic is one way in the direction of the arrow.
the question so that you can plot the route If there is no arrow next to the street name, two-way
yourself. That way, you’re less likely to be con- traffic is allowed. Answer questions 1–4 on the basis of
this map.

W E
one way KEY two way
FIRST AVENUE
STREET
STREET
STREET
STREET
STREET
LIBRARY GROCERY
STORE GAS
STATION
SECOND AVENUE
EDWARD
ABBY
DOUGLAS
CAROL
BRUCE
FIRE POLICE
HOSPITAL
STATION STATION
THIRD AVENUE
1. What is the shortest legal route from the Fire Sta- 2. Read the question. Take note of key words and
tion to the Third Avenue entrance of the hospi- directions, in this case, shortest legal route.
tal? Remember that the starting point must be the
a. south on Douglas Street, west on Second Fire Station. The hospital has two entrances,
Avenue, north on Carol Street, and west one on Second Avenue and another on Third
on Third Avenue to the hospital entrance Avenue. You are being asked to go from the
b. north on Douglas Street, west on Second entrance of the Fire Station to the Third Avenue
Avenue, south on Bruce Street, and west entrance of the hospital using the shortest
on Third Avenue to the hospital entrance legal route.
c. north on Douglas Street, west on Second 3. Return to the map. Locate the Fire Station
Avenue, south on Carol Street, and west entrance. It is on Douglas Street between Sec-
on Third Avenue to the hospital entrance ond Avenue and Third Avenue. Douglas Street
d. north on Douglas Street, west on First is one way going north. The hospital entrance
Avenue, south on Abby Street, and east on you are asked to report to is on Third Avenue
Second Avenue to the hospital entrance between Abby Street and Bruce Street. Avenues
allow two-way traffic, but Bruce Street is one
Here’s how you would use the map-reading way going north. You need to go south in order
procedure to answer question #1. to get to Third Avenue. Abby Street is a two-
1. Look at the map. Notice that some streets are way street but you would have to go past the
one way and that avenues permit two-way hospital to use it. Carol Street, which is one-
traffic. Locate north, south, east, and west. way going south, is the better option.
What are the names of the buildings shown?

4. Prepare your answer by tracing your route. b. east on Second Avenue to Douglas Street,
After careful consideration, you find that the make a right, and go half a block to the
shortest legal route would be to start on Dou- firehouse.
glas Street at the Fire Station entrance and go c. west on Second Avenue to Douglas Street,
north to Second Avenue. Then you would pro- make a right, and go half a block to the
ceed west on Second Avenue to Carol Street. firehouse.
Then you would travel south on Carol Street d. east on First Avenue to Douglas Street,
to Third Avenue and then west on Third make a left, and go half a block to the fire-
Avenue to the hospital entrance. Now, reread house.
the question. You have found the shortest legal
route from the Fire Station to the Third Avenue The delivery boy needs to walk from the grocery store
entrance of the hospital. to the firehouse. First, locate the grocery store and the
5. Read the answer choices. Choice c matches the firehouse. The grocery store is on Second Avenue
route you chose, but examine the other choices between Bruce Street and Carol Street. The firehouse
to make sure. Choice a is incorrect because you is on Douglas Street between Second and Third Avenues.
can’t legally travel south on Douglas Street, and, Since the delivery boy is walking, you can ignore the
if you could, it wouldn’t lead you to Second one-way streets. Trace a route. Beginning at the grocery
Avenue. Choice b is close to your chosen route, store, the delivery boy should walk east on Second
but it becomes incorrect when it sends you Avenue to Douglas Street, turn right, and go half a block
south on Bruce Street, which allows north- to the firehouse.
bound traffic only. Choice d will get you to the Now read the answer choices. Choice b is the route
hospital legally but takes you to the Second you would have directed the delivery boy to use to get
Avenue entrance of the hospital instead of the from the grocery store to the firehouse. Choices a and
Third Avenue entrance. It also takes you out of c have him walking west on Second Avenue, which is
the way by traveling on First Avenue to Abby not the correct direction from the grocery store to the
Street. firehouse. Choice d has the delivery boy walking on First
Avenue, which is not where the entrance to the grocery
Use the same procedure to answer the next store is located, and left on Douglas Street, which will
question. not take him to the firehouse.
Questions on Finding Your Location or Direction

2. The delivery boy from the grocery store calls to
Map questions may also ask you for your location after
ask directions to the firehouse so that he can
following a series of directions. These questions, while
deliver the order. You should direct him to walk
worded differently, should be answered using the same
a. west on Second Avenue to Douglas Street,
procedure:
make a left, and go half a block to the fire-
house.
1. Look at the map.
2. Read the question.

3. Return to the map and follow the directions READING A FLOOR PLAN
given. A floor plan is a map of the interior of a building, apart-
4. Go back to the question and examine the ment, or house. The ability to read floor plans and visu-
answer choices to see which one matches the alize your position is critical for many professions. In
direction or location you found in step 3. questions based on floor plans, your ability to observe,
plan, judge location, and anticipate potential hazards
Try this procedure on the questions that follow, using is being tested. The floor plan may be accompanied by
the same map given previously. a brief explanation of what the picture shows. The ques-
tions may ask the number of exits, windows, bed-
3. You are on the corner of First Avenue and Abby
rooms, etc.You may be asked where you would position
Street. Drive east two blocks, south one block,
a ladder to attempt a rescue or which room you are in
and west half a block. You are in front of the
based on a set of directions.
a. hospital.
Handle floor-plan questions in the same manner
b. library.
as those on maps. Before attempting to answer any ques-
c. fire station.
tions, look at the diagram. Familiarize yourself with such
d. grocery store.
features as doors, windows, doorways, patio doors, fire
extinguishers, and smoke detectors. Read each question
Trace the steps given in the question on the map, pay-
carefully. Then return to the diagram to find the answer.
ing careful attention to the specific directions, north,
After you’ve determined your answer, try to match it
south, east, and west. Turn the map as you go to help
to the choices. The correct answer should be apparent,
you keep track of where you are. You have arrived in
but read each choice carefully to avoid making unnec-
front of the grocery store, choice d.
essary errors. Never jump at one option without care-
4. You are walking north on Bruce Street. You turn fully reading all the others.
right on Second Avenue, walk two blocks to Dou- A floor plan is on the next page. Apply the pro-
glas Street, and turn right. What direction are you cedure outlined above to answer the questions that come
now facing? after it.
a. north Office buildings and apartment buildings may
b. south post floor plans at the front entrance or by the eleva-
c. east tors to assist visitors. Firefighters arriving at the scene
d. west of a fire must be able to read a floor plan quickly and
develop a mental picture of the interior. When there is
The answer to this question is also found by tracing the a fire, the smoke can be very thick, so firefighters need
steps given in the question. Again, turn the map as you to know their way in and out without seeing where they
are reading the directions indicated. If you are facing are. The diagram on the next page shows two apart-
north on Bruce Street, a right turn will leave you walk- ments on the first floor of a building. Answer questions
ing east. Turning right onto Douglas Street, leaves you 5–8 based on this diagram.
facing south, choice b.

5. Firefighters arrive at the scene to find that there The question asks for an alternate way to reach the bed-
is a woman trapped in the bedroom of apart- room of apartment 2, since the entrance is blocked. A
ment 2. There is a fire in the living room, and look at the floor plan shows that choices a, b, and d
the entrance to the apartment is blocked by would bring the firefighters through the living room,
fire. What would be the most direct way to res- where the fire is located. Choice c, which brings you
cue the trapped woman? directly into the bedroom, is the fastest and safest
a. Go into the apartment through the patio means of entering the apartment and rescuing the
doors. woman with the least risk of injuring either her or the
b. Climb through the kitchen window. rescuers.
c. Climb through the bedroom window.
d. Climb through the bathroom window.

6. A fire in the kitchen has filled apartment 1 with The answer is a. You must read the question carefully
smoke. You must reach the bedroom to search to see that it asks you to look at both apartments and
for sleeping occupants. Visibility is near zero as to find two items, the smoke detectors and the fire extin-
you are crawling down the entry hall. How guishers. There are two smoke detectors and one fire
many doors will you encounter before you reach extinguisher in each apartment. If you counted the
the bedroom? smoke detectors (but not the fire extinguishers) in
a. none both apartments, you would have chosen c. On the other
b. six hand, if you counted both smoke detectors and fire
c. four extinguishers, but only in one apartment, you would
d. two have thought choice d was correct.
To answer this question, locate the entrance to apart- The ability to understand spatial relations is an
ment 1 and trace a route down the hall and to the bed- important tool. Can you apply what you see and men-
room. You would pass the bathroom door and a closet tally navigate yourself through the city or a building,
door before the bedroom: two doors, choice d. while paying close attention to detail? That’s what
these questions try to assess.
7. How many bathrooms are there in apartment 1?
a. one
How to Answer Spatial Relations Questions
b. two
■ First, familiarize yourself with the map or
c. three
diagram.
d. four
■ Next, read the question carefully to deter-
mine what you are being asked to do.

Review the diagram. Two apartments are shown, labeled
■ Return to the diagram and find your own
1 and 2. The question asks for the number of bathrooms
answer before reading the choices given.
in apartment 1. Apartment 1 contains one bathroom,
■ Reread the question and the answer choices.
choice a. If you counted all the bathrooms shown on
Don’t rush; read all the possible choices. Mis-
the diagram, you would incorrectly choose b.
leading answers are placed on the test to see if
8. How many smoke detectors and fire extin- you can be caught not paying attention.
guishers are there in apartments 1 and 2? ■ If the answer you found does not match the
a. six choices, look at the question thoroughly,

b. ten return to the diagram, and go over your
c. four options to see what you missed.
d. three ■ Remember, the answers to the questions are
right there in the map or diagram. Take your

time, read to understand, and think through
your answers.

SYMBOLS WHAT KINDS OF JOBS REQUIRE

Last, but not least, employers will want to know whether MECHANICAL/SPATIAL APTITUDE?
you have the ability to reason using symbols. Chapter
5 of this book gives you the practice you’ll need to pass There are many kinds of jobs that require mechanical/
this section of a mechanical/spatial exam. Here you will spatial abilities. These are only a few.
find exercises entitled Symbol Series, Symbol Analogies,
Aircraft Mechanic Furniture Manufacturer
Sorting and Classifying Figures, and Series Reasoning Automobile Technician/ Hardware Store Manager
Tests. Mechanic Painter
Bicycle Repairman Pipefitter
Camera Repairman Plumber
Carpenter Police Officer
Computer Programmer Printer
Dental Lab Technician Radio/TV Repairman
Drafter Roofer
Electrician Sheet-Metal Worker
Emergency Medical Telephone Repairman
Technician Tool/Die Maker
Firefighter Truck Driver
Framer

2
C • H • A • P • T • E • R
THE LEARNINGEXPRESS
TEST PREPARATION
SYSTEM
CHAPTER SUMMARY
Taking any test can be tough. But, don’t let the written test
scare you! If you prepare ahead of time, you can achieve
a top score. The LearningExpress Test Preparation System,
developed exclusively for LearningExpress by leading test
experts, gives you the discipline and attitude you need to
be a winner.
irst, the bad news: Getting ready for any test takes work! If you plan
F to enter a field that requires mechanical/spatial abilities, you’ll need

to know how to answer questions in Shop Arithmetic, Tool Knowl-
edge, Mechanical Insight, Rotated Blocks, Symbol Series, and Map Read-
ing, to name a few. By honing in on these skills, you will take your first step
toward achieving the career of your dreams. However, there are all sorts
of pitfalls that can prevent you from doing your best on exams. Here are
some obstacles that can stand in the way of your success.
■ Being unfamiliar with the format of the exam

■ Being paralyzed by test anxiety
■ Leaving your preparation to the last minute
■ Not preparing at all

–THE LEARNINGEXPRESS TEST PREPARATION SYSTEM–
■ Not knowing vital test-taking skills like:

■ how to pace yourself through the exam
■ how to use the process of elimination
■ when to guess
■ Not being in tip-top mental and physical shape

■ Forgetting to eat breakfast and having to take the test on an empty stomach
■ Forgetting a sweater or jacket and shivering through the exam
What’s the common denominator in all these test-taking pitfalls? One word: control. Who’s in control, you
or the exam?
Now the good news: The LearningExpress Test Preparation System puts you in control. In just nine
easy-to-follow steps, you will learn everything you need to know to make sure that you are in charge of your prep-
aration and your performance on the exam. Other test-takers may let the test get the better of them; other test-
takers may be unprepared or out of shape, but not you. You will have taken all the steps you need to take for a
passing score.
Here’s how the LearningExpress Test Preparation System works: Nine easy steps lead you through every-
thing you need to know and do to get ready to master your exam. Each of the steps listed below gives you tips
and activities to help you prepare for any exam. It’s important that you follow the advice and do the activities, or
you won’t be getting the full benefit of the system. Each step gives you an approximate time estimate.
Step 1. Get Information 30 minutes

Step 2. Conquer Test Anxiety 20 minutes
Step 3. Make a Plan 50 minutes
Step 4. Learn to Manage Your Time 10 minutes
Step 5. Learn to Use the Process of Elimination 20 minutes
Step 6. Know When to Guess 20 minutes
Step 7. Reach Your Peak Performance Zone 10 minutes
Step 8. Get Your Act Together 10 minutes
Step 9. Do it! 10 minutes
Total 3 hours
We estimate that working through the entire system will take you approximately three hours, though it’s
perfectly okay if you work faster or slower than the time estimates say. If you can take a whole afternoon or evening,
you can work through the entire LearningExpress Test Preparation System in one sitting. Otherwise, you can break
it up, and do just one or two steps a day for the next several days. It’s up to you—remember, you’re in control.

STEP 1: GET INFORMATION
Time to complete: 30 minutes

Activities: Read Chapter 1. “Getting Ready for a Mechanical/Spatial Test.”
Knowledge is power. The first step in the LearningExpress Test Preparation System is finding out everything you
can about the types of questions that will be asked on any mechanical/spatial test. Practicing and studying the
exercises in this book will help prepare you for those tests.
PART A: JOBS THAT TEST MECHANICAL/SPATIAL ABILITY

If you already know that you have mechanical/spatial abilities, that’s great! But, employers need to know what
your abilities are and if you can learn new ones. While some of the aptitudes and problem-solving skills tested
in this book are important in almost any job, others, such as mechanical insight or eye-hand coordination, are
quite specialized. It is vital to give your attention to these kinds of questions to get the kind of job you want.
PART B: THE KINDS OF SKILLS TESTED

This book has seventeen subtests that help employers determine your mechanical/spatial abilities.
■ Shop Arithmetic
■ Tool Knowledge
■ Mechanical Insight
■ Mechanical Knowledge
■ Hidden Figures
■ Block Counting
■ Rotated Blocks
■ Matching Pieces and Parts
■ Spatial Analysis
■ Understanding Patterns
■ Eye-Hand Coordination
■ Reading Maps
■ Symbol Series
■ Symbol Analogies
■ Sorting and Classifying Figures
■ Series Reasoning Tests
If you haven’t already done so, stop here and read Chapter 1 of this book. Here, you’ll read an overview of the
definitions of mechanical and spatial aptitudes and the kinds of jobs that use these skills.

STEP 2: CONQUER TEST ANXIETY

Activity: Take the Test Stress Test
Having complete information about the exam is the first step in getting control of the exam. Next, you have to
overcome one of the biggest obstacles to test success: test anxiety. Test anxiety not only impairs your performance
on the exam itself, but it can even keep you from preparing! In Step 2, you’ll learn stress management techniques
that will help you succeed on your exam. Learn these strategies now, and practice them as you work through the
exams in this book, so they’ll be second nature to you by exam day.
COMBATING TEST ANXIETY

The first thing you need to know is that a little test anxiety is a good thing. Everyone gets nervous before a big
exam—and if that nervousness motivates you to prepare thoroughly, so much the better. It’s said that Sir Lau-
rence Olivier, one of the foremost British actors of this century, threw up before every performance. His stage
fright didn’t impair his performance; in fact, it probably gave him a little extra edge—just the kind of edge you
need to do well, whether on a stage or in an exam room.
On page 5 is the Test Stress Test. Stop here and answer the questions on that page, to find out whether your
level of test anxiety is something you should worry about.
Stress Management Before the Test

If you feel your level of anxiety getting the best of you in the weeks before the test, here is what you need to do
to bring the level down again:
■ Get prepared. There’s nothing like knowing what to expect. Being prepared will put you in control of
test anxiety. That’s why you’re reading this book. Use it faithfully, and remind yourself that you’re bet-
ter prepared than most of the people taking the test.
■ Practice self-confidence. A positive attitude is a great way to combat test anxiety. This is no time to be
humble or shy. Stand in front of the mirror and say to your reflection, “I’m prepared. I’m full of self-
confidence. I’m going to ace this test. I know I can do it.” Say it into a tape recorder and play it back
once a day. If you hear it often enough, you’ll believe it.
■ Fight negative messages. Every time someone starts telling you how hard the exam is or how it’s
almost impossible to get a high score, start telling them your self-confidence messages above. If the
someone with the negative messages is you—telling yourself you don’t do well on exams, you just can’t
do this—don’t listen. Turn on your tape recorder and listen to your self-confidence messages.
■ Visualize. Imagine yourself reporting for your first day on the job. Visualizing success can help make it
happen—and it reminds you why you’re preparing for the exam so diligently.
■ Exercise. Physical activity helps calm your body down and focus your mind. Besides, being in good

Test Stress Test
You only need to worry about test anxiety if it is extreme enough to impair your performance. The follow-
ing questionnaire will provide a diagnosis of your level of test anxiety. In the blank before each statement,
write the number that most accurately describes your experience.
0 = Never 1 = Once or twice 2 = Sometimes 3 = Often
_____ I have gotten so nervous before an exam that I simply put down the books and didn’t study for it.
_____ I have experienced disabling physical symptoms such as vomiting and severe headaches because
I was nervous about an exam.
_____ I have simply not showed up for an exam because I was scared to take it.
_____ I have experienced dizziness and disorientation while taking an exam.
_____ I have had trouble filling in the little circles because my hands were shaking too hard.
_____ I have failed an exam because I was too nervous to complete it.
_____ Total: Add up the numbers in the blanks above.
Your Test Stress Score
Here are the steps you should take, depending on your score. If you scored:
■ Below 3, your level of test anxiety is nothing to worry about; it’s probably just enough to give you that
little extra edge.

■ Between 3 and 6, your test anxiety may be enough to impair your performance, and you should prac-
tice the stress management techniques listed in this section to try to bring your test anxiety down to man-
ageable levels.
■ Above 6, your level of test anxiety is a serious concern. In addition to practicing the stress management
techniques listed in this section, you may want to seek additional, personal help. Call your local high school
or community college and ask for the academic counselor. Alternatively, contact a counselor affiliated
with your department. Tell the counselor that you have a level of test anxiety that sometimes keeps you
from being able to take exams. The counselor may be willing to help you or may suggest someone else
you should talk to.

physical shape can actually help you do well on the exam. Go for a run, lift weights, go swimming—
and do it regularly.
Stress Management on Test Day

There are several ways you can bring down your level of test anxiety on test day. To find a comfort level, practice
these in the weeks before the test, and use the ones that work best for you.
■ Deep breathing. Take a deep breath while you count to five. Hold it for a count of one, then let it out
on a count of five. Repeat several times.
■ Move your body. Try rolling your head in a circle. Rotate your shoulders. Shake your hands from the
wrist. Many people find these movements very relaxing.
■ Visualize again. Think of the place where you are most relaxed: lying on the beach in the sun, walking
through the park, or whatever. Now close your eyes and imagine you’re actually there. If you practice
in advance, you’ll find that you only need a few seconds of this exercise to experience a significant
increase in your sense of well-being.
When anxiety threatens to overwhelm you right there during the exam, there are still things you can do to
manage the stress level:
■ Repeat your self-confidence messages. You should have them memorized by now. Say them quietly to
yourself, and believe them!
■ Visualize one more time. This time, visualize yourself moving smoothly and quickly through the test
answering every question right and finishing just before time is up. Like most visualization techniques,
this one works best if you’ve practiced it ahead of time.
■ Find an easy question. Skim over the test until you find an easy question, and answer it. Getting even
one circle filled in gets you into the test-taking groove.
■ Take a mental break. Everyone loses concentration once in a while during a long test. It’s normal, so
you shouldn’t worry about it. Instead, accept what has happened. Say to yourself, “Hey, I lost it there
for a minute. My brain is taking a break.” Put down your pencil, close your eyes, and do some deep
breathing for a few seconds. Then you’re ready to go back to work.
Try these techniques ahead of time, and see if they work for you!

STEP 3: MAKE A PLAN

Activity: Construct a study plan
Maybe the most important thing you can do to get control of yourself and your exam is to make a study plan.
Too many people fail to prepare simply because they fail to plan. Spending hours on the day before the exam por-
ing over sample test questions not only raises your level of test anxiety, it also is simply no substitute for careful
preparation and practice.
Don’t fall into the cram trap. Take control of your preparation time by mapping out a study schedule. If
you’re the kind of person who needs deadlines and assignments to motivate you for a project, here they are. If
you’re the kind of person who doesn’t like to follow other people’s plans, you can use the suggested schedules
here to construct your own.
Even more important than making a plan is making a commitment. You can’t review everything you need
to know for a mechanical/spatial test in one night. You have to set aside some time every day for study and prac-
tice. Try for at least 20 minutes a day. Twenty minutes daily will do you much more good than two hours on Sat-
urday.
Don’t put off your study until the day before the exam. Start now. A few minutes a day, with half an hour
or more on weekends can make a big difference in your score.
If you have months before the exam, you’re lucky. Don’t put off your study until the week before the exam!
Start now. Even ten minutes a day, with half an hour or more on weekends, can make a big difference in your
score—and in your chances of making the grade you want!

SCHEDULE A: THE 30-DAY PLAN

If you have at least a month before you take your test, you have plenty of time to prepare—as long as you don’t
waste it! If you have less than a month, turn to Schedule B.
Time Preparation
Days 1–4 Skim over the written materials from any courses or training programs
you may have taken, particularly noting 1) areas you expect to be
emphasized on the exam and 2) areas you don’t remember well. On Day
4, concentrate on those areas.
Day 5 Take the diagnostic test at the end of the book.
Day 6 Score the exam. Make a note of your strongest and weakest areas. Iden-
tify two areas that you will concentrate on before you practice the exam a
second time.
Days 7–10 Study the two areas you identified as your weak points. Don’t worry
about the other areas. Go back to the sections in the book and review
these skills again.
Day 11 Take the diagnostic test once again.
Day 12 Score your second diagnostic test. Identify one area, turn back to the
chapter in the book for more review.
Days 13–18 Study the one area you identified for review. In addition, review both
diagnostic tests, and give special attention to the answer explanations
and the length of time it takes you to complete the exam.
Day 19 Take the diagnostic test for a third time.
Day 20 Once again, identify one area to review, based on your score on the
third practice exam.
Days 20–21 Study the one area you identified for review.
Days 22–25 Take an overview of any training material you may have.
Days 26–27 Review all the areas that have given you the most trouble in the three
diagnostic tests you’ve taken so far.
Day 28 Take the diagnostic one final time. Note how much you’ve improved!
Day 29 Review one or two weak areas.
Day before the exam Relax. Do something unrelated to the exam and go to bed at a reason-
able hour.

SCHEDULE B: THE 10-DAY PLAN

If you have two weeks or less before you take your exam, you may have your work cut out for you. Use this 10-
day schedule to help you make the most of your time.
Time Preparation
Day 1 Take the practice exam and score it using the answer key at the end. Turn
to the list of subject areas on the exam in the Table of Contents to find out
which areas need the most work—based on your exam score.
Day 2 Review one area that gave you trouble on the diagnostic test.
Day 3 Review another area that gave you trouble on the diagnostic test.
Day 4 Take the diagnostic test again and score it.
Day 5 If your score on the second diagnostic test doesn’t show improvement on
the two areas you studied, review them. If you did improve in those
areas, choose a different trouble spot to study today.
Day 6 Take the diagnostic test a third time and score it.
Day 7 Choose your weakest area from the third diagnostic test to review.
Day 8 Review any areas that you have neglected in this schedule.
Day 9 Take the diagnostic test a final time and score it.
Day 10 Use your last study day to brush up on any areas that are still giving you
trouble.
Day before the exam Relax. Do something unrelated to the exam and go to bed at a reason-
able hour.

STEP 4: LEARN TO MANAGE YOUR TIME
Time to complete: 10 minutes to read, many hours of practice!

Activities: Practice these strategies as you take the sample tests in this book
Steps 4, 5, and 6 of the LearningExpress Test Preparation System put you in charge of your exam by showing you
test-taking strategies that work. Practice these strategies as you take the sample tests in this book, and then you’ll
be ready to use them on test day.
First, take control of your time on the exam. Mechanical/Spatial exams have a time limit, which may give
you more than enough time to complete all the questions—or may not. It’s a terrible feeling to hear the exam-
iner say, “Five minutes left,” when you’re only three-quarters of the way through the test. Here are some tips to
keep that from happening to you.
■ Follow directions. If the directions are given orally, listen closely. If they’re written on the exam book-
let, read them carefully. Ask questions before the exam begins if there is anything you don’t under-
stand. If you’re allowed to write in your exam booklet, write down the beginning time and the ending
time of the exam.
■ Pace yourself. Glance at your watch every few minutes, and compare the time to how far you’ve gotten
in the test. When one-quarter of the time has elapsed, you should be a quarter of the way through the
section, and so on. If you’re falling behind, pick up the pace a bit.
■ Keep moving. Don’t waste time on one question. If you don’t know the answer, skip the question and
move on. Circle the number of the question in your test booklet in case you have time to come back to
it later.
■ Keep track of your place on the answer sheet. If you skip a question, make sure you skip it on the
answer sheet, too. Check yourself every 5–10 questions to make sure the question number and the
answer sheet number are still the same.
■ Don’t rush. Though you should keep moving, rushing won’t help. Try to keep calm and work method-
ically and quickly.
STEP 5: LEARN TO USE THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

Activity: Complete worksheet on Using the Process of Elimination
After time management, your next most important tool for taking control of your exam is using the process of
elimination wisely. It’s standard test-taking wisdom that you should always read all the answer choices before choos-
ing your answer. This helps you find the right answer by eliminating wrong answer choices.

CHOOSING THE RIGHT ANSWER BY PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

As you read a question, you may find it helpful to underline important information or make some notes about
what you’re reading. When you get to the heart of the question, circle it and make sure you understand what it
is asking. If you’re not sure of what’s being asked, you’ll never know whether you’ve chosen the right answer. What
you do next depends on the type of question you’re answering.
■ If it’s math, take a quick look at the answer choices for some clues. Sometimes this helps to put the
question in a new perspective and makes it easier to answer. Then make a plan of attack to solve the
problem.
■ Otherwise, follow this simple process of elimination plan to manage your testing time as efficiently as
possible: Read each answer choice and make a quick decision about what to do with it, marking your
test book accordingly:
the answer seems reasonable; keep it. Put a check mark next to the answer.
the answer is awful, get rid of it. Put an X next to the answer.
you can’t make up your mind about the answer, or you don’t understand it, keep it for now. Put a ?
next to it.
Whatever you do, don’t waste time with any one answer choice. If you can’t figure out what an answer choice
means, don’t worry about it. If it’s the right answer, you’ll probably be able to eliminate all the others, and, if it’s
the wrong answer, another answer will probably strike you more obviously as the right answer.
If you haven’t eliminated any answers at all, skip the question temporarily, but don’t forget to mark the ques-
tion so you can come back to it later if you have time. If the test has no penalty for wrong answers, and you’re
certain that you could never answer this question in a million years, pick an answer and move on!
If you’ve eliminated all but one answer, just reread the circled part of the question to make sure you’re answer-
ing exactly what’s asked. Mark your answer sheet and move on to the next question.
Here’s what to do when you’ve eliminated some, but not all of the answer choices. Compare the remaining
answers looking for similarities and differences, reasoning your way through these choices. Try to eliminate those
choices that don’t seem as strong to you. But don’t eliminate an answer just because you don’t understand it. You
may even be able to use relevant information from other parts of the test. If you’ve narrowed it down to a single
answer, check it against the circled question to be sure you’ve answered it. Then mark your answer sheet and move
on. If you’re down to only two or three answer choices, you’ve improved your odds of getting the question right.
Make an educated guess and move on. However, if you think you can do better with more time, mark the ques-
tion as one to return to later.
IF YOU’RE PENALIZED FOR WRONG ANSWERS

You must know whether you’ll be penalized for wrong answers before you begin the test. If you don’t, ask the
proctor before the test begins. Whether you make a guess or not depends upon the penalty. Some standardized
tests are scored in such a way that every wrong answer reduces your score by a fraction of a point, and these can

really add up against you! Whatever the penalty, if you can eliminate enough choices to make the odds of answer-
ing the question better than the penalty for getting it wrong, make a guess. This is called educated guessing.
Let’s imagine you are taking a test in which each answer has five choices and you are penalized 14 of a point
for each wrong answer. If you cannot eliminate any of the answer choices, you’re better off leaving the answer
blank because the odds of guessing correctly are one in five. However, if you can eliminate two of the choices as
definitely wrong, the odds are now in your favor. You have a one in three chance of answering the question cor-
rectly. Fortunately, few tests are scored using such elaborate means, but if your test is one of them, know the penal-
ties and calculate your odds before you take a guess on a question.
IF YOU FINISH EARLY

Use any time you have left to do the following:
■ Go back to any unanswered questions you marked and try them again.
■ Check your work on all the other questions. If you have a good reason for thinking a response is
wrong, change it.
■ Review your answer sheet. Make sure that you’ve put the answers in the right places and that you’ve
marked only one answer for each question. (Most tests are scored in such a way that questions with
more than one answer are marked wrong.)
■ If you’ve erased an answer, make sure you’ve done a good job of it.
■ Check for stray marks on your answer sheet that could distort your score.
Whatever you do, don’t waste time when you’ve finished a test section. Make every second count by checking
your work over and over again until time is called.
Try using your powers of elimination on the questions in the worksheet on the next page called “Using the
Process of Elimination.” The answer explanations that follow show one possible way you might use the process
to arrive at the right answer.
The process of elimination is your tool for the next step, which is knowing when to guess.
USING THE PROCESS OF ELIMINATION

Use the process of elimination to answer the following questions.
1. Ilsa is as old as Meghan will be in five years. The difference between Ed’s age and Meghan’s age is twice the
difference between Ilsa’s age and Meghan’s age. Ed is 29. How old is Ilsa?
a. 4
b. 10
c. 19
d. 24

2. “All drivers of commercial vehicles must carry a valid commercial driver’s license whenever operating a
commercial vehicle.” According to this sentence, which of the following people need NOT carry a com-
mercial driver’s license?
a. a truck driver idling his engine while waiting to be directed to a loading dock
b. a bus operator backing her bus out of the way of another bus in the bus lot
c. a taxi driver driving his personal car to the grocery store
d. a limousine driver taking the limousine to her home after dropping off her last passenger of the
evening
3. Smoking tobacco has been linked to

a. an increased risk of stroke and heart attack.
b. all forms of respiratory disease.
c. increasing mortality rates over the past ten years.
d. juvenile delinquency.
4. Which of the following words is spelled correctly?

a. incorrigible
b. outragous
c. domestickated
d. understandible
ANSWERS
Here are the answers, as well as some suggestions as to how you might have used the process of elimination to
find them.
1. d. You should have eliminated choice a immediately. Ilsa can’t be four years old if Meghan is going to
be Ilsa’s age in five years. The best way to eliminate other answer choices is to try plugging them in
to the information given in the problem. For instance, for choice b, if Ilsa is 10, then Meghan must
be 5. The difference in their ages is 5. The difference between Ed’s age, 29, and Meghan’s age, 5, is
24. Is 24 two times 5? No. Then choice b is wrong. You could eliminate choice c in the same way and
be left with choice d.
2. c. Note the word not in the question, and go through the answers one by one. Is the truck driver in
choice a “operating a commercial vehicle”? Yes, idling counts as “operating,” so he needs to have a
commercial driver’s license. Likewise, the bus operator in choice b is operating a commercial vehi-
cle; the question doesn’t say the operator has to be on the street. The limo driver in choice d is oper-
ating a commercial vehicle, even if it doesn’t have a passenger in it. However, the cabbie in choice c
is not operating a commercial vehicle, but his own private car.

3. a. You could eliminate choice b simply because of the presence of the word all. Such absolutes hardly
ever appear in correct answer choices. Choice c looks attractive until you think a little about what
you know—aren’t fewer people smoking these days, rather than more? So how could smoking be
responsible for a higher mortality rate? (If you didn’t know that mortality rate means the rate at
which people die, you might keep this choice as a possibility, but you’d still be able to eliminate two
answers and have only two to choose from.) Choice d can’t be proven, so you could eliminate that
one, too. Now you’re left with the correct choice, a.
4. a. How you used the process of elimination here depends on which words you recognized as being
spelled incorrectly. If you knew that the correct spellings were outrageous, domesticated, and
understandable, then you were home free. Surely you knew that at least one of those words was
wrong.
STEP 6: KNOW WHEN TO GUESS

Activity: Complete worksheet on Your Guessing Ability
Armed with the process of elimination, you’re ready to take control of one of the big questions in test-taking:
Should I guess? The first and main answer is, Yes. Some exams have what’s called a “guessing penalty,” in which
a fraction of your wrong answers is subtracted from your right answers. Check with the administrators of your
particular exam to see if this is the case. In many instances, the number of questions you answer correctly yields
your raw score. So you have nothing to lose and everything to gain by guessing.
The more complicated answer to the question,“Should I guess?” depends on you, your personality, and your
“guessing intutition.” There are two things you need to know about yourself before you go into the exam:
■ Are you a risk-taker?

■ Are you a good guesser?
You’ll have to decide about your risk-taking quotient on your own. To find out if you’re a good guesser, complete
the worksheet called Your Guessing Ability that begins on page 15. Frankly, even if you’re a play-it-safe person
with terrible intuition, you’re still safe in guessing every time. The best thing would be if you could overcome
your anxieties and go ahead and mark an answer. But you may want to have a sense of how good your intuition
is before you go into the exam.
(continued on page 38)

Your Guessing Ability
The following are ten really hard questions. You’re not supposed to know the answers. Rather, this is an
assessment of your ability to guess when you don’t have a clue. Read each question carefully, just as if you
did expect to answer it. If you have any knowledge at all of the subject of the question, use that knowledge
to help you eliminate wrong answer choices. Fill in the correct answer.
ANSWER GRID
1. a b c d 5. a b c d 9. a b c d
2. a b c d 6. a b c d 10. a b c d
3. a b c d 7. a b c d
4. a b c d 8. a b c d
1. September 7 is Independence Day in

a. India.
b. Costa Rica.
c. Brazil.
d. Australia.
2. Which of the following is the formula for determining the momentum of an object?
a. p = mv
b. F = ma
c. P = IV
d. E = mc2
3. Because of the expansion of the universe, the stars and other celestial bodies are all moving away from each
other. This phenomenon is known as
a. Newton’s first law.
b. the big bang.
c. gravitational collapse.
d. Hubble flow.
4. American author Gertrude Stein was born in

a. 1713.
b. 1830.
c. 1874.
d. 1901.

5. Which of the following is not one of the Five Classics attributed to Confucius?
a. the I Ching
b. the Book of Holiness
c. the Spring and Autumn Annals
d. the Book of History
6. The religious and philosophical doctrine that holds that the universe is constantly in a struggle between good
and evil is known as
a. Pelagianism.
b. Manichaeanism.
c. neo-Hegelianism.
d. Epicureanism.
7. The third Chief Justice of the Supreme Court was

a. John Blair.
b. William Cushing.
c. James Wilson.
d. John Jay.
8. Which of the following is the poisonous portion of a daffodil?

a. the bulb
b. the leaves
c. the stem
d. the flowers
9. The winner of the Masters golf tournament in 1953 was

a. Sam Snead.
b. Cary Middlecoff.
c. Arnold Palmer.
d. Ben Hogan.
10. The state with the highest per capita personal income in 1980 was
a. Alaska.
b. Connecticut.
c. New York.
d. Texas.

Answers
Check your answers against the correct answers below.
1. c. 5. b. 9. d.
2. a. 6. b. 10. a.
3. d. 7. b.
4. c. 8. a.
HOW DID YOU DO?

You may have simply gotten lucky and actually known the answer to one or two questions. In addition, your
guessing was more successful if you were able to use the process of elimination on any of the questions.
Maybe you didn’t know who the third Chief Justice was (question 7), but you knew that John Jay was the
first. In that case, you would have eliminated answer d and therefore improved your odds of guessing cor-
rectly from one in four to one in three.
According to probability, you should get 212 answers correct by guessing, so getting either two or three
right would be average. If you got four or more right, you may be a really terrific guesser. If you got one
or none right, you may decide not to guess.
Keep in mind, though, that this is only a small sample. You should continue to keep track of your guess-
ing ability as you work through the practice questions in this book. Circle the numbers of questions you
guess; or, if you don’t have time during the practice tests, go back afterward and try to remember which
questions you guessed. Remember, on a test with four answer choices, your chances of getting a right answer
is one in four. So keep a separate “guessing” score for each exam. How many questions did you guess?
How many did you get right? If the number you got right is at least one-fourth of the number of questions
you guessed, you are at least an average guesser, maybe better—and you should always go ahead and
guess on the real exam. If the number you got right is significantly lower than one-fourth of the number you
guessed on, you should not guess on exams where there is a guessing penalty unless you can eliminate a
wrong answer. If there’s no guessing penalty, you would, frankly, be safe in guessing anyway, but maybe
you’d feel more comfortable if you guessed only selectively, when you can eliminate a wrong answer or at
least have a good feeling about one of the answer choices.

STEP 7: REACH YOUR PEAK PERFORMANCE ZONE
Time to complete: 10 minutes to read; weeks to complete!

Activity: Complete the Physical Preparation Checklist
To get ready for a challenge like a big exam, you have to take control of your physical, as well as your mental state.
Exercise, proper diet, and rest will ensure that your body works with, rather than against, your mind on test day,
as well as during your preparation.
EXERCISE
If you don’t already have a regular exercise program going, the time during which you’re preparing for an exam
is actually an excellent time to start one. If you’re already keeping fit—or trying to get that way—don’t let the
pressure of preparing for an exam fool you into quitting now. Exercise helps reduce stress by pumping wonder-
ful good-feeling hormones called endorphins into your system. It also increases the oxygen supply throughout
your body and your brain, so you’ll be at peak performance on test day.
A half hour of vigorous activity—enough to raise a sweat—every day should be your aim. If you’re really
pressed for time, every other day is ok. Choose an activity you like and get out there and do it. Jogging with a
friend always makes the time go faster as does listening to music.
But don’t overdo. You don’t want to exhaust yourself. Moderation is the key.
DIET
First of all, cut out the junk. Go easy on caffeine and nicotine, and eliminate alcohol and any other drugs from
your system at least two weeks before the exam. Promise yourself a binge the night after the exam, if need be.
What your body needs for peak performance is simply a balanced diet. Eat plenty of fruits and vegetables,
along with protein and carbohydrates. Foods that are high in lecithin (an amino acid), such as fish and beans,
are especially good “brain foods.”
REST
You probably know how much sleep you need every night to be at your best, even if you don’t always get it. Make
sure you do get that much sleep though, for at least a week before the exam. Moderation is important here, too.
Extra sleep will just make you groggy.
If you’re not a morning person and your exam will be given in the morning, you should reset your internal
clock so that your body doesn’t think you’re taking an exam at 3 A.M. You have to start this process well before
the exam. The way it works is to get up half an hour earlier each morning, and then go to bed half an hour ear-
lier that night. Don’t try it the other way around; you’ll just toss and turn if you go to bed early without getting
up early. The next morning, get up another half an hour earlier, and so on. How long you will have to do this
depends on how late you’re used to getting up. Use the Physical Preparation Checklist on the next page to make
sure you’re in tip-top form.
(continued on page 40)

Physical Preparation Checklist
For the week before the test, write down 1) what physical exercise you engaged in and for how long and
2) what you ate for each meal. Remember, you’re trying for at least half an hour of exercise every other
day (preferably every day) and a balanced diet that’s light on junk food.
Exam minus 7 days

Exercise: ______________ for _____ minutes
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
Exam minus 6 days
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
Exam minus 5 days
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
Exam minus 4 days
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
Exam minus 3 days
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________

Exam minus 2 days

Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
Exam minus 1 day
Breakfast: __________________________________________
Lunch: __________________________________________
Dinner: __________________________________________
Snacks: __________________________________________
STEP 8: GET YOUR ACT TOGETHER
Time to complete: 10 minutes to read; time to complete will vary

Activity: Complete Final Preparations worksheet
Once you feel in control of your mind and body, you’re in charge of test anxiety, test preparation, and test-tak-
ing strategies. Now it’s time to make charts and gather the materials you need to take to the exam.
GATHER YOUR MATERIALS

The night before the exam, lay out the clothes you will wear and the materials you have to bring with you to the
exam. Plan on dressing in layers because you won’t have any control over the temperature of the exam room.
Have a sweater or jacket you can take off if it’s warm. Use the checklist on the worksheet entitled Final Prepara-
tions on page 21 to help you pull together what you’ll need.
DON’T SKIP BREAKFAST

Even if you don’t usually eat breakfast, do so on exam morning. A cup of coffee doesn’t count. Don’t eat dough-
nuts or other sweet foods, either. A sugar high will leave you with a sugar low in the middle of the exam. A mix
of protein and carbohydrates is best: cereal with milk and just a little sugar or eggs with toast will do your body
a world of good.

STEP 9: DO IT!
Time to complete: 10 minutes, plus test-taking time

Activity: Ace Your Test!
Fast forward to exam day. You’re ready. You made a study plan and followed through. You practiced your test-
taking strategies while working through this book. You’re in control of your physical, mental, and emotional state.
You know when and where to show up and what to bring with you. In other words, you’re better prepared than
most of the other people taking the test with you. You’re psyched!
Just one more thing. When you’re done with the exam, you will have earned a reward. Plan a celebration.
Call your friends and plan a party, or have a nice dinner for two—whatever your heart desires. Give yourself some-
thing to look forward to.
And then do it. Go into the exam full of confidence, armed with test-taking strategies you’ve practiced until
they’re second nature. You’re in control of yourself, your environment, and your performance on exam day. You’re
ready to succeed. So do it. Go in there and ace the exam! And, then, look forward to your new career.
Final Preparations
Getting to the Exam Site

Location of exam: __________________________________________
Date of exam: __________________________________________
Time of exam: __________________________________________
Do I know how to get to the exam site? Yes _____ No _____
If no, make a trial run.
Time it will take to get to the exam site: _____________________________
Things to lay out the night before

Clothes I will wear _____
Sweater/jacket _____
Watch _____
Photo ID _____
Admission card _____
4 No. 2 pencils _____
____________ _____
____________ _____

3
C • H • A • P • T • E • R
MECHANICAL
APTITUDE
CHAPTER SUMMARY
This chapter addresses topics specific to fields involving
mechanical work, electronics, and machinery. The Shop
Arithmetic section deals with basic math skills needed on
the job. Later sections focus on the recognition and usage
of common tools (Tool Knowledge), the ability to make cal-
culations involving tools and mechanical equipment (Mechan-
ical Insight), and general mechanical aptitude (Mechanical
Knowledge). If you will be tested for a job involving mechan-
ical skills, this chapter is for you.

– LEARNINGEXPRESS MECHANICAL/SPATIAL EXAM ANSWER SHEET –
SHOP ARITHMETIC
1. a b c d 11. a b c d 21. a b c d
2. a b c d 12. a b c d 22. a b c d
3. a b c d 13. a b c d 23. a b c d
4. a b c d 14. a b c d 24. a b c d
5. a b c d 15. a b c d 25. a b c d
6. a b c d 16. a b c d 26. a b c d
7. a b c d 17. a b c d 27. a b c d
8. a b c d 18. a b c d 28. a b c d
9. a b c d 19. a b c d 29. a b c d
10. a b c d 20. a b c d 30. a b c d
TOOL KNOWLEDGE
1. a b c d 11. a b c d 21. a b c d
2. a b c d 12. a b c d 22. a b c d
3. a b c d 13. a b c d 23. a b c d
4. a b c d 14. a b c d 24. a b c d
5. a b c d 15. a b c d 25. a b c d
6. a b c d 16. a b c d 26. a b c d
7. a b c d 17. a b c d 27. a b c d
8. a b c d 18. a b c d 28. a b c d
9. a b c d 19. a b c d 29. a b c d
10. a b c d 20. a b c d 30. a b c d
MECHANICAL INSIGHT
1. a b c d 11. a b c d 21. a b c d
2. a b c d 12. a b c d 22. a b c d
3. a b c d 13. a b c d 23. a b c d
4. a b c d 14. a b c d 24. a b c d
5. a b c d 15. a b c d 25. a b c d
6. a b c d 16. a b c d 26. a b c d
7. a b c d 17. a b c d 27. a b c d
8. a b c d 18. a b c d 28. a b c d
9. a b c d 19. a b c d 29. a b c d
10. a b c d 20. a b c d 30. a b c d
MECHANICAL KNOWLEDGE
1. a b c d 11. a b c d 21. a b c d
2. a b c d 12. a b c d 22. a b c d
3. a b c d 13. a b c d 23. a b c d
4. a b c d 14. a b c d 24. a b c d
5. a b c d 15. a b c d 25. a b c d
6. a b c d 16. a b c d 26. a b c d
7. a b c d 17. a b c d 27. a b c d
8. a b c d 18. a b c d 28. a b c d
9. a b c d 19. a b c d 29. a b c d
10. a b c d 20. a b c d 30. a b c d

–MECHANICAL APTITUDE–
SHOP ARITHMETIC Formulas to Know:

distance constant rate time
Does the idea of adding a list of fractions make you torque force lever arm
energy in joules
wince? Does your heart pound when a question begins “An power in watts
time in seconds
eastbound train leaves the station at 8 A.M.”? Relax!
Here’s where we brush up on lots of basic math, dust off
all those old area formulas, and even make sense of those GEOMETRY FORMULAS
wordy word problems that bring forth nightmares.
Triangle: Area 12 bh
Typical Shop Arithmetic questions deal with basic
mathematics: fractions, decimals, proportions, per-
centages, mean (average), unit conversion, and geom-
height
etry. These arithmetic skills are important in mechanical
work because of the extensive measuring and calcula-
tions associated with this field. In addition to hands- base
on calculations, it is also necessary to be able to
determine a time frame for a given task, approximate There are 180° in a triangle.
expenses, and generate price estimates. Rectangle: Area lw
Although you don’t see many trains driving
through the shop, these—albeit annoying—questions
represent an additional category of questions: those of
a more formula based nature. How long will it take to
deliver a product by truck? How much weight is nec-
Circle: Area πr 2
essary to balance a lever? How many watts are used dur-
ing a given period of time?
sum of all values

Average (mean) =
# of values
radius
Conversions to Know:
12″ 1′ (12 inches equal 1 foot)
3′ 1 yard (3 feet equal one yard)
60 minutes 1 hour
60 seconds 1 minute
1 gross 12 dozen (or 144) Circumference πd 2πr
1 ton 2000 lbs (Use 3.14 or 272 for π.)

Pythagorean theorem: a2 b2 c2 d. Some questions are straightforward unit

conversions, but for the most part, ques-
tions (like this one) will be a combination
of unit conversions and proportions. You
should always convert your units before
you set up a proportion. You know that 8
inches of wall base costs $.60, and you
need to order 20 feet of it. First, you
Right Circular Cylinder: Volume πr2h would convert the 20 feet into inches. You
know 1 ft 12 in, so you multiply:
12 in
20 ft 1 ft 240 in.

Notice that you crossed out the units you

didn’t want (feet) and ended up with the
12 in
units you needed (inches).
1 ft is known
as a conversion factor. Having the feet in
Total Surface Area 2πRH 2πr2 the denominator of this conversion factor
Rectangular Solid: Volume lwh lets us cross out the “ft” unit in the origi-
nal 20 ft. In other instances you may want
to cross out inches and convert to feet. The
1 ft
conversion factor to use would be
12 in .
Tip: When dealing with “unwanted units,” place the unit

you want to cross out in the denominator (bottom part)
of your conversion factor.
Total Surface Area 2(lw) 2(hw) 2(lh) When dealing with “/ unwanted units,” place the unit
you want to cross out in the numerator (top part) of your
3 SAMPLE QUESTIONS conversion factor.
1. A particular brand of wall base costs $.60 per 8
inches. How much will twenty feet of wall base Now you know that you need a price for 240 inches.
cost? You set up a proportion:
a. $10.60
8 inches 240 inches
b. $12.60
$.60 $x

c. $16 8x (.60)(240)
d. $18 8x 144
x 18

2. An eastbound train destined for Station 2 leaves Material Pounds per cubic inch
Station 1 at 8 A.M. traveling at a rate of 50 mph. brass .303–.314
At the same time, a westbound train leaves Sta-
copper .323
tion 2 for Station 1, traveling at a rate of 65 mph.
cast iron .0254–.258
If Station 1 is located 632.5 miles west of Station
2, then at what time will the two trains pass each Tin .264
other? 3. Use the information in the table above to cal-
a. 10:45 A.M. culate the approximate weight of a copper cube
b. 12 noon with a side equal to 6116 inches.
c. 1:30 P.M. a. 63 lbs
d. 2:15 P.M. b. 115 lbs
c. 223 lbs
c. This question deals with the constant rate
d. 285 lbs
formula: distance constant rate time,
or D RT. Drawing a diagram is a major c. Upon examining the table, you’ll note that
asset: copper weighs .323 pounds per cubic
inch. In order to determine the weight of
Train 1 Train 2 the given cube, you’ll need to find out
how many cubic inches there are in the
D1 = R 1T1 D 2 = R 2T 2 cube. Cubic inches, or in3, represent the
unit for volume. What is the volume of a
Initial distance apart = 632.5 cube? V= side3, so V = (6116 )3 = 222.82056
in3, for those of you who are incredibly
accurate. You then round up to 223 lbs,
The total distance between the 2 stations will equal the choice c. Or, for those of you who noticed
sum of the distances traveled by each train for the period that the answer choices are pretty spaced
of time in question. apart and contain no decimals, Vapprox =
(6)3 = 216. You know you underestimated
Total Distance = D1 + D2 a bit, so you pick c. And the moral is: Peek
Total Distance = R1T + R2T at the answers before you do an exceedingly
632.5 = (50)(t) + (65)(t) tedious calculation by hand.
632.5 = 115 t
5.5 = t
It will take 5.5 hours, or 5 and one half hours until the
trains pass each other. If both trains left at 8 A.M., they
would pass each other at 1:30 P.M.

30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 5. Given that cast iron weighs approximately .25 lb

per cubic inch, how much would a cast iron bar
1. Of the choices listed, the greatest weight a chain
5.5′ 6″ 2″ weigh?
hoist with 14 ton capacity can safely lift is
a. 198 lbs
a. 294 lbs.
b. 214.4 lbs
b. 482 lbs.
c. 265 lbs
c. 524 lbs.
d. 312 lbs
d. 600 lbs.
2. A foreman originally scheduled a construction

job for 12 workers, allowing eight days for com-
pletion. Due to an emergency at another site, he
pulled four workers off the construction job. If
the remaining workers work at the same rate, O
how many days should it take them to complete
construction?
a. 9 days
b. 10 days
c. 11 days 6. In the figure shown above, circle O has a 12–inch
d. 12 days diameter. The area of the shaded region is clos-
est to
3. The area of a floor 7 yards by 16.5 feet is
a. 18.3 in2
a. 18.5 yd2
b. 20.5 in2
b. 38.5 yd2
c. 24.2 in2
c. 72.5 yd2
d. 30.0 in2
d. 115.5 yd2
7. Two crates that have a combined weight of 200
4. A mechanic who earns a gross pay of $10.25 per
lbs, and two more weighing 150 lbs and 178 lbs,
hour notices that approximately 10% of his
respectively, are all part of the same shipment.
gross salary gets taken out for taxes. If he works
What is the average weight of the crates in this
76 hours during a given pay period, his paycheck
shipment?
should be approximately what amount?
a. 80 lbs
a. $600
b. 90 lbs
b. $680
c. 100 lbs
c. $700
d. 132 lbs
d. $780

8. What is the value of 58″ 136 ″ 12″ 234″? 11. Ralph is making metal boxes, each of which
a. 3136 ″ requires a six-inch hinge at the top. When cut,
b. 31126 ″ five pieces of piano hinge, each two yards long,
c. 4116 ″ will provide enough hinges for how many metal
d. 41116 ″ boxes?
a. 100
9. If, in order to make 11 wooden coat racks you
b. 60
need 33 nails, then how many nails are needed
c. 30
for three coat racks?
d. 12
a. 9
b. 8 12. How much more energy will be consumed by a
c. 7 100-watt bulb in five minutes than a 50-watt bulb
d. 6 during the same period of time? (1 kJ 1000
joules)
a. 0 kJ
4 ft
b. 5 kJ
c. 10 kJ
d. 15 kJ
10 ft 13. A metal spring has 1135 coils with radii equal
to 5 inches. When it is unwound and measured,
approximately how long will the wire be?
a. 5,675 inches
8 ft b. 15,135 inches
10. Athena wants to tile the floor pictured above with c. 35,639 inches
12″ 12″ tiles. If tiles come 20 to a box, how d. 39,725 inches
many boxes should she purchase?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

16. Train A is traveling northbound at 60 mph. On

8 ft an adjacent track up north, Train B is traveling
at 75 mph in a southbound direction. If the two
4 ft
trains departed from their respective stations at
the same time, and pass each other after 120 min-
utes, then how far apart were they initially?
a. 150 miles
A B C
b. 270 miles
c. 340 miles
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
d. 420 miles
14. In the figure above, block A weighs 10 pounds, Use the table and the client information provided
block B weighs 15 pounds, and block C weighs below to answer questions 17–18.
14 pounds. If the lever is perfectly balanced, then
Cost Square ft.
how far is Block C from the fulcrum?
covered
a. 10 ft
primer (1 gal) $12.00 400
b. 6 ft
c. 12 ft latex paint (1 gal) $15.00 400
1
d. 3 ft primer ( gal)

2 $7.25 200
1
latex paint ( gal)

2 $8.75 200
2.5"
Client Name: Erik L.
Information provided: Client wants bedroom painted;
2 walls with dimensions 3 yds 8 ft, two walls with
7.5"
dimensions 4 yd 8 ft, one window 3 ft 2 ft (not to
2" be painted), and one door (to be painted).
2.5 " 17. What is the total area of the room requiring paint
and primer?
8" a. 330 ft2
15. What is the volume of the three-dimensional b. 336 ft2
solid in the figure above? c. 340 ft2
a. 22.5 in3 d. 346 ft2
b. 40.3 in3
c. 65.0 in3
d. 83.5 in3

18. What is the least expensive combination of cans 1 foot

that would be ample for applying one coat of
primer and two coats of paint to the client’s 6"
room?
a. one 12 gal can of primer, one 1 gal can of 1 foot 6"
latex paint
b. one 1 gal can of primer, three 12 gal cans of
latex paint
c. one 1 gal can of primer, one 1 gal can of
latex paint, one 12 gal can of latex paint 21. After the shaded region is removed from the fig-
d. one 1 gal can of primer, two 1 gal cans of ure above, what is the surface area of the remain-
latex paint ing template material?
a. 108 in2
19. Given that dry sand weighs .059 lbs/in3, approx- b. 108 ft2
imately how much would a cubic foot of dry c. 110 in2
sand weigh? d. 110 ft2
a. 70
b. 98 22. If the average speed limit along a truck’s route
c. 100 is 50 mph, then approximately how long should
d. 102 it take for the driver to make a delivery 400 miles
away, allowing for two 30 minute rest stops
20. Frank used 12 ft of wood to make a sign. After along the way?
the project was finished, three ft of wood was left a. 9 hrs
over. What percent of the wood did Frank use b. 812 hrs
for the sign? c. 8 hrs
a. 25% d. 712 hrs
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 85%

Day Hours Worked

Monday 5.5
Tuesday 7
4x8
4 x 10 4 x 10 Wednesday —
Thursday —
Friday 6.5
Saturday 7
Sunday 7
24. Jade’s time sheet is pictured above. Normally, she

8 x 10 8 x 10
gets $12/hr and she gets paid time and a half on
Sunday. How much should her gross pay be for
the week?
a. $126
23. Refer to the figure above. When assembled, what b. $312
will the volume of the box be? c. $438
a. 300 in3 d. $512
b. 320 in3
c. 340 in3
3"
d. 360 in3 balsa wood
1' x 9" 2"
template
25. Referring to the above diagram, what is the

maximum number of triangles that can be cut
from the rectangular piece of balsa wood?
a. 18
b. 24
c. 30
d. 36

26. If a calculation is acceptable, it is figured to be Type of Pounds Pounds

± .025 within the actual value. An acceptable cal- Wood per in3 per ft3
culation for an actual value equaling 57.683 Red cedar .014 24
would be
Elm .022 37
a. 57.433
Maple .027 47
b. 57.705
c. 57.933 Redwood .016 28
d. 58.333 Willow .015 26
28. What is the mean weight in pounds per cubic
foot of all the wood types listed in the table
above?
a. .019
7" b. .022
c. 30.8
d. 32.4
29. A shop brought in $6500 in April. In May, the

27. Of the choices below, which distance represents amount made decreased by 10%. In June, the
the number of feet traveled by the wheel pictured amount brought in increased 20% over May.
above as it revolves 20 times along its path? How much money was made in June?
a. 3623 a. $8580
b. 40 b. $7150
c. 4213 c. $7020
d. 45 d. $6580

4. c. He earns $10.25 76 hrs or $779 as his

gross pay. Since 10% of this amount will
go to taxes, you multiply 10% $779
(.10)(779) $77.9, to find that about 78
dollars will be subtracted from his gross
pay. $779 $78 $701. Of the choices, c:
700 is the closest to this approximation.
5. a. Because you are given a weight per cubic
30. In the figure above, each spoke protrudes 21″ into inch, you must find out how many cubic
the outer rim, and 12″ into the inner hub, leav- inches there are in the bar. The length of
ing 434″ of each spoke visible in the finished the bar, 5.5′, must be converted into
wheel. The minimum dowel size necessary to cut inches: 5.5′ x 12 in/1 ft = 66″. Next, you
enough spokes for two wheels would be calculate the volume of the bar, V lwh
a. 2′ (66″)(6″)(2″) 792 in3. Finally, you
b. 4′ can set up a proportion to calculate the
c. 6′ weight:
d. 8′ .25 lb/1 in3 x lb/792 in3
Cross multiply to get:
SHOP ARITHMETIC ANSWER (.25)(792) (x)(1)
EXPLANATIONS 198 x
1. b. One ton is equal to 2000 lbs, so a chain
6. b. The shaded area is equal to the area of
hoist with 14 ton capacity can safely lift 14
half the circle minus the area of the trian-
2000 lbs 500 lbs. Answer b is the
gle:
greatest value that doesn’t exceed this
500 lb limit. Shaded Area 12 Area of Circle Area of Triangle
2. d. If it takes 12 workers 8 days to do a job, Circle O has a diameter of 12″, so its
you can set up an equation to find out radius is 6″. The area formula for a circle
how long it will take the remaining 8 is A πr2, and we need 12A 12πr2
1 1
workers to do the same job. (3.14)(62) (3.14)(36) 18(3.14)
2 2
(12 workers)(8 days) (8 workers)(x days) 56.52. The area formula for a triangle is
96 8x A 12bh. Looking at the triangle in the
12 x figure, you can see the base is the diameter
3. b. First, you need to convert the 16.5 feet and the height is the radius of the circle:
into yards. 16.5 feet 1 yard/3 feet
5.5 yd. Area l w (7 yd)(5.5 yd)
38.5 yd2

the remainder over the denominator, 16.

So, 3136 ″ reduces to 2116 ″.
Now you have:
2″ + 2116 ″
4116 ″
O
9. a. Here you would set up a proportion:
11 racks 3 racks

33 nails x nails
Cross-multiply to get:
A 12bh 12(12)(6) (6)(6) 36 (11)(x) (33)(3)
(11)(x) 99
Substituting these area values into our
(x) 9
formula:
Shaded Area 12 Area of Circle Area of Triangle 10. b. Since the tiles are 12″ 12″, it is easy to
Shaded Area 56.52 36 20.52 see that they are 1′ 1′, or 1 ft2 each. The
rectangular section of the floor is 10 ft
Choice b, 20.5, represents the closest
8 ft 80 ft2, and thus will need 80 tiles. 80
value.
tiles represents 4 boxes. The 12 circle is a
7. d. Remember that there are 4 crates being
little trickier. Look at the diagram below:
averaged. You are given that the sum of
the first two is 200, so you need to add in
the 150 and 178 in order to find the total
weight. Average total weight/#crates
(200 150 178)/4 528/4 132 lbs.
8. c. First, you look at the denominator, or bot- = whole or nearly whole tile required
tom part, of each of the fractions. What is
the least common denominator? 16. Next,
you convert all of the fractions so that As you can see, 1 box of 20 tiles will not
they have a denominator of 16. For be enough for this section. Therefore, she
instance, to convert 58″ you will multiply must buy 6 boxes in all.
top and bottom by 2. Thus, 58″ becomes 11. b. Each piece of piano hinge is 2 yards long.
(5 2) 10
, which is ″. Next, you change the First, convert this length into feet by mul-
(8 2) 16
remaining fractions: tiplying: 2 yards 3 feet/1 yard 6 feet.
10
″
16 + 136 ″ + 186 ″ + 21126 ″ Each piano hinge is 6 feet long, and will
be cut into 6″, or 12 ft, pieces. Each uncut
Adding you get:
hinge can be cut into 6 feet divided by 12 ft
23136 ″
6/.5 12 hinges of the proper length.
33
″ is 33 divided by 16. 16 goes into 33
16 Because you are starting with 5 long
twice with a remainder of one. You stick

hinges you will get 5 12 60 hinges for equal (and opposite) to the CW torque.
the boxes. Let D distance in feet and F force in
12. d. Use the formula: pounds:
energy in joules
power in watts CCW torque CW torque
time in seconds
FADA FBDB FCDC
Rearranging, you know energy power
(10)(8) (15)(4) (14)(DC )
time. Converting the time into seconds,
80 60 (14)(DC )
you get 5 minutes 60 seconds/1 min
140 14(DC )
300 seconds. Now all your units are cor-
10 DC
rect, so you proceed with the calculations.
15. c. The three-dimensional figure can be envi-
For the 100-watt bulb, energy
sioned as two rectangular solids, each
(100)(300) 30,000 joules. For the
with Volume, V lwh.
50-watt bulb, energy (50)(300)
2.5"
15,000 joules. Thus, the 100-watt bulb
2"
uses 30,000 15,000 15,000 joules
more than the 50-watt bulb. Using 1 kJ
1000 joules, 15,000 joules 15 kJ. 7.5"
13. c. No matter how menacing a question 2"
might look, if it has to do with circles, it is +
going to boil down to: area or circumfer- 2.5"
ence (or a part thereof). Ultimately, you

5.5"
want to measure a length of wire, so this is
the tip off that you are dealing with cir- Thus, the volume of the shorter solid
cumference. For each coil C 2πr lwh (5.5)(2)(2.5), or 27.5. The volume
2(3.14)(5) 31.4. Multiply the circum- of the taller solid lwh (2.5)(2)(7.5),
ference of each coil by the number of coils or 37.5. Combined the volume is 27.5
to find the length: (31.4)(1135) 35,639. 37.5 65.
14. a. If the lever is perfectly balanced, then all 16. b. First, notice that the speed is in mph, and
the weight on one side is counteracted by the time is given in minutes. Luckily, it is
the weight on the other side. Blocks A and easy to convert the 120 minutes into
B would tend to pull the lever in a coun- 2 hours by inspection alone. (Mathemat-
terclockwise (CCW) direction, and Block
C would tend to pull the lever in a clock-
wise (CW) direction. You will apply the
torque equation: torque force lever
arm. Here, each torque force distance
from pivot point. Because there is no net
rotation, you know the CCW torques are

ically: 120 min 1 hr/60 min 2 hr.) one 1 gallon can of primer and two 1 gal-
Next, make yourself a diagram: lon cans of latex paint.
19. d. First, you must make yourself a conver-
Train A Train B sion factor to convert the in3 into ft3. You
know 1 ft 12 in, so (1 ft)3 (12 in)3.
DA = RATA D B = R BTB Cubing the 12, you know 1 ft3 1728 in3.
The conversion factor to use is
Initial distance apart = ? 1728 in3/1 ft3. Next, multiply: .059 lbs/in3
1728 in3/1 ft3 101.952 lbs/ft3. Choice
Total Distance DA DB d is the closest approximation.
RAT RBT 20. c. Set up a proportion:
(60)(2) (75)(2) 9 f t used x

120 150 12 ft total100
(100)(9) (12)(x)
270 miles
(900) (12)(x)
17. a. First, convert the dimensions of both
75 x
walls into feet: 3 yd 3 ft/yd 9 feet.
Thus, 2 walls are 9 ft 8 ft. Also, 4 yd 75% of the wood was used.
3 ft/yd 12 feet, so there are 2 walls with 21. a. The surface area of the original piece of
dimensions 12 ft 8 ft. Next, express the template material is 1′ 1′ or 12″ 12″
area of each wall in square feet. The first 144 in2. The inner square is 6″ 6″, so
pair of walls take up 2 (9 ft 8 ft) its surface area is 36 in2. Subtracting out
2 (72 ft2) 144 ft2. The second pair of the smaller piece you get: 144 in2 36 in2
walls take up 2 (12 ft 8 ft) 2 108 in2. Notice that choices b and d are
(96 ft2) 192 ft2. Together, all four walls way too large. Since a and c represent val-
have an area of 144 192 336 ft2, but ues in in2, you know to solve this question
you need to subtract the area of the win- using inches and in2, and not feet.
dow. 336 ft2 (3 ft 2 ft) 336 ft2 22. a. You know that the driver has a total of
6 ft2 330 ft2. 1 hour allotted for rest stops (30 min
18. d. 330 ft2 requires primer, making the 12 gal- 30 min). To calculate the time on the
lon can (covers only 200 ft2) insufficient. road, use the formula: distance con-
So, one 1 gallon can of primer must be stant rate time, or D RT. This for-
purchased. Because two coats of paint will mula can be rearranged, so T D/R.
be applied, 660 ft2 requires the latex paint. Substituting in the given values, you have:
Purchasing one 1 gallon can of paint will T 400/50 8 hours. Add in the 1 hour
cover 400 ft2, leaving 660 ft2 400 ft2 for rest stops to get 9 hrs.
260 ft2 left to paint. Again, the 12 gallon
will not be enough. A second 1 gallon can
of latex paint is required. In all, you need

23. b. The two sets of matching pieces will be this acceptable range. If your calculations
opposite sides in the assembled box. The led you to pick choices a, or c, then you
lone 4 x 8 will be the bottom. accidentally calculated ±.25 instead.
27. a. In the diagram, the 7″ represents the
diameter. The rolling wheel will have the
distance around its outer edge in contact
with the ground as it revolves. This ques-
10
4x8 8x tion boils down to a circumference ques-
tion. Using C πd, with 272 substituted in
for π, this equation becomes: C 272 (7)
22 inches. If the wheel revolves 20
Using V lwh 8 4 10 320 in3. times we multiply 22 20 to get the
24. c. Calculate the total number of hours at the number of inches traveled. This value,
normal rate: 5.5 7 6.5 7 26. 440″, can be then converted into feet: 440″
26 hrs $12/hr yields $312 so far. Next, 1 ft/12″ = 3623 ft.
figure out her wage when she works for 28. d. Notice that you will be using the informa-
time and a half. The “time” part is $12 and tion provided in the last column of the
the “half ” part is 12 $12 $6. This table. Mean (average) sum of all val-
means that on Sundays she makes 12 6 ues/#of values. The sum of the five values
$18/hr. From viewing the table, you is: 24 37 47 28 26 162.
know she worked 7 hours at this rate: 7 Putting this value into the equation:
162
18 $126. Add this to the $312 to get mean 5 32.4

$438. 29. c. First, calculate the earnings for May. This

25. d. These questions are best tackled by draw- amount is a 10% decrease from April’s
ing a diagram: money. $6500 10% ($6500) 6500
(.10)(6500) 6500 650 $5850 for
May. Next, calculate the 20% increase over
this new amount for June. $5850
20%($5850) 5850 1170 $7020.
30. d. Each spoke is 4.75″ .5″ .5″ 5.75″
long. Each wheel needs 8 spokes, and you
As you can see, if you lay out your tem- need enough spokes for two wheels, or 16
plates in an organized fashion, you can spokes. 16 x 5.75″ 92″ required length.
cut out 36 triangles. 92″ 1 ft/12″ 723 ft. Of the choices
26. b. 57.683 .025 57.658 and 57.683 listed, only an 8′ dowel would be long
0.25 57.708. Thus, your answer must be enough.
between 57.658 and 57.708, inclusive.
Choice b, 57.705 is the only value within

TOOL KNOWLEDGE 1. This is used to make straight lines for cutting on

wooden boards or sheetrock.
If you are planning to work with tools, you may find your-
2. This is used to measure distances and size.
self sitting in front of a Tool Knowledge test. It probably
comes as no surprise that this type of test is designed to 3. This is used to both remove and install nails.
test how familiar you are with specific tools. You simply
4. This is used to keep your eyes safe while using
match the tool to its function. In a matching question sce-
power tools.
nario, save any unfamiliar tools for last. Even though you
might not know what a tool does, chances are you will be 5. This is used to make cuts in sheetrock and other
able to eliminate a couple of answers by deciding what it soft building materials.
cannot do. For example, it would be a safe bet to assume
that something with a jagged, sharp edge would not be Although you may not recognize each of these
used for measuring diameters or sanding. Just use your tools for their specific use, a method of logical elimi-
best judgment. nation can be used to answer the questions correctly.
Perhaps you’re a seasoned carpenter or maybe Take Question #2 for instance. Described in this task
you’ve never touched a tool in your life. In any case, the is a simple measuring tool and among the choices only
following exercises were created with the intention of one appropriate answer seems to fit. This is more obvi-
gauging and honing your tool knowledge. Although you ous in Questions #4 and #5. Number 4 describes safety
may not be certified in a particular trade, chances are equipment used for the eyes and number 5 describes
you’ve used or seen a conventional array of hand or a cutting tool of some sort. Among the choices there is
power tools. This knowledge is exactly what you need only one choice per question that would be appropri-
to determine the correct answers in the following exer- ate. Check your answers against the answer explanation.
cises.
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS:
TOOL MATCHING 1. c.
Study the pictures of these tools and pick the answer 2. d.
that you think best fits the task described in the 1–5 3. a.
listing. 4. e.
5. b.
(B) (C)
(A)
Picture A is a basic claw hammer used for ham-
mering and extracting nails.
Picture B is a common razor knife used for most
light duty cutting purposes.
Picture C is a T-square commonly used for mak-
(D) (E) ing straight lines.
Picture D is a tape measure commonly used for
most measuring purposes.
Picture E is a pair of safety goggles used to pro-
tect your eyes while using equipment.

30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS (A) (B) (C)

Tool Recognition
In the first part of this exercise there are three tool
groups followed by five questions each. Each question
will list a particular task involving a tool. Choose the
tool that you think best fits the task described.
(A) (B) (D) (E)

(C)
6. used to loosen or tighten plumbing pipes

(D) (E)
7. used to apply spackle or correction putty
8. used to apply lubrication to gears and machinery
9. used to cut large pieces of lumber or wood

1. used as a remote power source 10. used to cut round corners or designs in wooden
boards
2. used to handle and level mortar while building
a brick wall
3. used to verify if a structure is level or not
4. used to supply power to many electric tools
5. mixes water and powdered cement

(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
17. The tool shown above would most likely be

used to
a. drive nails.
11. used with forging hammer to manipulate hot b. weld metal.
metal c. tighten bolts.
d. carve wood.
12. used for dirt removal or ditch digging
13. used to help reach high places
14. used with bit to drill holes into wood
15. used with solder to fuse metal pieces together
For questions 16–20, choose the best answer based on

the picture shown.
18. The hand tool shown above is a

a. a crescent wrench.
b. an offset wrench.
c. a box wrench.
d. a socket wrench.
16. Which of the following is the type of gauge
shown above? (Note: GPM gallons per
minute.)
a. pressure gauge
b. altitude gauge
c. temperature gauge
d. flow meter gauge

0 20 40 60
80
-20
0
-4 F
0 20
-20 40 C
0
-4
20. The hand tool shown above is a
a. crescent wrench.
b. hammer.
19. The gauge shown above is
c. screwdriver.
a. a pressure gauge.
d. pair of pliers.
b. an altitude gauge.
c. a temperature gauge.
d. a flow meter gauge.

TOOL ANALOGY your job is to recognize the tool in the question and
When you open up your toolbox, chances are you are choose the most closely related tool or object from the
not about to start composing essays. So why should a given choices. If you are ever unsure of the tool in ques-
test on tools consist of elaborate text? It shouldn’t. And tion, use your judgment and eliminate answer choices
luckily, these tests don’t. For Tool Analogy questions, that do not look like they could have a related function.
21. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
22. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
23. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
24. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
25. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

26. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
27. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
28. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
29. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
30. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

TOOL KNOWLEDGE ANSWER 12. e. Choice e is a shovel that has virtually no

EXPLANATIONS other use than to displace dirt in some
Tool Recognition manner.
1. d. The picture in choice d is that of a con- 13. d. Choice d is a ladder that is used to work
ventional car battery which supplies a in high places not usually able to be
remote source of power for heavy equip- reached without assistance.
ment. 14. a. Choice a is a power drill used with a drill
2. c. The picture in choice c is that of a trowel bit to produce holes in metal or wood.
which is commonly used to handle and 15. c. A soldering gun is shown in choice c.
spread bricklaying mortar. Used with an easily molten metal sub-
3. e. Choice e is a picture of a carpenter’s level stance called solder, it is usually used to
which is used to determine whether a attach wires or to fuse metal together.
structure is built level to the ground. 16. d. The flow meter gauge measures liquid
4. b. Choice b is a picture of a common electri- flow rate, which is typically measured in
cal power strip that allows for many units of volume per unit time, such as gal-
power tools to be used safely at once. lons per minute or cubic meters per sec-
5. a. The picture shown in choice a is of a ond.
cement mixer that requires powdered 17. d. This tool carves wood. Hammers are used
cement and water. to drive nails; welders or torches are used
6. c. Choice c is an image of a monkey wrench to weld metal; wrenches are used to
used to tighten and loosen pipes and large tighten bolts.
bolts. 18. a. The correct answer is a crescent wrench.
7. e. The putty knife, which is represented in 19. c. The fact that this gauge measures temper-
choice e, is used to apply and remove ature can be determined by the units of
excess spackle and other substances like it. degrees Fahrenheit and degrees Celsius
8. a. The tool shown in choice a is a grease gun shown on the gauge.
used to neatly apply grease to open gears 20. b. A hammer is used for driving nails and
and other pieces of machinery. other general carpentry functions.
9. b. The chainsaw shown in choice b is used
for chopping down trees or to make cuts Tool Analogy
into large pieces of lumber. 21. c. The picture given is of a simple conven-
10. d. The jigsaw, choice d, is used to cut intri- tional flathead screwdriver and is most
cate designs and round corners into commonly associated with choice c, the
wooden planks. screw.
11. b. The anvil, choice b, is a common tool 22. b. The picture given is of an electric drill.
used to fit and manipulate metal pieces Answer b, a drill bit, is the most relative
usually with a hammer. choice.

23. e. The picture shown is that of a conventional MECHANICAL INSIGHT

claw hammer which is most commonly
associated with choice e, the nail. Can you analyze the components of a machine and relate
24. a. The picture shown is that of a common them to its function? Mechanical experience is helpful on
C-Clamp. From the answers given, choice these types of test questions, but notice the focus on the
a, the vice would be most relative. word insight, because it really means mechanical aptitude.
25. b. The picture shown is of a common wood If you like working with machines and need to take a Civil
saw. From the answers given, choice b, the Service or private company’s placement test, the questions
hack saw is the most relative. in this section will help you get prepared and gauge your
26. b. The picture shown is that of a socket skill.
wrench. From the choices given, answer b,
a hex-head bolt which is tightened and 30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
loosened by a socket wrench, is most rela-
tive.
27. d. The picture shown is that of a tape mea-
sure. Answer d is best because it shows a
ruler which is a similar tool.
28. b. The picture shown is that of a stone
chisel. The best response is answer b, a
wood chisel, which is a similar tool.
29. c. The picture shown is a pair of needle-
nose pliers. Among the choices given,
1. In the diagram shown above, Frank must lift a
choice c, an adjustable set of pliers, is the
200-pound box using a lever. How many pounds
best answer.
of force must Frank apply to the right side of the
30. c. The picture shown is an adjustable square.
lever to lift the box? w x
Choice c is a T-square. Both of these tools
a. 100 pounds
are used to make accurate markings for
b. 125 pounds
cutting.
c. 200 pounds
d. 320 pounds
2. What units are used to measure velocity?

a. feet per minute
b. feet per second
c. miles per hour
d. all of the above

6. In the diagram shown above, gears A, B, and C

are connected by a chain. The diameters of the
gears are 1 inch, 2 inches, and 4 inches respec-
tively. If gear A is turning at 20 revolutions per
minute (RPM), what is the turning rate of gear
C?
a. 5 RPM
b. 20 RPM
3. In the diagram shown above, how much must
c. 40 RPM
block A be raised to allow block B to rest on the
d. 80 RPM
floor beneath it?
a. 3 feet
b. 10 feet
c. 13 feet
d. 7 feet
4. Which of the following items listed below most

resembles a lever?
a. a seesaw
b. an elevator
c. a car
d. a door 7. Three springs are arranged in parallel between
5. Lori and Steve are sitting in separate cars at a stop a wall and a rigid block, as shown above. The
sign. Lori accelerates at twice the rate that Steve spring constants are 5 pounds per inch, 12 pounds
accelerates. After five minutes of constant accel- per inch, and 5 pounds per inch respectively.
eration, who has traveled a longer distance? What force is required to move the block 2 inches
a. Steve to the right?
b. Lori a. 12 pounds
c. they have traveled the same distance b. 44 pounds
d. not enough information to answer the c. 22 pounds
question d. 10 pounds

10. A concrete beam has a maximum strength of

3,000 psi (pounds per square inch). In an exper-
iment, a 500-pound weight is placed in the cen-
ter of the beam, and the stress in the beam is
measured to be 1,000 psi. If the stresses in the
beam continue to increase at the same rate with
added weight, how much additional weight can
be added to the same location on the beam
before the beam will break?
a. 500 pounds
b. 1,000 pounds
8. The figure above shows a piston that is connected c. 1,500 pounds
to a crankshaft by a tie rod. The crankshaft has d. 3,000 pounds
a radius of 1.0 inch. If the crankshaft rotates 180
11. Two cars have the same weight and the same type
degrees (one half of a revolution), how far
of engine and travel at the same speed. One is a
downward will the piston be pulled?
boxy minivan and the other a low, sleek sports
a. 0.5 inches
car. Which factor below best explains why the
b. 1.0 inch
sports car gets better gas mileage than the mini-
c. 1.33 inches
van?
d. 2.0 inches
a. friction
b. wind resistance
c. acceleration
d. all of the above
12. Which principle of mechanical motion is used

in the design of a roller coaster?
a. momentum
b. friction
c. acceleration
d. all of the above
9. On the temperature gauge shown above, what
is the maximum recommended operating tem-
perature (degrees Fahrenheit) for this gauge in
order to remain in a safe zone?
a. 120
b. 140
c. 160
d. 180

13. Two balls of the same density, one large and one 17. When a load is applied to a structural beam,
small, are rolled toward each other at the same which of the following does the beam experi-
speed. When they collide, what will happen to ence?
the smaller ball? a. deflection
a. It will be propelled backwards in the b. stress
opposite direction. c. strain
b. It will continue forward in the same direc- d. all of the above
tion.
c. It will stop and stay at the point of
impact.
d. It will jump over the heavier ball.
14. A seesaw works best when both people weigh the

same. This demonstrates which principle of
mechanical motion?
a. relative velocity 18. In the diagram shown above, the spring is very
b. centrifugal force stiff and can be stretched 1 inch by a pulling force
c. acceleration of 100 pounds. How much force must be applied
d. equilibrium to the block in order to move the wall 3.5 inches
to the left?
15. A grandfather clock typically has a long pendu- a. 100 pounds
lum that swings back and forth to keep time. b. 300 pounds
Which description below best describes the c. 350 pounds
action of this pendulum? d. 3.5 pounds
a. periodic motion
b. relative velocity 19. When a cannon ball is fired at an upward angle
c. free-falling body from the surface of the earth, which of the fol-
d. all of the above lowing causes it to come back to the surface of
the earth?
16. Which term below best describes the OPPOSITE a. friction
of “an increase in speed”? b. centrifugal force
a. velocity c. gravity
b. friction d. momentum
c. deceleration
d. rotation

20. Which of the following best describes the loca- 25. There are three beams that are each 10 feet long
tion of the center of gravity of a steel bar that is and all of the same size. One is made of wood,
four feet long and is the same diameter along its another of steel, and the third of concrete. If
length? identical loads are applied to these three beams,
a. two feet from the left end of the bar which of the following will occur?
b. three feet from the right end of the bar a. The concrete beam will deflect more than
c. on the right end of the bar the other two.
b. on the left end of the bar b. The wood beam will deflect less than the
steel beam.
21. Which of the following materials is the LEAST
c. The steel beam will deflect less than the
elastic?
wood beam.
a. silly putty
d. The wood beam will deflect less than the
b. wax
concrete beam.
c. rubber
d. paper Force = ?
pivot point
22. Block A is twice as big as Block B. Block B is made 100 pound box
of a material that is three times as dense as the

20 ft. 10 ft.
material in Block A. Which block is heavier?
a. Block A 26. In the diagram shown above, Joe must lift a 100-
b. Block B pound box using a lever. How many pounds of
c. both blocks weigh the same amount force must Joe apply to the left side of the lever
d. not enough information to lift the box? (w d1 f d2)
a. 100 pounds
23. A block of steel has a density of 0.29 pounds per b. 200 pounds
cubic inch. If the block has dimensions of 1 inch c. 50 pounds
by 1 inch by 2 inches, what is its weight? d. 33 pounds
a. 0.29 pounds
b. 0.58 pounds
c. 2.0 pounds
d. 4.0 pounds
24. What is the structural principle behind the use

of snowshoes?
a. to spread the load out on the snow
b. to increase the weight on the snow
c. to slow down the person using them
d. to prevent slippage in the snow

29. Which of the following groups of items listed

Point A
below consists entirely of fasteners—that is, of
Direction of
Tension Force
devices that are used to connect two items
Wall
Spring #1 Spring #2 together?
a. chairs, tables, and windows
27. Two springs are arranged in series as shown b. string, scissors, and glue
above. Spring #1 is very stiff and will become 1 c. rivets, levers, and bolts
inch longer when a tension force of 10 pounds d. snaps, buckles, and buttons
is applied to it. Spring #2 is very soft and will
direction of travel of chain
become 2 inches longer when a tension force of A B
5 pounds is applied to it. What will be the
change in length of the two springs (that is, how chain
C D
far will point A move to the right) when a force
of 20 pounds is applied?
a. 10 inches E F
b. 6 inches
30. In the diagram shown above, which gears are
c. 8 inches
turning clockwise?
d. 3 inches
a. A, C, and E
Block #1 b. B, D, and F
c. C and D
d. E and F
Steel Cable
Block #2
Pulley
28. In the diagram shown above, if block #1 is

moved 10 feet to the right, how far upward is
block #2 lifted?
a. 3 feet
b. 5 feet
c. 10 feet
d. 20 feet

MECHANICAL INSIGHT ANSWER springs and add up the total to get 44

EXPLANATIONS pounds.
1. b. (200 pounds)(10 feet) = f(16 feet). Solv- 8. d. The crankshaft has a radius of 1.0 inch,
ing for f gives 125 pounds. which means that the diameter is 2.0
2. d. All the choices are true. Velocity is mea- inches. If the crankshaft rotates one-half
sured in units of distance in a certain revolution (180 degrees) from its starting
amount of time. All of the answers use point, the attachment of the tie rod to the
these units. crankshaft will move from the top of the
3. b. The blocks are tied together with a cable, crankshaft down to the bottom. This is
which keeps the distance between the equivalent to the diameter of the crank-
blocks constant. Therefore, if block B is to shaft, which is 2.0 inches.
be lowered 10 feet to the floor, then block 9. c. The indicated danger zone on the gauge is
A must be raised the same amount. from 160 degrees to 200 degrees Fahren-
4. a. The bar on which the seesaw pivots is the heit. Thus, it is acceptable to operate up to
fulcrum of the lever. Also, the seesaw 160 degrees for this gauge.
raises and lowers a load (person) on one 10. b. The first 500 pounds generated 1,000 psi
end when a force (pushing off the of stress in the beam; therefore, 500 more
ground) is applied on the other end. pounds will increase the total stress to
5. b. Lori’s acceleration rate is twice Steve’s 2,000 psi. Another 500 pounds will
rate. Since they both started at the same increase the stress to 3,000 psi, which we
time and accelerated for the same amount are told is the maximum strength of the
of time, Lori will travel twice as far as beam. Therefore, the maximum addi-
Steve. tional load that can be applied to this
6. a. Gear C is 4 times the diameter of gear A. beam before it breaks is 1,000 pounds.
Since the gears are all connected by a 11. b. The cars both weigh the same, so friction
chain, the tip velocity of all the gears must and acceleration would be identical for
be the same; otherwise, the chain would both. The difference is that a sports car
come off the gears. Therefore, if the tip has a low, sleek shape compared to a
velocity is to be the same for all gears and minivan and therefore has less drag from
gear C is 4 times larger than gear A, then the wind.
gear C must be turning 4 times slower 12. d. Acceleration must be considered in
than gear A. Twenty RPM divided by 4 designing the maximum rise of the first
equals 5 RPM. hill. Momentum must be considered to
7. b. All three springs must be stretched 2 ensure the train gets back to the starting
inches. The question tells you that it takes point, since it has no motor. Friction must
5 pounds to stretch spring A one inch. be considered in the design of the braking
Therefore, it takes 10 pounds to stretch it system.
2 inches. Apply this to the other two

13. a. This is a demonstration of momentum. that would be two feet from the left end
Momentum is defined as mass (weight) (or two feet from the right end).
multiplied by velocity. Since both balls 21. d. Elasticity is defined as “stretchiness.” It is a
have the same speed (velocity), the heav- measure of how easy it is to deform a
ier ball (the larger one in this case, since material. Paper is the stiffest or least elas-
both balls have the same density) will tic of the material listed.
have more momentum. Therefore, upon 22. b. Block B is smaller, but we are told it is
impact, the heavier ball will be slowed but made of a material that is three times
continue in the same direction and knock more dense (density is weight per unit
the smaller, lighter ball backward. volume) than Block A. Therefore, since
14. d. When an object is at equilibrium, it has Block A is only twice as big as Block B, it
equal forces acting on it. When both peo- is actually 50 percent lighter.
ple on a seesaw weigh the same, the see- 23. b. The volume of the block can be calculated
saw is in equilibrium, and it is easier for by multiplying its length by its width by
each person to push off the ground. its height, or 1 times 1 times 2, which
15. a. In the equilibrium position, the pendu- equals 2 cubic inches. The weight is the
lum hangs straight down. When displaced density multiplied by its volume, which is
from this position, the pendulum does 2 cubic inches multiplied by 0.29 pounds
not simply return to the equilibrium posi- per cubic inch, which equals 0.58 pounds.
tion, but swings back and forth in a regu- 24. a. Snowshoes distribute the weight of the
lar, repetitive manner. This is the person over a larger area than boots alone
definition of periodic motion. and reduce the pressure on the snow. This
16. c. By definition, deceleration means slowing keeps the person from sinking so far into
down. the snow.
17. d. The beam will move, or deflect, under the 25. c. The steel beam will deflect less than the
load. The beam will also undergo internal wood beam. Choice a is not correct since
stresses and strains caused by the load. the concrete beam will deflect less than
18. c. 3.5 inches multiplied by 100 pounds per the wood beam—concrete is stiffer than
inch equals 350 pounds. wood.
19. c. On earth, the force of gravity pulls objects 26. c. The distance from the pivot point to the
toward its surface. The force of a cannon point of application of the force (20 feet)
is not enough to allow the cannon ball to is twice the distance from the pivot point
escape this pull. to the box (10 feet). Therefore, in order to
20. a. The center of gravity of an object is lift the box, the required force will be one
loosely defined as “the middle of its half of the weight of the box, or 50
weight” or “the point at which you could pounds.
balance it on your finger;” in this case, 27. a. Because the springs are in series, their
amount of stretch is additive. Spring #1

will stretch 1 inch under 10 pounds. So its MECHANICAL KNOWLEDGE

total stretch under 20 pounds will be 2
inches. Spring number 2 is being sub- If you work with machines or plan on testing for a job or
jected to a load of 20 pounds, which is military position that deals with mechanical equipment,
four times the load that will stretch it 2 you will probably be faced with a test of your mechani-
inches. Therefore, its total stretch will be 8 cal know-how. Mechanical Knowledge tests represent a
inches. Adding the amount of stretch for paper and pencil test of hands-on experience. Of course
the two springs together gives you 10 a stressful test-taking environment is nothing like actual
inches. on-the-job experience. This section will help you brush
28. c. The two blocks are directly connected by a up on the knowledge you need to do well on these tests and
fixed length of steel cable. Therefore, get you used to the test format.
regardless of the number of pulleys
between the two blocks, the distance 30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
moved by one block will be the same as
the other block. 1. The purpose of a camshaft in an internal com-
29. d. The items listed that are not fasteners are bustion engine is to
chairs, tables, windows, scissors, and a. provide ignition of the fuel.
levers. b. provide cooling of the engine.
30. c. The other gears are turning counter- c. provide lubrication of the engine.
clockwise. It helps to follow the direction d. transfer energy to the drive train.
of the chain, which is connected to all of 2. Vernier calipers are used to perform which of the
the gears. following functions?
a. tightening
b. measuring
c. cutting
d. drilling
3. Which of the following items is used to gain a

mechanical advantage?
a. a lever
b. a protractor
c. a spring
d. a gear
4. Which of the following wrenches is adjustable?

a. a crescent wrench
b. a pipe wrench
c. channel locks
d. all of the above

5. What type of gauge would be read in units of 10. Gears are used in which of the following auto-
mph (miles per hour)? motive systems?
a. a speed gauge a. the cooling system
b. a depth gauge b. the suspension system
c. a pressure gauge c. the exhaust system
d. a temperature gauge d. the transmission system
6. The main purpose of a muffler on a car is to 11. In the United States, most speedometers on
a. cool the engine. automobiles have two different scales: mph,
b. conserve fuel. which stands for miles per hour, and kph, which
c. reduce engine noise. stands for
d. increase horsepower. a. kilometers per mile.
b. kilometers per hour.
7. Which of the following mechanical devices is
c. kilograms per hour.
typically found on an automobile?
d. kilobytes per hour.
a. an electric router
b. a hinge 12. Which of the following items is typically part of
c. a skimmer float the suspension of a car?
d. a drill a. the carburetor
b. the wheels
8. Of the definitions shown below, which one best
c. the rods
describes “preventive maintenance”?
d. the pistons
a. fixing a device after it fails for the first
time 13. “Stilson,” “strap,” “torque,” and “spanner” all
b. periodically making small adjustments to denote types of
a device to prevent failure a. saws.
c. purchasing a new device in anticipation of b. hammers.
the old one’s wearing out c. pliers.
d. purchasing a new device after an old one d. wrenches.
wears out
14. Which of the following portions of a building
9. Which tool listed below is the best for cutting must be constructed before all the others listed?
metal? a. flooring
a. a handsaw b. framing
b. a circular saw c. foundation
c. a hacksaw d. walls
d. a back saw

15. Which of the following building materials may 20. Which automotive system uses the following
be used for structural purposes? components: water pump, radiator, and ther-
a. wood mostat?
b. plasterboard a. the interior heating system
c. glass b. the engine cooling system
d. fiberglass insulation c. the exhaust system
d. the braking system
16. Which construction procedure listed below is
most likely to require the use of a saw for cut- 21. Which of the following refers to a kind of chisel?
ting wood? a. diamond point
a. building a foundation for a bridge b. dovetail
b. building a wall for an apartment building c. coping
c. building a deck for a house d. duck bill
d. all of the above
22. If your car will not start due to a dead battery,
17. What is the name of the building procedure that which of the following measures should be taken
is used to pinpoint the exact location of a cor- to get the car started?
ner of a building or the exact elevation of a bridge a. install a new starter
deck? b. check the fuel level
a. forming d. use jumper cables
b. surveying d. replace all of the fuses
c. masonry
23. A spring is most likely to be used on which of
d. all of the above
the following?
18. The sub-flooring of a typical residential house a. a cabinet door
in the United States is normally made of which b. a table
of the following materials? c. an electric cord
a. plastic d. a pogo stick
b. wood
24. Which of the following items listed below most
c. fiberglass
resembles a lever?
d. resin
a. a seesaw
19. Which of the following are types of screw- b. an elevator
drivers? c. a car
a. Phillips d. a door
b. Allen
c. socket
d. all of the above

25. An elevator uses which of the following mechan- 29. What type of gauge is read in units of psi
ical devices? (pounds per square inch)?
a. a cable a. a pressure gauge
b. a pulley b. a depth gauge
c. a motor c. a speed gauge
d. all of the above d. an RPM gauge
26. Water is flowing through a piping system. Even- 30. Engine overheating can be caused by which of
tually, due to friction losses and a rise in eleva- the following?
tion of the piping, the flow rate of the water a. a low fuel level
becomes very slow. What mechanical device b. too much motor oil
can best be used to increase the flow of the c. a faulty transmission
water? d. a faulty thermostat
a. a gear
b. a winch
c. a pump
d. a compressor
27. What common mechanical device is typically

used on a push button, such as on a push-but-
ton telephone, a computer keyboard, and an elec-
tric garage door opener, in order to return the
button to its original position?
a. a wheel
b. a pulley
c. a spring
d. a gear
28. Which of the following types of wire cutter

would allow a worker to cut a heavy piece of wire
using the least force?
a. a wire cutter with very thick handles
b. a wire cutter whose handles are longer
than its blades
c. a wire cutter with finger grooves on the
grip
d. a wire cutter whose blades are longer than
its handles

MECHANICAL KNOWLEDGE ANSWER 8. b. Preventive maintenance is periodically

EXPLANATIONS making small changes and adjustments on
1. d. The camshaft is rotated by the up and a device to prevent failure. Examples
down movement of the piston and trans- include changing the oil in a car engine,
fers the energy from the internal combus- adjusting the brakes on a car, lubricating
tion engine to the drive train the moving parts on a pump, and chang-
(transmission). The spark plugs provide ing the fan belts and hoses on a truck.
fuel ignition. The radiator provides 9. c. A hacksaw is the correct answer. This type
engine cooling. The oil provides lubrica- of saw is similar to a saw for cutting wood
tion. except that the teeth are very small and
2. b. Vernier calipers are used to determine close together.
precise internal or external measurement. 10. d. The transmission uses different size gears
3. a. A lever is the correct choice. A protractor in order to adjust for different speeds.
is used to measure angles. A spring is used With a manual transmission, the driver
for many purposes but not to gain a changes these gears with the gear shift. An
mechanical advantage. A gear is used to automatic transmission changes the gears
change rotational speeds of shafts. at preset speeds.
4. d. All of these wrenches can be used on dif- 11. b. Kilometers per hour is the correct answer.
ferent size objects. A kilometer is a unit of distance in the
5. a. A speed gauge is the correct answer. A metric system that is roughly equivalent
depth gauge would use units of length to 0.6 miles.
such as feet or meters. A pressure gauge 12. b. The suspension of an automobile is typi-
would use units of pressure such as psi cally composed of springs, shocks, wheels,
(pounds per square inch) or bar (baro- and tires.
metric atmospheric pressure) and is 13. d. All of these are names applied to various
usually measured in inches of mercury. A kinds of wrenches.
temperature gauge would use units of 14. c. The foundation is the base upon which
temperature such as degrees Celsius or the building is constructed. Therefore, it
degrees Fahrenheit. must be constructed before the framing,
6. c. The muffler is placed at the end of the the walls, or the flooring.
exhaust system of an automobile to 15. a. Wood is typically used to build the walls
reduce engine noise. It is a chamber that of houses or pedestrian bridges. The other
dampens the noise coming from the inter- materials listed are used in buildings for
nal combustion engine. purposes other than structural support.
7. b. Hinges are found on car doors, as well as 16. d. The saw could be used to cut the wood
on other parts such as the trunk lid, the used for the forms for a concrete bridge
hood, and the gas cap lid. foundation. It could be used for cutting
the studs for the apartment building wall.

It could also be used for cutting the wood not recharge the battery. Jumper cables
for a cedar deck railing. can be used to connect your dead battery
17. b. Surveying is the practice of determining to another live car battery to start the car.
locations and elevations of structures and 23. d. Of all the items, only a pogo stick uses
roadways. This is accomplished through springs.
the use of many instruments and tools, 24. a. The bar on which the seesaw pivots is the
including levels for measuring elevations fulcrum of the lever. Also, the seesaw
or heights, tape measures for measuring raises and lowers a load (person) on one
distances, and transits for measuring end when a force (pushing off the
angles. ground) is applied on the other end.
18. b. The sub-floor of a residential house con- 25. d. All of the answers are correct. A motor is
sists of joists to support the structural used to wind a cable around a pulley in
load and decking for the surface. The order to raise and lower the car.
joists are usually made of 2-inch by 10- 26. c. Pumps are used to move liquids through
inch lumber, and the decking is usually piping systems.
made of 34-inch plywood. 27. c. A compression coil spring is typically
19. a. A Phillips screwdriver is a very common placed behind the button. When the but-
type and is used on screws that have an ton is pressed, the spring is compressed
indented cross on the head. You may find and then springs back to return the but-
this type of screw on objects such as door ton to its original position.
hinges, television sets, and bicycles. 28. b. A wire cutter whose handles are longer
20. b. The internal combustion engine in an than its blades provides the mechanical
automobile generates heat and must be advantage of a lever.
cooled. The typical cooling system is 29. a. A pressure gauge is measured in psi. The
based on pumping water around the hot other gauges are read in the following
engine block. The heated water is then units: A depth gauge uses a unit of length
pumped into the radiator, where it is such as feet or meters; a speed gauge uses
cooled and then re-circulated back to the a unit of velocity such as miles per hour
engine block. The thermostat is used to (mph) or kilometers per hour (kph); the
regulate the flow of water to keep the RPM gauge measures revolutions per
engine warm but not let it overheat. minute.
21. a. Diamond point is a kind of chisel. Dovetail 30. d. A faulty thermostat can cause engine
and coping describe kinds of saws. Duck overheating. If the thermostat is stuck in
bill describes a kind of pliers. the closed position, the coolant cannot
22. c. Use jumper cables to get a charge from circulate and cool the engine.
another battery. Installing a new starter
will not help; the battery will still be dead.
Adding fuel and changing fuses also will

4
C • H • A • P • T • E • R
SPATIAL CONCEPTS
CHAPTER SUMMARY
It’s a 3-D world, but when you’re quizzed about it on a 2-D
piece of paper, things can get nerve wracking. In this chap-
ter we’ll have you folding up boxes, counting cubes, spin-
ning and rotating 3–D figures, and that’s just the beginning.
We’ll also look at hidden figures, maps, and test your
eye–hand coordination.

HIDDEN FIGURES
1. a b c d e 11. a b c d e 21. a b c d e
BLOCK COUNTING
ROTATED BLOCK
MATCHING PIECES AND PARTS


SPATIAL ANALYSIS
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS
EYE–HAND COORDINATION
11. a b c d e 22. a b c d e
READING MAPS
7. a b c d e 14. a b c d e

–SPATIAL CONCEPTS–
HIDDEN FIGURES
Hidden figures questions require you to find given geometric shapes inside more elaborate and complicated figures.
Sometimes the answers will literally pop out at you. Other times, you might be left scratching your head without an
answer, or worse yet—you might be falling into a trap laid out by those sinister Hidden Figures question designers.
In the sample questions below, these are the basic figures you will be looking for:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Question 1:
If nothing “pops out at you,” a good strategy is to analyze each given shape to see if it could possibly be hid-
ing inside the figure above.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Too wide, Too big. Same height, Right height, Right height.
even if but too narrow. but it's just There it is!
rotated. not in there!
Nope. Nope. Nope. Nope. Yes!
Notice how the figure in question looks like two trapezoids reflected over each other. This would tempt some
unsuspecting test takers into picking choice c. However upon closer inspection, you can see that trapezoid c is
narrower than the trapezoids in the question. Always be careful to pick the shape that is the exact size. Also, when
dealing with polygons, make sure you are picking the figure with the correct number of sides.
Question 2:
Even if the question seems funky, run through your choices and reject all impossible answers.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Too wide, Too big. Same height, Right height. Right height,
even if but bottom There it is! but otherwise
rotated. is too long to too big to be
fit in there. in there.
Nope. Nope. Nope. Nope.

Yes!
If you weren’t able to spot the cube inside the figure, you would still know that choice d was correct because
all of the other choices were eliminated.
20 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
a) b) c) d) e)
f) g) h) i) j)
When answering questions 1 through 10, refer to shapes a through j above. For each question, determine which let-
tered shape is hidden inside the figure. Lettered shapes may be used once, twice, or not at all.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

a) b) c) d) e)
f) g) h) i) j)
When answering questions 11 through 20, refer to shapes a through j above. For each question, determine which let-
tered shape is hidden inside the figure. Lettered shapes may be used once, twice, or not at all.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Use Figure J-1 for questions 21–25:

21. The hidden figure in block 1 is _____. 24. The hidden figure in block 4 is _____.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
23. The hidden figure in block 3 is _____.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
28. The hidden figure in block 8 is _____.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
HIDDEN FIGURES ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. j 6. c
7. a
2. e
8. d
3. h
9. b
4. g
10. f
5. i

11. c 21. c
22. a
12. d
13. g 23. d
14. f 24. e
15. h 25. b
26. b
16. a
17. e 27. e
18. j 28. c
29. d
19. b
30. a
20. i

BLOCK COUNTING
These 3-D–based questions have you counting lots and

lots of blocks: some that you can see, and other hidden
blocks that you need to assume are present. Start at the
bottom level, counting each block, one at a time. It is help-
ful to make a note in the margin, such as “Level 1 = 23.” The second sample is a rectangle three blocks wide, four
Next, check out the second level up, again counting each blocks deep, and two blocks high with a hollow center.
box, one at a time. Record a value for “Level 2 = _____” This one is fairly simple to count, and you should have
in the margin. Work your way upward to the topmost counted 20 blocks easily. Though this one was fairly sim-
layer. Finally, tally up all of your numbers. Keeping track ple, the questions ahead may get a lot more complicated,
of each level in an organized manner will help you feel so remember to count the blocks one at a time to
secure about your answer so you won’t have to re-do the avoid simple miscalculations.
question. Face it, you’re not going to want to do these ques-
tions twice! 30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1.
This first sample question has a pyramid-like structure

with one center column four blocks high (that center
block isn’t resting on the edges of the surrounding
columns) and four symmetrical sides, consisting of six
blocks each, that gradually step down one block at a time
giving you a total of 28 blocks. A good way to attack
this problem would be to start at the outside where you
can see that there is only one block resting on the plane
and work your way inward counting the columns as they
step up.

2. 5.
3.
6.
4.
7.

8. 12.
9.
13.
10.
14.
11.

18. Block 3 is touched by _____ other blocks.

15. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
For questions 16–20, refer to Figure I-1 e. 6

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
For questions 21–25, refer to Figure I-2

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
a. 2
d. 5
b. 3
e. 6
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

22. Block 7 is touched by _____ other blocks. For questions 26–30, refer to Figure I-3
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4 26. Block 11 is touched by _____ other blocks.
d. 5 a. 2
e. 6 b. 3
24. Block 9 is touched by _____ other blocks. c. 4
a. 2 d. 5
b. 3 e. 6
d. 5 a. 2
e. 6 b. 3
25. Block 10 is touched by _____ other blocks. c. 4
a. 2 d. 5
b. 3 e. 6
d. 5 a. 2
e. 6 b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6

30. Block 15 is touched by _____ other blocks. 19. c. Block 4 touches one block to the left, one
a. 2 block to the right, and two blocks below.
b. 3 20. d. Block 5 touches two blocks above, one
c. 4 block to the left, and two blocks below.
d. 5 21. b. Block 6 touches one block to the left, one
block to the right, and one block below.
BLOCK COUNTING ANSWER 22. e. Block 7 touches two blocks below, one
EXPLANATIONS block to the right, and three blocks above.
1. 154 23. d. Block 8 touches two blocks below, two
2. 141 blocks to the left, and one block above.
3. 99 24. d. Block 9 touches two blocks below, one
4. 48 block to the left, one block to the right,
5. 98 and one block above.
6. 132 25. c. Block 10 touches three blocks above and
7. 100 one block to the right.
8. 52 26. b. Block 11 touches two blocks below and
9. 126 one block to the right.
10. 81 27. e. Block 12 touches three blocks above, one
11. 68 block to the left, and two blocks below.
12. 141 28. e. Block 13 touches three blocks above, one
13. 296 block to the right, and two blocks below.
14. 70 29. d. Block 14 touches two blocks above, one
15. 124 block below, one block to the right, and
16. b. Block 1 touches two blocks above and one one block to the left.
block to the left. 30. b. Block 15 touches one block above and two
17. c. Block 2 touches one block below, one blocks to the left.
block to the right, and two blocks above.
18. a. Block 3 touches one block to the left and
one block below.

ROTATED BLOCKS
Rotated Blocks questions require the ability to mentally spin a 3-D figure around and envision what it will look like
from this new angle. Since each face of the cube is labeled with a particular figure, sometimes it’s easier to spot a wrong
answer by focusing on the relative positions of these figures. The remaining choices will give you an idea of which way
to rotate the original block.
ROTATED BLOCKS INSTRUCTIONS

Solid
In this first set of exercises, you will be rotating solid three-dimensional blocks of various shapes in order to enhance
your ability to think in three-dimensions. For each numbered shape you will find four possible answers which
may represent that numbered shape rotated 360 degrees in any direction. Your task is to determine which of the
four choices is the only one that could be the original shape, rotated. You’ll want to pay close attention to detail
here in order to catch some of the small differences that may lead you to an incorrect answer. Some of the most
common mistakes are made when you overlook subtly placed extra lines or mirror images. They may appear cor-
rect at a glance but under closer examination are wrong. Study the images carefully and the answers will become
obvious.
c)
a) d)
b)
If you observed closely and looked for common mistakes, you should have found the correct answer to be c.
Patterned
In this set of exercises, there are numbered cubes with patterned faces and no pattern appears on more than one
side of the cube. For each numbered cube there are four possible answers that represent the cube turned in a dif-
ferent direction. Your task is to decide which of the answer cubes is the original cube rotated in any direction.
On this one you’ll need to be aware of tricky mirrored patterns and pay close attention to the position of the pat-
terns in relation to their adjacent faces. Then the answers will become clear.

a. b. c. d.
If you have figured correctly, you’ll see the answer is d. It is the original block turned once clockwise. Then
the circle faces forward. Next, it is turned on its side so that the diamond moves from the top to the right side.
1. a) b) c) d)
2. a)
b) c) d)
3. a) b)
c) d)
4. a)
b) c) d)
5. a) c)
b) d)

6. a) b) c) d)
7. a) b) c) d)
8. a) b) c) d)
9. a) b) c) d)
10. a) b) c) d)
11. a) c) d)
b)

12. d)
b) c)
a)
13. a) b)
c) d)
14. a) c)
b) d)
15. a)
c)
b) d)
16.
a. b. c. d.
17.
a. b. c. d.

18.
a. b. c. d.
19.
a. b. c. d.
20.
a. b. c. d.
21.
22.

23.
24.
25.
26.

27.
28.
29.
30.

ROTATED BLOCKS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. b 9. a
2. c
10. c
3. a
11. b
4. d
12. a
5. b
13. c
6. c
14. c
7. d
15. b
8. b

Back
Top
Left Front Right

Side Side
Bottom
16. c. The original cube has been turned once clockwise to move the cres-
cent-moon shape to the front and reveal a new right side.
17. b. The original cube has been turned clockwise once to move the circle
pattern to the front and reveal a new right side, then turned once away
to move the circle to the top and reveal the bottom as the new front.
18. d. The original cube has been turned once onto its right side to move the
top to the right side and reveal a new top pattern.

19. b. The original cube has been turned once onto its right side to move
what was the top to the right side and reveal a new top pattern.
20. d. The original cube has been turned 180 degrees (clockwise or counter-
clockwise).
21. a 26. d
22. a 27. b
23. e 28. c
24. c 29. a
25. c 30. b
MATCHING PIECES AND PARTS

There are several styles of Matching Pieces and Parts ques- In the first question below, you must decide
tions, but the underlying concept is the same. Some ques- which two lettered pieces will come together to make
tions require the test-taker to visualize the parts that form the parallelogram shown. Pieces may be rotated
a given whole. Other questions require the test-taker to (turned) or reflected (flipped over).
visualize the whole that is made up of the given parts. All
in all, these questions require the ability to mentally flip- 1. a) b) c) d) e)
flop, turn, and piece together shapes. To add to the chal-
lenge, you also must be on guard for pieces whose
dimensions are slightly off. When dealing with polygons,
make sure the figure you end up with has the correct num-
ber of sides.

Initially, you should eliminate any choices that In the next question, you are given 4 pieces. You
obviously could not make up the whole in question. must choose which answer choice represents a figure
comprised of all four pieces. Pieces may be rotated
Too tall.
and/or reflected.
Nope.
b
2. a) b) c) d)
It would be impossible for choice b to be a part

of the figure, as it is too large. Similarly, c and e would
be too short: We will analyze each choice:
Too small. Too large.

Nope. a)
e
c
Nope.
Now you should focus on a and d. Although they

do not look very compatible at this point, remember Too narrow.
b)
that you are allowed to rotate and reflect these pieces.
Let’s flip a over as you would a piece of paper. And let’s Nope.
turn d on its side:
rotate
over
flip Correct.
d
A
c)
a a d B
B
C
A
C
C C
Yes!
Now, we can fit them together:
Correct size.
Yes!
d) Only
three
a d pieces.
Nope.
Sometimes you will be surprised which pieces turn

out to be the right parts. The more choices you can elim-
inate off the bat, the easier your task will be.

In questions 1–10 below, pick the TWO answer choices that will come together to make the figure shown. Pieces may
be reflected and/or rotated.
1. a) b) c) d) e)
2. a) b) c) d) e)
3.
a) b) c) d) e)
4.
a) b) c) d) e)
5.
a) b) c) d) e)
6.
a) b) c) d) e)

7.
a) b) c) d) e)
8. a) b) c) d) e)
9.
a) b) c) d) e)
10.
a) b) c) d) e)
In questions 11–20 below, select the SINGLE answer choice that represents the two parts that join together to
make the given whole. Pieces may be reflected and/or rotated.
11.
a) b) c) d)
12.
a) b) c) d)

13.
a) b) c) d)
14.
a) b) c) d)
15.
a) b) c) d)
16.
a) b) c) d)
17.
a) b) c) d)

18.
a) b) c) d)
19.
a) b) c) d)
20.
a) b) c) d)
In questions 21–30 below, 4–5 pieces are given. Choose the answer choice that represents a figure comprised of
ALL pieces. Pieces may be rotated and/or reflected.
21.
a) b) c) d)
22.
a) b) c) d)

23.
a) b) c) d)
24.
a) b) c) d)
25.
a) b) c) d)
26.
a) b) c) d)
27.
a) b) c) d)

28.
a) b) c) d)
29.
a) b) c) d)
30.
a) b) c) d)
MATCHING PIECES AND PARTS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. b+e 4. b+d
2. a+d
5. c+e
3. a+c
6. c+e

7. a+d 14. b
8. c+e
15. d
9. b+e
16. d
10. a+b
17. c
11. b
18. b
12. c
19. c
13. a
20. a

21. c 26. d
B A
A
A A
A B A
D
B B
C
B B C
D
22. b
A
B A B 27. a
B
A D
C D C B
C D C
A
D
23. a
A B 28. d
C B
A C
B A A
D A
C D A B
C
24. d
B A 29. c
A A B
C B
B
B B
C C C C A
B C
B
25. b
A A 30. b
A A
C
B B C B
B D
D B B
C C

SPATIAL ANALYSIS
Spatial Analysis questions deal with the ability to take several separate spatial views and mentally combine them into
a 3-D solid. Usually you are presented with a front view, a side view, and a top view. Always refer back to the three
views to make sure the dimensions are correct. Scrutinize the answer choices for errors in dimensions when resorting
to process of elimination.
SPATIAL ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS

You’re going to be given two types of questions in this exercise that involve taking a two dimensional diagram of
an object and picturing it in three dimensions. Then you’ll have to reverse the process and go from 3D to 2D.
This type of visualization will be extremely useful if you intend to enter the fields of Drafting or Architecture.
In this first sample you’ll see the three views of a three-dimensional object (top, front, and side) as you would
see them if you were to look at them from the top, front, or side. Next, take a look at the first sample and try to
find the answer.
top a. b. c. d.
side front
The answer to this sample question is b, and here’s why. The straight square in b corresponds to the square
in the two-dimensional view that represents the front. Then the two skewed rectangles that are connected to the
square correspond to the two evenly proportioned rectangles in the two-dimensional view that represent the top
and the side. That gives you a complete three-dimensional object.
The second sample gives you a three-dimensional object with four choices. Of these four choices, three are
the correct two-dimensional views that would represent the top, front, and side. The fourth is incorrect. Identify
the response that would be INCORRECT.
a. b. c. d.
If you figured correctly, your answer should be b. The reason is simple. This answer choice adds an extra
line that would not be visible in 2-D. Most spatial analysis questions are tricky, so take your time and make care-
ful observations.

1.
a. b. c. d.
top
side front
2.
top a. b. c. d.
front side
3.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
4.
top
a. b. c. d.
front side
5.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side

6.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
7.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
8.
a. c.
b. d.
top
front side
9.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
10.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side

11.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
12.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
13.
a. c. d.
b.
top
front side
14.
a. c.
b. d.
top
front side
15. a. b. c. d.
top
front side
16.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side

17.
a. c.
b.
d.
top
front side
18.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
19. a. c.
b. d.
top
front side
20.
a. b. c. d.
top
front side
21.
a. b. c. d.

22.
a. b. c. d.
23.
a. b. c. d.
24.
a. b. c. d.
25.
a. b. c. d.
26.
a. b. c. d.
27.
a. c.
b. d.
28.
c.
a. b. d.

29.
b. c.
a.
d.
30.
a. b. c. d.
SPATIAL ANALYSIS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. 4.
top
top c. b.
side front
front side
2.
5.
top a. top b.
front side
front side
3.
6.
a. c.
top
top
front side
front side

7. a.
12.
b.
top top
front side
front side
8.
13. a.
a.
top top
front side
front side
9.
14.
d. a.
top
top
front side front side
10.
15.
a.
top
11. front side

c.
16.
top c.
top
front side
front side

17. 23.
d.
top
b.
front side 24.
18.
a.
d.
top 25.
front side
d.
19. b. 26.
top
b.
27.
front side
20.
d. d.
28.
top
b.
front side 29.

21.
d. a.
22. 30.
a.
d.

UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS
These pattern questions are designed to test your capacity to transform 2-D into 3-D and vice versa. You should be
able to mentally fold up a 2-dimensional pattern into a 3-dimensional solid. Sometimes this is trickier than others.
In such cases, process of elimination is your best friend. Figure out how many faces will be present in the folded prod-
uct, and cross off inappropriate answers accordingly. Next, analyze the shape and placement of each face.
Other questions will present you with a patterned 3-D figure and ask you to mentally squash it flat into a
2-D representation. Again, counting up the number of faces can help you eliminate wrong answers. Next, look
at the relative positions of the patterned shapes upon folding. Let’s look at some examples below.
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS INSTRUCTIONS

In this first sample question you will see an unfolded cardboard pattern. The solid lines represent the shape of
the different parts and the dashed lines represent fold lines. For each unfolded pattern there are four choices that
could possibly represent the pattern folded into a three-dimensional shape.
c. d.
a. b.
Here’s a brief description of what the sample question would look like in three dimensions. Picture the image
as it might look folded up to visualize the answer. The square in the center of the unfolded pattern represents
the base of the pyramid with the four surrounding triangles representing the four sides of the pyramid. Since
there are no other lines to represent any shapes, other than the ones described, then c can be the only possible
answer.
The second sample uses the reverse of the principle set up in the first sample and uses cubes with patterned
sides instead of solid shapes as a starting point. In this exercise you will take a three-dimensional cube with pat-
terned faces (not necessarily every side will have a pattern on it) and decide which of the four possible answers
represents an unfolded cube. To find the answer to this question, it is a good idea to first study the cube and observe
the shape of the patterns and their placement on the face of the cube. Once you feel you have a good grasp of the
cube, compare it to the possible answers. Look for the position of the symbols and where they would sit if
the pattern were folded up.

a. b. c. d.
If you study the cube carefully you should see that c is the only possible answer. The front of the cube bears
a crescent-moon shape, the top bears an upside down v-shape and the side bears a black circle. Answer choice c
uses the crescent-moon shape as its front. If you fold all the other sides around it, they fall into place and give
you the original cube.
1.
a. b. d.
c.
2.
a. b. d.
c.
3.
c. d.
a. b.

4.
a. b. d.
c.
5.
a. b. c. d.
6.
a. b. c. d.
7.
a. b. c. d.
8.
a. b. c. d.

9.
a. b. c. d.
10.
a. b. c. d.
11.
a. b. c. d.
12.
a. b. c. d.
13.
a. b. c. d.

14.
a. b. c. d.
15.
a. b. c. d.
16.
a. b. c. d.
17.
c.
a. b. d.

18.
a. b. c. d.
19.
a. b. c. d.
20.
a. b. c. d.
21.
a. b. c. d.

22.
a. b. c. d.
23.
a. b. c. d.
24.
a. b. c. d.
25.
a. b. c. d.

26.
a. b. c. d.
27.
a. b. c. d.
28.
a. b. c. d.
29.
a. b. c. d.

30.
a. b. c. d.
UNDERSTANDING PATTERNS ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. 5.
b.
b.
2. 6.
a.
b.
3. 7.
d.
b.
8.
4.
a.
d.

9. 15.
d.
b.
10. 16.
d.
c.
11.
17.
a.
b.
12.
18.
c.
b.
13.
19.
a.
14.
c.
a.

20. 25.
a.
d.
21. 26.
b. a.
22.
27.
c.
b.
23.
28.
a.
c.
24.
29.
c.
a.

30.
d.
EYE-HAND COORDINATION LETTER-SYMBOL CODING

These types of questions bring out the kid in everyone.
Several tests are designed to test eye-hand coordination. Although they are pretty straightforward and fun, just
These include: Letter-Symbol Coding, Inspection Tests, be careful not to confuse similar shapes. Make sure the
Examining Objects, and Mazes. shape is at the same angle as the one in the question.
If the shape is a polygon, make sure it has the correct
number of sides. Below is an example of a Letter-Sym-
bol Code followed by a chart for you to fill in.
Letter A B C D E F G H I J
Code
Letter K L M N O P Q R S T
Code
Question Answer
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.

You can check your answers against this key.
3 6
Code
Code
5 7 2 8 1 4
Question Answer
1. Q
2. M
3. C
4. S
5. K
6. E
7. L
8. N
If you missed any of the above questions, slow down and take care to compare all of the aspects of the given
symbol and the choice you are about to pick.

INSPECTION TESTS
These tests require you to closely analyze a figure. For example, in the chart below, determine how many trian-
gles are in Column 2, Rows B and C.
1 2 3
Did you count nine? The key below shows all the triangles.
1 2 3
These questions tend to get pretty tedious. Be extremely careful.

EXAMINING OBJECTS
In these questions you must examine objects and classify them according to a given set of rules or codes. Read
the instructions carefully and underline anything that you think is important. Otherwise, jot down some quick
notes next to the graphic sorting code.
Sorting Code
2" 3" 3" 3"
2" 3" 2" 3"
BOX BOX BOX BOX

1 2 3 4
Ship Trash Resize Recycle
The Sorting Code above is a graphical summary for the following Sorting Code. Read the code carefully.
Sorting Code for Boxes 1 through 4:
Box 1: Ship
Both pieces are not defective and are the same size.
Box 2: Trash
Both pieces are defective.
Note: A “defect” is displayed as a dashed line going across the piece. See the graphic code above.
Box 3: Resize
Both pieces are not defective but the sizes do not match.
Box 4: Recycle
Anytime one piece is defective, place the package into Box 4.

In the question below, you are presented with a package containing two pieces. Use the above sorting code
to determine which box the package needs to be placed in.
1. a. Box 1
b. Box 2
3" c. Box 3
d. Box 4
2"
Answer: d. Although you may have been tempted to put this package into Box 3 (Resize), notice that the
criteria for Box 3 states: Both pieces are not defective but the sizes do not match. In this example we do have one
defective piece. According to the Sorting Code, we see that this package belongs in Box 4: Anytime one piece is
defective, place the package into Box 4.
MAZES
As you wind your way through a maze, pretend the solid lines are walls that you cannot cross. Try the sample
maze below.
D A
C
B
enter
Did you come out at B? Following is the answer key.

D A
C
B
enter
Notice that if you tried to go backward and entered through A, C, D, or E, you would soon hit a wall. If you
are having trouble going forward, you can always eliminate answers by going backward.

In questions 1–8, trace the path from each number to the corresponding letter.
1 a
2 b
3 c
4 d
5 e
6 f
7 g
8 h
1. _____
2. _____
3. _____
4. _____
5. _____
6. _____
7. _____
8. _____

9. Follow the maze below and mark the letter that correctly represents the way out of the maze. _____
enter
E A
D C
10. Follow the maze below and mark the letter that correctly represents the way out of the maze. _____
enter
A
E
B
D

11. Follow the maze below and mark the letter that correctly represents the way out of the maze._____
enter
D C
Code
Code
In questions 12–19, you are presented with a four-symbol code. Use the chart above to translate the code
into letters, and determine which answer choice represents the correct letter sequence.
12. 13.
a. FHME a. GOCI
b. FAME b. CKGM
c. SAME c. GKCI
d. SHIN d. COGM
e. FAIN e. GKCI

14. 17.
a. OCBF a. BKRE
b. RJPS b. POLE
c. OGPF c. BKLN
d. RGPF d. POLN
e. OJPS e. PKRE
15. 18.
a. OMAN a. BACK
b. KMAN b. IDHQ
c. OITN c. BFAQ
d. KITN d. IAHQ
e. KITE e. BHAQ
16. 19.
a. IDAF a. FKEN
b. BDHF b. FOEN
c. IFHD c. FKNE
d. BFHD d. DOEN
e. IDHF e. DONE

1 2 3 4
Use the chart above to determine the calculations required for questions 20–28.
20. Count the number of squares in Row C: 21. Count the number of triangles in Column 2,
a. 11 Rows B, C, and E:
b. 12 a. 11
c. 13 b. 12
d. 14 c. 13
e. none of the above d. 14
e. none of the above

22. Count the number of circles in Rows A, C, and 26. How many stars and circles are in Row C?
E: a. 33
a. 49 b. 34
b. 50 c. 35
c. 51 d. 36
d. 52 e. none of the above
27. Count the number of stars, circles, squares, and
23. Count the number of stars in Column 1, Rows triangles in Row A, in Columns 1 and 2:
A, C, D, and E: a. 28
a. 16 b. 29
b. 18 c. 30
c. 19 d. 31
28. Count the number of squares and stars in
24. Count the number of squares in Columns 1 Columns 1 and 4:
and 3. a. 69
a. 37 b. 70
b. 38 c. 71
c. 39 d. 72
25. Count the number of triangles in Columns 1 and

2, excluding Row B:
a. 33
b. 37
c. 38
d. 40

Sorting Code
BOX BOX BOX BOX BOX

1 2 3 4 5
Pass Fail Recycle Color Join
Box Box Box Box Box
Sorting Code for Boxes 1 through 5:
Box 1: Pass Box

All packages placed in this box must satisfy each of the following requirements:
■ The two pieces fit together properly.
■ The two pieces are the same color.
■ The two pieces are free from defects.
Box 2: Fail Box

All packages placed in this box contain two defective pieces. Regardless of fit or color, if both pieces inside a pack-
age are defective, put them in the Fail Box.
Note: A “defect” is displayed as a dashed line going across the piece. See the graphic code above.
Box 3: Recycle Box

All packages placed in this box contain one defective piece. Regardless of fit or color, if one piece of the pair is
defective, put the package in the Recycle Box.
Box 4: Color Box

All packages placed in this box contain pieces that do not match in color. This box takes priority over the Join
Box: When examining mismatched pairs that will not fit together and have different colors, place the package in
the Color Box.
Box 5: Join Box

All packages in this box do not fit together.

In questions 29–32 below, you are presented with 31.

a package containing two pieces. Use the sorting code
on p. 68 to determine which box each package needs
to be placed in.
a. Box 1
29.
b. Box 2
c. Box 3
d. Box 4
a. Box 1 e. Box 5
b. Box 2 32.
c. Box 3
d. Box 4
e. Box 5
30. a. Box 1
b. Box 2
c. Box 3
d. Box 4
a. Box 1 e. Box 5
b. Box 2
c. Box 3
d. Box 4
e. Box 5

EYE-HAND COORDINATION ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. e 5. g
1 a 1 a
2 b 2 b
3 c 3 c
4 d 4 d
5 e 5 e
6 f 6 f
7 g 7 g
8 h 8 h
2. h 6. a
1 a 1 a
2 b 2 b
3 c 3 c
4 d 4 d
5 e 5 e
6 f 6 f
7 g 7 g
8 h 8 h
3. c 7. d
1 a 1 a
2 b 2 b
3 c 3 c
4 d 4 d
5 e 5 e
6 f 6 f
7 g 7 g
8 h 8 h
4. b 8. f
1 a 1 a
2 b 2 b
3 c 3 c
4 d 4 d
5 e 5 e
6 f 6 f
7 g 7 g
8 h 8 h

9. enter
E A
C
D
10. enter
A
E
B
D

11. A
enter
D C

12. c. SAME 13. a. GOCI
Letter A B C D E F G H I J Letter A B C D E F G H I J
Code Code
Letter K L M N O P Q R S T Letter K L M N O P Q R S T
Code Code
14. b. RJPS 15. e. KITE
Code Code
Code Code
16. d. BFHD 17. d. POLN
Code Code
Code Code
18. c. BFAQ 19. e. DONE
Code Code
Code Code

20. c. 13 1 2 3 4 23. a. 16 1 2 3 4
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E
21. d. 14 1 2 3 4 24. e. 41 1 2 3 4
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E
22. b. 50 1 2 3 4 25. a. 33 1 2 3 4
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E

26. c. 35 28. e. 73
20 circles + 15 stars 32 squares + 41 stars
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E
27. d. 31 29. c. This package belongs in Box 3, the Recycle

Count all shapes in this region. Box, because one piece is defective.
1 2 3 4 30. d. This package belongs in Box 4, the Color
A
Box, because mismatched color takes pri-
ority over mismatched fit. The sorting
code states: When examining mismatched
B
pairs that will not fit together and have dif-
ferent colors, place the package in the Color
C
Box.
31. a. This package passes inspection because
D the two pieces fit together properly, are
the same color, and are free from defects.
E 32. b. This package contains two defective pieces
and belongs in the Fail Box, which is Box
2. The Sorting Code states: Regardless of fit
or color, if both pieces inside a package are
defective, put them in the Fail Box.
READING MAPS
Some people seem to have a good “sense of direction” when it comes to finding an efficient way to their destination.
Map Reading questions test your ability to imagine a 3D situation on a 2D piece of paper. Just put yourself into
the map and follow the directions. It may help to physically rotate your test booklet as you imagine placing yourself
inside the map. Once you have placed yourself at the right spot and are facing the correct direction, you can follow

instructions that tell you to “go right” or “go left.” Questions dealing with absolute directions (north, south, east, and
west) are easier because you can simply refer to the compass on the page.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR MAP READING

Answer Questions 1 through 3 based solely on the following map. You are required to follow traffic laws and the
flow of traffic. A single arrow depicts one-way streets and two arrows pointing in opposite directions represent
two-way streets.
W E one way KEY two way
RIVER ROAD
WASHINGTON ROAD
FIRST ST.
STREET
STREET
STREET
CHURCH STREET
CHURCH
LINCOLN AVENUE STREET
PARKER ROAD
APTS.
SECOND
FOURTH
THIRD
CITY HALL
MAIN STREET
STREET
TOWN ASH ROAD

ASH ROAD SQUARE
FIRST
McARTHUR BOULEVARD

1. Officer Harolds is sitting at a red light at the inter- west corner of the building. Now look at City Hall. The
section of Fourth Street and Washington Road northwest corner of this building is at the intersection
facing southbound. The dispatcher sends him on of Parker Road and Lincoln Avenue. (To determine the
a one-vehicle collision call. A motorist has run northwest corner of the building, it may be a helpful
into the northwest corner of the City Hall build- trick to imagine that the north-south-east-west indi-
ing. What is the quickest route for Officer cator is written in the middle of the word “City Hall.”
Harolds to take to get to City Hall? That makes it easy to see where the northwest corner
a. Turn west onto Washington Road, then would be for the building.) The quickest, easiest route
south on Third Street, and then west on appears to be west on Washington Road, south on
Main Street to Parker Road. Parker Road and east on Lincoln Avenue. You have your
b. Turn west onto Washington Road, then route, so now it’s time to see if one of the multiple-
south onto Parker Road, and then east to choice options matches the route you determined.
Lincoln Avenue. When you first glance at the four options, it’s fairly
c. Turn west onto Washington Road, south obvious that they all start with a west turn onto Wash-
on Second Street, and then east onto ington Road. Starting with option a, we see that this
Main Street to Parker Road. option lists turning south onto Third Street and then
d. Turn west onto Washington Road, then west on Main Street. Main Street is one block south of
south onto Parker Road, and then east the street you’d like to be on, so this option is not the
onto Main Street. most efficient route. Eliminate this option and go on
to option b.
Strategies for Map Reading In option b, you see that the first turn after head-
The situation tells you that Officer Harolds needs to ing west on Washington Road is to turn south onto
answer a collision call. The dispatcher tells you the spe- Parker Road, then east to Lincoln Avenue, which will
cific location, the northwest corner of City Hall. As you put the officer at the scene of the collision. This option
can see by the map, the City Hall building can be matches the route you figured out before reading the
approached on four sides by four different streets. answers, so b is more than likely the right choice.
Since you’d like to be close to the northwest corner of However, it’s always best to continue reading the
the building, you should be considering a route that will answers to make sure you don’t pass up an option that
put you on that side of City Hall. turns out to be better than the one you originally fig-
Your first step will be to study the map and pick ured. Option c has Officer Harolds turning east on Main
out the quickest legal route to the collision. The arrows Street, which is heading away from the call and does not
show you that Washington Road is a one-way street. end up at Parker Road. Option d is not the best answer
Since Officer Harolds is facing south on Fourth Street because the corner of Parker Road and Main Street is
at Washington Road, his only option available is to turn one block too far to the south. The only reason you’d
west onto Washington Road. Notice that Washington choose either of these options would be not knowing
Road runs parallel to Lincoln Avenue, the street where which was the northwest corner of City Hall.
City Hall is located. Also notice that Lincoln Avenue
runs to the east and you want to end up on the north-

Remember, even when you feel like you already misread the question or the answer choices, which will
have the right answer, it is best to examine all the naturally cause you to choose the wrong answer.
answer choices to be on the safe side. Let’s try a third question using the same sample
map.
Finding the Direction
3. On a rainy, windy night Officers Epps and Bur-
Question 2 is based on the same map as Question 1,
ton are dispatched to a burglar alarm at a busi-
but it is different. The test maker wants to know if you
ness on Ash Road and Church Street. They are
can figure out which direction you are facing.
driving north on First Street and have just passed
2. Officer Watson is driving eastbound on Main Washington Road. What is the quickest route
Street at Fourth Street. If he makes a U-turn on they can take?
Main Street, turns onto Third Street and then a. north on First Street, west on River Road,
makes another U-turn, what direction will he be then south on Parker Road, then east on
facing? McArthur Boulevard, then north on
a. east Church Street to Ash Road
b. west b. north on First Street, then east on River
c. north Road, then south on Third Street, then
d. south east on Main Street, then north on
Church Street to Ash Road
Strategies for Direction Questions c. north on First Street, then east on River
The best strategy for solving this type of question is the Road, then south on Church Street to Ash
same as Question 1. Trace your path after reading the Road
question, then look through the answers until you find d. north on First Street, then west on River
the one that matches your decision. Obviously, you Road, then south on Parker Road, then
don’t have much reading to do to pick out the right east on Lincoln Avenue, then south on
answer. You’ll mainly be looking to see which letter is Second Street, then east on McArthur
in front of the answer you want. Boulevard, then north on Church Street
In Question 2, the answer you want is d. When to Ash Road
you traced your path on the map, you should have seen
that if Officer Watson is heading east on Main Street After reading the question you are ready to trace
and he makes a U-turn, he will be heading west. If he your route. Keep in mind that you want to get to Ash
turns onto Third Street, the only way he can turn will Road and Church Street in the quickest, easiest man-
be north on Third Street. If he makes a second U-turn, ner without going the wrong way on any one-way
he will now be facing south. streets. First Street is a one-way street going toward a
two-way street, River Road. You have the option of
MORE MAP-READING PRACTICE heading east or west on River Road. East makes more
The key to answering map-reading questions is to take sense because it is in the direction of Church Street. The
your time. If you hurry through a question, you may most direct route appears to be east on River Road to

Church Street, then south on Church Street to Ash 30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Road.
N
Now it’s time to check your answer against the
options. Option a has you turning west on First Street,
and you’ve already determined that west is not the most
efficient direction to turn. Option b suggests that you Quadrant Quadrant
#1 #2
turn east on River Road, then south on Third Street,
then east on Main Street, and then north on Church
Street. You should turn South on Church Street to get W E
to Ash Road, not north. You already have too many
turns for this to be an efficient route. Time to look at
option c. Option c directs you east on River Road, then Quadrant Quadrant
#3 #4
south on Church Street—and there you are at Ash Road.
This route matches the route we had in mind. Option
d has too many turns (like option b). In addition, it
involves a west turn onto River Road, which we already S
decided was inefficient.

1. A messenger who delivers packages is standing
at the intersection of the two lines shown above.
If she travels north for two blocks, then west for
three blocks, then south for four blocks, and then
east for five blocks, in which quadrant will she
be?
a. Quadrant #1
b. Quadrant #2
c. Quadrant #3
d. Quadrant #4

Answer questions 2–4 solely on the basis of the map below. The arrows indicate traffic flow; one arrow indicates
a one-way street going in the direction of the arrow; two arrows represent a two-way street. You are not allowed
to go the wrong way on a one-way street.
W E
one way KEY two way
S
BARCELONA BOULEVARD
CANYON
JAMES AVE.
LINDA LANE
ORINDA ROAD
LIVINGSTON AVENUE
TOWN HALL
BORTZ ROAD
EL CAMINO
AMHOY ROAD
KIM'S CANYON DRIVE

WOK
LIVINGSTON
AVENUE EDWARD STREET
MALL
SHOES
'R
US
Mc MAHON STREET
JAMES
MUNICIPAL
PARKING LOT
LAKE DRIVE

2. Sanitation Workers Kazinski and Benning are c. make a U-turn on Canyon Drive, and
completing a routine pick-up at the Livingston then go west on Bortz Road to Livingston
Avenue Mall at the southeast corner of the build- Avenue
ing. Dispatch notifies them of a special pick-up d. continue south on Canyon Drive, then
at a residence located at the northwest corner of east on Lake Drive, then north on El
Canyon Drive and Linda Lane. What is the Camino, and then west on Bortz Road to
quickest route for Kazinski and Benning to take? Livingston Avenue
a. turn north on Amhoy Road, then east on
4. Sanitation Shift Supervisor Richfield is driving
Linda Lane, and then north on Canyon
west on Bortz Road. She makes a right onto
Drive
James Avenue, then a left onto Linda Lane, then
b. turn east on McMahon Street, then north
a right onto Livingston Avenue, and then a right
on El Camino, then west on Linda Lane,
onto Barcelona Boulevard. What direction is she
then north on Orinda Road, and then east
facing?
on Barcelona Boulevard to Canyon Drive
a. east
c. turn north on Amhoy Road, then east on
b. south
Barcelona Boulevard, and then south on
c. west
Canyon Drive
d. north
d. turn north on Amhoy Road, then east on
Bortz Road, then north on Orinda Road,
and then east on Barcelona Boulevard
3. Sanitation Workers Martini and Schmid are

southbound on Canyon Drive and have just
crossed Edward Street. They receive a call that
a city collection truck has broken down, leaving
one pick-up to be made near a bus stop located
at Livingston Avenue and Bortz Road. They are
asked to make the unscheduled pick-up. What
is the quickest route for Sanitation Workers
Martini and Schmid to take to the bus stop?
a. continue south on Canyon Drive, then
west on McMahon Street, then north on
Orinda Road, then west on Edward Street,
then north on Amhoy Road, and then
west on Bortz Road to Livingston Avenue
b. continue south on Canyon Drive, then
west on Lake Drive, and then north on
Livingston Avenue to Bortz Road

Answer questions 5–7 solely on the basis of the map below. The arrows indicate traffic flow; one arrow indicates
a one-way street going in the direction of the arrow; two arrows represent a two-way street. You are not allowed
to go the wrong way on a one-way street.
W E one way KEY two way
POMEROY BOULEVARD
COURT
MILL ROAD HOUSE
BOND ROAD
LEE LANE
LYNCH ROAD
STREET
STREET
PALMER AVENUE
COMMUNITY CENTER MAIN STREET
UPTON
GROVE
KENT AVENUE
BOND RD.
LEE LN.
JIM'S
ROSS PARK
DELI
PINE AVENUE
PECAN AVENUE

5. Sanitation Worker Tennyson is eastbound on b. continue north on Upton Street, and then
Kent Avenue at Lee Lane. He receives a call drive west on Pomeroy Boulevard, and
about assistance needed for a pick-up at a resi- then south on Grove Street to Ross Park
dence located at the northeast corner of Lynch c. continue north on Upton Street, then
Road and Mill Road. What is the quickest route drive west on Pomeroy Boulevard, then
for Sanitation Worker Tennyson to take? south on Main Street, then west on Pecan
a. continue east on Kent Avenue, then north Avenue, and then north on Grove Street
on Main Street to Mill Road, and then to Ross Park
west on Mill Road to the northeast corner d. make a U-turn on Upton Street, then go
of Lynch Road and Mill Road west on Palmer Avenue, and then south
b. continue east on Kent Avenue, then north on Grove Street to Ross Park
on Main Street, then west on Pomeroy
7. Sanitation Worker Kenney has just finished
Boulevard, and then south on Lynch Road
lunch at Jim’s Deli and is heading west on Pine
c. continue east on Kent Avenue, then south
Avenue to continue her route. She turns left on
on Main Street, then west on Pine
Lee Lane and then left again onto Pecan Avenue.
Avenue, then north on Grove Street, and
She turns left on Main Street and finally turns
then east on Mill Road to Lynch Road
right on Palmer Avenue. What direction is she
d. continue east on Kent Avenue, then north
facing?
on Main Street, then west on Palmer
a. west
Avenue, and then north on Lynch Road to
b. south
Mill Road
c. north
6. There has been heavy flooding in the city. As a d. east
result and on an emergency basis, some collec-
tion routes are being canceled or reassigned. San-
itation Workers McKay and Callihan are driving
by the court house, northbound on Upton
Street. They receive a call that their regular route
is being canceled, and instead they are to begin
pick-up at Ross Park on the Grove Street side of
the park. What is the most direct legal route for
Sanitation Workers McKay and Callihan to take?
a. continue north on Upton Street, then
drive west on Pomeroy Boulevard, then
south on Main Street, and then west on
Kent Avenue to Grove Street

Answer questions 8 and 9 based on the map below.

LAND- N
FILL
W E
Monroe
Prince
Washington
Evans
State
W. Jefferson Town E. Jefferson

Square
Madison
As indicated, State Street is one-way going south, and Evans Street is one-way going north. All other streets
have two-way traffic.
8. A special collection truck is headed east on West 9. A collection truck is headed in the direction of
Jefferson to make a pickup at the corner of the landfill, which is located just off Monroe
Evans and East Jefferson. In order to travel the Street. The truck is already on Monroe, stopped
shortest distance without breaking traffic laws, at a red light at the intersection of Monroe and
the truck should turn State. To reach the landfill, in which direction will
a. right onto State, right onto Washington, the truck travel?
right onto Evans. a. northeast
b. left onto State, left onto Madison, left b. northwest
onto Evans. c. southeast
c. right onto State, left onto Madison, left d. southwest
onto Evans.
d. left onto State, left onto Evans, right onto
East Jefferson.

Answer question 10 based on the map below. 10. Which exit should a worker use to carry the load
the shortest distance to the back of the truck?
a. north
b. south
North
Exit c. west
West Courtyard East d. east
Exit Exit
South
LOAD Exit

The following map shows a section of the city where some public buildings are located. Each of the squares rep-
resents one city block. Street names are as shown. If there is an arrow next to the street name, it means the street
is one way only in the direction of the arrow. If there is no arrow next to the street name, two-way traffic is allowed.
W E
one way KEY two way
S
AVENUE A
SENIOR CITY CLINIC

CITIZENS STREET HOSPITAL
CENTER
AVENUE B
FIRE
STREET
STREET
STREET
STREET
GAS HOUSE
STATION PUBLIC PARK
AVENUE C
BROOKLYN
LAFAYETTE
CENTRAL
PUBLIC
GREENE
GRAND
LIBRARY
HIGH
SCHOOL
AVENUE D
POLICE
HEALTH STATION
CENTER
1st AVENUE

11. While you are on foot patrol, an elderly man b. west to Grand Street and north on Grand
stops you in front of the fire house and asks you Street to Avenue B
to help him find the Senior Citizens Center. You c. east to Brooklyn Street, north on Brook-
should tell him to lyn Street to Avenue B, and west on
a. walk across the street to the Senior Citi- Avenue B to Grand Street
zens Center. d. west to Greene Street, north on Greene
b. walk south to Avenue C, make a right and Street to Avenue C, and east on Avenue C
walk west on Avenue C, make a right on to Brooklyn Street
Grand Street and walk up to the Senior
14. Your spouse is a nurse at the city hospital and
Citizens Center.
goes to the public library every Monday as a vol-
c. walk north to Avenue B and then west on
unteer. What would be the shortest legal route
Avenue B to the end of the park, make a
from the hospital to the library?
right and go one block.
a. west on Avenue A, south on Lafayette
d. walk north to Avenue B, then west on
Street, east on Avenue C, and south on
Avenue B to Lafayette Street, make a right
Central Street to the library entrance
and go one block.
b. east on Avenue B and south on Central
12. The head librarian needs gasoline for his auto- Street to the library entrance
mobile. He is leaving the Avenue D garage exit c. west on Avenue A, south on Lafayette
from the library. His quickest legal route is to Street, and east on Avenue D to the library
proceed entrance
a. north on Central Street to Avenue C and d. east on Avenue A and south on Central
west on Avenue C to the gas station. Street to the library entrance
b. west on Brooklyn Street to Avenue B and
15. After responding to a call at the fire house, you
north on Avenue B to the gas station.
are ready to drive back to the police station for
c. west on Avenue D to Grand Street and
the end of your shift. What is the quickest legal
north on Grand Street to the gas station.
route?
d. west on Avenue D to Lafayette Street and
a. south on Brooklyn Street and west on 1st
north on Lafayette Street to the gas sta-
Avenue to the police station
tion.
b. north on Brooklyn Street, west on Avenue
13. You are dispatched from the police station to an A, south on Lafayette Street, and east on
altercation taking place at the northwest corner 1st Avenue to the police station
of the public park. Which is the most direct legal c. north on Brooklyn Street and east on 1st
route? Avenue to the police station
a. east to Central Street, north on Central d. south on Brooklyn Street, west on Avenue
Street to Avenue B, and west on Avenue B C, south on Grand Street, and east on 1st
to Grand Street Avenue to the police station

Answer questions 16–18 solely on the basis of the following map. The arrows indicate traffic flow; one arrow indi-
cates a one-way street going in the direction of the arrow; two arrows represent a two-way street. You are not
allowed to go the wrong way on a one-way street.
N
W E
one way KEY two way
WILSHIRE AVENUE
ADAMS
ARMBRAY
TOWERS
PALMER ROAD
CLEVELAND AVENUE
KENNEDY BOULEVARD
PARK
-ING
LOT
CONVENTION
ALPEN STREET CENTER
FORD ROAD
LINCOLN STREET
HOTEL
FORD
JONES RD. JONES RD.

ADAMS AVE.
TAFT RD.
GLADES ROAD
PINE AVENUE

16. Officers Muldoon and Chavez are eating at Al’s b. Continue north on Lincoln Street, then
Cafe, which faces Jones Road. They get a call of west on Palmer Road, then south on Taft
a suspicious person at the Cleveland Avenue Road, then east on Pine Avenue to the
entrance to the Armbray Towers. What is their accident scene.
most direct route to the Armbray Towers? c. Make a U-turn on Lincoln Street, and
a. Go east on Jones Road, then south on then go south on Lincoln Street, then east
Kennedy Boulevard, then west on Glade on Pine Avenue to the accident scene.
Road, then north on Cleveland Avenue to d. Continue north on Lincoln Street, then
the Armbray Towers. east on Wilshire Avenue, then south on
b. Go west on Jones Road to Cleveland Kennedy Boulevard, then west on Pine
Avenue, then north on Cleveland to the Avenue to the accident scene.
Armbray Towers.
18. Officer Tananga is southbound on Kennedy
c. Go west on Jones Road, then south on
Boulevard. He makes a right turn onto Glade
Ford Road, then west on Glade Road,
Road, then a left onto Taft Road, a right onto
then north on Cleveland Avenue to the
Pine Avenue, another right onto Cleveland
Armbray Towers.
Avenue, and then a right onto Wilshire Avenue.
d. Go west on Jones Road, then north on
Which direction is he facing?
Glade Road, then west on Palmer Road,
a. west
then south on Taft Road, then west on
b. south
Jones Road, then north on Cleveland
c. east
Avenue to the Armbray Towers.
d. north
17. Officers Chang and Parker are northbound on
Lincoln Street and have just crossed Alpen Street.
They receive a call about a two-car injury colli-
sion on Adams Avenue at Pine Avenue. What is
their most direct route to the accident scene?
a. Continue north on Lincoln Street, then
east on Wilshire Avenue, then south on
Ford Road, then east on Glade Road, then
south on Adams Avenue to the accident
scene.

Answer questions 19 and 20 solely on the basis of the following map. The arrows indicate traffic flow; one
arrow indicates a one-way street going in the direction of the arrow; two arrows represent a two-way street. You
are not allowed to go the wrong way on a one-way street.
W E
one way KEY two way
NORTH AVENUE
HILLARY
MANSION
PITT ST.
ARTHUR WAY
WEST BROADWAY
DELLA STREET
JOHNSON AVENUE
BROADWAY
ROSSMORE ABBEY LANE

HOSPITAL
MARTIN ROAD
PARK ROAD
PITT ST.
SOUTH AVE.
LIBRARY
BIRCH AVE. BIRCH AVE.
FIRE
DEPT.
SOUTH AVENUE

19. Officer Lazere is spending his lunch break at the d. Continue south on Martin Road, then
South Avenue Library, which faces South north on Abbey Lane, then east on Arthur
Avenue. He gets a call to the Hillary Mansion, Way to the residence.
the entrance to which faces North Avenue. What
is Officer Lazere’s most direct route to the Hillary READING MAPS ANSWER
Mansion? EXPLANATIONS
a. Go east on South Avenue, then north on 1. d. The messenger travels two blocks farther
Abbey Lane to North Avenue, then west to the south than she does to the north
on North Avenue to the Hillary Mansion. and two blocks farther to the east than she
b. Go east on South Avenue, then north on does to the west. Therefore, she finishes
Pitt Street, then west on North Avenue to southeast of where she began, in Quad-
the Hillary Mansion. rant #4.
c. Go west on South Avenue, then north on 2. c. This is the simplest way around the one-
West Broadway, then east on North way streets and Town Hall. Because Linda
Avenue to the Hillary Mansion. Lane is one-way the wrong way, some
d. Go west on South Avenue, then north on backtracking is inevitable. However, the
Broadway to North Avenue, then east on residence is only one block from
North Avenue to the Hillary Mansion. Barcelona Boulevard, and so turning east
on Barcelona requires the least amount of
20. Officer Lew is southbound on Martin Road and
backtracking. Choice a directs the sanita-
has just crossed Park Road. Dispatch sends him
tion workers to turn the wrong way down
to a residence at the corner of Arthur Way and
a one-way street. Choice b requires too
Della Street. What is Officer Lew’s most direct
much backtracking. Choice d leaves the
route to the residence?
workers on Barcelona Boulevard, not on
a. Make a U-turn on Martin Road and go
Linda Lane.
north on Martin Road to Arthur Way,
3. b. This route is the most direct because it
then east on Johnson Avenue to Della
requires the fewest turns. Choice a leads
Street, then north on Della Street to the
the sanitation workers the wrong way on
residence.
McMahon Street. Choice c is not correct
b. Continue south on Martin Road, then
because Canyon Drive is a one-way street
east on South Avenue, then north on Pitt
south. Choice d takes the workers too far
Street, then east on Park Road, then north
east.
on Abbey Lane, and then east on Arthur
4. a. If Shift Supervisor Richfield turns right
Way.
onto James Avenue, she will be facing
c. Continue south on Martin Road, then
north. A left turn onto Linda Lane turns
east on South Avenue, then north on
her west again, and a right turn onto Liv-
Della Street to the residence.
ingston Avenue turns her north. The final

right turn onto Barcelona Boulevard to Lafayette Street, while the entrance to
turns her east. the Senior Citizens Center is on Grand.
5. d. This is the most direct route because it 12. d. Choice a takes the librarian the wrong
does not require any backtracking. Choice way on Avenue C. Choice b shows the
a is not correct because it would require wrong directions for the streets—Brook-
Sanitation Worker Tennyson to go the lyn Street runs north-south, and Avenue B
wrong way on Mill Road. Choice b runs east-west. Choice c leaves the librar-
requires some backtracking and takes the ian one block east of the gas station.
worker the wrong way on Lynch Road. 13. b. Choices a and c take you the wrong way
Choice c is not as direct because it on 1st Avenue. Choice d will get you to
requires the worker to move in the oppo- the southeast, not the northwest, corner
site direction from the call. of the park.
6. b. This is the fastest route, requiring the 14. d. Choice a is less direct. Choice b does not
fewest turns. Choice a is not correct start from the hospital and at any rate
because Kent is a one-way street going involves going the wrong way on Avenue
east. Choice c requires too many turns B. Choice c is indirect and involves going
and is not the most direct route. Choice d the wrong way on Avenue D.
is not correct because Upton Street is one- 15. a. Choice b is less direct and involves going
way going north. the wrong way on 1st Avenue. Choice c
7. d. A left turn onto Lee Lane turns Sanitation will lead away from 1st Avenue, not
Worker Kenney south. Another left turn toward it. Choice d takes you the wrong
onto Pecan Avenue turns her east. A left way on Avenue C and 1st Avenue.
turn onto Main Street turns her north, 16. b. This is correct because it is the quickest
and the final right turn onto Palmer turns and most direct route. Answer a has too
her back east. many turns to be the most direct. Answer
8. c. In choice a, a right onto State does not c is a one-way street going north and
lead to Washington. Choices b and d wouldn’t be the right choice. Answer d
would mean traveling the wrong way on a takes the officers several blocks out of
one-way street. their way and is not the most direct.
9. b. Using the directional guide for the map, it 17. b. This choice is correct because it is the
is easy to see that northwest is the only quickest and most direct route. Choice a
possible answer. has too many turns and takes the officers
10. d. Carrying the load from west to east across the wrong way on Adams Avenue. Lincoln
the courtyard is the shortest distance to Street is a one-way street going north, so
the back of the truck. choice c is wrong. Choice d takes the offi-
11. c. Choice a takes the man to the park, not to cers several blocks out of their way and so
the Senior Citizens Center. Choice b takes is not the most direct.
the man too far south. Choice d takes him

18. c. A right turn onto Glade Road turns Offi- 20. c. This route requires the fewest number of
cer Tananga west. The left onto Taft Road turns. Answer a is wrong because Martin
turns him south; the right onto Pine Road is a one-way street. Answer b
Avenue turns him west, the right onto requires a number of turns and goes the
Cleveland Avenue turns him back north, wrong way on Arthur Way. Answer d
and the right onto Wilshire Avenue turns would mean traveling the wrong way on a
him east. one-way street.
19. a. This is the most direct route to the Hillary
Mansion, requiring the fewest changes in
direction. Answer b requires the officer to
drive through the Rossmore Hospital.
Route c takes the officer the wrong way up
West Broadway. Answer d takes the officer
the wrong way on North Avenue.

5
C • H • A • P • T • E • R
INTERPRETING
SYMBOLS
CHAPTER SUMMARY
There are several types of tests involving symbols and series.
By design, symbol questions look intimidating, so we’ll
show you what to look for in order to crack the code on
all sorts of questions. This chapter also addresses the sort-
ing and classifying of figures and series tests involving
reasoning.

SYMBOL SERIES
SYMBOL ANALOGIES
SORTING AND CLASSIFYING FIGURES

SERIES REASONING TEST


–INTERPRETING SYMBOLS–
SYMBOL SERIES
Yet another difficult question type when dealing with symbols and figures are symbol series questions. Very similar to
symbol analogy questions, symbol series questions are solved in a similar manner. The main focus is to discover a rela-
tionship, recurring pattern, or continuing pattern.
SYMBOL SERIES INSTRUCTIONS

Each question below consists of two groups. The group on the left is made up of five symbols that have a rela-
tionship that progresses from left to right. The group on the right side of the page consists of five more symbols
each with a letter above the choice. Your job is to study the group in the left column, determine the relationship
between those symbols, and pick the symbol from the right column that you feel best continues the series.
SYMBOL SERIES SAMPLES

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
As you can see, each symbol on the left consists of a triangle, a line segment, and a circle. These symbols are extremely
similar but are not exactly the same. As you study the group on the left you will notice that the change from each
symbol to the next (moving left to right) is simply a rotation clockwise of 90 degrees again and again until the
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
original symbol is repeated.
As this particular series moves on, notice that there are no other changes besides the rotation between the five
symbols on the left. This is very important. Also notice that the first symbol and the fifth symbol are the same. This
is all the evidence you need to assume that the second symbol and the answer are the same, making the answer b.
This question is just a little different. Each symbol on the left is made up of a circle with a bisecting line and
another line that produces a wedge. These symbols also rotate as they progress left to right, but this time they
rotate counter-clockwise with every other turn.
Notice the second symbol in the group is the same as the first, except for the addition of the black dot in
the center of the wedge. Also notice that the third symbol is a rotated version of the first symbol, but without the
dot added in the second symbol. The dot only appears in every other symbol. According to the pattern, each sym-
bol rotated counterclockwise is followed by the same symbol only with a dot in the wedge section. It is safe to
say, at this point, that the answer would be similar to the fifth symbol with a dot added. Choice d is the correct
answer.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
30 PRACTICE QUESTIONS (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
11.
12.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
SYMBOL SERIES ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. b. Each symbol is made up of a circle with a ment added to the top, right, and bottom
centered right angle inside. The symbol is sections of the circle. To continue the pat-
rotated 90 degrees clockwise as they tern, the answer must contain all of the
progress left to right making the best added components and a new line in the
answer b. left section of the circle. This is shown in
2. c. The first symbol is just a line segment. In answer e.
each of the following symbols another 4. c. The first pentagon has 5 line segments
component is added to make a complete connecting each corner to the center. As
structure. After the black dot is added to the series continues, one of those lines is
the top of symbol 2, a slanted segment is taken away for each symbol. Since there
added to the right side of the constructing are only five line segments, the answer
symbol. A black dot is added to the bot- would have to be the empty pentagon, best
tom of the figure in symbol 5 implying shown in answer c.
another slanted segment be added to the 5. a. Each figure is made up of three circles one
left of the structure. This is best reflected gray, one white, and one black. As the
through answer c. series continues each symbol is rotated
3. e. The first symbol is an empty circle. In each counter-clockwise 45 degrees more than
of the following symbols there are added the one before. The answer would be the
pieces being put inside the circle. In each fifth symbol but rotated 45 degrees,
of the last 3 symbols there is a line seg- answer a.

6. e. Each symbol is half a polygon cut at the tal, diagonal, vertical, diagonal, horizon-
dotted line. Symbol 1 is half a square, tal, etc. The circle is shaded in groups of
symbol 2 is a pentagon, symbol 3 is a two as the symbols progress. The first two
hexagon, and so on. Each of the shapes in we shaded black, the second two are blank,
the series has one more original (before the fifth is again shaded. The answer must
being split in half) side than the last. Since be shaded, and according to the position
symbol 5 has 4 sides (8 original) then the of the arrow shown in symbol 5 should be
answer would have to have 4 and a half in a horizontal position. Answer e.
sides (9 original). Answer e. 11. d. A line segment is added to each figure as
7. d. The symbols in this series are being the series progresses. In symbol 5, a line is
rotated counter-clockwise, a component added to close a triangle. The answer
is being added for each symbol, and each should include the next line that would
component is shaded black after it close the second triangle, best shown in
appears in its second symbol. The square answer d.
is added in symbol 5. The answer should 12. c. A line segment is added to each figure as
have a shaded square in the appropriate the series progresses. In symbol 5, a line is
spot according to the pattern of rotation. added to close the square. The answer
This is shown in answer d. should include the next line that closes
8. b. This series is made up of three different the second square, best shown in
shapes each with another shaded shape answer c.
rotating around the perimeter. As the 13. b. Figure 1 is made up of several half-circle
series progresses the whole shape is segments. In each progressing symbol,
rotated 45 degrees counter-clockwise one of these segments is taken away in an
(shown in the polygons). The circle is alternating fashion, one from the top,
next in the series making the answer b. then one from the bottom. In figure 5
9. a. Each symbol in the series rotates counter- there are only two segments left implying
clockwise as do the two half moons. The the answer can only have one segment.
symbol rotates on one turn and switches Following the pattern of removal, the
the way each moon faces each other at answer is b.
every turn. Since symbol 5 had just been 14. e. Each symbol is a circle with either a line
rotated, the next symbol should have the or a shaded dot inside. The figure rotates
moons switch appropriately, best shown 45 degrees counter-clockwise in every
in answer a. other symbol. For each symbol not
10. e. Each figure is made up of an arrow con- rotated, the line is replaced with a dot.
nected to a circle that faces one of three The line in symbol 5 is set at the “9
ways, horizontal, diagonal, or vertical. o’clock” position. The answer should have
The arrow changes position for each sym- a dot replacing the line in symbol 5, mak-
bol in the series in this pattern; horizon- ing the answer e.

15. e. The series is simply a symbol rotated 90 19. e. This series consists of two similar figures,
degrees counter-clockwise. Every other one unshaded figure with a triangle, a cir-
symbol has a shaded square instead of a cle, and a rectangle between. The other
blank one. Since symbol 5 is not shaded, figure is the same as the first. But, it is
the answer must be rotated 90 degrees reflected over a vertical plane, and the cir-
more than symbol 5 and have a shaded cle and triangle are shaded. The pattern
square inside, best shown in answer e. shows one of the unshaded figures then
16. d. The first symbol in this series is a triangle. two shaded and two unshaded. According
As the series progresses, vertical lines are to the pattern, two more shaded figures
added in the next three symbols. In sym- should appear, so the best answer choice
bol 5, a diagonal line is added that con- is e.
nects the left most vertical line and the 20. c. The figures are simply rotated 90 degrees
one added to the center. Following the counter-clockwise. Since the pattern is not
pattern shown, the answer should have broken and the fifth symbol is the same as
another added diagonal line that would the first, the answer must be the same as
connect the right most vertical line and the second symbol. Choice c.
the line in the center. This is best reflected 21. e. The figures in this series are similar rec-
in choice d. tangles with shapes inside, rotated
17. b. The figures in this series are a simple rec- counter-clockwise. The fifth symbol is
tangle separated into three sections, one back at the original position but it has
of which is shaded. The rectangles alter- shaded shapes inside. The answer which
nate between the position of symbol 1 to best fits the pattern is e.
that of symbol 2. The shaded region also 22. a. The symbols in this series consist of
only alternates between two positions. quadrilaterals that are separated into 4
Since symbol 5 is in the original position, sections, one of which is shaded. The
the answer would be choice b. symbols are rotated clockwise throughout
18. b. The symbols in this series consist of a tri- the series. Symbol 5 is back to the position
angle and 4 lines that make up a square of symbol 1 but has a different section
and another line connecting the two shaded. Following the pattern shown in
shapes. A line is taken away from each fig- the first 4 symbols, the answer is a.
ure as the series progresses. Also, the tri- 23. d. The figures in this series are rotated 90
angle alternates between shaded and degrees counter-clockwise without the
unshaded for each symbol. Since the fifth two shaded regions changing positions.
symbol was not shaded and only has one Following the simple pattern the answer
line left to be taken away, the answer must is d.
consist of just a triangle that is shaded. 24. b. Figure 1 consists of a square divided into
Choice b. 9 sections, one of which is shaded. Figure
2 consists of the same shaded square just

rotated 90 degrees with the center square adds another line that connects the last
shaded also. In figure 3, the symbol is blank circle to the circle shaded previ-
again rotated 90 degrees, but the center ously. Following the pattern the answer
square is no longer shaded. In figure 4, the should have all three circles shaded and
pattern continues. Figure 5 adds another connected by another added line. This is
shaded square. The answer should be best shown through choice c.
rotated 90 degrees more than figure 5 and 28. a. Each figure consists of two circles that
also have the center square shaded, best move clockwise to each adjacent line end
shown in answer b. as the series matures. Since the fifth figure
25. b. Figure 1 consists of two line segments and is the same as the first, and the pattern is
an arrowhead at the end of one line. Fig- not interrupted, the answer is best shown
ure 2 is just two line segments. Figure 3 is in choice a.
similar to figure 1, but the arrowhead has 29. c. Each symbol consists of a line segment
moved clockwise to the end of the adja- with circles on each end that are reflected
cent line. Figure 4 again is two lines with- diagonally over a circle. One of the circles
out the arrowhead. Following the pattern in each figure is shaded, moving first from
through the series, the answer would be b. left to right, then back to the middle in
26. d. As each square is rotated 45 degrees figure 4, then up. The proposed pattern
counter-clockwise, a line segment is change would imply up to down, the next
added to every other symbol in the series. symbol needed in the series would be
As the lines close, a shape inside the fig- similar to each of the other symbols that
ures (shown in symbol 2 and 3) is shaded have the shaded circle in the center (2 and
in the next symbol of the series (shown in 4). The answer is c.
symbol 3 and 4). Following the pattern, 30. a. This series consists of two different sym-
the answer should be a 45–degree bols, one that is horizontal and has a
counter-clockwise rotation of the fifth shaded region outside of the ellipse and
symbol with an added segment, which is the other which is vertical and has a blank
choice d. section inside the ellipse. These symbols
27. c. The first symbol in this series consists of 3 alternate starting with the vertical ellipse.
circles, one of which is shaded. The sec- Each time they appear is reflected over a
ond symbol adds a line that connects the vertical axis. Since symbol 5 was a vertical
shaded circle with one of the two blank ellipse and symbol 4 horizontal with a
circles. The third symbol shades the circle shaded region on the right side, the
that has just been connected to the previ- answer would be a.
ously shaded circle. The fourth symbol

SYMBOL ANALOGIES
Analogies are comparisons of two separate scenarios that have a likeness or a defined pattern similar to each other.
To the test-taker, analogies involving symbols seem to take on an undeserved, more fearful appearance. Mistakes in
questions like these are common but can be avoided as long as the test taker’s focus is to define a relationship between
the first scenario and the second. On the other hand, improving your prowess with questions like these might improve
such things as graphical instruction interpretation, pattern recognition, and logical decisions.
SYMBOL ANALOGY INSTRUCTIONS

In this exercise there are three groups. In Group 1 there are symbols which share a common characteristic. In
Group 2 symbols may look the same, but they do not share the characteristic as those in Group 1. From the infor-
mation provided to you in symbol form in the first two groups, choose an answer from the lettered column on
the right that shares the trait which is characteristic of Group 1.
Symbol Analogy Samples

Group 1 Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
?
The symbols in Group 1 show a particular pattern that should apply to symbols in Group 2. By following this
Group 1 Group 2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
pattern you should be able to pick the third symbol in Group 2 from the answer column.
The symbols in Group 1 are rotating 90 degrees counter-clockwise. This is reflected in the first two steps in
?
Group 2. This would leave choice c as your answer.
In Group 1, each symbol adds a line segment to complete a whole shape by the third figure in the group. In Group
2, parallel lines are being added to the shape according to the first two symbols. According to the pattern set in
Group 1, the answer should complete a shape that relates to the symbols in Group 2. This leaves answer b as the
only correct choice.

Group 1 Group 2
Group (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Group
Group 1
1 Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
1.
??
2.
??
3.
??
4.
??
5.
??
6.
??
7.
??
8.
??
9.
??
10.
??
11.
??
12.
??
13.
??
14.
?
?
?
Group 1
Group 1 Group 2
Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
Group 1
Group 1
1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
Group Group
Group 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Group 1 2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
??
??
15. ?
?
??
16. ??
?
??
??
17. ?
?
??
??
18.
?
??
??
19. ?
??
??
?
20. ?
?
???
?
?
21. ??
??
?
22. ??
??
?
23. ??
??
?
?
?
24. ???
?
?
25.
??
??
?
26. ??
??
Group 1
Group 1 Group 2
Group 2 ? (A)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(E)
(E)
27.
??
28.
??
??
CHAPTER 5 • LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude
190
??
?
Group 1
Group 1 Group 2
Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
?
?
29. S S
X S S
X X S S ? S
30.
?
?
SYMBOL ANALOGIES ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. a. In Group 1, each symbol consists of an consists of one quarter-circle and one-half
empty rectangle and a small shaded dot. ? In of a circle. The only choice that has these
Group 2 each symbol consists of an empty components would be choice b.
ellipse and a small shaded square. Choice a 6. d. Each symbol in Group 1 is made up of six
is the only choice that fits. ? sides. Each symbol in Group 2 is made up
2. e. Each symbol in Group 1 is a square with a of eight sides. Choice d is the only answer
shaded region. Each figure in Group 2 is ?a that fits Group 2.
circle with a non-shaded region. Choice e 7. b. Group 1 consists of three circles, two big
can be the only correct choice. and one small, one of which is shaded.
3. a. The first two symbols in Group 1 consist? Group 2 consists of three triangles, two big
of two lines, one shaded circle, one non- and one small, one of which is shaded.
shaded circle, a shaded triangle, and a Choice b is the best choice.
non-shaded triangle. The third symbol has 8. e. Each symbol in Group 1 is a rotated
all of these parts but none are touching the square with a vertical line extending from
other. In Group 2, the first symbols consist it. In Group 2 each symbol is an ellipse
of two 34 circles and one shaded half-circle, with a horizontal line extending from it.
one non-shaded half-circle, one shaded Choice e is the answer.
square, and one non-shaded square. The 9. a. Group 1 consists of circles that are being
answer must be all the parts in the symbols intersected by lines. The first symbol has 4
of group 2, but none can be touching one lines, the second has 2 lines, and the third
another. The answer is a. has 1 line. In Group 2 the first rectangle is
4. a. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of just separated into 20 sections, the second into
three lines (two running parallel to each 10, so the answer must be separated into 5
other and the other intersecting). The sections, choice a.
symbols in Group 2 consist of only 4 lines 10. e. In Group 1, each symbol is a square with 4
(two sets of parallel lines which intersect). vertical lines extending from it. Group 2
The only logical answer is choice a. has symbols with 3 horizontal lines
5. b. Group 1 consists of symbols that contain extending from it. The best answer is
one straight line and two smaller straight choice e.
lines that make an acute angle. Group 2

11. a. Each figure in Group 1 is a dotted symbol 17. c. In Group 1, each symbol adds a segment
with a shaded shape inside and follows of the shape. Group 2 follows that pattern
the pattern of ellipse, triangle, and and makes choice c the best answer.
quadrilateral. In Group 2, each symbol 18. b. In Group 1, the second symbol is a 180-
has solid lines with a shaded shape inside degree rotation of the first symbol. The
and contains an ellipse, and a triangle. third symbol is a 90-degree rotation of the
Since a quadrilateral follows the pattern first symbol. Group 2 follows the same
and the lines need to be solid, the only pattern making b the only appropriate
possible answer is choice a. answer.
12. c. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of a 19. a. In Group 1, the first symbol consists of
shaded figure with a blank shape inside, two ellipses, one inside the other, with a
following the pattern of quadrilateral, cir- line intersecting the top half of the ellipse.
cle, and triangle. Each symbol in Group 2 The second symbol consists of two trian-
is a blank figure with a shaded shape gles, one inside the other, with a diagonal
inside following the same pattern. This line intersecting the shape at the bottom.
makes choice c the only right answer. The third symbol is a square drawn the
13. e. Each figure in Group 1 has two shaded same way, but with a line again intersect-
regions inside. Each figure in Group 2 has ing through the top. In Group 2, the sym-
two blank circles outside the shape. This bols are similar and follow a similar
would make choice e the right answer. pattern but replace the line that inter-
14. d. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of a sected the symbols in Group 1 with two
shape and its miniature, rotated counter circles. Following the analogy, the answer
clockwise and placed on top. In Group 2, must be a.
the same pattern is followed but the 20. c. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of 4 line
smaller shape is placed underneath the segments. Each symbol in Group 2 only
bigger one. Choice d is only one that fits. has 3, making choice c the best answer.
15. b. In Group 1, the second symbol is a 90- 21. c. Group 1 shows a double-sided arrow con-
degree counter-clockwise rotation of the nected by three lines, then encased in a
first symbol. The third symbol is a vertical quadrilateral, then encircled by an ellipse.
reflection of the first symbol. In Group 2 Group 2 follows the same pattern, which
the symbols follow the same pattern. This makes choice c the only answer.
would make choice b the answer. 22. b. The first two symbols in Group 1 are sep-
16. a. In Group 1, the shaded dot is always on arate and the last symbol includes both.
the left side of the figure. In Group 2, the The first two symbols in Group 2 follow
shaded dot is on the right side of the fig- the same pattern, making b the answer.
ure making choice a the only possible 23. b. In Group 1, each figure is made up of line
answer. segments. The first symbol has 3 lines, the
second has 4 lines, and the third has 5

lines. In Group 2, the symbols are made 28. e. The first symbol in Group 1 consists of an
up of blank rectangles but follow a similar arrow and a horizontal line, the second
pattern. The best answer is b. has an intersecting vertical line, and the
24. a. Group 1 consists of two circles and two third has a horizontal line at the bottom
diagonal lines, but the third symbol has of the arrow. In Group 2, the symbols
all the components separated. Group two consist of one circle but the lines follow a
consists of two circles, a triangle, and a similar pattern making e the proper selec-
rectangle, but follows the same pattern tion.
making the answer a. 29. a. In Group 1, the first symbol is a triangle
25. b. The symbols in Group 1 consist of an with an “X” in the bottom left-hand cor-
ellipse with a shaded half. The symbols in ner, the second is a square with an “X” in
Group 2 are rectangles that contain the the bottom right, the third is a pentagon
missing shaded half from Group 1. Judg- with an “X’ in the top corner. In Group 2
ing from the missing half in the third the first symbol has 6 sides with an “S” in
symbol of Group 1, the answer must be the bottom left corner, the second has 8
answer b. sides with an “S” in the bottom right cor-
26. b. Each figure in Group 1 consists of a ner, so the answer has to be a 10 sided
pointed shape with a blank circle inside. figure with an “S” in the top corner,
In Group 2, each symbol consists of a answer a.
pointed object with a shaded figure inside. 30. a. In Group 1, each symbol is a circle
The figures in Group 1 are rotated 90 bisected with one black dot in one half;
degrees counter-clockwise. The figures in the second has two dots in the same half;
Group 2 follow a similar pattern implying the third has three. In Group 2, each sym-
that choice b is the answer. bol is a square bisected with one blank
27. d. In Group 1 each symbol has a set of paral- square inside a half; the second has three
lel lines inside. In Group 2, each shape has blank squares in the same half. Since they
a missing line according to which side of follow similar patterns, the answer must
the shape the open end of the parallel have five squares in the same half, leaving
lines inside the symbols of Group 1 are only choice a as your answer.
pointing to. This pattern would make
choice d correct.

SORTING AND CLASSIFYING FIGURES
Many people find symbol-based questions to be somewhat intimidating or confusing or both. If you are among these
people, don’t feel alone. The concept of interpreting written or drawn symbols is intentionally created in a manner
that would make the answer obvious to some while distracting and confusing to others. A comforting thought is the
fact that there is always a logical answer and with practice the answer gets easier to find.
Figure classification questions, such as the ones in this chapter, are another exercise meant to develop your
ability to find relationships in groups of symbols and shapes. These questions focus on characteristics shared by
two groups and characteristics unique to one group but not the other. Although these may be among the tough-
est questions, they prove to be one of the better measuring devices for aptitude in interpreting symbols and shapes.
SORTING AND CLASSIFYING FIGURES INSTRUCTIONS

In this exercise, each question consists of three sets of symbols, Group 1, Group 2, and the answer choices. The
symbols in Group 1 all share a similar trait which make them characteristic to one another. The symbols in Group
2 may look somewhat like those in the previous group but DO NOT share the trait found in Group 1. After study-
ing the symbols in both Groups, choose the answer choice that best fits Group 1.
Sorting and Classifying Figures Samples
Group 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Both Groups 1 and 2 contain four symbols with block boxes inside. Because both groups have four symbols with
black boxes, that is a common trait of both groups. That eliminates black boxes in symbols as a possible answer.
However, all four symbols in Group 1 are in the shape of octagons
Group 1 (A) while
(B)Group(C)
2 contains
(D) no symbols
(E) shaped
as octagons. The trait of the four octagon-shaped symbols that exists in Group 1 does NOT exist in Group 2.
The answer is d, the octagon shape.
Each symbol in Group 1 has only one similar characteristic. They all have two triangles inside a blank shape.
Just to double-check this as our answer, none of the symbols in Group 2 have two triangles inside a blank shape.
The only choice with more than one triangle inside is choice e.

1. Group 1 Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Group 1
Group 1
1 Group 2
Group 2
2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
Group Group (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D) (E)
1 Group 1 Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Group
Group 1
1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
1
1 Group
Group 1
1 Group 2
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
1
1 Group 1
Group 1 Group
Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
1
2.
21
1
2
1
2
1
1
2
1
2
2
32
2
3.
2
3
2
2
3
2
3
3
3
43
3
3
4.
3
4
3
4
3
4
4
4
54
4
4
5
4
5.
4
5
4
5
5
5
65
5
5
5
6
5
6
6.
5
6
6
6
6
7
6
6
7
6
7
6
6
7.
7
7
7
87
7
7
8
7
8
7
7
8
8
8.
8
8
9
8
8
9
8
8
9
8
9
9
9
9.
9
9
9
9
9
9
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

Group111
Group Group 2
Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
Group Group 2
Group 1
1 Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
16. Group
Group 1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
16
16 Group
Group 1
1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
1
16 Group
Group 1
1 Group 2
Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
16 Group 1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
16
16 Group
Group 1
1 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
16
16 Group 1 Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
17.
16
16
17
17
16
2
16
17
16
17
17
17
17
17
17
17
18.
18
3
17
18
17
18
17
18
18
18
ss
18
18
18
19
18
19
4
18
19.
18
19
19
18
19 ss
19
19
19
19
20
19
5
20
19 ss
19
20.
20
19
20
20
20
20
20
20
s
X
21
20
6
21
20
20
21
21.
20
21
21
21
21
21
21
21
22
22
7
21
21
22
22.
21
22
22
22
22
22
22
23
22
8
23
22
22
23
22
23
23.
23
23
23
23
23
24
23
9
24
23
23
24
23
24
24.
24
24
24
24
24
25
24
25
24
24
25
24
25
25
25.
25
25
25
25
26
25
26
25
25
26
25
26
26
26.
26
26
26
26
27
26
27
26
26
27
26
27
27
27
27
27.
27
27
A
28
27
28
27
27
28
28
27
28
28
28
28
28.
28
28
28
28
28
29.
30.

SORTING AND CLASSIFYING FIGURES 12. c. Each symbol in Group 1 has two separate
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS arrows on separate lines connected in
1. d. In Group 1 all of the symbols contain an between. Choice c is the only fit.
ellipse, a triangle, and quadrilateral. 13. a. All the symbols in Group 1 can be
Answer d is the only possible answer. reflected over a vertical line of symmetry.
2. e. Each figure in Group 1 is made of three Only choice a fits.
separate shapes, one of which is shaded. 14. b. Each symbol in Group 1 is separated into
Answer e is the only choice fitting that three parts. This is shown in choice b.
description. 15. a. Each symbol consists of two circles with
3. a. Each symbol in Group 1 has one side rep- two horizontal lines and one vertical line,
resented by a dotted line. Choice a is the which is only shown in choice a.
only answer that fits. 16. c. Each symbol in Group 1 has an even
4. e. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of one number of circles, which is only reflected
whole arrow and one split arrow in ran- in choice c.
dom order. Choice e is the only choice 17. d. Each symbol in Group 1 has two black
with the appropriate components. dots exactly opposite each other through
5. e. Each symbol in Group 1 is a star. Choice e the shape. Choice d is the only choice that
is the only star. reflects this.
6. a. Each figure in Group 1 only consists of 18. c. Each figure in Group 1 has the same num-
two components (a large blank shape with ber of lines inside as outside. This is
another inside). Choice a is the only sym- shown in choice c.
bol that fits. 19. b. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of one
7. c. Each symbol in Group 1 has a shape at the vertical line. Choice b is the only answer.
end of each line. Choice c is the answer. 20. c. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of a star
8. b. Each symbol in Group 1 has a shaded and a shaded shape. This is shown in
shape with a blank shape touching on two choice c.
sides. Choice b fits that description. 21. a. Each shape consists of two diagonal lines
9. d. Each figure in Group 1 has more shaded which is shown in choice a.
space than white space. Only choice d has 22. c. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of an
that trait. “H” figure that is only shown in answer c.
10. b. In each symbol in Group 1, the shaded 23. d. Each figure in Group 1 has four sections.
figure is on top. Choice b is the only This is shown in choice d.
answer that fits. 24. b. Each figure consists of a 34 open circle, a
11. d. Each symbol in Group 1 is a single line black dot, and a line segment which is
intersecting itself. This is only shown in shown only in choice b.
choice d. 25. a. Each symbol in Group 1 has shapes that
reflect over a line. Shaded shapes turn
white when reflected and white figures

turn shaded when reflected. This is shown Answer: d. This is an alternating sequence, requiring
only in choice a. multiplication and subtraction. In each set, the second
26. e. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of an number is 3 times the first number. The third number
“X” figure that is shown in choice e. is 3 less than the second number.
27. e. Each symbol in Group 1 can be reflected Another kind of Series question uses a series of
over a vertical axis. Choice e is the only letters in a pattern. Usually these questions use the let-
answer. ters’ alphabetical order as a base. To make matters
28. b. Each symbol in Group 1 consists of a more complicated, sometimes a number will be thrown
right angle (90 degrees). This is only into the letter series. For example: rather than A B F,
reflected in choice b. the series might read A3B2F4. Try this sample letter
29. a. Each individual symbol in Group 1 con- series question.
sists of only one shape. Figure 1 has only
quadrilaterals; figure 2 is only triangles, LETTER SERIES
etc. Choice a is the answer.
1. FHJ JLN NPR ___ VXZ
30. d. Each figure in Group 1 has two round
a. RSU
sides. This is only reflected in choice d.
b. SUW
c. RTV
d. TUV
SERIES REASONING TEST
Answer: c. The letters in each set of three are in alpha-
Tests that determine your ability to reason in a series or
betical order, but one letter is skipped. For example, the
sequence come up often in mechanical/spatial exams. One
first set is F (skip G), H (skip I), J. The second set begins
type of Series questions involves a series of numbers,
with J, which is the last letter of the previous set. This
which may entail addition, subtraction, multiplication,
pattern repeats. Note that this item asks you to fill in
division, and/or identification of a random number
the blank and not to add to the end of the sequence.
inserted in the sequence; for example: 12 24 48 9 3 6
Because the last letter repeats, the set that is missing
12 9 . . . Here the first numbers are multiplied by 2, then
must begin with an “R.” Immediately, this rules out
the random number 9 is inserted, then you multiply by
choices b and d.
2 again, and then 9 is inserted. Every fourth number is
9. Here is an example of a typical number series question.
NUMBER SERIES 1. Look at this series: 10, 34, 12, 31, ___, 28, 16, . . .
What number should fill the blank?
1. 3 9 6 7 21 18 10 30 ___
a. 14
a. 5
b. 18
b. 20
c. 30
c. 23
d. 34
d. 27

2. Look at this series: 17, ___, 28, 28, 39, 39, . . . 7. Look at this series: 72 67 61 | 50 55 49 | 38 33
What number should fill the blank? ___, . . . What number should fill the blank?
a. 50 a. 22
b. 39 b. 27
c. 25 c. 28
d. 17 d. 31
3. Look at this series: 0.15, 0.3, ___, 1.2, 2.4, . . . 8. Look at this series: 44 44 50 | 62 62 68 | 81 ___
What number should fill the blank? 87, . . . What number should fill the blank?
a. 4.8 a. 74
b. 0.006 b. 81
c. 0.6 c. 84
d. 0.9 d. 93
4. Look at this series: J14, L16, ___, P20, R22, . . . 9. Look at this series: 0.2 0.04 0.0016 | 0.3 0.09
What letter and numbers should fill the blank? 0.0081 | 0.1 0.01 ___, . . . What number should
a. S24 fill the blank?
b. N18 a. 0.0001
c. M18 b. 000.1
d. T24 c. 0.02
d. 0.2
5. Look at this series: QPO, NML, KJI, ___, EDC,
. . . What letters should fill the blank? 10. Look at this series: 2 3 4 | 12 13 4 | 22 ___ 4, . . .
a. HGF What number should fill the blank?
b. CAB a. 3
c. JKL b. 5
d. GHI c. 21
d. 23
6. Look at this series: 3 11 19 | 36 44 52 | 68 ___
84, . . . What number should fill the blank? 11. Look at this series: 90 30 27 | 12 4 1 | 27 9 ___,
a. 60 . . . What number should fill the blank?
b. 72 a. 1
c. 76 b. 3
d. 92 c. 6
d. 16

12. Look at this series: 5 7 21 | 10 12 36 | 8 10 ___, 17. Look at this series: LML NON PQP RSR ___, . . .
. . . What number should fill the blank? What letters should fill the blank?
a. 12 a. TUT
b. 24 b. RTR
c. 28 c. STS
d. 30 d. TRT
13. Look at this series: QAR RAS SAT TAU ___, . . . 18. Look at this series: ZA5 YvB XC6 W3D___, . . .
What letters should fill the blank? What letters should fill the blank?
a. UAV a. E7V
b. UAT b. V2E
c. TAS c. VE5
d. TAT d. VE7
14. Look at this series: DEF DEF2 DE2 F2___D2E2F3, 19. Look at this series: 44, 44, 50, 50, 56, . . . What
. . . What letters should fill the blank? number should come next?
a. DEF3 a. 44
b. D3EF3 b. 48
c. D2E3F c. 56
d. D2E2F2 d. 62
15. Look at this series: VAB WCD XEF ___ ZIJ, . . . 20. Look at this series: 50, 5, 40, 10, 30, . . . What
What letters should fill the blank? number should come next?
a. AKL a. 15
b. UHG b. 18
c. YGH c. 25
d. GHW d. 35
16. Look at this series: BOC COB DOE EOD ___, 21. Look at this series: 66, 59, 52, 45, 38, . . . What
. . . What letters should fill the blank? number should come next?
a. FOG a. 29
b. DOG b. 31
c. DOF c. 32
d. FOE d. 35

22. Look at this series: 102, 112, 123, 135, . . . What 27. Look at this series: 2, 5, 28, 8, 11, 20, 14, . . . What
number should come next? number should come next?
a. 146 a. 12
b. 148 b. 17
c. 150 c. 23
d. 149 d. 28
23. Look at this series: 16, 13, 12, 23 . . . What number 28. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, ___, 10, . . .
should come next? What number should fill the blank?
a. 1 a. 7
4 b. 11
b.
6
c. 5
c. 12
6
8

d. 13
d. 9
29. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, . . . What num-
24. Look at this series: V, VIII, XI, XIV, . . . What
ber should come next?
Roman numeral should come next?
a. 108
a. IX
b. 148
b. XX
c. 162
c. XV
d. 216
d. XVII
30. Look at this series: 1000, 200, 40, . . . What num-
25. Look at this series: 33, 31, 27, 25, 21, . . . What
ber should come next?
number should come next?
a. 8
a. 17
b. 10
b. 19
c. 15
c. 20
d. 20
d. 24
26. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, ___, 13, . . . What
number should fill the blank?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 21
d. 23

SERIES REASONING ANSWER 12. d. Here is an addition and multiplication

EXPLANATIONS series. Two are added to the first number.
1. a. This is a simple alternating addition and The second number is then multiplied
subtraction series. The first series begins by 3.
with 10 and adds 2; the second begins 13. a. In this series, the third letter is repeated as
with 34 and subtracts 3. the first letter of the next segment. The
2. d. In this simple addition with repetition middle letter, A, remains static. The third
series, each number in the series repeats letters are in alphabetical order, beginning
itself, and then increases by 11 to arrive at with R.
the next number. 14. d. In this series, the letters remain the same:
3. c. This is a simple multiplication series. DEF. The subscript numbers follow this
Each number is 2 times greater than the series: 1,1,1; 1,1,2; 1,2,2; 2,2,2; 2,2,3.
previous number. 15. c. There are two alphabetical series here.
4. b. In this series, the letters progress by 2, and The first series is with the first letters only:
the numbers increase by 2. VWXYZ. The second series involves the
5. a. This series consists of letters in a reverse remaining letters: AB, CD, EF, GH, IJ.
alphabetical order. 16. a. The middle letters are static, so concen-
6. c. In this simple addition series, each num- trate on the first and third letters. The
ber is 8 more than the previous number. series involves an alphabetical order with
7. b. In this subtraction series, subtract 5 from a reversal of the letters. The first letters are
the first number and 6 from the second in alphabetical order: A, B, C, D, E, F. The
number in each segment. second and forth segments are reversals of
8. b. This is an alternation-with-repetition the first and third segments. The missing
series, in which each number repeats itself segment begins with a new letter.
and then increases by 6. 17. a. This series consists of a simple alphabeti-
9. a. This is a simple multiplication series. In cal order with the first two letters of all
each segment, the numbers are multiplied segments: L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U. The
by themselves. The last segment is 0.1 third letter of each segment is a repetition
0.1 0.01; 0.01 0.01 0.0001. of the first letter.
10. d. This is an addition series, with a random 18. d. There are three series to look for here. The
number, 4, interpolated as every third first letters are alphabetical in reverse: Z,
number. In each segment, the second Y, X, W, V. The second letters are in alpha-
number is 1 more than the first number, betical order, beginning with A. The
and 4 is always the third number. number series is as follows: 5, 4, 6, 3, 7.
11. c. This is an alternating division and sub- 19. c. This is an alternation with repetition
traction series, in which the first number series, in which each number repeats
is divided by 3 and the third number is 3 itself, then increases by 6.
less than the second number.

20. a. This is an alternating addition and sub- 26. c. In this alternating repetition series, the
traction series. In the first pattern, 10 is random number 21 is interpolated every
subtracted from each number to arrive at other number into an otherwise simple
the next. In the second, 5 is added to each addition series that increases by 2, begin-
number to arrive at the next. ning with the number 9.
21. b. This is a simple subtraction series; each 27. b. Two series alternate here, with every third
number is 7 less than the previous num- number following a different pattern. In
ber. the main series, 3 is added to each num-
22. b. In this addition series, 10 is added to the ber to arrive at the next. In the alternating
first number, 11 is added to the second series, 8 is subtracted from each number
number; 12 is added to the third number; to arrive at the next.
and so forth. 28. c. This is a simple alternating addition and
23. c. This is a simple addition series. Each subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is
number increases by 16. added; in the second, 2 is subtracted.
24. d. This is a simple addition series; each 29. c. This is a simple multiplication series.
Roman numeral is 3 more than the previ- Each number is three times more than the
ous number. previous number.
25. b. This is an alternating subtraction series. 30. a. This is a simple division series. Each num-
First 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so ber is divided by 5.
on.

6
C • H • A • P • T • E • R
DIAGNOSTIC TEST—
PRACTICE WHAT YOU
HAVE LEARNED
CHAPTER SUMMARY
If you’ve worked diligently through this book, here’s where
it all pays off. No, we are not going to actually give you
money, we’re going to give you something better than
money: an all-encompassing practice test. This test combines
all the skills you have practiced in this book. You can see
how much you learned and analyze what topics you need
to go back and brush up on. Good luck!

DIAGNOSTIC TEST
26. a b c d e 53. a b c d e
27. a b c d e 54. a b c d e

–DIAGNOSTIC TEST–
DIAGNOSTIC TEST 5. All of the rooms in a building are rectangular,

with 8-foot ceilings. One room is 9 feet wide by
79 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 11 feet long. What is the combined area of the
Shop Arithmetic four walls, including doors and windows?
a. 99 square feet
1. A length of rope 3 feet 4 inches long was divided
b. 160 square feet
in 5 equal parts. How long was each part?
c. 320 square feet
a. 1 foot 2 inches
d. 72 square feet
b. 10 inches
c. 8 inches
Tool Knowledge
d. 6 inches
Put the correct letter next to the description of the tools.
2. Plattville is 80 miles west and 60 miles north of (A) (B) (C)
Quincy. How long is a direct route from Plattville
to Quincy?
a. 100 miles
b. 120 miles
c. 140 miles
(D) (E)
d. 160 miles
3. A builder has 27 cubic feet of concrete to pave

a sidewalk whose length is 6 times its width. The
concrete must be poured 6 inches deep. How
long is the sidewalk?
a. 9 feet 6. used with hammer to notch or chip away stone
b. 12 feet ___
c. 15 feet 7. used to crimp wire ends to fit into screw termi-
d. 18 feet nals ___
4. A floor plan is drawn to scale so that 14 inch rep- 8. used with glue stick to apply adhesive ___
resents 2 feet. If a hall on the plan is 4 inches long,
how long will the actual hall be when it is built? 9. used to remove nails or open crates ___
a. 2 feet 10. used with sockets to loosen or tighten nuts
b. 8 feet and/or bolts ___
c. 16 feet
d. 32 feet

Mechanical Knowledge Mechanical Insight

11. Which of the following automotive systems uses 16. What is the most accurate statement regarding
lubrication fluid? the relationship between weight and density?
a. the transmission system a. Weight equals density divided by volume.
b. the exhaust system b. A bathroom scale cannot measure density.
c. the suspension system c. Density can be measured in pounds.
d. the electrical system d. All of the above.
12. Which automotive system uses fuses and an 17. Expansion is to contraction as
alternator? a. pressure is to density.
a. the steering system b. acceleration is to deceleration.
b. the cooling system c. weight is to center of gravity.
c. the electrical system d. direction is to velocity.
d. the engine
18. The center of gravity of a baseball bat would be
13. What is the function of the spark plugs in the best described as
internal combustion engine in a car? a. near the grip.
a. to transfer electricity to the alternator b. near the fat end.
b. to increase the cylinder size c. near the skinny end.
c. to cool the engine d. at the top.
d. to ignite the fuel
19. Which is heavier, five pounds of feathers or five
14. Which fluid is contained in a car radiator? pounds of lead?
a. transmission fluid a. The feathers are heavier.
b. cooling fluid b. The lead is heavier.
c. brake fluid c. They weigh the same.
d. steering fluid d. It is not possible to compare the two.
15. What is the primary function of the water pump 20. Which material is best suited for use as a boat
in a car? anchor?
a. to circulate coolant a. metal
b. to evacuate waste water b. foam
c. to remove exhaust c. wood
d. to filter water d. glass

Hidden Figures
21. The hidden figure in block 21 is ___. 24. The hidden figure in block 24 is ___.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
22. The hidden figure in block 22 is ___. 25. The hidden figure in block 25 is ___.
a. A a. A
b. B b. B
c. C c. C
d. D d. D
e. E e. E
23. The hidden figure in block 23 is ___.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Block Counting 28. Block 28 is touched by ___ other blocks.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
29. Block 29 is touched by ___ other blocks.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
For questions 26–30, refer to Figure I-4 d. 5
26. Block 26 is touched by ___ other blocks. e. 6
a. 2 30. Block 30 is touched by ___ other blocks.
b. 3 a. 2
c. 4 b. 3
d. 5 c. 4
e. 6 d. 5
27. Block 27 is touched by ___ other blocks. e. 6
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
Rotated Blocks
31.

32.
33.
34.
35.

Matching Pieces and Parts

In questions 36–37 below, select the single answer choice that represents the two parts that join together to make the
given whole. Pieces may be reflected and/or rotated.
36.
a) b) c) d)
37. a) b) c) d)
In questions 38–39 below, pick the two answer choices that will come together to make the figure shown. Pieces
may be reflected and/or rotated.
38. a) b) c) d) e)
39. a) b) c) d) e)

In question 40 below, four pieces are given. Choose the answer choice that represents a figure comprised of all four
pieces. Pieces may be rotated and/or reflected.
40. a) b) c) d)
Spatial Analysis
41.
a. b. c. d.
42.
a. b. c. d.
43.
a. b. c. d.
44.
a.
c.
b. d.
45.
a. b. c. d.

Understanding Patterns
46.
a. b. c. d.
47.
a. b. c. d.
48.
a. b. c. d.
49.
a. b. c. d.

50.
a. b. c. d.
Eye-Hand Coordination
4 LETTER-SYMBOL QUESTIONS
Reference Code
Code
Code
Questions
Question Answer
1.
2.
3.
4.

Answers
Question Answer
1. O
2. T
3. L
4. Q
Code
Code
3 1 4 2
3 EXAMINING OBJECTS QUESTIONS
Sorting Code
5 5
lbs 5 lbs
lbs
5
lbs 5
lbs
BOX BOX BOX BOX

1 2 3 4
Ship Fail Recycle Discount

Sorting Code for Boxes 1 through 4: In the questions below, you are presented with a
Box 1: Ship package containing two pieces. Use the above sorting
All packages placed in this box must satisfy each of the code to determine which box each package needs to be
following requirements placed in.
■ The two pieces are the same weight. 51. a. Box 1
■ The two pieces are the same shape. b. Box 2
5 3lbs
■ The two pieces are free from defects. c. Box 3
lbs
Box 2: Fail d. Box 4
All packages placed in this box contain two defective
52. a. Box 1
pieces. Regardless of weight or shape, if both pieces
b. Box 2
inside a package are defective, put them in Box 2.
c. Box 3
Note: A “defect” is displayed as a black circle on the
d. Box 4
piece. See the graphic code above.
Box 3: Recycle 53. a. Box 1
All packages placed in this box contain one defective
3 b. Box 2
lbs
piece. Regardless of shape or weight, if one piece of the c. Box 3
pair is defective, put the package in Box 3. d. Box 4
Box 4: Discount
All packages placed in this box contain non-defective
pieces that do not match in weight or shape.

MAZES
enter
D
A
C
54. Follow the maze above and mark the letter that correctly represents the way out of the maze. ___

Reading Maps
Answer questions 55–59 based on the map and the information below.
N
W E
one way KEY two way
EXPRESSWAY
BROWN STREET
GAS
STATION DRUG STORE
OAK STREET PARK
Junior
High
School
11th AVENUE
10th AVENUE
12th AVENUE
9th AVENUE
PARK PARK
STREET STREET
POLICE
LIBRARY STATION
MAPLE STREET
HOSPITAL FIRE
STATION CLINIC
GREEN STREET
This is a map of a section of the city where some public buildings are located. Each of the squares repre-
sent one city block. Street names are as shown. If there is an arrow next to the street name, it means the street is
one way only, in the direction of the arrow. If there is no arrow next to the street name, two-way traffic is allowed.

55. There has been a vehicular accident at the cor- 58. Someone at the junior high school has been
ner of Brown Street and 9th Avenue and gaso- injured and needs to go to the hospital. What
line is leaking from one of the cars. What is the directions would you give to the ambulance
most direct legal way for a fire engine to travel driver?
to the scene of the accident? a. north on 10th Avenue, west on Brown
a. east on Maple Street and north on 9th Street, and south on 12th Avenue to the
Avenue to the accident hospital entrance
b. west on Maple Street, north on 12th b. south on 10th Avenue and west on Green
Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the Street to the hospital entrance
accident c. north on 10th Avenue and south on
c. east on Maple Street and north on 11th Brown Street to the hospital entrance
Avenue to the accident d. south on 10th Avenue, west on Maple
d. west on Maple Street, north on 11th Street, and west on Green Street to the
Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the hospital entrance
accident
59. You are leaving work at the police station and
56. What streets run north and south of the park? need to fill your gas tank before you go home.
a. Brown Street and Oak Street What is the quickest legal route to the gas sta-
b. Maple Street and Park Street tion?
c. Brown Street and Park Street a. south on 9th Avenue, west on Maple
d. Green Street and Oak Street Street, north on 11th Avenue, and west on
Oak Street to the entrance
57. If you were giving directions to the drug store
b. east on Maple Street, north on 10th
from the hospital, what would be the most
Avenue, and west on Oak Street to the
direct, legal route?
entrance
a. east on Maple Street, north on 9th
c. north on 9th Avenue and west on Brown
Avenue, and west on Brown Street to the
Street to the entrance
store entrance
d. north on 9th Avenue, west on Park Street,
b. west on Maple Street, north on 10th
north on 10th Avenue, and west on Oak
Avenue, and west on Brown Street to the
Street to the entrance
store entrance
c. west on Green Street, north on 12th
Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the
store entrance
d. east on Oak Street, north on 11th Avenue,
and east on Brown Street to the store
entrance

Symbol Series
(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
(A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
60.
61.
62.
Group
Group 1
1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
??
63. ?
??
64. ?
??
?
Symbol Analogies ??
?
65.
??
?
66.
???
67.
x x ? x x
T T ?? x o x
68.
??
?
69. ?
??

Sorting and Classifying Figures
Group
Group 1
1 Group 2
Group 2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C) (D)
(D) (E)
(E)
Group (C) (D) (E)
70. Group 1
1 Group
Group 2
2 (A)
(A) (B)
(B) (C)
(C) (D) (E)
71.
72.
73.
74.
Series Reasoning
75. Look at this series: U32, V29, W26, X23, . . . What 78. Look at this series: 17, ___, 28, 28, 39, 39, . . .
number should come next? What number should fill the blank?
a. Y20 a. 6
b. Y17 b. 17
c. Z20 c. 28
d. Z26 d. 50
76. Look at this series: 664, 332, 340, 170, 178, . . . 79. Look at this series: 75, 65, 85, 55, ___, 85, 35, 25,
What number should come next? . . . . What number should fill the blank?
a. 89 a. 25
b. 94 b. 45
c. 109 c. 65
d. 184 d. 85
77. Look at this series: 2, IV, 8, XVI, . . . What num-

ber/Roman numeral should come next?
a. XXXII
b. XIX
c. 16
d. 32

DIAGNOSTIC TEST ANSWER Tool Knowledge

EXPLANATIONS 6. d. Choice d is a stone chisel used with a
Shop Arithmetic hammer to notch or chip stone.
1. c. Three feet 4 inches equals 40 inches; 40 7. b. A pair of needle nose pliers is shown in
divided by 5 is 8. choice b. These pliers have a multitude of
2. a. The distance between Plattville and uses including handling electrical wiring.
Quincy is the hypotenuse of a right trian- 8. e. A common glue gun is represented in
gle with sides of length 80 and 60. The choice e. By melting a stick of glue, the
length of the hypotenuse equals the glue gun is used to apply a hot adhesive.
square root of (802 + 602), which equals 9. c. Choice c is a pry bar which has many uses
the square root of (6,400 + 3,600), which from removing nails to separating wood
equals the square root of 10,000, which planks.
equals 100 miles. 10. a. The tool represented in choice a is a
3. d. The volume of concrete is 27 cubic feet. socket wrench. This tool can be used to
Volume is length times width times depth, tighten and loosen any size nut or bolt
or (L)(W)(D), so (L)(W)(D) 27. We’re easily by changing the size of the socket.
told that the length L is 6 times the width
W, so L equals 6W. We’re also told that the Mechanical Knowledge
depth is 6 inches, or 0.5 feet. Substituting 11. a. The transmission has many moving parts
what we know about the length and depth (gears and shafts), which must be lubri-
into the original equation and solving for cated by transmission fluid in order to
W, we get (L)(W)(D) (6W)(W)(0.5) prevent excessive wear and allow the parts
27. 3W2 27. W2 9, so W 3. To get to move smoothly.
the length, we remember that L equals 12. c. The fuses are used as links in the electrical
6W, so L equals (6)(3), or 18 feet. system to prevent damage to other key
4. d. Four inches is equal to 16 quarter inches. components. The alternator is used to
Each quarter inch is 2 feet, so 16 quarter recharge the battery when the car is run-
inches is 32 feet. ning.
5. c. Each 9-foot wall has an area of 9(8) or 72 13. d. The spark plug sends a spark into the
square feet. There are two such walls, so cylinder, igniting the fuel.
those two walls combined have an area of 14. b. The radiator is part of the cooling system.
144 square feet. Each 11-foot wall has an The cooling fluid is stored in the radiator
area of 11(8) or 88 square feet, and again and is then pumped through the cooling
there are two such walls: 88 (2) 176. system by the water pump. As air passes
Finally, add 144 and 176 to get 320 square over the radiator, the fluid is cooled,
feet. which prevents engine overheating.
15. a. The water pump pumps the engine
coolant (a combination of water and

antifreeze) out of the radiator and around 18. b. The center of gravity is the place on an
the engine block in order to cool the object where there is equal weight on
engine. either side.
19. c. Weight is measured in pounds, and the
Mechanical Insight question states that both the feathers and
16. b. Choice a is not correct, as weight is equal the lead weigh five pounds.
to density multiplied by volume. Choice c 20. a. Foam and wood float and would therefore
is not correct, as density is measured in make poor boat anchors. Glass is not
weight (pounds) per unit volume. strong enough to be used as a boat
17. b. Expansion and contraction are opposites, anchor.
as are acceleration and deceleration. The
other choices are not opposites.
Hidden Figures
Block Counting Rotated Blocks

26. c. Block 26 touches two blocks above, one 31. b
block to the left, and one block below. 32. a
27. c. Block 27 touches one block above, one 33. b
block to the left, and two blocks below. 34. a
28. a. Block 28 touches one block to the right 35. c
and one block below.
29. b. Block 29 touches two blocks to the left
and one block below.
30. a. Block 30 touches one block above and one
block to the right.

Matching Pieces and Parts 44.
36. c.
45.
37. b.
Understanding Patterns
38. a + e.
46.
39. b + d. c.
47.
a.
40. b.
A
B 48.
C C
d.
Spatial Analysis
41. 49.
c.
42.
50.
b.
43.

Eye-Hand Coordination 52. b. Because both pieces are damaged, this

51. d. This package should go into Box 4 (Dis- package should be placed into Box 2
count) because the two pieces are non- (Fail).
defective and do not have the same 53. c. This package should be placed into Box 3
weight. The Sorting Code states: All pack- (Recycle) because it contains one damaged
ages placed in this box contain non-defec- piece. The Sorting Code states: All pack-
tive pieces that do not match in weight or ages placed in this box contain one defective
shape. piece. Regardless of shape or weight, if one
piece of the pair is defective, put the package
in Box 3.
54. E
enter
D
A
C
Reading Maps 58. b. The other routes are impossible (choices c

55. a. The other routes are impossible or illegal. and d) or circuitous (choice a).
56. c. Brown Street and Park Street are the two 59. d. Choice a takes you the wrong way on
streets that run north and south of the Maple Street. Choice b starts from the fire
park. house, not the police station. Choice c will
57. a. The other routes are impossible or illegal. not get you to the entrance of the gas sta-
tion.

Symbol Series Symbol Analogies

60. d. Each symbol is a star. As the series 65. d. In each of the symbols of Group 1, an
matures the symbols follow a shading pat- elliptical shape has been cut from each
tern (white, gray, black) and also add a figure and follows a pattern of circle,
point to the star in each step. Since the square, and triangle. In Group 2, each of
fifth symbol is gray and has seven points, the symbols shows a triangular shape has
the answer must be black and have eight been cut out, but follows the same pattern
points, which is choice d. of shapes, which makes choice d the
61. c. The pattern in this series consists of a answer.
seven-sided shape for the first symbol, a 66. c. In Group 1, each symbol consists of two
similar shape but with a dotted line for shapes that connect at corners to make up
the second symbol, and six-sided figure each figure. In Group 2, the symbols con-
for the third with a dotted line version for sist of shapes connected at round ends of
the fourth. The fifth symbol has five sides each shapes. This would leave c as the best
implying that the next figure will be the answer.
same but with dotted lines instead. 67. b. In Group 1, each figure consists of a big
Answer c. shape and a small shape with each symbol
62. b. In this series, the symbols are five pointed having the small shape circled. In Group
stars each with a shaded region. In symbol 2, the symbols follow a similar pattern but
two, the shaded region begins a counter- each of the bigger shapes are marked with
clockwise pattern continued throughout an “X” making choice b the answer.
the rest of the series. Answer b best fits the 68. c. In Group 1, the first symbol is made up of
pattern. three lines; the second symbol is made up
63. d. Each symbol consists of a circle divided of three circles; and the third three stars.
into thirds. As the series matures each In Group 2, each symbol is made up of
symbol is rotated 45 degrees counter- five similar shapes, making choice c the
clockwise. The answer must be a 45- only answer that fits.
degree counter-clockwise rotation of 69. d. The first figure in Group 1 is made up of
symbol five, which is best shown in three quadrilaterals, the second is made
choice d. up of two, and the third is made up of one
64. a. Each symbol consists of the same figure shaded quadrilateral. In Group 2, the
simply rotated 45 degrees clockwise. The symbols are made up of triangles that fol-
answer is a 45-degree clockwise rotation low the same pattern. This would leave
of symbol five, which is best represented choice d as the only logical response.
as choice a.

Sorting and Classifying Figures Series Reasoning

70. d. Each symbol in Group 1 has an arrow 75. a. In this series, the letters progress by one;
pointed at a circle. The only choice with the numbers increase by three.
this trait is choice d. 76. a. This is an alternating multiplication and
71. a. Each individual symbol in Group 1 con- addition series: First, divide by two, and
sists of only its kind. Figure 1 has only then add eight.
quadrilaterals; figure 3 has only triangles, 77. d. This is an alternating multiplication
etc. Choice a is the answer. series. Each number is two times more
72. b. Each symbol in Group 1 has a black dot in than the previous number. Roman
the right most section of the shape which numerals alternate with Arabic numbers.
is only reflected in choice b. 78. b. In this simple addition with repetition
73. d. Each symbol in Group 1 consists mainly series, each number in the series repeats
of a blank square with a line along its left itself, and then increases by 11 to arrive at
side rotated about with added embellish- the next number.
ments. Choice d has these same compo- 79. b. This is a simple subtraction series in
nents. which a random number, 85, is interpo-
74. a. Each figure in Group 1 has a blank shape, lated as every third number. In the sub-
and a shaded shape inside with one less traction series, ten is subtracted from each
side than its surrounding shape. This is number to arrive at the next.
reflected through choice a.

Directions to Solve
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in
one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is 'D'.
(Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Ques 1. (solve as per the direction given above)
A. We discussed about the problem so thoroughly

B. on the eve of the examination
C. that I found it very easy to work it out.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: We discussed the problem so thoroughly
A. An Indian ship
B. laden with merchandise
C. got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: sank in the Pacific Ocean
A. AI could not put up in a hotel

B. because the boarding and lodging charges
C. were exorbitant.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'I could not put up at a hotel'
A. The Indian radio

B. which was previously controlled by the British rulers
C. is free now from the narrow vested interests.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: is now free from the narrow vested interests.
A. If I had known
B. this yesterday
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: I would have helped him
A. A lot of travel delay is caused

B. due to the inefficiency and lack of good management
C. on behalf of the railways.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: on the part of the railways
A. One of the members

B. expressed doubt if
C. the Minister was an atheist.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: expressed doubt that
A. I have got
B. my M.Sc. degree
C. in 1988.
D. No error.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: I got
A. If you lend him a book

B. he will lend it to some one else
C. and never you will get it back.
D. No error.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: and you will never get it back
A. According to the Bible

B. it is meek and humble
C. who shall inherit the earth.
D. No error.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: it is the meek and the humble
Directions to Solve
In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
Ques 11. ENORMOUS

A. Soft
B. Average
C. Tiny
D. Weak
Answer: Option C
Ques 12. COMMISSIONED

A. Started
B. Closed
C. Finished
D. Terminated
Answer: Option D
Ques 13. ARTIFICIAL

A. Red
B. Natural
C. Truthful
D. Solid
Answer: Option B
Ques 14. EXODUS

A. Influx
B. Home-coming
C. Return
D. Restoration
Answer: Option A
Ques 15. RELINQUISH

A. Abdicate
B. Renounce
C. Possess
D. Deny
Answer: Option C
Ques 16. EXPAND

A. Convert
B. Condense
C. Congest
D. Conclude
Answer: Option B
Ques 17. MORTAL

A. Divine
B. Immortal
C. Spiritual
D. Eternal
Answer: Option B
Ques 18. OBEYING

A. Ordering
B. Following
C. Refusing
D. Contradicting
Answer: Option A
Ques 19. FRAUDULENT

A. Candid
B. Direct
C. Forthright
D. Genuine
Answer: Option D
Ques 20. BELITTLE

A. Criticize
B. Flatter
C. Exaggerate
D. Adore
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. BUSY

A. Occupied
B. Engrossed
C. Relaxed
D. Engaged
Answer: Option C
Ques 22. FRESH

A. Faulty
B. Sluggish
C. Disgraceful
D. Stale
Answer: Option D
Ques 23. CULPABLE

A. Defendable
B. Blameless
C. Careless
D. Irresponsible
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
Find the correctly spelt words.
A. Efficient
B. Treatmeant
C. Beterment
D. Employd
Answer: Option A
A. Foreign
B. Foreine
C. Fariegn
D. Forein
Answer: Option A
A. Ommineous
B. Omineous
C. Ominous
D. Omenous
Answer: Option C
A. Pessenger
B. Passenger
C. Pasanger
D. Pesanger
Answer: Option B
A. Benefitted
B. Benifited
C. Benefited
D. Benefeted
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these
parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Ques 29. When he
P: did not know
Q: he was nervous and
R: heard the hue and cry at midnight
S: what to do
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQPS
B. QSPR
C. SQPR
D. PQRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 30. It has been established that
P: Einstein was
Q: although a great scientist
R: weak in arithmetic
S: right from his school days
A. SRPQ
B. QPRS
C. QPSR
D. RQPS
Answer: Option B
Ques 31. Then

P: it struck me
Q: of course
R: suitable it was
S: how eminently
A. SPQR
B. QSRP
C. PSRQ
D. QPSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 32. I read an advertisement that said
P: posh, air-conditioned
Q: gentleman of taste
R: are available for
S: fully furnished rooms
A. PQRS
B. PSRQ
C. PSQR
D. SRPQ
Answer: Option B
Ques 33. Since the beginning of history
P: have managed to catch
Q: the Eskimos and Red Indians
R: by a very difficulty method
S: a few specimens of this aquatic animal
A. QRPS
B. SQPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
Answer: Option D
Ques 34. A French woman
P: committed suicide
Q: where she had put up
R: who had come to Calcutta
S: by jumping from the first floor balcony of the hotel
A. PRQS
B. QSRP
C. RPSQ
D. SRQP
Answer: Option C
Ques 35. The national unity of a free people
P: to make it impracticable
Q: for there to be an arbitrary administration
R: depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power
S: against a revolutionary opposition that is irreconcilably opposed to it
A. QRPS
B. QRSP
C. RPQS
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 36. The grocer
P: did not listen to the protests of customer
Q: who was in the habit of weighing less

R: whom he had cheated
S: with great audacity
A. PRSQ
B. QSPR
C. QPRS
D. PQSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 37. They felt safer
P: to watch the mountain
Q: of more than five miles
R: as they settled down
S: from a distance
A. RPSQ
B. RSQP
C. PQSR
D. PRSQ
Answer: Option A
Ques 38. People
P: at his dispensary
Q: went to him
R: of all professions
S: for medicine and treatment
A. QPRS
B. RPQS
C. RQSP
D. QRPS
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicized and underlined. Below are given alternatives
to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.
Ques 39. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
A. hell bent on getting
B. hell bent for getting
C. hell bent upon getting
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 40. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom,
the protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 41. If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed
time.
A. If the room was brighter
B. If the room are brighter
C. Had the room been brighter
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 42. The record for the biggest tiger hunt has not been met since 1911 when Lord Hardinge.
then Viceroy of India, shot a tiger than measured 11 feet and 6 inches.
A. Improved
B. Broken
C. Bettered
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 43. his powerful desire brought about his downfall.

A. His intense desire
B. His desire for power
C. His fatal desire
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 44. Will you kindly open the knot?

A. Untie
B. Break
C. Loose
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Ques 45. He sent a word to me that he would be coming late.

A. sent word
B. had sent a word
C. sent words
D. No improvement
Answer: Option A
Ques 46. John had told me that he hasn't done it yet.

A. Told
B. Tells
C. was telling
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Ques 47. If he had time he will call you.

A. would have
B. would have had
C. has
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 48. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need?
A. lend me any rupees
B. borrow me a few rupees
C. lend me a few rupees
D. No improvement
Answer: Option C
Ques 49. During his long discourse, he did not touch that point.
A. touch upon
B. touch on
C. touch of
D. No improvement
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
In questions below, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the
beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled as
P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
Ques 50.
S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important
person in the room.
P: For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q: On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.
R: While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee.
S: As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.
A. RSQP
B. PQRS
C. SQPR
D. QSRP
Answer: Option D
Ques 51.
S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.
P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is
considerable.
Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of
attraction gravity.
A. PRQS
B. PRSQ
C. QSRP
D. QSPR
Answer: Option D
Ques 52.
S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.
P: As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R: They run down the centre of the road
S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.
A. PRSQ
B. PSQR
C. SQRP
D. RPSQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 53.
S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P: Then a chance Customer would come.
Q: Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else's
R: Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.
S: He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.
A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. SQRP
D. QPSR
Answer: Option B
Ques 54.
S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.
P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.
R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. QPSR
D. QPRS
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In questions given below out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
word/sentence.
Ques 55. Extreme old age when a man behaves like a fool
A. Imbecility
B. Senility
C. Dotage
D. Superannuation
Answer: Option C
Ques 56. That which cannot be corrected

A. Unintelligible
B. Indelible
C. Illegible
D. Incorrigible
Answer: Option D
Ques 57. The study of ancient societies

A. Anthropology
B. Archaeology
C. History
D. Ethnology
Answer: Option B
Ques 58. A person of good understanding knowledge and reasoning power

A. Expert
B. Intellectual
C. Snob
D. Literate
Answer: Option B
Ques 59. A person who insists on something

A. Disciplinarian
B. Stickler
C. Instantaneous
D. Boaster
Answer: Option B
Ques 60. State in which the few govern the many

A. Monarchy
B. Oligarchy
C. Plutocracy
D. Autocracy
Answer: Option B
Ques 61. List of the business or subjects to be considered at a meeting

A. Schedule
B. Timetable
C. Agenda
D. Plan
Answer: Option C
Ques 62. Leave or remove from a place considered dangerous

A. Evade
B. Evacuate
C. Avoid
D. Exterminate
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
In the questions below the sentences have been given in Active/Passive voice. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Passive/Active voice.
Ques 63. After driving professor Kumar to the museum she dropped him at his hotel.
A. After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel.
B. Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.
C. After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
D. After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
Answer: Option A
Ques 64. I remember my sister taking me to the museum.

A. I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.
B. I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
C. I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.
D. I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
Answer: Option B
Ques 65. Who is creating this mess?

A. Who has been created this mess?
B. By whom has this mess been created?
C. By whom this mess is being created?
D. By whom is this mess being created?
Answer: Option D
Ques 66. They greet me cheerfully every morning.

A. Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.
B. I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
C. I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
D. Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.
Answer: Option B
Ques 67. Darjeeling grows tea.
A. Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
B. Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
C. Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
D. Tea grows in Darjeeling.
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs
of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
Ques 68. DIVA:OPERA

A. Producer : theatre
B. Director : drama
C. Conductor : bus
D. Thespian : play
Answer: Option D
Ques 69. GRAIN:SALT

A. Shard : pottery
B. Shred : wood
C. Blades : grass
D. Chip : glass
Answer: Option D
Ques 70. PAIN:SEDATIVE

A. Comfort : stimulant
B. Grief : consolation
C. Trance : narcotic
D. Ache : extraction
Answer: Option B
Ques 71. LIGHT:BLIND

A. Speech : dumb
B. Language : deaf
C. Tongue : sound
D. Voice : vibration
Answer: Option A
Ques 72. PORK:PIG

A. Rooster : chicken
B. Mutton : sheep
C. Steer : beef
D. Lobster : crustacean
Answer: Option B
Ques 73. AFTER:BEFORE

A. First : second
B. Present : past
C. Contemporary : historic
D. Successor : predecessor
Answer: Option D
Ques 74. DISTANCE:MILE

A. Liquid : litre
B. Bushel : corn
C. Weight : scale
D. Fame : television
Answer: Option A
Ques 75. TEN:DECIMAL

A. Seven : septet
B. Four : quartet
C. Two : binary
D. Five : quince
Answer: Option C
Ques 76. GRAVITY:PULL

A. Iron : metal
B. north pole : directions
C. magnetism : attraction
D. dust : desert
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Ques 77. BRIEF

A. Limited
B. Small
C. Little
D. Short
Answer: Option D
Ques 78. VENT

A. Opening
B. Strode
C. End
D. Past tense of go
Answer: Option A
Ques 79. AUGUST

A. Common
B. Ridiculous
C. Dignified
D. Petty
Answer: Option C
Ques 80. ALERT

A. Energetic
B. Observant
C. Intelligent
D. Watchful
Answer: Option D
Ques 81. WARRIOR

A. Soldier
B. Sailor
C. Pirate
D. Spy
Answer: Option A
Ques 82. DISTANT

A. Far
B. Removed
C. Reserved
D. Separate
Answer: Option A
Ques 83. ADVERSITY

A. Failure
B. Helplessness
C. Misfortune
D. Crisis
Answer: Option C
Ques 84. FAKE

A. Original
B. Imitation
C. Trustworthy
D. Loyal
Answer: Option B
Ques 85. INDICT

A. Condemn
B. Reprimand
C. Accuse
D. Allege
Answer: Option C
Ques 86. STRINGENT

A. Dry
B. Strained
C. Rigorous
D. Shrill
Answer: Option C
Ques 87. LAMENT

A. Complain
B. Comment
C. Condone
D. Console
Answer: Option A
Ques 88. HESITATED

A. Stopped
B. Paused
C. Slowed
D. Postponed
Answer: Option B
Ques 89. RESCUE

A. Command
B. Help
C. Defence
D. Safety
Answer: Option B
Ques 90. ATTEMPT

A. Serve
B. Explore
C. Try
D. Explain
Answer: Option C
Ques 91. CONSEQUENCES

A. Results
B. Conclusions
C. Difficulties
D. Applications
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
Ques 92. Fate smiles ...... those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.
A. With
B. Over
C. On
D. round
Answer: Option C
Ques 93. The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.
A. Avidly
B. Admiringly
C. Thoughtfully
D. earnestly
Answer: Option A
Ques 94. Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.
A. Chance
B. Luck
C. Possibility
D. occasion
Answer: Option A
Ques 95. I saw a ...... of cows in the field.

A. Group
B. Herd
C. Swarm
D. flock
Answer: Option B
Ques 96. The grapes are now ...... enough to be picked.

A. Ready
B. Mature
C. Ripe
D. advanced
Answer: Option C
Ques 97. Success in this examination depends ...... hard work alone.
A. At
B. Over
C. For
D. on
Answer: Option D
Ques 98. My uncle decided to take ...... and my sister to the market.
A. I
B. Mine
C. Me
D. myself
Answer: Option C
Ques 99. If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ...... by the customs authority.
A. Possessed
B. Punished
C. Confiscated
D. fined
Answer: Option C
Ques 100. Man does not live by ...... alone.

A. Food
B. Bread
C. Meals
D. diet
Answer: Option B
Ques 101. Piyush behaves strangely at times and, therefore, nobody gets ...... with him.
A. About
B. Through
C. Along
D. up
Answer: Option C
Ques 102. Rohan and Rohit are twin brothers, but they do not look ......
A. Unique
B. Different
C. Likely
D. alike
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
In each question below a sentence broken into five or six parts. Join these parts to make a meaningful
sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.
Ques 103. 1. I 2. immediately 3. Salary 4. my 5. want

A. 43152
B. 15432
C. 25143
D. 42351
E. 45132
Answer: Option B
Ques 104. 1. do 2. today 3. You 4. must 5. it

A. 34152
B. 25413
C. 12543
D. 51324
E. 45213
Answer: Option A
Ques 105. 1. left 2. the 3. House 4. he 5. suddenly

A. 12435
B. 21354
C. 45123
D. 52341
E. 24135
Answer: Option C
Ques 106. 1. medicine 2. a 3. Neeta 4. given 5. was

A. 51423
B. 25431
C. 15423
D. 42531
E. 35421
Answer: Option E
Ques 107. 1. of 2. we 3. Heard 4. him 5. had

A. 42351
B. 52341
C. 25341
D. 25431
E. 25314
Answer: Option E
Ques 108. 1. at 2. it 3. Take 4. once 5. away

A. 23514
B. 14352
C. 32514
D. 53214
E. 42315
Answer: Option C
Ques 109. 1. him 2. the 3. To 4. charge 5. handover

A. 42531
B. 51342
C. 41352
D. 45231
E. 52431
Answer: Option E
Ques 110. 1. seen 2. going 3. You 4. him 5. have

A. 35214
B. 35142
C. 32514
D. 35124
E. 53124
Answer: Option B
Ques 111. 1. bag? 2. you 3. Seen 4. have 5. my

A. 51432
B. 43512
C. 42351
D. 42153
E. 21435
Answer: Option C
Ques 112. 1. killed 2. a 3. Jaswant 4. bear 5. wild

A. 31254
B. 53124
C. 23145
D. 43125
E. 15234
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the
grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.
Ques 113. The small child does whatever his father was done.
A. has done
B. did
C. does
D. had done
E. No correction required
Answer: Option C
Ques 114. You need not come unless you want to.
A. You don't need to come unless you want to
B. You come only when you want to
C. You come unless you don't want to
D. You needn't come until you don't want to
Answer: Option A
Ques 115. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their
short names only
A. Initials
B. Signatures
C. Pictures
D. middle names
Answer: Option A
Ques 116. The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.

A. to whom I sell
B. to who I sell
C. who was sold to
D. to whom I sold
Answer: Option D
Ques 117. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.
A. were shocked at all
B. had all shocked at
C. had all shocked by
D. had been all shocked on
Answer: Option E
Ques 118. I need not offer any explanation regarding this incident - my behavior is speaking itself.
A. will speak to itself
B. speaks for itself
C. has been speaking
D. speaks about itself
Answer: Option B
Ques 119. He is too important for tolerating any delay.
A. to tolerate
B. to tolerating
C. at tolerating
D. with tolerating
Answer: Option A
Ques 120. The population of Tokyo is greater than that of any other town in the world.
A. greatest among any other
B. greater than all other
C. greater than those of any other
D. greater than any other
Answer: Option E
Ques 121. The performance of our players was rather worst than I had expected.
A. bad as I had expected
B. worse than I had expected
C. worse than expectation
D. worst than was expected
Answer: Option B
Ques 122. Why did you not threw the bag away?
A. did you not throw
B. had you not threw
C. did you not thrown
D. you did not thrown
Ques 123. Shapes of gods and goddess are worshipped by people.
A. Images
B. Reflections
C. Clay shapes
D. Clay toys
Answer: Option A
Directions to Solve
In each question, an incomplete statement (Stem) followed by fillers is given. Pick out the best one which
can complete incomplete stem correctly and meaningfully.
Ques 124. Despite his best efforts to conceal his anger ......
A. we could detect that he was very happy
B. he failed to give us an impression of his agony
C. he succeeded in camouflaging his emotions
D. he could succeed in doing it easily
E. people came to know that he was annoyed
Answer: Option E
Ques 125. Even if it rains I shall come means ......

A. if I come it will not rain
B. if it rains I shall not come
C. I will certainly come whether it rains or not
D. whenever there is rain I shall come
E. I am less likely to come if it rains
Answer: Option C
Ques 126. His appearance is unsmiling but ......

A. his heart is full of compassion for others
B. he looks very serious on most occasions
C. people are afraid of him
D. he is uncompromising on matters of task performance
E. he is full of jealousy towards his colleagues
Answer: Option A
Ques 127. She never visits any zoo because she is strong opponent of the idea of ......
A. setting the animals free into forest
B. feeding the animals while others are watching
C. watching the animals in their natural abode
D. going out of the house on a holiday
E. holding the animals in captivity for our joy
Answer: Option E
Ques 128. I felt somewhat more relaxed ......

A. but tense as compared to earlier
B. and tense as compared to earlier
C. as there was already no tension at all
D. and tension-free as compared to earlier
E. because the worry had already captured by mind
Answer: Option D
Ques 129. It is not easy to remain tranquil when those around you ......
A. behave in a socially acceptable manner
B. exhibit pleasant mannerism
C. are losing their heads
D. agree to whatever you say
E. exhibit generous and magnanimous gestures
Answer: Option C
Ques 130. "The food in this hotel is no match to what were forced at late hours in Hotel Kohinoor "
means ......
A. The food in this hotel is quite good compared to what we ate at Kohinoor
B. Hotel kohinoor served us good quality food than what we get here
C. Both hotels have maintained good quality of food
D. Both hotels serve poor quality of food
E. it is better to eat food than remain hungry
Answer: Option B
Ques 131. Although initial investigations pointed towards him ......

A. the preceding events corroborated his involvement in the crime
B. the additional information confirmed his guilt
C. the subsequent events established that he was guilt
D. the subsequent events proved that he was innocent
E. he gave an open confession of his crime
Answer: Option D
Ques 132. The weather outside was extremely pleasant and hence we decided to ......
A. utilise our time in watching the television
B. refrain from going out for a morning walk
C. enjoy a morning ride in the open
D. employ this rare opportunity for writing letters
E. remain seated in our rooms in the bungalow
Answer: Option C
Ques 133. "It is an uphill task but you will have to do it" means ......
A. The work is above the hill and you will have to do it
B. It is a very easy task but you must do it
C. It is very difficult task but you have to do it
D. This work is not reserved for you but you will have to do it
E. It is almost impossible for others but you can do it
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Rearrange the following five sentences in proper sequence so as to for a meaningful paragraph, then
answer the questions given below them.
1. After Examining him, the doctor smiled at him mischievously and took out a syringe.
2. Thinking that he was really sick, his father summoned the family doctor.
3. That day, Mintu wanted to take a day off from school
4. Immediately, Mintu jumped up from his bed and swore the he was fine
5. Therefor; he pretended to be sick and remained in bed.
Ques 134. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option B
Ques 135. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option D
Ques 136. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option A
Ques 137. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option E
Ques 138. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
Read the following five sentences and rearrange them to make a coherent and logical paragraph. After
deciding the sequence, answer the questions given below.
1. In his literacy work he spoke of that province of human life which mere intellect does not speak.
2. He has also given innocent joy to many children by his stories like 'Kabuliwalah'
3. These songs are sung not only in bengal but all over the country.
4. Rabindranath's great works sprang from intensity of vision and feelings.
5. He sang of beauty and heroism, nobility and charm.
Ques 139. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option E
Ques 140. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option B
Ques 141. Which sentence should come second in the paragraph?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option A
Ques 142. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option C
Ques 143. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
I felt the wall of the tunnel shiver. The master alarm squealed through my earphones. Almost
simultaneously, Jack yelled down to me that there was a warning light on. Fleeting but spectacular sights
snapped into ans out of view, the snow, the shower of debris, the moon, looming close and big, the
dazzling sunshine for once unfiltered by layers of air. The last twelve hours before re-entry were
particular bone-chilling. During this period, I had to go up in to command module. Even after the fiery
re-entry splashing down in 81o water in south pacific, we could still see our frosty breath inside the
command module.
Ques 144. The word 'Command Module' used twice in the given passage indicates perhaps that it
deals with
A. an alarming journey
B. a commanding situation
C. a journey into outer space
D. a frightful battle.
Answer: Option C
Ques 145. Which one of the following reasons would one consider as more as possible for the
warning lights to be on?
A. There was a shower of debris.
B. Jack was yelling.
C. A catastrophe was imminent.
D. The moon was looming close and big.
Answer: Option C
Ques 146. The statement that the dazzling sunshine was "for once unfiltered by layers of air"
means
A. that the sun was very hot
B. that there was no strong wind
C. that the air was unpolluted
D. none of above
Answer: Option D
Directions to Solve
But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass against his knees,
with the preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed to me that it would be murder
to shoot him. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted to. (Somehow it always seems worse to kill
large animal.) Besides, there was the beast's owner to be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I
turned to some experienced-looking Burmans who had been there when we arrived, and asked them
how the elephants had been behaving. They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left
him alone, but he might charge if you went too close to him.
Ques 147. The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies

A. being totally unconcerned
B. pretending to be very busy
C. a very superior attitude
D. calm, dignified and affectionate disposition
Answer: Option D
Ques 148. From the passage it appears that the author was
A. an inexperienced hunter
B. kind and considerate
C. possessed with fear
D. a worried man
Answer: Option B
Ques 149. The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he
A. was afraid of it
B. did not have the experience of shooting big animals
C. did not wish to kill animal which was not doing anybody any harm
D. did not find the elephant to be ferocious
Answer: Option B
Directions to Solve
Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of
proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
Ques 150. To make clean breast of

A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 151. To keeps one's temper

A. To become hungry
B. To be in good mood
C. To preserve ones energy
D. To be aloof from
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 152. To catch a tartar

A. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B. To catch a dangerous person
C. To meet with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 153. To drive home

A. To find one's roots
B. To return to place of rest
C. Back to original position
D. To emphasise
E. None of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 154. To have an axe to grind

A. A private end to serve
B. To fail to arouse interest
C. To have no result
D. To work for both sides
E. None of these
Answer: Option A
Ques 155. To cry wolf

A. To listen eagerly
B. To give false alarm
C. To turn pale
D. To keep off starvation
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 156. To end in smoke

A. To make completely understand
B. To ruin oneself
C. To excite great applause
D. To overcome someone
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 157. To be above board

A. To have a good height
B. To be honest in any business deal
C. They have no debts
D. To try to be beautiful
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 158. To put one's hand to plough

A. To take up agricultural farming
B. To take a difficult task
C. To get entangled into unnecessary things
D. Take interest in technical work
E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 159. To pick holes

A. To find some reason to quarrel
B. To destroy something
C. To criticise someone
D. To cut some part of an item
E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Directions to Solve
In the questions below the sentences have been given in Direct/Indirect speech. From the given
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the given sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
Ques 160. "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you", he said to her in a calm voice.
A. He warned her to shoot if she didn't keep quiet calmly.
B. He said calmly that I shall shoot you if you don't be quiet.
C. He warned her calmly that he would shoot her if she didn't keep quiet.
D. Calmly he warned her that be quiet or else he will have to shoot her.
Answer: Option C
Ques 161. I told him that he was not working hard.

A. I said to him, "You are not working hard."
B. I told to him, "You are not working hard."
C. I said, "You are not working hard."
D. I said to him, "He is not working hard."
Answer: Option A
Ques 162. His father ordered him to go to his room and study.
A. His father said, "Go to your room and study."
B. His father said to him, "Go and study in your room."
C. His father shouted, "Go right now to your study room"
D. His father said firmly, "Go and study in your room."
Answer: Option A
Ques 163. He said to his father, "Please increase my pocket-money."

A. He told his father, "Please increase the pocket-money"
B. He pleaded his father to please increase my pocket money.
C. He requested his father to increase his pocket-money.
D. He asked his father to increase his pocket-money.
Answer: Option C
Ques 164. She said that her brother was getting married.
A. She said, "Her brother is getting married."
B. She told, "Her brother is getting married."
C. She said, "My brother is getting married."
D. She said, "My brother was getting married."
Answer: Option C
Ques 165. The boy said, "Who dare call you a thief?"
A. The boy enquired who dared call him a thief.
B. The boy asked who called him a thief.
C. The boy told that who dared call him a thief.
D. The boy wondered who dared call a thief.
Answer: Option A
Ques 166. She exclaimed with sorrow that was a very miserable plight.
A. She said with sorrow, "What a pity it is."
B. She said, "What a mystery it is."
C. She said, "What a miserable sight it is."
D. She said, "What a miserable plight it is."
Answer: Option D
Ques 167. Dhruv said that he was sick and tired of working for that company.
A. Dhruv said, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
B. Dhruv said, "He was tired of that company."
C. Dhruv said to me, "I am sick and tired of working for this company."
D. Dhruv said, "I will be tired of working for that company."
Answer: Option A
Ques 168. "Are you alone, my son?" asked a soft voice close behind me.
A. A soft voice asked that what I was doing there alone.
B. A soft voice said to me are you alone son.
C. A soft voice from my back asked If I was alone.
D. A soft voice behind me asked If I was alone.
Answer: Option D
Ques 169. She said to him, "Why don't you go today?"

A. She asked him why he did not go that day.
B. She said to him why he don't go that day.
C. She asked him not to go that day.
D. She asked him why he did not go today.
Answer: Option A
”Error Correction Underlined Part”. Some of the portions will be underlined. You need to read the
question and identify the error in the highlighted portion.”
Ques 170. Have you been more careful, the accident could have been averted.
A. If you have been
B. Had you been
C. Have you been
D. If you could have been
Answer : Option B
Explanation: As the sentence talks about the past it is apt to say. 'Had you been more careful ...'.
Ques 171. The prices of essential commodities has risen unprecedentedly, causing a lot of hardship
to the common man.
A. has rosen
B. has rising
C. have risen
D. have rose
E. no correction required
Answer : Option C
Explanation: 'The prices' which is the subject of the sentence is in the plural and hence it has to take a
plural verb. 'Has risen' has to be replaced with 'have risen'.
Ques 172. The two belligerent nations decided to come to a compromise and resolve the issue
amicably.
A. to make a compromise
B. making a compromise
C. for a compromise
D. on compromising
Answer : Option E
Explanation: The given sentence has no grammatical error
Ques 173. Your admission into this university will be dependent on the marks you score in the
entrance examination.
A. is depending
B. depends
C. will depend
D. depending
Answer: Option C
Explanation: It is a future condition and hence 'will depend' is more appropriate.
Ques 174. In spite of all odds he pursued with his goal with girl and determination
A. he pursued to his goal
B. he pursued on his goal
C. he pursued into his goal
D. he pursued his goal
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The verb 'pursued' should not be followed by any preposition
Ques 175. There is no doubt whether he will be punished for his wrong doings.
A. that he will be
B. whether he would be
C. whether he is
D. that he has
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The phrases 'no doubt' 'little doubt', 'any doubt' are generally followed by 'that' clause. The
use of 'whether' is incorrect.
Ques 176. One must keep themselves abreast of current events particularly while preparing for
competitive exams.
A. put themselves
B. keep himself
C. keep oneself
D. put himself
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The pronoun 'themselves' does not agree with the subject of the sentence. 'One must keep
oneself ...'
Ques 177. Merit is the only criteria which is adapted in the selection of candidates.
A. criterion which is adapted
B. criterion that is adopted
C. criterion that is adapted
D. criterion what is adopted
E. No correction is required
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 'Criteria' is plural. Here it has to be 'criterion'(in singular). 'Adapted' is inapt in this context.
It has to be 'adopted'.
Ques 178. Relation between the two countries are in strain due to the border dispute.
A. are on strain
B. are on a strain
C. have a strain
D. have been strained
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The sentence suggests that the action has taken place over a period of time. In such cases,
the use of present perfect tense is most appropriate. 'relations have been strained '.
Ques 179. In order to attaining optimal health, one must lead a healthy lifestyle and exercise
regularly.
A. In order to attain optimal health
B. In order to attain optimal level in health
C. For attaining an optimal health
D. In order to attain an optimal health
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It has to be either 'In order to attain ...' or 'For attaining ...' Choices (C) and (D) are
incorrect as 'Health' is uncountable and does not take the article 'an'.
Ques 180. Yoga and meditation can relieve people of their mental stress and fatigues.
A. mental stress and fatigue
B. mental stresses and fatigues
C. mental stress or fatigue
D. mental stress or fatigues
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 'Fatigue' means tiredness and it is not used in the plural form. 'Fatigues' is inappropriate
usage. Yoga relieves one of both 'stress and fatigue' and not just 'stress or fatigue' and thus choice (C)
can be eliminated.
Antonyms Verbal Ability Questions: Find the correct antonym
Ques 181. Withdraw

A. Reduce
B. Need
C. Advance
D. Want
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To withdraw means to remove or retreat; to advance is the opposite of retreat
Ques 182. Secret

A. Friendly
B. Covert
C. Hidden
D. Overt
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Secret means hidden or covert; Overt means open to view
Ques 183. Heartfelt

A. Loving
B. Insincere
C. Unhealthy
D. Humorous
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Heartfelt means expressing genuine feeling, or sincere, so Insincere is its opposite
Ques 184. Impartial

A. Hostile
B. Biased
C. Dislike
D. Worried
Answer: Option B
Explanation: impartial means to be without prejudice or bias, therefore Biased is the opposite
Ques 185. Luminous

A. Clear
B. Dim
C. Brittle
D. Clever
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Luminous means radiating or reflecting light, or glowing; Dim means dark or dull
Ques 186. Expect

A. Attend
B. Regret
C. Despair
D. Loathe
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To expect is to wait for or to look forward to; to Despair is to lose all hope
Ques 187. Expound

A. Besmirch
B. Confuse
C. Confine
D. Condemn
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to Expound means to explain; to Confuse, or confound, is the opposite of expound
Ques 188. Dearth

A. Lack
B. Poverty
C. Abundance
D. Foreign
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Dearth means an inadequate supply or lack of something; Abundance means an ample
quantity, or wealth
Ques 189. Kindle

A. Smother
B. Detest
C. Enemy
D. Discourage
Answer: Option A
Explanation: To kindle means to start burning or ignite; to Smother means to stifle or suppress
Ques 190. Meager

A. Kind
B. Generous
C. Thoughtful
D. Copious
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Meager means lacking in quality or quantity; Copious means present in large quantity, or
abundant
Sentence Completion – Complete the sentence with given options
Ques 191. His ----------- in his family’s position is great but he does not boast about it.
A. Status
B. Pride
C. Deceit
D. presumption
Answer: Option A
Ques 192. Everyone in this universe is accountable to God ----------- his actions.
A. About
B. Against
C. For
D. of
Answer: Option C
Ques 193. Prakash got the company car for a ----------- price as he was the senior most employee in
the company.
A. Reduced
B. Nominal
C. Fixed
D. discounted
Answer: Option B
Ques 194. The opposition parties allege that prices of essential commodities are ----------- like a
runaway ballon.
A. Soaring
B. Reviving
C. Flying
D. leaping
Answer: Option A
Ques 195. It was through the Second World War that Russia ----------- herself increased ----------- in
power and wealth and prestige.
A. saw, abundantly
B. notice, gullibly
C. witnessed prodigiously
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 196. In the world of today, material values take precedence ----------- spiritual values.
A. About
B. On
C. Over
D. at
Answer: Option C
Ques 197. He congratulated his friend ----------- the latter’s success.

A. For
B. About
C. On
D. with
Answer: Option C
Ques 198. Even when Mashesh’s reputation was in ----------- almost everyone was willing to admit
that he had genius.
A. Failure
B. Rebuttal
C. Accumulation
D. eclipse
Answer: Option D
Ques 199. Knowledge is like a deep well fed by ----------- springs, and your mind is the little bucket
that you drop in it.
A. Perennial
B. Eternal
C. Sterling
D. immortal
Answer: Option A
Ques 200. We had a wonderful view of the bay through the -----------.
A. Window
B. Zenith
C. Vicinity
D. proximity
Answer: Option A
Ques 201. Choose the correct spelt word out of the given alternatives.
A. Damage
B. Dammege
C. Damaige
D. Dammage
Answer: Option A
A. Itinaray
B. Itinarery
C. Itinarery
D. Itinerary
Answer: Option D
A. Commander
B. Comander
C. Comander
D. Comandar
Answer: Option A
A. Pasanger
B. Passenger
C. Pessenger
D. Pasanger
Answer: Option B
A. Busisness
B. Business
C. Buisiness
D. Bussiness
Answer: Option B
A. Scriptur
B. Skripture
C. Scripcher
D. Scripture
Answer: Option D
A. Careir
B. Carreer
C. Caireer
D. Career
Answer: Option D
A. Gaurante
B. Guaruntee
C. Garuntee
D. Guarantee
Answer: Option D
A. Forcaust
B. Forcast
C. Forecaste
D. Forecast
Answer: Option D
A. Commison
B. Comission
C. Commisson
D. Commission
Answer: Option D
A. Exampel
B. Example
C. Exampal
D. Exemple
Answer: Option B
A. Achievement
B. Acheivment
C. Achievment
D. Achevement
Answer: Option A
A. Fabullous
B. Fablous
C. Fabuleous
D. Fabulous
Answer: Option D
A. Corrupt
B. Currupt
C. Coruppt
D. Curropt
Answer: Option A
A. Receding
B. Recedeing
C. Reeceding
D. Receeding
Answer: Option A
A. Commettee
B. Committee
C. Committea
D. Commetee
Answer: Option B
A. Overlapped
B. Overleped
C. Overelaped
D. Overlaped
Answer: Option A
A. Draut
B. Drougt
C. Drout
D. Drought
Answer: Option D
A. Restaurent
B. Restaurant
C. Rastaurent
D. Rasteraunt
Answer: Option B
Arrange the sentence from the given options
Ques 220. People
(P) at his dispensary
(Q) went to him
(R) of a11 professions
(S) for medicine and treatment
A. RQSP
B. QPRS
C. QRPS
D. RPQS
Answer: Option A
Ques 221. As lightning accompanies thunder

(P) was mingled with
(Q) so in my character
(R) the mutterings of my wrath
(S) a flash of humour
A. QSPR
B. PRSQ
C. QPRS
D. QRPS
Answer: Option D
Ques 222. Recently
(P) containing memorable letters of Churchill
(Q) a book
(R) has been published
(S) by a reputed publisher
A. QPRS
B. PQRS
C. QRPS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option A
Ques 223. All religions are
(P) to advance the cause of peace
(Q) in a holy partnership
(R) justice and freedom
(S) bound together
A. PQRS
B. PRQS
C. SPQR
D. SQPR
Answer: Option D
Ques 224. It was true that
(P) the pet dog
(Q) would never sleep anywhere
(R) we once had
(S) except on the sofa
A. RPQS
B. SPQR
C. PRQS
D. PQSR
Answer: Option C
Ques 225. The boy
(P) with big blue eyes
(Q) watched him
(R) and he never said a word
(S) that had an uncanny cold fire in them
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. QPSR
D. QRPS
Answer: Option C
Ques 226. I enclose
(P) and the postage
(Q) a postal order
(R) the price of the books
(S) which will cover
A. QPSR
B. RPSQ
C. QSPR
D. QSRP
Answer: Option D
Ques 227. The Indian woman wants
(P) in a male dominated society
(Q) as an equal partner
(R) and it is not too much to demand
(S) her rightful place
A. RSQP
B. QPSR
C. SQPR
D. SRPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 228. Little
(P) that he had been let down
(Q) stood by all these years
(R) did he realise
(S) by a colleague whom he had
A. QSPR
B. QSRP
C. RSQP
D. RPSQ
Answer: Option D
Ques 229. A policeman
(P) to abide
(Q) if he has to do well
(R) by the strict letters of the law
(S) cannot afford
A. PRQS
B. SPRQ
C. RQPS
D. QSPR
Answer: Option D
Ques 230. The effectiveness of a film
(P) the needs of the audience
(Q) is judged by
(R) and its relation to
(S) Its theme
A. QSRP
B. PSQR
C. PQRS
D. QPRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 231. They are plant eaters
(P) and various kinds of vegetation
(Q) browsing on grass
(R) and consume
(S) vast quantities of pasture
A. RSQP
B. QSRP
C. QPRS
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 232. I read an advertisement that said
(P) posh, air conditioned
(Q) gentlemen of taste
(R) are available for
(S) fully furnished rooms
A. PSRQ
B. SRPQ
C. PSQR
D. PQRS
Answer: Option A
Ques 233. It is a rule
(P) by anyone and admit
(Q) that must not
(R) of no variation
(S) be violated
A. QSPR
B. PSQR
C. QPRS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option A
Ques 234. The house
(P) about half a mile distant
(Q) that stunds in front of us
(R) was built of stones
(S) which were dug out of its own site
A. QSPR
B. QRPS
C. QPRS
D. QRSP
Answer: Option C
Ques 235. The statement
(P) therefore you must listen carefully
(Q) what the speaker has said
(R) in order to understand
(S) will be made just once

A. SRPQ
B. SPQR
C. SPRQ
D. RSPQ
Answer: Option C
Ques 236. Reading books
(P) is a habit
(Q) but also enlarges the mind
(R) because it not only increases knowledge
(S) which must be cultivated by everybody
A. PQSR
B. SRPQ
C. PSRQ
D. PQRS
Answer: Option C
Ques 237. Towards midnight
(P) so that the sky was lighted with
(Q) and the clouds drifted away
(R) the rain ceased
(S) the incredible lamp of stars
A. SPQR
B. SQPR
C. RPQS
D. RQPS
Answer: Option D
Ques 238. The exhibition committee
(P) attractive and useful
(Q) to make the exhibition
(R) making efforts

(S) has been
A. SRQP
B. QPRS
C. SRPQ
D. QPSR
Answer: Option A
Synonyms Verbal Ability Questions
Ques 239. Remote

A. Automatic
B. Distant
C. Savage
D. Mean
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Remote means faraway, or distant
Ques 240. Detest

A. Argue
B. Hate
C. Discover
D. Reveal
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to detest means to feel intense or violent dislike, or to hate
Ques 241. Gracious

A. Pretty
B. Clever
C. Pleasant
D. Present
Answer: Option C
Explanation: gracious means to be pleasant or considerate in social interactions
Ques 242. Predict

A. Foretell
B. Decide
C. Prevent
D. Discover
Answer: Option A
Explanation: to predict means to declare in advance or to foretell
Ques 243. Kin

A. Exult
B. Twist
C. Friend
D. Relative
Answer: Option D
Explanation: kin means people with common ancestors, or relatives
Ques 244. Banish

A. Exile
B. Hate
C. Fade
D. Clean
Answer: Option A
Explanation: to banish means to drive out from home or country, or to exile
Ques 245. Fraud

A. Malcontent
B. Argument
C. Imposter
D. Clown
Answer: Option C
Explanation: a fraud is someone who is not what he or she pretends to be, or an imposter
Ques 246. Drag

A. Sleepy
B. Crush
C. Proud
D. Pull
Answer: Option D
Explanation: to drag is to pull, or to cause movement in a direction with applied force
Ques 247. Indifferent

A. Neutral
B. Unkind
C. Precious
D. Mean
Answer: Option A
Explanation: to be indifferent is to be marked by impartiality or to be neutral
Ques 248. Simulate

A. Excite
B. Imitate
C. Trick
D. Apelike
Answer: Option B
Explanation: to simulate is to assume the outward appearance of, or to imitate
Ques 249. Charisma

A. Ghost
B. Force
C. Charm
D. Courage
Answer: Option C
Explanation: charisma is magnetic charm or appeal
Ques 250. Generic

A. General
B. Cheap
C. Fresh
D. Elderly
Answer: Option A
Explanation: generic means having the characteristic of a whole group, or general
Ques 251. Wary

A. Calm
B. Curved
C. Confused
D. Cautious
Answer: Option D
Explanation: wary means to be attentive especially to danger, or to be cautious

Ques 252. Distort
A. Wrong
B. Evil
C. Deform
D. Harm
Answer: Option C
Explanation: to distort means to twist out of a normal state, or to deform
Ques 253. Loot

A. Destruction
B. Waste
C. Spoils
D. Cavort
Answer: Option C
Explanation: loot means goods seized in war, or spoils
Ques 254. ABDUCT

A. Ransack
B. Surround
C. Induce
D. Destroy
E. kidnap
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Abduct and kidnap are synonymous.
Ques 255. DETEST

A. Loathe
B. Rebel
C. Neglect
D. Pretend
E. captivate
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Detest means to loathe or hate.
Ques 256. CLEANSE

A. Polish
B. Flow
C. Absolve
D. Reveal
E. revolve
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cleanse (rid of something unpleasant or unwanted) is synonymous with absolve (declare
free from guilt, blame or sin).
Ques 257. ABODE

A. Sanctuary
B. Residence
C. Reformatory
D. Dwelling
E. shelter
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The word abode which is a formal or literary term means a house or home, 'dwelling' is its
closest synonym. The word 'residence' can be ruled out because it refers only to a person's home, where
as the word 'abode' has a wider connotation. For eg. the abode of animals, the abode of god but it is
absurd to say the residence of god or the residence of animals.
Ques 258. EPITOMIZE

A. Disappoint
B. Distend
C. Exemplify
D. Generate
E. lengthen
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The word epitomize means to be a perfect example of something. The word 'exemplify' is
its closest synonym.
Ques 259. REPEAL

A. Continue
B. Prolong
C. Promote
D. Reject
E. abrogate
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Repeal means to officially cancel(a law or an act of parliament)the word 'abrogate' also
means the same.
Ques 260. ABSCOND
A. run away
B. give away
C. move away
D. forbid
E. waste away
Answer: Option E
Explanation: Abscond means to leave quickly and secretly to escape from custody or to avoid arrest.
Ques 261. REPRIEVE

A. Save
B. Forgive
C. Victimize
D. Cure
E. influence
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Reprieve means to pardon or forgive.
Ques 262. CRYPTIC

A. Spurious
B. Obscure
C. Imposing
D. Superficial
E. irrelevant
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Cryptic means mysterious. Among the options, obscure is synonymous with it.
Ques 263. INCLINATION

A. Penchant
B. Skill
C. Fame
D. Favour
E. delight
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Inclination means penchant or predilection.
Ques 264. TRIBUTE

A. Declaration
B. Accolade
C. Criticism
D. Anger
E. assertion
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Tribute and accolade (praise) are synonymous.
Fill in the Blanks : Preposition
Ques 265. Take this medicine and you will get rid -------- the bad cold
A. Of
B. Over
C. At
D. from
Answer: Option A
Ques 266. I am angry with him ------ his carelessness.

A. On
B. To
C. For
D. at
Answer: Option C
Ques 267. It is dangerous to enter -------- the enemy’s camp.

A. In
B. On
C. By
D. into
Answer: Option D
Ques 268. It is dangerous to enter -------- the enemy’s camp.

A. In
B. On
C. By
D. into
Answer: Option D
Ques 269. My cousin has invested a lot of money ---------- farming.

A. In
B. For
C. On
D. into
Answer: Option A
Ques 270. He was vexed ------ Sohan for his behavior.

A. At
B. To
C. Upon
D. with
Answer: Option D
Ques 271. I brought him ------ with great difficulty.

A. Up
B. About
C. Round
D. in
Answer: Option A
Ques 272. Give example pertinent --------- the case.

A. On
B. To
C. For
D. with
Answer: Option B
Ques 273. There is no exception -------- this rule.

A. For
B. To
C. At
D. about
Answer: Option B
Ques 274. I do not agree --------- you on this point.

A. To
B. In
C. At
D. with
Answer: Option D
Ques 275. The candidates were tense --------- expectancy.

A. With
B. In
C. From
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 276. Good sleep is necessary ______ good health.

A. Of
B. For
C. At
D. from
Answer: Option B
Ques 277. He is used ________ such hardships.

A. At
B. In
C. To
D. for
Answer: Option C
Ques 278. Reema is married ________ Rajesh.

A. To
B. With
C. At
D. between
Answer: Option A
Ques 279. We should travel ________ night, as it will be cooler.

A. In
B. At
C. With
D. by
Answer: Option A
Ques 280. One must keep _________ something for the rainy day.
A. By
B. For
C. In
D. at
Answer: Option C
Ques 281. Mr. Rana has no control _________ his student.

A. On
B. Over
C. With
D. at
Answer: Option B
Ques 282. Under heavy load the bridge may give _______ .
A. Out
B. Way
C. Away
D. in
Answer: Option B
Ques 283. He has been waiting for me ________ three weeks.

A. For
B. From
C. Since
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 284. The thieves quarrelled among them ________ the division of booty.
A. About
B. In
C. Above
D. on
Answer: Option A
Ques 285. The thunder was accompanied _______ heavy rains.

A. With
B. By
C. Up
D. into
Answer: Option A
Correct the Error in the sentences:
Ques 286. The organization aims to providing with satellite-based data on climate-relevent
information with highest possible levels of accuracy and realiability.
A. to provide with
B. at providing with
C. to provide
D. to the provision of
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The organisation aims 'at providing' or 'to provide' something. The use of 'with' is incorrect.
It aims 'to provide' something not 'provide with something'.
Ques 287. Underwater archaeology has huge potential, as it could be a time-consuming and costly
way to study the past.
A. as it is
B. but it is
C. since it could be
D. but it could
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The first part of the sentence says something positive about underwater archaeology (has
huge potential) and the second part brings out its drawbacks. It is a contradiction and hence it is apt to
use a conjunction which brings out this contrast. The conjunction 'but' has to replace 'as'. Also the idea
stated is given as a fact. The first part is in simple past and the second part should also be in the simple
past. The verb 'is' has to replace 'could be' which suggests a supposition. The correction therefore is 'but
it is a time-consuming'.
Ques 288. Each galaxy is surrounded by a giant sphere of dark matter more than 10 times so wide
asthe visible portion of the galaxy.
A. the width of
B. so wider than
C. of the width to
D. in width than
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It is 'more than 10 times the width of' something else. It has to take a noun and not an
adjective. The comparison is between the width of the dark matter and the width of the visible portion
of the galaxy. The comparison is brought out with the use of 'more than'. Hence the use of 'as wide as'
or 'wider than' becomes absurd. The correction is '10 times of the width of'.
Ques 289. Studies have revealed what more is the reason people are asked to come up with in
support of an idea, the less value they ascribe to each.
A. what more reasons
B. that more is the reason
C. what is the reason
D. that the more reasons
Answer: Option D
Explanation: There are two sentences combined using a conjunction. The first clause is 'studies have
revealed'. The rest forms another noun clause. What have the studies revealed? They have revealed
that. Hence the appropriate conjunction is 'that'. This clause should have one main verb which is 'asked'.
People are asked to come up with reasons in support of an idea. 'The more they are asked, the less they'
is the appropriate way of framing this. The correction therefore is 'that the more reasons people are
asked, the less value they'.
Ques 290. When he is short of money, he earns a little extra cash on being told the fortunes using
a pack of tarot cards.
A. by being told fortunes
B. by telling fortunes
C. by telling of the fortune of
D. on telling fortunes
Answer: Option B
Explanation: He is short of money. So he earns extra cash 'by' doing something. Hence 'by' has to
replace on. He earns it telling fortunes using the tarot cards.' 'Fortune-telling' is taken up as a profession.
Ques 291. Mobile phones are now-a-days used not just to make calls or send and receive text
messages but to also carry on financial transactions.
A. but also to carry on
B. but to carry out also
C. but also to carry out
D. and to carry out
Answer: Option C
Explanation: They are used 'not only to make calls but also to carry out'. The use of'to before also' is
ungrammatical. Also financial transactions are 'carried out'. 'carry on' is in apt in this context. The
correction is 'but also to carry out'.
Ques 292. Scientists have estimated that millions of a creatures living in water had been dying
every year if they become entangled in plastic pollution or ingest it.
A. every year is dying as
B. has died every year as if
C. die every year when
D. was dying every year when
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Scientists say that it happens 'every year'. Hence it is most apt to use the simple present
tense (die) in this context. Also the use of 'if' as the conjunction is illogical. They die 'when they become
entangled in'.
Ques 293. One of the grievances of the Kashmiri locals is about the overbearing presence of
security personnel in residential areas.
A. the overbearing present of
B. overbearing presence in the
C. overbearing in presence of
D. in the overbearing presence of
Answer: Option E
Explanation: The given sentence is grammatically correct.
Ques 294. One of the chief emotional differences between man and other animals is that some
human desires, unlikely that of animals, are essentially boundless and incapable of complete
satisfaction.
A. unlike that of animals,
B. unlike those of animals,
C. unlikely those in animals
D. unlikeable in animals,
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The comparison is between human desires and the desires of other animals. As 'human
desires' is plural 'those should be used in place of 'that'. Also the use of 'unlikely' is absurd. It is a
comparison. 'Unlike the desires of animals, human desires are insatiable' is the suggested meaning.
Hence the correction is 'unlike those of animals'.
Ques 295. Compared to most other diseases, in which bacteria or parasites take over the body, in
cancer, the forces to destruct is more close to be entwined with the fundamental mechanisms
of life.
A. of destructing is mostly to be
B. of destruction is more close and
C. in destruction are most close to be
D. of destruction are more closely
Answer: Option D
Explanation: It is 'the forces of destruction' or 'the forces causing destruction'. These 'forces are more
closely'. Forces is plural and hence 'are' has to replace 'is'. They 'are closely entwined with' something.
Hence the correction is 'forces of destruction are more closely entwined' the use of the phrase 'close to
be entwined' is absurd.
Ques 296. As a child, she was looking plainly but now she has turned out remarkable pretty.
A. looked plainly
B. is looking plain
C. looked plain
D. had looked plainly
Answer: Option C
Explanation: To 'look plain' means to be ordinary-looking which is what the sentence suggests. She was
'ordinary-looking' or she was 'looking plain' but later she turned out to be beautiful. Hence, 'looked
plain' in the simple past is the most appropriate replacement for the part given in bold.
Ques 297. They asked that how much long I had been learning French.
A. for how long
B. for how much long
C. how much long
D. that long
Answer: Option A
Explanation: It is a question which has been given in the indirect speech. Questions, when converted to
indirect speech do not take the conjunction 'that'. The use of 'much' before 'long' is grammatically
incorrect. It has to be 'for how long I had been' as given in option (A).
Ques 298. It might be located right in the capital's posh area but the moment you step into this
famous restaurant, cosy and warm enfolding you.
A. cosy and warm enfolds you
B. cosy and warmth enfolds you
C. cosiness and warmth enfolds you
D. cosiness and warmth is enfolding you
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The last part is the main clause of the second sentence 'the moment you'. Hence it needs a
finite verb. The sentence needs a verb in the present tense. Hence 'enfolds' should replace 'enfolding'.
Also 'cosy and warm' is the subject which has to be given in the noun form. The correction is 'cosiness
and warmth enfolds you'.
Ques 299. To be over weighed is not the same as being obese.

A. Being over weighed
B. To be over weight
C. Being over weight
D. Being over weight
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The comparison is between 'being overweight' and 'being obese'. As the second part of the
sentence has 'being obese' parallelism demands that the first part also takes the same be-form. Hence,
'being overweight' is the correct way of expressing the idea.
Ques 300. Unless I have a peaceful environment, I will be not able to complete my work.
A. will not be able
B. am not able
C. would be not able
D. was not able
Answer: Option A
Explanation: When there are two parts of a verb given in a sentence (will be) the negative has to come
between the two (i.e) 'will not be'.
Psychometric Test for Merchant Navy
While preparing for Merchant Navy Personality Test Questions please go through
the below theory.
Personality Test Scores provide a full analysis of a person’s personality and different
behavioral aspects.
This module is to test your overall personality and is used to assess candidates in
people-interaction and people-management roles.
This section is easy to answer as there is no right or wrong answer. But you need to
complete the questions in time.
Mostly, time is very less and it is compulsory to answer ALL the questions. Say,
you have to complete 80 questions in 20 minutes time.
The personality assessment of a person is provided based on traits on the Big Five
Model of personality.
Extroversion – Person who is extroverted, talkative, socially confident.
Conscientiousness: Person who is well organized, responsible, hardworking and

achievement-oriented.
Openness To experience: A broad-minded, unconventional, imaginative person

with rich artistic sensitivity.
Agreeableness: A kind, sympathetic, cooperative and warm person.

Emotional Stability: A calm, happy, undisturbed and confident person.
Personality Test Sample Questions
Question 1 . Select the option with which you agree the most.
Option a. I get a lot of invitations from friends.
Option b. I have an open mind towards what other people might say.
Question 2. Select the option with which you agree the most.
Option a. I smile at everyone I see.
Option b. I always ask for a bill (cash memo) when I buy stuff.
Option a. I often regret my decisions.
Option b. Doing multiple things at one time can be fun.
Option a. I make a schedule to study for my exams.
Option b. I am uncomfortable interacting with the opposite sex.

Option a. I like to decorate my room.
Option b. I am very polite and respectful to everyone I meet.
Option a. I often regret the decisions made by me.
Option b. Doing multiple things at one time can be pretty stressful.
Question 7. I don’t mind asking questions if I don’t understand what the other
person is saying.
a. Very Inaccurate
b. Somewhat Inaccurate
c. Neither accurate nor inaccurate
d. Somewhat Accurate
e. Very Accurate
Question 8. I look for proof before believing in anything.

a. Very Inaccurate
b. Somewhat Inaccurate
c. Neither accurate nor Inaccurate
d. Somewhat Accurate
e. Very Accurate
Question 9. Please, read the statement and indicate whether you agree or disagree
with it:
I am the kind of person who sees the big picture, focusing less on the small
details
● Agree
● Disagree
Question 10. I do not fear taking risk in any situation.

● Very inaccurate
● somewhat inaccurate
● Neither inaccurate nor accurate
● Somewhat accurate
● very accurate
Question 11. I consider myself to be a deep thinker

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 12. I have no problem in giving attention to know about the others
mental state.
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 13. I make a proper plant my task and try to work through it
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 14. Select the option with which you agree the most
● I lack the energy to initiate any new activity
● I believe people may not feel comfortable in my company
● I prefer to pay my bills on time
● I have to face the audience, I do not lose my confidence
● People nowadays cannot be trusted
● I am someone who is hard to be amused
● I believe in making judgements based solely on reasons
● I enjoy solving riddles and puzzles
● What others think of me bothers me a lot
● I do not find working with abstract ideas interesting
● Given a chance I would definitely like to be centre of attraction
● I prefer to take time before reaching a conclusion
● I do not feel comfortable in loud music
● It is very easy to satisfy me
● I think twice before I utter something before people
● I seek answers which are straight forward and not complex
● I keep myself out of philosophical talks
● I like to live every moment in excitement
● I have a huge tendency to rush into things
● I panic very easily
● I love attending large parties
● I am a kind of person who is not very easy to satisfy
● I like keeping my social circle small
● I eat a bit too much even when I am not hungry
● I am comfortable with the way I am
● I would like to work following every single rule.
● I never behave unpredictable
● I do not let take others advantage of my being polite to them
● I do not care about neatness and cleanliness
● I find myself busy in more than one activity at a time
Question 30. I keep taking major decisions on hold

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 31. I sometimes tend to think impractically

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 32. I take decisions based on accurate knowledge for other than
guessing
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 33. I find it very difficult to adjust myself in changing environment

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 34. I like doing only routine work

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 35. I blame myself when things don't go in the planned way
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
● I find myself to be inventive
● I get concerned thinking about well being of other people
● I set goals which are realistic
● I make efforts to maintain associations with people
● I would like to be in a leadership position
● I have sufficient resources to cope with stress
● I am not too conscious about the way I look
● I tried to get my work done efficiently
● I do not Envy successful people
● I tend to indulge in thorough processing of information
● I am good in expressing myself gesturally
● I do not complain to things not given to me immediately
● I do not fine visiting museums interesting
● I look out for ways of finding faults in others
● I lose my important documents
● I can be sometimes unsympathetic and remain aloof from others
● I end up being kind and considerate to almost every people
● I do not like to pass a smile every time I meet a known person
● I have very few artistic interests
● I can sometimes be quite disorganised
Question 46. I can sometimes be careless

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 47. I See myself as someone who does not get upset easily
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 48. Select option which you agree the most

● I tend to think highly of myself
● People have an opinion about me of being distracted

● I think too much about an embarrassing incident
● I would not like to go very deep in any work

● I show interest in new and innovative things
● I can make others work according to me

● I feel lonely very often
● I do not like doing tasks which require a lot of concentration
Question 52. I tend to become very anxious when my exams are nearby
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 53. Making plans in the last moment is always very successful
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 54. I am a kind of person who readily changes opinion

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 55. Select the option which you agree the most
● I hardly feel guilty
● When angry I drive very fast
● I do not apologize easily
● I enjoy making fun of others
● I see myself as a complaint person
● I see myself as a mild mannered and forgiving person
Question 58. I tried to keep cool in every situation
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 59. I am bad in striking conversation with others

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 60. I generally avoid making detailed plans and programs

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 61. Given an option I would choose to live in my comfort zone

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
● I always worry that I make commit mistake in my work
● I let things work at their own speed
● I see myself as organised and disciplined
● I see myself as curious and innovative
● Taking blame for others deed is not my trait
● I lack the urge to visit new places
● Whenever I can I seek to avoid conflicts
● My interest are a wide variety
Question 66. I preferred to be unnoticed and out of line light

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 67. I find it difficult to adjust to a new situation

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 68. Mostly after doing a work I regret it later

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
● I cannot always think about the consequences of my work
● I don't mind putting pressure on people to get the work done
● I never fail to show keen concerns for others
● I always Excel in things I take up for work
Question 71. I see myself as someone who values the nature's beauty
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 72. Select option with which you agree the most
● I usually hold back myself song expressing my view points
● I make efforts to understand myself
● I see myself as someone who is assertive and does not fear to take charge
● I do not get easily bothered about things
● Others regard me as a very modest person
● I will prefer quietly over reading a book over going to party
Question 75. I easily become interested for thrilling activities

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 76. I am unable to sleep without having sleeping pills

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 77. I feel no shame in washing and ironing clothes to help my

mother
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 78. While helping others I believe that others will also be equally
helpful
● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
● I find it difficult to mix in groups
● I easily get upset
● I leave my belongings here and there
● I am not easily disturbed
● As soon as I get a task, I complete it right away
● I do not consider switching over jobs
● I do not think much before taking an action
● I find it easy to adapt in any environment
● My belief can be deceptive
● I consider myself to be lazy while doing work
● I make use of various techniques to improve my performance
● Achieving high standards is my goal
● I am able to tolerate any amount of stress
● I do not like getting attention
● I want to have control over situations
● I work very hard for my exams
● Others see me as a person of full curiosity
● I usually plan my every activity
● Learning good manners serves as an integral component to me
● I see myself as a trustworthy person
● I share a comfortable relationship with almost every person
● I do not mind cooperating with others
● I hardly can be rude to others
● I work following only my inner self
● I want to experience a lot of adventure in my life
● I am a dutiful person
● I prefer to be led by others than to lead myself
● Solving very complex problems is fun for me
● I very rarely get irritated
● I want to spread joy and happiness
● I have a habit of eating too much at a time
● I do not have problem working under pressure
● I am always full of energy
● I like to work on familiar things than on novel ones
● I always find myself busy
● I show a high preference to be alone
● I am a person who doesn't need much time to make friends
● I like to take things easy
● Friends share their problems with me
● I am very attached to norms and rules of ancestors
Question 99. I always look for ways to question authority

● Very inaccurate
● very accurate
Question 100. I am confident in my own capabilities

● Strongly disagree
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 101. I prefer working in a harmonious team

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 102. I like to think of myself as being supportive and helpful
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 103. I don't tend to lose my temper easily

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 104. I think it is valuable to recognise my own shortcomings

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 105. Building friendships at work is important to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 106. I can cope with high level of stress easily
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 107. I often put the needs of others about my own

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 108. I am most effective when I am working in a team

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 109. It takes a lot to make me angry

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 110. Hi welcome difficult and stretching assignments
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 111. Understanding my own strength is important to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 112. I enjoy meeting people from backgrounds very different to my

own
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 113. I thrive on juggling multiple demands

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 114. Creating Team Spirit comes naturally to me
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 115. Taking other people's feeling in consideration is important to

me
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 116. I am comfortable when faced with uncertainty

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 117. I feel positive about myself and my capabilities

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 118. I enjoy influencing people to my way of thinking

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 119. Empathizing with others comes easily to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 120. I remain calm even in tense situations

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 121. I don't like constructive criticism bother me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 122. I very much enjoy working in a team

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 123. I will adjust my thinking when faced with new information
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 124. If I see someone needs help I try to do all I can for them
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 125. I believe I deserve the success I have

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
● Question 126. I quickly pick up on others feelings and emotions
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 127. I am usually successful defending my own view point

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 128. I am quick to adapt to new circumstances

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 129. I see the funny side when people laugh at my expense
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 130. I feel happiest when I know that I have to I get good service to
others
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 131. I feel assured that I can do what is expected to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 132. I tend to be quite a relaxed person

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 133. I enjoy convincing others to change their view point

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 134. I adapt easily to change
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 135. I love hearing people talk about themselves

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 136. I find it easy to get my own point of view across to others
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 137. I welcome feedback on my performance from others

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 138. I enjoy competitive situations
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 139. I Enjoy having variety in my work

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 140. I don't feel anxious or tense very often

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 141. I love hearing about new ideas and innovations

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 142. hitting deadlines is very important to me
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 143. I often put the needs of others above my own

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 144. I have a wide circle of contacts and friends

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 145. I try not to let things get me down

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 146. I like to plan my work in advance
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 147. I get excited by new theories and abstract ideas

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 148. I enjoy building relationships with all sorts of people

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 149. I tend to get over setbacks very easily

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 150. I try to get along with the people I meet
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 151. I would describe myself as being very curious

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 152. I very much enjoy working in a team

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 153. It takes a lot to make me angry

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 154. I prefer having very challenging goals and tasks
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 155. I have a strong sense of adventure

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 156. I like my life to happen at a very fast pace

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 157. I remain calm even in tense situations

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 158. I am ambitious in all that I do
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 159. Empathizing with others comes to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 160. Taking risks comes relatively easily to me

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 161. I don't tend to lose my temper easily

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 162. I believe that taking care of details is very important
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 163. I like to think of myself as being supportive and helpful

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 164. I'd like to get involved in intellectual debates

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 165. I believe the rules are there to be followed

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 166. Taking other people's feelings in consideration is important to
me
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 167. I tend to be centre of attraction quite often

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 168. I value the opinions of others

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 169. I am happy to take lead in a group

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 170. When I am working from home, I plan our schedule and adhere
to it
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 171. I like to do things I am not supposed to and break the rules
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 172. I don't hesitate when making decisions

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 173. After finishing a task I review it in my mind, double checking

the quality of work
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 174. I make a grocery list before going to the store

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 175. It takes me some time before I actually get down to work
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 176. I almost always complete what I started

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 177. I am good in making sure that small details are not overlooked
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 178. I work at a pace that allows me to finish work on time

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 179. Sometimes it is hard for me to make a decision

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 180. It's better to be polite and rule obedient rather than being
carefree
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 181. I usually keep my feelings to myself

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 182. Rules are made to be broken

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 183. Once I make decision, I feel fairly confident that it's correct.
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 184. I always double check my work to be sure there are no mistakes
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 185. I use a filing system for important documents.

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 186. I have to be very sick to miss a day of work

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 187. I lose my temper quickly but regain composure too quickly.
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 188. I am a rule obedient person

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 189. I always keep a lid on my feelings

● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree
Question 190. I tend to have mood swings more often than people around me.
● Disagree
● Neither
● Agree
● Strongly agree

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Page |3

Fluid Mechanics & Pumps:

Ques 1. One litre of water occupies a volume of

Ques 2. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine

Ques 3. In a depressed nappe

Ques 4. In one dimensional flow, the flow

Ques 5. The kinematic viscosity is the

Ques 10. According to equation of continuity,

Ques 13. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?

Ques 14. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as

Ques 15. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is

Ques 16. An ideal fluid is frictionless and incompressible.

Ques 24. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that

Ques 25. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called

Ques 28. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

Ques 29. Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to

Ques 30. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is

Ques 31. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.

Ques 33. Which of the following statement is wrong?

Ques 40. Water is __________ liquid.

Ques 41. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as

Ques 44. The buoyancy depends upon the

Ques 45. Stoke is the unit of

Ques 47. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when

Ques 49. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is

Ques 54. The metacentric height is the distance between the

Ques 56. Water is a __________ fluid.

Ques 62. The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the

Ques 63. Bernoulli's equation is applied to

Ques 64. A fluid having no viscosity is known as

Ques 69. According to Archimede's principle, if a body is immersed partially or fully in a

1. Bernoulli's principle is applicable to ideal incompressible fluid

A. (1), (2) and (3)

Ques 76. What is an ideal fluid?

Ques 77. Minor losses do not make any serious effect in

Ques 78. Minor losses occur due to

A. sudden enlargement in pipe

A. the minor loss

Ques 80. The flow of fluid will be laminar when,

A. Reynold's number is less than 2000

A. (1), (3), (4) and (5)

Ques 82. The specific weight of the fluid depends upon

Ques 85. Density of water is maximum at

Ques 89. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

Ques 90. Surface tension

Ques 91. The units of viscosity are

Ques 92. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

Ques 94. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

Ques 95. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

A. the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity

Ques 104. Metacentric height is given as the distance between

Ques 105. The buoyancy depends on

Ques 108. Capillary action is due to the

Ques 110. Manometer is used to measure

Ques 111. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity

Ques 115. Buoyant force is

Ques 117. Center of buoyancy is the

Ques 118. A body floats in stable equilibrium

Ques 122. Metacentre is the point of intersection of

(d) between e.g. and center of pressure

(b) above the centroid

(a) centre of gravity

Ques 138. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

Ques 139. Non uniform flow occurs when