1692096753802569

Absence of cartilage in the area
between tragus and crus of helix

is known as :
a. Antitragus
b. Cymba conchae
c. Incisura terminalis
d. Fissures of santorini
Which of the following incision
takes the advantage of incisura
terminalis :
a. Permeatal incision
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following statement
is correct in reference to external
auditory canal :
a. Its outer 1/3 is directed downwards, backwards
and medially
b. Its inner 2/3 is directed forwards, upwards and
medially
c. Its inner 2/3 is directed forwards, downwards
and medially
d. Its outer 1/3 is directed upwards, forwards and
medially
is correct
a. Length of post wall of E AC (external
auditory canal) is longer than ant wall
b. Length of post wall of EAC is shorter than
ant wall
c. Length of ant wall of EAC is shorter than
post wall
d. Ant and post wall of EAC are of equal length
is correct :
a. Attic lies medial to pars flaccida
b. Attic lies medial to scutum
c. Attic lies medial to pars flaccida and scutum
d. Attic lies above the level of pars flaccida
Which of the following is not a
part of middle ear :
a. Epitympanum
b. Aditus
c. Mesotympanum
d. Hypotympanum
If petrosquamosal suture persists as
bony plate and separates the
superficial squamosal cells from
deeper petrosal cells, it is known as :
a. Tegmen antri
b. Tegmen tympani
c.
d. Sinus plate
Stapedius muscle is supplied by
facial nerve because it is a :
a. First branchial arch muscle

b. Second branchial arch muscle
c. Third branchial arch muscle
d. Fourth branchial arch muscle
is correct :
a. Incus develops from 1st branchial arch
b. Malleus develops from 2nd branchial arch
c. Stapes develops from 1st branchial arch
d. Incus develops from 2nd branchial arch
Which of the following nerve
does not supply the external
auditory canal:
a. Auriculotemporal nerve
b. Auricular branch of vagus
c. Facial nerve
d. Great auricular nerve
Number of centres from which
boney labyrinth ossifies are:
a. 6
b. 8
c. 14
d. 10
Stapes of middle ear
develops from : @
a. 1st branchial arch

b. 2nd branchial arch
c. 1st and 2nd branchial arch
d. 3rd branchial arch
Which of the following muscle
is not related to eustachian
tube:
a. Tensor veli palatini
b. Salpingopharyngeus
c. Stylopharyngeus
d. Levator veli palatini
Tympanic membrane develops
from:
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. All the three germinal layers
Which of the following is related
superiorly to external auditory
canal :
a. Mastoid air cells and facial nerve
b. Middle cranial fossa
c. Temporomandibular joint
d. Parotid gland
All the structures are related
to aditus except : @
a. Facial nerve
b. Lateral simicircular canal
c. Short process of incus
d. Tensor tympani muscle
part of temporal bone :
a. Squamous
b. Petrous
c. Scaphoid
d. Tympanic
Fissures of santorini are present
in :
a. Ant wall of bony EAC
b. Post wall of cartilaginous EAC
c. Roof of bony EAC
d. Floor of cartilaginous EAC
Foramen of Huschke are
present in:
a. Floor of cartilaginous EAC

b. Roof of bony EAC
c. Post wall of bony EAC
d. Anteroinferior part of bony EAC
Sinus tympani is bounded :
a. Above by pyramid and below by ponticus

b. Above by ponticus and below by subiculum
c. Below by ponticus and above by subiculum
d. Above by fossa incudis and below by
pyramid
Crus commune is formed by
union of :
a. Post and lateral SCC

b. Lateral and Superior SCC
c. Post and superior SCC
d. Horizontal and superior SCC
Scala vestibuli and scala
tympani communicate with other
through an opening called :
a. Ductus reuniens
b. Helicotrema
c. Crus commune
d. Cochlear aqueduct
Ductus reuniens connects :
a. Utricle and saccule

b. Saccule and cochlear duct
c. Utricle and cochlear duct
d. Cochlear duct and endolymphatic sac
Which of the following supports
the organ of corti :
a. Tectorial membrane
b. Basilar membrane
c.
d. Stria vascularis
Hypoaesthesia in post meatal
wall in a case of vestibular
schwannoma is known as :
a. Brown sign →
b. mastoid
→
Pitting edema over
c.
d. → Hematoma over mastoid
is carried out in treatment of :
a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b.
c. Vander - Hoeve syndrome
d. BPPV
Peripheral vestibular receptor
cristae lies in :
a. Utricle
b. Endolymphatic sac
c. Saccule
d. Ampullated end of SCC
Peripheral receptor macula
lies in :
a. Ampullated end of SCC

b. Utricle and saccule
c. Endolymphatic sac
d. Crus commune
Ceruminous glands are : @
a. Modified eccrine glands

b. Modified apocrine glands #
c. Modified sebaceous glands
d. Modified holocrine glands
Cone of light is due to :
*
a. Malleal folds
b. Anterioinferior quadrant
c. Handle of malleus is
d. Annulus tympanicus
In otoscopy most reliable sign
is :
a. Lateral process of malleus
b. Handle of malleus
c. Umbo
d. Cone of light
Narrowest part of middle ear
is :
a. Hypotympanum
b. Epitympanum
c. Mesotympanum
d. Attic
in :
a. Mastoid
b. Epitympanum
c. Hypotympanum
d. Mesotympanum
Sensory nerve supply of
middle ear is by :
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Mandibular nerve
Infection of CNS spread in
inner ear through : *
a. Cochlear aqueduct
c. Vestibular aqueduct
d. Hyrtl fissure
Endolymph in inner ear : *
a. Is a filtrate of blood serum

b. Is secreted by stria vascularis
c. Is secreted by hair cells
d. Is secreted by tectorial membrane
Labyrinthine artery is a
branch of : *
a. Internal carotid artery

b. Basilar artery
c. Post cerebellar artery
d. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
Which of the following attain
adult size before birth : *
a. Ear ossicles
b. External auditory canal
c. Pinnna
d. Mastoid
Nerve of the pterygoid canal
is also known as :
a.
b. Vidian nerve
c. Nerve of Kuntz
d. Jacobson nerve
Singular nerve supplies :
a. Superior semicircular canal

b. Lateral semicircular canal
c. Posterior semicircular canal
d. Horizontal semicircular canal
Malleus and incus develop
from : @
a. 1st arch
b. 2nd arch
c. 1st and 2nd arch
d. 2nd and 3rd arch
a. Solid angle
b. Cerebellopontine angle
c. Sinudural angle
d. Genu of 7th nerve
Angle of Citelli is formed
between which two structures
:@
a. Dural plate and external auditory canal
b. Dural plate and digastric ridge
c. Dural plate and sinus plate
d. Dural plate and bony labyrinth
Which of the following
statement is true :
a. Facial recess lies medial to sinus tympani
b.
squamosal cells from deeper petrosal
cells
c.
landmark to locate endolymphatic sac
d. Arcuate eminence is landmark for lateral
semicircular canal
Endolymph is formed in :
a. Utricle
c. Scala media
d. Scala tympani
Stapes suprastructure
develops from :
a.
b.
c. Both a & b
d. Both a & b plus bony otic capsule
All are true about Jacobson
nerve except :
a. It is a branch of superior ganglion of vagus

b. Supplies middle ear and mastoid air cells
c. Supplies secretomotor fibres to parotid
d. Section of this nerve relieves gustatory
sweating
which of the following nerve :
a. Ophthalmic division of CN 5th

b. Abducens CN 6th
c. Facial nerve
d. CN 8th
Otoacoustic emissions arise
from : *
a. Organ of corti
b. Inner hair cells
c. Both inner and outer hair cells
d. Outer hair cells
Which of the following test can
be used to detect damage to
cochlea:
Caloric test
Weber test
ABC test
Rinne test
Stapedial reflex is mediated
by :
a. V and VII nerves

b. V and VIII nerves
c. VII and VIII nerves
d. VII and VI nerves
Speech frequencies include:
a. 125, 25o and 500 Hz
b. 250, 500 and 1000 Hz
c. 500, 1000 and 2000 Hz
d. 1000, 2000 and 3000 Hz
The cough response while
cleaning the ear canal is
mediated by stimulation of : *
a. V cranial nerve
b. VII cranial nerve
c. X cranial nerve
d. IX cranial nerve
Higher auditory center
determine : *
a. Sound frequency
b. Speech discrimination
c. Sound localization
d. Loudness
Primary receptor cells of
hearing :
a. Dieter cells
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Tunnel of corti
d. Hair cells
What is the functional areal
ratio of TM and ossicles : @
a. 14 : 1
b. 17 : 1
c. 18 : 1
d. 1.3 : 1
Total transformer ratio of
middle ear is : @
a. 14:1
b. 18:1
c. 1.3:1
d. 16:1
a. Sensorineural hearing loss
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. Tympanosclerosis
d.
a. Chronic otitis media
b. Normal individuals
c. Wax ear
d. Otomycosis
Bing test is positive in :
a. Otosclerosis
b. Normal persons
c. Otitis media with effusion
d. Perforation of tympanic membrane
Or
all of the following except :

a. Normal persons
b. Otosclerosis or stapedial fixation
c. Presbycusis
d. Acoustic neuroma
In right middle ear pathology
Weber test will be :
a. Normal
b. Central
c. Lateralized to Rt
d. Lateralized to Lt
Decreased bone conduction
in an audiogram indicates :
a. TM perforation
b. Ossicular dislocation
c. Ossicular fixation
d. Damage to cochlea
Caloric test determines the
function of :
a. Superior semicircular canal

b. Lateral semicircular canal
c. Posterior semicircular canal
d. Utricule
On Dix Hallpike testing
nystagmus of central origin :
a. Can be easily fatigued by repeated testing

b. Has a fixed direction
c. Appears immediately as soon as head is
in critical position without a latent period
d. Lasts for few seconds
characteristic of conductive
hearing loss :
a. Weber lateralized to worse ear
b. Speech discrimination is good
c. Normal ABC
d. Loss may exceed 60 dB
Which of the following is
correct for conductive hearing
loss :
a. Positive Rinne test
b. Speech discrimination is good
c. No gap between AC and BC curve
d. Higher frequencies are more often
affected
A middle aged Pt presented with
Rt sided hearing loss. Rinne test
was positive in Lt ear and
Negative in Rt ear. Weber test
lateralized to left side. Likely
diagnosis is : *
a. Rt conductive hearing loss
b. Lt sensorineural hearing loss
c. Lt conductive hearing loss
d. Rt sensorineural hearing loss
Tone decay test is positive in :
a. Cochlear deafness
b. Neural deafness
c. Middle ear problem
d. Otosclerosis
All are subjective tests of
audiometry except :
a. Tone decay test
b. Impedance audiometry
c. Speech audiometry
d. Pure tone audiometry
Impedance audiometry is
done by using frequency
probe of :
a. 220 Hz
b. 440 Hz
c. 550 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
A lady has bilateral hearing loss
since 4 yrs which worsened
during pregnancy. Type of
tympanogram will be : *
a. Ad
b. As
c. B
d. C
A pt presents with hearing loss in Rt
ear following an accident. TM is
intact but PTA shows an AB gap of
55 dB in RT ear with normal cochlear
reserve. Most likely tympanogram in
Rt ear will be : *
a. B type
b. Ad type
c. As type
d. C type
Flat tympanogram is seen in :
@
a. Otosclerosis
b. Secretory otitis media
c. Eustachian tube obstruction
d.
High frequency audiometry is
used in : *
a. Otosclerosis
b.
c. Ototoxicity
d. Non organic hearing loss
Which is the best screening
test for auditory function of
neonates : *
a. Pure tone audiometry
b. Stapedial reflex
c. Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs)
d. Brainstem evoked response audiometry
(BERA)
Which is the inv of choice in
assessing the hearing loss in
neonates : *
a. Impedance audiometry
b. BERA
c. OAE
d. Free field audiometry
In the Brain stem evoked
response audiometry wave V
is generated from :
a. Cochlear nucleus
b. Superior olivary complex
c. Inferior colliculus
d. Lateral lemniscus
All are the types of
tympanogram except : @
a. A
b. Ad
c. Ab
d. As
BPPV is treated by : @
a.
b. Toynbee maneuver
c. Valsalva maneuver
d. Siegilisation
A false negative fistula test is
not seen in which of the
following condition : @
a. Labyrinthine fistula with dead ear

b. Cholesteatoma bridging an inner ear
fistula
c. Hypermobile stapes foot plate
d. Impacted wax with inner ear fistula
Vestibular evoked myogenic
potential (VEMP) detects the
lesion of : *
a. Cochlear nerve
b. Superior vestibular nerve
c. Inferior vestibular nerve it
d. Inflammatory myopathy
Commonest cause of hearing
loss in children is: *
a. CSOM
b. ASOM
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. OME
Rupture or perforation of
tympanic membrane causes:
a. 10-40 dB hearing loss
b. 5-15 dB hearing loss
c. 20 dB hearing loss
d. 40-55 dB hearing loss
Hyperacusis is defined as :
a. Hearing of only loud sounds

b. Normal sounds heard as loud and
painful
c. Not able to hear at all
d. Hearing better in noisy surroundings
A person came to doctor c/o
hearing loss of an ear. Rinne is
+ve in both ear and weber is
lateralized to Rt ear. What is the
next step : *
a. Pt is normal and no need to do any
thing
b. Remove wax from his Rt ear
c. Repeat Rinne test
d. Do Schwabach test
Which of the following is most
common cause of SNHL in
adults :
a.
b. Presbycusis (age related hearing loss)
c. Trauma
d. NIHL
Conductive hearing loss is
seen in all of the following
except :
a. Otosclerosis
b. Otitis media with effusion
c. Endolymphatic hydrops
d. Chronic otitis media
condition causes maximum
hearing loss :
a. Ossicular dislocation with intact
tympanic membrane
b. Ossicular disruption with tympanic
membrane perforation
c. Otitis media with effusion
d. Perforation tympanic membrane
condition causes maximum
hearing loss :
Ossicular dislocation with intact
a.
tympanic membrane ✗
b. Ossicular disruption with tympanic
membrane perforation
c. Stapedial fixation is
d. Perforation tympanic membrane
A patient has bilateral
conductive hearing loss and
tinnitus with positive family
history. Likely diagnosis is : *
a. Tympanosclerosis
b. Otosclerosis
c.
d. Otitis media with effusion
A 55 yrs old female presents with
h/o progressive hearing loss with
tinnitus and giddiness. DD
includes all except : *
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Endolymphatic hydrops
c. Histiocytosis-X
d. Meningioma
All are ototoxic drugs except:
a. Ethacrinic acid
b. Furosemide
c. Propanolol
d. Quinine
Which one of the following is
an ototoxic drug :
a. Ciproflox
b. Prednisolone
c. Deferoxamine
d. Clotrimazole
Cause of Sensorineural
hearing loss due to
furosemide toxicity is :
a. Damage to outer hair cells
b. Damage to inner hair cells
c. Effect on stria vascularis
d. Damage to Cochlear nerve
not an objective test of
hearing :
a. OAEs
b. BERA
c. PTA
d. Impedance audiometry
a permissible daily exposure
limit to 105 dB sound in hrs :
a. 4 hrs
b. 1 hr
c. ½ hr
d. 6 hrs
a good prognostic or not a
poor prognostic factor in
sudden SNHL :
a. Old age
b. Absence of vertigo
c. Presence of vertigo
d. Severe SNHL
One of the following disease
causes unilateral hearing
loss : @
a. Enteric fever
b. Chicken pox
c. Mumps
d. Measles
sign of OME : @
a. Bluish discoloration of TM
b. Retracted TM
c. Air fluid level behind TM
d. Pin hole perforation in TM
During ear examination,
mastoid reservoir sign is
diagnostic of : @
a. CSOM (TTD)
b. Acute coalescent mastoiditis
c. Petrositis
d. CSOM (AAD)
commonest cause of
peripheral vertigo : @
a. Cholesteatoma
b.
c. BPPV
d. Vestibular neuronitis
All are causes of SNHL
except:
a. Old age
b. Cochlear otosclerosis
c. Rupture of tympanic membrane
d. Acoustic trauma
Tone decay test is positive in :
a. Otosclerosis
b.
c. OME
d. Acoustic neuroma
Carbogen inhalation is used
in treatment of sudden SNHL
mixture of :
a. 5% N2O and 95% O2
b. 25% CO2 and 75% O2
c. 5% CO2 and 95% O2
d. 10% N2O and 90% O2
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is
used in treatment of :
a.
b. Vestibular neuronitis
c. Sudden SNHL
d. Otitic barotrauma
used in treatment of
autoimmune ear disease :
a. Acyclovir
b. Betahistine hydrochloride
c. Prednisolone or Methotrexate or
Cyclophosphamide
d. Vasodilators
not considered as aetiology of
Idiopathic sudden SNHL :
a. Viral infection
b. Vascular compromise
c. Ototoxic drugs
d. Rupture of cochlear membranes
SISI score is more than 70%
in :
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Normal persons
c.
d. Otosclerosis
feature of vestibular
schwannoma :
a. Positive tone decay test
b. Positive stapedial reflex decay
c. Recruitment
d. Poor speech discrimination
not a peripheral vestibular
disorder :
a. BPPV
b. Vertebro-basillar insufficiency
c.
d. Labyrinthitis
a peripheral vestibular
disorder :
a. Acute cerebellar infarction
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Cervical vertigo
Diffuse otitis externa is also
known as :
a. Glue ear
b. Telephonist ear
c. ASOM
d. Keratosis obturans
Most important aspect in
treatment of otitis externa is :
a. Antibiotic ear drops
b. Through aural toilet
c. Antifungal drops
d. Analgesics
Most common organism for
perichondritis of pinna is :
a. E. coli
b. Staph aureus
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Streptococcus viridans
Treatment of keloid pinna is :
a. Surgical excision alone

b. Antibiotics
c. Chemical cautery
d. Excision and steroid injection
A furuncle is infection of :
a. Sweet gland
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Hair follicle
d. Ceruminous gland
If water used for syringing is
too hot or too cold, patient
may develop one of the
following :
a. Tinnitus
b. Facial palsy
c. Vertigo
d. Hearing loss
Tympanosclerosis is usually
not a feature of one of the
following :
a. Mucosal chronic otitis media

b. Otitis media with effusion
c. Squamosal chronic otitis media
d. OME with grommet insertion
Relapsing polychondritis is :
a. Infective disease
b. Autoimmune disease
c. Malignant disease
d. Hereditary disorder
Which condition is also
known as Singapore ear or
Hongkong ear : @
a. Furuncle of ear
b. Diffuse otitis externa
c. Pseudocyst of pinna
d. Keloid of pinna
Perforation of TM with ragged
edges is seen in : @
a. ASOM
b. CSOM
c. Myringotomy
d. Trauma
Boxers ear is a term given to
sequaelae of : @
a. Fibrosis of pinna
b. Perichondritis of pinna
c. Haematoma of pinna
d. Psudocyst of pinna
a. Perichondritis
b. Otitis externa
c. Haematoma pinna
d. Keloid
A mass in external ear canal
with wet newspaper
appearance is caused by
which organism : @
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Aspergillus flavus
d. Aspergillus niger
Fungus causing otomycosis
most commonly is :
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Aspergillus niger
c. Aspergillis flavus
d. Candida albicans
Myringitis bullosa is caused
by :
a. Bacteria
b. Fungus
c. Virus
d. Spirochaete
Myringitis bullosa is caused
by :
a. Bacteria
b. Fungus
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Spirochaete
All of the following drugs are
used to treat otomycosis
except :
a. 2% salicylic acid
b. 5% soda bicarb
c. 1% gentian voilet
d. Clotrimazole
All are true about ear wax
except :
a. pH is acidic in normal healthy canals

b. Needs to be removed periodically
c. Contains bactericidal enzymes
d. Is a combination of secretions of
sebaceous and apocrine glands
An old diabetic presented with
rapidly spreading infection of EAC
with involvement of bone and
granulation tissue. Most probable
diagnosis : *
a. Malignant otitis externa
b. Diffuse otitis externa
c. Perichondritis
d. Malignancy of EAC
typical feature of malignant
otitis externa :
a. Caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. Patients are usually old
c. Mitotic figures are high
d. Patient is immune compromised
Commonest cause of acute
otitis media in children is: *
a. H. influenzae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Pseudomonas
Commonest causative
organism for ASOM in a two
years old child is : *
a. Pneumococcus
b. H. influezae
c. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Streptococcus
Commonest causative
organism of ASOM is :
a. Streptococcus viridans
b. Streptococcus faecalis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Cart wheel appearance of
tympanic membrane is seen
in :
a. ASOM
b. Otosclerosis
c. CSOM
d. OME
Which of the following is not
true about appearance of
tympanic membrane :
a. A red TM may be normal in a crying child
b. A retracted TM shows prominent lateral
process of malleus and foreshortened
handle of malleus
c. A bulging TM looses all landmarks
d. Positive or negative pressure created by
effect on movement of TM
In Acute otitis media cart
wheel appearance of
tympanic membrane is seen
in : @
a. Stage of pre suppuration
b. Stage of tubal occlusion
c. Stage of suppuration
d. Stage of resolution
Profuse otorrhoea is common
in : @
a. Otitis externa
b. CSOM atticoantral
c. Traumatic perforation
d. CSOM TTD
ASOM is treated using all
except : *
a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Streptomycin
d. Cephalosporin
not used in treatment of
traumatic perforation of
tympanic membrane :
a. Oral antibiotics
b. Analgesics
c. Precautions to avoid entry of water in
ear
d. Antibiotic ear drops
Treatment of choice for OME
or glue ear is : *
a. Myringotomy with cold knife

b. Myringotomy with diode laser
c. Myringotomy with ventilation tube
insertion
d. Conservative treatment with antibiotics
In a 6 yrs old child with recurrent
URTI, mouth breathing and
failure to grow with high arched
palate and impaired hearing,
treatment is : *
a. Tonsillectomy
b. Grommet insertion
c. Myringotomy with grommet insertion
d. Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
characteristic of tubercular
otitis media : *
a. Marginal perforation
b. Attic perforation
c. Large central perforation
d. Multiple perforation
Perforation commonly
associated with
cholesteatoma is :
a. Kidney shaped central perforation
b. Perforation anterior to handle of
malleus
c. Attic
d. Perforation post to handle of malleus
Cholesteatoma occurs in:
a. CSOM with central perforation
b. Masked mastoiditis
c. Coalescent mastoiditis
d. Acute necrotizing otitis media
commonly related to
complication of cholesteatoma :
a. Tobey-Ayer test
b. Crow-beck test
c.
d. Hitzelberger sign
Posterosuperior retraction
pocket if allowed to progress
will lead to :
a. SNHL
b. Primary acquired cholesteatoma
c. Tympanosclerosis
d. Secondary acquired cholesteatoma
Specific finding for acute
coalescent mastoiditis is : @
a. Sagging of posterior superior ear canal
wall
b. Light house sign
c. Mastoid tenderness
d. Otorrhoea
Scanty, foul smelling,
painless discharge from the
ear is characteristic feature
of :
a. ASOM
b. Cholesteatoma
c. Central perforation
d. Otitis externa
What is true in case of
perforation of pars flaccida :
a. CSOM is a rare cause

b. Associated with cholestatoma
c. Usually due to trauma
d. All of the above
Cholesteatoma commonly
erodes or perforates :
a. Superior SCC
b. Lateral SCC
c. Promontry
d. Oval window
Treatment of choice for attico
antral type of chronic otitis
media is : *
a. Mastoidectomy
b. Medical management
c. Underlay myringoplasty
d. Insertion of ventilation tube
A child presents with foul
smelling ear discharge. On exam
a small attic perforation is found.
Most appropriate next step in
management would be :
a. Topical antibiotics
b. Simple mastoidectomy
-
c. Tympanomastoid exploration
d. Tympanoplasty
✗
Ossicle most commonly
involved in CSOM is :
a. Stapes
b. Long process of incus
c. Head of malleus
d. Handle of malleus
Which of the following is a
cause of functional
obstruction of eustachian
tube :
a. Enlarged adenoids
b. Nasopharyngeal tumour
c. Allergy
d. Cleft palate
One of the following is not a
feature of OME : @
a. Hearing loss
b. Mild earache
c. Dull lustreless tympanic membrane
d. Pin hole perforation
Commonest complication of
CSOM is :
a. Conductive hearing loss
b. Meningitis
c. Temporal lobe abscess
d. Cholesteatoma
Bezold abscess is located in :
a. Submandibular region
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Digastric triangle
d. Infratemporal region
Definitive diagnosis of
mastoid abscess is : @
a. Swelling behind the ear

b. Discharging ear
c. High temperature with chills
d. Aspiration of pus from swelling
Treatment of choice in
postauricular abscess as a
complication of otitis media is :
a. I &D
b. I & D Plus antibiotics
c. Aspiration and antibiotics
d. I & D, Antibiotics and mastoidectomy
Treatment of cholesteatoma
with facial paresis in a 9 yrs
old child is :
a. Antibiotics to dry ear and then

mastoidectomy
b. Immediate mastoidectomy
c. Observation
d. Antibiotic ear drops
is not related to eustachian
tube :
a. Tensor veli palatini

b. Salpingopharyngeus
c. Stylopharyngeus
d. Levator veli palatini
an indication of radical
mastoidectomy :
a. Carcinoma middle ear
b. Cholesteatoma confined to attic and
antrum
c. Glomus tumour
d. An approach to petrous apex
an indication of cortical
mastoidectomy :
a. Acute coalescent mastoiditis
b. Incompletely resolved ASOM with
reservoir sign
c. Cholesteatoma confined to attic and
antrum
d. Endolymphatic sac decompression
Which of the following is an
indication of modified radical
mastoidectomy :
a. Carcinoma middle ear
b. Acute coalescent mastoiditis
c. Masked mastoiditis
d. Localized chronic otitis media
In which of the following
operation eustachian tube is
obliterated :
a. Modified radical mastoidectomy
b. Simple mastoidectomy
c. Radical mastoidectomy
d. Tympanoplasty/Myringoplasty
Autophony is a feature of :
a. Blocked eustachian tube
b. Palatal palsy
c. Severe DNS
d. Patulous eustachian tube
usually not a complication of
simple mastoidectomy:
a. Facial nerve palsy
b. Dislocation of incus
c. Injury to dura of middle cranial fossa
d. Perichondritis of pinna
Which of the following test is
based on building negative
pressure in the nasopharynx :
a. Valsalva
b. Politzer test
c. Sonotubometry
d. Toynbee test
cause of mechanical
obstruction of eustachian
tube :
a. Cleft palate
b. Submucous cleft palate
c. Enlarged adenoids
d.
A 10 yrs old boy presents with
torticolis. He has fever and a
tender swelling behind angle of
mandible. He had h/o ear
discharge for last 6 yrs. Ear
exam shows purulent discharge
and granulations.Most likely
diagnosis is :
a. Acute lymphadenitis due to otitis externa
b. Masked mastoiditis
c. Bezold abscess
d. Parotitis
MRI is investigation of choice
in all the complications of
CSOM except :
a. Extra dural abscess
b. Bezold abscess
c. Coalescent mastoiditis
d. Cerebral abscess
A 7 yrs old child developed acute
otitis media & was treated with
antibiotics for 10 days. His pain
and fever has subsided but he
still has conductive hearing loss.
Your next line of management is :
a. Give another course of different antibiotic
b. Myringotomy & culture of middle ear fluid
c. Myringotomy and grommet insertion
d. Wait and watch for 3 months for fluid to
drain spontaneously
Which of the following is first
priority in mastoid surgery for
CSOM :
a. Making the ear dry

b. Improvement in hearing
c. Rendering the ear safe
d. Preservation of hearing
In clinical course of ASOM,
rupture of TM occurs in which
stage:
a. Stage of resolution
b. Stage of complication
c. Stage of suppuration
d. Stage of pre-suppuration
feature of complication in a
case of CSOM:
a. Ear discharge
b. Hearing loss
c. Tinnitus
d. Diplopia
sequalae of CSOM:
a. Facial paralysis
b. Labyrinthitis
c. SNHL
d. Meningitis
Crowe-Beck test is used in:
a. Brain abscess
b. Lateral sinus thrombosis
c. Meningitis
d. Labyrinthitis
Tobey-Ayer test is used in
diagnosis of:
a. Cerebellar abscess
b. Subdural abscess
c. Lateral sinus thrombosis
d. Petrositis
Landmark used for
identification of geniculate
ganglion of facial nerve is:
a. Oval window
b. Pyramid
c. Processus cochleariformis
d. Digastric ridge
which of the following
pathology : @
a. Lateral sinus thrombosis
b. Petrositis
c. Masked mastoiditis
d. Labyrinthitis
characterized by all of the
following except : @
a. Retro orbital pain
b. Persistent otorrhoea
c. Dipopia
d. Facial nerve palsy
Which of the following theory
explains the genesis of
secondary acquired
cholesteatoma:
a. Invagination of pars tensa
b. Epithelial migration
c. Basal cell hyperplasia
d. Presence of congenital cell rests
Picket fence type of fever is
seen in:
a. Otitic hydrocephalous
b. Lateral sinus thrombosis
c. Extradural abscess
d. Meningitis
A 5 yrs old boy is diagnosed to
have Posteriosuperior retraction
pocket with cholesteatoma. All
would constitute part of
management except:
a. Audiometry
b. Mastoid exploration
c. Tympanoplasty
d. Myringoplasty
All of the following muscles are
innervated by facial nerve
except : *
a. Occipital belly of occipito-frontalis
b. Anterior belly of digastric
c. Procerous
d. Risorius
Melkersson Rosenthal
syndrome includes all except:
a. Facial paralysis
b. Fissured tongue
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Circumoral oedema (swelling of lips)
surgical landmark of facial
nerve in middle ear and
mastoid surgery:
a. Short process of incus
b. Cartilaginous pointer
c. Processus cochleariformis
d. Digastric ridge
statement is not true in
reference to facial nerve
a. It is a mixed nerve
b. It is a purely motor nerve
c. It is a nerve of 2nd branchial arch
d. Its sensory root is called Nerve of
Wrisberg
All of the following muscles are
derived from 2nd branchial arch
except:
a. Post belly of digastric
b. Ant belly of digastric
c. Stapedius
d. Orbicularis occuli
Smallest segment of facial
nerve is:
a. Intracanalicular (meatal)
b. Tympanic
c. Mastoid
d. Labyrinthine
First branch of facial nerve is:
a. Lesser petrosal nerve
b. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
c. Chorda tympani nerve
d. Nerve to stapedius
Which test can detect facial
nerve palsy occuring at the
stylomastoid foramen :
a. Deviation of angle of mouth towards
opposite side
b. Loss of taste sensation ant 2/3 of tongue
c. Loss of sensation over Right cheek
d. Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
Crocodile tears is due to :
a. Cross innervation of facial nerve fibres
b. Improper regenaration of trigeminal
nerve
c. Faulty regeneration of facial nerve
d. Cross innervation of trigeminal nerve
Intratemporal part of facial
nerve is divided into :
a. Three segment
b. Four segment
c. Two segment
d. Five segment
due to paralysis of which of
the following muscle:
a. Tensor tympani
b. Tensor veli palatii
c. Levator palatii
d. Stapedius
is not supplied by facial
nerve:
a. Stylohyoid
b. Occipital belly of occipitofronalis
c. Anterior belly of digastric
d. Post belly of digastric
One of the following is not a
branch of facial nerve :
a. Nerve to stapedius
b. Lesser petrosal nerve
c. Greater superficial petrosal nerve
d. Chorda tympani
Right upper motor neuron
lesion of facial nerve causes:
a. Loss of corneal reflex right side

b. Loss of wrinkling of forehead left side
c. Loss of wrinkling of forehead right side
d. Paralysis of lower facial muscles on left
side of face
used in treatment of Herpes
zoster oticus:
a. Acyclovir
b. Prednisolone
c. Systemic antibiotics
d. Topical antibiotic steroid ear drops
Which of the following gland
does not receive
secretomotor fibres through
facial nerve:
a. Submandibular salivary gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Sublingual salivary gland
branch of facial nerve:
a. Great auricular nerve
b. Auriculotemporal nerve
c. Jacobson nerve
d. Post auricular nerve
statement truly represents
a. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial palsy

b. Facial palsy with vesicular eruptions in
external auditory canal
c. Idiopathic peripheral facial nerve palsy of
acute onset
d. Facial nerve palsy with a dry eye
In a Pt of facial palsy with injury
distal to Geniculate ganglion
which of the following statement
is incorrect :
a. Loss of stapedial reflex
b. Loss of lacrimation
c. Loss of taste
d. Presence of phonophobia
Recurrent facial paralysis is
seen in all except :
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Diabetes
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Cholesteatoma
Iatrogenic traumatic facial
palsy is most commonly
caused during :
a. Myringoplasty
b. Stapedectomy
c. Mastoidectomy
d. Ossiculoplasty
Landmark used for
identification of Geniculate
ganglion of facial nerve is :
a. Oval window
b. Processus cochleariformis
c. Pyramid
d. Digastric ridge
Which of the following will
have false negative fistula
test :
a. Dead ear
b. Congenital syphilis
c. Labyrinthine fistula
d. Following fenestration surgery
disease :
a. SNHL
b. Pulsatile tinnitus
c. Fluctuating deafness
d. Vertigo
Diplacusis is a feature off:
a. Otosclerosis
b.
c. Acoustic neuroma
False positive Fistula test is
associated with:
a. Dead ear
b. BPPV
c. Congenital syphilis
d. Cholesteatoma
peripheral vestibular
disorder:
a. BPPV
b. Vertebrobasillar insufficiency
c.
d. Labyrinthitis
All of the following will have
positive fistula test except:
a. Dead ear
b. Labyrinthine fistula
c. Hypermobile stapes foot plate
d. Following fenestration surgery
All of the following will produce
nystagmus to right except:
a. Labyrinthectomy on left side
b. Right vestibular neuronitis
c. Serous labyrinthitis on right side
d. Purulent labyrinthitis on left side
Recruitment phenomenon is
seen in:
a. Otosclerosis
b. Vestibular schwannoma
c.
One is absent in acute
labyrinthitis : @
a. Vertigo
b. Vomiting
c. Hearing loss
d. Pain
peripheral vestibular
disorder :
a. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Superior semicircular canal dehiscence
d. Acute cerebellar infarction
Which of the following test
has diagnostic as well as
disease:
a. SISI test
b. Caloric test
c. Glycerol test
d. Electrocochleography
used in treatment of
a. Vestibular sedatives
b. Steroids
c. Diuretics
d. Vasodilators
syndrome except:
a. Episodic vertigo
b. Interstitial keratitis
c. Positive serology for syphilis
d. Hearing loss
On Dix Hallpike testing
nystagmus of central origin:
a. Can be easily fatigued on repeated
testing
b. Has a fixed direction
c. Appears immediately as soon as the
head is placed in critical position without
a latent period
d. Lasts for few seconds
In episodic positional vertigo
which of the following test is
used:
a. Caloric test
b. Dix Hallpike manoeuvre
c. Rotation test
d. Electronystagmography
Fluctuating hearing loss is a
feature of which of the
following:
a. Presbycusis
b. Acoustic neuroma
c.
d. Otosclerosis
characterized by all except :
a. Diplopia
b. Tinnitus
c. Vertigo
d. Fluctuating hearing loss
a. Fluctuating hearing loss

b. Giddiness provoked in certain head
positions
c. Sense of fullness or pressure in ear
d. Roaring tinnitus
Most common cause of
peripheral episodic vertigo is:
a.
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. BPPV
d. Vascular occlusion of labyrinthine artery
failed all medical treatment but
still has serviceable hearing. All of
the following treatment can be
considered except:
a. Endolymphatic sac decompression
b. Intratympanic gentamycin
c. Vestibular nerve section
d. Labyrinthectomy
Loud sounds producing
giddiness is called :
a. Paracusis willisi
b.
c.
d. Tullio phenomenon
characterized by :
a. Conductive hearing loss & tinnitus
b. Giddiness, ear discharge, tinnitus and
aural fullness
c. Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and
headache
d. Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
audiogram shows :
a. Notch at 2000 Hz in bone conduction

b. Notch at 4 KHz in air conduction
c. A flat curve
d. A rising curve
All are true about BPPV
except :
a. More often occurs after 40 yrs
b. Males are affected more often than
females
c. Follows an attack of vestibular
neuronitis
d. Head trauma or ear surgery
predisposes to BPPV
a. Improvement in hearing with oral

glycerol
b. Fluctuating SNHL
c. Pulsatile tinnitus
d. Intolerance to loud sounds
Which is the best test for
screening of auditory function of
neonates:
a. Pure tone audiometry
b. Stapedial reflex
c. Otoacoustic emissions
d. BERA
Which is the inv of choice for
assessing hearing in
neonates or infants :
a. Free field audiometry

b. Pure tone audiometry
c. BERA
d. Behavioural audiometry
Which is the inv of choice in
assessing the hearing loss in
neonates:
Impedance audiometry
BERA
Free field audiometry
Behavioral audiometry
In BERA wave V is generated
from:
a. Cochlear nucleus
b. Superior olivary complex
c. Lateral lemniscus
d. Cochlear nerve
component of hearing aid :
a. Microphone
b. Amplifier
c. Speech processor
d. Receiver
Which of the following would be
the most appropriate treatment
for rehabilitation of a pt, who has
bilateral profound deafness
following surgery for bilateral
acoustic neuroma : *
a. Bilateral high powered hearing aid
b. Bilateral cochlear implant
c. Brainstem implant
d. Unilateral cochlear implant
A 3 yrs old child with severe
sensorineural deafness showed
no improvement with hearing aid.
Next line of management is :
a. Fenestration surgery
b. Stapes mobilization
c. Cochlear implant
d. Conservative
A 10 yrs old boy is having
severe SNHL not benefitted
by hearing aid. Next best
management is : *
a. Cochlear implant
b. Fenestration
c. Stapedotomy
d. Stapes fixation
statement regarding cochlear
implant is true : *
a. Cochlear malformation is not a
contraindication to its use
b. Contraindicated in children < 5 yrs age
c. Indicated in mild to moderate hearing
loss
d. Approached through oval window
A cochlear implant has following
component except:
a. Microphone
b. Speech processor
c. Electrode array
d. Amplifier
Electrode of cochlear implant
stimulates :
a. Outer hair cells

b. Inner hair cells
c. Basilar membrane
d. Auditory nerve
Modality of rehabilitation of a
child with anotia is :
a. ITC hearing aid
b. BTE hearing aid
c. Cochlear implant
d. BAHA
In which of the following
syndrome, SNHL is
associated with abnormality
of thyroxin synthesis :
a. Alport
b. Pendred
c. Klippel-Feil
d. Usher
A pregnant women in third
trimester c/o hearing her own
sounds. Otoscopy shows
movement of tympanic
membrane synchronus with
respiration. Your diagnosis is :
a. Eustachian tube obstruction
b. OME
c. Patulous eustachian tube
d. Otosclerosis
Which of the following is a cause
of subjective tinnitus:
a. Glomus tumour
b. Carotid aneurysm
c. Presbycusis
d. Palatal myoclonus
Autophony is a feature of
which of the following:
a. Blocked eustachian tube

b. Severe DNS
c. Palatal palsy
d. Patulous eustachian tube
All are true about longitudinal
fracture of temporal bone
except :
a. Longitudinal fracture occur more
commonly than transverse fracture
b. Less chances of facial palsy
c. Occurs due to blow from side
d. Causes sensorineural hearing loss
statement is not true about
transeverse fractures of
temporal bone :
a. Result from frontal or occipital blow to
head
b. Less often associated with facial palsy
c. More likely to cause injury to labyrinth
d. Less common than longitudinal fracture
High frequency SNHL after
head injury is most commonly
caused by :
a. Injury to auditory nerve
b. Fracture of bony cochlea
c. Concussion of labyrinth
d. Brain haemorrhage
An elderly man with long standing
ear discharge, now presented
with facial palsy, pain in the ear
which is worse at night and a
friable polyp in the ear with
tendency to bleed. The likely
diagnosis is :
a. CSOM with polyp
b. Malignant otitis externa
c. Carcinoma of middle ear
d. Glomus tumour
Which of the following test is
based on building negative
pressure in nasopharynx:
a. Valsalva test
b. Politzer test
c. Sonotubometry
d.
Adenoidectomy is indicated in
all of the following conditions
except :
a. Otitis media with effusion
b. Nasal obstruction due to adenoid
hypertrophy
c. Recurrent otitis media in children
d. Allergic rhinitis in children
75 yrs old diabetic patient
with granulation tissue at
external auditory canal,
diagnosis is : *
a. Keratosis obturans
b. Malignant otitis externa
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Wax granuloma
True about Bone anchored
hearing aid : *
a. Useful in canal atresia & microtia

b. Useful in bilateral severe SNHL
c. Useful after surgery for acoustic
neuroma
d. It can by pass cochlea
A 70 yrs old Pt presented with Lt
sided conductive hearing loss. On
exam TM intact, B type curve on
tympanometry. Next step is : *
a. Myringotomy and grommet insertion
b. Conservative management
c. Endoscopic exam of nasopharynx
d. Exploratory tympanotomy
feature of retracted tympanic
membrane :
a. Loss of cone of light
b. Shortening of handle of malleus
c. Draping of TM over handle of malleus
d. Degeneration of head of malleus
provides all except :
a. Magnification
b. Assessment of movement of TM
c. Removal of FB ear
d. As an applicator for powdered antibiotic
of ear
Eustachian tube function is
best assessed by : *
a. Politzerisation
b. Tympanometry
c. VEMP
d. Rhinomanometry
All of the following drugs are
ototoxic except :
a. Chloroquin
b. Clotrimoxozole
c. Cisplatin
d. Furosemide
Ototoxic effects are reversible
in case of the following drugs
if drug administration is
stopped except :
a. Quinine
b. Salicylates
c. Furosemide
d. Gentamycin
Focal length of head mirror
is :
a. 85 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 250 mm
d. 400 mm
40 dB compared to 20 dB is :
a. Double
b. 10 times
c. 100 times
d. 1000times
During normal conversation
sound heard at one meter
distance is :
a. 80 dB
b. 60 dB
c. 90 dB
d. 120 dB
Prolonged exposure to sound
greater than the following can
impair hearing permanently :
a. 40 dB
b. 100 dB
c. 85 dB
d. 140 dB
True about BPPV :
a. Hearing loss is often present

b. Most commonly seen in 2nd decade
c. Epley maneuver is used for treatment
d. Dix-Hallpike maneuver is not helpful in
diagnosis
test of balance :
a. Dysdiadochokinesia
b. Weber test
c.
d. Unterberger test
Gustatory sweating and
flushing follows damage to
the : *
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Auriculotemporal nerve
A patient has bilateral
conductive hearing loss and
tinnitus with positive family
history. Likely diagnosis is : *
a. Tympanosclerosis
b. Otospongiosis Oto sclerosis
c. Noise induced hearing loss

d. Congenital deafness
All of the following are true
*
a. Steroids are used
b. Unilateral facial weakness
c. Role of herpes simplex in etiology
d. Immediate surgical decompression is
required
A patient presented with ear
discharge and retro-orbital pain.
MRM was done. Patient came
with persistent discharge. What
is your diagnosis : *
a. Diffuse serous labyrinthitis
b. Purulent labyrinthitis
c. Petrositis
d. Latent mastoidits
CSF otorhoea is caused by :
a. Rupture of tympanic membrane

b. Fracture of cribriform plate
c. Fracture of parietal bone
d. Fracture of petrous bone
Haemorrhage into the inner
ear can occur in which of the
following conditions :
a. Diabetes
b. Polycyathemia
c. Leukemia
d. Iron deficiency anaemia
Most common
cerebellopontine angle
tumour is :
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Meningioma
c. Cholesteatoma
d. All of the above
Vestibular schwannoma
commonly arise from : **
a. Superior vestibular nerve

b. Inferior vestibular nerve
c. Cochlear nerve
d. Facial nerve
In acoustic neuroma earliest
extracanalicular cranial nerve
to be involved is :
a. 5th
b. 7th
c. 9th
d. 10th
Earliest sign of Acoustic
neuroma is :
a. Facial weakness
b. Unilateral hearing loss
c. Reduced corneal reflex
d. Cerebellar signs
a. Vestibular schwannoma
b.
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Mastoiditis
Earliest occular finding in a
case of acoustic neuroma is :
a. Diplopia
b. Loss of corneal sensation
c. Papilloedema
d. Ptosis
A patient is suspected to have
acoustic neuroma, the inv of
choice is :
a. CECT
b. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
c. Plain X-ray skull
d. Vertebral angiography
feature of acoustic neuroma :
a. Positive tone decay

b. Positive stapedial reflex decay
c. Presence of recruitment
d. Speech discrimination is poor
statement is incorrect about
acoustic neuroma :
a. Vertigo is severe and often precedes
hearing loss
b. Difficulty in understanding speech is out of
proportion to hearing loss
c. Facial palsy is a late feature
d. Unilateral tinnitus and SNHL are earliest
symptoms
feature of Glomus tumour :
a.
b. Schwartze sign
c. Brown sign
d.
Audible bruit is heard over
mastoid on auscultation in :
b. Glomus tumour
c. Pleomorphic adenoma
d. Otosclerosis
done in a case of Glomus
tumour :
a. MRI
b. Four vessel angiography
c. Biopsy
d. Embolization
Pulsatile tinnitus is a feature
of :
a. Acute coalescent mastoiditis
b. Glomus tumour
c.
d. Acoustic neuroma
Hypoaesthesia of posterior
meatal wall is seen in:
b. Glomus tympanicum
c. Carcinoma middle ear
d. Lateral sinus thrombosis
a. Glomus tympanicus
b. Acoustic neuroma
c. Glomus jugulare
d. Neurofibromatosis
A pt presents with bleeding from
ear, pain, tinnitus and
progressive deafness. On exam
there is reddish swelling which
blanches on pressure with
pneumatic speculum.
Management includes all except :
*
a. Radiotherapy
b. Surgery
c. Interferons
d. Preoperative embolization
Which is the most pulsatile
tumour found in external
auditory meatus and bleeds
on touch : *
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Adenoma
d. Glomus tumour
the site for paraganglioma:
a. Carotid bifurcation
b. Jugular foramen
c. Geniculate ganglion
d. Promontry of middle ear
Regarding Glomus tumour of
middle ear which of the following
statement is not correct:
a. More common in men 6 times more in
female
b. Grows very slowly
c. Biopsy is not done
d. May be multicentric in origin
statement is not correct
regarding Glomus tumour :
a. Diagnostic biopsy is not done
b. More common in men
c. Grows very slowly
d. Multicentric origin
Otosclerosis is inherited as :
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked dominant
d. X-linked recessive
Most common site for
initiation of otosclerosis is :
a. Foot plate of stapes

b. Margin of stapes
c. Fissula ante fenestrum
d. Fissula post fenestrum
Paracusis willisii is a feature
of :
a. Tympanosclerosis
b. Otosclerosis
c.
d. Presbycusis
In majority of cases of
otosclerosis tympanic
membrane appears :
a. Bluish
b. Yellowish
c. Normal
d. Flamingo pink
Schwartz sign is seen in :looks
↳ when reddish
promontory
seen via TM →
a. Glomus jugulare
b. Otosclerosis
c.
d. Acoustic neuroma
audiogram is deepest at the
frequency of :
a. 500 Hz
b. 4000 Hz
c. 2000 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
Acoustic dip occurs at :
↳ In noise induced HL .
a. 2000 Hz
b. 4000 Hz
c. 1000 Hz
d. 8000 Hz
A lady has bilateral hearing loss
since four years which worsened
during pregnancy. The type of
tympanogram will be : *
a. Ad Type A- = Normal
b. B D= flat
Type
c. C we
pressure in ME
Type
C = -
d. As
Characteristic feature of
otosclerosis are all except : *
a. Conductive hearing loss

b.
n
c. Paracusis willisii
d. Mobile ear drum
Which of the following will be
correct in respect to stapedial f-
otosclerosis :
a. Bing test will be positive
b. ABC will be reduced NIF (ABC Normal)
c.
d. Weber will be lateralized to better ear
operation is not done in a
case of otosclerosis :
a. Stapedectomy
b. Sacculotomy
c. Fenestration operation
d. Stapedotomy
correct about stapedial
otosclerosis :
a. Gradual conductive hearing loss with
normal tympanic membrane
b.
-
Astgpe_
c. Tympanogram is Ad type Cs type is done )
d. Eustachian tube is patent
Schawartze sign is :
a. Swelling over mastoid

b. Reddish hue seen in hypotympanum
c. Improved hearing in noisy surroundings
d. Reddish hue seen over promontry
In a patient of otosclerosis
512 Hz tuning fork but positive

1024 tuning fork. His minimum
predicted AB gap on audiometry
would be :
a. 20 dB
b. 30 dB
c. 45 dB
d. 60 dB
Van der Hoeve syndrome
includes all except :
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Conductive hearing loss
c. Pre auricular sinus
d. Blue sclera
All of the following
statements are true about
a. It is a sensorineural hearing loss

b. Maximum loss is centered at 2000 Hz
c. Seen only in stapes fixation
d. Can not be reversed
true about otosclerosis :
a. Most common in foot plate of stapes
b. More common in females ( 2 :L)
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Schwartze sign indicates activity
In a patient of otosclerosis all
constitute part of treatment
except :
a. Stapedectomy
b. Hearing aid
c. Sodium fluoride
d. Gentamycin therapy
One of the following ear
disease has familial
distribution : @
a. CSOM atticoantral
b.
c. Otosclerosis
d. Acoustic neuroma
A 38 yrs old presented with suspected
diagnosis of suppurative labyrinthitis. Rinne
test was positive and fistula test was positive.
Pt refused admission and returned after 2 wks
with c/o hearing loss in affected ear. On exam
fistula test was negative . What is the likely
finding on repeating the Rinne test
a. Rinne positive
b. False positive Rinne
c. Rinne negative
d. False negative Rinne
Trough shaped curve in
audiometry is seen in :
a. Congenital SNHL
b. OME
c. Ototoxicity
d.
A pt developed conductive
deafness after head injury. On
exam Tympanic membrane is
intact and mobile with increased
compliance on impedance
audiometry. Likely diagnosis is :
a. Haemtympanum
b. Ossicular disruption
c. Traumatic perforation of TM
d. Tympanosclerosis
In a facial nerve palsy of Rt
side, stapedial reflex is
absent on :
a. Both side
b. Right side
c. Left side
d. Normal on both side
All of the following are true
about OAEs except :
a. Arise from outer hair cells

b. Used as screening test for hearing in
neonates
c. Disappear in 8th nerve pathology
d. Useful in ototoxicity monitoring
Which of the following test
can be done to distinguish
between cochlear and
retrocochlear damage :
a. BERA
b. Tympanomentry
c. Pure tone audiometry
d. Bekesy audiometry
Rinne test was negative in
right ear and positive in left
ear. Which of the following is
true :
a. 40 dB SNHL in Lt and normal Rt ear
b. 40 dB CHL in Lt with Rt ear normal
c. 40 dB CHL in both ear
d. Profound SNHL in Rt ear and LT ear
normal
A positive fistula test during
siegelization indicates :
a. Ossicular discontinuity
b. Erosion of lateral SCC
c. CSF leak through ear
d. Stapedial fixation
Fetus starts hearing by what
time in intrauterine life :
a. 14 wks
b. 20 wks
c. 32 wks
d. 38 wks
All of the following nerves
supply the tympanic
membrane except :
a. Auriculotemporal nerve
b. Arnold nerve
c. Jacobson nerve
d. Facial nerve
While doing posterior
tympanotomy through facial
recess, there are chances of
injury to the following except :
a. Horizontal part of facial nerve
b. Chorda tympani
c. Dislocation of short process of incus
from fossa incudis
d. Vertical part of facial nerve
In cochlea endolymph has
potential of :
a. + 80 mv
b. - 80 mv
c. +20 mv
d. - 20 mv
Appreciation of sound occurs
in :
a. Organ of corti
b. Basilar membrane
c. Cochlear nuclei
d. Transverse temporal gyrus
What should be the least
hearing loss for Weber test to
lateralize :
a. 20 dB
b. 10 dB
c. 5 dB
d. 15 dB
In Bing test on alternate
compressing and releasing the
tragus, the sound increases and
decreases, this indicates :
a. SNHL
b. Adhesive otitis media
c. Otosclerosis
d. CSOM
Myringotomy incision in ASOM is
given in posteroinferior quadrant.
This is preferred due to all of the
following except :
a. It is easily accessible
b. Damage to ossicular chain does not
occur
c. It is least vascular region
d. Damage to chorda tympani is avoided
In a child with OME hearing
loss is typically :
a. 10-20 dB
b. 20-40 dB
c. 40-60 dB
d. 60-80 dB
Columella effect is seen in :
a. Type I tympanoplasty
b. Type II tympanoplasty
c. Type III tympanoplasty
d. Type IV tympanoplasty
Austin's classification for
ossicular chain defects
depends on :
a. Malleus head and stapes foot plate
b. Malleus handle and stapes
suprastructure
c. Malleus head and stapes
suprastructure
d. Malleus head and long process of incus
Surfers ear is :
a. Exostosis
b. Otitis externa
c. Otosclerosis
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
If in a case of acoustic neuroma,
corneal reflex is absent it implies
involvement of cranial nerve :
a. 5th
b. 7th
c. 6th
d. 8th
Cochlear implant can be done,
if one of the following is intact :
a. Outer hair cells
b. Inner hair cells
c. Auditory nerve
d. Organ of corti
All of the following statements
are false regarding myringoplasty
except :
a. In underlay graft is placed medial to
annulus
b. In underlay graft is placed lateral to
malleus
c. In overlay graft is placed lateral to malleus
d. In overlay graft is placed medial to
annulus
In radical mastoidectomy it is
necessary to preserve :
a. Tympanic membrane and its remanants
b. Stapes foot plate
c. Facial bridge and ridge
d. Function of Eustachian tube
A case of CSOM presenting
with vertigo can have any of
the following except :
a. Extradural abscess
b. Cerebellar abscess
c. Fistula of Semicircular canal
d. labyrinthitis
Right supranuclear lesion of
the facial nerve causes :
a. Loss of taste sensations anterior 2/3 of

tongue
b. Loss of corneal reflex on right side
c. Loss of wrinkling of forehead on Left side
d. Paralysis of lower facial muscles on Left
side
Intratemporal lesion of
chorda tympani results in :
a. Loss of taste sensation from circumvallate
papillae of tongue
b. Loss of taste sensation from anterior 2/3
of tongue
c. Loss of taste sensation from posterior 1/3
of tongue
d. Loss of secretomtor fibres to parotid gland
A patient presents with hyperacusis,
loss of lacrimation and loss of taste
sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue.
Injury extends up to which level of
facial nerve :
a. Horizontal part
b. Vertical part proximal to nerve to
stapedius
c. Vertical part beyond nerve to stapedius
d. Proximal to geniculate ganglion
All of the following are true in
a. Sudden unilateral palsy

b. Immediate surgical decompression
c. Herpes simplex virus is a cause
d. Steroid is the choice of treatment

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Absence of cartilage in the area

between tragus and crus of helix

a. First branchial arch muscle

a. 1st branchial arch

a. Floor of cartilaginous EAC

a. Above by pyramid and below by ponticus

a. Post and lateral SCC

a. Utricle and saccule

a. Ampullated end of SCC

a. Modified eccrine glands

a. Is a filtrate of blood serum

a. Internal carotid artery

a. Superior semicircular canal

a. It is a branch of superior ganglion of vagus

a. Ophthalmic division of CN 5th

a. V and VII nerves

all of the following except :

a. Superior semicircular canal

a. Can be easily fatigued by repeated testing

a. Labyrinthine fistula with dead ear

a. Hearing of only loud sounds

a. Surgical excision alone

a. Mucosal chronic otitis media

a. pH is acidic in normal healthy canals

a. Caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa

a. Myringotomy with cold knife

a. CSOM is a rare cause

a. Swelling behind the ear

a. Antibiotics to dry ear and then

a. Tensor veli palatini

a. Making the ear dry

a. Loss of corneal reflex right side

a. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial palsy

a. Fluctuating hearing loss

a. Notch at 2000 Hz in bone conduction

a. Improvement in hearing with oral

a. Free field audiometry

a. Outer hair cells

a. Blocked eustachian tube

a. Useful in canal atresia & microtia

a. Hearing loss is often present

c. Noise induced hearing loss

a. Rupture of tympanic membrane

a. Superior vestibular nerve

a. Positive tone decay

a. More common in men 6 times more in

a. Foot plate of stapes

a. Conductive hearing loss

a. Swelling over mastoid

512 Hz tuning fork but positive

a. It is a sensorineural hearing loss

a. Arise from outer hair cells

a. Loss of taste sensations anterior 2/3 of

a. Sudden unilateral palsy

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