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CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS COMPILATION
WITH RATIONALIZATION
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Case Situation: Manuel entered the house of Lenie by

breaking the main door. Once inside, Manuel with
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. intent to gain took the LCD Television.
Not knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
house that resulted also to the death of Esco. a. Robbery b. Theft
c. Malicious mischief d. snatchig
1. Bong is liable of what crime? 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
a. Arson b. Murder door without breaking it since it was left unlocked and
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder thereafter took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is
2. However, if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house liable of a crime of.
and his purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime a. Robbery b. Theft
committed by Bong? c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
a. Arson b. Murder 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door
c. Homicide d. Arson with Murder without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter
Case Situation: took the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They to leave, Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at
mutually helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they the back door which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is
shoot Llanes, Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear. liable of what crime?
a. Robbery b. Theft
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? c. Malicious mischief d. snatching
a. Homicide b. Murder 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main
c. Homicide with Mutilation door by opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the
d. Murder with serious physical injur door lock without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, Television. Manuel is liable of a crime of?
instead they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did a. Robbery b. Theft
they commit? c. Malicious mischief d. Robbery with Theft
a. Homicide b. Murder Case Situation:
c. Homicide with Mutilation The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm
d. Murder with serious of Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter.
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes As a consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus,
but they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally he hacked the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a
they shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What result.
crime did they commit? 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. Homicide b. Murder a. theft
c. Frustrated homicide d. Attempted murder b. property damaged
c. malicious mischief
Case Situation: d. robbery
14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel without use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
being married. Grace and Jomar parted their ways. Grace got some. What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
married to Bong, however, they were not blessed to have a a. theft
child of their own, and thus, they had legally adopted Manuel. b. property damaged
One afternoon, Manuel killed Jomar while the latter was c. malicious mischief
sleeping. d. robbery
6. What crime committed by Manuel? 15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo
a. Parricide b. Homicide crops of Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
c. Murder d. Infanticide a. theft
b. malicious mischief
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
a. Parricide b. Homicide d. robbery
c. Murder d. Infanticide 16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes
use of its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked
Case Situation: some, what crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. theft
Allan and Grace while walking towards home were b. malicious mischief
approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a gun c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon Allan. Lenie d. robbery
demanded for their wallet and gave the same to him for fear of 17. Validity of Search Warrant
their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, employed intimidation in a. when the judge sign
taking the personal property of Allan and Grace. b. upon serve
8. What crime committed by Lenie? c. from the date indicated therein
a. Theft b. snatching d. from the date receive by officer
c. Robbery d. Grave Threat 18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information
or complaint in court?
Case Situation: a. probable cause
b. personal knowledge
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c. substancial a. principal by inducement

d. proof beyond reasonable doubt b.principal by direct participation
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is? c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. competent d.principal
b. irrelevant
c. inadmissible Case Situation:
d. admissible Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. Aldub who is living on an island far from the town, in
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of consideration of the amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te
action? owner of the only boat in the place agreed to transport Yaya
a. Factum probandum Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually transported them in a
b. Evidence place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora agreed despite
c. factum probans knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas and Vice.
d. factum prubans Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of Aldub
Case Situation: while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies.
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years Viceremains as look-out.
from of being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a
child. Alden had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
neighbor), who gave birth to child (C). Maine learned about a. principal by inducement
Alden’s relation with Ms. Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation, b.principal by direct participation
Alden intentionally killed his illegitimate infant at its 72 hours c. principal by indispensable cooperation
age. d.principal
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
21. For what crime Alden can be charged? a. principal by inducement
a. homicide b. parricide b.principal by direct participation
c. murder d. infanticide c. principal by indispensable cooperation
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant? d.principal
a. homicide b. parricide 32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
c. murder d. infanticide a. principal by inducement
23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant? b.principal by direct participation
a. homicide b. parricide c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. murder d. infanticide d.principal
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is 33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden? as?
a. homicide b. parricide a. principal by inducement
c. murder d. infanticide b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
Case Situation: d.principal
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and 34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola
B entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while Dora is liable of a crime as?
Lola C remains outside the bank and served as look-out. a. principal
b.accessories
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? c. accomplice
a. principal by inducement d.principal by indispensable cooperation
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has
d.principal knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? as?
a. principal by inducement a. principal
b.principal by direct participation b.accessories
c. principal by indispensable cooperation c. accomplice
d.principal d.principal by indispensable cooperation
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? 26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a
a. principal by inducement result of the frustration and anger people experience
b.principal by direct participation over their inability to achieve legitimate social and
c. principal by indispensable cooperation financial success.
d.principal a. strain theory
28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all b. psychological theories
the money from the teller? c. differential association theory
a. principal by inducement d. labeling theory
b.principal by direct participation
c. principal by indispensable cooperation 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
d.principal persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal
law what is the term used for it?
29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as a. Conspiracy
look-out?? b. Proposal
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c. Entrapment c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs

d. Instigation d. Use of dangerous drugs
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
person may are included? a. Accepted
a. 3 b. Determinate
b. 8 c. Sensitive
c. 4 d. Unreliable
d. 6 46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of Court.
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case? In the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear
a. Preponderance of evidence simple case of unjust vexation.
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt a. Possible
c. Probable cause b. No
d. Substantial Evidence c. It depends
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious d. Yes
destruction of property by means of fire is called. 47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law
a. Arson on Recognizance?
b. Combustion a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
c. Disposition three (3) years and above
d. Murder b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among Twelve (12) months and above
citizens of c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
a. Good repute and probity not morethan Six (6) months
b. High educational level d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
c. Good religious background Six (6) months and above
d. High social standing 48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in the cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can
handling drug addicts who are incarcerated? leading question be asked?
1.They should be segrageted especially during the a. It depends
withdrawal period b. No
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent c. Partially
attempts to commit suicide or d. Yes
self-mutilation 49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
3.They should not be administered a. Inmates health
sedatives/stimulants unless prescribed by a physician b. Prison security
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
proper psychiatric treatment d. Prison industry
a. 2, 3 and 4 50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look
b. 3, 4 and 1 for the latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In
c. 4, 1 and 2 his spite, he destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that
d. 1, 2 and 3 the door could be useful. So, he brought it to his house. What
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious crime was committed?
mischief? a. Robbery
b. Maliscious Mischief
a. The damage was caused inadvertently c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions d. Theft
of arson 51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of
c. The offender has caused damage to the property of Appeals?
another a. Sandiganbayan
d. The damage was caused deliberately b. Court of first instance
43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven c. Supreme court
years. Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many d. Tanodbayan
years? 52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of
a. 1 the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
b. 2 a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
c. 7 sentence
d. 8 b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was sentence
arrested at the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
opium, a dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of indeterminate sentence
cocaine were found in his bagpack. What offense would d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
you charge George under R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive sentence
Dangerous Drug Act)? 53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal
a. Importation of dangerous drugs. another crime? 2 CRIMES
b. Possession of dangerous drugs. a. It depends
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b. No d. 2 and 3
c. Partially 62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally
d. Yes crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation? to our criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate you use to those who consfired in the killing?
sentence of the offender a. Abused of Superior Strength
b. To exonerate the offender b. Conspiracy
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself c. Intimidation
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case d. Treachery
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court 63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
EXCEPT: undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the However, control over the probationer and probation program
issue is exercised by
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him
to a penaly of an offense a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides
c. To remain silent b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions c. The Secretary of Justice
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the d. The Court who place him on probation
latin word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result
judicial repreive? with an individuals bond to _____________ is weak and
a. Live with integrity broken.
b. Testing period a. Behavior
c. Walk with faith b. Police
d. Out of the institution c. Law
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a d. Society
felony and a crime? 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a
a. Crime and felony are the same persons other than (not) the offended party?
b. Crime covers felonies a. Abduction
b. Act of lasciviousness
c. No distinction whatsoever c. Seduction
d. The source of felony is a RPC d. Falsification
58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness
and identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify them who is unwilling to testify?
whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of a. Intelligent
the Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C. b. Leading
What crime was committed by the one who attacked C? c. Misleading
a. Direct assault d. Unresponsive
b. Indirect assault 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is
c. None imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger
d. Physical injury toward and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick a. Retribution
wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner, b. Restoration
a tower post is manned by heavily armed guards: c. Rehabilitation
a. Maximum security facility d. Deterrence
b. Medium security facility 68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
c. Super maximum security facility I. The offender deliberately caused damage to property
d. Minimum security facility II. Such act does not constitute arson or other crimes
60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to involving destruction
testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served on III. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving
him. Can the court punish him for contempt? destruction
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a IV. The act of damaging anothers property was committed
witness against another. merely for the sake of damaging it
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying. b. I, III, IV
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their c. I, II, IV
case. d. I, II, III
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his e. II, III, IV
testimony.
61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the 69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?
Parolee? a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government
Prison record physician
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero"
Location of the Prison or Confinement c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
Order of Court
a. 4 and 1 d.A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his
b. 1 and 2 probation conditions
c. 3 and 4 70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court
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within_________. a. An updated system of monitoring and control of

a. 10-day period keys
b. 30-day period b. A documented inventory of security personnel
c. 15-day period c. A collector of all padlocks and keys
d. 60-day period d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them
71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to 79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity,
execute the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was EXCEPT:
assigned for the execution shall make a report to the judge a. Simple Seduction
who issued the warrant? b. Adultery
a. 10 c. White Slave Trade
b. 15 d. Sexual Harassment
c. 20 80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate,
d. 30 EXCEPT:
72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
of the State? b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
a. Espionage when confronted by or reporting to any officer or
b. Piracy member of the custodial force
c. Treason c. Willful watse of food
d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
trespass to dwelling orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of 81. The following are classified as crimes against honor,
concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming EXCEPT:
they are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct? a. Premature Marriage
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. b. libel
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. c. Incriminating innocent person
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving d. Slander
moral turpitude. 82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial a. Offender
Court before and after conviction. b. The offender party
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, c. Other public officers
encountered Y an American. They eventually got married. d. Any peace officers
When X returned to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an
action against him for violating their marriage. What is X
liable to? 83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from
a. Adultery criminal liability/
b. Bigamy a. It depends
c. Concubinage b. No
d. Polygamy c. Sometimes
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or d. Yes
information before arraignment if the 84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on
amendment_______________. the food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying,
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a Y suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not
higher to a lower offense or excludes any committed because the material he mixed on the foods is
accused a. Impossible
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a b. Inadequate
higher to a lower offense and adds another c. Ineffectual
accused d. Intentional
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower 85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based
to a higher offense and excludes any of the on the recommendation of:
accused a. Board of Pardon and Parole
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower b. Bureau of Correction
to a higher offense and adds another accused c. Parole and Probation Administration
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- d. Office of the Executive Secretary
internal and external act. Which of the two acts is 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
indispensable for the act to be punishable as a crime? philippines?
a. External act a. R.A 7659
b. Intentional act b. R.A 7965
c. Internal act c. R.A 8177
d. Unintentional act d. R.A 9346
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it
examination? must be made at the place where the:
a. Opponent a. Contraband was found
b. PAO lawyer b. Police station is located
c. Proponent c. Arrest was effected
d. Prosecution d. Crime was forced
78. The system of key control in a jail includes: 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
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document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence c. Trial by default

without further proof of due execution or genuiness? d. Trial de novo
a. Baptismal Certificates. 97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason
b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in of their office and of which they may properly take and act
Hongkong without proof re called matters of:
c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in a. Priveleged communication
Singapore certified by the Vice-consul with official b. Judicial notice
seal
c. Pleadings
d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 d. Judgment
signed by the promise, showing payment of a loan, 98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison
found among the well-kept file of the promissor. sentence?
89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to a. Commutation of sentence
serve his sentence by the court if he b. Parole
a. Becomes unruly and undicipline c. Absolute pardon
b. Commits another offense d. Conditional pardon
c. He is 21 years old 99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused
d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation may be discharged to become a state witness?

a. The accused does not appear to be guilty.

90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of
agreement, there is the application of any offense.
the____________evidence rule. c. The testimony of the accused sought to be
a. Documentary discharged can be substantially
b. Best corroborated on all points.
c. Written d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the
d. Parol accused hose discharge is requested.
91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat 100.Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held
the food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in the liable for rape:
stomach. Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the
administered an antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What victims drink to enable her husband to have
crime was committed by X? intercourse with the victim's.
a. Attempted Parricide b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it
b. Frustrated Parricide in the mouth of the victim's.
c. Serious Physical Injuries c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. No crime d. With the use of force or intimidation.
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of 101.Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional.
probation in the United States? Will he qualify for probation?
a. Sir Walter crofton a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. Alexander Maconochie b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One
c. John murry spear (1) day
d. John Augustus c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall (1) day
be favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if the d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
crime committed by the petitioner is against national security. 102.There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs follows: retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and
b. Secretary of Justice rehabilitation.
c. Secretary of National Defense a. Criminal intent
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government b. Criminal mind
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be c. Criminal sanction
treated__________. d. Criminal action
a. Comprehensively 103.The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries
b. Appopriately for stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged.
c. Confidentially A few days later, Terence died due to severe infection of his
d. Judiciously stab wounds. Can the prosecution file another information
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of against Ben for homicide?
residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
police. What are these studies called? a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already
a. Population Surveys been convicted of the first offense.
b. Police surveys b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical
c. Victimization surveys injuries is necessarily included in the charged of
d. Information surveys homicide.
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of
court sends a case back to lower court for new trial? crime the accused committed.
a. Trial by publicity d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the
b. Trial by jury filing of the earlier charge against him.
8|Page

104.Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released d. Which are means of committing violence
provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been previously 113.Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has
convicted 3 or more times of any crime? undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged
penalty for the offense he may be found guilty of is with?
destierro a. Batas Pambansa 95
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum b. Batas Pambansa 85
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is c. Batas Pambansa 105
prision correccional d. Batas Pambansa 965
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum 114.An advantageous result in the integration of correctional
penalty of the offense he may be found guilty of is agencies is:
reclusion perpetua a. More physical facilities to maintain
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan b. More prisoners to supervise
the possible maximum term of punishment of the c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances
offense he maybe found guilty of. d. Better coordination of services and increased cost-
105.A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of efficiency
crime is known as: 115.It is the system or criminal procedure which is
a. Forensic medicine characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of
b. Physical science the defense and prosecution to appeal.
c. Forensic science a. Inquisatorial
d. Criminalistic Technology b. mixed
106.To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must c. accusatorial
be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT: d. fixed
a. Murder
b. Treason 116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
c. Parricide either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
d. Infanticide offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the
107.The following are crimes against national security and the law defense and the accused presumed innocent.
of nations EXCEPT one: a. inquisitorial
a. Violation of neutrality b. mixed
b. Rebellion c. accusatorial
c. Treason d. fixed
d. Espionage 117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC,
108.Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed MCTC.
by public officers? a. R.A. 7691
a. Forgery b. R.A. 8493
b. Official breaking seal c. BP 129
c. Malversation d. R.A. 1379
d. Refusal of assistance 118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
EXCEPT:
109.Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little a. Extent of penalty
more care than the other inmates. Which of the following b. Person accused
should NOT be done by a jail officer? c. territory
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff d. subject matter
regularly 119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
diet the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate the prosecutor.
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate a. Complaint
110.The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: b. Pleadings
a. Movement of the offender is restricted c. Information
b. Cruelty d. Affidavit
c. Adding ignominy 120.Prescription of offense commence to run:
d. Taking advantage of superior strength a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
111.When taking up arms against the government was undertaken party or peace officers or their agent.
by members of the military, what law was violated? Republic b. Upon filing of cases in court.
Act________. c. Upon escape of the accused.
a. 9165 d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
b. 7610
c. 6506 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
d. 6968 procedure, EXCEPT:
112.The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
the arrest, EXCEPT those: b. Violation of traffic laws
a. That may be used for escaping c. Violation of rental laws
b. Used in the commission of a crime d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6)
c. That are within the immediate vicinity months imprisonment
9|Page

122.What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
nervous system and are commonly referred to as guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
“uppers”?
a. Amphetamines a. preliminary investigation
b. Naptha b. inquest proceeding
c. Barbiturates c. prejudicial question
d. Diazepam d. custodial investigation

123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio 131.Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
without a complaint first filed by the offended party, punishable by:
EXCEPT: a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one
a. Rape (1) day
b. Abduction b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. Seduction c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. Adultery and Concubinage d. six years, one day and above
124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense.
This is the rule on: 132.The following persons are authorized to conduct
a. Duplicity of offense preliminary investigation, EXCEPT:
b. Complex crime a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court
c. compound crime b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their
d. continuing crime assistants
125.In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal
an arresting officer should inform the person to be Circuit Trial Courts
arrested of his rights? d. National and Regional state prosecutors;
a. Art. III Sec. 12 e. a and c
b. b.Miranda Doctrine 133.After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court
c. R.A. 7438 without a preliminary investigation within how many days
d. Rule 115 an accused person upon knowing the filing of said
126.It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous complaint may ask for preliminary investigation?
Drugs Act of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for a. 5 days
Other Purposes. b. 15 days
a. RA 9165 c. 10 days
b. RA 1956 d. 30 days
c. RA 9156 134.Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may
d. RA 1965 be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
127.What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug a. Arrest
incidents? b. Warrant
a. Reclusion Perpetua c. jurisdiction
b. Life Imprisonment d. Seizure
c. Death 135.Validity of the warrant of arrest?
d. Fine a. no fixed duration
109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ b. 30 days
after plea and during the trial with leave of court and without c. 20 days
causing prejudice to the rights of the accused. d. 10 days
a. form 136.Lifetime of search warrant?
b. substance and form a. 10 days
c. substance b. 20 days
d. none of these c. 5 days
128.A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the d. No fixed duration
pendency of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be 137.Within how many days upon the date of execution of a
filed: warrant of arrest the person charged with its execution
a. before the prosecution rests shall report to the court which issue such warrant when
b. before arraignment arrest was not been made?
c. before preliminary investigation a. 10 days
d. before plea b. 30 days
c. 20 days
129.Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical d. 5 days
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the 138.It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. the law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan.
a. Prejudicial question a. instigation
b. inquest proceeding b. investigation
c. preliminary investigation c. entrapment
d. custodial investigation d. Entertainment
130.Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is 139. In flagrante delicto means _____?
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a a. caught in the act
b. instigation
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c. caught after commission risk that he may commit another crime during the
d. entrapment pendency of the appeal.
140.When arrest may be made? d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years
a. At any time of the day and night but not more than 20 years who has previously
b. At day time escaped from legal confinement.
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn 149.Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of
its commission and at the time of the application for
141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the admission to bail may be punished with death.
warrant of arrest in his possession? a. capital offense
a. Need not have b. less grave
b. Should always have c. heinous crime
c. may sometime have d. grave felony
d. need to have 150.The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
142.It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement a. Property Bond
officer after a person has been taken into custody. b. Cash Bond
a. custodial investigation c. Corporate surety bond
b. inquest d. Recognizance
c. interview e. None of the choices
d. interrogation 151.When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be
143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of
without a warrant? preventive imprisonment.
a. 30 days
a. When the crime was committed in the presence b. 20 days
of the arresting officer. c. 15 days
b. When the crime was in fact been committed and d. 60 days
there is personal knowledge based on probable 152.Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon:
cause that the person to be arrested has a. acquittal of the accused
committed it. b. execution of the judgment of conviction
c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees. c. dismissal of the case
d. All of the choices d. all of the choices
144.It is a security given for the temporary release of a person 153.It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and
in custody of the law. circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation,
a. Bail one which is consistent with the innocence of the accused
b. parole and the other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly
c. fine balanced. The constitutional presumption of innocence
d. conditional pardon should tilt the scale in favor of the accused and he must
be acquitted.
145.Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person a. Equipoise rule
failed to appear at the trial without justification and despite b. Presumption of guilt
due notice. c. Hornbook doctrine
a. In absentia d. due process of law
b. in flagrante de licto 154.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
c. on the merits assist destitute litigant?
d. none of these a. Counsel de officio
146.When Bail is a matter of right? b. counsel de parte
a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan, c. Public Attorney’s Office
Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court. d. National Prosecution Office
b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court 155.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
d. upon preliminary investigation under his control at the trial of an action.
147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT: a. subpoena
a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death b. subpoena ducestecum
b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
c. crimes punishable by death c. subpoena ad testificandum
d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life d. d. warrant of arrest
imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong 156.Unless shorter period is provided by special law or
Supreme Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held
148.When bail is a discretionary? within ___ days from the date the court acquires
a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by jurisdiction over the person of the accused.
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment. a. 30 days
b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years b. 10 days
but not more than 20 years who is a recidivist. c. 15 days
c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years d. 5 days
but not more than 20 years when there is undue 157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
shall be entered.
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a. Not guilty d. d. 60 days

b. admission by silence
c. guilty 166.How many days are given to an accused person to
d. none prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
a. 15 days
158.When reception of evidence is necessary under the b. 20 days
following circumstances: c. 30 days
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense d. 180 days
b. plea of guilty to capital offense 167.The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense receipt of the pre-trial order?
d. all of these a. 30 days
b. 15 days
159.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a c. 20 days
motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint d. 60 days
or information and the details desired in order to enable 168.The trial court have how many days from the first day of
him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is trial to terminate the same?
known as: a. 60 days
a. motion for bill of particular b. 365 days
b. motion for clarification c. 180 days
c. motion to dismiss d. 150 days
d. motion for postponement
169.The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the
160.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be following circumstances:
suspended on the following grounds: a. at the arraignment and plea
a. The accused appears to be suffering from b. during the trial whenever necessary for
unsound mental condition. identification purposes
b. There exist a prejudicial question. c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the offense
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office d. all of the choices
of the President . 170.The order of trial is:
d. All of the choices a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
161.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
an accused is: b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
a. Motion to quash c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
b. nolleprosequi d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
c. Motion to dismiss 171.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
d. bill of particulars mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and device to assist him in testimony.
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or a. Testimonial aids
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite b. Emotional security items
period from the commission of the offense. c. support
a. Prescription of crime d. none of these
b. acquisitive 172.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
c. prescription of penalty of examination of a child, if the same will further the
d. extinctive interest of justice.
163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the a. leading questions
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the b. relevant
second time. c. misleading
d. Narrative
a. double jeopardy 173.Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an
b. double trial accused to be state witness:
c. double trouble a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of
d. double counter the accused.
164.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by b. said accused does not appear to be the most
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any guilty
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime
a. one year involving moral turpitude/
b. 2 years d. all of the choices
c. 5 years 174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person
d. d. 4 years may move for the dismissal of the case on:
165.Within how many days after arraignment and from the a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the an opportunity to be heard.
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? b. Demurrer to evidence
a. 30 days c. motion for reconsideration
b. 15 days d. motion for new trial
c. 20 days
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175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the 185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of
issue in an action or proceeding, civil or criminal. the others.
a. pre-trial a. Original jurisdiction
b. trial b. Exclusive jurisdiction
c. plea bargaining c. appellate jurisdiction
d. Judgment d. concurrent jurisdiction
176.Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or 186.It is the system or criminal procedure which is
not guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the characterized by secrecy of investigation and the option of
proper penalty and civil liability. the defense and prosecution to appeal.
a. judgment a. Inquisitorial
b. rendition of judgment b. mixed
c. promulgation of judgment c. accusatorial
d. conviction d. fixed
187.It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
177.It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the
possibility of error, produces absolute certain. Moral offended party and the right to appeal are limited to the
certainty only is required. defense and the accused is innocent.
a. acquittal a. inquisitorial
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt b. mixed
c. clear and convincing c. accusatorial
d. preponderance of evidence d. fixed
178.It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the 188.In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond EXCEPT:
reasonable doubt. a. Extent of penalty
a. dismissal b. Person accused
b. conviction c. territory
c. acquittal d. subject matter
d. judgment 189.Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any
179.Judgment becomes final when? peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied the prosecutor.
or served. a. Complaint
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to b. Pleadings Section
appeal. c. Information
d. when he appealed for probation d. Affidavit
e. all of the choices
190.Prescription of offense commences to run:
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
conviction becomes final. party or peace officers or their agent.
a. Motion for new trial b. Upon filing of cases in court.
b. Motion for reconsideration c. Upon escape of the accused.
c. Motion to dismiss d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
d. All of these
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal? 191. When an appeal shall be taken?
a. prosecutor a. within 10 days
b. Secretary of DOJ b. within 30 days
c. appellant c. within 15 days
d. Solicitor General d. within 5 days
182.The party appealing the case shall be called? 192.Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
a. appellant a. Subject of the offense
b. accused b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
c. Appellee of the offense
d. Defendant c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
183.It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit committing an offense
where the power of the court is exercised and which is d. Firearm
jurisdictional in criminal case. 193. When search must be made?
a. Venue a. in the day time
b. Jurisprudence b. only during sunrise
c. jurisdiction c. any time of the day and night
d. court d. in the presence of two witnesses
184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first
instance. 194.In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the
a. Original jurisdiction ____?
b. Exclusive jurisdiction a. Plaintiff
c. concurrent jurisdiction b. offended party
d. appellate jurisdiction c. defendant
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d. Respondent c. When the institution of the civil action is made

195.A complaint or information have the same legal content,
however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who
subscribe an information?
a. Accused
b. Prosecutor
c. Witness
d. victim
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court,
the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
197.An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. d. R.A. 3478
198.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This
principle also known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
199.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
200.The following cases committed by public official with
salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
14-A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
their office.
d. None of the choices
201.It is the law which classifies rape from crime against
chastity to crimes against person, making crime
prosecutable even without a complaint filed the offender
party?
a. R.A. 8353
b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493
d. d. R.A. 7055
202.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to
institute the civil action;
prior to the criminal action.
d. all of the choices
203.What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Independent civil action instituted may be
continued against the estate or legal
representative of the accused.
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case
shall be dismissed without prejudice to any civil
action the offended party may file against the
estate of the deceased.
d. all of the choices
204.Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee
may be released on bail in the following manner, except:
a. property bond
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
205.Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
206.The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned
the same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as
valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
207.The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial
conference except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
208.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209.Amendment without leave of court before the accused
pleads is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following
instances EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c. amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the
crime
210.One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may
be discharged in order to be state witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most
guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
211.P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of
1991. Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay
shall have authority to bring together the parties actually
residing in the same city or municipality for amicable
settlement where the offense committed is punishable by
imprisonment exceeding one (1) year. This statement is:
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c. That the offender resist to a superior officer;

a. absolutely true d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or
b. partly true seize the whole or part of the cargo of said
c. absolutely false vessel, its equipment or personal belonging of its
d. partly false complement or passengers.
212.In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the: 221.Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of
a. Office of the President Piracy:
b. Office of the Clerk of Court a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on
c. Office of the Prosecutor the high seas or in Philippine waters
d. Office of the Ombudsman b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by
boarding or firing upon the same.
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their
information are the following, EXCEPT: victims without means of saving themselves.
a. It must be in writing d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder,
b. It must be in the name of the People of the homicide, physical injuries, or rape.
Philippines. 222.Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office Robbery Law of 1974.
d. It must be filed in court a. Comm. Act No. 616
214.Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal b. P.D. 532
action for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The c. P.D. 533
case may: d. R.A. 6235
a. No longer be prosecuted 223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents detained Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his
c. Still be prosecuted liberty is liable for:
d. Be prosecuted by the State a. illegal detention
b. arbitrary detention
215.The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of c. unlawful arrest
incapacitated individual with no known parents, d. kidnapping
grandparents or guardian is known as: 224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any
a. Doctrine of parens patriae person, EXCEPT:
b. Doctrine of non-suability a. commission of a crime
c. police power b. escape from prison / penal institution
d. habeas corpus c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the
compulsory confinement
216.The modes of making an arrest are: d. a and c only
a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested e. a, b and c
b. by the submission to the custody of the person
making the arrest 225.The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying
c. by using unreasonable force release, EXCEPT:
d. a and b only a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive
e. a and c only order for the release of a prisoner.
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to
217.The following are crimes Against National Security and said prisoner.
Law of Nations, EXCEPT. c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
a. Treason liberation of such person.
b. Piracy and mutiny d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the
c. Espionage detainee to the proper judicial authority.
d. Rebellion e. All of these
218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a
person who owes allegiance to it. 226.Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms
a. treason which is considered a low power gun. Considering that the
b. espionage crime is punishable by correctional penalty, within how
c. adherence to the enemy many hours should that a case be filed to the proper
d. rebellion judicial authority?
219.The degree of proof required to convict a person accused a. 12 hours
of treason. b. 18 hours
a. substantial evidence c. 24 hours
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt d. 36 hours
c. two witness rule 227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
d. preponderance of evidence person to change his resident or otherwise expels him
from the Philippines.
220.The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT: a. violation of domicile
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine b. arbitrary detention
waters; c. trespass to dwelling
b. The offenders are not members of its d. expulsion
complement or passengers of the vessel;
15 | P a g e
228.The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
papers or other effects found therein without the
previous consent of the owner.
c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to
leave the premises, after having surreptitiously
entered said dwelling and after having been
required to leave the premises.
d. Any public officer or employee who searches
domicile without witnesses.
e. All of the choices
229.SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant,
search the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having
discovered the item specified in the warrant, SPO1
Masinop took the same and includes the jewelry box filled
with jewelry which is not included in the list of the item to
be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
a. Liable for the crime of violation of
domicile
b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
c. May not be liable for violation of
domicile
d. Liable for a crime but not on
violation of domicile
230.The following are crimes against the fundamental law of
the States. Which one can be committed by private
person?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Violation of Domicile
c. Interruption of religious worship
d. Offending religious feelings
e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
meetings
231.The law which provides Human Security
a. R.A. 9208
b. R.A. 9745
c. R.A. 9372
d. R.A. 7438
232.Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with
the Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his
Group in the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was
manning the traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under
the facts given, what crime was committed by the former
and that of his Group?
a. murder
b. sedition
c. rebellion
d. homicide
233.This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking
arms against government to completely overthrow and
supersede said existing government.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
234.A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation,
stealth, directed against duly constituted authorities, public
utilities, military camps and installation with or without
civilian support for the purpose of diminishing state power.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
235.It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the
legal method.
a. treason
b. rebellion
c. coup d’etat
d. sedition
236.A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while
going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is
liable for:
a. crime against popular representation
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the
National Assembly
c. violation of parliamentary immunity
d. all of the foregoing
237.The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that
would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. For
what crime can they be charged?
a. Illegal assembly
b. Illegal association
c. coup d’etat
d. rebellion
238.Any association, organization, political party or group of
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or
its law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with
the open or covert assistance or support of a foreign
power by force violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a
crime of:
a. Rebellion
b. Illegal Association
c. Subversive Association or Organization
d. Illegal Assembly
239.Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land
occupied by informal settlers for government projects and
for their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan.
Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of
Mayor Ditas when the latter came near. One of the close
escorts of the Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also
slapped him and punched as well. For what crime Mrs.
Lourdes can be charged for in relation to Mayor Grace?
a. Sedition
b. Slander by Deeds
c. Direct Assault
d. Rebellion
240.The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
a. The assault is committed with a weapon
b. The offender is a public officer or employee
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
authority
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
person in authority
241.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
b. Judicial authority
c. person in authority
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d. Public employee and performing under pretense of official position any act
242.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously pertaining to such person.
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such a. usurpation of authority
person, while engaged in the performance of official b. estafa
functions. c. usurpation of official functions
a. Direct assault d. a & c
b. Indirect Assault 250.Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National without authority of the law.
Assembly a. alias
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in b. A.K.A.
authority or the agents of such person c. fictitious names
243.The following are crimes classified as public disorders, d. true name
EXCEPT. 251.It is committed by a person, who being under oath are
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order required to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a
hearing before a competent authority, shall deny the truth
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful or say something contrary to it.
utterances a. forgery
c. Alarms and scandals b. perjury
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails c. falsification
e. None of the choices d. false testimony
244.Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun 252.Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating customs, which having been committed publicly, have
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? given rise to public scandal to persons who have witness
a. illegal discharge of firearm the same.
b. alarm & scandals a. immoral doctrines
c. disturbances b. obscene publication and exhibition
d. outcry c. grave scandal
245.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion d. libel
of service of sentence. 253.Refers to persons having no apparent means of
a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors, subsistence but has the physical ability to work and
windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors. neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.
b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
violence or intimidation. a. bum
c. Through connivance with other convicts or b. vagrant
employees of the penal institution. c. prostitute
d. All of the choices d. destitute
246.Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before 254.It is the improper performance of some acts which should
serving his sentence or while serving the same he have been lawfully be done.
committed a crime of murder. What condition is said to a. malfeasance
have occurred? b. misfeasance
a. recidivism c. nonfeasance
b. reiteration d. dereliction of duty
c. quasi-recidivism 255.It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an
d. habitual delinquency unjust order which decides some point or matter but which
247.It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue:
instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment
a true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by b. Judgment rendered through negligence
falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or c. Unjust interlocutory order
altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice
contained therein (Art. 169) e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor –
revelation of secrets
a. Falsification of public document
b. Forgery 256.This one is committed by public officers or employees
c. Falsification who, in dereliction of the duties of his office, shall
d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or maliciously refrain from instituting prosecution for the
notary or ecclesiastical minister punishment of violators of law, or shall tolerate the
248.A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker commission of offenses.
and sell the same shall be liable for a crime of: a. Direct bribery
a. Estafa through falsification of a public document b. Indirect bribery
c. Qualified bribery
b. Theft through falsification of a public document d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in
prosecution of offenses
c. Falsification of public document
d. Forgeries 257.What crime is committed by any public officer or employee
249.This crime is committed by any person without any who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in
distinction, by falsely representing himself as an officer connection with the performance of his official duties, in
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consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present c. death caused by tumultuous affray
received by such officer, personally or through the d. riots
mediation of another.
a. Direct bribery 265.Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing
b. Qualified bribery the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
c. Indirect bribery a. parricide
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in b. abortion
prosecution c. intentional abortion
258.Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement d. unintentional abortion
who refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who 266.A formal and regular combat previously concerted
has committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua between two parties in the presence of two or more
and/or death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or seconds of lawful age on each side, who make the
present. selection of arms and fix all other conditions.
a. bribery a. riot
b. direct bribery b. duel
c. qualified bribery c. tumultuous affray
d. indirect bribery d. mutilation
259.It is a crime committed by any appointed public official 267.It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a
who shall become interested in any transaction within his woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the
territory, subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency. latter of its true.
a. Prohibited transaction a. physical injury
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public b. duel
officer c. tumultuous affray
c. Fraud against public treasury d. mutilation
d. Prevarication 268.What crime is committed by person who assaulted
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, another, causing the latter to be absent from work for two
shall appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, weeks?
or through abandonment or negligence shall permit a. mutilation
another person to take public funds or property. b. serious physical injury
a. Direct bribery c. less serious physical injury
b. Technical malversation d. slight physical injury
c. Malversation of public funds 269.Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a
d. Embezzelment child less than 12 years old.
261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or a. rape
public officers: b. acts of lasciviousness
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners c. seduction
b. Infidelity in the custody of documents d. abduction
c. Revelation of secrets 270.A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
d. all of these depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days
is guilty of:
262.This is committed by any public officer or employee who a. illegal detention
shall overdo himself in the correction or handling of a b. arbitrary detention
prisoner or detention prisoner under his charge by the c. serious illegal detention
imposition of punishment not authorize by the regulations d. slight illegal detention
or inflicting punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner. 271.A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted
a. Police brutality the latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the
b. Sadism jailer is guilty of what crime?
c. Maltreament of prisoners a. illegal detention
d. Physical injures b. illegal arrest
c. unlawful arrest
263.This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or d. physical injuries
make immoral advances to a woman under his custody or 272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens
to other women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative another with the infliction upon the person, honor or
within the same degree by affinity of any person in the property of the latter or of his family of any wrong
custody of a warden or officer. amounting to a crime.
a. grave threat
a. Sexual harassment b. light threat
b. Abuses against chastity c. grave coercion
c. Acts of Lasciviousness d. light coercion
d. Abuse of authority 273.When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is
264.Takes place whenever a person is killed during a made by another, what crime is committed?
confusion attendant to quarrel among the several persons a. grave threat
not continuing a group and the perpetrators cannot be
ascertained. b. light threat
a. homicide c. graver coercion
b. murder d. light coercion
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274.Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything

belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the
same to the payment of a debt, is committing. 283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake
a. grave threat b. light threat of causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil
c. light coercion d. graver coercion motive.
275.It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means a. swindling
of force, violence or intimidation to do something against b. destruction of property
his will, whether right or wrong. c. malicious mischief
d. chattel mortgage
a. grave threat 284. What crime was committed by a married woman having
b. light threat carnal knowledge with a man not her husband?
c. grave coercion a. adultery
d. light coercion b. concubinage
276.It includes human conduct, which although not productive c. acts of lasciviousness
of some physical or material harm would annoy any d. seduction
innocent person 285.A married man who allows his paramour to live in their
a. light threat conjugal dwelling is liable of what crime?
b. light coercion a. adultery
c. unjust vexation b. concubinage
d. grave coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with d. seduction
intent to gain by means of violence against, or 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not
intimidations upon things of any person, or using force amounting to rape by using force or intimidation.
upon anything. a. adultery
a. robbery b. concubinage
b. theft c. acts of lasciviousness
c. brigandage d. seduction
d. estafa 287.A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his
278.A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the penis over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what
owner, what crime was committed? crime?
a. a theft
b. robbery a. rape
c. possession of pick locks b. seduction
d. possession of false key c. forcible seduction
d. acts of lasciviousness
288.Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his
279.A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors girlfriend by promising the latter with marriage, what crime
who form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in was committed?
the highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of a. seduction
extortion or to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to b. acts of lasciviousness
be attained by means of force & violence. c. abduction
a. Robbery d. none of the foregoing
b. kidnapping 289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces
c. brigandage of jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding.
d. d. theft The latter however, pawned the said jewelries and
280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but misappropriated the same. What would be the proper
without violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon offense committed by Luz?
things shall take personal property of another without a. swindling
latter’s consent. b. theft
a. robbery c. robbery
b. kidnapping d. malicious mischief
c. brigandage 290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an
d. theft absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away against members of the family from criminal ability in
the furniture of her employer would be charged of what crimes against properties.
crime? a. Robbery
a. theft b. theft
b. robbery c. malicious mischief
c. qualified theft d. estafa
d. estafa 291.It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and
282.Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime.
property would be large when surveyed is a crime of: a. Criminal procedure
a. estafa b. Criminal jurisprudence
b. chattel mortgage c. rules of court
c. usurpation d. rules of procedure
d. altering boundaries or landmarks
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292.It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided a. Generality

cases. b. Territoriality
a. Jurisdiction c. Prospective
b. b. Jurisprudence d. Retroactive
c. Venue
d. territory 302.The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality,
293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit EXCEPT:
where the power of the court is exercised and which is a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation
jurisdictional in criminal case. b. Those who are immune under the law of
a. Venue preferential application
b. Jurisprudence c. Those who are exempted under Public
c. jurisdiction International law
d. court d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador
294.It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
a. Original jurisdiction 303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
b. Exclusive jurisdiction Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city
c. concurrent ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
d. appellate jurisdiction vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
295.It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the loitering?
others.
a. Original jurisdiction a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Exclusive jurisdiction b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of
c. appellate jurisdiction criminal law
d. concurrent jurisdiction c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of
the law
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines d. No, for a did not loiter again
crimes, treats of their nature and provides for their 304.Under what characteristics of criminal law the above
punishment? circumstance falls?
a. civil law a. Generality
b. procedural law b. Territoriality
c. criminal law c. Prospective
d. substantive law d. Retroactive
297.The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT: 305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
a. Act 3815
b. City and municipal ordinance a. Pro reo Principle
c. Special penal laws b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
d. constitution c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of d. Actus me invitusfactus non
criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on?
a. January 1, 1923 306.Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot
b. January 1, 1932 be criminal unless the mind is criminal”.
c. December 8, 1930 a. Pro reo
d. January 1, 1933 b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
299.The following are characteristics of classical theory of c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
criminal law, EXCEPT: d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will
and the purpose of the penalty is retribution. 307.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a
absolutely free will to choose between good and judicial determination of guilt.
evil, thereby placing more stress upon the effect a. Ex post facto law
or result of the felonious act than the man. b. Bill of attainder
c. there is scant regard to the human element. c. Retroactive law
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and d. Prospective
morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do 308.The following persons are exempt from criminal liability
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation. under the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are a. Heads of states
acts committed or omitted in violations of special laws? b. ambassador
a. felony c. ministers of plenipotentiary
b. offense d. charges d affaires
c. misdemeanor e. None of the choices
d. in fractional law 309.Crimes committed within the territorial water of another
country can either be triable in that country or in the
301.Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of country where the vessel is registered. What rule provides
criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states that a crime committed on board vessel shall be NOT
that criminal law is binding on all persons who live or tried in the court of the country having territorial
sojourn in the Philippines? jurisdiction, unless their commission affects the peace and
20 | P a g e

security of the territory or the safety of the state is sugar. Y was not killed as a consequence. What X did he
endangered. commit?
a. French rule a. Mistake in the blow
b. American Rule b. No crime committed
c. Spanish Rule c. preaterintentionem
d. English Rule d. impossible crime
310.Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in
the external world. 319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may
a. act deem proper to repress and which is not punishable by
b. Omission law, it shall:
c. Dolo
d. Culpa a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____. the Chief Executive, through the Department of
a. Deceit Justice
b. Fault b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
c. Culpa Executive, through the Department of Justice.
d. Intent
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to
312. Things which are wrongful in their nature. the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
a. evil d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief
b. mala in ce Justice of the Supreme Court.
c. mala in se 320.This takes place when the offender commences that
d. mala prohibita commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not
313. The moving power which impels one to action for a perform all the acts of execution which should produce the
definite result. felony by reason of some cause or accident other than his
a. intent own spontaneous desistance.
b. motive a. Consummated
c. deceit b. Frustrated
d. fault c. Attempted
d. Impossible crime
314.The following are crime committed by mistakes which 321.A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his
does not operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT: shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury,
a. Aberratio Ictus what crime is committed by A?
b. Error in Personae a. Physical Injury
c. PreaterIntentionem b. Frustrated Homicide
d. Mistake in fact c. Attempted Homicide
315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous d. Less serious physical injury
sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
produces the injury without which the result would not 322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious,
have occurred. EXCEPT:
a. Proximate cause a. The offender performs all the acts of execution
b. Intervening cause b. All the acts performed would produce the felony
c. Immediate cause as a consequence but the felony is not produced.
d. Probable cause c. By reason of causes independent of the will of
316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of the perpetrator.
physical injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT d. Due to some cause or accident other than his
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were own spontaneous desistance.
inflicted was in normal heath.
b. The death may be expected from the physical 323.Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of
injuries inflicted. her husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time. stage of convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of administer an antidote causing Mr. William to survive but
the victim. left in comatose. What was committed by Mrs. Lucila?
317.The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT: a. Frustrated parricide
a. That the act performed would be an offense b. b.attempted parricide
against persons or property. c. serious physical injury
b. That the act was done with evil intent d. less serious physical injury
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, 324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting
or that the means employed is either inadequate from the point where the offender begins the commission
or ineffectual. of the crime to that point where he has still control over his
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of acts including their (acts) natural course.
negligence or imprudence. a. Subjective Phase
b. Objective Phase
318.X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he c. Internal Act
thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a d. Act of Execution
21 | P a g e
325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining
stage of execution of felony?
a. Nature of the offense
b. Elements constituting the felony;
c. Manner of committing the felony
d. Intent in committing the crime
326.A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the
Banco de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-
house, a group of PNP personnel arrested them. What
crime was committed by A,B, and C?
a. Illegal Assembly
b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
c. Attempted Robbery
d. No crime
327.A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in
their secret safe house. While they are planning how to
commit the crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and
arrested the group.
a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
b. No crime was committed
c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
d. Attempted robbery
e. Frustrated robbery
328.Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the
capital punishment or penalties which in any of their
periods are:
a. light
b. correctional
c. afflictive
d. reflective
329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal
laws, what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
a. The RPC shall be observed
b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the
RPC
330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a
person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
committed has been freely and consciously done and may
therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
a. Guilt
b. Liability
c. Responsibility
d. Imputability
331.Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with
the law, so that such person is deemed not to have
transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and
civil liability.
a. justifying circumstances
b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
d. aggravating circumstance
332.The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
a. Unlawful aggression.
b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
prevent or repel it.
c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the
person defending himself.
d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending
himself.
333.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
negligent.
a. Justifying
b. Mitigating
c. Exempting
d. Aggravating
334.Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of
Ms. IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___.
a. Liable for the crime of theft
b. Liable for the crime of robbery
c. Not liable for the crime of theft
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery
335.The following circumstances exempt a person from
criminal liability though there is civil liability considering
that there is crime committed, EXCEPT:
a. Minority
b. Accident
c. Imbecility/Insanity
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable
fear of an equal or greater injury.
336.The following are exempted from criminal liability,
EXCEPT:
a. Children 15 years of age below
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
discernment
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
discernment.
337.Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon
commission of a crime?
a. Those 15 years of age and below
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age
d. Those who are 18 years of age
338.Are those where the act committed is a crime but for
reasons of public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty
imposed.
a. Justifying circumstances
b. Mitigating circumstances
c. Absolutory cause
d. Exempting circumstances
339.X was charged before the court. During the pendency of
his trial he died. What would be the effect of his death on
the case involved and on his criminal liability?
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his
criminal liability is extinguished.
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal
liability is not extinguished.
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his
resurrection.
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished
in case of his conviction.
340.Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause.
a. Spontaneous desistance
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal
liability by reason of relationship
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical
injuries under exceptional circumstances
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d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship murder of another person is liable as:
to the offended party a. principal
e. All of the choices b. accessory
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all c. accomplice
crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. d. conspirator
a. generic 351.Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
b. specific property to meet the fine.
c. qualifying a. subsidiary penalty
d. Inherent b. suspension
342.C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing c. penalty
her using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is d. d.civil interdiction
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy 352.In cases where in the commission of an offense is
b. passion necessary in the commission of another it is said the crime
c. cruelty is:
d. Craft a. formal crime
343.Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for b. informal crime
past offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single c. compound crime
individual and is usually granted to certain classes of d. complex crime
persons usually political offenders, who are subject to trial 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
but not yet convicted. penalties.
a. degree
a. Pardon b. period
b. Commutation c. prescription
c. Parole d. duration
d. Amnesty 354.A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period
344.The law which prohibits the imposition of the death defined by law subject to the termination by the parole
penalty? board at any time after service of the sentence.
a. RA 6981 a. Suspension
b. P.D. 968
c. R.A. 9346 b. indeterminate sentence
d. R.A. 4103 c. prescription
345.How do you call an offender who within a period of ten d. period of penalty
(10) years from the date of his release or last conviction of 355.The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall
the crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), prescribe in how many years?
Theft (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any of a. 15 years
the said crimes a third time or offener? b. 1year
a. Recidivist c. 10 years
b. Quasi recidivist d. 5 years
c. Reiteration 356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and
d. habitual delinquent reclusion temporal shall prescribe in:
346.The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms a. 20 years
of alternative circumstances, except: b. 15 years
a. Low degree education c. 10 years
b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not d. 5 years
intended it or not a habitual drunkard. 357.Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe
c. Relationship in crimes against property in how many years?
d. Relationship in crimes against persons a. 20 years
347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of b. 15 years
a crime. c. 10 years
a. principals d. 5 years
b. accessories 358.Light offenses prescribe in:
c. accomplice a. 12 months
d. instigators b. 6 months
348.A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is c. 4 months
regarded as: d. 2 months
a. principal by direct participation
b. principal by indispensable cooperation 359.A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this
c. principal by induction week”. A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B
d. instigators and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is
349.The desire or wish in common thing concerned, the crime committed by A is:
a. intent a. Attempted murder
b. motive b. frustrated murder
c. conspire c. illegal discharge of firearm
d. cooperate d. all of these
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360.In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: b.mala in se

a. frustrated homicide c.private crimes
b. murder d.public crimes
c. consummated homicide 368.Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have
d. none of the above acted together in the commission of a crime.
361.X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide a.gang
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion b.conspiracy
Perpetua. c.band
d.piracy
369.The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment. to.
Determine his penalty. a.Negligence
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to b.imprudence
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the c.omission
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. d.act
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to 370.Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
Reclusion temporal (any period) as the maximum trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of
period of the indeterminate penalty his criminal plan.
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to a.Misfeasance
reclusion perpetua as maximum b.entrapment
d. Prision mayor c.inducement
362.X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated) d.instigation
punishable by prision correctional. There was one
aggravating circumstances in the commission of the crime 371.The following are exempted from criminal liability,
let us say “with the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty. EXCEPT:
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to a. Children 15 years of age below
Prision correctional (maximum period) as b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to discernment
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
period of the indeterminate penalty discernment
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as 372.Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for
maximum period the offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the
d. None of the above crime of the conditions which make the act voluntary or
negligent.
363.Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a a. Justifying
crime. b. Exempting
a.15-18 years old c. Mitigating
b.18-70 years old d. Aggravating
c.9 years old and below 373.When a public officer convinces a person to commit a
d.between 9 and 15 years old felony and would arrest him or her after its commission he
364.Those who, not being principals cooperate in the is committing.
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. a. instigation
a.Accomplices b. entrapment
b.Suspects c. conspiracy
c.principal actors d. proposal
d.accessories 374.It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
365.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to depending upon what the law provides and cannot be
execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time offset by any aggravating circumstances.
fixed by law. a. Mitigating Circumstances
a.prescription of crime b. Exempting circumstances
b.prescription of prosecution c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
c.prescription of judgment d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
d.prescription of penalty 375.Crimes are classified in various categories. What
classifications of crime is when a single act results to or
366.A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of more serious or less serious offenses.
penalty is suspended. a. Continuing Crime
a.Pardon b. Complex crime or delito complejo
b.commutation c. Special complex crime
c.amnesty d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
d.reprieve

367.Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to 376.Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle
secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the from Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr.
society. Goddard sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for
a.mala prohibita vacation and the only way to reach the island is to ride a
24 | P a g e
boat, Mr. Dellinger rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the
owner of the only boat that can be rented to reach the
island. Also knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton
allowed the boat to be rented for a much higher price. Mr.
Dellinger successfully reached the island and killed Mr. R.
Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts requested the
service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to bury Mr’s
Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What was
the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Manslaughter
377.What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
378.What about Mr. C. Goddard?
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
379.What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
380.The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
a. Obedience to a lawful order
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or
performance of duty
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an
irresistible force
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
381.The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio
without a complaint first filed by the offended party,
EXCEPT:
a. Seduction
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Acts of Lasciviousness
382.What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal
property belonging to another is committed with grave
abuse of confidence?
a. Robbery
b. Qualified Theft
c. Theft
d. Burglary
383.What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of
murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
a. Murder
b. Illegal Possession of firearm
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
384.If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a
person in a manner that is determined and constant until
the lawful purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
a. Threat
b. Grave threat
c. Coercions
d. Light threat
385.When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the
offended party does not amount to a crime the designation
of the offense is called
a. Threats
b. Grave threats
c. Light Threats
d. Coercion
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the
same is liable for:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
d. all of the choices.
387.If a private person removes a person confined in jail or
penal institution or helps in the escape of such person by
means of violence, intimidation, bribery or any other
means, the crime committed is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
388.Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389.X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing
her, using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390.Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
relative to national defense with intent to be used to the
injury of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391.To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of
persons to proper judicial authorities, a person caught in
the act of committing a felony punishable by penalties
which are correctional in nature must be delivered to said
authorities within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392.Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads
are allowed under the following circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the
offense
d. None of these
393.The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil
liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted with the criminal action. This rule does not apply
in the following instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
25 | P a g e
b. When the offended party reserves the right to
institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the criminal
action
d. When the offended party institute the civil action
prior to the criminal action.
394.The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395.The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396.The petition for suspension of the criminal action based
upon the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action
may be filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor
d. None of these
397.Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required
before the filing of a complaint or information where the
penalty for the offense is:
a. At least 6 years and 1 day
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day
398.The following may be submitted by the respondent in a
preliminary investigation, EXEPT:
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss
c. Witness counter affidavit
d. supporting documents
399.The following officers are authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation on cases falling within their
jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
a. Provincial prosecutor
b. City prosecutor
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman
d. Judges of Municipal trial court
400.An offense which under the law existing at the time of its
commission and of the application for admission to bail
may be punish with death is called:
a. Capital punishment
b. Heinous crime
c. Capital Offense
d. Grave offense
401.The court may dismiss the case on the ground of
insufficiency of evidence:
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior
leave of court
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution
an opportunity to be heard
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel
d. A and B only
402.Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben
which was snatched from him three days ago. He
confronted the latter and force to get back said cell phone
against his will. For what crime or crimes may Manuel be
liable for, if he will go to force to get back the same?
a. Coercion
b. Robbery
c. Threats
d. Theft
403.The following statement are false, EXCEPT:
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other
than where the case is assigned.
404.Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense
and the evidence of guilt is strong.
a. Absolutely true
b. Absolutely false
c. Partly true
d. Partly false
405.Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under
the custody of the law. It should be made at:
a. Anytime of the day
b. anytime of the day and night
c. Anytime of the morning
d. d. anytime of the night
406.It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with
kettles, his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy:
a. Charivari
b. Grave scandal
c. Alarm and Scandal
d. Harana
407.The application for search warrant may be filed with the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a
crime was committed.
b. Any court within the judicial region where the
crime was committed
c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
d. Any Court Within judicial region where the
warrant shall be enforced
408.An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first
level court shall be by:
a. Notice of appeal
b. by Petition for review
c. Petition for review on certiorari
d. Petition for certiorari
409.After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be
dismiss due to insufficiency of evidence by:
a. The courts own initiative
b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer
to evidence
c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
d. a and b only
410.Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the
escape of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail
guard to leave the door unlocked so as to facilitate the
escape of Mr. Chan. The guard leaves the door unlocked
and tells Mr. Chan to escape at mid-night. What crime was
committed by the Warden?
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Direct Bribery
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
411.What Crime can be charged against the guard who
26 | P a g e

connives with the prisoner? b. 30 days

a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion c. 20 days
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners d. 180 days
c. Delivering prisoner from jail 420.The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial
d. A and B Court is called?
a. R.A. 7691
412.A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral b. R.A. 3019
or indecent advances to a woman who is under his c. R.A. 8493
custody or wife or daughter of the person under his d. B.P. 129
custody shall be liable for: 421.Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
a. Acts of lasciviousness peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
b. Abuses against Chastity the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of
c. Indirect Bribery the prosecutor.
d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners a. Complaint
b. Information
413.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of c. Pleadings
evidence which means that evidence must have such d. Affidavit
relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its 422.Prescription of offense commence to run:
existence or non-existence. The other requisite is a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended
____________? party or peace officers or their agent.
a. That is should not be excluded for by law. b. Upon filing of cases in court
b. That it is material to the facts in issue c. Upon escape of the accused
c. That it is credible d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
d. That it is the best evidence
414.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible 423.The following are cases covered by rules on summary
hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except: procedure EXCEPT:
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
establish the probability or improbability of the b. Violation of traffic laws
fact in issue. c. Violation of rental laws
b. When it is competent d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6)
c. When it is credible months imprisonment
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue 424.Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
based on other related evidence. assist destitute litigant?
415.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a. Counsel de officio
a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored b. counsel de parte
on what requisites of admissibility? c. Public Attorney’s Office
a. materiality d. National Prosecution Office
b. competency
c. relevancy 425.It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend
d. credibility and to testify or to bring with him any books or documents
416.It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the under his control at the trial of an action.
trier of facts because of its logical connection with the a. subpoena
issue. Evidence which has an effective influence or b. subpoena duces tecum
bearing to the question? c. subpoena ad testificandum
a. material d. warrant of arrest
b. relevant 426.The order of trial is:
c. competent a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
d. credible b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross
417.The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct
imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal.
permanent ________ after issuance of the order without
the case having been revived.
a. One year 427.Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings,
b. six months mannequins or any other appropriate demonstrative
c. Two years device to assist him in testimony.
d. three years a. Testimonial aids
418.Within how many days after arraignment and from the b. Emotional security items
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the c. support item
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? d. none of these
a. 30 days 428.It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages
b. 20 days of examination of a child, if the same will further the
c. 15 days interest of justice.
d. 60 days a. leading questions
419.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare b. misleading
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? c. relevant
a. 15 days d. narrative
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429.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of 437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and
evidence of the following, EXCEPT: Benefit program and for other purposes.
a. Matters of Public Knowledge a. R.A. 6981
b. The measure of time b. R.A. 6646
c. Law of nations c. P.D.749
d. Law of nature d. R.A. 6770
430.Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise 438. No person may be compelled to testify against his
of its discretion, EXCEPT. parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct
a. The geographical divisions descendants. This is embodied under what principle?
b. Matter which are of public knowledge; a. Parental and filial privilege.
c. Matters capable of unquestionable b. declaration against pedigree
demonstration; or c. declaration against common reputation
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of d. res inter alois acta rule
their judicial functions. e.
431.Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. 439.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of
These requisites are: any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the
a. The matter must be one of common and general offeror on the following case, EXCEPT.
knowledge. a. In civil cases
b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not b. Those arising from criminal negligence
doubtful or uncertain c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical,
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the hospital or other expenses occasioned by an
jurisdiction of the court. injury.
d. All of the choices d. In criminal cases
432.Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of
the proceeding in the same case which does not require 440.A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of
proof. a plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____?
a. Admission a. not admissible in evidence against the accused
b. self serving statement who made the plea of offer.
c. declaration against interest b. admissible in evidence against the accused who
d. confession made the plea of offer
433.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document c. shall not be considered an plea
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original d. will be considered a plea of not guilty
documents itself. This refers to the _____. 441.The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
a. Best Evidence Rule declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by
b. Secondary Evidence Rule the rules of court.
c. Parol Evidence Rule a. Res inter alios acta rule
d. Best Evidence b. admission by co-partner
c. admission by co-conspirator
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or
434.What are secondary evidence? saying anything when an act or declaration is
a. Certified true COPY of a said against him in his presence.
document 442.The following are the requirements in determining child’s
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic competency as a witness EXCEPT:
document a. capacity of Observation
c. Testimony of witnesses b. capacity of Recollection
d. All of the choices c. capacity of Communication
435.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to d. capacity to Comprehend
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
upon and there can be, as between the parties and their 443.Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made
successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other by several person charged with the same offense and
than the contents of the agreement. without the possibility of collision among them, the fact
that the statements are in all respects identical is
a. Parol evidence Rule confirmatory of the confessions of the co-defendants and
b. b. parol evidence are admissible against the other persons implicated
c. Best Evidence Rule therein.
d. Secondary Evidence a. interlocking confessions
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, b. res inter alios acta rule
can make known of their perception to others can be c. admission by privies
witness and the following shall not be a ground for d. confession by co-defendant
disqualification. 444.An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
a. Religious and political belief hearing or observation of a party who does or says
b. Interest in the outcome of the case nothing when the act or declaration is such as to call for
c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided action or comment if not true, and when proper and
by law possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence
d. All of the choices against him.
28 | P a g e

a. admission by silence e. Partly false

b. confession
c. admission by co-conspirator 453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or
d. admission by privies derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
445.Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule? which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts a.documentary evidence
which he knows of his personal knowledge; that b.testimonial evidence
ism which are derived from his own perception. c.material evidence
b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence d.real evidence
in court 454.When the witness states that he did not see or know the
c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the occurrence of a fact.
authority of another person. a.positive evidence
d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to b.corroborative evidence
facts of which the witness has no personal c.secondary evidence
knowledge because it is derived from the d.negative evidence
knowledge or perception of others who are not 455.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry
called to testify. and render judgment after a fair trial.
a.ex post facto law
446.The declaration of a dying person, made under the b.equal protection of the law
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in c.rule of law
any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as d.due process of law
evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of
such death. 456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that
a. Dying declaration which is intended.
b. res gestae a. Aberratio ictus
c. declaration against interest b. Error in personae
d. declaration about pedigree c. Dura Lex Sed lex
447.Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in d. Praeter Intentionem
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the 457.If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___
amount of evidence required by law. shall be entered.
a. burden of evidence a. Not guilty
b. burden of proof b. admission by silence
c. proof of evidence c. guilty
d. cause of action d. none
448.A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia 458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the
anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national following circumstances:
was caught in possession of Cocaine. What rule provides a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense
that a crime committed while on board of the vessel. b. plea of guilty to capital offense
a. French rule c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense
b. American Rule d. all of these
c. Spanish Rule
d. English Rule 459.When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or motion alleging among others the defect of the complaint
guardianship. or information and the details desired in order to enable
a. subsidiary penalty him to properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is
b. penalty known as:
c. suspension a. motion for bill of particular
d. civil interdiction b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss
450.It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual d. motion for postponement
relationship to a married man. This statement is? 460.Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be
a. True suspended on the following grounds:
b. false a. The accused appears to be suffering from
c. It depends unsound mental condition.
d. Partly false b. There exist a prejudicial question.
451.The following are considered afflictive penalties, except: c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the
a. death by lethal injection prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office
b. reclusion perpetua of the President .
c. reclusion temporal d. All of the choices
d. prison mayor
452.It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual 461.A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by
relationship to a married woman. an accused is:
This statement is? a. Motion to quash
a. True b. Nolle pro sequi
b. false c. Motion to dismiss
c. It depends d. bill of particulars
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462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and d. demurred to evidence
punish or the termination of the power to prosecute or 471.The following cases committed by public official with
punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite salary grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive
period from the commission of the offense. jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Prescription of crime a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A.
b. acquisitive 1379 and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two
c. prescription of penalty of the RPC
d. extinctive b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and
danger of being prosecuted for the same offense for the 14-A.
second time. c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to
a. double jeopardy their office.
b. double trial d. None of the choices
c. double trouble 472.Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
d. double counter instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as
464.Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by provided by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances
imprisonment not exceeding six years or a fine of any can a civil action for recovery of civil liability can be
amount or both shall become permanent after ____. separated?
a. one year a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. 2 years b. When the offended party reserves his right to
c. 5 years institute the civil action;
d. 4 years c. When the institution of the civil action is made
465.Within how many days after arraignment and from the prior to the criminal action.
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the d. all of the choices
accused shall order a pre-trial conference?
a. 30 days 473.Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with
b. 15 days engineer Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were
c. 20 days surveying the land occupied by informal settlers for
d. 60 days government projects and for their relocation. The residents
oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, one of the residents,
466. How many days are given to an accused person to slapped the face of Mayor Alden when the latter came
prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends her
a. 15 days but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well.
b. 20 days For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation
c. 30 days to Mayor Alden?
d. 180 days a. Sedition
467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, b. Slander by Deeds
the following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary c. Direct Assault
investigation except? d. Rebellion
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC 474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
c. Regional State Prosecutor a. The assault is committed with a weapon
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d b. The offender is a public officer or employee
468.A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, c. The offender lays hands upon a person in
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties authority
of the arresting detailing and investigation officer. d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
a. R.A. 7438 person in authority
b. R.A. 7348 e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad
c. R.A. 7834 without public uprising.
d. R.A. 3478 475.Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an
individual or as a member of some court or government
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
a. Agent of a person in authority
469.Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused b. Judicial authority
cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. This c. person in authority
principle also known as: d. Public employee
a. rights against illegal arrest 476.It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously
b. the right to presume innocent disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such
c. rights against self- incrimination person, while engaged in the performance of official
d. right to live functions.
470.Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following a. Direct assault
pleading are prohibited except: b. Indirect Assault
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
30 | P a g e

c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National 485.An act which would be an offense against persons or
Assembly property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in accomplishment.
authority or the agents of such person a.compound crime
477.The following are crimes classified as public disorders, b.impossible crime
EXCEPT. c.complex crime
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order d.accidental crime
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful 486.The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
utterances a.RA 5425
c. Alarms and scandals b.RA 8553
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails c.RA 7659
e. None of the choices d.RA 9346
478.Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun 487.The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a
in the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating person as its owner or author
his birthday. Such act constitutes ___? a.responsibility
a. illegal discharge of firearm b.duty
b. alarm & scandals c.guilt
c. disturbances d.imputability
d. outcry 488.Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies
prisoner), gave 20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable
the escape of her brother is guilty of what crime? consequences.
a. Evasion of service of sentence a.fortuitous event
b. delivering prisoners from jail b.fate
c. Bribery c.accident
d. Corruption of public official d.destiny
489.Known in other countries as the body of principles,
480.The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion practices, usages and rules of action which are not
of service of sentence. recognized in our country.
a. By means of unlawful entry a.penal laws
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs b.special laws
or floors. c.common laws
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, d.statutory laws
violence or intimidation. 490.Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent
of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an
d. Through connivance with other convicts or act. Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal
employees of the penal institution. liability there is civil liability
e. All of the choices a.Exempting
481.Within how many days after arraignment and from the b.alternative
date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the c.justifying
accused shall order a pre-trial conference? d.aggravating
a. 30 days 491.Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in
b. 20 days accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
c. 15 days and civil liability.
d. 60 days a.exempting
b.alternative
482.How many days is given to an accused person to prepare c.justifying
for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? d.aggravating
a. 15 days 492.When the offender enjoys and delights in making his
b. 30 days victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
c. 20 days unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the
d. 180 days criminal act.
483.Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be a.Ignominy
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom? b.cruelty
a.Parents c.treachery
b.Offended Spouse d.masochism
c.Guardians 493.One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have
d.God father been previously convicted by final judgment of another
484.Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal
of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty Code.
imposed. a.Recidivism
a.impossible crimes b.habitual delinquency
b.aggravating circumstances c.reiteracion
c.absolutory causes d.quasi-recidivism
d.complex crimes
494.Alevosia means
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a. Craft a. the same in all courts and in all trials and

b. treachery hearings
c. evident premeditation b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and
d. cruelty hearings
c. dependent on the type of case involved
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials
495.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and hearings
and render judgment after a fair trial. 504.Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of
a. ex post facto law evidence which means that evidence must have such
b. equal protection of the law relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its
c. rule of law existence or non-existence. The other requisite is ____?
d. due process of law a. That it should not be excluded for by law
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
496.A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his c. That it is credible
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less d. That it is the best evidence
serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or 505.Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible
falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a hence, collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
third time or oftener. a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to
a. Recidivist establish the probability or improbability of the
b. quasi-recidivist fact in issue.
b. When it is competent
c. When it is credible
c. habitual delinquent d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
d. hardened criminal based on other related evidence
497.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which 506.Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of
is intended. a person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored
a. Aberratio ictus on what requisites of admissibility?
b. Error in personae a. a. materiality
c. Dura Lex Sed lex b. relevancy
d. Praeter Intentionem c. competency
d. credibility
498.It means mistake in the blow. 507.Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or
a. Aberratio Ictus know of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
b. Error in Personae a. negative
c. Dura lex sed lex b. affirmative
d. Praeter Intentionem c. positive
499.A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for d. Alibi
its execution and accomplishment are present. 508.An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove
a. Attempted the same facts in issue. Evidence which are
b. Frustrated supplementary to that already given and tending to
c. Consummated strengthen or confirm it.
d. Accomplished a. Corroborative
500. An act or omission which is the result of a b. Associative
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not c. Commulative
intentional. d. Credible
a. Absolutory Cause 509.Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
b. Mistake of facts logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record,
c. Conspiracy exclusive of any other consideration, of the moral certainty
d. Felony of the guilt of the accused or that degree of proof which
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of
fact? a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. Evidence b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
b. Facts c. Preponderance of evidence
c. Proof d. Substantial evidence
d. Burden of proof 510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to
502.It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. establish the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions
It is the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of of innocence to warrant a conviction.
action? a. Prima-facie evidence
a. Factum probandum b. Preponderance of evidence
b. Evidence c. Rebuttal evidence
c. factum probans d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
d. proof
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as 511.Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
otherwise provided by law or these rules. evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
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a. Matters of Public Knowledge authentic document or by the testimony of witnesses in the

b. Law of nation order stated.
c. The measure of time a. Secondary Evidence Rule
d. Law of nature b. Best Evidence Rule
512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of c. Secondary Evidence
its discretion, EXCEPT: d. Parole Evidence Rule
a. The geographical divisions 519.When secondary evidence is allowed?
b. Matter which are of public knowledge a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or
c. Matters capable of unquestionable cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on
demonstration; or the part of the offeror;
d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of b. When the original is under the custody or under
their judicial functions. the control of the party against whom the
evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce
513.When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request it after reasonable notice;
of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow c. When the original consist of numerous accounts
the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of or other documents which cannot be examined in
a material issue in the case? court without great loss of time and the fact
a. after the trial sought to be established from them is only the
b. before judgment general result of the whole; and
c. on appeal d. When the original is a public record in the
d. all of the choices custody of a public officer or is recorded in a
514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an public office
acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of e. All of the choices
the proceeding in the same case which does not require 520.What are secondary evidence?
proof. a. A Certified True COPY of a document
a. Admission b. A recital of its contents in some authentic
b. declaration against interest document
c. self-serving statement c. Testimony of witnesses
515.Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the d. All of the choices
court.
a. Real or Object 521.When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
b. Testimonial writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed
c. Documentary upon and there can be, as between the parties and their
d. Direct successors in interest, no evidence of such terms other
516.When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document than the contents of the agreement.
no evidence shall be admissible other than the original a. Parol Evidence Rule
documents itself. This refers to the ___. b. Best Evidence Rule
a. Best Evidence Rule c. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence Rule d. Secondary Evidence
c. Parole Evidence Rule 522.It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a
d. Best Evidence party presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to
517.What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule: the terms of the written agreement.
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed a. Parol Evidence
orunder cannot be produced in court, without bad b. Secondary Evidence
faith on the part of the offeror; c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
b. When the original is in the custody or under the 523.On which of the following circumstances parol evidence
control of the party against whom the evidence is can be accepted?
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
reasonable notice; imperfection in the written agreement;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to
or other documents which cannot be examined in express the true intent and agreement of the
court without great loss of time and the fact parties thereto;
sought to be established from them is only the c. The validity of the written agreement;
general result of the whole; and d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the
d. When the original is a public record in the parties or their successors in interest after the
custody of the public officer or is recorded in a execution of the written agreement.
public office. 524.The following are qualifications for discharged of a person
e. All of the choices to be state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of
518.When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or the accused whose discharge is requested;
cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
its execution or existence and the cause of its proper prosecution for the offense committed
unavailability without bad faith on his part, may prove its except the testimony of said accused;
contents by a copy, or by a recital of its contents in some c. The testimony of said accused can be
substantially corroborated in its material points;
33 | P a g e

d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty; b.equal protection of the law
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted c.rule of law
of an offense involving moral turpitude; d.due process of law
525.R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or 533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on?
deposits are absolutely confidential in nature and may not a. January 1, 1923
examined or inquired or looked into by any person or b. January 1, 1932
government officials, EXCEPT: c. December 8, 1930
a. upon written permission of the depositor d. January 1, 1933
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber, 534.It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which
dereliction of duty of public officials is intended.
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is a. Aberratio ictus
the subject matter of litigation b. Error in personae
e. in cases of well explained wealth c. Dura Lex Sed lex
d. Praeter Intentionem
526.No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, 535.Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes,
other direct ascendants, children or other direct treats of their nature and provides for their punishment?
descendants. This is embodied under what principle? a. Act 3815
a. Parental and filial privilege b. Criminal Law
b. declaration against pedigree c. Revised Penal Code
c. declaration against common reputation d. Criminal Procedure
d. declaration against Parental relationship
536.Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn
in Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious
527.An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by:
any liability and is not admissible in evidence against the a. Treaty Stipulation
offeror on the following case, EXCEPT: b. Public International Law
a. In civil cases c. Law of Preferential Application
b. Those arising from criminal negligence d. All of the choices
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, 537.By Principles of Public International law, the following
hospital or other expenses occasioned by an enjoin immunity from the application of the Philippine
injury Criminal law, EXCEPT:
d. In criminal cases a. Consul
528.It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of b. Heads of State
facts. c. Ambassador
a. secondary evidence d. d. Minister de affaires
b. prima facie evidence 538.Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or
c.corroborative evidence forbidding it:
d. Cumulative evidence a. Crimes
b. Felonies
529.It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or c. Offense
uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition d. Infractions of law
affirmed.
a.secondary evidence 539.Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal
b.prima facie evidence liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is
c.corroborative evidence retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised
d.best evidence Penal Code.
530.A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or a. Eclectic
derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by b. Classical Theory
which ideas are represented on material substances. c. Positivist Theory
a.documentary evidence d. Neo-Classical Theory
b.testimonial evidence
c.material evidence 540.The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial
d.real evidence jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle
and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime
531.When the witness states that he did not see or know the committed on board vessels affects the national security of
occurrence of a fact. the Country where such vessel is located.
a. positive evidence a. French Rule
b. corroborative evidence b. English Rule
c. secondary evidence c. Spanish Rule
d. negative evidence d. Greek Rule
541.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
532.The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
and render judgment after a fair trial. judicial determination of guilt.
a.ex post facto law a. Ex post facto law
34 | P a g e

b. Retroactivity b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty

c. Bill of attainder c. Executive Clemency
d. Prospective d. Indeterminate Sentence
542.Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of
Dolo or Deceit? 551.The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to
a. Intent execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time.
b. Freedom a. Prescription of Crime
c. Intelligence b. Prescription of Penalty
d. Negligence c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
543.These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
but the doer is found to have transgress the law for act commission of crime
which it prohibits. 552.The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute
a. Crime the offender after the lapse of certain time.
b. Felonies a. Prescription of Crime
c. Mala in se b. Prescription of Penalty
d. Mala Prohibita c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime
544.Is that act performed which would be an offense against d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the
persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal commission of crime
impossibility of its accomplishment. 553.It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction
a. Mala in se and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed
b. mala prohibita by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
c. Impossible crime a. Parole
d. Formal crimes b. Pardon
545.It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and c. Probation
not an essential element of a crime but would tend to d. Amnesty
establish the identity of the perpetrator. 554.Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole
a. Intent Law.
b. Motive a. Act No. 4103 as amended
c. Negligence b. RA No. 4103 as amended
d. ignorance c. RA No. 4225 as amended
546.The following are causes which would produce criminal d. PD No. 968 as amended
liability though the result be different from what is 555.What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59)
intended, EXCEPT: a. Arresto Menor
a.Abberatio ictus b. Arresto Mayor
b.Error in Personae c. Prision Correctional
c.Preater intentionem d. Prision Mayor
d.Ignorantia Facti 556.It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s
sentence shall not be more than 3 times the length of the
547.The offender performs all the acts of execution that would most severe of the penalties imposed upon him but in no
produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not case to exceed 40 years.
produced by reason of causes independent of the will of
the perpetrator. a. Three-fold rule
a. Attempted b. Three-fold liability rule
b. Consummated c. Four-fold rule
c. Frustrated d. Four-fold liability rule
d. Formal Crimes 557.In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of
548.Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a subsidiary imprisonment.
single act.
a.formal crimes
b.formal felonies a. Php 8.00
c.informal crimes b. Php 12.00
d.material crimes c. Php 35. 00
549.It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country
to commit a felony and decide to commit it. 558.It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of
a. Proposal Court to be assessed against or to be recovered by a
b. Conspiracy party in litigation.
c. A & B a. Costs
d. Cuadrilla b. Fine
550.A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall c. Damages
be granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service d. Civil liability
of his sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the 559.Who may grant pardon?
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a a. The President
proclamation announcing the passing away of the b. The private offended party
calamity. c. The accused
a. Good Conduct Time Allowance d. The People of the Philippines
35 | P a g e

560.If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the b. Principal by inducement
same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, c. Accomplice
the credited preventive imprisonment is d. Accessory
a. Fulltime credit 569.Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at
b. 4/5 credit the crime scene and performs acts necessary in the
c. 2/3 credit commission of the crime.
d. 1/5 credit a. Principal by inducement/ induction
561.Period of detention undergone by an accused where the b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
crime with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if c. Principal by direct participation
bailable, he is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39) d. Principal by conspiracy
a. Solitary confinement
b. Preventive imprisonment 570.Who are criminally liable?
c. Inmate incarceration a. Principals
d. Suppressive Detention b. Accomplices
562.A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of c. Accessories
parental authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3) d. All of the choices
The right to manage his property; and (4) The right to 571.Those which must be taken into consideration as
dispose of such property by any act or any conveyance aggravating or mitigating according to the nature and
inter vivos. effects of the crime and the other conditions attending its
a. Absolute disqualification commission.
b. Temporary disqualification a. Extenuating
c. Bond to keep the peace b. Mitigating
d. Civil interdiction c. Alternative
563.It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a d. Aggravating
certain place and is prohibited from entering or coming 572.It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
near that place designated in the sentence, not less than material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury
25 kilometers but not to extend beyond 250 kilometers. or adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks
a. Transportation the moral conscience of man.
b. Deportation a. Cruelty
c. Destierro b. Ignominy
d. Extradition c. Outraging
d. Scoffing
564.Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except: 573.Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex
a. Capital object, also forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A
b. Afflictive committed crime of Violence Against Women and Their
c. Correctional Children?
d. Slight a. Maybe NO
e. Light b. Yes
565.Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the c. No
imposition of penalty: d. Maybe YES
a. Retribution or expiation 574.The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing
b. Correction or reformation information respecting the national defense with intent, or
c. Social defense there is reason to believe that information is to be used to
d. Public Rataliation the injury of the Republic of the Philippines or to the
advantage of any foreign nation.
566.The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a a. Treason
person who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is b. Rebellion
against the law. c. Espionage
a. Penalty d. Mutiny
b. Ordeal 575.Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are
c. Fine punishable under
d. Imprisonment a. BP No. 616
b. PD No. 616
567.Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from c. CA No. 616
criminal liability, EXCEPT: d. RA No. 616
a. Natural brother/ sister
b. Legitimate brother/ sister 576.Committed when two countries are at war of which the
c. Adopted brother/ sister Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the
d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality.
e. Brother in a fraternity a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal
568.One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the b. Violation of neutrality
principals by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the c. Correspondence with hostile country
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts, d. Flight to enemy’s country
with the intention of supplying material or moral aid in the 577.A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy
execution of the crime in an efficacious way. country despite government prohibition is liable of this
a. Principal by indispensable cooperation crime.
36 | P a g e

a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal 586.A public officer who procures a search warrant without just
b. Violation of neutrality cause is liable of
c. Correspondence with hostile country a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
d. Flight to enemy’s country b. Warrant maliciously obtained
578.Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful c. Searching domicile without witnesses
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and d. Violation of Domicile
intention of universal hostility. 587.An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the
a. Mutiny Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace
b. Piracy officer, commanding him to SEARCH for personal property
c. Sea-jacking described therein and bring it before the court.
d. Hi-jacking a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Search Warrant
579.The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go c. Subpoena
from Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a d. Summons
widespread and extra-ordinary fear and panic among the 588.In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
populace. They demanded from the government to appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
release all prisoners entire the country for them to stop a. Accepted
raping. Are they liable for terrorism? b. Determinate
a. Yes c. Sensitive
b. No d. Unreliable
c. Doubtful 589.To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of
d. No answer the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
580.Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. Detaining a person without legal ground sentence
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
proper authorities sentence
c. Delaying release c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his
d. Illegal Detention indeterminate sentence
581.A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
detains a person without legal ground. sentence
a. Arbitrary detention 590.What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the a. Codigo Penal
proper authorities b. Code of Kalantiao
c. Delaying release c. Code of Hammurabi
d. Illegal Detention d. Maragtas Code
e. No crime 591.How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
582.A crime committed by a private individual who detains a a. Liberally in favor of the government
person without legal ground. b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
a. Arbitrary detention c. Liberally in favor of the accused
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
proper authorities 592.Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
c. Delaying release requires the highest condemnation of the society.
d. Illegal Detention a. Crimes mala prohibita
583.Committed by a public officer who detains a person for b. Crimes mala in se
some legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the c. Crimes supersedeas
proper authority w/n the prescribed time. d. Crimes flagrante delicto
a. Arbitrary detention 593.This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the over crimes committed on board the vessel unless they
proper authorities involve the internal management of the vessel.
c. Delaying release
d. Illegal Detention a. American Rule
b. English Rule
584.A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays c. French Rule
the release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/ d. Filipino Rule
executive order to release him.
a. Arbitrary detention 594.Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the impartial attorneys that may be invited by the court to
proper authorities appear as amicus curiae’
c. Delaying release a. Champertous contract
d. Illegal Detention b. Amicus curiae
585.A public officer who without authority compels a person to c. Amicus curiea
change his residence is guilty of d. Champertuos contract
a. Grave Coercion 595.A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses
b. Grave Threat of litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay
c. Expulsion the lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be
d. Violation of Domicile
37 | P a g e

won or recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical c. penetration

for the lawyer and hence illegal. d. assassin
a. Champertous contract 605.Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
b. Amicus curiae a. trumpet
c. Amicus curiea b. siren
d. Champertuos contract c. horn
596.The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts d. radio
based on the same cause of action. This is not allowed 606.The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is
and is a ground for dismissal of the case filed by the guilty called?
party. a. tear down
a. contempt b. eviction
b. forum shipping c. squadron
c. forum shopping d. demolition
d. direct contempt 607.H refers to the importance of the establishment with
597.It is a small ceremonial mallet commonly made of hardwood, reference to the national economy and security?
and a symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the a. risk analysis
capacity of a chair or presiding officer. b. relative critically
a. Gavel c. risk assessment
b. Hammer d. relative vulnerability
c. Wood hammer
608.There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in
598.The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of 2011. What was the percent increase?
all judges and it is called as. a. +27.3%
a. Black robes b. +23.7%
b. Black toga c. +37.2%
c. Black dress d. +32.7%
d.White robes 609.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
599.It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
particular day usually placed or posted outside the b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
courtroom. c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
a. Court calendar d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
b. Supreme Court calendar 610.The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
c. School calendar the national economy or security:
d. Schedule calendar a. Relative security
600.Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court b. Relative necessity
or judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. c. Relative criticality
a. contempt d. Relative vulnerability
b. direct contempt 611. These are the major courses of action that the
c. indirect contempt organization plans to take in order to achieve its
d. disobedience objectives.

601.A-2 in Intelligence report means? a. Procedures

a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by b. Strategies
other sources c. Plans
b. completely reliable source and is d. Objectives
Probably true 612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but
c. completely reliable source and is they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the
Usually reliable high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal
d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by requirement of acceptance.
other sources a. Democracy
602.Seeing ahead and making sound assumption? b. Functional authority
a. prioritizing c. Line authority
b. foretelling d. Staff authority
c. forecasting 613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
d. documenting of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
organization.
603.This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest a. Audit
of criminal syndicate member? b. Coordination
a. investigation c. Monitoring
b. intelligence d. Authority
c. crime search 614.PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available
d. patrol information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
604.Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
information and would be managed to get back? a. anti – juvenile delinquency
a. mercenary b. criminal investigation
b. none c. intelligence operations
38 | P a g e

d. patrol activities d. counter-intelligence

615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than. 623.The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can
a. promote better police-citizen interaction be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment
writing of:
c. improve administration efficiency particularly in a. patrol base headquarters
recruitment and selection b. crime information center
a. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate c. management information center
members d. public information office
616.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report 624.Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? ________ on the entire police organization, community,
a. information is usually from a reliable source and crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
is possibly true a. costs
b. information is usually from a reliable source and b. data
is improbable c. plans
c. information is usually from a reliable source and d. statement
is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and
is doubtfully true 625.New employees should be briefed on security rules and
617.PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report regulations of the organization and the importance of
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? observing them. This process is called:
a. information is usually from a reliable source and a. security information
is possibly true b. security reminders
b. information is usually from a reliable source and c. security orientation
is improbable d. security investigation
c. information is usually from a reliable source and 626.What plans require action or assistance from persons or
is probably true agencies outside the police organization?
d. information is usually from a reliable source and a. tactical plan
is doubtfully true b. extra department plan
c. management plan
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as d. all of these
provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? 627.This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the
service. would be violators.
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified a. double-officer patrol
by the appropriate government agency. b. single-officer patrol
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to c. low visibility patrol
the PNP d. high visibility patrol
d.Graduates of Criminology 628.The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct
619.Plans which require action or assistance from persons or contact is called _______?
agencies outside the police organization. a. oxidation
a. management plans b. convection
b. operational plans c. conduction
c. tactical plans d. radiation
d. extra-department plan
620.Protection of classified document concerning their 629.How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling, irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
transmission, disposal and destruction. chance of detection?
a. document security a. systematic pilferer
b. operational security b. ordinary pilferer
c. physical security c. casual pilferer
d. organizational security d. unusual pilferer
621.What is the system of natural or man-made barriers 630.An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate
placed between the potential intruder and the objects, Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of
persons and matters being protected? the nation appeal.
a. fifty
a. document security b. twenty
b. communications security c. thirty
c. physical security d. sixty
d. personnel security 631.In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
622.Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of ________ forces.
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and a. unwanted
matters being protected? b. friendly
a. military intelligence c .neutral
b. strategic intelligence d. unfriendly
c. combat intelligence
39 | P a g e
632.The first step in the planning process is to recognize the
need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
discovering the need to plan?
a. conduct of research
b. conduct of training
c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
633.The special formations used in crowd control include the
wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is small
enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
634.634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly
controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to
ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
635.What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source
and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable source
and is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source
and is improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable source
and is doubtfully true
636.Under physical security, what should be placed between
the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
637.Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the
age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
requirement
638.A police officer who manages a police station must use all
of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
639.The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in
sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
640.In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in
order to increase physical protection of establishment or
installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
642.What is the next planning step after the need to plan is
recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
643.This type of patrol performs certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and
systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
644.Among the following applicants for appointment to the
police service, who may be automatically granted height
waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to
the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by
the appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of
service
d. graduate of criminology
645.The following changes must be made in police operating
procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are
to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol
officers simply make a brief report and return to
patrol duties rather than complete their
investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and
equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote
more time to the investigation of crimes to which
they respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to
provide the patrol officer with assistance in
determining whether a case has sufficient merit
to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by
the patrol officer
646.The more complex the organization, the more highly
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
647.The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648.PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only
to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of
_______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
40 | P a g e

d. report to immediate superior b. effectiveness

c. omnipresence
649.PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of d. efficiency
amusement and entertainment known to be habitually 658.What is the importance of a firm or installation in the
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III relation to national security referred to?
Alta’s undercover assignment is called. a. relative security
a. multiple assignment b. relative necessity
b. social assignment c. relative criticality
c. work assignment d. relative vulnerability
d. dwelling assignment 659.When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the
650.Which of the following statements is FALSE? method is called ____________.
a. classified information must not be discussed by a. radiation
one friends and members of the family b. oxidation
b. classified information should be known only by c. convection
one person d. conduction
c. cabinets with classified documents must be 660.The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to
secured with padlocks and security measures at attend meeting in Malacañang.
all time a. white list
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded b. black list
651.Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is c. target list
usually known as: d. access list
a. force field analysis 661.The attestation function over police appointment is vested
b. Delphi technique in the:
c. simulation model a. Civil Service Commission
d. forecasting b. National Police Commission
652.These regulations establish the specifications of uniform c. Professional Regulations Commission
and the manner in which they are to be worn: d. Department of Interior and Local Government
a. personnel transaction regulations 662.Selling security within the organization sets and maintains
b. firearms regulations a climate of _______ to the appreciation of the
c. uniform regulations department’s objectives.
d. equipment regulations a. participation
653. b. clear
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas c. understanding
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention d. collaboration
strategy. 663.Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he
a. police omnipresence meet the age requirement for entry to the police service in
b. police effectiveness June 2002?
c. police discretion a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age
d. police authority requirement
654.Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the
police officer? age requirement
a. personnel integrity and honesty c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. physical stamina and bearing d. Yes, he meets the maximum education
c. courageous requirement
d .high intelligence 664.What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is
655.In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the Police “the information comes from a completely reliable source
Station of Municipality A. If the population of Municipality is and is probably true”?
5 Million, what is the crime rate? a. B-2
b. A-2
a. 3509 c. A-3
b. 4010 d. A 1
c. 4250 665.In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total
d. 4009 crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime
656.If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a volume is attributed to physical injuries?
result of the first investigation, a _________ report should a. 18.7%
be submitted. b. 20.7%
a. investigation report c. 25.7%
b. case disposition report d. 4.8%
c. follow-up report 666.SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered
d. crime report as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is the
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up type of evaluation?
for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then a. A-5
made available for emergency and the more active and b. A-1
widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their c. A-4
presence, thus, promoting the impression of - d. A-2
a. suspensions
41 | P a g e

667.It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are d. finer division of supervision
recognized and that established deterrents remain 677.The following questions are tests for accuracy of
necessary and cost effective. information, EXCEPT:
a. inspection a. Does the report agree or disagree with available
b. interrogation and related intelligence?
c. risk analysis b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
d. evaluation c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus
668.What type of patrol performs certain specific, operandi?
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and d. Is the information about the target or area of the
systematic basis? operation?
a. split-force patrol 678.Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or
b. low visibility patrol lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize the
c. apprehension-oriented disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer
d. directed deterrent patrol must prepare a:
669.A patrol beat refers to a: a. guard deployment plan
a. Number of crimes to be solved b. security education plan
b. Number of residents to be protected c. civil defense plan
c. Location of police headquarters d. disaster or emergency plan
d. Geographical area to be patrolled 679.It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic
670.It is importance of installation in relation to national areas so that they can easily be controlled.
security. a. Coercion
a. relative criticality b. Quarantine
b. relative indispensability c. Conversion
c. relative security d. Containment
d. relative vulnerability 680.What management principle provides that only one officer
671.It is the formal process of choosing the organization be in direct command or supervision of each officer.
mission and overall objective both the short and long term a. span control
as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on b. unity of command
the organizational objectives. c. chain of command
a. planning d. line of authority
b. organizing 681.What is referred to as total number of police officers
c. directing assigned to patrol duties?
d. managerial decision-making a. effective strength
672.A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the b. mandatory strength
anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted for c. actual strength
investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a d. authorized strength
certain location. 682.When police patrols are increased beyond normal levels,
a. stake out this is called ________?
b. cops and robbers game a. reactive patrol
c. follow up b. directed deterrent patrol
d. surveillance c. citizen patrol
673.How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division d. proactive patrol
organized into shifts for each duty? 683.What is the method of collection of information wherein the
a. daily four-shift investigator tails or shadows the persons or vehicles?
b .daily five-shift a. Research
c. one shift-daily b. Surveillance
d. daily three-shift c. Casing
674.The formulation of conclusions from the theory developed, d. Photography
tested and considered valid as a result of interpretation is 684.Before a security expert can recommend what type of
called. security will needed by an industrial establishment, there
a. collection is a need for him to undertake a :
b. integration a. security training
c. evaluation b. security check
d. deduction c. security survey
675.In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If d. security education
the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were 685.When one procures information about subject secretly; he
murder incidents? is performing _______ collection method.
a. 250 a. routine
b. 2,500 b. overt
c. 500 c. active
d. 5,000 d. covert
676.The more complex the organization, the more highly 686.Under this principle, each group reports to an individual
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for: who is part of a supervisory group that answers to a higher
a. cleaner delineation of functions supervisor and so on until a group of administrators report
b. coordinating authority to the chief executive.
c. strictly line discipline a. unity of command
42 | P a g e

b. span of control c. security promotion

c. scalar principle d. security investigation
d. aggregation 696.696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and
687.Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern? lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol
a. clockwise techniques?
b. zigzag a. decoy patrol
c. criss-cross b. high visibility patrol
d. stationary c. directed patrol
688.To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when d. low visibility patrol
they infiltrate and gather information about criminal 697.What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a
syndicates? designated location and under specific circumstances?
a. Budget a. management plans
b. Planning b. tactical plans
c. Intelligence c. operating plans
d. Patrol d. procedural plans
689.Which of the following statement is TRUE? 698.What type of organization consciously coordinates the
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility activities of two or more persons towards a given
of the police personnel. objective?
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for a. flexible organization
salary increases of promotion. b. formal organization
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year c. informal organization
among police personnel. d. non-flexible organization
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to 699.Who among the following meets the age qualification for
determine the quality of work performance of appointment to the police service?
personnel. a. Rey who is 20 years old
690.Line units such as the patrol section or investigation b. Dennis who is 17 years old
section in police stations prepare their work programs in c. John who is 22 years old
which areas are called ___. d. Santi who is 35 years old
a. Budget 700.The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary
b. Management object in order to gain information is called:
c. Operational plans a. undercover works
d. Tactical plan b. penetration
691.What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to c. casing
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of actions d. surveillance
of foreign nations? 701.If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of
a. combat intelligence bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from:
b. national intelligence a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be
c. police intelligence controlled
d. strategic intelligence b. an explosion
692.How are coded messages converted to intelligible c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
language? d. a toxic and irritant gas
a. Encoding 702.Which of the following is not included in the patrol
b. Processing function?
c. Labeling a. Response to citizen calls
d. Decoding b. Investigation of crimes
693.The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are c. Routine preventive patrol
applied for a longer time and are considered as the most d. Inspection of identified hazards
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most 703.Disaster preparedness and control plans should include
rewarding. _______ so that people who are directly involved know the
a. casing extent of the incident.
b. undercover operation a. evacuation services
c. penetration b. identification services
d. surveillance c. counseling services
694.As Security Director of Company B, you should know how d. public information services
many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury 704.An intelligence report classified as A-2
situation and how many ________ patients can be means__________.
processed at a single time. a.the information comes from a completely
a. Wounded reliable source and is doubtfully true
b. Emergency b.the information comes from a completely
c. Female reliable source and is probably true
d. Male c.the information comes from a usually reliable
695.A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is source and is and is probably true.
determined through a process called _________. d.the information comes from a usually reliable
a. security training source and is possibly true
705.It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the
b. security education plan?”
43 | P a g e

a. objectives 715.. It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with

b. planning assumptions mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and
c. problems made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
d. planning environment a. clear zone
706.The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following b. bodies of water
organizational features, EXCEPT: c. building wall
a. Unified delivery of services d. wire fence
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making 716.. It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is
d. Unity of direction placed to attain the minimum height requirement.
707.Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are a. clear zone
properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the b. bodies of water
following cannot be undertaken by them? c. building wall
a. He can locate and question the suspect if he d. wire fence
apprehends him. 717.. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the
b. He can identify available evidences. perimeter barrier.
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect. a. clear zone
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow b. bodies of water
policemen. c. building wall
708.It is a physical security applied to business groups d. wire fence
engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling, 718.. He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security
research and development, processing, warehousing and guards.
even agriculture. a. Chief, PNP
a. operational security b. Mayor
b. industrial security c. Governor
c. physical security d. Secretary, DILG
d. special types 719.. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on
709.It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward with
with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire.
access. a. topping
a. operational security b. top guard
b. industrial security c. all of the above
c. physical security d. non of the above
d. special types 720.. Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it
710.Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of give psychological effect to violators.
the facility caused by human action, accidental or a. guard towers
intentional. b. tower guards
a. security hazards c. guard house
b. man-made hazard d. guard post
c. natural hazard 721.. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and
d. all of the above management officials before security survey is conducted.
711.Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused a. pre- security survey
damage, disturbance and problems of the normal b. post- security survey
functioning of human activities, including security. c. entrance conference
a. security hazards d. exit conference
b. man-made hazard 722.. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy
c. natural hazard and deficiency in all aspects of security.
d. all of the above a. security inspections
712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the b. security survey
national economy and security. c. special survey
a. relative criticality d. supplemental survey
b. relative vulnerability 723.. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security
c. all of the above and its relevance to their work.
d. non of the above a. security education
713.One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away b. security indoctrination
any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain. c. security training
a. pilferer d. security awareness
b. casual pilferer 724.. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security
c. systematic pilferer allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
d. intruder a. controlling
714.. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of b. access list
an installation to restrict or impede access thereto. c. exclusion area
a. natural barrier d. controlled area
b. man-made barrier 725.. Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction
c. perimeter barrier control.
d. physical security a. restricted area
44 | P a g e

b. exclusion area d. stand pipe system

c. controlled area 736.. These fire results from the burning of wood, paper,
d. coverage factor textiles and other carbonaceous materials.
726.. A restricted area containing materials or operation of a. Class “A” Fires
security interest. b. Class “B” Fires
a. restricted area c. Class “C” Fires
b. exclusion area d. Class “D” Fires
c. controlled area 737.. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what
d. coverage factor government agency.
727.It is the key elements in the security survey system of a a. DTI
plant or installation. b. PNP
a. security guard c. CSC
b. human guard d. LGU
c. company guard
d. agency guard 738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of
728.. It is a term used in England for lock pickers, temporary license.
safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or a.100
areas. b.1,000
a. doppler effect c.50
b. duress code d.200
c. peterman 739.. The regular security guard license is good for how many
d. fail safe years?
729.. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of a. 1 year
failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled. b. 2 years
a. doppler effect c. 6 months
b. duress code d. 3 years
c. peterman 740.. It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
d. fail safe a. P1,000,000.00
730.. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its b. P500,000.00
validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise. c. P100,000.00
a. dry run d. non of the above
b. run through 741.. It is the required minimum number of guards to operate
c. controlling company security forces.
d. fire drill a. 30
731.. It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to b. 200
damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various c. 50
hazard. d.100
a. relative criticality 742.. A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much
b. relative vulnerability amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company.
c. all of the above a. P50,000.00
d. non of the above b. P100,000.00
732.. It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of c. P150,000.00
which does not have the same value as the original d. P200,000.00
records. 743.. PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how
a. useful records many firearms for use of its security guards.
b. vital records a. 10
c. important records b. 20
d. non-essential records c. 30
733.. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of d. 70
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity? 744.. PSAs who have been applying for regular license to
a. casual pilferer operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed
b. ordinary pilferer firearms.
c. systematic a. 10
d. unusual pilferer b. 20
734.. The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and c. 30
the temperature is lowered below the burning point. d. 70
a. smothering 745.. The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a
b. starving basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed
c. cooling firearms.
d. all of the above a. 20
735.. It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the b. 12
increase of room temperature, and which automatically c. 50
operates the system to put out the fire. d. 25
a. wet pipe system 746.. This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual
b. automatic sprinklers security guards.
c. dry pipe system a. 20
45 | P a g e

b. 12 d. CSF
c. 50 757.. It is a security unit maintained and operated by any
d. 25 government entity other than military or police.
747.It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be a. PDA
allowed to use high powered firearms; except one. b. PSA
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality b. GSU
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery c. CSF
c. transporting big amount of money d.PAD
d. providing security to VIPs 758.. It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
748.. The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how a. PADPAO, Inc.
many percent of the total number of guards employed. b. SAGSD
a.5% c. SEC
b.10% d. PNP
c.15% 759.. It is a government agency involved in the supervision of
d.20% the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs.
749.. These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or a. PADPAO, Inc.
security guard, EXCEPT: b. SAGSD
a. high school graduate c. SEC
b. physically & mentally fit d. PNP
c. 18 to 50 years of age 760.. It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of
d. without pre-licensing training PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
750.. There are two different ways in which security guards are a. 25 years
hired or employed, the company guard and the other one b. 30 years
is: c. 35 years
a. government guards d. 20 years
b. private security agency 761.. It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be
c .propriety guards contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA.
d. in-house guards a. 100
751.. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and b. 200
Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs. c. 1,000
a. PD 603 d. 50
b. EO 292 762.. What is the minimum number of guard requirements in
c. RA 5487 the operation of branch offices of PSA.
d. PD 968 a. 20
752.. They are any person who offers or renders personal b. 30
service to watch or secure either residential or business c. 10
establishment or both. d. 40
a. private detective 763.. __________ are included in the category of in-house
b. security guards guards.
c. propriety guards a. government guards
d. company guards b. private security agency
753.. Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, c. propriety guards
but involved in detective work. d. all of the above
a. private detective 764.. It is charge with the directing the work and observing the
b. security guards behavior performance of the men under his unit.
c. propriety guards a. security guard
d. company guards b. security supervisor
754.. It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, c. watchman
conducts or carries on or holds himself out in carrying c. security officer
detective works. 765.. The following items must be stipulated in the security
a. PDA service contract, EXCEPT:
b. PSA a. money consideration
c. GSU b. number of hours of security service
d. CSF c. salary of the security guard
755.. It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private d. commission of the operator
corporation that employs any watchman or guards. 766.. It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any
a. PDA applicant who failed to submit the complete requirements
b. PSA in the renewal of license.
c. GSU a. cancellation
d. CSF b. revocation
756.. It is a security force maintained and operated by the c. nullification
private company/corporation for its own protection and d. suspension
security requirements 767.. It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout
a. PDA the Philippines.
b. PSA a. Private Scty. Law
c. GSU b. RA 5487
46 | P a g e

c .IRR of RA 5487 c. registered

d.all of the above d. all of the above
768.. It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as 779.. Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in
provided by R.A. 5487. the industrial security management.
a. suspension of license a. Kabit System
b. cancellation of license b. Illegal Operation
c. all of the above c. Merger of Security
d. non of the above d. Moribund Security
780.. It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing
temporary license to operate.
769.. It is the established rules and regulations in the operation a. pre-inspection
of GSUs, EXCEPT: b. post-inspection
a. registration at SAGSD c. inspection
b. registration at CSG d. continuing inspection
c. both A & B 781.. It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted
d. registration at SEC to the applicant agency.
770.. Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a a. regular license
__________ to exercise profession at SAGSD. b. temporary license
a. permit c. license to operate
b. authority d. permit to operate
c. registration 782.. These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by
d. license the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
771.. How many days prior expiry month of license shall a. serious offense
require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations. b. light offense
a. 60 days c. grave offense
b. 30 days d. less grave offense
c. 45 days 783.. They have the authority to conduct inspection to
d. 15 days PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
772.. Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the a. C, SAGSD
accredited testing centers within how many days after the b. C, ROPD
date of examination. c. PD, PPO
a. 60 days d. SAGSD Officer
b. 30 days 784.. These are authorized to conduct investigation on all
c .45 days complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
d.15 days PDAs.
773.. Moribund but previously licensed security agency, a. C, ROPD
means: b. Inves. Comm., CSG
a. dying PSA c. all of the above
b. viable PSA d. none of the above
c. new PSA 785.. It must be avoided by the private security personnel,
d. renewing PSA either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
774..It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as a. direct contact
security officers, guards, and operators. b. indirect contact
a. physical & mental examination c. confrontation
b. medical & dental examination d. carrying of firearms
c. physical agility test examination 786.. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or
d. drug test examination _________ the members of the agency in case of
775.. Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom? emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
a. DILG
b. C, PNP a. organize
c. PD, PPO b. incorporate
d. RD, PRO 3 c. utilize
776.. Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom? d. deputize
a. PSAs Operators 787.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
b. CSF Managers a. Intelligence
c. all of the above b. Police Community Relation
d. non of the above c. Civil Security Group
777.. It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
C, PNP. 788.. Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
a. closing reports a. Chief of Staff, AFP
b. opening reports b. Secretary of the DILG
c. participants c. Secretary of National Defense
d. name of course d. Chief of the PNP
778.. It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. 789.. It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in
a. displayed the PNP.
b. carried a. MNSA
47 | P a g e

b. Master’s Degree b. Seniority

c. OSEC c. Palakasan
d. BS Degree d. Merit
790.. Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551 801.. The directorate who is in charge of supplies and
to remove from the PNP, police officers who are- equipments of PNP is-
a. inefficient a. logistics
b. ineffective b. comptrollership
c. unproductive c. intelligence
d. all of the choices d. plans
791.. The nature of which, the police officer is free from 802.. What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional
specific routine duty is the definition of - Director?
a. “on duty” a. 4 years
b. “special duty” b .5 years
c. “leave of absence” c. 6 years
d. “off duty” d. 9 years
792.. An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is 803.. The period of time in the present rank in permanent
called- status is called-
a. post a. Time-In-Grade
b. unit b. Length of Service
c. sector c. Seniority in rank
d. section d. Plantilla position
793.. The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in 804.. The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and
the PNP is- “deodorant” of the PNP is called-
a. Very Satisfactory a. Personnel Records Mgt.
b. Fair
c. Outstanding b. Research Development
d. Poor c. Police Community Relation
794.. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much 805.. The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into
will be his Longevity Pay? how many districts?
a. 5,000 pesos a. four
b. 7,500 pesos b. six
c. 10,000 pesos c. five
d. 12,500 pesos d. seven
795.. SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He 806.. A functional group within a section is called-
had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his a. division
longevity pay? b. route
a.Php4, 200 c. unit
b. Php5, 000 d. sector
c. Php6, 500 807.. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
d. Php7, 000 a. Intelligence
796.. A primary subdivision of a bureau is called- b. Police Community Relation
a. division c. Comptrollership
b. unit d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
c. section 808.. Which of the following is not an administrative support
d. department unit?
797.. The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be a. Special Action Force
promoted to PO2 or PO3. b. Civil Security Group
a. PSJLC c. Police Security and Protection Office
b. PSOBC d. all of the choices
c. PSOOC 809.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
d. PSBRC members who want to be promoted to-
798.. Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he a. SPO4
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- b. SPO3
a. 1 year c. SP01
b. 3 years d. PO3
c. 2 years 810.Under the general qualifications for appointment in the
d. 5 years PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least-
799.. An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is a. 1.62 m
called- b. 1.64 m
a. beat c. 1.57 m
b. sector d. 1.54
c. route 811.. The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can
d. post be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
800.. The system used in PNP promotions is called- a. Officers Basic Course
a. Performance b. Officers Candidate Course
48 | P a g e

c. Officers Advance Course d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan

d. Senior Leadership Course 824.. What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
812.. What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel a. 10 months
under the waiver program? b. 18 months
a. permanent c. 12 months
b. contractual d. 24 months
c. temporary 825.. When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and
d. probationary Reorganization Act?
813..The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is- a. 1992
b. 1996
a. Western Police District c. 1994
b. NCRPO d. 1998
c. Southern Police District 826.. What law was amended by RA 8551?
d. Central Police District a. RA 7659
814.. The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is- b. RA 6425
a. Director General c. RA 6975
b. Chief Superintendent d. RA 9165
c. Deputy Director General 827.. Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total
d. Director manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
815.. The number 2 man in the PNP organization in- must be established?
a. TCDS a. two
b. DDG for Administration b. four
c. DDG for Operations c. three
d. none of them d. five
816..The national headquarters of the PNP is- 828.. What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. Camp Dangwa a. Forfeiture of Pay
b. Camp Crame b. Restricted to Specified limits
c. Camp Aguinaldo c. Witholding of Privilege
d. Fort Bonifacio d. Admonition
817.. The purpose of promotion in the PNP is- 829.. It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under
a. recognition of good work the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree
b. gives officers high morale according to RA 8551?
c. gives higher pay a. 4 years
d. all of the choices b. 6 years
818.. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if- c. 5 years
a. recruitment falls on summer d. 7 years
b. qualified applicant falls below quota 830.. It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP
c. ordered by the President Member can be attrited.
d. none of them a. 5 years
819.. Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru- b. 15 years
a. medical examination c. 10 years
b. neuro-psychiatric examination d. 20 years
c. physical fitness examination 831.. It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB).
d. drug test a. lump sum
820.. Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is- b. pension
a. 20 to 36 years old c. gratuity
b. 19 to 36 years old d. allowance
c. 21 to 35 years old
d. 20 to 35 years old 832.Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to
821.. What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be as-
qualified a the C, PNP? a. citizens complaint
a. Director b. grave misconduct
b. Superintendent c. breach of internal discipline
c. Chief Superintendent d. none of them
d. Director General 833.PLEB is composed of how many person?
822.. The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who a. 3
passed any licensure examination administered by the b. 5
Professional Regulations Commission is- c. 4
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 d. 6
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 834.. How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 Chief, PNP?
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 a. four years
823.. The highest award given to a PNP member is- b. six years
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan c. five years
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan d. nine years
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
49 | P a g e

835.. How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
PNP if extended? criminal activity.
a. not more than 1 year a. Frisking
b. not less than 2 years b. Search
c. more than 1 year c. Spot Check
d. none of them d. Pat-down Search
836.. The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam 846.. A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in
passers is- the performance of duty is called-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 a. Regular
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 b. Posthumous
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551 c. Temporary
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975 d. None of them
837.. The agency that administers all the mandatory training 847.. Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
for police officers is criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial
a. PPSC rank of -
b. PNP a. Senior Inspector
c. DHRDD b. Inspector
d. NAPOLCOM c. SPO4
838.. Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP? d. Chief of Inspector
a. President 848.. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
b. Chief, PNP Superintendent is vested in the-
c. Sec. of DILG a. Chief, PNP
d. NAPOLCOM b. President
839.. Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and c. Civil Service Commission
Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under d. NAPOLCOM
Republic Act Nr. 8551? 849.. When can the President extend the tenure of service of
a. NAPOLCOM the Chief, PNP?
b. Civil Service Commission a. after 4 years
c. Congress b. there is no successor
d. PNP c. during martial law
840.. What is the basis for promotion that includes the length d. national emergencies
of service in the present rank? 850.. What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for
a. Merit early retirement?
b. Superiority a. two ranks higher
c. Time-In-Grade b. one rank higher
d. Age c. his present rank
841.. In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered d. one year gratuity
continuous service of- 851.. Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
a. 10 years a. Civil Service Commission
c. 15 years b. Congress
b. 20 years c. Commission of Appointment
d. 25 years d. NAPOLCOM
842.. What is the length of service before a PNP member 852.. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
would be qualified for optional retirement? members who want to be promoted to-
a. 5 years a. SPO4
b. 10 years b. SPO1
c. 15 years c. SPO3
d. 20 years d. PO3
843.. A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and 853.. The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State
extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called- shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be-
a. Regular a. national in scope
b. Permanent b. civilian in scope
c. Temporary c. national in character
d. Meritorious d. military in character
844.. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly 854.. What is the meaning of PPSC?
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the a. Phil. Public Safety Course
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other b. Phil. Private Safety College
legitimate purposes. c. Phil. Public Safety College
a. Clear Zone d. Phil. Private Safety Course
b. Public Place 855..The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank
c. Police Checkpoint of Police Superintendent is called-
d. Pre-Determined Area a. MNSA
845.. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or b. OSEC
in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable c. MPSA
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s d. Master’s Degree
856.. He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
50 | P a g e

a. Capt. Henry T. Allen 868.. It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they
b. Gen. Rafael Crame can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector.
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera a. Officer’s Basic Course
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt b. Officer’s Advance Course
857..It is an association or group of individuals with a common c. Officer’s Candidate Course
goal. d. Senior Leadership Course
a. Police organization 869.. How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP
b. Law enforcement group National Office (NHQ-PNP)?
c. Non-government organization a. eleven
d. Organization b. ten
c. nine
858.. Who is the Father of Modern Policing System? d. twelve
a. Edwin Sutherland 870.. Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the
b. Emile Durkhiem confirmation of the:
c. Sir Robert Peel a. Civil Service Commission
d. Leonard Keeler b. NAPOLCOM
859..Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila? c. Commission on Appointment
a. Capt. George Curry d. President of the Phil.
b. Capt. Henry Allen 871.. The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
d. Capt. Howard Taft b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
860.. Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____. c. The Chief Directorial Staff
a. chastity d. Regional Director of the NCR
b. passion 872.. The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM
c. person is located in what city?
d. mankind a. Quezon City
861.. What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of b. City Of Manila
satisfactory service rendered? c. Mandaluyong City
a. promotion d. Makati City
b. longevity pay 873.. Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
c. additional allowance a. Chief, PNP
d. retirement benefits b. Secretary, DILG
862.. What is the lowest administrative penalty? c. President of the Phil.
a. reprimand d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
b. admonition 874.. The law that merges the police and Philippine
c. restriction Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
d. forfeiture of pay a. R.A. 7659
863..Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of b. R.A. 6975
Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______. c. R.A. 8551
a. Chief, PNP d. P.D. 765
b. Provincial Director 875.. How many deputies do the PNP consist?
c. Regional Director a. one
d. PLEB b. three
864.. Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where c. two
the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation d. four
may be appealed before this body. 876.. How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the
a. Regional Appellate Board PNP Organization?
b. Office of the President a. fourteen
c. National Appellate Board b. sixteen
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM c. Fifteen
865.. Which of the following composed the PNP? d. Seventeen
a. members of the INP 877.. The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done
b. members of the PC how many times per year?
c. members of the PNP a. once
d. all of the choices b. thrice
866..What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? c. twice
a. Deputy Director General d. four
b. Police Director 878.. MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is
c. Police Chief Superintendent offered and administered by an institution known as-
d. Police Senior Superintendent a. PPSC
867.. The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets b. NAPOLCOM
all the basic qualification for promotion is termed- c. National Defense Office
a. special d. National Defense College
b. meritorious 879.. The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to
c. regular SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
d. ordinary a. Police Basic Course
51 | P a g e

b. Junior Leadership Course operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest

c. Senior Leadership Course and investigation refers to
d. Officers Candidate Course a. Field Procedure
880.. The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the b. Time Specific plan
necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in the c. Problem oriented plan
field is called- d. Headquarters procedure
a.Finance Service 890.. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period
b.Logistics Support Service ______?
c.Computer Service a. Not exceeding four years.
d.Communications & Electronics Svc b. Not exceeding five years.
881.. The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is- c. Not exceeding six years.
a. SPO2 d. Not exceeding three years.
b. SPO4 891.. The law that empowered the police commission to
c. SPO3 conduct entrance and promotional examination for police
d. Inspector members refers to:
882.. How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director? a. RA 6040
a. one b. RA 157
b. three c. RA 5487
c. two d. PD 765
d. four 892.. The theory of police service which states those police
883.. The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of officers are servants of the people or the community refers
1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is- to:
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975 a. Old
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659 b. Home rule
c. Republic Act 8551 c. Modern
d. Presidential Decree 765 d. Continental
884.. In the history of our police force, who was the first 893.. Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the
Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? Philippine National Police. What would be his initial rank
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno upon entry?
b. Gen. Raul Imperial a. Senior Inspector
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez b. Chief Inspector
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento c. Inspector
885.. The primary objective of Philippine National Police: d. none of the choices
a. Law Enforcement 894.. The following are functions in a police organization,
b. Peace and Order EXCEPT:
c. Protect and Serve a. primary functions
d. Crime Prevention b. administrative functions
886.. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in c. secondary functions
Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino Chief of d. auxiliary functions
the Philippine Constabulary. 895.. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
a. Rafael Palma disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
b. Cesar Nazareno Patrol officer is:
c. Rafael Crame a. Conduct a complete search.
d. Emilio Aguinaldo b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
887.. Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years c. No further search may be made.
old then. What year can Alden retire? d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
a. 2017 supervisor.
b. 2031 896.. He is known as the father of modern policing system?
c. 2032 a. August Vollmer
d. 2022 b. Robert Peel
888.. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the c. Oliver Cromwell
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national d. Cesare Lombroso
security? 897.. When responding to call for police assistance due to
a. The AFP operating through the area planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
commander is the one primarily responsible should the patrol officer will do?
on matters involving insurgency and other a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
serious treats to national security. b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role injury to happen.
towards insurgency and other serious treats c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
to national security. Ordinance Disposal Team.
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
AFP in insurgency-affected areas. procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
d. All of the choices 898.. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed
889.. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in the field the PNP?
a. Inspector
52 | P a g e

b. Chief Inspector 909.. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or

c. Senior Inspector locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to provide
d. Superintendent day-to-day services to the community.
899.. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in a. Patrol
the PNP? b. Beat Patrol
c. Line Patrol
a. 1 d. Area Patrol
b. 3
c. 2 910.. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of
d. 4 ____________?
900.. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________. a. Director General
a. Four star general b. Solicitor General
b. Director c. Inspector General
c. Chief Superintendent d. IAS General
d. Director General (PNP) 911.. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be
901.. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio? how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. 1:1000 a. one (1)
b. 1:1500 b. more than one
c. 1:500 c. at least one
d. 1:7 d. less than one
902.. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the 912.. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the
__________. immediate things to do when accident occur?
a. DDG for operation a. Cordon the area
b. Chief, Directorial Staff b. Go away and call your superior
c. DDG for administration c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chief, PNP d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
903.. Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and 913.. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses
function of the PNP? of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who is
a. enforce all laws and ordinances the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
b. maintain peace and order a. Dir. Alma Jose
c. investigate and prevent crimes b. Dir. Romeo Pena
d. prosecute criminal offenders c. Dir. Sonny Razon
904.. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
_______, which means government of the city. 914.. All of the following are members of the People’s Law
a. politia Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
b. Polis a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
c. politeia and Order Council from among the
d. Policy respected members of the community
905.. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the b. Any barangay captain of the
objectives of the organization will be attained. city/municipality concerned chosen by the
a. planning association of barangay captains
b. Advancement c. Any member of the Sangguniang
c. police planning Panglunsod
d. Development d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated
906.. It is the premier educational institution for the training, Bar of the Philippines
human resource development and continuing education of 915.. Two or more persons forming an organization must
all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP. identify first the reason for establishing such organization.
a. PPSC They must identify the organization’s _________:
b. RTS a. strategy
c. PNPA b.mission
d. NPC c.vision
907.. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint d. objective
against the police officers. 916.. To improve delegation, the following must be done,
a. IAS EXCEPT:
b. PNP a. establish objectives and standards
c. PLEB b. count the number of supervisors
d. NAPOLCOM c. require completed work
d. define authority and responsibility
908.. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial 917.. The number of subordinates that can be supervised
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by the directly by one person tends to:
PNP regional director: a. Increase as the physical distance between
a. six supervisor and subordinate as well as
b. Five between individual subordinate increases
c. Three b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge
d. four and experience of the subordinate
53 | P a g e

c. Increase as the level of supervision c. romotion

progresses for the first line supervisory level d. Retirement
to the management level 928.. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not
d. All of the above be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum
918.. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry
through unity of command from top to bottom of program is ____.
organization: a. 35 years old
a. Audit b. 25 years old
b. Coordination c. 30 years old
c. Monitoring d. 31 years old
d. Authority 929.. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members
919.. Which of the following statements is true: is required for permanency of their appointment. Who
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility among the following is exempted to undergo the Field
of the police Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed
salary increases or promotion Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
among police personnel Inspector via Lateral entry.
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
determine the quality of work performance of Inspector after graduation.
personnel d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist
920.. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for and First Place in the Examination.
_______: 930.. Planning as a management function is to
a. Administrative control be done in the various levels of PNP
b. Operational supervision Organization. Broad policy based from laws
c. Administration and control directives, policies and needs in general is the
d. Policy and program coordination responsibility of:
921.. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same a. Directorate for Plans
supervisor. This is the principle of __________: b. President of the Philippines
a. delegation of authority c. Chief, PNP
b. span of control d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
c. unity of command 931.. What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
d. chain of command Director General in the Armed Forces of the
922.. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Philippines?
Director General of the PNP is; a. Lt. General
a. 4 years b. Major General
b. 56 years c. Brigade General
c. 5 years d. General
d. 21 years 932.. The Philippine National Police will recruit
923.. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? 500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
a. standard operation procedures quota. Who among the following applicants is
b. special operation procedures qualified to apply?
c. standard operating procedures a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
d. special operating procedures b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
924.. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
except: d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
a. Flexibility 933.. Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
b. specific Philippine National Police on October 1,
c. Clear 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
d. expensive embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so
925.. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
of the annual quota is allocated for women? which he served with extreme commitment and
a.10% loyalty. When does Mark Espinosa can retire?
b.120 a. October 5, 1998
c.100 b. October 6, 1999
d.200 c. September 5, 2010
926.. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived d. September 5, 2008
in the following order: 934.. Which of the following administrative
a. age, height, weight & education penalties is immediately executory?
b. age, weight, height & education a. Dismissal
c. height, education, weight & age b. Forfeiture of pay
d. in any order c. Suspension
927.. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis d. Death penalty
provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
54 | P a g e

935.. It is the third in command in the Philippine National B.Superior

Police: C.Profession
a. Regional Director D.Comrades
b. Chief Directorial Staff 945..Which among the following is NOT subjected to field
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd. Operational Plans?
d. Deputy Chief for Operation A.Patrol
936.. The head of the National Capital Regional B.Records
Police Office shall assume the position of NCR C.Investigation
director with the rank of: D. Traffic
a. Chief Superintendent 946.. Which of the following statement is not true about patrol?
b. Director A.It is the backbone of the police department
c. Superintendent B.It is the essence of police operation
d. General C.It is the single largest unit in the police department
937.. Under the waiver program, who among the following that can be eliminated
PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment? D.It is the nucleus of the police department
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. E.It is the operational heart of the police department
Paloma who is under height 947..The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
c. Jauquinwho is underweight conducted:
d. Alden who is overage A.thrice a year
938.. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known B. Every 6 months
as____________. C.Every 2 years
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of D. Quarterly
1990 948.. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
Act of 1990 further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government pension equivalent to:
Act of 1990 A50% of his last salary
d.Department of the Interior and the Local B. 70% of his last salary
Government Act of 1990 C.60% of his last salary
939.. SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00 D. 80% of his last salary
base pay since he was promoted. After five years 949.. How many successive annual ratingperiods before a
from promotion, what would be his monthly base pay police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
after adding his longevity pay? performance?
a. 32, 690.00 A.2
b. 37, 690.00 B.4
c. 30, 459.00 C.3
d. 31, 549.00 D.1
940.. Decisions rendered by the national IAS
shall be appealed to the__________: 950.. How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a
a. Regional Appellate Board police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or poor
b. National Appellate Board performance?
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d. A.2
National Police Commission B.4
941.. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966. C.3
a. R.A. 4864 D.1
b. R.A. 8551 951..In this theory, management assumes employees may be
c. Act 175 ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It is
d. PD 765 believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical
942..__________ is given to any PNP member who has work duties.
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his A.Hawthorne Effect
life above and beyond the call of duty. B.Stockholm Syndrome
A. Meritorious Promotion B. C.X theory
Special Promotion D.Y theory
C. Regular Promotion 952..The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
D. On-the-Spot Promotion A.Edward H. Sutherland
943..PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
for failure to comply with the requirements can re-apply to C.Henry A. Landsberger
the PNP? D.Douglas McGregor
A. Maybe Yes 953.In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in
B.Maybe No most modern practice, management assumes employees
C..Absolutely Yes are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that
D.Absolutely No they inherently dislike work. As a result of this,
944..The reason why police officer appears in court as a management believes that workers need to be closely
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his supervised and comprehensive systems of controls
respect to the court and to his: developed.
A.Position/Rank
55 | P a g e

A.Hawthorne Effect
B.Stockholm Syndrome 963..It identify the role of police in the community and future
C.X theory condition in state
D.Y theory A.Visionary Plans
954..This kind of organizational structure classifies people B.Strategic Plans
according to the function they perform in their professional C.Synoptic Planning
life or according to the functions performed by them in the D.Incremental Planning
organization. 964..Is that field of management which involves planning, and
A.Functional Structure controlling the efforts of a group of individuals toward
B.Line and Staff Structure achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and
C.Line Structure minimum use of administrative resources.
D.Divisional Structure A.Human Resources
955..If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding B.Personnel Management
30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint C.Human Management
against erring PNP member shall be filed at the D.Personnel Administration
A.Office of the chief of police
B.PLEB 965.. Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an
C.Mayor’s Office arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
D. any of the choices accomplishment of a definite objective.
956..Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the A.Management
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of B.Functioning
20 years active service C.Budgeting
A.50% D.Planning
B.10% 966.. Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific
C.2.5% circumstances and details with the following procedures.
D.55% A.Field Procedures
B.Procedural plan
957..This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as C.Operational Plans
drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or D.Functional plan
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the 967.. Which of the following is not a function of police
objective is accomplished or the problem is solved personnel unit?
A.Strategic plan A.Preparing policy statements and standard
B.Time Specific plan operating Procedures relating to all areas of the
C.Problem oriented plan administration of human resources
D.time bound operational plan B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other
958..This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on line officials regarding personnel matters
routine and field operations and some special operations C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning
A.Strategic plan officers to identify, and subsequently correct,
B.Time Specific plan unsatisfactory working conditions
C.Problem oriented plan D. Establish criteria for promotion to the
D. policy or procedural plan exclusive ranks
959..The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Superintendent B. 968..It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
Director undesirable applicants that do not meet the organization’s
C.Senior Superintendent D. Chief selection criteria
Superintendent
960.. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a A. Promotion Recruitment
police officer is B.Transfer Selection
A.A ground for dismissal C.Recruitment
B.Not qualified for promotion D.Selection
C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a 969..It is recognized as the best method of filing
bar to promotion A.Pigeon Hole
961..Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the B.retrieval operation
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, C.Records Management
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, D.chain of custody
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the 970..It is considered to be the heart of any identification
offenders to justice system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
A.Deployment A.Arrest and booking report
B.Reinforcement B.Miscellaneous Records
C.Reintegration C.Identification record
D.Employment D.Fingerprint Records
962.. What is the first step in making a plan? 971..The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
A.Frame of reference salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
B.Analyzing the Facts how many year?
C.Collecting all pertinent data A.1 year B. 2
D.Identification of the problems months
56 | P a g e

C. 4 years D. line and staff

D.2 years 981.. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
972..In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
hours of classroom training should be required for newly lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
promoted supervisory personnel authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number
A.72 hours of security guards.
B.80 hours A.50%
C.75 hours B. 20%
D.85 hours C.30%
973..It should be proactive, people oriented, based on D. 10%
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to 982.. The vault door should be made of steel at least
motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of __________ in thickness?
professionalism/ A.7 inches
Professionalization. B. 9 inches
A.Recruit Training C.6 inches
B.Specialized training D. 20 feet or more
C.In Service 983.. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive
D.Field Training to a breach of the protection system, or that, could result
974.. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing to loss.
the entire mandatory and other consideration in promotion, A.Hazards
is what kind of promotion? B. Environmental Hazards
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position B. C.Natural Hazards
Regular Promotion D. Security Hazards
C.Meritorious Promotion D. 984..An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion,
Promotion integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
determines person suitability for appointment or access to
975..It involves assistance and action by non police agencies classified matter.
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD
for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness A.Character Investigation
plans and Civil defense plans B.Physical Investigation
A.Management Plans C.Background Investigation
B.Procedural plan D. Personnel Security Investigation
C.Tactical Plans 985..The importance of the firm or installation with reference to
D. Extra departmental plan the national economy security
976.. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and A.Relative vulnerability
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an award: B. Relative program
A.Medal C.Relative criticality
B. Awards D. Relative security
C.Decorations 986..Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
D.Ribbons A.SEC
977..For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya B.DTI
ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member: C.PADPAO
A.Six D. PNP, SAGSD
B. Four
C.Five 987..To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility
D. Three what must be constructed.
978..Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, A.Full view fence
domination, or excessive use of authority: B. Chain link fence
A.Misconduct C. Solid fence
B. Dishonesty D. Multiple fences
C.Incompetency 988.. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of
D. Oppression money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
979..The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as issued with a-
a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police A.Firearms
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, B. Mission Order
hostage taking, rescue operations and other special C.Duty Detail Order
operations: D. None of These
989..What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A.NARCOM A. 150 Hours
B. SAF B. 72 Hours
C.SWAT C. 48 Hours
D. SOCO D. 300 Hours
980..The organizational structure of the PNP is __________. 990..All except one are the line leadership staff:
A.Line A.Detachment Commander
B. functional B.Post-in-Charge
C.staff C.Chief Inspector
57 | P a g e

D.Security Supervisor 1 A. Fresnel Lights

B. Street Lights
991.. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double C. Floodlights
strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an D.Search lights
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than 1000. . What is the required capital investment for
___ high excluding the top guard. organization of private security agency?
A.8 feet A. P 500,000
B.7 feet B. B. P 100,000
C.9 feet C. P 1,000,000
D. 6 feet D. P 50,000
992.. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license 1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes
issued to security guards. away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
A. Any of the choices gain?
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM A. Normal Pilferer
C. Secretary, DILG B. Regular Pilferer
D. C/PNP C. Casual Pilferer
D. Systematic pilferer
993..What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric 1002. . The metallic container used for securing documents
B. Metallic foil or small items in an office or installation refers to:
C. Audio detection A. Safe
D. Microwave Detection B. Vault
994..Is the process of conducting physical examination to C. File room
determine compliance with establishment security policies D. None of these
and procedures? 1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed in______
A. Security Education material excluding the top guard?
B. Security Survey a. Seven feet
C. Security Planning b. Six feet
D. Security Inspection c. Four feet
d. Five feet
995.. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the
knowledge of the objectives of the security and the means 1004. .The following things are used as barrier, which
and the method to reach these objective or goal must then serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an
involve. Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
A. Security Inspection a. Human
B. Security Hazards b. Fences
C. Security Planning c. Doors
D. Security Survey d. Concertina
996.. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device 1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually
designed to prevent entry into a building, room container, designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items
without the consent of the owner a. 3 hours
A .Padlocks b. 24hours
B. Locks C. Code c. 6hours
Operated d. 12 hours
D. Lever Locks
997.. A type of protective alarm system where the central 1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit
station located outside the installation. When the alarm is boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. Lever locks
A. Local Alarm system b. Combination lock
B. Auxiliary System c. Padlock
C. Central Station System d. Code operated locks
D. Proprietary 1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed to
possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
998.. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may a. 30
activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot to b. 70
engage the activation bar c. 500
A. Bill traps d. 1000
B. Foot Rail Activator 1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons green color?
D. Foot buttons a. Sodium vapor lamp
999.These are wide beam units, used to extend the b. Incandescent lamp
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the c. Mercury vapor lamp
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, d. Quartz lamp
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
58 | P a g e

1009. .What type of security deals with the industrial plants 1017. . The exposure and the teaching of employees on
and business enterprises where personnel, processes, security and its relevance to their work is:
properties and operations are safeguarded? a.Security Inspection
a. Personnel security b.Security Education
b. industrial security c.Security Orientation
c. Physical security d.Security Survey
d. bank security 1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient
1010. .The following are principles of Physical Security, illumination to areas during hours of darkness
EXCEPT: a. Protective Lighting
a. There is impenetrable Barrier. b. Fresnel Lights
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry. c. Search Lights
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier. d. Street Lights
d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by
1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to the interruption of the light beam is known as:
damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various a. Metallic foil
hazards. b. Electric eye device
a. Relative vulnerability c. Audio alarm
b. Relative criticality d. Microwave alarm
c. Relative susceptibility
d. Relative security 1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their
licensed firearm is needed after operating for six
1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible months.
authority that the person described is cleared to access a. 1:3
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim b. 1:5
clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the c. 1:2
date of issuance. d. 1:1
a. 1 year 1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in
b. 4 years areas where insects predominate?
c. 2 years a. Mercury vapor lamp
d. 5 years b. Quartz lamp
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
1013. . The tenure of a security guard is: d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
a. Six Months
b. Co-terminus with the service contract 1021. . What is an act governing the organization and
c. Two years management of private security agency, company guard
d. Contractual force and government security forces?
a. RA 8574
1014. . Which among the following is not an advantage of a b. RA 5478
full-view fence, except: c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids
the intruder in planning. 1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with concertina. Chain link are for ______.
.the movements of persons in the installation a. Solid structure
c.It creates shadows which could prevent b. Least permanent structure
concealment of the intruder. c. Permanent structure
d.None of these d. Semi- permanent structure

1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety 1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC
bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims & LAC since it includes thorough and complete
against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much investigation of all or some of the circumstances or
is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards. aspects of a person’s life is conducted?
a. 50, 000 a. Personnel Security Investigation
b. 100, 000 b. Partial Background Investigation
c. 150, 000 c. Background Investigation
d. 200,00 d. Complete Background Investigation

1016. . What type of investigation involves all aspect and 1024. 1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides
details about the circumstances of a person? of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel
a. partial background investigation area to afford better observation of the installation refers
b. completebackground investigation to:
c. personnel security investigation a. Clear zone
d. national agency check b. Complimentary zone
c. Open zone
d. Free zone
59 | P a g e

d. Subversion
1025. The extension period for a license to operate issued
upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of 1034. . What is the security force maintained and operated
guards is: by any private company/ corporation for its own security
a. 1 month requirements?
b. 6 months a. GSU
c. 2 years b. CSF
d. 1 year c. PSA
d. PD
1026. .Which of the following types of lock is generally used
in car doors? 1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest degree
a. Warded lock of security?
b. Lever lock a. Limited
c. Disc tumbler lock b. Restricted
d. Combination lock c. Special
d. Exclusive
1027. PADPAO stands for:
1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts according
a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective to a predetermined combination code of numbers?
Agency Operators, Inc. a. Card- operated lock
b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective b. Combination lock
Agency Operators, Inc. c. Electromagnetic lock
c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector d. Card Operated
Agency Operators, Inc.
d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
Associations Operators, Inc. 1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?
a. Sodium vapor lamp
1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to b. Mercury vapor lamp
safeguard life and assets by various methods and device. c. Incandescent lamp
a. Physical Security d. Quartz lamp
b. Perimeter Security 1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the
c. Operational Security intruder while the guard remains in the comparative
d. Security darkness?
a. Controlled lighting
1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security officer. b. Fresnel light
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer c. Emergency lighting
b. Training Course. d. Glare- projection
c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. 1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers
e. Physically or mentally fit. placed between the potential intruder and the object,
person and matter being protected?
1030. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier a. Communication security
and should be locked and guarded. b. Document security
a. Gates and Doors c. Physical security
b. Side-Walk Elevator d. Barrier
c. Utilities Opening
d. Clear Zones 1040. .The following are the purposes of Security Survey,
EXCEPT:
1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy a. To ascertain the present economic status
and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the b. To determine the protection needed
corresponding recommendation is: c. To make recommendations to improve the overall
a. security inspection security
b. security education d. None of these
c. security training
d. security survey 1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate
document which is issued by ____________ authorizing a
1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and person to engage in employing security guard or detective,
issuances of license for private security personnel? or a juridical person to establish, engage, direct, manage
a. PNP SOSIA or operate a private detective agency.
b. PNP FED a. Secretary of DILG
c. PADPAO b. Security and Exchange Commission
d. PNP SAGSD
1033. . What is the most common type of human hazard? c. Chief, PNP
a. Sabotage d. President
b. Pilferage
c. Theft
60 | P a g e

1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is 1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
that the distances between strands will not exceed temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the safe
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and can withstand 2000
0
midway between posts. F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it
a. 3 inches has passed the test.
b. 6 inches a. Fire Endurance Test
c. 4 inches b. Fire and Impact Test
d. 7 inches c. Burning Test
d. Explain Hazard Test
1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between
the perimeter barrier and structure within the protected 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
areas. EXCEPT:
a. 20 feet or more a. Special Interview
b. 40 feet or more b. Security Seminar
c. 30 feet or more c. Security Promotion
d. 50 feet or more d. Training Conference

1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance

container usually a part of the building structure use to 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because
keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
materials. chance of detection?
a. Vault a. Systematic pilferer
b. Safe b. Ordinary pilferer
c. File Room c. Casual pilferer
d. None of these d. Unusual pilferer

1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm? a. Low Visibility
b. High Visibility
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the c. Reactive
company’s Vault. d. Proactive
b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses. 1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
guards table. toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP
investigational capability.
1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made a. Detective Beat Patrol
capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or b. Integrated Patrol System
unauthorized access. c. Community Oriented Policing System
a. Perimeter Fences d. Team Policing
b. Wire Fences 1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching
c. Moveable Barrier the end of the line beat, and before returning to the point
d. Barrier of origin.
1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a a. Patrol Report
nearest police station of fire department. b.Situation Report
a. A. Proprietary Alarm c.Investigation Report
b. Auxiliary Alarm d.Incident Report
c. Central Alarm
d. Security Alarm 1056. The ideal police response time is:
1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused a. 3 minutes
light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in b. 5 minutes
parking areas c. 7 minutes
a. Street Lights d. 10 minutes
b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights 1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
d. Fresnel Lights possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the
creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate
police service:
1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding a. Hazard
hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is b. Opportunity
then made fast or secured. c. Perception of Hazard
a. Lock d. Police Hazard
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated 1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the
d. Card Operated greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol
61 | P a g e

b. Marine Patrol c. Automobile Patrol

c. Mobile Patrol d. Bicycle Patrol
d. Helicopter Patrol
1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in
patrol which makes the policemen less visible during the 1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
night. The primary purpose is: Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
crime a. May 7, 1954
b. To have sufficient cover b. May 17, 1954
c. To attract less attention c. May 14, 1957
d. For safety of the Patrol officer d. March 10, 1917

1060. The following are included in the cause and effect of 1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious
team policing. persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles
a. Reduce public fear on crime; especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
b. lessen the crime rate; service firearm and Flashlight should be-
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
e. Improve police community relation. possible target.
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
a. a, b, e possible target.
b. c. a, b, d, e c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
c.a, c, d, e adversary.
d. d. a, b, c, e a. None of these
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform 1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when
specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
systematic basis: a. Arrest criminals
a. Target Oriented Patrol b. Securing the area
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. Aiding the injured
c. Low-Visibility Patrol d. Extort Money
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
best penetrated by the police through. except when its occupants pose imminent danger of
a. Foot patrol causing death or injury to the police officer or any other
b. Bicycle patrol person, and that the use of firearm does not create a
c. Mobile patrol danger to the public and outweighs the likely benefits of its
d. Helicopter patrol non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle, the following
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to parameters should be considered EXCEPT:
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. The
Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
hours duty with prescribed divisions of: suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
a. 2 shifts b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
b. 4 shifts harm in certainty the police officer or other
c. 3 shifts persons
d. every other day shift. c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
the police officer or other persons.
1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s
prevent the desire of human being to commit crime. to avoid traffic accident.
a. Preventive
b. Proactive 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during
c. Reactive pat-down search, a more secure search position may be:
d. High Visibility a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of c. Hands placed against a stationary object,
________________ since they can be operated very and feet spread apart.
quietly and without attracting attention. d. All of these
a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered. 1096. The following are types of specialized patrol
c. Shorter travel time and faster response. method except:
d. Mobility and stealth a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol
1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San c. Canine Patrol
Juanico Bridge? d. Foot Patrol
a. Foot Patrol 1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged
b. K-9 Patrol by his-
62 | P a g e

a. Knowledge of all problems in the community b. It develops greater contact with the public
b. Residents developed good public relations c. It insures familiarization of area
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor d. It promotes easier detection of crime
offenses
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his 1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as
area well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you call
the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies? keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking
a. True purposes?
b. False a. German shepherd
c. Absolutely Yes d. b. Bloodhounds
Absolutely No c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers
1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number
of apprehension of law violator to engage in certain types 1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
of crimes: a. Foot
a. Preventive Patrol b. Automobile
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. Bicycle
c. Low-Visibility Patrol d. Helicopter
d. Proactive Patrol
1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol? terms of number of:
a. It is the backbone of the police department a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. It is the essence of police operation b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
c. It is the nucleus of the police department c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department d. Any of these
that can be eliminated
1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities on
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also his beat.
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or a. Well Acquainted
during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police b. Sluggish
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked c. Energetic
police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol d. Unfamiliar
operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national or
provincial highways. 1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
a. Dragnet Operation and before the counter-clockwise?
b. Hasty Checkpoint a. Straightway
c. High-Risk Arrest b. Crisscross
d. High Risk Stop c. Sector
d. Zigzag
1077. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals 1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to
B. Responding to emergency calls increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous
C. Inspection services section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the
D. Preparation of investigation reports street.
a. Unnecessary
1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact b. Necessary
with the members of the community ideal in gaining the c. Voluntary
trust and confidence of the people to the police: d. Redundant
A. Horse Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol 1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
C. Automobile Patrol members of the community in the maintenance of peace
D. Foot Patrol and order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last b. Comparative Police System
hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the c. Detective Beat System
area of responsibility of the patrol officer is: d. Community Oriented Policing System
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern 1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the
C. Counter clockwise pattern least likely to become completely a function of automobile
D. Crisscross pattern patrol is the checking of-
a. Security of business establishment.
1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. b. Street light outrages.
EXCEPT: c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
a. It involves larger number of personnel D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
63 | P a g e

a. Preventive patrol
1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen b. Directed Patrol
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it c. Community Relation
usually- d. Team policing
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman. 1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges. ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
c. Wasteful of manpower. operations?
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when a. Motorcycle
quick mobilization is needed. b. Automobile
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the- c. Helicopter
a. Opportunity for graft. d. Horse
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the
law. 1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration. disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized Patrol officer is:
squads. a.Conduct a complete search.
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________: c. No further search may be made.
a. Aberdeen, Scotland d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate
b. Lyons, France supervisor.
c. Vienna. Austria
d. London, England 1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when
1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing
patrolling: troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
a. Egyptians a. Tear Gas
b. English b. Water Cannon
c. Chinese c. Truncheon
d. American d. Shield
1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every
1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to intersection until reaching the point of origin is following
in order to catch criminals is known as: what pattern?
a. High visibility patrol a. Clockwise
b. Blending patrol b. Zigzag
c. Low visibility patrol c. Counter clockwise
d. Decoy patrol d. Crisscross

1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor
building. Which of the following should be the first thing to
do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump
b. Call nearest relative
c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle
patrol over the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost
B.Visibility
C. Speed
D. Security
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively
implemented by police activity which-
a. Provides for many types of specialized
patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker
aspiration to commit crime.
c.Influences favorable individual and group
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s
expectation of apprehension.
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which
integrates the police and community interests into a
working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
c. It is inexpensive to operate .
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by
patrol cars.
1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP
investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of their
shift for accounting-
a. 10 minutes
b. hour
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and
amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be
criminals alike that the police are always existing to
respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he will
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just around the corner at all times. This statement refers

to: 1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls
a. Police Omnipresence of service.
b. Police Patrol a. Reactive
c. Police Discretion b. High Visibility
d. Integrated Patrol c. Proactive
1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and d. Low Visibility
mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes
lesser number of men and covers a wider area in a short 1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was
period of time, while protection to patrol officers: formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done at
a. Foot patrol the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in
b. Motorcycle Patrol the area of responsibility of the patrol?
c. Automobile Patrol a. Straight
d. Helicopter patrol b. Crisscross
c. Clockwise
1107. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves d. counter clockwise
in a manner designed to help them blend the
neighborhood where they are deployed. 1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments
a. Absolutely False of an individual for weapons only.
b. Absolutely True a. Frisking
c. Absolutely Yes b. Search
d. Absolutely No c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
a. One Man Patrol Car 1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter
b. Two Man Patrol Car of the beat not at random but with definite target location
c. Foot Patrol where he knows his presence is necessary.
d. Canine Patrol a. Target Oriented
b. Zigzag
1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of c. Clockwise
activities: d. Criss-Cross
a. Afternoon Shift
b. Morning Shift 1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following
c. Night Shift are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
d. None of these
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action
1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific taken.
persons or places: b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable
a. Target Oriented Patrol area
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. Inspire more Public confidence.
c. Reactive Patrol d. The officer can actually get to know the physical
d. Directed deterrent Patrol layout of his beat better.
1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform 1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French word
specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned ________which means to go through paddles.
systematic basis: a. Patroulier
a. Target Oriented Patrol b. Patroul
b. High-Visibility Patrol c. Politeia
c. Low-Visibility Patrol d. Politia
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
1120. The concept of Unity of command is:
1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed a. No one should have more than one boss.
and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can
means to accomplish such end. effectively supervise.
a. Dragnet Operation d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
b. Hasty Checkpoint to subordinates.
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop 1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is
appropriate when responding to quick emergency call?
1113. Which among the following activities during post- a. Motorcycle Patrol
patrol or post-deployment phase is not included? b. Air Patrol
a. Formation & Accounting c. Automobile Patrol
b. Debriefing/Report Submission d. Foot Patrol
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
d. Briefing
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1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for 1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily
services to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the
a. Reactive patrol peace and order situation in a particular area:
b. Directed deterrent patrol a. Police Patrol
c. Proactive patrol b. Preventive Patrol
d. Blending patrol c. Foot Patrol
d. Patrol
1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must
be_______. 1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:
a. Voice Radio Operator A.Crime Prevention
b. Trained Formally B.Protect and Serve
c. Licensed Dispatcher C.Law enforcement
d. Coordinator D. All of the choices

1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was 1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol
initiated on: strategy called:
a. August 10, 1917 a. Reactive Patrol
b. August 7, 1901 b. Directed Patrol
c. November 22, 1901 c. Preventive Patrol
d. March 17, 1901 d. Proactive Patrol

1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers 1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident
during Post-Deployment Phase? faster but undetected, then the best patrol method that he
a. Situation Report should employ is:
b. Citation Report a. Bicycle patrol
c. Daily Patrol Report b. Automobile patrol
d. Hourly Patrol Report c. Motorcycle patrol
d. Foot patrol
1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of
police omnipresence: 1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a
a. Target Oriented Patrol person that enables another to victimize him:
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Instrumentality
c. Low-Visibility Patrol b. Opportunity
d. Directed deterrent Patrol c. Motive
d. Capability
1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method of 1136. The factors to be considered in determining the
patrol used in patrol force: number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
a. Foot Patrol following, except:
b. Air Patrol a. Size of the area
c. Automobile Patrol b. Possible problems to be encountered
d. Motorcycle Patrol c. Topography
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times d. none of the choices
more sensitive than human’s sense of smell? 1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the
a. One thousand times people together in a cooperative manner in order to
b. One hundred times prevent crime:
c. Ten thousand times a. Integrated Patrol
d. Ten million times b. Team policing
c. Reactive patrol
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another d. Proactive patrol
through common medium and channel.
a. Information
b. Communication 1138. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
c. Police Communication should conduct overt police operations in order to
d. Radio discourage people from committing crime refers to:
a. Theory of police omnipresence
1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly b. Low police visibility theory
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the c. Low profile theory
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other d. Maximum deterrence theory
legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone 1139. The principle of patrol force organization which states
b. Public Place that patrol officers should be under the command of only
c. Police Checkpoint one man refers to:
d. Pre-Determined Area a. Span of control
b. Unity of command
c. Chain of command
d. Command responsibility
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b. Yes
1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit c. No
crime as a result of patrol. d. Maybe No
a. Crime prevention 1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best
b. Crime intervention factor to be considered is:
c. Crime suppression A.Age
d. Crime deterrence B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body
1141. The Greek word which means “government of a city” built
or “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed as 1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act”
the origin of the word police refers to: which prohibits wiretapping in our country.
a. Politia a. RA 1700
b. Policia b. RA 4200
c. Politeia c. RA 7877
d. Polis d. RA 7160
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary 1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
objective of patrol activity is: authority that the person described is cleared to access
a. To prevent commission of crime. and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
b. Integrate the police and the community clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling. date of issuance.
d. Visibility and Omniprescence. a. 1 year
1143. What law provides for the creation of the National b. 5 years
Intelligence Coordinating Agency? c. 2 years
a. RA 157 d. 4 years
b. B. EO 213
c. RA 6040 1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent
d. EO 246 Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2?
1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true
b. Cryptographer information
c. Cryptograph b. Unreliable source – probably true information
d. Code breaker c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true
1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group information
organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation.
a. Guerilla 1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
b. Propagandist a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
c. Provocateur a. Interview
d. Strong Arm b. Interrogation
1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that c. Forceful Interrogation
will correspond to the operation. d. Tactical Interrogation
a. Multiple
b. Natural 1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record
c. Artificial discreetly conversations of other people.
d. Unusual a. Eavesdropping
1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE? b. Bugging
c. None of these
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information d. Wiretapping
report any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by 1156. The process of extracting information from a person
clandestine method. believes to be in possession of vital information without his
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a knowledge or suspicion.
medium size police station. a. Elicitation
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence b. Surveillance
information by initiating good public relations. c. Roping
1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly d. Undercover Operations
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information. 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
a. Partly True leaks false information to the enemy.
b. Partly False a. Double Agent
c. Wholly True b. Expendable Agent
d. Wholly False c. Agent of Influence
1149. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful d. Penetration Agent
accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
acceptance? 1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
a. Maybe Yes Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
67 | P a g e

prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and d. clandestine operation

prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence 1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting
b. Public Safety Intelligence message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of codes
c. Criminal Intelligence and cipher.
d. Preventive Intelligence a. Cryptographer
b. Crypto Analyst
1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the c. Cryptography
collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and d. Cryptechnician
interpretation of all available information. What is
considered as the core of intelligence operations? 1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered
a.Dissemination by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and
b. Analysis doubtfully true information?
c. Mission a. D-4
d. Planning b. C-4
c. C-5
1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military d. D-5
Espionage".
a. Alexander the Great 1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the
b. Frederick the Great appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
c. Karl Schulmeister a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
d. Arthur Wellesley b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and
sunglasses
1161. There are four categories of classified matters; top c.Change of seating arrangement within the
secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To distinguish, surveillance vehicle
their folder consists of different colors. What will be the d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
color of the document which requires the highest degree
of protection? 1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the
a. Red anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted for
b. Black investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a
c. Blue certain location.
d. Green a. Stake out
1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical b. Rough Shadowing
indication of the beginning of Intelligence? c. Shadowing
a. Number 13:17 d. Surveillance
b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13 1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes
d. Number 17:3 ________ forces.
1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of a. Unwanted
illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer was b. Friendly
deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of c. Neutral
time to find out the authenticity of such reports. d. Unfriendly
a. Social assignments
b. Work assignments 1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United
c. Organizational assignments Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of its
d. Residential assignments old post office box number.
a. Security Service
1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with b. Secret Intelligence Service
defending the organization against its criminal enemies? c. Government Communication Headquarters
a. Line Intelligence d. Defense Intelligence Staff
b. Counter-Intelligence 1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as
c. Strategic Intelligence minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
d. Tactical Intelligence censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence
accounting.
1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which a. Herbert Yadley
is “usually from a reliable source and improbable b. Wilhem Steiber
information”? c. Admiral Yamamoto
a. C-5 d. Joseph Fouche
b. B-5
c. B-3 1174. If the information or documents are procured openly
d. C-3 without regard as to whether the subject of the
1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
assumes a cover in order to obtain information purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt operation a. Overt Operation
b. Undercover assignment b. Surveillance
c. Covert operation c. Covert Operation
68 | P a g e

d. Analysis a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in d. Green
the area and residence of the individual being
investigated. 1184. The process of assigning higher category of
a. CBI document or information according to the degree of
b. NAC security needed.
c. PBI a. Degrading
d. LAC b. Classification
c. Upgrading
1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature d. Advancement
and necessary for more effective police planning.
a. Line Intelligence 1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information from
b. Strategic Intelligence a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge information.
c. Police Intelligence a. Interview
d. Departmental Intelligence b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of d. Tactical Interrogation
disseminating the information to the user of classified
matters is by means of: 1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to
a. Debriefing determine if the information is true and-
b. Conference a. Reliable
c. Cryptographic method b. Accurate
d. Seminar c. Correct
d. Probably true

1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to 1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
form a logical picture or theory. a. Line Intelligence
a. Integration b. Operational Intelligence
b. Evaluation c. Strategic Intelligence
c. Deduction d. Counter Intelligence
d. Interpretation
1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means: police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
a. Neutral purposes.
b. Unwanted a. Safe house
c. Friendly b. Log
d. Unfriendly c. Live Drop
d. Decoy
1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
conspicuous sources and 1% of information is obtained 1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which
from clandestine sources. Clandestine means. includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. Observable a. National Agency Check
b. Overt b. Background Investigation
c. Visible c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Covert d. Personnel Security Investigation

1181. An E-3 intelligence report means: 1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time:
a. Frederick the Great
a. The information comes from completely reliable b. Alexander the Great
sources and Improbable true. c. Arthur Wellesley
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources d. Joseph Hernandez
and probably true.
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources 1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established to
and doubtfully true. research, create and manage technical collection
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources discipline and equipment.
and possibly true.
1182. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is a.National Clandestine Service
generally refers to as? b.Directorate of Support
a. Plant c. Directorate of Intelligence
b. Stakeout d. Directorate of Science and Technology
c. None
d. Tailing or Shadowing 1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a
1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color certain establishment or building.
folderof? a. Access list
69 | P a g e

b. Black List
c. Blue Print a. The strength of the area where the information will
d. Silver list be gathered
b. Where they will be collecting the information
1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of c. Available sources of information
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion 1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
b. Sabotage Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered as
c. Espionage the greatest military strategist.
d. None of these a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis c. Frederick the Great
with other known information related to the operation. d. Genghis Khan
a. Recording
b. Analysis 1203. If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful
c. Integration accuracy, will this information be discarded or refused
d. Interpretation acceptance?
a. Yes
1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological b. True
aspects of groups of people. c. No
a. Sociological Intelligence d. False
b. Economic Intelligence
c. Biographical Intelligence 1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
d. Political Intelligence Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to the
prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and
1196. Which among the following principles of intelligence prosecution of criminal offenders.
deemed to be the most important? a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Criminal Intelligence
a.intelligence requires continuous security measures c. Public Safety Intelligence
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent d. Preventive Intelligence
c. Intelligence must be available on time
d. Intelligence must be flexible 1205. If the information or documents are procured openly
without regard as to whether the subject of the
1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or
suitability for a particular operational purpose. purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Casing a. Overt Operation
b. Loose Tail b. Clandestine
c. Rough Shadowing c. Surveillance
d. Stakeout d. Covert Operation
1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the 1206. Which of the following is the most common reason
information to the operation, reliability of the source of or why an informer gives information to the police?
agency and the accuracy of the information. a. Monetary Reward
a. Evaluation Popularity
b. Recording Revenge
c. Credibility As a good citizen
d. Appraisal
1207. A method of collecting information thru interception of
telephone conversation.
a. Bugging
1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant. b. Wire Tapping
a. Women c. Code name
b. Double Crosser d. NONE
c. False
d. Anonymous 1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the
enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text. groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the
a. Coding police organization.
b. Encrypting a.Conclusion
c. Decoding b.Capabilities
d. Reclassify c. Vulnerabilities
d.Evaluation
1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough 1209. It is the general statement describing the current
knowledge of the __________. police internal defense, internal development,
70 | P a g e

psychological operation and responsibilities of the c. Sponsor

organization d. Agent
a. Area of operation
b. Capabilities of organized crime 1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions
c. the crime situation of an individual group or nation.
d. the mission a. Propagandist
b. Support Agent
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information c. Principal Agent
concerning organized crime and other major police d. Action Agent
problems.
A.Military Intelligence 1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave
b.Military Information their messages to the other Agents.
c.Police Intelligence a. Live Drop
d.Police Investigation b. Safe House
c. Decoy
1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives d. Bait
information in exchange for a reward is:
a. Informer 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
b. Informant a. Fixed Surveillance
c. Special informer b. Stakeout Surveillance
d. Confidential Informant c. Stationary Surveillance
d. Active Surveillance
1212. The intelligence required by department or agencies
of the government to execute its mission and discharge its 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to
responsibilities. the different hang out places of the subject.
a. Counter a. Social Assignment
b. Departmental b. Residential Assignment
c. Line c. Work Assignment
d. National d. None of these

1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or some 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other
other form of graphical representation and the arranging of material gain he is to receive.
this information into groups related items. a. Gratitude
a. Recording b. Repentance
b. Integration c. Remuneration
c. Analysis d. Vanity
d. Demonstration 1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
a. Director
1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and b. General
Possibly true? c. President
a. -2 d. Director-General
b. E-2
c. E-3 1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all
d. C-3 government departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national Security.
1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in a National Intelligence
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign activities b.Departmental Intelligence
and the protection of information against espionage, c. International Intelligence
subversion and sabotage. d. Social Intelligence
a. Passive Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence 1225. .The process of categorizing a document or
c. Line Intelligence information according to the degree of security needed.
d. Demographic Intelligence a. Classification
b. Upgrading
1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance c. Reclassification
of peace and order. d. None of these
a. CRIMINT
b. SIGINT 1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____
c. PUSINT from the date of issuance.
d. INSINT a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
1217. Who directs the organization conducting the d. 1 year
clandestine activity?
a. Manager 1227. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
b. Superior a.Surveillant
71 | P a g e

b Subject a. Security Clearance

c. Interrogator b. Document Clearance
d. Interviewee c. Interim Clearance
d. Nome of these
1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of 1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the
bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it. subject is employed where constant surveillance is
a. Joseph Petrosino necessary.
b. Edgar Hoover a. Close tail
c. Napoleon Bonaparte b. Loose tail
d. Akbar c. Rough Shadowing
d. Surveillance
1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to
determine if the information is true and- 1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable and
a Reliable probably true.
b. Correct a. C-4
c. Probably true b. B-3
d. Accurate c. B-2
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to d. C-5
block the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage in
espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
a. Counter Intelligence 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
b. Passive Counter Intelligence _____________.
c. Active Counter Intelligence a. Russia
d. Intelligence b. Germany
c. Israel
1231. Chronological records of activities that took place in d. Pakistan
the establishment under surveillance. 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by
a. Memory _______ which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of
b. records the Spring and Autumn period.
c. Log a. Watch man
d. Report b. Prefect
c. Gendemarie
1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and d. Constabulary
ciphers.
a. Cryptography 1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN
b. Cryptanalysis integral mission.
c. Decipher a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. Coding b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
1233. The protection resulting from the application of d. None of these
various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or
unauthorized person in gaining information through 1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited
communication. jurisdiction on _______:
a. Communication Security a. USA
b. Physical Security b. New York
c. Document Security c. None of these
d. Internal Security d. Los Angeles

1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are 1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
considered as: a. RA 5678
a. Top Secret b. RA 9165
b. Secret c. RA 1298
c. Restricted d. RA 8792
d. Confidential
1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word
1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should be “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
placed on- a. Enforcing Law
a. Blue Folder b. Civil Policy
b. Black folder c. Guarding a City
c. Green Folder d. Citizenship
d. Red Folder
1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer
1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities those
person described is cleared to access and classify matters are the Marshal of France and ________:
at appropriate levels. a. Constable of France
72 | P a g e

b. Queens Royal Guard d. Washington

c. Scotland Yard
d. Constabulary 1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank
1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
people have minimal share in their duties or any direct a. Police Rank 4
connection with them. This reflected the: b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
a. Continental Theory c. Police Officer Rank 1
b. Home rule Theory d. Police Supervisor Rank 1
c. Old Concept
d. Modern concept 1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest
1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly possible rank of its police personnel?
________ of a police service personnel: a. Police Rank 1
a. 75% b. Police Officer Rank 1
b. 5 to 10% c. Investigator 1
c. 15 to 25% d. Constable
d. 7 to 10%
1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest”
or those with an interstate components. The statement is: police force and in having, set up the foundation for the
a. Correct social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good
b. Partially Correct reputation as one of the safety cities in the world.
c. False
d. partly False a. Philippine National Polic
b. Hong Kong Police Force
1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in c. Japan Police Department
some sense transgress national borders: d. National Police Agency
a. International Policing
b. Global Policing 1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police
c. National Policing Force:
d. Transnational Policing a. Commissioner General
b. Director General
c. Commissioner
1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include d. Director
educational requirement for police officer:
a. James Q. Wilson 1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
b. Sir Henry Peel a. Omerta
c. August Volmer b. Morse
d. O.W. Wilson c. Nostra Compra
d. Cosa Nostra
1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force:
a. Law and Order 1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is
b. Safer Communities together the:
c. Serve and Protect a. Executive Assembly
d. We serve with pride and Care b. Major Assembly
c. National Assembly
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police d. General Assembly
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police
officer whose are changed of committing any form of 1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run
misconduct: by the:
a. Northern Ireland a. Director General
b. England b. Supervisor
c. China c. Inspector General
d. Japan d. Secretary General

1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured 1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and
of police force is identical up to the rank of? introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
a. Chief Constable Chicago Police Department:
b. Chief Inspector a. August Volmer
c. Chief Superintendent b. Margaret Adams
d. Inspector c. William Stewart
d. O.W. Wilson
1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women 1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
and minorities as police officer. a. Policeman
a. Massachusetts b. Chief Superintendent
b. California c. Superintendent
c. New York d. Senior Superintendent
73 | P a g e

b. Transnational Crime
1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in c. Transnational Organized crime
Japan: d. Terrorist
a. Keishi
b. Koban 1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama
c. Omerta Bin Laden in 1980?
d. Keiban a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the c. Mafia
highest position in Japan Police Organization: d. Nuestra Costra

a. Commissioner Secretariat 1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by
b. Commissioner members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
c. Chairman a. Al Qaeda
d. Commissioner General b. Jihad
1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a c. Mafia
Commissioner General who is appointed by: d. Nuestra Costra
a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister 1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is
c. National Public Safety Commission aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious freedom.
d. Japan Commission a. Revolutionary
b. Separalist
1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force: c. Ethnocentric
a. Junsa d. Political
b. Constable
c. Sergeant 1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes
d. Police Officer committed via the internet:
a. Dynamic IP Address
1268. Irish Police are called: b. Internet Protocol Address
a. Militsiya c. Static IP Address
b. Constable d. Email Address
c. Police Force
d. Garda Socha 1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system
or network of an individual, group or business enterprise
1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral without the consent of the party’s system:
Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police a. Computer Fraud
commissioner of a United Nation Operation. b. Hacking
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas c. Cracking
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra d. Theft
c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. None of these 1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
replicating itself.
1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies a. Trojan Horse
on the absence of crime. b. Worm
a. Home rule c. Virus
b. Continental d. None of these
c. Old police service
d. Modern police service 1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
establish a shared database among concerned agencies
1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol. for information on criminals,
a. Oskar Dressler methodologies, arrests and convictions on
b. Ronald K. Noble transnational crime
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
1272. The first president of the Interpol. c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
a. Oskar Dressler d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
b. Ronald K. Noble 1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
c. Johann Schober a. KEISHI SOKAN
d. Aberdeen Scotland b. KEISHI SO
c. KEISHI KAN
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts d. KEIBU-HO
fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be
activity. the “Father of Texas”.
a. Organized Crime a. Stephen Austin
74 | P a g e

b. Vernon Knell C.I, II, IV, III

c. Dave Batista D. I, II, III, IV, V
d. Johann Schober 1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at
known locations.
1283. An order strengthening the operational, administrative a. Functional Plan
and information support system of the PCTC. Under this b. Time Specific Plans
EO, the centre shall c. Tactical Plans
exercise general supervision and control over d. Operational Plans
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG 1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump
a. EO 100 sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the first
b. EO 465 _____.
c. EO 465 a. 10 years
d. EO 789 b. 5 years
c. 6 years
1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 d. 2 years
years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. 2016 1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age,
b. 2023 Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of
c. 2012 qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota.
d. 2031 Appointment status under a waiver program is ________.
a. Temporary
1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP b. Probationary
commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire c. Permanent
and be paid separation benefits corresponding to a d. Regular
position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
a. Retirement in the next higher grad 1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has
b. Compulsory retirement exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his
c. Early retirement program life above and beyond the call of duty.
d. Optional Retirement a. Meritorious Promotion
b. Special Promotion
1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence c. Regular Promotion
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory d. On-the-Spot Promotion
power over PNP members.
a. Internal Affairs Service 1294. Which among the following has no promotional
b. National Police Commission authority over the members of the PNP?
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board a. Deputy Director General
d. National Appellate Board b. Director General
c. President of the Philippines
1287. In police operational planning the use of the wedge, d. Regional Director
squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable used 1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately
for: from the service after due notice and summary hearings if
a. Arm confrontation it was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous
b. Relief Operation period of:
c. Civil Disturbance a. 30 days or more
d. VIP Security b. 15 days or more
c. 20 days or more
1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to d. 60 days or more
SPOI? 1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
a. Officers Senior Executive Course following a high-risk stop.
b. Officer Basic Course b. Dragnet Operation
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Junior Leadership Course b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation d. High Risk Stop
of local chief executives as representative of the
NAPOLCOM: 1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay
Repeated unauthorized absences; since he was promoted. After five years from promotion,
what would be his monthly base pay after adding his
.II. Abuse of authority; longevity pay?
III. Habitual tardiness; a. 21, 857.00
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and b. 19, 970.00
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may
A. I, II, III, V induce incidents for some kind of police action:
B. II, V, IV, I a. Police Accident
75 | P a g e

b. Police Brutality 1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the
c. Police Hazard information and pieces of evidence gathered at the crime
d. Police Operation scene?
a. SOCO team
1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means- b. Immediate Supervisor
a. The Sword Bearer c. Responding unit
b. The Base d. Medico Legal Officer
c. Islamic Congregation
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri 1307. Request for police assistance in the implementation of
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and of
1300. What kind of force is needed during armed administrative bodies on controversies within their
confrontation? jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police
a. Reasonable force office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual
b. Logical Force implementation.
c. Rational Force a. 3 days
d. Evenhanded Force b. 10 days
1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the c. 5 days
picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in d. 15 days
such manner that their presence may deter the
commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from 1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings
either side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and
stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line. refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
a. 50 feet c. Tear Gas
b. 50 meter d. Water Cannon
c. 100 feet e. Truncheon
d. 100 meter f. Shield
1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
patrol jeep, the subject must be- suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining
the individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall suspicion concerning criminal activity.
sit at the rear on the Right side facing the subject g. Frisking
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort h. Search
shall sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject i. Spot Check
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall j. Pat-down Search
sit at the rear on the left side facing the subject 1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the
shall sit at the rear on the Right side facing the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
subject legitimate purposes.
k. Clear Zone
1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in l. Public Place
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper m. Police Checkpoint
escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The statement n. Pre-Determined Area
is- 1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which
a. Partially True was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the
b. Wholly True public in general. What police office is using this kind of
c. Partially False blotter?
d. Wholly False o. Makati
p. Cebu
1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public q. Baguio
assemblies, employment of tear gas and water cannons r. Davao
shall be made under the control and supervision of the- 1312. It refers to the venue or place established or
a. Ground Commander designated by local government units within their
b. Incident Commander respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could be
c. Immediate Commander d. held without securing any permit for such purpose from
Superior Officer the local government unit concerned.
s. Secured Area
1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when t. Wide Space
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except? u. Freedom Park
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the v. Clear Zone
scene. 1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals w. Line function
c. Determine the crime committed. x. Administrative function
d. None of these y. Staff function
z. Auxiliary function
76 | P a g e

1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of 1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to
Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near secure areas located out of doors, and manned by guards
Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence on a full time basis.
of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is a. Guard Control Stations
prevented. b. Tower
aa. Ambition c. Tower Guard
bb. Intention d. Top Guard
cc. Motive 1323. This lamps have the advantage of providing instant
dd. Opportunity illumination when the switch is open and most commonly
1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his used protective lighting system.
retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank of a. Incandescent Lamp
__________: b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp
ee. Superintendent c. Mercury Vapor Lamp
ff. C/Superintendent d. Quarts Lamp
gg. Sr. Superintendent
hh. C/Inspector 1324. The following are the areas to be lighted:
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up A.Parking Areas;
without material interval for the purpose of taking into b.Thoroughfare;
custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one c. Pedestrian Gates;
suspected to have committed a recent offense while d. Vehicular Gates; and
fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another E.Susceptible Areas.
that will normally require prior official inter-unit a. a, c, e
coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that b. a, b, c, d
moment, comply due to the urgency of the situation. c. a, c, d, e
ii. Hot Pursuit d. a, b, c, d, e
jj. Hasty Checkpoint
1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction
kk. Dragnet Operation of this record does not have the same value as the
ll. High Risk Stop original.
1317. Which among the following terms is not related to a. Vital Documents
each other? b. Important Documents
mm.Hot Pursuit c. Useful Documents
nn. Fresh Pursuit d. Non- Essential Documents
oo. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
pp. Bright Pursuit 1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to the
1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the natural economy and security.
police, military and other peace keeping authorities shall a.. Relative Operation
observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the b Relative Security
same. c. Relative Vulnerability
qq. Reasonable Force d. Relative Criticality of Operation
rr. Greatest Lenience
ss. Maximum Tolerance 1327. A new Private security agency that has been issued a
tt. Utmost Patience temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
1319. Which among the following aspects of a. Security is a. One
the weakest of them all? b. Two
a. Physical security c.Three
b. Personnel security d.Four
c. Document and information security
d. Personal Security 1328. The removal of the security classification from the
classified matter.
1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is- a.Segregation
a. Partially Correct b. Declassify
b. Partially Wrong c. Reclassify
c. Absolutely Correct d. Exclusion
d. Absolutely Wrong
1329. The form of security that employs cryptography to
1321. It refers to any structure or physical device capable of protect information refers to:
restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an A. Document and information security
installation. b. Operational security
a. Hazard c. Communication security
b. Perimeter Barrier d. Industrial security
c. Barrier
d .Energy Barrier 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow
complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Solid fence
b. Semi-solid fence
77 | P a g e

c. Full-view fence C. Sufite

d. Masonry Fence D. Pulp
1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression or
1331. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper.
or Operator of a security agency is: A. Lithograph printing
a. 40 yrs. Old B. Embossing
b. 25 yrs. Old C. Edge chains
c. 30 yrs. Old D. Reprographing
d. 35 yrs. Old 1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine.
A. Fourdrinier Brothers
1332. The following are the categories of automatic alarm B. Bryan Donkin
system, except: C. Nicholas-Louis Robert
a. Photoelectric D. Milton Reynolds
b. Electric Eye Device 1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that
c. Audio detection can be transmitted through its surface.
d. Bill Traps A. Thickness
1333. Which of the following is not a false key? B. Opacity
a. A picklock or similar tool . C. Translucent
b. A duplicate key of the owner. D. Texture
c. A genuine key stolen from the owner. 1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of
d.Any key other than those intended by the owner. document examiner is to determine and conclude with
1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least: scientific basis and technique who is the
a. 500 lbs. A. Beneficiaries
b. 750 lbs. B. Writer or signatory
c. 1000 lbs. C. Master mind
d. 600 lbs. D. Conspirator
1345. In questioned document, it is where all characteristics
1335. The minimum number of guards required for a are grouped.
company security force is: A. Class characteristics
a. 1000 B. Individual characteristics
b. 30 C. Both A and B
c. 100 D. Neither
d. 200 1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a
sufficient number of identical writing habits and the
1336. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby absence of divergent characteristics. This is in
keys can open a group of locks. consonance with;
a. Key Control A. Identification
b. Master Keying B. Non-identification
c. Change Key C. Either
d. Great Grand Master Key D. Niether
1347. Embellishment is an example of
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance installed A. Individual Characteristics
inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide B. Class Characteristics
additional security measures and operates to advertise C. Both
entry into sensitive and protected area? D. Neither
a. Protective locks 1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
b. Protective cabinet A. Speed in writing
c. Protective barrier B. Defective writing instrument
d. Protective Lighting C. Unevenness of writing materials
D. All of the choices
1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is 1349. Among the following, which is not an element of
assigned for duty: movement?
a. Post A. Line Quality
b. Beat B. Rhythm
c. Area C. Speed Freedom
d. Route D. emphasis
1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except
1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of those at the
inch. A. Middle of the words/strokes
A. Measurement B. End of the stroke
B. Caliper C. Beginning of strokes
C. Buffer D. B and C
D. Calibre
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp. 1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to
A. Bleach as
B. Alum A. Pen position
78 | P a g e

B. Pen hold D. Identity of the forger

C. Pen emphasis 1362. One of the following statements best describe what a
D. Pen orientation collected standard is.
1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is A. It has the advantage of easily finding it.
referred to as B. Attempt to disguise is removed.
A. Ratio C. The accused is aware that the specimen will
B. Proportion be used against him.
C. Line quality D. None
D. All 1363. Authenticity of private documents is not necessary
1353. In questioned document examination, it is referred to when
as the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded A. It is 30 years old
in a written record. B. More than 30 years old
A. Line quality C. Less than 30 years old
B. Rhythm D. More or less 30 years old
C. Speed in writing 1364. During paper manufacture, the following are included
D. Movement except
1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the A. Security fiber
letters relative to the B. Watermarks
A. Baseline C. Iridescent band
B. Slope D. Serial number
C. Alignment 1365. Which of the following is not a crime called forgery?
D. Staff A. Forging the seal of the government
1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as B. Counterfeiting of coins
a fundamental point of identification. C. Mutilation of coins
A. Slant D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or
B. Habit stamp
C. Movement 1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
D. All A. Counterfeit
1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the B. Mutilation
writing ______ C. Utter
A. Holds D. Import
B. Rests 1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is
C. Stays A. Counterfeiting
D. Slants B. Uttering
1357. Among the following, which is a common defect of C. Mutilation
forgery? D. Importing
1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is
A. Patching A. Not punishable under the revised penal code
B. Retracing B. Not punishable by any law
C. A and B C. Punishable under the revised penal code
D. None D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.
1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the 1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed for
linear letters. the genuine one is a form of
A. Infra-linear A. Falsification
B. Supra-linear B. Forgery
C. Linear C. Tracing
D. None D. Fraud
1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of signature 1370. Which of the following method should be used in
forgery is the determination of the probable writer of the order for the naked eye to see a charred document?
forgery. A. X-ray
A. Simple forgery B. Spectrograph
B. Simulated forgery C. Ultra violet
C. Traced forgery D. Infra red
D. A and B 1371. Which of the following security features of a paper bill
1360. A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of does not react to ultra-violet light?
the questioned signature and genuine is apparent. A. Serial Number
A. Fraudulent B. Watermark
B. Simulated C. Fluorescent printing
C. Simple D. Invisible security fibers
D. Traced 1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for
1361. To identify whether simple forgery was committed, A. Sumer
which of the following should be retrieved? B. Turkey
A. Standard signature from the forger C. Sumeria
B. Standard of the genuine signature D. Egypt
C. Standard of the person who made the 1373. What is gustatory sensation?
forgery A. Smell
79 | P a g e

B. Taste A. Compass direction

C. Skin B. Name of placed
D. Hearing C. Time
43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and D. Location
there should be light and darkness which is daylight and 1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you
night. Among these, what is the basic component of preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions,
photography? hematoma and the like?
A. All of these A. Recording
B. Film B. Sketching
C. Camera C. Photography
D. Light D. Note taking
1374. Positive result of photography is called – 1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to a
A. Picture stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
B. Photograph A. Patching
C. Positive B. Retouching
D. Negative C. Retracing
1375. Other term for lie detector is – D. Restroking
A. GSR 1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred
B. Pneumograph showing disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to
C. Cardiograph show defense of the -
D. Polygraph A. Suspect
1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner B. Witness
on the numerator? C. Victim
A. Yes D. Kibitzers
B. Maybe 1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the
C. No energy coming from the muzzle point is called -
D. Sometimes A. Armor-piercing
1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of B. Velocity
light of short duration. Which among of these is popular C. Lead bullet
today? D. Muzzle energy
A. Flash bulb 1388. What are the two types of firearms according to the
B. Electronic bulb construction of the interior of the barrel?
C. Lamp A. Short and long barreled firearms
D. Flash light B. Small arms and artilleries
1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint C. Lands and grooves
permanently? D. Smoothbore and rifled bore
A. Yes 1389. What is the symbol of tented arch?
B. No A. Dash
C. Maybe B. T
D. This time C. Te
1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines D. A and/or B
the firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____? 1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
A. In court A. Inner terminus
B. In progress B. Delta
C. Controversy C. Inner shoulder
D. Handled D. Core
1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false 1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in
statement or signs of - the -
A. Detection A. Pattern area
B. Deception B. Delta
C. Lie C. Core
D. Untrue statement D. Type lines
1381. In typewriting examination which of the following first 1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong to
to be conducted? human or animal?
A. Examination of the questioned specimen A. Takayama
B. Collecting of typewriting standards B. Benzidine
C. Locate the type writer used C. Kestle Meyer
D. Examination of the exemplar D. Precipitin
1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification 1393. How many standards in questioned documents is
in securing NBI clearance? needed to prove?
A. Thumb mark A. 5 standards
B. Pending case B. 10 signatures
C. Picture C. Sufficient amount
D. Signature D. 5 pages
1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered in a 1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court
sketch? presentation?
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A. 1909 B. Firing pin

B. 1859 C. Extractor
C. 1890 D. Ejector
D. 1903 1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by
1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post -
mortem examination? A. Gauge
A. To determine the duration of death B. Caliber
B. To determine the manner of death C. Caliper
C. To determine the deadly weapon D. Hundredth of an inch
D. To determine the cause of death. 1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is
1396. What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the -
detecting pulse rate and heart beat? A. Victim
A. Kymograph B. Investigator
B. Pneumograph C. Object relative
C. Polygraph D. Prosecutor
D. Cardiograph 1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern
1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling
he or she has - impression columns?
A. Extra fingerprint A. Rolled impression
B. Extra hand B. Indexing impression
C. Extra finger C. Palm impression
D. Added finger D. Little finger impression
1398. What year did the colored photography was accepted 1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a
in US court? gun is also termed as –
A. 1956 A. Twist of rifling
B. 1978 B. Gyroscopic action
C. 1946 C. Rotating motion
D. 1960 D. Pitch of rifling
1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours? 1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for
A. 6-8 hours scrutiny by litigants and others.
B. 9-10 hours A. Police photography
C. 8-12 hours B. Photograph
D. 3-6 hours C. Forensic photography
1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph D. Crime scene photography
examination? 1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was
A. James MacKenzie made?
B. Angelo Mosso A. Wiremark
C. William Marston B. Trademark
D. John Larson C. Copyright
1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity? D. Watermark
1412. Tripod has how many feet?
A. Blue A. It depends
B. Violet B. Two
C. Pink C. Three
D. Bright red D. Four
1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, 1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which
model of firearm and its bullets is done by - should be closely photographed?
A. Ballistician A. Weapons used
B. Ballistic engineer B. Victims wounds
C. Forensic engineer C. Entrance and exit
D. Firearm prober D. Things stolen
1403. What is the type of document which is notarized by a 1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with other
RTC judge? agencies when it comes to authenticity?
A. Public A. Signature and photograph
B. Official B. Thumb mark and photograph
C. Private C. Thumb mark and signature
D. None of these D. Signature only
1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke 1415. What is the best test in determining the presence of
is called - blood?
A. Slicing A. Benzedine
B. Embracing B. Marquis
C. Retouching C. Takayama
D. Patching D. Teichman
1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects
the chamber? the result of polygraph examination?
A. Breech A. Yes
81 | P a g e

B. No 1428. What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage?

C. Depends a. brain
D. Maybe b. stomach
1417. It is where handwriting rest? c. lung
A. Feet 1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch
B. Vase line a. small firearm
C. Baseline b. handgun
D. Alignment c. revolver
1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the d. shotgun
heart that results to death. 1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the
A. Instantaneous rigor pneumograph?
B. Heart attack a. 20 inches
C. Myocardial infarction b. 10 inches
D. Death c. 7 inches
1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is d. 8 inches
measured in millimeter by the - 1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line of
A. Kymograph physical defense. It must have:
B. Sphygmomanometer a. the building itself
C. Pneumograph b. communication barrier
D. Galvanograph c. perimeter barrier
1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance d. window barrier
of fingerprint is for - 1432. If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go
A. Indemnification during livor mortis?
B. Comparison A. Back
C. Identification B. Neck
D. Collection C. Head
1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime D. Legs
scene which will be used for court presentation is called - 1433. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
A. Crime scene photography A. Yes
B. Forensic photography B. No
C. Crime photography C. Partly Yes
D. Police photography D. Partly No
1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves 1434. What is the other term for dot?
the muzzle of the gun is a kind of – A. Islet
A. Interior ballistics B. Core
B. Terminal ballistics C. Delta
C. Forensic ballistics D. Bifurcation
D. Exterior ballistics 1435. In writing, what is being used?
1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is A. Finger
known for introducing the word “Criminalistics.” B. Forearm
A. Hans Gross C. Hands
B. Alphonse Bertillon D. All of the choices
C. Prof. R.A. Riess 1436. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch,
D. Edmond Locard whorl and _____.
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas? A. Ulnar loop
a. No B. Radial loop
b. Never C. Loop
c. Yes D. Arch
d. Maybe 1437. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this?
1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an image, A. Irrelevant
with a means of holding sensitized material and with a B. Relevant
means of regulating the amount of light that enters the C. Control
camera at a given time. a. camera D. Evidence
b. light 1438. In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
c. film A. Lying
d. lens B. Dying
1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper C. Truth
a. Side D. Response
b. Middle 1439. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
c. Lower conducted in the crime laboratory?
d. Upper A. DNA
1427. What is the most common death caused by asphyxia? B. Microscope examination
a. strangulation C. Chemical examination
b. drowning D. Serology examination
c. throttling 1440. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the
d. Hanging effect to the fingerprint?
82 | P a g e

A. Blurred D. Parricide scene

B. Sticky 1452. What is the most common symptom of coma?
C. Classified A. Unconsciousness
D. Clear B. Blackening of lips
1441. What is found on the left white portion of the portrait? C. Dilated eyes
A. Vignette D. consciousness
B. Watermark 1453. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
C. Security fiber A. H2O
D. Fiber B. Blood
1442. In Henry System how many clasifications of C. Air
fingerprints are there? D. Anesthesia
A. 2 1454. In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is
B. 3 not limited to ____.
C. 8 A. Semen
D. 7 B. Blood
1443. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and C. Riverstone
sickness is what kind of signature? D. None of these
A. Genuine 1455. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from
B. Spurious their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well as
C. Forged the striking point of the bullet.
D. Simulated a. Jacketed bullet
1444. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you b. Armor-piercing
consider it as rape on minor? c. Semi-wed cutter bullet
A. Yes d. Tracer bullet
B. No 1456. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the
C. Partly Yes bore diameter measured from:
D. Partly No a. Land to firearm
1445. In polarization film, how long is the developing? b. Land to land
A. 5 minutes c. Land to groves
B. 7 min d. Groves to land
C. 3 min 1457. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is
D. 8 minutes sealed by a solid flat block of metal against which the
1446. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet? barrel comes into position when the weapon is closed for
A. Jacketed firing, which is termed as:
B. Metallic a. Extractor
C. Silver b. Breechface
D. Ogive c. Head space
1447. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and d. Breechblock
_____. 1458. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one
A. Hemotoxic inch in diameter is called.
B. Viral a. Machine gun
C. Surgical b. Musket
D. B or C c. Artillery
d. Single-shot firearm
1459. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
1448. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible? characteristics of:
A. Under experimental stage a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
B. Under analysis b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
C. Based on opinion c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
D. Unskill d. Five lands, five grooves right twist

1449. Phos means light, graphia means _____.

A. Write 1460. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its
B. Study passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability in
C. Technology its flight is called:
D. Record a. Range
1450. In major classification, the right thumb is the b. Gauge
numerator while the left is the denominator? c. Rifling
A. Yes d. Center-fire
B. No 1461. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets
C. It depends fired from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the
1451. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you cylinder with the bore:
photograph even though there is no SOCO photographer? a. Shaving marks
A. Vehicular accident scene b. Skid marks
B. Infanticide scene c. Pivot marks
C. Homicide scene d. landmarks
83 | P a g e

1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to: b. Decrease the amount of recoil
a. James Forsythe c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
b. Philip O. Gravelle d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
c. Van Amberg
d. Berthold Scwartz
1462. That science dealing with the motion of projectile 1472. The caliber of the gun is:
from the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it a. Its barrel length
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called: b. The circumference of its barrel
a. Posterior ballistics c. The size of the ammunition used
b. Interior ballistics d. Diameter of the bore
c. Exterior ballistics 1473. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of
d. Terminal ballistics the exploded shell have been recovered by the
1463. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
useful in directly identifying the: a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
a. Person who fired the particular gun b. The cap and the wads
b. Direction form which a shot was fired c. The cap and the pellets
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired d. The shot shell only
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound 1474. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
1464. A patrolman should fire his pistol: means of the ballistics is that:
a. At no time a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel lands
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined
d. Only as a last resort by the angle of lead
1465. . Which of the following, the best method to use in c. Pistols with the same number of land can be
firing a revolver is to keep: differentiated by the direction of the lead
a. Both eyes closed d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the
b. Both eyes open width of the groove
c. Only the right eye is open
d. Only the left eye is open 1475. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
1466. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling useful in directly identifying the:
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the a. Person who fired the particular gun
following statement the one which can most accurately be b. Direction form which a shot was fired
inferred is that: c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right 1476. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either a. At no time
left or right b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
d. All of the above c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
1467. The secret of good shooting form is: d. Only as a last resort
a. Proper sighting of the target
b. Firing slowly and carefully
c. A relaxed and natural position 1477. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver a revolver is to keep:
a. Both eyes closed
1468. The term muzzle velocity refers most b. Both eyes open
accurately to the: c. Only the right eye is open
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight d. Only the left eye is open
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight 1478. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle the differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
following statement the one which can most accurately be
1469. Discharged bullet are initiated at: inferred is that:
a. On base or nose a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves
b. Left side b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and
c. Right side right
d. The end of the bullet c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be
1470. Discharged shell are initiated at: either left or right
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end d. All of the above
b. Where firing pin strikes 1479. The secret of good shooting form is:
c. On any part of the shell a. Proper sighting of the target
d. None of the above b. Firing slowly and carefully
1471. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: c. A relaxed and natural position
a. Increase the speed of the bullet d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
84 | P a g e

1480. The term muzzle velocity refers most d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge
accurately to the: is pushed from the magazine at the same time
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight 1489. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight Rifle barrels is called:
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle a. Land
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver b. Groove
1481. Discharged bullet are initiated at: c. Lead
a. On base or nose d. One complete revolution inside the bore
b. Left side 1490. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
c. Right side shell by the:
d. The end of the bullet a. Firing
b. Ejector
1482. Discharged shell are initiated at: c. Extractor
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end d. Hammer
b. Where firing pin strikes 1491. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
c. On any part of the shell withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is called
d. None of the above the:
1483. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to: a. Ejector
a. Increase the speed of the bullet b. Primer
b. Decrease the amount of recoil c. Striker
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification d. extractor
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in
the air 1492. A revolver to be tested and used in
1484. The caliber of the gun is: evidence should be picked up by:
a. Its barrel length a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel
b. The circumference of its barrel b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger
c. The size of the ammunition used guard
d. Diameter of the bore c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
1485. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
the exploded shell have been recovered by the 1493. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell with at the scene of the crime is normally not individual marked
the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given: for identification in the:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets a. Trigger
b. The cap and the wads b. Ejector
c. The cap and the pellets c. Slide
d. The shot shell only d. barrel
1494. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is
usually a:
1486. Which of the following, the most accurate statement a. Rifled bore
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by b. Choke bore
means of the ballistics is that: c. Full choke bore
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least d. Smooth bore
eight lands 1495. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be firearm discharge will usually produce detectable powder
determined by the angle of lead pattern on a target is about:
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be a. 6 to 10 inches
differentiated by the direction of the lead b. 6 to 10 feet
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from c. 6 to 10 yards
the width of the groove d. 6 to 10 meters
1487. Paraffin test is used to: 1496. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth criminal:
b. Discover whether the deceased person was a. The empty shell remain within the chamber
poisoned b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of
c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the firing
deceased c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene
d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
recently 1497. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the
index finger should:
1488. The term double action with reference to revolver a. Grasp the stock
means most nearly that: b. Be straight along the barrel
a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
action d. Be inside of the trigger guard
b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released 1498. A member of the police force may properly used his
the hammer pistol:
c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell a. To disperse a disorder group of people
ejection b. To subdue a maniac
85 | P a g e

c. To prevent the escape of a pelon 1509. One of the most important single case in Firearms
d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a Identification History was that involving two men who were
crime supposed to have their employer and his housekeeper in
1499. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a upper New York State:
revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful: a. Castelo Case
a. To see that it is not loaded b. Timbol Case
b. To put on the safety lock c. The Stielow Case
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily d. Castaneda case
d. To mark it readily on the barrel
1510. During the seven years of radical agitation that
1500. The term “MAGNUM” originated in: followed the arrest of these men , It was apparently
a. United States forgotten that they had been seized on specific charge of
b. France murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard
c. England Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange into national
d. Italy prominence during this last phrase of:
1501. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due a. Brownell Case
to rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case
gunpowder is: c. Mitchell Case
a. Pressure d. Weber Case
b. Extractor 1511. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First
c. Corrosion World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps
d. Priming Composition and considered the Father of modern Ballistics:
1502. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm a. Lieutenant Van Amberg
due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is: b. Maj. Calvin Goddard
a. Ejector c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
b. Single action d. Philip O. Gravelle
c. Erosion 1512. The most important single process in barrel
d. Potassium nitrate manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
1503. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire expert is:
continuously while the trigger is depressed is called: a. Reaming operation
a. Double action b. Rifling operation
b. Caliber c. Boring operation
c. Automatic d. Grinding or machining
d. Trigger
1504. The distance that the rifling advances to make one 1513. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which
complete turn inside the gun barrel is called: causes empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from
a. Gauge the gun is called:
b. Breech End a. Extractor
c. Pitch of rifling b. Ejector
d. Velocity c. Hammer
1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases d. trigger
the hammer that must be manually cocked is called: 1514. This process of combustion results in the solid
a. Automatic powder being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
b. Repeating arms temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases which
c. Single action causes the explosive force which propels the bullet or shot
d. Ejector charge along the barrel. This force is known as:
1506. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both a. Energy
cocks and releases the hammer: b. Pressure
a. Single action c. Velocity
b. Trigger d. High Intensity
c. Hammer 1515. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with
d. Double action the right hand twist is:
1507. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability a. Smith & Wesson
bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is b. Browning type
known as: c. Colt type
a. Shotgun d. Webley type
b. Choke 1516. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by
c. Gauge the expansive force of gases coming from burning powder
d. Chamber a:
1508. The only sure method of determining the velocity is a. Helixometer
by the use of: b. Firearm
a. Micrometer c. Stereoscopic
b. Taper Gauge d. Comparison microscope
c. Caliber 1517. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of
d. Chronograph the bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize
friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore is:
86 | P a g e

a. Jacketed bullet c. Individual characteristics

b. Wad cutter bullet d. Slippage marks
c. Cannelure 1528. Those characteristics which are determinable only
d. Plated bullet after the manufacture of the firearm. They are
1518. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its characteristics whose existence is beyond the control of
original trajectory is: men and which have random distribution. Their existence
a. Range in a firearm is brought about through the failure of the tool
b. Fouling in its normal operation through wear and tear, abuse,
c. Key hole shot mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous causes:
d. ricochet a. Forensic ballistics
1519. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or b. Class characteristics
there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning of c. Riflings
the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is: d. Individual characteristics
a. Misfire 1529. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore
b. Recoil against the force of the charge is:
c. Hang-fire a. Breechface
d. velocity b. Breechblock
1520. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as c. Chamber
phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon impact d. bore
is called: 1530. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch
a. Boat tail bullet in diameter are generally classified as:
b. Tracer bullet a. Artillery
c. Incendiary bullet b. Small arms
d. Ball type c. Cannons
1521. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”. d. Recoilless rifle
a. Gatling guns 1531. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of
b. Pistolized shotgun the ammunition fired through them:
c. Carbine a. Ballistics
d. muskets b. Forensic Ballistics
1522. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by c. Terminal ballistics
means of compressed air is: d. Interior ballistics
a. Springfield armory 1532. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson,
b. Marlin rifle revolver caliber .38 is:
c. Carbine a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist
d. Air rifle b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist
1523. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist
is: d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist 1533. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in:
b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist a. Foot pound
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist b. Lbs./sq. inch
d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist c. Feet per second
1524. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to: d. millimeter
a. Caliber .32 1534. How many types of problem are there in Forensic
b. Caliber .25 Ballistics?
c. Caliber .45 a. 8
d. Caliber .22 b. 7
1525. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch c. 6
shot shotgun cartridges contains: d. 5
a. 12 gauge 1535. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the
b. 24 pellets flame coming from the priming composition passes?
c. 6 pellets a. Shell head
d. 9 pellets b. Vent
1526. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined c. Primer pocket
under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously d. anvil
drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this 1536. What is the most powerful handgun in the world?
matching is called: a. Magnum .357
a. Photomicrograph b. Magnum .44
b. Pseudomatch c. Magnum .50
c. Microphotograph d. Magnum .41
d. striagraph 1537. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter?
1527. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a a. 7.65mm
stationary position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its b. 6.35 mm
natural tendency is to go straight forward before c. 9 mm
encountering the regular rifling twist is called: d. 7.63 mm
a. Shaving marks 1538. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed
b. Skidmarks in explosion;
87 | P a g e

a. Misfired cartridge 1549. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a
b. Hang-fire firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the
c. Tapered cartridge cartridge seats.
d. Rebated cartridge a. Keyhole
1539. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of b. Headspace
the bullet? c. Gas operator
a. Omoscope d. Silencer
b. Helixometer 1550. The most important single process in barrel
c. Chronograph manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
d. micrometer expert.
1540. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a a. Reaming operation
combination of: b. Rifling operation
a. Pitch grifling c. Boring operation
b. Twist d. Grinding operation
c. Lands & grooves 1551. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the
d. cannelures target sideways;
a. Ricochet
1541. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after b. Hang-fire
explosion is called: c. Key hole shot
a. Suppressor d. misfired
b. Muzzle blast 1552. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major
c. Compensation length of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are
d. choke rifled.
1542. What are muzzle loading firearms? a. Gas operated
a. Muskets b. Damascus barrel
b. Shotgun c. Paradox gun
c. Single sot firearms d. Cape gun
d. Rifled arms 1553. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to
1543. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand.
mean by 51? a. Headspace
a. The diameter of the cartridge case b. Ratchet
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case c. Trigger pull
c. The diameter of the cartridge d. Cylinder stop
d. The length of the cartridge case 1554. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to
1544. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
a. Caliber .32 a. Trigger pull
b. Caliber .30 b. Trigger guard
c. Caliber .308 c. Trailing edge
d. Caliber 30.06 d. Thumb rest
1545. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun 1555. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
cartridge 12 gauge? a. feet/second
a. 12 pellets b. Lbs./sq. inch
b. 9 pellets c. Foot pound
c. 10 pellets d. Millimetre
d. 16 pellets
1546. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is 1556. Used in cases such as for sending signals and
manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by the enabling to see enemies in the dark.
shooter; a. Harpoon guns
a. Slide action type b. Gas guns
b. Lower action type c. Flare guns
c. Bolt action type d. Care guns
d. Single shot firearm 1557. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second
1547. A device primarily designed for another purposes that 30?
have a gun mechanism in corporated in them. a. Refers to the caliber
a. Gas gun b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
b. Liberator c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
c. Freakish device d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
d. Flare guns 1558. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
1548. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the a. Muzzle energy
head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the b. Diameter of the cartridge
manufacturer, caliber or gauge. c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet
a. Headspace d. Pressure developed
b. Headstamp 1559. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more
c. Proof mark than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press of
d. ratchet the trigger?
a. Slide
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b. Main spring 1570. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens
c. Disconnector type for interior photograph?
d. Magazine catch a. Wide angle lens
1560. The amount of force which must be applied to the b. Normal lens
trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released. c. Telephoto lens
a. Velocity d. Narrow angle lens
b. Muzzle energy 1571. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a
c. Trigger pull predetermined time interval.
d. Shocking power a. View finder
1561. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in b. Shutter
police photography? c. Light tight box
a. Single, glossy, white d. Holder of sensitized material
b. Single, matte, cream 1572. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the
c. Double, glossy, white subject.
d. Double matte, cream a. Light tight box
1562. When a photograph was developed, the objects in b. Shutter
open space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was c. Lens
the lighting condition when the shot was taken? d. View finder
a. Bright 1573. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is
b. Dull focused with a given particular diaphragm opening.
c. Hazy a. Depth of field
d. Cloudy b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Focal distance
d. Scale bed
1563. Refers to the response of film to different wavelength 1574. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the
of light source. farthest object.
a. Spectral sensitivity a. Depth field
b. Color sensitivity b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Light sensitivity c. Scale bed
d. Film sensitivity d. Focal distance
1564. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only. 1575. Which among the following is not a primary color?
a. Blue sensitive a. Red
b. Orthochromatic b. Blue
c. Panchromatic c. Yellow
d. Infra red d. Green
1565. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts 1576. It is a microscopically small photograph.
no shadow. a. Microphotograph
a. Bright b. Photomicrograph
b. Dull c. Photomacrograph
c. Hazy d. Macrophotograph
d. Cloudy 1577. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes
1566. Lens corrected for astigmatism. b. 5 to 10 minutes
a. Aprochomat lens c. 20 to 30 minutes
b. Anastigmat lens d. 30 to 60 minutes
c. Achromatic lens 1578. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal
d. Rapid rectilinear lens paper for printing?
1567. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with a. Chloride paper
focal length that is: b. Bromide paper
a. Wide angle lens c. Contact paper
b. Normal lens d. Chloro-bromide paper
c. Telephoto lens 1579. This refers to the absence of all colors.
d. Narrow angle lens a. White
1568. When a material does not allow light to pass its b. Red
medium it is said to be: c. Blue
a. Transparent d. Black
b. Translucent 1580. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space
c. Opaque casts a transparent shadow.
d. All of the above a. Hazy
1569. To separate colors, this homogenous medium b. Cloudy Dull
absorbs and transmits light rays passing through it. c. Cloudy bright
a. Filter d. Bright
b. Stop bath 1581. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what
c. Developer particular method of photography is utilized?
d. Fixer a. Bounce light
b. Side light
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c. Transmitted light a. Light

d. Reflected light b. Camera
1582. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of c. Film
two chemical solution in chemical processing in d. Developer
photography. 1592. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the
a. Development thicker center and thinner sides.
b. Stop-bath a. Positive lens
c. Fixation b. Negative lens
d. Bleaching c. Concave lens
1583. Which among the following comprises the essential d. Convex lens
parts of a camera? 1593. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the
a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
material, View finder a. Infra-red
b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized b. X-ray
material, View finder c. Orthochromatic
c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized d. Panchromatic
material, Shutter 1594. The first use of photography in police work is in what
d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder particular field?
of sensitized material a. Crime prevention
1584. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of b. Identification files
its negative material. c. Surveillance work
a. Wide angle lens d. Crime scene investigation
b. Normal lens 1595. The chemical processing step wherein the latent
c. Long lens image recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
d. Telephoto lens a. Fixer
1585. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of b. Bleacher
convergence of light coming from a subject as seen from c. Stop bath
two apertures. d. Developer
a. Focusing scale
b. Scale bed
c. View finder 1596. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use
d. Range finder of microscope.
a. Microphotography
1586. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by b. Photomicrography
connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a c. Macrophotography
compound microscope. d. Photomacrography
a. Microphotograph 1597. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of
b. Photomicrograph image refers to:
c. Photomacrograph a. Hyper-focal distance
d. Macrophotograph b. Focal distance
1587. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true c. Focusing
photography. d. Focal length
a. William Henry Fox Talbot 1598. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
b. Thomas Wedgewood a. Laser light
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre b. Coherent light
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Black light
1588. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at d. Heat rays
bright sunlight with normal subject. 1599. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in
a. 1/30 f-8 logarithmic values refers to:
b. 1/125 f-11 a. ISO rating
c. 1/60 f-4 b. ASA rating
d. 1/250 f 2-8 c. DIN rating
1589. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the d. BSI rating
scene we use a camera at what particular level? 1600. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing
a. Elevated solution.
b. Eye level a. Hypo or silver halide
c. Bird’s eye view b. Potassium Alum
d. Worm’s eye view c. Sodium Sulfate
1590. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in d. Acetic Acid
reference to visible light is: 1601. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer
a. 001 to 100 solution.
b. 300 to 400 a. Hydroquinone
c. 400 to 700 b. Sodium sulfite
d. 700 to 1000 c. Sodium carbonate
1591. Photography is defined as drawing with what d. Potassium bromide
particular element? 1602. Refers to the product of illumination and time.
90 | P a g e

a. Exposure a. Impression of false markings

b. Development b. Accentuation of patterns
c. Sensitized material c. Pattern reversals
d. Photograph d. Difficulty in photographing
1603. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging. 1615. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the
a. Potassium Bromide body of the subject.
b. Sodium Sulfite a. All fingers
c. Sodium Carbonate b. All fingers except the thumbs
d. Boric Acid c. Both thumbs
1604. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits d. Both little fingers
differentially light rays passing through it. 1616. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the
a. Stop bath fingerprint card are referred to as:
b. Fixer a. Rolled impressions
c. Filter b. Plain impressions
d. Dektol c. Fragmentary impressions
1605. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: d. Visible impressions
a. Fingers 1617. Known for his rule which states that “No two
b. Palms individuals in the world are exactly the same size and that
c. Soles of the feet human skeleton does not change after 20 years.
d. All of the choices a. Darwin
1606. The fingerprint classification which is used in the US b. Mendel
and other English speaking country. c. Galton
a. Henry System d. Bertillon
b. Batley System 1618. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is
c. Bertillion System to view the area:
d. Galton System a. Obliquely
1607. Which among the following is considered as a basic b. About half an inch distance
type of ridge characteristics? c. Directly
a. Ridge endings d. About one inch distance
b. Bifurcation 1619. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of
c. Dots pattern are represented:
d. All of the choices a. Accidental Whorl
1608. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of b. Central pocket loop
papillary ridges as means of identification. c. Double loop
a. Edgeoscopy d. Whorl
b. Poroscopy 1620. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops,
c. Podoscopy with its respective shoulder and deltas.
d. Chiroscopy a. Double loop
1609. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the b. Accidental loop
subject’s hand is: c. Central pocket loop
a. Necessary d. Whorl
b. Unnecessary 1621. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two
c. Optional deltas.
d. Excessive a. Accidental loop
1610. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is: b. Double loop
a. Temporary c. Whorl
b. Permanent d. Central pocket loop
c. Lasting 1622. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from
d. Stable the thumb toward the little finger?
1611. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller. a. Tented Arch
a. Porelon b. Radial loop
b. Special pad c. Ulnar loop
c. Inkless pad d. Loop
d. None of the foregoing 1623. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter
1612. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the on either side of the impression by a recurve, and
impression are arbitrarily classified as. terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.
a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing a. Tented arch
b. Loops with ridge count b. Radial loop
c. Arches c. Ulnar loop
d. Dependent on ridge tracings d. Loop
1613. Referred to as outer terminus: 1624. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation
a. Delta of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
b. Dots a. Latent prints
c. Bifurcation b. Ridge
d. None of the foregoing c. Core
1614. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces: d. Delta
91 | P a g e

1636. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable

1625. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are: method of identification due to following reason; except:
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts a. Fingerprints are not changeable
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs b. There are no two identical fingerprints
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
ridges
1626. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form 1637. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are
a single ridge is called: formed and developed?
a. Enclosure ridge a. 3rd month of fetus life
b. Dot ridges b. 6th month of infancy
c. Short ridges c. At birth
d. Resembling a loop d. 3 months after birth
1638. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble
a loop, spiral or rod.
1627. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges. a. Delta
a. Soles of the foot b. Core
b. Palm c. Ridge
c. Finger d. Whorl
d. Elbow 1639. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the
1628. Points often missed in rolling impression. identity between two points.
a. Bifurcation a. Nine
b. Core b. Twelve
c. Delta c. Fifteen
d. Ridge d. Eighteen
1629. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an 1640. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical
impression or imprint. and chemical properties, physiological action, treatment
a. Latent print and method of detection.
b. Pattern a. Forensic Chemistry
c. Loop b. Toxicology
d. Arch c. Posology
1630. Which among the following is not considered as a d. Forensic Medicine
basic fingerprint pattern? 1641. A substance which when introduced into the body is
a. Loop absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is
b. Arch capable of producing noxious effect.
c. Whorl a. Drugs
d. Accidental b. Dangerous drugs
1631. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a c. Poison
sequence of spirals around core axes. d. Antidotes
a. Whorl 1642. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the
b. Central pocket loop mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in
c. Double loop the abdomen and purging.
d. Accidental a. Corrosives
1632. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on b. Irritants
papillary ridges as a means of identification. c. Narcotics
a. Poroscopy d. Tetanics
b. Edgeoscopy 1643. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord
c. Podoscopy producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which they
d. Dactyloscopy are attached, it is classified as:
1633. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. a. Corrosives
a. Delta b. Irritants
b. Bifurcation c. Narcotics
c. Core d. Tetanics
d. Pores 1644. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important
1634. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or application in:
ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. a. Counterfeit coins
a. Ulnar loop b. Theft and Robbery
b. Radial loop c. Bombs and Explosives
c. Arch d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers
d. Whorl 1645. Agents which depress or retard the physiological
1635. Basis of fingerprint identification. action of an organ.
a. Pores a. Corrosives
b. Ridges b. Sedatives
c. Friction ridges c. Tetanics
d. Latent print d. Narcotics
92 | P a g e

1646. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is c. Napthol diazonium

isolated by means of distillation. d. Anthraquinous chloride
a. Volatile poisons 1657. Animal fiber may be best described by:
b. Non volatile poisons a. It is composed of protein
c. Metallic poisons b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet light
d. Tetanic poisons c. It burns fast
1647. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance d. It has acid like odor when burned
of function or death within a short time, the poisoning is 1658. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the
classified as: approximate time of firing the gun?
a. Acute poisoning a. Soot
b. Sub-acute poisoning b. Nitrates and nitrites
c. Chronic poisoning c. Gases
d. Suicidal poisoning d. Metallic fragments
1648. When the action of the poison is marked by 1659. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal
disturbance produced in distant part from the site of origin what should the chemist examine under the
application, it is classified as: microscope?
a. Local a. Parts of the shaft
b. Remote b. Parts of the tip
c. Combined c. Parts of the hair
d. Acute d. Parts of the root
1660. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue
1649. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body. litmus to red, it is:
a. Semen a. Cotton
b. Blood b. Silk
c. Cells c. Fiber glass
d. Muscles d. Steel wool
1650. A man of average built would normally have how 1661. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race
many quarts of blood? determinant?
a. 6 quarts a. Cortex
b. 7 quarts b. Cuticle
c. 8 quarts c. Medulla
d. 9 quarts d. Shaft
1651. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 1662. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of
65% of the blood. human or animal origin
a. Platelets a. Ignition test or burning
b. Fibrin b. Fluorescence analysis
c. Leucocytes c. Chemical analysis
d. Plasma d. Microscopic analysis
1652. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. 1663. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is
a. Plasma ineffective.
b. Hemoglobin a. Carbon
c. Erythrocytes b. Logwood
d. Fibrin c. Nigrosine
1653. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is d. Gallotanic
decomposed and stained with contamination. 1664. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its
a. Benzidine test effects.
b. Van Deen’s Test a. Emetics
c. Phenolphthalein test b. Antidotes
d. Precipitin test c. Alkaloids
1654. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof d. Tetanics
that subject is definitely blood. 1665. Which among the following exhibits bluish
a. Preliminary test fluorescence when exposed to u.v. light?
b. Confirmatory test a. Blood
c. Precipitin test b. Semen
d. Blood typing and grouping c. Saliva
1655. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or d. Urine
not. 1666. Oldest known explosive.
a. Preliminary test a. Black powder
b. Confirmatory test b. Smoke powder
c. Precipitin test c. Dynalite
d. Blood typing and grouping d. TNT
1667. Deals with the study and identification by means of
1656. Positive result in the preliminary examination for body fluids.
semen in Barberio’s test. a. Immunology
a. Picric acid b. Serology
b. Spermine picrate c. Posology
93 | P a g e

d. Pharmacology 1679. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons

1668. The process in reproducing physical evidence by may be isolated by means of what process?
plaster moulds. a. Extraction
a. Casting b. Dilution
b. Cementing c. Distillation
c. Moulage d. Dialysis
d. Pickling 1680. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the
1669. Major component of a glass. presence of alcohol in the human body?
a. Lime a. Saliva test
b. Silica b. Harger breath test
c. Soda c. Fecal test
d. Lime d. Drug test
1670. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of 1681. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with
tissues and causes nausea. which the poison came into contact.
a. Corrosives a. Acute
b. Irritants b. Local
c. Tetanics c. Remote
d. Asthenics d. Combined
1682. A material which is used to which is used to improve
1671. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity the quality of the paper.
and rigidity. a. Sizing material
a. Lime b. Rosin
b. Soda c. Gelatin
c. Glass d. Starch
d. Gel 1683. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be
1672. An organic bacterial poison. formed if it is pesent.
a. Strychnine a. Rosin
b. Ptomaine b. Starch
c. Brucine c. Casein
d. Chloroform d. Gelatin
1673. This test is used to detect the presence of semen 1684. Oldest ink material known to man.
particularly in stained clothing. a. Logwood
a. Microscopic test b. Nigrosine
b. Barberio’s test c. Carbon
c. Florence test d. Gallotanic
d. Ultraviolet test 1685. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
1674. The best method in comparative soil analysis. a. Logwood
a. Chemical examination b. Nigrosine
b. Density gradient test c. Carbon
c. Ultra-violet light examination d. Gallotanic
d. Microscopic test 1686. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing
1675. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test ink, pencil or other marking material.
is utilized? a. Erasure
a. Accelerated aging test b. Obliterated writing
b. Bursting strength test c. Indented writing
c. Opacity examination d. Contact writing
d. Microscopic examination 1687. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with
1676. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by male pelvis.
decaying body. a. Greater
a. Chloride b. Equal
b. Ammonia c. Lesser
c. Carbon dioxide d. Less significant
d. Hydrogen sulfide
1677. The application of chemical principles in the 1688. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation
examination of evidence. in respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to
a. Forensics declare a person clinically dead?
b. Criminalistics a. 10-15 minutes
c. Instrumentation b. 15-30 minutes
d. Forensic Chemistry c. 30-45 minutes
1678. To positively determine the presence of blood in d. 45-60 minutes
stained material, what test is used?
a. Takayama Test 1689. A simple test used to determine cessation of
b. Phenolphtalien test respiration by placing water or mercury in a container on
c. Baberio’s test top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is
d. Florence test noticed.
a. Winslov test
94 | P a g e

b. Florence test b. 24 hours

c. Barberio test c. 36 hours
d. Castle Meyer test d. 48 hours
1690. A muscular change characterized by the softness of 1700. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination
the muscles and in which it no longer responds to with either group A or B what would be the particular blood
mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of group of the sample.
proteins. a. Group A
a. Stage of primary flaccidity b. Group B
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity c. Group AB
c. Rigor mortis d. Group O
d. Livor mortis 1701. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
1691. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from changes.
a dead body in how many days? a. 10 years
a. 7 b. 20 years
b. 14 c. 30 years
c. 21 d. 40 years
d. 28 1702. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white
1692. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
countries within how many days from death? a. Saponification
a. 1 b. Rigor mortis
b. 2 c. Mummification
c. 3 d. Maceration
d. 4 1703. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood
1693. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent
bone, loss of alignment of the affected bones and portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after
separation of fragment bones. death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Simple fracture a. Rigor mortis
b. Compound fracture b. Primary flaccidity
c. Comminuted fracture c. Maceration
d. None of the foregoing d. Livor mortis
1694. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body. 1704. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents
a. Internal hemorrhage after meals.
b. Hematoma a. 2 to 3 hours
c. Contusion b. 3 to 4 hours
d. Internal wound c. 4 to 5 hours
1695. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object. d. 5 to 6 hours
a. Imprint abrasion 1705. Rate of growth of human hair.
b. Pressure abrasion a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
c. Friction abrasion b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
d. Graze c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
1696. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
with accompanying movement over the skin. 1706. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body
a. Pressure abrasion temperature is about:
b. Imprint abrasion a. 10 to 15 deg. F
c. Impact abrasion b. 15 to 20 deg. F
d. Graze c. 20 to 25 deg. F
1697. A nervous disease marked by seizures with d. 25 to 30 deg. F
convulsion and loss of consciousness. 1707. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Epilepsy a. Wound
b. Apoplexy b. Trauma
c. Catalepsy c. Bruise
d. Uremia d. Scratch
1698. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily 1708. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so
eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition seen serious that it will endanger one’s life.
in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, a. Non-mortal wound
vomiting, coma and convulsion. b. Mortal wound
c. Trauma
a. Epilepsy d. Coup injury
b. Apoplexy 1709. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
c. Catalepsy a. Contusion
d. Uremia b. Bruise
1699. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in c. Petechiae
how many hours when the blood has already clotted or d. Hematoma
diffused to different parts of the body wherein the 1710. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and
discoloration is permanent and darker in color? muscles causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
a. 12 hours a. Sprain
95 | P a g e

b. Contusion 1721. It is inherited from the mother found in the

c. Fracture mitochondria which is in the cell body
d. Dislocation a. Nuclear DNA
1711. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is b. Helix
evident. c. Mitochondrial DNA
a. Simple d. DNA nucleus
b. Compound 1722. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
c. Comminuted changes.
d. Dislocation a. 10 years
1712. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone b. 20 years
without external wounds. c. 30 years
a. Sprain d. 40 years
b. Fracture 1723. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of
c. Hematoma respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of an
d. Dislocation organism.
1713. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of a. Somatic death
tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained b. Cellular death
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of c. Molecular death
the body to the gun is approximately. d. Apparent death
a. 6 inches 1724. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural
b. 12 inches a. Mannerism
c. 18 inches b. Tic
d. 24 inches c. Gait
1714. A physical injury which is found at the site and also d. Body language
the opposite site of the application of force. 1725. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to
a. Extensive injury 30 minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the
b. Coup injury muscles and loss of their natural tone.
c. Contre coup injury a. Stage of primary flaccidity
d. Coup and contre coup injury b. Post mortem rigidity
1715. A physical injury found at the site of the application of c. Cadaveric spasm
force. d. Secondary flaccidity
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury 1726. Approximate time for the completion of one case for
d. Coup and contre coup injury DNA testing.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks
1716. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log b. Minimum of 4 weeks
and stone. c. Minimum of six weeks
a. Punctured wound d. Minimum of eight weeks
b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound 1727. Period of time wherein there body would be
d. Incised wound skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical countries.
a. 1 month
1717. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what b. 3 months
wound would be exhibited? c. 6 months
a. Punctured wound d. 12 months
b. Hack wound 1728. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable
c. Lacerated wound muscular change.
d. Incised wound a. Cold stiffening
1718. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife. b. Heat stiffening
a. Punctured wound c. Instantaneous rigor
b. Hack wound d. Putrefaction
c. Lacerated wound 1729. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the
d. Incised wound blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
1719. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows a. Diffusion lividity
ACGT, A stands for what? b. Clotting of the blood
a. Adenine c. Rigor mortis
b. Adenide d. Hypostatic lividity
c. Adenum 1730. Approximate average amount of semen per
d. Adenoid ejaculation under normal conditions.
1720. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what a. 2 to 2.5 cc
sample should be obtained for DNA testing? b. 2.5 to 5 cc
a. Fingerprints c. 5 to 10 cc
b. Hair d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
c. Skeleton 1731. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is
d. Teeth regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
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a. Deonatural acid c. Physical virginity

b. Dynamic natural anti-body d. Virgo intact
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid 1743. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid a. Flaccidity
1732. A powerful tool in identification which points to the b. Rigidity
source of biological evidence by matching it with samples c. Lividity
from the victims, suspects and their relatives. d. Putrefaction
a. DNA profiling 1744. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain
b. Serology parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of
c. Instrumentation cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and
d. Forensics diminished body temperature.
1733. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good a. Gangrene
sources of cells. b. Frostbite
a. Saliva and tears c. Trench foot
b. Semen and saliva d. Immersion foot
c. Urine and semen 1745. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the
d. Semen and blood breakdown of sweating mechanism.
1734. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may a. Heat cramp
undergo DNA testing. b. Heat exhaustion
a. Hair c. Heat stroke
b. Bone d. Burning
c. Skin 1746. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton,
d. Fingernails which part is not used?
1735. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive a. Skull
action of its bacteria and enzyme. b. Pelvis
a. Primary flaccidity c. Sternum
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Tibia
c. Cadaveric spasm 1747. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and
d. Putrefaction bones, considered as the most severe burn causing death
1736. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female. due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and
a. Possession of vagina massive infection.
b. Possession of ovaries a. Sunburn
c. Possession of estrogen b. 1st degree burn
d. Possession of progesterone c. 2nd degree burn
d. 3rd degree burn
1737. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones. 1748. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5
a. Hippocratic facie minutes would die, the case of death would be?
b. Mongolian facie a. Stupor
c. Myxedema facie b. Stroke
d. Facies lionine c. Asphyxia
1738. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male. d. Exhaustion
a. Presence of testis 1749. Most effective method in determining sex of an
b. Presence of androsterone individual.
c. Possession of penis a. Gonodal test
d. Possession of testosterone b. Social test
1739. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to c. Genital test
mucous secretion of the respiratory track after death. d. Chromosomal test
a. “Cutis anserina” 1750. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the
b. Washerwoman time of death.
c. “Champignon d’ ocume” a. Cadaveric spasm
d. Cadaveric spasm b. Putrefaction
1740. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body. c. Mascular contraction
a. Natural death d. Rigor mortis
b. Molecular death 1751. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
c. Somatic death a. Masturbation
d. Apparent death b. Fingering
1741. A type of burn produced as a result of the body c. Sodomy
coming into contact with a moving object. d. Sexual intercourse
a. Thermal burn 1752. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell
b. Friction burn occurs in:
c. Radiation burn a. 20 to 30 minutes
d. Electrical burn b. 3 to 6 hours
1742. A condition of a woman who have had one or more c. 12 to 24 hours
sexual experience but not had conceived a child. d. 24 to 36 hours
a. Moral virginity 1753. Most noticeable sign of death.
b. Demi-virginity a. Cessation of respiration
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b. Progressive fall of body temperature 1764. This component drives the chart paper under the
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation per minute.
1754. Most common and scientific method of detecting a. Cardiosphygmograph
deception. b. Kymograph
a. Polygraphy c. Galvanograph
b. Polygraph d. Pneumograph
c. Truth serum 1765. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of
d. Interrogation the subject.
1755. Devised an instrument capable of continuously a. Finger electrode plate
recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure. b. Diacritic notch
a. William Marston c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Angelo Mosso d. Kymograph
c. John Larson 1766. This component record changes of the subject blood
d. Sticker pressure and pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
1756. Psychological response to any demand. c. Galvanograph
a. Reaction d. Pneumograph
b. Stress 1767. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small
c. Pressure amount of electricity.
d. All of the above a. Cardisphygmograph
1757. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure b. Sphygmomanometer
is to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent. c. Galvanograph
a. 30 mm d. Pneumograph
b. 60 mm 1768. This component records the changes in the breathing
c. 90 mm of the subject.
d. 120 mm a. Cardisphygmograph
1758. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep b. Sphygmomanometer
considered fit for polygraph examination. c. Galvanograph
a. 5 d. Pneumograph
b. 6 1769. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity
c. 7 to deceive others.
d. 8 a. Black lie
b. White lie
1759. Type of question related to the facts of the case and c. Red lie
is answerable by NO. d. Yellow lie
a. Relevant question 1770. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
b. Irrelevant question relevant question.
c. General question a. Reaction
d. Immaterial question b. Normal response
1760. Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES. c. Specific response
a. Relevant question d. Positive response
b. Irrelevant question 1771. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions
c. General question were answered.
d. Immaterial question a. Reaction
1761. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that b. Normal response
something is hidden or obscure. c. Specific response
a. Fear d. Positive response
b. Deception 1772. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
c. Detection a. 20 to 30 minutes
d. Reaction b. 30 to 60 minutes
1762. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ c. 60 to 90 minutes
or organism as a result of stimulation. d. 90 to 120 minutes
a. Response 1773. The primary objective of post test interview.
b. Deception a. To thank the subject
c. Detection b. To obtain confession
d. Reaction c. To make the subject calm
1763. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, d. To explain polygraph test procedures
which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive power.
a. Response 1774. The purpose of pretest interview.
b. Reaction a. To prepare subject for polygraph test
c. Stimuli b. To obtain confession
d. Fear c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
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1775. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal d. Wrong hand writing
pattern of response.
a. Relevant questions 1786. A person executing a signature while his arm is
b. Irrelevant questions steadied and assisted produces a:
c. Supplementary questions a. Guided signature
d. Control questions b. Normal signature
1776. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph. c. Scribble
a. 3 d. Handwriting signature
b. 4 1787. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital
c. 5 letters.
d. 6 a. Embellishment
1777. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for b. Beard
detecting deception. c. Buckle knot
a. William Marston d. Diacritic
b. Harold Burtt 1788. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal
c. John Larson strokes.
d. Leonarde Keeler a. Hook
b. Spur
1778. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure c. Loop
changes were signs of deception. d. Staff
a. William Marston 1789. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
b. Harold Burtt a. Hook
c. Leonard Keeler b. Spur
d. John Larson c. Loop
1779. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph d. Staff
procedure for accused persons. 1790. The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of
a. Angelo Mosso many capital letters and which can also be seen
b. Veraguth occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.
c. Lombroso a. Embellishment
d. Vittorio Benussi b. Beard
1780. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin c. Buckle knot
reflex. d. Hitch
a. Angelo Mosso 1791. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
b. Veraguth a. Embellishment
c. Lombroso b. Beard
d. Vittorio Benussi c. Buckle knot
1781. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with d. Diacritic
measurement, respiration component and blood pressure. 1792. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
a. Harold Burtt a. Embellishment
b. Hans Gross b. Hump
c. Leonarde Keeler c. Diacritic
d. John Larson d. Knot
1782. Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally 1793. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
without any attempt to change or control its identifying recurrence of stress of impulse.
habits and its usual quality of execution. a. Line quality
a. Natural writing b. Rhythm
b. Disguised writing c. Baseline
c. Cursive writing d. Writing pressure
d. System of writing 1794. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or
1783. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface
his identity is using: with increase pressure.
a. Natural writing a. Writing pressure
b. Disguised writing b. Shading
c. Cursive writing c. Pen emphasis
d. System of writing d. Natural variation
1784. Writing in which are for most part joined together. 1795. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
a. Natural writing a. Line quality
b. Disguised writing b. Baseline
c. Cursive writing c. Foot
d. System of writing d. Hitch
1785. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen 1796. A signature written by the forger in his own style of
of any individual handwriting or in the product of any handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the
typewriter. genuine signature.
a. Normal variation a. Traced forgery
b. Natural variation b. Disguised forgery
c. Tremor c. Simulated forgery
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d. Simple forgery d. Writing movement

1797. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful 1807. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation
type of forgery. and pen-lifts difficult.
a. Traced forgery a. Ball point pen
b. Disguised forgery b. Fountain pen
c. Simulated forgery c. Iron nutgall ink
d. Simple forgery d. Markers
1808. Disconnection between letters or letter combination
1798. Which among the following is an indication of due to lack of movement control.
genuineness of handwriting? a. Pen lift
a. Continuity b. Retouching
b. Smoothness c. Patching
c. Skillful writing d. Retracing
d. Tremor 1809. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on
the paper during manufacture.
1799. Document which is completely written and signed by a. Water marks
the testator. b. Fiber marks
a. Genuine document c. Paper design
b. Disputed document d. Wire marks
c. Holographic document 1810. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what
d. Authentic document particular condition is manifested?
1800. A document which contains some changes either as a. Grainy image
an addition or deletion. b. Two image
a. Altered documents c. Overlapping image
b. Disputed document d. Three dimensional image
c. Obliterated document 1811. An element which is added to complete another letter.
d. Inserted document a. Spur
1801. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the b. Slant
original undecipherable. c. Diacritics
a. Decipherment d. Arc
b. Restoration 1812. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
c. Obliteration purpose and normal writing conditions.
d. Interlineation a. Complete signature
1802. A class of signature for routine document or day to b. Standard signature
day correspondence. c. Evidential signature
a. Formal d. Model signature
b. Complete 1813. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
c. Cursory widening of the ink stroke.
d. Careless scribble a. Shading
1803. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge b. Pen emphasis
important documents. c. Pen lift
a. Complete d. Pen pressure
b. Cursory 1814. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity
c. Informal of paper money.
d. Careless scribble a. Quality of the engraving
1804. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on b. Color of the seal
a fraudulent document underneath the genuine and c. Wet strength of the paper
tracing it with the use of pointed instrument. d. Watermarks
a. Carbon process 1815. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but
b. Indention process made inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the
c. Projection process genuine coin.
d. Transmitted light process a. Priceless coin
1805. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier b. Mutilated coin
than the rest of its outline. c. False coin
a. Off its feet d. All of the choices
b. Twisted letter 1816. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal
c. Clogged type face strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
d. Rebound a. Tremor
b. Tremors of fraud
c. Genuine tremor
1806. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is d. Deterioration
almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits 1817. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
reacting from fixed mental impressions. a. Staff
a. Handwriting b. Slant
b. Writing c. Diacritics
c. Typewriting d. Humps
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c. Shell
1818. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the d. Missile
horizontal inch. 1829. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles
a. Pica at the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the
b. Elite time it hits the target.
c. Proportional spacing machine a. Interior ballistics
d. Adding machine b. Exterior ballistics
1819. Developed the system of handwriting classification c. Terminal ballistics
utilized by most police departments. d. Posterior ballistics
a. Lee and Abbey 1830. The science which deals with the effect of the impact
b. Rolando Wilson of the projectile on the target.
c. Levine a. Interior ballistics
d. Landsteiner b. Exterior ballistics
1820. A kind of document executed by a person in authority c. Terminal ballistics
and by private parties but notarized by competent officials. d. Posterior ballistics
a. Official document 1831. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
b. Public document a. Trigger
c. Commercial document b. Hammer
d. Private document c. Sear
1821. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine d. Main spring
coin.
a. False coin 1832. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is
b. Counterfeit coin equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in
c. Priceless coin pound equal to reciprocal gauge index.
d. Mutilation of coin a. Caliber
1822. It refers to the printing surface of a type block. b. Gauge
a. Character c. Shot
b. Design d. Charge
c. Pitch 1833. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a
d. Type face single round lead ball.
1823. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the a. Shotgun
writing rests. b. Rifle
a. Base c. Musket
b. Baseline d. Pistol
c. Foot 1834. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number
d. Staff of lead pellets in one charge.
1824. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what a. Shotgun
has been effaced. b. Rile
a. Decipherment c. Musket
b. Collation d. Pistol
c. Obliteration 1835. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore
d. Comparison against the force of the charge.
1825. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their a. Breechblock
identifying characteristics. b. Breechface
a. Comparison c. Ejector
b. Collation d. Extractor
c. Conclusion 1836. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be
d. Examination withdrawn from the chamber.
a. Breechblock
b. Breechface
1826. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed c. Ejector
with the source of illumination behind it and the light d. Extractor
passing through the paper. 1837. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
a. Transmitted light examination a. Rifling
b. Oblique photography examination b. Land
c. Infrared examination c. Groove
d. Ultraviolet examination d. Cannelure
1827. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a 1838. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
person from his handwriting. a. Recoil
a. Questioned Document Examination b. Force
b. Polygraphy c. Backfire
c. Graphology d. Shot force
d. Psychology 1839. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due
1828. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
a. Projectile a. Erosion
b. Ball b. Rusting
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c. Corrosion a. Key hole shot

d. Decomposition b. Ricochet
1840. Distance that the rifling advances to make one c. Hang fire
compete turn. d. Misfire
a. Pitch of rifling 1852. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
b. Choke a. Interior
c. Trajectory b. Exterior
d. Recoil c. Terminal
1841. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a d. Forensic
complete unfired unit 1853. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in
a. Bullet forensic ballistics.
b. Primer a. 3 test bullets/shell
c. Gunpowder b. 4 test bullets
d. All of the choices c. 5 test bullets/shell
1842. Most common individual characteristic that are visible d. 6 test bullets/shell
on the base portion of then fired cartridge. 1854. It refers to the placement of the right and left
a. Firing pin impression specimen in side by side position.
b. Ejector marks a. Drag marks
c. Extractor marks b. Positively matched
d. Chamber marks c. Juxtaposition
1843. Failure of cartridge to discharge. d. Pseudomatch
a. Misfire 1855. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
b. Hang fire a. Range
c. Ricochet b. Trajectory
d. Key hole shot c. Velocity
1844. Invented the gunpowder. d. Yaw
a. Chinese 1856. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on
b. James Forsythe fire when it is projected.
c. Van Amberg a. Incendiary bullet
d. Berthold Schwartz b. Ball bullet
1845. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition c. Tracer bullet
placed into gun chamber. d. Explosive bullet
a. Cartridge 1857. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from
b. Primer what particular part?
c. Bullet a. From land to land
d. Shell b. From land to groove
1846. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to c. From groove to groove
land. d. From groove to land
a. Gauge
b. Mean diameter
c. Caliber 1858. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
d. Riflings a. Frame
1847. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the b. Barrel
firing of the cartridge. c. Slide assembly
a. Hammer d. Rotating cylinder
b. Ejector 1859. The term double action in a firearm means.
c. Trigger a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
d. Firing pin b. Manually cocks the hammer
1848. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. c. Autoloads before firing
a. Breech d. Double pressing of trigger
b. Ogive 1860. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
c. Rim a. Albert Osborne
d. Pitch b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
1849. A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings. c. Hans Gross
a. Shotgun d. Charles Waite
b. Rifle 1861. Raised portion between the groove found inside the
c. Pistol barrel.
d. Revolver a. Land
1850. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to b. Caliber
prevent leading. c. Gauge
a. Jacketed bullet d. Rifling
b. Metal cased bullet 1862. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
c. Metal point bullet a. Yaw
d. Plated bullet b. Trajectory
1851. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting c. Velocity
the target sideways. d. Gyroscopic action
102 | P a g e

1863. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular b. Law of infallibility
firearm? d. Law of constancy
a. Rifle 1874. Which of the following personal Identification is not
b. Revolver easy to change?
c. Pistol a. Hair
d. Sub-machine gun b. Speech
1864. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior c. Dress
surface of the bore. d. personal pharapernalia
a. Rifling 1875. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of
b. Breaching Identification.
c. Ogive a. DNA fingerprinting
d. Swaging b. Dactyloscopy
1865. A primer with two vents or flash holes. c. Fingerprint Identification
a. Bordan primer d. Photography
b. Berdan primer 1876. Identification of person can be done either by
c. Boxer primer Comparison or by____?
d. Battery primer a. Exclusion
1866. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are b. Examination
usually classified as: c. Experimentation
a. Flare guns d. Inclusion
b. Zip guns 1877. The person credited for the discovery of the two
c. Matchlock main layers of the friction skin.
d. Freakish device a. Alphonse Bertillion
1867. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, b. Marcelo Malpighe
when fired cartridges are concerned. c. Herman Welcker
a. Extractor marks d. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Ejector marks 1878. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved
c. Chamber marks from white jade containing the name and the thumb print
d. Breech face marks of the owner.
1868. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s a. Tien Chi
failure to explode on time. b. Tein Chi
a. Misfire c. Tein Shi
b. Hang fire d. Tien Shi
c. Ricochet 1879. He is known to be the father of personal Identification
d. Key hole shot having devised the first scientific method of personal
1869. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily Identification.
barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce a. John Dellinger
what kind of markings? b. Cesare Lombroso
a. Slippage marks c. John F. W. Herschel
b. Skid marks d. Alphonse Bertillion
c. Rifling marks 1880. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of
d. Shearing marks forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
1870. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of except for some scratches due to old age.
projectiles. a. Herman Welcker
a. Caliper b. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Chronograph c. J.C.A. Mayer
c. Test bullet d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
d. Bullet recovery box 1881. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for
1871. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
of persons so as to differentiate him from others a. William Herschel
a. Dactyloscopy b. Dr. Henry Faulds
c. Identification c. Dr. Francis Galton
b. Personal d. Sir Edward Henry
d. Comparison 1882. Is person considered to be the father of modern
1872. Considered to be first scientific method of fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in
Identification in person done by measuring various bony almost all English speaking country.
structure of the human body. a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
a. Portrait-Parle b. Juan Vucetich
b. Photography c. Alphonse Bertillion
c. Antropometry d. Dr. Hans Gross
d. Anthropometry 1883. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
1873. 547. The following are principles in personal and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
Identification, except. Royal Society of London.
a. Law of individuality a. Nehemiah Grew
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence b. G. Bidloo
c. Hintze
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d. Albinus D. Handcuff
1884. A system of Identification best used in case of burned 1894. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or
body. demonstration?.
a. Fingerprint a. Yes
b. Skeletal Identification b. Partly Yes
c. Odontology c. No
d. Photography d. Partly No
1895. Burned document or charred document is best
examined by.
1885. The following are characteristics of man which can a. Infrared Photography
easily be changed EXCEPT? b. Ultraviolet Photography
a. Hair Growth c. Macro Photography
b. Body Ornamentation d. Micro Photography
c. Speech 1896. The average age of menopausal period of women to
d. Clothing take place.
1886. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives a. 50 yrs old
recognition to the science of fingerprint? b. 45 yrs old
a. People vs. Medina c. 35 yrs old
b. US vs. Jennings d. 42 yrs old
c. Miranda vs. Arizona 1897. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the
d. West Case age of.
1887. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first a. 14-16
individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using b. 13-15
his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering c. 16 to 18
with the pay order he issued. d. 12-14
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier 1898. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
b. Gilbert Thompson a. 14
c. Capt James Parke b. 13
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores c. 16
1888. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive d. 12
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York 1899. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be
Police Dept. and FBI. taken to show:
a. Generoso Reyes a. Entrance
b. Isabela Bernales b. Entrance and Exit
c. Patricio Agustin c. Exit
d. Marcelo Bonifacio d. Either a or b
1889. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is 1900. The development of breast in female commences at
possibility for two prints to be the same it is the age of.
1:63,000,000,000. a. 13 to 14
a. Francis Bacon b. 12 to 13
b. Francis Galton c. 10-11
c. J.C.A. Mayer d. 11 to 12
d. Herman Welker
1890. The person who used the system of identification 1901. In photography, when we say tripod, how many
which was accepted by Spanish countries. stands are there?
a. Juan Vucetich a. 2
b. Henry Faulds b. 3.5
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. 4
d. William Herschel d. 5
1891. Is the law which states that the greater the number of
the similarity or differences the more probability for the 1902. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who
conclusion to be correct. performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar.
a. Law of Infallability a. Landsteinir
b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence b. Zacchias
c. Law of Permenancy c. Antistus
d. Law of Barcelinity d. Hippocrates
1892. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word? 1903. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a
a. Greek word normal light.
b. French word a. Ultra Violet Photography
c. Latin word b. Infra red photograhpy
d. English word c. Macro Photography
1893. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a d. Micro photography
photographer? 1904. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the
A. Filter amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of
B. Camera time, and it is considered as the door of the camera.
C. Firearm a. Shutter
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b. lens a. Sir Edward Richard Henry

c. obscura b. Juan Vucetich
d. view finder c. Alphonse Bertillion
1905. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like d. Dr. Hans Gross
formation. 1915. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
a. dermis and pores of the hand and feet which was read before the
b. Dermal papillae Royal Society of London.
c. papillae a. Nehemiah Grew
d. dermal b. G. Bidloo
1906. The morphological constituents of human hair are c. Hintze
cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct? d. Albinus
a. Partly Yes 1916. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
b. Partly No body.
c. Yes a. Fingerprint
d. No b. Skeletal Identification
1907. It is the sensitized material that has the primary c. Odontology
function of recording the image that is focused upon it by d. Photography
the lens of the camera. 1917. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
E. Filter individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using
F. Film his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering
G. Firearm with the pay order he issued.
H. Handcuff a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
1908. Considered to be first scientific method of b. Gilbert Thompson
Identification in person done by measuring various bony c. Capt James Parke
structure of the human body. d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
a. Portrait-Parle 1918. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
b. Photography examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New York
c. Antropometry Police Dept. and FBI.
d. Anthropometry a. Generoso Reyes
1909. The person credited for the discovery of the two main b. Isabela Bernales
layers of the friction skin. c. Patricio Agustin
a. Alphonse Bertillion d. Marcelo Bonifacio
b. Marcelo Malpighe 1919. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
c. Herman Welcker possibility for two prints to be the same it is
d. J.C.A. Mayer 1:63,000,000,000.
a. Francis Bacon
1910. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved b. Francis Galton
from white jade containing the name and the thumb print c. J.C.A. Mayer
of the owner. d. Herman Welker
a. Tien Chi 1920. The person who used the system of identification
b. Tein Chi which was accepted by Spanish countries.
c. Tein Shi a. Juan Vucetich
d. Tien Shi b. Henry Faulds
1911. He is known to be the father of personal Identification c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
having devised the first scientific method of personal d. William Herschel
Identification. 1921. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
a. John Dellinger a. Greek word
b. Cesare Lombroso b. French word
c. John F. W. Herschel c. Latin word
d. Alphonse Bertillion d. English word
1912. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of 1922. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, the interpretation of one’s personality?
except for some scratches due to old age. a. Dactyloscopy
a. Herman Welcker b. Dactylomancy
b. Marcelo Malpighi c. Dactylography
c. J.C.A. Mayer d. Dactylo-analysis
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji 1923. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside
1913. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
a. William Herschel a. Dactyloscopy
b. Dr. Henry Faulds b. Dactyloanalysis
c. Dr. Francis Galton c. Latent Print
d. Sir Edward Henry d. Fingerprint
1914. He is considered to be the father of modern 1924. Which of the following serves the importance of
fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in Poroscopy?
almost all English speaking country.
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a. For determination of whether the prints belong to c. furrows

a young or adult person. d. duct
b. For Identification of person 1935. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where
c. For determination of whether the prints was taken sweat is excreted?
during the lifetime or after death of a person a. duct
d. B and C only b. furrows
1925. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will c. pores
constitute a permanent scar. d. sweat glands
a. Epidermis 1936. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis
b. Stratum corneum and dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation
c. Dermis a. Generating layer
d. Stratum mucosum b. Dermal papillae
1926. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy. c. Sweat glands
a. Francis Galton d. Dermis Papillary
b. Marcelo Malpighe 1937. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states
c. John Herschel that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of
d. Edmond Locard Identification?
a. Principle of Individuality
1927. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the b. Principle of Infallibility
ridges. c. Principle of Constancy
a. Podoscopy d. Principle of Permanency
b. Poroscopy 1938. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one
c. Chiroscopy side of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or
d. Edgeoscopy wave in the center?
1928. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a a. Loop
permanent scar in a normal friction skin? b. tented arch
a. less than 1cm c. plain arch
b. less than 1 mm d. exceptional arch
c. more than 1cm 1939. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it
d. more than 1mm should have _______ridge count.
1929. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in a. 1
U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use of b. 2
corrosive acid. c. at least 1
a. John Derenger d. 3
b. John Dillenger 1940. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
c. Robert James Pitts uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the
d. Robert Joworski loop?
1930. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and a. Plain arch
without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of b. central pocket loop
the feet? c. tented arch
a. Epidermal skin d. accidental whorl
b. Papillary skin 1941. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or
c. Friction slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
d. All of the choices a. loop
1931. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers b. radial loop
the skin? c. ulnar loop
a. Epidermis d. tented arc
b. Stratum corneum
c. Stratum Sangum 1942. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta,
d. Stratum musocum recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
1932. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the a. radial loop
hands? b. ulnar loop
a. Podoscopy c. loop
b. Chiroscopy d. tented arch
c. Poroscopy 1943. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
d. Chairoscopy deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and
1933. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right
(called pores) in an inked finger impression? delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered
a. sweat pores as the most common type of whorl.
b. furrows a. plain whorl
c. ridges b. central pocket loop whorl
d. sweat duct c. double loop whorl
1934. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of d. accidental whorl
the friction skin (found between ridges). 1944. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
a. Pores excluded in the combination?
b. indentions a. ulnar loop
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b. plain whorl 1955. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular
c. tented arch ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it has
d. plain arch been cross by the imaginary line.
1945. The core and delta are also termed as _____? a. ending ridge
a. inner terminus b. incipient ridge
b. outer terminus c. intervening ridge
c. focal point d. enclosure
d. pattern area 1956. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and
1946. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the which resembles a fork structure
center of the diverging typelines. a. divergence
a. Core b. convergence
b. island ridge c. bifurcation
c. delta d. enclosure
d. convergence 1957. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its
1947. What is the rule where there are two or more possible infants stage which usually starts:
bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of delta? a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life
a. the one nearest the core should be chosen b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life
b. the one away from the core should be counted c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life
c. the one which does not open towards the core is d. 5th to 6th months before birth
counted 1958. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch.
d. the one towards the core should be counted a. T
1948. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously b. A
running side by side? c. P
a. Bifurcation d. W
b. convergence
c. divergence
d. enclosure 1959. It is the process of counting the ridges which
1949. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a intervene between the delta and core of a loop?
period? a. ridge tracing
a. Lake b. ridge counting
b. ending ridge c. ridge tracking
c. island ridge d. ridge summing
d. incipient ridge 1960. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the
1950. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that fingerprint ink to the slab?
meets to form the original figure? a. Fingerprint brush
a. bifurcation b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
b. island ridge c. Fingerprint roller
c. lake ridge d. fingerprint card
d. convergence 1961. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print
1951. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the has a size of:
direction from which it started? a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
a. diverging ridge b. 8” x 8”
b. recurving ridge c. 9” x 9”
c. converging ridge d. 8” x 10”
d. bifurcation 1962. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has
1952. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge a size of:
curves inward? a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
a. sufficient recurve b. 8” x 8”
b. appendage c. 9” x 9”
c. obstruction ridge d. 8” x 10”
d. shoulder of loop 1963. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the
1953. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting?
ridge which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the a. Card Holder
inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found b. Fingerprint roller
in the second type of central pocket loop. c. Fingerprint transfer card
a. bar d. ink slab
b. appendage 1964. A chemical compound used in conventional
c. uptrust developing of latent prints being one of the best methods
d. obstruction that can be utilized by a fingerprint technician.
1954. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the a. Fingerprint powder
line flow above the right delta and there are three b. Fingerprint Brush
intervening ridges. c. Fingerprint Fuming Device
a. meeting whorl d. Inkless Inking Device
b. outer whorl 1965. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card
c. inner whorl to avoid movement of the card during printing?
d. central pocket loop whorl a. Card Holder
107 | P a g e

b. Forceps d. Bidactyl
c. Carrying Case 1976. Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter
d. Fingerprint card clip symbols as a result of the interpretation?
1966. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed a. Checking
latent print? b. Identification
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes c. Classification
b. Fingerprint transfer card d. Blocking
c. Evidence Identification tags 1977. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger.
d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment a. left thumb
1967. Is the type of an impression made or printed on the b. index finger
card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the subject. c. left index
a. Latent Prints d. left middle
b. Rolled Impression 1978. It is the division in the fingerprint classification which
c. Plain Impression is always represented by a numerical value depending
d. Molded Impression upon a whorl pattern appearing on each finger.
1968. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and a. key division
serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the b. major division
finger in the card? c. primary division
a. Rolled Impression d. final division
b. Plain Impression 1979. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint
c. Contaminated with colored substance from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
d. Molded Prints a. thumb
b. index
1969. In taking prints of the subject the technician always c. little finger
instruct the subject to: d. middle finger
a. Stand straight 1980. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the
b. Cooperate numerator and the denominator in the primary division is
c. Relax ____.
d. Help the technician rolling a. so that there will be an equal value
1970. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the b. to complete the primary div.
subject is that fingers must be: c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
a. Healthy d. for formality
b. Dry 1981. What patterns are included in the small letter
c. Moisten classification under the secondary division.
d. Oily a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
1971. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
away from the body of the subjects c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
a. Both thumbs d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
b. All eight fingers
c. All fingers including thumbs 1982. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is
d. All fingers except the thumbs the classification of 14 ridge count.
1972. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards a. Inner Loop
in taking fingerprint of a dead person b. Outer Loop
a. Card holder c. Medium
b. Spatula d. Small
c. Strip holder 1983. What patterns are almost always represented by a
d. Forceps dash in the classification formula except in the secondary
1973. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled division.
impression the fingers must be inked from______ to base a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch
of the first joint. b. Whorl and Arch
a. a. Base c. Plain and Tented Arch
b. Tip d. Ulnar and Whorl
c. second joint 1984. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the
d. third joint tracing ridge flows below the right delta and there are five
1974. Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters, intervening ridges.
cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such a. Outer Whorl
is known as: b. Meeting Whorl
a. Permanent Disabilities c. Inner Whorl
b. Temporary Deformities d. Accidental Whorl
c. Permanent Destructions 1985. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the
d. Deformities tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed on
1975. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are the:
more than the usual number in both hands? a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge
a. Polyfinger
b. Deformities b. upper line of the bifurcation
c. Polydactyl c. Lower limb
108 | P a g e

d. next ridge just below b. Ridge count of the first whorl

1986. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between c. No key division to derived
the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern. d. Just indicate Dash
a. Ridge Count 1997. In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing
b. Intervening Ridge what will be the pattern interpretation of the two missing
c. Incipient ridge fingers.
d. Ridge tracing a. Plain Whorl
1987. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing
as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count. c. Dash
a. Small d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers
b. Medium
c. Large
d. Exceptional 1998. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
1988. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as a. Mutilated finger
____ when the right thumb reaches 17. b. Amputated finger
a. Small c. Fragmentary finger
b. Large d. Deformities
c. Medium 1999. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are
d. Exceptional amputated.
1989. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a a. 1/1
ridge count of 17 or more. b. 31/31
a. Small c. 32/32
b. Medium d. 16/16
c. Large 2000. What division will be left blank in the classification
d. Exceptional formula if all fingers are missing?
1990. What division in the fingerprint classification is derived a. Major and Final Division
by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the thumb. b. Key and Major Division
a. Key Division c. Major and sub-secondary
b. Final Division d. key and final Division
c. Major Division 2001. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
d. Secondary Division a. 14
1991. What division in the classification is place at extreme b. 13
right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical c. 16
value. d. 12
a. key 2002. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an
b. final uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics of the
c. Major loop?
d. Primary a. Plain arch
1992. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a b. tented arch
loop or a whorl appearing on the; c. central pocket loop
a. Little Finger d. accidental whorl
b. Thumb Finger 2003. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene
c. Index Finger between the delta and core of a loop?
d. Middle Finger a. ridge tracing
1993. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count b. ridge counting
of the c. ridge tracking
a. ulnar Loop d. ridge summing
b. Radial Loop 2004. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern,
c. First Loop what finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl
d. First Radial Loop pattern appears therein:
1994. What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in a. left little finger and right thumb
the key division? b. right thumb and left little finger
a. Both Index c. right little finger and left thumb
b. Both little d. left thumb and right
c. Both thumb 2005. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all
d. Both middle the fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the
1995. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint primary division?
card of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as. a. 25/29
a. Amputated finger c. 24/28
b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other b. 29/25
hand d. 28/24
c. Meeting whorl 2006. What would be the secondary division if all the fingers
d. Outer loop at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand fingers
1996. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how are tented arches?
will the key be obtained.
a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl a. aA3a/tT3T
109 | P a g e

c. A2a/tT2t paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a.

b. aT3a/aA3t whirl
d. tT3t/aA3a b. knob
2007. What division in the formula classification is left blank c. sour
if all fingers are amputated? d. loop
a. Major and key
b. key and final 2018. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is
c. Key and primary a. Manuel Quezon
d. final and major b. Emilio Aguinaldo
2008. The word Photography was coined by _____? c. Segio Osmena
a. John F. W. Herschel d. Apolinario Mabini
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
c. Henry Fox Talbot 2019. The only security features that the BSP was portrait in
d. Leonardo Da Venci the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is.
2009. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors a. optically variable ink
are combined each other? b. optical device
a. magenta c. optical ink
c. yellow d. optically variable device
b. cyan
d. Green 2020. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower
right corner of the face of the note changes color from
2010. Which of the following are NOT considered as the green to blue when viewed at different angles
primary colors, EXCEPT. a. optically variable ink
a. yellow b. optical device
b. Blue c. optical ink
c. Green d. optically variable device
d. Red 2021. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill
2011. The act of attempting to interpret the character or and the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
personality of an individual from his handwriting. degrees?
a. paleography a. blue to green
b. collation b. green to blue
c. graphology c. red to green
d. cacography d. green to red
2012. In Q.D it is the term used by some document 2022. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of
examiners and attorneys to characterize known material. paper.
a. exemplar a. abaca-cotton
b. evidence b. plastic-polymer
c. questioned c. abaca
d. disputed d. cotton
2013. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the 2023. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
ability to write with both left and right. a. Diosdado P Macapagal
a. cacography b. Emilio Aguinaldo
b. calligraphy c. Segio Osmena
c. calcography d. Apolinario Mabini
d. ambidextrous 2024. How many security features are there in the new 500
2014. Which of the following are NOT considered as the peso bill?
secondary colors, EXCEPT. a. 8
a. yellow b. 9
b. Blue c. 7
c. Green d. 6
d. Red 2025. How many security features are there in the new 1000
2015. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the peso bill?
writing instrument from the paper is called.. a. 8
a. pen emphasis b. 9
b. pen pressure c. 7
c. pen jump d. 6
d. pen lift 2026. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures
2016. The term document came from latin word the pitch of rifling is:
“documentum”, which means. a. Chronograph
a. write b. Helixometer
b. to teach c. Micrometer
c. lesson d. Taper gauge
d. paper 2027. A magnified photograph of a small object produced by
connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
2017. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal microscope is:
stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the a. Photomacrograph
110 | P a g e

b. Microphotograph a. Owner of the firearm

c. Photomicrograph b. Model of the firearm
d. Photography c. Caliber and types of the firearm
2028. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is d. Manufacture
smaller than the diameter of the body of the case: 2039. . That science which deals with the motion of the
a. Rimmed cartridge projectiles at the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to
b. Rebated cartridge the time it hits the target is known as:
c. Tapered cartridge a. Terminal ballistics
d. Rimless cartridge b. Interior ballistics
2029. . If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the c. Exterior ballistics
lands have been worn down or through a bore is slightly d. Forensic ballistics
oversize or oily, the marks are called: 2040. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of
a. Skid marks the projectile on target is called:
b. Slippage marks a. Exterior ballistics
c. Rifling marks b. Interior ballistics
d. Shearing marks c. Anterior ballistics
2030. When two specimens are compared under the d. Terminal ballistics
comparison microscope at the same direction, the same
level, the same magnification and the same image, they 2041. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
are called: drugs?
a. Positively match a. Lot Lizards
b. Pseudo match b. Hookers
c. Juxtaposition c. Skeezers
d. Drag marks d. Hustler
2031. In the United States, crimes are committed by 2042. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She
juveniles using home-made weapons generally referred to is usually a newcomer in the business?
as: a. Door knocker
a. Freakish device b. Street walker
b. Zip guns c. Call girl
c. Matchlock d. skeezers
d. Flare guns 2043. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She
2032. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from: works in regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
a. Revolver a. Door knocker
b. Pistol b. Street walker
c. Rifle c. Call Girl
d. Pistol & Revolver d. Factory Girl
2033. . A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of: 2044. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their
a. 730” own legitimate work or profession but works as a
b. 728” prostitutes to supplement their income?
c. 729” a. Door knocker
d. 724” b. Street walker
2034. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into c. Call Girl
the chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as: d. Factory Girl
a. Bullet 2045. The following countries which comprises the Golden
b. Shell Triangle, EXCEPT.
c. Primer a. Vietnam
d. Cartridge b. Thailand
2035. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a c. Myanmar
combination of: d. Laos
a. Pitch 2046. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long
b. Twist term partner repeatedly?
c. Lands & grooves
d. Cannelures a. philander
2036. Class characteristics are determinable b. prostitution
even: c. philandering
a. During d. prostitute
b. After 2047. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
c. Before female customers?
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm a. gigolo
2037. The caliber is determined with the aid of: b. pimps
a. Combined microscope c. callboy
b. Micrometer d. Johns
c. Macrometer 2048. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag
d. Manufacturer of the firearm factor of 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is
2038. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the the approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved
crime scene will request the ballistician to determine: in accident. .
111 | P a g e

a. 64 kms./hour b. Frustrated felony

b. 54 kms./hour c. Consummated felony
c. 46 km.s/hour d. Consummated felony
d. 45 kms./hour 2059. Kind of recognition whereby the description and
2049. This method of identification depends on the ability of characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult.
the witness to describe the person seen committing the a. Known fugitives
crime. b. Professional criminals
a. Verbal description c. Ordinary criminals
b. Photographic files d. Unknown fugitives
c. Police line up
d. General photograph 2060. The methods of determining and finding the
best way to remedy the specific cause or causes
of the complaint or grievance refers to:
a. Cross examination
2050. Criminals whose identity may be established b. Grievance procedures
background identification. c. Investigative procedure
a. Known criminals d. Criminal procedures
b. Unknown criminals 2061. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
c. Convicted criminals consequence of stuff produced from thin air.
d. Unidentified criminals a. False informant
2051. Compilation of known criminals available from police b. Double-crosser informant
files and records. c. Mercenary informant
a. Rouge gallery d. Frightened informant
b. General photograph 2062. Clandestine operation in police parlance.
c. Police blotter a. Covert intelligence
d. Modus operandi files b. Secret activity
2052. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is c. Over intelligence
necessary. d. Surveillance
a. Loose tail 2063. It is an art which deals with the identity and
b. Rough shadowing location of the offender and provides evidence of
c. Close tail his guilt through criminal proceeding.
d. None of the foregoing a. Information
2053. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence b. Interrogation
is: c. Instrumentation
a. Place it in a pill box and label it d. Investigation
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining 2064. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it a. Physical evidence
d. Tag it with a label b. Tracing evidence
2054. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an c. Testimonial evidence
interrogation room must be: d. Associative evidence
a. With no windows or views 2065. Is a person who provides an investigator with
b. There should only be one door confidential information concerning a past or
c. It must be sound proof projected crime and does not wish to be known as
d. All of the choices a source of information.
2055. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have a. Informants
great knowledge of the case and is preferable when the b. Witness
subject is not the talkative type. c. Informers
a. Narrative type d. Confidential informants
b. Question and answer type 2066. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to
c. Stern type divulge information.
d. Simple interrogation a. Interview
2056. What should the investigator do to protect while in b. Interrogation
transport those collected evidence from the crime scene? c. Investigation
a. Seal it d. All of the foregoing
b. Mark it 2067. A compilation of photographs of known criminals,
c. Pack it properly utilized in investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
d. Label it a. Photographic file
2057. Shadowing has the following purposes, except: b. 201 file
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities c. Rogue gallery
b. To establish association of a suspect d. Cartographic sketch
c. To locate wanted persons 2068. This is an element of crime commission wherein one
d. None of the foregoing is induced to commit the crime.
2058. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the a. Motive
latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B” b. Intent
managed to escape. This is an example of: c. Opportunity
a. Attempted felony d. Deceit
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2069. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate b. Pen

the power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a c. Ink
procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up? d. Chalk
a. 3 to 5 2080. A form of investigation in which an investigator
b. 5 to 7 assumes a different and unofficial identity.
c. 7 to 10 a. Tailing
d. 10 to 15 b. Shadowing
2070. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could c. Surveillance
have committed the crime. d. Roping
a. Motive 2081. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
b. Intent a. Narrative type
c. Opportunity b. Interrogation type
d. Deceit c. Question and answer type
2071. Motive in giving information wherein the d. Stern type
informant delights in giving information to gain 2082. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty
favorable attention from the police. of a person taken into custody.
a. Competition a. Protective custody
b. Repentance b. Detaining for questioning
c. Vanity c. Police restraint
d. Jealousy d. All of the choices
2072. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s 2083. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime
habits and associate are required. scene as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and
a. Surveillance what were the circumstances of the crime.
b. Loose tail shadowing a. Crime scene
c. Rough shadowing b. Physical reconstruction
d. Close tail shadowing c. Mental reconstruction
2073. More advantageous because it permits immediate d. Reconstruction of the crime
changes of men and less likely to be recognized.
a. One man shadow 2084. Paid informants
b. Two man shadow a. Anonymous informants
c. Three man shadow b. Rival elimination informants
d. ABC method c. False informants
2074. In this method of search, the searchers proceed d. Mercenary informants
slowly at the same pace along the path parallel to one side 2085. Most common type of shadowing.
of the rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher a. One man shadow
turns and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to b. Two man shadow
the first movement. c. Three man shadow
a. Zone method d. Rough shadow
b. Strip method 2086. Ar
c. Spiral method ticles and materials which are found in connection with the
d. Wheel method investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the
2075. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant. committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of
a. Zone method the criminal.
b. Strip method a. Tracing evidence
c. Spiral method b. Corpus delicti
d. Wheel method c. Associative evidence
2076. The surroundings of the crime scene must be d. Physical or material evidence
photograph to show the relative location and distances. 2087. Instrumental detection of deception
a. Environmental photograph a. Ballistic test
b. Physical reconstruction b. Fingerprint test
c. Overview c. Questioned document test
d. Over-all photograph d. Polygraph testing
2077. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No 2088. When the subject is in prone position what type of
scale, proportion ignored and everything is approximate. search should be implemented.
a. Sketch a. Kneeling search
b. Draft b. Standing search
c. Rough sketch c. Floor search
d. Finished sketch d. Wall search
2078. Most common reason in discharging informants 2089. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the
a. Burn out arrest. To discover weapons or evidences and determine the
b. Too expensive to maintain identity of the suspects.
c. Lack of loyalty a. Preliminary search of a person
d. Reprehensible behavior b. Wall search
2079. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. c. Standing search
a. Stylus d. Floor search
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2090. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an 2100. Such articles and evidences which assists the
automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned. investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Dashboard a. Physical evidence
b. Door handles b. Material evidence
c. Steering wheel c. Associative evidence
d. Rear view mirror d. Tracing evidence
2091. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to 2101. Objects or substances which are essential part of the
the law enforcers in order to get more information from them body of the crime.
than he gives. a. Corpus delicti
a. Double-crosser informants b. Physical evidences
b. Mercenary informants c. Material evidences
c. False informants d. Associative evidences
d. Self-aggrandizing informants 2102. The primary consideration in transporting evidences.
2092. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the a. Markings should be placed
recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of b. Proper turnover must be observed
physical science by application of natural sciences in matters c. Avoid altering contents
of law and science. d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in
a. Chemist transit
b. Scientist 2103. General rule in handling pieces of evidence
c. Criminalistics a. MAC rule
d. Toxicologist b. Right of way rule
2093. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are c. Last clear chance rule
committed in one place. d. None of the choices
a. Local crimes 2104. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained
b. Local action areas are usually encircled. What is the primary
c. Transitory crimes objective?
d. Transitory action a. To show points of interest
2094. The number of persons who handle the pieces of b. To have proper marking
evidence from the scene of the crime and between the times c. To avoid contamination
of the commission up to final disposition of cases. d. To prevent alterations
2105. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve
a. Time custody the specimen?
b. Time disposition a. Formaldehyde
c. Time disposal b. Saline solution
d. Chain of custody c. Alcohol
d. Distilled water
2095. A declaration made under the consciousness of an 2106. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area.
impending death. a. Assault
a. Part of res gestate b. Attack
b. Dying Declaration c. Raid
c. Confession d. Surveillance
d. admission 2107. Primary requisite for conducting raids.
2096. Principles of science applied to law enforcement. a. Search warrant
a. Instrumentation b. Raiding team
b. Forensic c. Firearms
c. Legal medicines d. Back-up personnel
d. Criminology 2108. A public officer when not being authorized by
2097. Evidence which offers least resistance to judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will
decomposition of the owner thereof is committing:
a. Blood a. Legal entry
b. Semen b. Violation of domicile
c. Saliva c. Trespassing
d. Hair d. Illegal entry
2098. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest 2109. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his
physical surroundings. constitutional rights namely:
a. Finished sketch a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him.
b. Sketch of details b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty
c. Sketch of locality c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right
d. Sketch of grounds to be informed of such rights.
2099. The explanation of any symbols used to identify d. The right to face his accuser in public trial
objects in a sketch.
a. Compass direction 2110. A type of informant reveals information usually of no
b. Title consequences of stuff concocted of thin air.
c. Legend a. False informant
d. Scale b. Mercenary informant
c. Double crosser informant
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d. Self-aggrandizing informant 2120. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at

2111. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
committed in many places. continuous combustion.
a. Local crime a. Ignition temperature
b. Local action b. Kindling temperature
c. Transitory crime c. Fire point
d. Transitory action d. Flash point
2121. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a
2112. The primary job of an investigator is to determine vapor-air mixture that ignites.
whether a crime has been committed, in order to a. Ignition temperature
determine such, he must have knowledge of the so-called b. Kindling temperature
cardinal questions of investigation. How many cardinal c. Fire point
questions are there? d. Flash point
a. Three 2122. Minimum temperature in which the substance
b. Four in the air must be heated in order to initiate or
c. Five cause a self-contained combustion without the
d. Six addition of heat from outside sources.
2113. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of a. Boiling point
transportation by stealing the vehicle and providing plate on b. Ignition temperature
it. c. Fire point
a. Drivers d. Flash point
b. Ripper 2123. An exothermic chemical change in which a
c. Wheelman combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
d. Rover a. Thermal balance
2114. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to b. Thermal imbalance
facilitate proper sketch orientation. c. Combustion
a. Proper north d. Oxidation
b. True north 2124. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.
c. Legend a. Pyrolysis
d. Compass direction b. Combustion
2115. A search method in which the searchers follow each c. Detonation
other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside d. All of the foregoing
proceeding toward the center. 2125. A chemical decomposition of matter through the
a. Zone method action of heat.
b. Wheel method a. Pyrolysis
c. Spiral method b. Combustion
d. Strip method c. Detonation
2116. Taking into custody property described in the search d. Oxidation
warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence 2126. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area
in a case. of the material with unit temperature gradient.
a. Seizure a. Conduction
b. Detention b. Thermal conductivity
c. Safekeeping c. Radiation
d. Confiscation d. Fission
2117. A method of criminal identification whereby 2127. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through
the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals space or materials as waves.
are identified by depiction. a. Conduction
a. Verbal description b. Convection
b. General photographs c. Radiation
c. Police line up d. Fission
d. Rouge gallery 2128. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose
2118. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants. with a motive.
a. Sprinkler a. Providential fire
b. Fire pump b. Accidental fire
c. Fire hose c. Intentional fire
d. Hydrant key d. None of the foregoing
2129. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
2119. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a a. Arson
result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid b. Providential fire
drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings. c. Accidental fire
a. Dust d. None of the foregoing
b. Oxidizing material 2130. First element known to man by experience, a colorless,
c. Pyrolysis tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
d. Cryogenic a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
115 | P a g e

c. Oxygen c. Fire triangle

d. Neon d. All of the foregoing
2131. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to 2142. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
start a fire. a. Fuel
a. Fuel b. Heat
b. Oxygen c. Oxygen
c. Heat d. Gas
d. None of the choices 2143. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
2132. Refers to gases liberated by heat. medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Free radicals a. Conduction
b. Flash point b. Convection
c. Thermal balance c. Radiation
d. Thermal imbalance d. Fission
2133. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke 2144. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
and fire gases within a building or structure under natural a. Specific heat
conditions. b. Latent heat
a. Free radicals c. Heat of Combustion
b. Pyrolysis d. Heat of fusion
c. Thermal balance 2145. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
d. Thermal imbalance natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
2134. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its a. Carbon black
destructive capabilities is developed. b. Lamp black
a. Initial phase c. Soot
b. Incipient phase d. Black bone
c. Free burning phase 2146. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed
d. Smoldering phase vapor as a result of combustion.
2135. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates. a. Fire
a. The fire triangle b. Flame
b. The fingerprint of the fire c. Heat
c. Flashover d. Smoke
d. Incipient phase of the fire 2147. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.
2136. An occurrence when the heat has brought the a. Fire
combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition b. Flame
temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or c. Heat
shooting forth light and flames. d. Smoke
a. Flashover 2148. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been
b. Backdraft contained.
c. Thermal balance a. Backdraft
d. Thermal imbalance b. Flashover
2137. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen. d. Falling debris
a. Flashover 2149. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames
b. Backdraft indicates the burning of what material?
c. Thermal balance a. Rubber
d. Thermal imbalance b. Nitrogen products
2138. Which among the following is the primary objective in c. Asphalt singles
investigating fires? d. Chlorine
a. To determine its cause 2150. Which among the following is commonly used in fire
b. To prevent recurrence resistant materials?
c. To determine liable persons a. Asbestos
d. All of the foregoing b. Diamond
2139. Reason why fire investigation is unique. c. Asphalt
a. It does not conform with regular investigative d. Cotton
procedure 2151. A form of static electricity of great magnitude
b. Unavailability of witnesses producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the
c. Fire destroys evidence most common cause of providential fires.
d. All of the foregoing a. Rays of the sun
2140. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God. b. Spontaneous heating
a. Providential c. Arcing
b. Accidental d. Lighting
c. Intentional 2152. Most common source of accidental fire is related to:
d. Incendiarism a. Smoking
2141. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat b. Arcing
and oxygen. c. Sparkling
a. Fire d. Overloading
b. Origin of fire
116 | P a g e

2153. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within d. Firewood

the room or throughout the structure. 2164. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local
a. Accelerant government for any particular establishment.
b. Plants a. Fire service
c. Trailer b. Fire safety inspection
d. Wick c. Fire drill
2154. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a d. Fire protection assembly
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. 2165. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to
a. Accelerant another.
b. Plants a. Radiation
c. Trailer b. Convection
d. Wick c. Conduction
2155. Most common reason of arson cases. d. Fission
a. Revenge 2166. The active principle of burning characterized by the
b. Profit heat and light of combustion.
c. Competition a. Oxidation
d. All of the foregoing b. Flash point
2156. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. c. Smoldering
a. Spontaneous heating d. Fire
b. Combustible gases 2167. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the
c. Combustible dust reaction takes place.
d. None of the choices a. Endothermic reactions
2157. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials b. Exothermic reactions
to start a fire. c. Oxidation
a. Plants d. Combustion
b. Trailers 2168. Product of an incomplete combustion.
c. Accelerants a. Soot
d. Wick b. Charring
2158. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. c. Ashes
a. Abatement d. All of foregoing
b. Combustion 2169. Color of a luminous flame.
c. Allotment a. Orange-blue
d. Distillation b. Blue
2159. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry c. Yellow
materials with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly d. Red
known as: 2170. Refers to the amount of heat released during
a. Black bone complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted
b. Used petroleum to water and carbon dioxide.
c. Soot a. Heat of combustion
d. Black iron b. Calorific value
2160. The use of more electrical devices which draw or c. Fuel value
consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of d. All of the foregoing
the existing electrical system. 2171. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance
a. Overloading when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
b. Jumper a. Calorie
c. Wire tapping b. Latent heat
d. Arcing c. Thermal heat
2161. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% d. Specific heat
of the assessed value of the building: 2172. Refers to gases that remain when the products of
a. Schools combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
b. Department stores a. Fire gases
c. Hospitals b. Combustion gases
d. Single family dwellings c. Oxidation gases
2162. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to d. Flame
floor, as well as from the base to top of the building. 2173. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
a. Standpipe system a. Providential fires
b. Sprinkler system b. Intentional fires
c. Vertical shaft c. Accidental fires
d. Flash point d. Incendiarism
2163. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire 2174. Primary component of wood
resistance rating of not less than four hours with structural a. Fiber
stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction b. Cellulose
collapses under fire conditions: c. Carbon
a. Post wall d. Pulp
b. Fire trap 2175. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern
c. Fire wall or fingerprint of fire is developed.
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a. Incipient phase a. Broken families

b. Initial phase b. Poverty
c. Free burning phase c. Anonymity of city life
d. Smoldering phase d. All of the choices
2176. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the 2187. Refers to a person having no apparent means of
flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume. subsistence.
a. Incipient a. Gambler
b. Initial phase b. Prostitute
c. Free burning phase c. Vagrants
d. Smoldering phase d. None of the foregoing
2177. Most effective way of regulating vices. 2188. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in slave trade.
vice control a. Prision correctional
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement b. Prison mayor
c. Both a and b c. Reclusion temporal
d. None of the choices d. Reclusion perpetua
2178. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive 2189. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
intake of alcoholic beverages develops physical and a. Maintainer
psychological changes and dependence to alcohol. b. Conductor
a. Alcoholics c. Banker
b. Liquor addicts d. Operator
c. Drunkard 2190. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to
d. Chronic alcoholics maintain the same effect.
2179. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which a. Tolerance
contains alcohol. b. Physical dependence
a. Liquor c. Poly drug abuse
b. Wine d. Drug experimenter
c. Booze 2191. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of
d. Vodka potent Cannabis Sativa.
2180. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of a. Marijuana
ill-refute whereby the business of prostitution is conducted. b. Hashish
a. Operator c. Opium
b. Banker d. Morphine
c. Mama 2192. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning
d. Pimp sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
2181. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse a. Opium
with another for hire. b. Opiates
a. Prostitute c. Morphine
b. Whores d. Heroin
c. Knockers 2193. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
d. All of the foregoing a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
2182. The procurement and transportation of women from b. Cannabis sativa
far flung places for immoral purposes. c. Papaver somniferum
a. White slavery d. Methamphetamine
b. Prostitution 2194. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily
c. Organized crimes used as:
d. All of the foregoing a. Pain killer
2183. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls b. Cough reliever
or professional prostitutes under the control of an organized c. Stimulant
crime ring. d. Depressant
a. Disorderly houses 2195. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the
b. Furnished room houses DDB?
c. Call houses a. Secretary of Justice
d. Massage clinics b. Secretary of National Defense
2184. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the c. Secretary of Education
means with which to carry on the gambling game. d. Secretary of Health
a. Maintainer 2196. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking
b. Conductor drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese
c. Banker tourist.
d. Operator a. Marijuana
2185. Anti gambling law b. Cocaine
a. PD 1869 c. Shabu
b. PD 1612 d. Opium
c. PD 1602 2197. The most potent derivative from opium.
d. PD 1866 a. Codeine
2186. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except b. Cocaine
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c. Morphine d. Hallucinogens
d. Heroin 2209. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a
2198. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional
Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru. change.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol a. Alcohol
b. Papaver somniferum b. Coca leaf
c. Amphetamine c. Drug
d. Erythroxylon coca d. Marijuana
2199. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical 2210. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying
name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”. emotions, thought disruption and ego distortion.
a. Chomper a. Depressants
b. Ecstacy b. Tranquilizers
c. Shabu c. Hallucinogens
d. Heroin d. Stimulants
2200. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to 2211. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
circumvent legal restrictions. leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind
a. Designer drugs and body.
b. Hallucinogens a. Abuse
c. Amphetamines b. Vice
d. Methamphetamines c. Addiction
2201. A law which prohibits government officials to enter d. Gambling
and gamble in Philippine casinos. 2212. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock
a. PD 1602 owners and other bettors.
b. PD 1869 a. Promoter
c. PD 510 b. “Cristo”
d. PD 483 c. Banker
2202. Office that controls and regulates gambling. d. Gambler
a. PAGCOR 2213. Most common problem encountered by the police in
b. PCGG vice control measures:
c. PACC a. Unwillingness of government officials to work
d. PNP against vices
2203. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
persons who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable c. Public apathy
consideration for the chance to obtain a prize. d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
a. Gambling 2214. The process of undergoing or producing gradual
b. Sport chemical change which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
c. Lottery a. Distillation
d. All of the choices b. Fermentation
2204. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games. c. Ionization
a. Wage d. Purification
b. Wager 2215. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes
c. Prize argumentative and over confident.
d. Banker a. Slight inebration
2205. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much b. Moderate inebration
as 25% of the substance: c. Drunk
a. Hashish d. Coma
b. Codeine 2216. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on
c. Morphine conversion and fellowship.
d. Heroin a. Aversion treatment
2206. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of b. Psychotherapy method
stimulants known as: c. Withdrawal method
a. Crank d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
b. Pep pills 2217. Oldest profession known to man which involves
c. Knock-out drops habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or
d. Stick profit.
2207. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on a. Gambling
prohibited and regulated drugs. b. Prostitution
a. DDB c. Addiction
b. NBI d. All of the foregoing
c. PACC 2218. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution
d. PNP to supplement their income.
2208. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, a. Call girls
melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions. b. Factory girls
a. Narcotics c. Hustler
b. Stimulants d. Door knocker
c. Depressants
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2219. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent 2229. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject
legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
responsibility.
a. Disorderly houses a. Confession
b. Furnished room houses b. Extra-Judicial Confession
c. Call houses c. Admission
d. Massage clinics d. Judicial Confession
2220. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the
world originated is located specifically in: 2230. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known
a. Thailand-Burma-China border criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and names
b. Laos-Thailand-China border of associate criminals.
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border a. Physical Line-up
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border b. Physical Show-up
2221. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made c. Geographic Sketch
from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal d. Rogues Gallery
altering ingredient. Which among the following is 2231. It is the general questioning of all persons at the crime
not an immediate effect of weed? scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the Miranda
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate doctrine
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration A. Custodial Investigation
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of B. Interview
losing control C. Field Inquiry
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation D. Interrogation
2222. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South 2232. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed and
American shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant. is established by a series of crimes under one
a. Marijuana classification.
b. Shabu A. Modus Operandi
c. Cocaine B. Modes of Operation
d. Opiates C. Methods of Operation
2223. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly D. Pattern of Operation
upon chance or hazard. 2233. It refers to a person who gives information relevant to
a. Gambling a criminal case about the activities of the criminals
b. Sports voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be willing
c. Tupada to be a witness.
d. All of the above A. Informant
2224. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is B. Informer
difficult to control is that: C. Mercenary
a. The big demand D. Women
b. The plant can be easily cultivated 2234. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country proceed at the same place along the path parallel to one
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously side of the rectangle.
2225. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is A. Wheel search method
reluctant to divulge information? B.Quadrant Search
A. interview C. Spiral search method
C. interrogation D. Strip Search
B. information 2235. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence
D. instrumentation in court; it should be taken from ____.
2226. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be A. General View
shown in order to obtain conviction? C. Close-up view
A. intent B. Mid-range
B.desire D. General to Specific
C. motive 2236. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing
D. opportunity actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
2227. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator evidence in their location at the scene.
from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, GRO, and others. A. Sketch
A. Grapevine Sources B. Rough Sketch
B. Cultivated Sources C. Final Sketch
C.Regular Sources D. Finish Sketch
D.Cognitive interview 2237. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the
2228. What interrogation techniques when the investigator crime and its environs, including neighboring buildings,
indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a roads, etc.?
grave offense. a. Sketch of Locality
A. Sympathetic Appeal b. Sketch of Environs
B. Mutt and Jeff c. Sketch of the Ground
C Extenuation d. Sketch in Details
D. Emotional Appeal 2238. Elements of the Sketch:
a. Measurement and compass direction
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b. Essential items and scale of proportion d. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the
c. Legend and title offender
d. All of the choices 2247. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident
2239. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking and a. Record the date and time the report was made
punching him in the stomach so that the same may b. Immediately respond to the crime scene
confess. c. Made a synopsis of the incident
A. Coercion d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer
B. Physical torture regarding the report
C. Duress 2248. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene
D. Verbal threats where the briefing is to be conducted and also the place
2240. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to where the evidence custodian receives the evidence
the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code shall collected during crime scene investigation?
suffer the penalty of: A. crime scene
A. Reclusion perpetua C. fixed post
B. Death B. command post
C. Reclusion temporal D. reception area
D. Destierro 2249. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team
2241. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
and technical investigation at the crime scene is: a. Takes down note to document important factors
a. PNP Crime Laboratory b. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group c. Photograph the crime scene before walking
c. Scene of the Crime Operation through the crime scene
d. Crime Scene Investigation d. Defines the extent of search area
2250. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the
2242. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the crime scene?
scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying on a. To determine whether or not the processing has
the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot wounds, but been completed.
still moving. What is the proper course of action he should b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
take? c. To check all evidence gathered from the crime
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team to scene.
arrive d. To determine whether there is a need to request
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the for additional personnel
crime scene and assist him with the 2251. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader to
situation. whom will the crime scene be turned over?
C. Call the investigator and inquire A. Chief of Police
about his decision concerning the victim. B. PCP Commander
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the C. Investigator-on-case
nearest hospital. D. owner of the place
2243. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____ 2252. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the
a. the property taken crime scene to be transported to the Crime Laboratory?
b. the fact that the crime was committed a. Yes, because they were collected for
c. anything of value examination
d. Intent of the suspect b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed to
2244. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical take custody of evidence
representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to
orientation of the scene. bring the evidence to the Crime Laboratory if the
A. North investigator did not request
B. West d. No, only those which require further laboratory
C. East examination will be transported.
D. South 2253. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly
2245. The following are the rules to be observed when documented and locations of evidence was noted, the
intervening a witness, EXCEPT: collection process begins and will usually start with –
a. allow implied answer A. point of exit
b. saving faces B. fragile evidence
c. one question at a time C. large objects
d. avoid leading questions D. removal of cadaver
2246. In case there is no other available means of 2254. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
establishing the age of the offender, what should be done A. Chief Investigator
if he claims that he is still a minor? B. Team Leader
a. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is C. Chief of Police
already of majority age. D. Investigator-on-case
b. Wait for the court to determine the age of the 2255. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by
offender sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and broken
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant glasses:
A. Incised wound
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B. Punctured wound d. Any of the above

C. Stab wound 2266. The purposes of a crime scene search are the
D. Lacerated wound following, EXCEPT:
2256. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in a. To identify the method of operation
which the investigator inscribe initial date and time b. To analyze physical evidence
directly? c. To reduce the number of suspects
A. marking d. To obtain physical evidence
B. labeling 2267. In the course of investigating the house where a
C. tagging stabbing took place, police find what to be bloodstains on
D. none of these the front door, since the unknown perpetrator and the
2257. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a victim who may die were both cut their identities need to
evidence should be marked where ____. be established through the bloodstains. How will the police
A. At the tip of the blade collect the stains?
B. At the frame a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline
C. At the base solution and rub gently.
D. At the handle b. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab
2258. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week? c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean
A. Sodium Chloride razor blade
B. Sodium Fluoride d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in
C. Sodium Dioxide alcohol
D. NONE 2268. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
2259. What is the most important part of the hair? rough sketch is for
A. Follicle A. scale and proportion
B. Medulla B. future use
C. Root C. accuracy and clarity
D. All of these D.courtroom presentation
2260. What is the minimum number of hair strands is 2269. What is the court process requiring a person to bring
needed? documents in his possession to the courts?
A. 10 strands a. summon
B. 30 to 60 strands b. subpoena ducestecum
C. 120 strands C.subpoena testificandum
D. unlimited D. bill of particulars
2261. Mummification is a condition of arrested 2270. What is the best method of collection evidence like
decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is footprints and tire prints?
common in hot dry conditions, usually takes ___ to form. A. Casting
A. 3 months B. Dental Stone
B. 1 month C. Plaster of Paris
C. 6 months D. Photograph
D. 1 year 2271. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the
2262. A dead body was found and there is already information, interview/interrogation and instrumentation.
presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body was Among of them information is deemed to be the most
at least ___. important because
A. 2 days a. Information involves the elements of the crime
B. 5 days b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the crime
C. 3 days c. Information identifies witnesses that will lead to
D. 1 week the suspect
2263. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave d. None of these
for the conduct of medical examination: 2272. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-
A. Inhumation and-run may be particularly useful in the investigation
B. Exhumation process because the year and make of the car involved
C. Autopsy may be determinable. The paint chips evidence collected
D. Interment should be ideally placed on?
2264. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of a. Clear plastic envelope
the following b. Clear plastic container
a. The actual cause of death of the victim c. Small plastic bag
b. The actual killer of the victim d. Cotton
c. The modus operandi involved 2273. Which of the following is the primary source of
d. The motive behind killing evidence?
2265. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of A. victim
events by the observation and evaluation of physical B. crime scene
evidence, as well as statement made by those involved C. suspect
with the incident: D. all of these
2274. Which among the following is an essential element of
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction parricide?
b. Physical reconstruction a. by means of treachery
c. Mental reconstruction b. relationship of the offender with the victim
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c. relationship of the offender with the witness 2284. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and
d. age of the victim empty shell for
2275. In crime scene investigation, who determines its A. proper and lasting mark
entry/exit? B. preservation
A. the prober C. marking it
B. SOCO D. labeling
C. COP 2285. Which of the following is not the function of criminal
D. First responded investigation?
2276. After developing the latent print found at the crime a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who
scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as a commits crime
back record, is it a correct practice and do you agree with b. Prosecute and convict the criminal
the prober? c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
A. yes d. Bring the offender to justice
B. no 2286. Below are serious crimes which leave physical
C. maybe evidence, EXCEPT:
D. It depends a. Homicide
2277. What would be the best camera position in taking b. Carnapping and arson
photographs showing a view of what a witness might have c. Sexual assault and robbery
seen? d. Libel
a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man 2287. There are two robbers who broke into a house and
b. parallel to the subject witness carried away some valuables. After they left such house
c. overhead these two robbers decided to cut or divide the loot already
d. at the eye level so that they can go of them . So while they are
2278. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the one
engraved the initial on a collected hard object is called? doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he
A. Collection immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was boxed
C. Scratcher then pulled out his gun and fired at the other one killing the
B. Luminous latter. What crime is committed?
D. Stylus a. Robbery and Murde
2279. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose b. Murder
of interrogation? c. Robbery w/ Homicide
a. To extract illegally the confession of a suspect d. Homicide
b. To extract the information he possesses
c. To extract a confession of admission
d. All of the above 2288. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after
2280. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___? killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took this,
a. Names of the suspect the crime would be?
b. Names of the witness a. Robbery and Murder
c. Number of the cases b. Robbery and Theft
d. Facts of the cases c. Robbery w/ Homicide
d. Murder
2289. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw B
a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. pardoned A,
2281. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober and they get married. What crime is committed?
must keep in mind that before placing the specimen in a A. Robbery
paper packet it must be allowed first to ____? B. Robbery w/ Rape
A. Refrigerate C. Robbery and Rape
B. Air dried D. NONE
C. Moist 2290. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The
D. Freeze wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night,
2282. Why is it important for a perishable material to be a man entered through that opening without breaking the
preserved by the way or the methods of preservation? same and gets items there. What crime is committed?
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed A. Robbery
b. In order that this evidence will reach the court in B. Theft
the same physical condition as when they were C. Robbery w/ force upon things
collected D. None
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the 2291. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
acquittal of the accused A. RA 8484
d. All of the above B. RA 7877
2283. In police photography, when one say tripod, the stand C. RA 7080
has how many legs or vertical support? D. RA 8353
A. two 2292. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are
B. four found in your house by the police, then it is ____.
C. one a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
D. three b. Prima facie evidence of theft
c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
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d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
2293. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful b. the suspect was professional
warrantless arrest EXCEPT: c. the suspect was juvenile
A. Seized in “Plain view” d. the police probably did not conduct a complete
B. Customs search search for evidence.
C. Search of a moving vehicle 2304. During an interview, planning is important and must
D. None of the choices follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly as they
2294. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately happened, this technique is called –
the things or property seized to the ____ together with an a. chronological questioning
inventory duly verified under oath. b. psychological questioning
a. Judge who issued the warrant c. physical questioning
b. Prosecution Counsel d. None of these
c. Requesting Party 2305. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
d. Any of these territory” such as the investigator room at the police station
2295. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____. because the place –
A. 10 days a. Is comfortable to the suspect
B. No time Limit b. Is familiar to the suspect
C. 15 days c. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
D. NONE d. Intimidates the suspect
2296. The taking of a person into custody in the manner 2306. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that he should first of all –
person before the court to answer for the commission of a a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care
crime. not to jar
b. wait until the crime scene has been sketched,
photographed and measurements taken before
A. Search he collects the evidence
B. Arrest c. immediately collects it and always sends it to the
C. Initial Contact Crime Laboratory for specific examination
D. Warrant of Arrest d. Compare the following edge of the took with
2297. Who shall issue a Search Warrant? impression to determine if this was the tool used
A. Judge in crime
B. Executive Branch 2307. All of the following are generally accepted rules of
C. Investigator on Case behavior that should be followed by police officer first
D. Prober arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors,
2298. All but one are the instances you can execute a EXCEPT –
lawful warrantless arrest. a. Try to keep witnesses separated
A. Flagrante Delicto b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
B. Escaped prisoner c. Discus the crime with persons who witness the
C. Hot pursuit Principle incident
D. None of these d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible
2299. Physical evidence is generally given weight the but do not leave the scene unguarded while
courts because- doing so
a. it speaks for itself 2308. The primary reason for conducting a search in the
b. it cannot lie crime scene is to –
c. not affected by emotion a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
d. all of the choices b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
2300. Physical or personal appearance is important when c. Undercover hidden evidence
testifying in court because – d. Determine the criminals method of operation
a. it will determine the quality of your testimony 2309. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be
b. it will determine the quantity of your testimony made on the item itself upon collection, in a place least
c. it will affect the weight given to your testimony by likely to affect the appearance of its -
the court A. Physical Integrity
d. it will reduce the chances of the defense B. Evidentiary
2301. What does DNA stand for? C. Legal Integrity
a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid D. Integrity and Identity
b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid 2310. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the
c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid a. Better use your time and efforts to alert another
2302. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was unit
pioneered by Allan Pinkerton b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are
a. Every contact leaves a Mark formerly doing
b. modus operandi c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
c. shadowing d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
d. casing coordination with other police units
2303. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
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2311. This situation takes place when a police officer
induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him after
the commission of the crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
2312. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever this is
possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt from each
person to whom he gives or receives evidence. This
statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2313. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the
crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2314. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical
evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death of
the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to the
investigators
2315. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide
case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of death
b. seek additional information by interviewing
witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his rights
2316. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they pose many
____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2317. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
investigator must develop ___, eh must also remember
that the victim may suddenly lose interest in aiding
prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2318. The following are characteristics of organized crime,
EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2319. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the genital
or anal orifice or another person
c. committed under all the elements enumerated by
Art. 324 of the Revised Penal Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2320. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or
otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave
abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a
woman
2321. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
divided into two different classifications, one is robbery by
the use of force upon things, and the other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
b. taking of personal property belonging to another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
2322. The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2323. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the
thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2324. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying
then collecting information and evidences, the next logical
step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2325. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman arriving
at the scene a short time later finds the victim
unconscious, calls for an ambulance and orders the crowd
to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an
injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to
order people about needlessly.
2326. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
2327. It is often important to know the time of death. The
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the victim
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of
incident
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c. protect the innocent from malicious allegations c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
2328. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a 2337. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person, who Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
has all the qualification as provided by law, 3 rd Driver’s A. RA 8750
License is a public document B .RA 7924
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect C. RA 8749
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct D. PD 96
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct 2338. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program
d. All statements are correct is best measured by which of the following:
2329. Which of the following is not a function of warning a. A cutback of traffic accidents and interruption
symbol? b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
a. To call the decrease of speed c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist of the enforcement manner
approaching danger d. None of these
c. To direct motorist along the establish direction 2339. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
d. To notify traffic units an approaching hazardous peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the
circumstance either on or adjacent to road moment he starts to cross.
2330. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT: A. Absolutely true
a. To guide motorist along established routes B. Partly true
b. To inform proper routes C. Absolutely false
c. To help him along his way to the most simple and D. Partly false
direct method 2340. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above
d. To call the diminution of speed street level for free-flow traffic.
2331. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around A. Expressway
questions of right of way, for practically purposes, one of B. Subway
the following is the best definition of “Right of Way”. C. Skyway
a. The personal right to move from one place to D. Tunnel road
another 2341. City roads inter-link between municipalities and within
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what is the
section of highway minimum width of sidewalk?
c. The way or place open to the motorist and A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
pedestrian B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space which at C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
the time is occupied by another vehicle D. 2.0 meters
2332. It is intended to inform road user of special obligation, 2342. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
instruction nor prohibitions which they must comply. taking a person into custody for the purpose of holding or
A. Traffic Signs detaining him to answer a charge of law violation before a
B. Informative Signs court.
C. Regulatory Signs A. Arrest
D. Danger/warning signs B. Traffic Arrest
C. Traffic Citation
2333. A kind of road according to political subdivision within D. Traffic Warning
town proper Right of Way not less than 10 meters. 2343. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of not
A. National Road less than ___ can apply for non-professional driver’s
B. Municipal Road license
C. Barangay Road A. 150 Days
D. City Road B. 180 Days
2334. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public C. 60 Days
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB D. 30 Days
A. Private 2344. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury other
B. For Hire than serious to one or more persons:
C. Government A. Property damage
D. Diplomatic B. Less Serious Injury
2335. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is C.Fatal Accident
valid for ___ from the date of issuance and renewable D. Non-fatal Accident
every birth month. 2345. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
A. 18 Months approximately the same time, which shall give the right of
B.36 Months way:
C. 24 Months a. The vehicle coming from the right
D.12 Months b. Vehicle from the center
2336. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way c. The vehicle coming from the left
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but not d. The vehicle that arrives first
involving a motor vehicle in motion: 2346. Which of the following consideration does not act as
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident A. Fear of fine and punishment
126 | P a g e

B.Loss of driving privileged A. hit and run

C.Possibility involve in an accident B. third party liability
D.Increase of insurance premium C. reckless driving
2347. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is D. side sweeper
best characterized by, EXCEPT: 2356. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to
A.Poor legislation activities conditions, actions and physical features associated with
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians motor collision or accident –
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers A.traffic engineering
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit B.traffic accident investigation
2348. The following are NOT functions of Land C.reckless driving
Transportation Office, EXCEPT: D.hit and run
A.Reparation of vehicles 2357. A public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody
B.Registration and licensing who are not a member of the organization who can helps
C.Rental and license the organization
D.Licensing operating A. Enforcer
2349. One of the following statements that best indicates B. Capo
the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is: C. Corrupter
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic D. Corruptee
rules 2358. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid organized individual with the end view of attaining
bottlenecks psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs.
control the speed limited in densely A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
populated areas B.Political Graft
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow C.Predatory Organized Crime
of traffic D.Syndicated Organized Crime
2350. Most common defect attributed to the human element 2359. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which is
in cases of traffic vehicular accidents: primarily concerned with the generation of profits,
A. Intellectual irrespective of national boundaries as a result of
B. Perceptual globalization.
C. Decision A.Transnational Organized Crime
D. Attitudinal B.Transnational Crime
2351. 2568. Statistically it is considered as the most C.Organized Criminal Group
common reason for public utility vehicular accidents. D.NONE
A.Not observing the proper distance and 2360. What category of terrorist group which is What
following too close category of terrorist group which is dedicated to overthrow
B.Unnecessary an established order and replacing it with a new political or
C.Recklessness social structure?
D.Discussion regarding fare A. Ethnocentric
2352. 2569. What is the general rule for the movement of B. Revolutionary
vehicular traffic in the Philippines? C. Separalist
A. “keep to the left” D. Political
B. Safety First 2361. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for?
C. “keep to the right” A.InformationConnection Technology
D. “watch out” B.InformationCommunication
2353. 2570. What would drivers do when an emergency Technology
vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized red light C.InternetCommunication
and sounding a siren? Technology
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly D.Internet Connection Technology
B.continue driving slowly without regard of 2362. Economic crime is known as:
the emerging A.Blue Collar Crime
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the B.Wildlife Smuggling
passage of the vehicle C.White Collar Crime
D.disregard the red light and siren D.Wildlife trafficking
2354. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you 2363. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
approach an intersection with the traffic light with a “green A. Terrorisme
color” on but a traffic policeman is standing at the center of B.Terrere
intersection conducting the flow normally. As a driver you C. Rapere
will ignore the traffic man and follow the automatic traffic D. Vestigarre
light- 2364. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of
A. True silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades
B. False to the authorities:
C. Sometimes A. Capo
D. It depends B. Omerta
2355. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes C. Jihad
another vehicle, object or person and left the scene D. Ideology
without stopping to identify himself or render aid
127 | P a g e

2365. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in 2375. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, accounting
Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro National for as much as 80% of terrorist-related violence:
Liberation Front (MNLF): A. Bombings
A.Rizal Day Bombing B. Assassinations
B.Ninoy assassination C. Kidnapping
C.Black September D. Prostitution
D.Jabbidah Massacre 2376. This is also known as the Human Security Act of
2366. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted 2007:
terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls all A. RA 9372
Muslims around the world to slay Americans and their B. RA 9160
allies. C. RA 9165
A. Abu-Abbas D. RA 8294
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef 2377. This is the country which believed to be the origin of
C. Ahmed Yassin Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
D. Osama bin-Laden A. United States of America
2367. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that their B. Italy
memberships have limitations based on kinship, criminal C. Japan
record, or similar considerations: D. China
A.No Political Goals 2378. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical
B.Hierarchical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle representing
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture the heaven, earth and man:
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership A. Yakuza
2368. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of B. Triad
their: C. Tongs
A. membership D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
B. motivation 2379. Chain of custody should be observed by the
C. leadership investigating team of cybercrimes:
D. networking A.The Statement is wrong
2369. This theory refers to those processes by which the B.The statement is true
community influences its members towards conformity C.None of these
with established norms and behavior. D.All of these
A. differential association 2380. Internet pornography is punishable under E-
B. social control Commerce Act of 2000:
C. anomie A.The Statement is correct
D. strain B.Statement is wrong
2370. It is a form of modern day slavery. C.either of the above
A. Human Trafficking D.neither of the above
B. Prostitution 2381. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and
C. Drug Trafficking cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are
D. Sex tourism perpetuated, are legally required to have permanent logs
2371. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified and records of their clients:
when: A.The statement is true
A.the person trafficked is an elderly B.The statement is false
B.the person trafficked is a special child C.Neither of the above
C.the person trafficked is a woman D.Either of the above
D.the person trafficked is a child 2382. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that
telecommunication companies are legally bound to
2372. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 provides cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the
that an organized criminal group must have a membership course of their investigation:
of at least ___: A.The statement is absolutely correct
A. 3 or More B.The statement is absolutely wrong
B. 2 or More C.The statement is partially correct
C. 4 or More D.The statement is partially wrong
D. 5 or More
2373. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly 2383. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E-
included. Commerce Act of 2000.
A. Al Qaeda A. 20 years
B. MILF B. 12 years
C. MNLF C. 6 years
D. JI D. 3 years
2374. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means: 2384. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity
A.Swords bearer are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make
B.Islamic Congregation them appear to have originated from legitimate sources:
C.Father of the Swordsman A. Estafa
D.The Base B.Money Laundering
C. Anti-Money Laundering
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D. Swindling 2394. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer

2385. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic systems with malicious intent, usually for some criminal
and/or sound in electronic form, representing the identity purpose.
of a person and attached to or logically associated with the A. Black Hat Hackers
electronic data message: B. Gray Hat Hacker
A. electronic key C. White Hat Hackers
B. originator D. Any color
C. electronic signature 2395. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known
D. electronic date message as “Back to Islam”.
2386. Only a computer forensic expert should search for A. Abu Sayyaf
any evidence contained in a computer hardware. B. MILF
A.The statement is absolutely correct C. Je naah Islamiya
B.The statement is absolutely wrong D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
C.The statement is partially correct
D.The statement is partially wrong 2396. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with
2387. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998: the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of
A. RA 8551 people.
B. RA 8484 A.Nuclear
C. RA 9160 B.Weapon of mass destruction
D. RA 9165 C.Anthrax
2388. What is the name of the operation launched by US D.Chemical weapons
Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? 2397. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal
A.Operation Geronimo organization in the world.
B.Operation Jabbidah A. Al Qaeda
C.Operation Neptune Spear B. Jihad
D.Operation Merdeka C. Chinese Mafia
2389. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT? D. Nuestra Costra
A. The Neopolitan Camera
B. Sinilian Mafia 2398. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor
C. Cali Cartel pressure of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric
D. Sacra Corona Unita pressure?
2390. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to A. vapor density
establish a shared database among concerned agencies B. fire point
for information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and B. boiling point
conviction on transnational crime. D. vapor pressure
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
(PCTC) 2399. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of fire
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
(NACAH) A. Flames
C.International Criminal Police Organization B. Exothermic reaction
(ICPO) C. Endothermic reaction
D.Philippine National Police (PNP) D. NONE
2400. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at the
bottom or a vessel being heated due to incomplete
2391. It is known as IP address that changes every time the combustion and has a low temperature.
internet accesses his ISP: A. Luminous
A. ISP B. Non-luminous
B. Dynamic IP address C. Laminar
C. Static IP Address D. Turbulent
D. IP Address 2401. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____.
2392. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or website A. Infection
pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial C. shock
information such as credit card numbers or social security B. burns
numbers. D. asphyxiation
A. Phising 2402. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state
B. Hacking under pressure and at normal atmospheric temperature
C. Cracking inside its container?
D. Identity Theft A. cryogenic gas
2393. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself B. liquefied gas
and infect a computer without permission or knowledge of C. compressed gas
the user D. nuclear gas
A. Virus
B. Trojan Horse 2403. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the
C. Logic Bomb method is called ____.
D. Worm A. radiation
B. oxidation
129 | P a g e

C. convection B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of

D. conduction the building
2404. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A C.building insurance
fires? D.any of the choices
A. none of the choices 2414. What is the process of raising the temperature to
B. burning nipa hut separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts and
C. exploding gas depot then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
D. forest fire produce a nearly purified substance?
2405. Which of the following best illustrate arson? A. combustion
A.simultaneous fire B. evaporation
B.thick reddish smoke C. distillation
C.faulty electric wiring D. condensation
D.unexplained explosion
2406. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires? 2415. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the hydrant?
fire A. hydrant key
B.there is the danger of electrocution B. key board
C.burning metals are too hot C. fire hose
D.explosion may occur D. jumper
2407. Mechanical device strategically located in an 2416. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam
installation or street where fire hose is connected so that where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam
water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire. forming ascent or descent?
A. fire hose box A. rope
B. fire truck B. hydrant
C. hose reel C. ladder
D. fire hydrant D. nozzle
2408. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is 2417. What are the cross members between the beam and
known as ___. used in climbing the ladder called?
A. reducing agent A. hangar
B. oxidizing agent B. beams
C. cooling agent C. rungs
D. chemical agent D. braces
2409. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in a 2418. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases
building: in our midst, which of the following facilities should you
A.It only moves horizontally check?
B.It has a circular movement A.Gift-wrapped packages
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically B.Electric switch system
D.It has a circular movement while moving C.Telephones
horizontally D.All of these
2410. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space 2419. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product of highest point of the roof is referred to as:
incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free radicals, A. vertical ventilation
may result to an explosion, which is called: B. cross ventilation
A. Spontaneous ignition C. forced ventilation
B. flashover D. horizontal ventilation
C. Backdraft 2420. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the
D. Flash fire most probable extinguishing method is:
A. smothering
2411. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while B. fuel removal
electric current is flowing in a transmission line resulting to C. cooling
the damage or destruction of insulating materials, maybe D. dilution
gradual or rapid, internal or external. 2421. The most important element of Fire?
A. Arcing A.Fuel
B. Induced Current B.Chemical chain reaction
C. Over Heating C.Heat
D. sparkling D.Oxygen
2412. The most common motive for arson is 2422. A complete and detailed checked of the structures
A. jealousy and material involved in the fire to make sure that every
B. profit spark and ember has been extinguished and to have
C. spite assurance against
D. revenge A. Overhaul
2413. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of B. Rescue
arson? C. Salvage
A.inflammable substance found in the D. None
premises
130 | P a g e

2423. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose 2432. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains only
they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the most one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet.
likely reason for taking this position? A. Straight ladder
A.The stream is projected farther B. Attic ladder
B.The surrounding air is cool making the C. Extension ladder
firemen comfortable D. Wall ladder
C.A backward force is developed which must 2433. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate
be counter acted flame propagation.
D.The firemen can see better when the A. Plant
stream strikes B. Trailer
2424. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the C. Accelerant
crime that you have to file is: D. Gasoline
A. murder with arson 2434. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
B. arson with murder A. Witness
C. murder B. Society
D. arson C. First responder
2425. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical D. Owner
powder intended to fight all classes of fires. 2435. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. H20 A. RA 9514
B. Liquefied B. PD 1185
C. Dry Chemical C. RA 8294
D. Soda Acid D. RA 8484
2426. All except one are aggravating circumstances in 2436. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in Arson.
Arson. A.Kind and character of the building burned
A.If committed with intent to gain: B.Location of the building
B.If committed with the benefit of another: C.Extent or value of the damage
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or D.Whether inhabited or not
hatred towards the owner or occupant of E.None of the choices
the property burned: 2437. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect of
D.If committed by a syndicate symptoms of poisoning.
E.None of the Above A. Minimal Dose
2427. What color of smoke is present when the materials B. Abusive Dose
burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay? C. Toxic Dose
A. Black D. Maximal Dose
B. White
C. Yellow 2438. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost
D. Blue entirely around the drug experience and securing supplies.
2428. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been A. Situational
declared, what is the first thing that a fire prober must B. Hard-core
determine? C. Hippies
A.look for survivors D. Spree
B.search for debris 2439. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly
C.locate the point of origin absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the
D.established corpus delicti second most commonly used route of drug administration,
2429. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C (1000F) A. Snorting
is a: B. inhalation
A. Combustible liquid C. oral ingestion
B. Corrosive liquid D. Injection
C. Flammable liquid 2440. Among the countries involved in the first important
D. Volatile liquid drug traffic route, which is responsible for preparation for
2430. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; distribution?
however examination of lungs and blood showed no A. Middle East
abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will B. USA
be your interpretation under such circumstance? C. Turkey
A.The person died because of asphyxia D. Europe
B.The person died because of the burning
C.The person was killed before it was
burned
D.The person died not of fire but because of
suffocation 2441. Which among the following responsible for producing
2431. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting almost 60% of Opium in the world.
operation involving high-rise building? A. Golden triangle
A. attic B. Golden Crescent
B. extension C. Silver Triangle
C. aerial D. White Christmas
D. hook 2442. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
131 | P a g e

A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India 2453. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the
B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia following circumstances such will serve as Aggravating
C.Burma, Laos, Thailand Circumstances:
D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand A.Conducted in the presence or with the help
2443. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in Europe”. of minor/s
A. Philippines B.Established within one hundred (100)
B. Mexico meters of a residential, business, church
C. Spain or school premises.
D. Lebanon C.Secured or protected with booby traps
2444. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and often D.Concealed with legitimate business
induce sleep. operations
A. Sedatives E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical
B. Stimulants engineer, public official or foreigner
C. Hallucinogen F.all of the choices
D. Narcotics. 2454. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of
2445. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes how many Ex-officio Members?
about 10% of the use raw opium. A. 2
A. Morphine C. 2
B. Heroin B. 12
C. Codeine D. 17
D. Opium 2455. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
2446. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon A.Its branches which occur at opposite
coca. points on the stalk
A. Cocaine B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Marijuana C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets
C. Papayer Somniferum whose edges are serrated in shape.
D. claviceps purpurea D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
2447. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ grown.
specs.
A. Blue 2456. What agency of the government supervises drug
B. Orange rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks and
C. Violet laboratories?
D. Red A.Department of Interior and Local
2448. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of Government
___ B.Department of Health
A. Assistant Secretary C.Department of Justice
B. Secretary D.Department of Social Welfare and
C. Chairman Development
D. Undersecretary 2457. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous
2449. What is the minimum age required to be able to Drug Board:
become a PDEA agent? A. 2 years
A. 16 B. 6 years
B. 18 C. 4 years
C. 21 D. co-terminus
D. s25 2458. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous
2450. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the ___.
A. Chairman/President
B. Secretary/PDEA DG
C. CSUPT/President A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of
D. SUPT/PDEA DG 50 to 200 thousand pesos.
2451. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine
the planning and formulation of policies and programs on of 10 to 50 thousand pesos.
drug prevention and control C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40
A. PDES thousand pesos.
B. DDB D.6 months rehabilitation
C. PNP Narcotics 2459. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into
D. NBI Narcotics the body of any person with or without his/her knowledge
2452. They serve as permanent consultant of the either by injection inhalation, ingestion or other means.
Dangerous Drug Board: A. Administer
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General B. Use
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief C. Dispense
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director D. Deliver
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of
Justice 2460. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
132 | P a g e

techniques were made by its operator in concealing their A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary
activities. Schools
A. Hide-out operation B.Persons apprehended or arrested for
B. Safe house violation of the Provision of Comprehensive
C. Clandestine Operation Dangerous Drug Act.
D. Drug Syndicate C.Officers and Employee of public and
2461. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on: private offices
A. June 7, 2002 D.A and C only
B. July 4, 2002 2467. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving
C. July 30, 2002 dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period of:
D. June 18, 2003 A. 180 days
2462. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing B. 45 days
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT B. 30 days
A.Officers and Employee of public and D. 60 days
private offices. 2468. An analytical test using some tools or device design
B.Applicant for firearms license and for to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or screening
permit to carry firearms outside residence test.
C.Officers and Members of the Military, A. Screening test
police and other law enforcement agencies B. Confirmatory rest
D.All candidates for public office whether C. Physical test
appointed or elected both in national or local D. Chemical Test
government units. 2469. The ____ shall designate special courts from among
E.All persons charged before the the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try
prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
having an imposable penalty of not less A. DOJ
than six (6) years and one (1) day. B. Supreme Court
2463. Apprehending team having initial custody and control C. DDB
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant D. Sandiganbayan
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and 2470. The law that penalized the use and possession or the
photograph the same in the presence of the following, unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances is:
EXCEPT. A. P.D. 1519
A.To person from whom such items were B. P.D. 1916
confiscated or his representative or C. P.D. 1619
counsel. D. P.D. 580
B.A representative from the media. 2471. A laboratory examination is only required to
C.A representative from the DOJ. apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person arrested
D.Any elected public official. has:
E.None of the choices A.Physical sign of drug abuse
2464. Apprehending team having initial custody and control B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
of dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant C.Visible manifestation that suspect was
sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall under the influence of drugs
immediately after seizure, physical inventory and D.All of the choices
photograph the same in the presence of the following, 2472. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic
EXCEPT. beverage is the absorption is faster?
A.To person from whom such items were A. 20 to 30 minutes
confiscated or his representative or counsel B. 30 to 60 minutes
B.A representative from the media C. 10 to 20 minutes
C.A representative from the DOJ D. 50 to 60 minutes
D.Any elected public official 2473. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates
E.None of the choices that the person is under the influence of the liquor
(alcohol)?
2465. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by A. 0.05
forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis: B. 1.5
A.Not more than five (5) grams per C. 0.15
package/bag D. 0.50
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for 2474. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where
capsules or tables the business of prostitution is conducted.
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid A. Pimp
solution B. prostitute
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried C. Knocker
leaves and not more than 2 plants. D. Maintainer
E.All of the choices 2475. The person is argumentative and overconfident.
2466. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory Drug There is slight impairment of mental difficulties.
Testing EXCEPT: A. Slight inebriation
B. Moderate inebriation
133 | P a g e

C. Drunk A. No
D. Very drunk B. False
C. Yes
2476. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70 D. True
of RA 9165 is ____: 2486. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and
A.Qualified to apply for probation subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of
B.Disqualified to apply for probation investigation involving the violations of RA 9165.
C.Allowed to apply for probation A. True
D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is B. Partially True
more than 6 years and 1 day C. False
2477. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”. D. Partially False
A. Marijuana
B. Ecstacy
C. Shabu
D. None of these 2487. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use
2478. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a as a veterinary anesthetic.
cough reliever? A. Ketamine
A. morphine B. Codeine
B. cocaine C. Anesthesia
C. opium D. Sleeping pills
D. codeine 2488. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2 nd
2479. When drunken person does not know the intoxicating violation.
strength of the beverage he has taken. A.6 Months Rehabilitation
A. involuntary B.12 Months Rehabilitation
B. Intentional C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years
C. Habitual D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years
D. Coma 2489. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously
2480. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which leads and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and or indirectly, through any overt or cover acts:
body. A. Entrapment
A. Morality B. Planting of Evidence
B. Vices C. Instigation
C. Prostitutions D. Black mailing
D. Gambling 2490. It is the Agency of the government that will take
2481. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs
conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or confiscated:
surrendered dangerous drugs, and controlled precursors A. Maritime Police
within: B. Dangerous Drug Board
A. 24 hours C. PDEA
B. 30 days D. NBI
C. 72 hours E. PNP
D. 48 hours 2491. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of
2482. That part of the body most affected to by heavy Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what time
drinking are: and date the arresting officers have to subject “A” to a
A.digestive system and nervous system drug test as required by the law?
B.brain and veins of the body A.7:00 P.M., October 25
C.the lungs and heart B.7:00 P.M., October 24
D.None of the above C.8:00 A.M., October 26
2483. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo D.8:00 A.M., October 25
drug test? 2492. Which among the following data concerning
A. yes photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
B. maybe A.date and hour which each photograph was
C. upon circumstances taken
D. No B.identification of the police photographer
2484. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a C.proof of ownership of the camera
prosecution witness during trial of the case against the D.focal length of the lens
alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust operation. What 2493. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
will be his penalty? rough sketch is for _____.
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment A.scale and proportion
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years B.future use
C. Life imprisonment C.accuracy and clarity
D. Death penalty D.courtroom presentation
2494. All except are object evidence that should be taken
2485. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their photograph individually, EXCEPT?
suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is their A. Knife
penalty the same? B. Semen
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C. stone D. reliability
D. Gun 2506. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is:
2495. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT? A. RA 7438
A. Police car on call B. RA 8353
B. Ambulance on call C. RA 9160
C. Fire Truck on call D. RA 9165
D. Physician’s car
2496. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front 2507. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source
seat of any running motor vehicle: of a prohibited drug?
A.Seven years old A. Marijuana
B.six years and old and under B. Opium
C.under six years old C. Coca bush
D.seven years old and under D. Peyote
2497. Marijuana is also known as? 2508. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self-
A. Coke awareness and emotion?
B. Poppers A. Narcotics
C. Cannabis B. Stimulants
D. Morphine C. Depressants
2498. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal D. Hallucinogens
drug cases? 2509. What is that state arising from repeated administration
A. User of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis?
B. Pusher A. Habituation
C. Possessor B. Drug dependence
D. Coddler C. Drug Addiction
2499. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines? D. Physical dependence
A. Marijuana 2510. What classification would solvents, paints and
B. Shabu gasoline which are examples of substances that are
C. Cocaine sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
D. AMorphine A. Depressants
B. energizers
2500. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal C. inhalants
behavior? D. tranquilizers
A. Yes
B. No 2511. What is the act of injecting or that means of
C. Sometimes introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological
D. It depends system of the body?
A. Consumption
2501. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict B. Use
to? C. Administration
A. Reintegrate him to society D. Abuse
B. Punish him
C. Give him a lesson 2512. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in
D. Incapacitate him obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing about it and
using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality,
2502. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the he is –
crime scene. Legally, it means A. Socially dependent on drugs
A. proof in the commission of crime B. Mentally dependent on drugs
B. body of the victim C. Psychologically dependent on drugs
C. wrongful act D. Physically dependent on drugs
D. none of these 2513. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than
2503. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the morphine.
application of special investigative technique. A. amphetamines
A. background investigation B. cocaine
B. criminal investigation C. heroin
C. preliminary investigation D. iodine
D. special investigation
2504. What is the other name for marijuana? 2514. The most important constituent of opium is the drug:
A. rope A. cocaine
B. grassland B. codeine
C. weed C. heroin
D. leaf D. morphine
2505. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation 2515. The number of persons who handle the evidence from
regarding drug operation. the scene of the crime and between the times of the
A. information commission of the crime up to the final disposition of the
B. abuses case.
C. integrity A. chain of custody
135 | P a g e

B. time of custody A. Topical method

C. time of disposal B. Injection method
D. time of disposition C. Iontophoresis
2516. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to: D. Oral method
A. morphine
B. cocaine 2525. What part of the globe is the principal source of all
C. heroin forms of cocaine?
D. codeine A. South East Asia
2517. The word hashish is derived from the name of B. South America
Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to: C. Middle East
A. female marijuana plant D. South West Asia
B. male marijuana plant
C. marijuana leaves 2526. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in
D. the marijuana resin A. Columbia
2518. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid B. India
obtainable by the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in C. Mexico
which the alkaloid base may be made by treating D. France
morphine with acetyl chloride, washing the product with a
dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing from alcoholic 2527. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be
solution? mind altering and gives the general effect of mood
A. cocaine distortion?
B. codeine A. Sedatives
C. heroin B. Hallucinogens
D. paregoric C. Hypnotic
2519. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as D. Tranquillizers
A. cocaine
B. marijuana 2528. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
C. opium A. Heroin
D. shabu B. Marijuana
2520. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or C. Cocaine
counteracts poison or its effect D. Shabu
A. alkaloid
B. antidote 2529. 2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of
C. emetic withdrawal of drugs that causes serious physical illness?
D. titanic A. Psychological dependence
B. Physical dependence
2521. “Shabu” is chemically known as: C. Addiction
A. methamphetamine D. Withdrawal syndrome
B. methamphetamine HCL 2530. 2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from
C. methyl amphetamine injection of hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
D. methyleneamine A. liquid amphetamine
B. Shabu
2522. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of C. Heroin
potent Cannabis Sativa. D. freebase cocaine
A. hashish
B. marijuana 2531. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and
C. morphine functions of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it
D. opium tends to
A. reduce the need for the drug
2523. Scientific name for cocaine. B. satisfy more than one motive or need
A. cannabis sativa C. increase the satisfaction of use
B. erythroxylon coca D. give sense of well being
C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine 2532. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of
mood elevation, heightened alertness, and increase
Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body energy?
functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing A. Solvents
rate. The regular administration of narcotics will produce B. LSD
physical dependence. C. Shabu
A. depressants D. Narcotics
B. hallucinogens
C. narcotic 2533. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs
D. stimulants are known as “downers”?
2524. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the A. Hallucinogens
deeper layer of the skin by means of special electric B. Barbiturates
current? C. solvents
136 | P a g e

D. cocaine C. financier D.
lookout

2534. Who has committed an act which is punishable under 2543. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
RA 6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion female customers?
perpetua to death and a fine of P500,000 to a. Johns
P10,000,000.00? b. Gigolo
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana c. Pimps
plants in a plantation in the Cordillera. d. Rentboys
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession 2544. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
of opium pipes and other paraphernalia. penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful commission of crimes?
medical prescription a. Anomie
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use b. Deterrence theory
of volatile substances. c. Rational choice theory
2535. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central d. None of the above
nervous system and are commonly referred to as 2545. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal
“uppers”? drugs?
A. Amphetamines A. Lot lizards
B. Naptha C. Hookers
C. Barbiturates B. Skeezers
D. Diazepam D. Punters
2536. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers? 2546. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and
A. opiates development of what culture?
B. Track a. Northern
C. Shabu b. Eastern
D. coke c. Western
2537. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- d. Southern
awareness and emotion?
A. Narcotics 2547. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and
B. Stimulants other highly modern devices.
C. Depressants a. Transnational crimes
D. Hallucinogens b. white collar crimes
2538. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous c. modern crimes
Drugs Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for d. cyber crimes
Other Purposes. 2548. The following are transnational crimes, except
a. drug trafficking
A. RA 9165 b. gun smuggling
B. RA 1956 c. money laundering
C. RA 9156 d. illegal recruitment
D. RA 1965 2549. The following countries comprises the Golden
Triangle, except
2539. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug a. Thailand
incidents? b. Laos
A. Reclusion Perpetua c. Myanmar
B. Life Imprisonment d. Vietnam
C. Death 2550. A term used to describe a place where trafficked
D. Fine person are brought and forced to become prostitutes.
a. sweat shops
2540. Who is the primary author of RA 9165? b. hotels
A. Sen. Ramon Revilla c. brothels
B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago d. motels
C. Sen. Joker Arroyo 2551. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group?
D. Sen. Tito Sotto a. Khaddafy Janjalani
b. Hashim Salamay
2541. These are the requirements during the conduct of c. Abdurajack Janjalani
actual buy-bust operations. d. Nur Misuari
A. poseur buyer
B. marked money 2552. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light
C. all of the choices came into being before the automobile was in use?
D. none of these A. No
2542. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money B. It depends
for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by C. Sometimes
RA 9165. D. Yes
A. employee 2553. In planning for a traffic control program, which of the
B. caretaker following is NOT a factor to consider
137 | P a g e
A.model of cars and vehicles
B.existing road /highway system
C.incidence of traffic accidents
D.traffic congestion hazards
2554. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident
what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police
investigator.
A.Conduct each interview separately
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are
not biased
C.Listen to both sides
D.Conduct the interview jointly
2555. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection
at the same time who shall yield the right of way as a
general rule
A. The driver on the left
B.The faster vehicle
C.The driver on the right
D. The slower vehicle
2556. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow
moving vehicles should use the:
A.lanes 2 and 3
B.outer lanes
C.inner lanes
D.either the inner or outer lanes
2557. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left
side, except when-
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an
obstruction
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming
motor vehicles
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic
way
2558. The double solid white line:
A.doesn’t allow lane changing
B.allows overtaking
C.allows lane changing
D.allows parking
2559. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking
for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
vehicles and roadway condition.
A. Apprehension
B. Adjudication
C. Defection
D. Prosecution
2560. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are
present, EXCEPT:
A to avoid continues violation
B. offense committed is serious
C. the violator will not attend in court
D. involved in vehicular accident
2561. The following are the good ways of searching the
scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT:
A.look over the grounds at what seems to be
the point of collision
B.follow the path that the vehicle took in
leaving the scene
C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
D.established the identity of the vehicles
2562. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
investigation, EXCEPT
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
B.Gassesses the situation and call for
assistance
C.care to the injured and protect their
property
2462
2563. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is
to:
A.Look for the key event that causes the
accident
B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
C.Consider violations as primary causes and
any factors as secondary causes
D.Consider road conditions as limiting
conditions rather as causes
2564. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
of the assessed value of a building.
A. single family dwellings
B. department store
C. hospitals
D. schools
2565. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane is
for right turn only:
A.Two headed arrow
B.Arrow pointing to left
C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.The arrow is pointing to the right
2566. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
keeping in full view of traffic:
A. Stationary
B. Visible
C.Conspicuous
D. Inconspicuous
2567. Licensed person allowing limited number of
passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
A. Operator
B. Driver
C.Conductor
D. Pedestrian
2568. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an
object with which it has collided; the force between the
object ceases at this time.
A. Stopping
B. Disengagement
C. Maximum Engagement
D. Initial Contact
2569. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is
sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other
circumstances.
A. Skid Mark
B.Scuff Marks
C.Skip skid
D. Gas Skid
2570. The place and time after or beyond which accident
cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
A.point of no escape
B.point of Possible Perception
C.Perception Delay
D.Any of the above
2571. Main cause of human trafficking.
a. lack of employment opportunities
b. poverty
c. corruption in government
d. organized crimes
138 | P a g e

2572. Meaning of the phrase Abu Sayyaf 2581. It is a type of anomie wherein an individual does not
a. Holder of the sword accept the cultural goal but accepted the institutional
b. Founder of the sword means of achieving it?
c. Bearer of the sword a. Innovation
d. Keeper of the sword b. Retreatism
2573. The other name given to the UN Convention Against c. Rebellion
Transnational Crimes d. Ritualism
a. Palerna Convention 2582. It is referred to as oldest and biggest criminal
b. Paterno Convention organization in the world.
c. Palermo Convention a. Mafia
d. Paderno Convention b. Yakuza
2574. A prostitute who solicits customers in public places is c. Chinese Triad
called d. Cali Cartel
a. street walker 2583. The name given to a person afflicted with a mental
b. Johns. illness wherein he is sexually aroused by young children.
c. call boy. a. Pedophile
d. whore. b. pervert
2575. Placement is also called as c. Maniac
a. heavy soaping d. Pedophilia
b. banking
c. immersion 2584. The former and original name of the Mafia
d. spin dry. a. Sicilian Clan
2576. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting tattoos in almost b. Code of Omerta
all parts of their bodies. The reason is c. Mafiosi
a. their white bodies are very good materials to d. La Cosa Nostra
make drawings. 2585. Moslem who participated in the Afghan war are
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on referred to as
their bodies. a. Jihadis
c. they delight in showing theother members their b. Fundamentalists
tattoos. c. Mujaheddins
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the d. Holy warriors
group. 2586. Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA
2577. The initiation of the Chinese Triad consists of a. Jose Mari Chan
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a b. Jose Maria Sison
photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his c. Jose Marie Gonzales
palm while reciting his oath to the organization. d. Jose Maria Sioson
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed 2587. A member of the Bar refers to this profession
animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath an a. judges
arch of swords while reciting his oath to the b. investigators
organization. c. lawyers
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three d. prosecutors
fingers while reciting his oath. 2588. The year the UN Convention Against Transnational
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed Crimes was held.
animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a a. 2000
saint will be burned on his palm while reciting his b. 2002
oath. c. 2001
2578. What do the Yakuza do with their tattoos? d. 2003
a. Cover them as they are sacred. 2589. The founder of the Moro Islamic Liberation Front
b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos. a. Nur Misuari
c. They undress only inside their house. b. Khadaffy Janjalani
d. They only undress during oicho kabu. c. Hashim Salamat
d. Abdurajack Janjalani
2579. What OPLAN was created by the PNP as their
campaign against most wanted persons and other 2590. The founder of the Moro National Liberation Front
fugitives? a. Nur Misuari
a. Oplan Cleansweep b. Khadaffy Janjalani
b. Oplan Criminal c. Hashim Salamat
c. Oplan Pagtugis d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
d. Oplan Batas 2591. In the strategy of terrorist, what is used for the
2580. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a person who people, government and the world to know their aims?
accepts the cultural goals to become rich but failed to a. Television
accept the institutional means of achieving it. b. Newspaper
a. Rebellion c. Radio
b. Retreatism d. All of the choices
c. Conformity 2592. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
d. Innovation a. Abu Sayaff
139 | P a g e

b. Hezbollah a. Yasser Arafat

c. Fatah b. Abu Nidal
d. Hamas c. Osama Bin Laden
2593. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group d. Mohammad Alzawari
responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA. 2605. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the State and
a. Hezbollah Protect the People from Terrorism,”
b. Al Qaeda a. RA 9372
c. Fatah b. RA 9732
d. Hamas c. RA 9273
2594. South America country principal source of cocaine. d. RA 9237
a. Brazil 2606. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of
b. Spain force to achieve a political end.
c. Columbia I. terrorism
d. Chile II. violence
2595. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah III. felony
a. Israel IV. criminal act
b. Gaza Strip 2607. Who formally organized the Kuratong Baleleng?
c. Lebanon I. Francisco Manuel
d. West bank II. Franco Calanog
2596. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy. III. Fidel Ramos
a. organization IV. Fajardo Sebastian
b. faction
c. cell
d. station 2608. An organized crime in the Philippines which is made
2597. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US up of former MNLF and MILF rebels.
destroyer USS Cole in Yemen I. A.Lexus Group
a. Hezbollah II. B.Pentagon Group
b. Hamas III. C.Abu Sayyaf
c. Al Qaeda IV. D.Ilonggo KFR Group
d. Fatah 2609. The largest and most powerful triad.
I. A.Su Yee On
II. B.14K
2598. One of the most important components of terrorist- III. C.Wo Shing Wo
related investigations is the collection and preservation of IV. Sham Shui Po
what? 2610. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head of the
a. physical evidence chinese triads?
b. witnesses I. A.438
c. information II. B.49
d. all of these III. C.489
2599. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wire Tapping Law.” IV. D.426
I. RA 4200 2611. What do you call the act of lending money in
II. RA 4002 exchange of exorbitant interest?
C. RA 2004 I. Tax evasion
D. RA 4020 II. Revolutionary tax
2600. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. III. Sokaiya
a. Holy War IV. Loansharking
b. Holy Mass 2612. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino?
c. Holy Cow a. common
d. Holy Ghost b. prohibited
2601. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda c. regulated
a. Yasser Arafart d. unusual
b. Osama Bin Laden 2613. What is the penalty of a person using a diplomatic
c. Abdurajack Janjalani passport in importing prohibited drugs inside the country?
d. Abu Nidal I. A.8-12 years
2602. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries II. B.life imprisonment to death
a. M16 III. C.40 years to life imprisonment
b. AK47 IV. all of the above
c. M14 2614. What are the two divisions of Criminalistics?
d. Galil a. Physiacl and metallurgical
2603. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or b. Scientific and technological
country. c. Biological and physiological
a. Transnational d. Biblical and Astrological
b. national 2615. What is secreted by the endocrine glands which
c. international trigger and control many kinds of bodily activities and
d. none of them behavior?
2604. The most wanted terrorist in the world. a. A.Tears
140 | P a g e

b. B.Hormone 2625. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes

c. C.Blood hallucinations and changes our perception, thought,
d. Sweat emotion and consciousness and physical function
2616. Who among the following has the authority to conduct a. stimulants
examination of a deceased person? b. Depressants
a. A.Medico Legal prober c. Hallucinogens
b. B.Medical Justice d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. C.Medico Legal Officer 2626. The following countries which considered as
d. Medical Scientist GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top
supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
a. Vietnam
2617. These are the three fold aims of the criminal b. Iran
investigator, EXCEPT: c. Afghanistan
I. to identify the guilty party d. Pakistan
II. to provide evidence of his guilt 2627. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a
III. to locate the guilty party Drug Free Country in year___?
IV. to file charges at the proper court a. 2035
2618. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is b. 2025
assigned to each subdivision of a quadrant. Tax evasion c. 2030
a. zone method d. 2020
b. spiral method 2628. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the
c. wheel method participation of the community.
d. strip method a. Oplan lambat sibat
2619. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to b. operation private eye
give the distances from two mutually perpendicular lines. c. operation public eye
common d. oplan galugad
a. surveying methods 2629. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight
b. cross projection against drug trafficking.
c. rectangular coordinates a. Oplan lambat sibat
d. polar coordinate b. operation private eye
2620. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, c. operation public eye
and it is usually determines the success of the d. oplan cleansweep
investigation.
a. rapport 2630. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant
b. personality portion of house was being damaged.
c. breadth of interest a. Consummated arson
d. the approach b. Attempted arson
2621. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with c. Frustrated arson
this, purposely to develop rapport with the subject, either d. No crime
the victim or suspect. 2631. When a person sets fire to his own property under
I. opening statement what circumstances which expose to danger of life or
II. inquiry of subject property of another.
III. narration a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
IV. sympathetic approach property
b. Arson
2622. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental c. malicious mischief
and physical function d. no crime
a. stimulants 2632. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of
b. Depressants his prayer.
c. Hallucinogens a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
d. Narcotics/ Opiates property
2623. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically b. Arson
potent pain killers/ cough suppressants c. malicious mischief
a. stimulants d. no crime
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens 2633. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in
d. Narcotics/ Opiates combating organized crime and terrorism.
2624. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional a. family
nervous activity. b. school
a. stimulants c. NGO
b. Depressants d. Community
c. Hallucinogens 2634. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China
d. Narcotics/ Opiates wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed
a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Beijing square massacre
c. Tienanmen massacre
141 | P a g e

d. Tienanmen square massacre a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
2635. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City,
the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
a. Quezon City d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
b. Pasig City 400k
c. Manila 2645. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
d. either of the above choices facilitate proper sketch orientation.
2636. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous a. Proper north
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. b. True north
a. Buy bust operation c. Legend
b. Instigation d. Compass direction
c. entrapment 2646. A search method in which the searchers follow each
d. planting evidence other in the path of the coiled beginning from the outside
2637. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as proceeding toward the center.
Intelligence_______. a. Zone method
a. Invalidate b. Wheel method
b. unsolved c. Spiral method
c. success d. Strip method
d. failure 2647. Taking into custody property described in the search
2638. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be warrant as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence
suicidal or accidental it should be treated as? in a case.
a. Homicide case a. Seizure
b. Suicide case b. Detention
c. Murder case c. Safekeeping
d. Any of the choices d. Confiscation
2639. What is the penalty when a person bringing into 2648. A method of criminal identification whereby
country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals
passport. are identified by depiction.
a. Life imprisonment a. Verbal description
b. Life imprisonment-death b. General photographs
c. death c. Police line up
d. no penalty because of immunity d. Rouge gallery
2649. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
a. Sprinkler
2640. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to b. Fire pump
corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and c. Fire hose
communication system d. Hydrant key
a. hacking 2650. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a
b. Trojan result of its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid
c. virus drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
d. intellectual property a. Dust
b. Oxidizing material
c. Pyrolysis
2641. The vehicles should not parked at these area. d. Cryogenic
a. Private driveway 2651. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at
b. intersection which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
c. pedestrian lane continuous combustion.
d. fire hydrant a. Ignition temperature
e. all the choices b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
2642. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to d. Flash point
appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable 2652. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a
reason? vapor-air mixture that ignites.
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment a. Ignition temperature
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment b. Kindling temperature
c. Life imprisonment c. Fire point
d. Death d. Flash point
2643. Most important equipment in traffic accident 2653. Minimum temperature in which the substance
investigation? in the air must be heated in order to initiate or
a. cellphone cause a self-contained combustion without the
b. camera addition of heat from outside sources.
c. Manila a. Boiling point
d. All of the choices b. Ignition temperature
2644. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams c. Fire point
shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated. d. Flash point
142 | P a g e

2654. An exothermic chemical change in which a 2665. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent. destructive capabilities is developed.
a. Thermal balance a. Initial phase
b. Thermal imbalance b. Incipient phase
c. Combustion c. Free burning phase
d. Oxidation d. Smoldering phase
2655. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. 2666. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
a. Pyrolysis a. The fire triangle
b. Combustion b. The fingerprint of the fire
c. Detonation c. Flashover
d. All of the foregoing d. Incipient phase of the fire
2656. A chemical decomposition of matter through the
action of heat.
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion 2667. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combus-
c. Detonation tible portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
d. Oxidation characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and
2657. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area flames.
of the material with unit temperature gradient. a. Flashover
a. Conduction b. Backdraft
b. Thermal conductivity c. Thermal balance
c. Radiation d. Thermal imbalance
d. Fission 2668. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire,
2658. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
space or materials as waves. a. Flashover
a. Conduction b. Backdraft
b. Convection c. Thermal balance
c. Radiation d. Thermal imbalance
d. Fission 2669. Which among the following is the primary objective in
2659. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose investigating fires?
with a motive. a. To determine its cause
a. Providential fire b. To prevent recurrence
b. Accidental fire c. To determine liable persons
c. Intentional fire d. All of the foregoing
d. None of the foregoing 2670. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
2660. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in a. It does not conform with regular investigative
the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. procedure
a. Arson b. Unavailability of witnesses
b. Providential fire c. Fire destroys evidence
c. Accidental fire d. All of the foregoing
d. None of the foregoing 2671. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
2661. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, a. Providential
tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and fire. b. Accidental
a. Nitrogen c. Intentional
b. Hydrogen d. Incendiarism
c. Oxygen 2672. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat
d. Neon and oxygen.
2662. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to a. Fire
start a fire. b. Origin of fire
a. Fuel c. Fire triangle
b. Oxygen d. All of the foregoing
c. Heat 2673. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
d. None of the choices a. Fuel
2663. Refers to gases liberated by heat. b. Heat
a. Free radicals c. Oxygen
b. Flash point d. Gas
c. Thermal balance 2674. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
d. Thermal imbalance medium either gas or a liquid.
2664. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke a. Conduction
and fire gases within a building or structure under natural b. Convection
conditions. c. Radiation
a. Free radicals d. Fission
b. Pyrolysis 2675. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
c. Thermal balance a. Specific heat
d. Thermal imbalance b. Latent heat
c. Heat of Combustion
143 | P a g e

d. Heat of fusion d. All of the foregoing

2676. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or 2687. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material.
natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air. a. Spontaneous heating
a. Carbon black b. Combustible gases
b. Lamp black c. Combustible dust
c. Soot d. None of the choices
d. Black bone 2688. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials
2677. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed to start a fire.
vapor as a result of combustion. a. Plants
a. Fire b. Trailers
b. Flame c. Accelerants
c. Heat d. Wick
d. Smoke 2689. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
2678. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. a. Abatement
a. Fire b. Combustion
b. Flame c. Allotment
c. Heat d. Distillation
d. Smoke
2679. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been 2690. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to increase mental
contained. and physical function
a. Backdraft a. stimulants
b. Flashover b. Depressants
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning c. Hallucinogens
d. Falling debris d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2691. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and medically
2680. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
indicates the burning of what material? a. stimulants
a. Rubber b. Depressants
b. Nitrogen products c. Hallucinogens
c. Asphalt singles d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Chlorine 2692. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs reducing functional
2681. Which among the following is commonly used in fire nervous activity.
resistant materials? a. stimulants
a. Asbestos b. Depressants
b. Diamond c. Hallucinogens
c. Asphalt d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Cotton
2682. A form of static electricity of great magnitude 2693. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs that causes
producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the hallucinations and changes our perception, thought,
most common cause of providential fires. emotion and consciousness and physical function
a. Rays of the sun a. stimulants
b. Spontaneous heating b. Depressants
c. Arcing c. Hallucinogens
d. Lighting d. Narcotics/ Opiates
2683. Most common source of accidental fire is related to: 2694. The following countries which considered as
a. Smoking GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also considered as world’s top
b. Arcing supplier for opium. Which of the choices does not belong.
c. Sparkling a. Vietnam
d. Overloading b. Iran
2684. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within c. Afghanistan
the room or throughout the structure. d. Pakistan
a. Accelerant 2695. According to PDEA goal that Philippines’ will be a
b. Plants Drug Free Country in year___?
c. Trailer a. 2035
d. Wick b. 2025
2685. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a c. 2030
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. d. 2020
a. Accelerant 2696. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit drugs with the
b. Plants participation of the community.
c. Trailer a. Oplan lambat sibat
d. Wick b. operation private eye
c. operation public eye
2686. Most common reason of arson cases. d. oplan galugad
a. Revenge 2697. In the PNP what campaign was created to fight
b. Profit against drug trafficking.
c. Competition a. Oplan lambat sibat
144 | P a g e

b. operation private eye 2707. What is the penalty when a person bringing into
c. operation public eye country of illegal drugs using diplomatic channel or
d. oplan cleansweep passport.
a. Life imprisonment
2698. A fire just started only a very small or insignificant b. Life imprisonment-death
portion of house was being damaged. c. death
a. Consummated arson d. no penalty because of immunity
b. Attempted arson 2708. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to
c. Frustrated arson corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and
d. No crime communication system
a. hacking
2699. When a person sets fire to his own property under b. Trojan
what circumstances which expose to danger of life or c. virus
property of another. d. intellectual property
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of 2709. The vehicles should not parked at these area.
property a. Private driveway
b. Arson b. intersection
c. malicious mischief c. pedestrian lane
d. no crime d. fire hydrant
2700. Burning of house was due to lightning as a result of e. all the choices
his prayer. 2710. What is the penalty when a police officer failed to
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of appear in court to testify in a drug case without justifiable
property reason?
b. Arson a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
c. malicious mischief b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
d. no crime c. Life imprisonment
2701. It can effectively assist law enforcement agencies in d. Death
combating organized crime and terrorism. 2711. Most important equipment in traffic accident
a. family investigation?
b. school a. cellphone
c. NGO b. camera
d. Community c. Manila
d. All of the choices
2702. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, China 2712. What is the penalty when less than 5 grams of
wherein the pro-democracy protesters was killed shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
a. Tiananmen square massacre a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
b. Beijing square massacre
c. Tienanmen massacre b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. Tienanmen square massacre c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
2703. A case of reckless imprudence occurred at Pasig City, 400k
the offender is a resident from Manila while the victim from e.
Quezon City. Where the case should be filed? 2713. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers of God”.
a. Quezon City a. Abu Sayaff
b. Pasig City b. Hezbollah
c. Manila c. Fatah
d. either of the above choices d. Hamas
2704. It is a willfully and maliciously placing any dangerous 2714. The most notorious and sought after terrorist group
drugs to implicate person to drug related crime. responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
a. Buy bust operation a. Hezbollah
b. Instigation b. Al Qaeda
c. entrapment c. Fatah
d. planting evidence d. Hamas
2715. South America country principal source of cocaine.
2705. September 11, 2001 tragedies is known as a. Brazil
Intelligence_______. b. Spain
a. Invalidate c. Columbia
b. unsolved d. Chile
c. success 2716. Country which is 2/3 controlled by Hezbollah
d. failure a. Israel
2706. In investigation wherein a Death appearing to be b. Gaza Strip
suicidal or accidental it should be treated as? c. Lebanon
a. Homicide case d. West bank
b. Suicide case 2717. The smallest terrorist group in its hierarchy.
c. Murder case a. organization
d. Any of the choices b. faction
145 | P a g e

c. cell 2728. It is the study of human society, its origin structure,

d. station functions and direction.
2718. Terrorist group responsible for the bombing of the US a. criminology
destroyer USS Cole in Yemen b. sociology
a. Hezbollah c. psychology
b. Hamas d. anthropology
c. Al Qaeda 2729. The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
d. Fatah a. free will
2719. One of the most important components of terrorist- b. positivism
related investigations is the collection and preservation of c. atavism
what? d. somatology
a. physical evidence 2730. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity
b. witnesses in explaining the cause of crime.
c. information a. geographical approach
d. all of these b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
d. psychological application
2731. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
criminology.
2720. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. a. retribution
a. Holy War b. rejection
b. Holy Mass c. reformation
c. Holy Cow d. restoration
d. Holy Ghost 2732. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the
2721. Founder of the terrorist group Al Qaeda behavior of the criminal.
a. Yasser Arafart a. entomology
b. Osama Bin Laden b. penology
c. Abdurajack Janjalani c. phrenology
d. Abu Nidal d. criminology
2722. Standard rifle of socialist and communist countries 2733. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result
a. M16 of armed conflict.?
b. AK47 a. war
c. M14 b. treatment
d. Galil c. evacuation
2723. Terrorist group that operates within a single state or d. education
country. 2734. Science concerned with improving the quality of
a. Transnational offspring.
b. national a. criminology
c. international b. eugenics
d. none of them c. genetics
2724. The most wanted terrorist in the world. d. heredity
a. Yasser Arafat
b. Abu Nidal
c. Osama Bin Laden
d. Mohammad Alzawari 2735. Commonly known as victimless crime:
2725. It can be defined as the use of force of the fear of A.occassional crime
force to achieve a political end. B.political crime
I. terrorism C.public order crime
II. violence D. conventional crime
III. felony 2736. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
IV. criminal act unattended.
2726. The largest and most powerful triad. a. abandoned child
I. Su Yee On b. dependent child
II. 14K c. abusive child
III. Wo Shing Wo d. neglected child
IV. Sham Shui Po 2737. The principle that events including criminal behavior
that has sufficient causes..
2727. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in a. atavism
conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private b. narassism
citizens is termed as: c. determinism
d. positivism
A.Arrest 2738. An established and generally accepted moral values
B.Initialcontact refer to.
C.Childcustody a. integrity
D. All of the above b. morality
c. ethical standard
146 | P a g e

d. authority d. 154.7
2739. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality. 2750. In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes
a. split mind committed. If the population was 62 million what was the
b. psychosis crime rate?
c. neurosis a. 139.6 b. 193.6
d. schizoprenia c. 136.9
d. 163.9
2740. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate 2751. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
events? crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were reported
A.mass murder to the police?
B. serial killer a. 20, 250
C.homicidal b. 32, 644
D. spree killer c. 22, 068
2741. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank, d. 22, 858
flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in 2752. If the 128 murder cases in City B represent 40% of
flight diving a chase would be an example of: the total murder cases in the province, what is the total
value for murder cases province wide?
A. Serial Murder a. 120
B. Spree Murder b. 420
C. Mass Murder c. 430
D. Multiple Murder d. 340
2742. What is the legal term for nighttime? 2753. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result
A. sanctuary of the frustration and anger people experience over their
B.absurdity inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
C. ephitomy a. strain theory
D. nocturnity b. psychological theories
2743. These are the rights of an accused that are derived c. differential association theory
from special laws enacted by Congress. d. labeling theory
A. Constitutional rights
B. Civil rights 2754. This theory suggest that stability and changes in
C.Statutoryrights criminal and deviant behavior through time and different
D. Natural rights stages in life.
2744. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total A. Self Derogation Theory
crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported B. Anomie Theory
to the police? C. Life Course Theory
a. 22, 868 D. Routine Activities Theory
b. 22, 068 2755. This theory suggest that females and males are
c. 20, 250 becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
d. 32, 644 education
2745. What is the antonyms of the word arrest? A. Feminist Theory
A. Apprehend B. Paternalism
B. Search C. Liberation Theory
C. Set free D. Life Course Theory
D. Renounce 2756. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father
2746. How many members composed the “Pangkat?” and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power
A. 1 member C. 2 members in the family
A. Feminist theory
B. 3 members B. Egalitarian family
D. 4 members C. Patriarchal family
2747. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in D. Matriarchal family
2011. What was the percent increase? 2757. These views suggest that males such as judges,
a. + 22.2% police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional
b. + 20.2% views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as
c. + 22.0% compared to their male counterparts.
d. + 20.1% A. Paternalism
2748. If the population in municipality A is 195, 000 and the B. Chivalry Hypothesis
crime volume is 2, 540, what is the crime rate? C. Masculinity
a. 1230.6 D. Power Control Theory
b. 1465.2 2758. This new branch in criminology opposes the
c. 1302.6 theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of
d. 1203.5 all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
2749. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes reported to the A. Peacemaking Criminology
police. If the 2011 population was 63 million what was the B. Sociology of Law
crime rate? C. Restorative Justice
a. 147.5 b. 145.7 D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
c. 143.4
147 | P a g e

2759. This crimes are those that the lower class commit c. Victimology
against the upper class of society in a capitalist system d. Criminal Sociology
A. Crimes of Passion 2770. An act or omission in violation of the public law
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance commanding or forbidding it.
C. Crimes of domination and Repression a. Crime
D. Crimes of Lower class group b. Felony
2760. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the c. Offense
A. Proletariat d. Infraction of law
B. Bourgeois 2771. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
C. Capitalist _____________.
D. Ruling class a. Culpa
2761. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked b. intent
communism as a remedy? c. Fault
A. George Vold d. both a and c
B. Karl Marx 2772. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit,
C. Emile Durkheim EXCEPT:
D. Max Weber a. Intelligence
2762. This theory believes that society is divided into two c. Freedom
groups with competing values the upper class and lower b. Intent
class. d. Negligence
A. Class Theory 2773. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to identify her
B. Differential Opportunity assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the
C. Conflict Theory hospital where she was declared dead on arrival, This
D. Consensus Theory crime is called,
2763. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been a. complex crime
released from the system are placed in a program simply b. simple crime
because the program exist. c) instant crime
A. Diversion Movement d) situational crime
B. Intervention 2774. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making
C. Net widening deception through verbal communication. She had
D. Primary Deviance committed estafa to several persons through illegal
2764. The term criminology was originally derived from recruitment. What crime according to result did she
Italian word: committed?
a. crimen a. acquisitive crime
b. criminologo b. extinctive crime
c. criminologia c) instant crime
d. criminologie d) situational crime
2765. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the 2775. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the
society to prevent and repressed them? commission of a crime.
a. Crime a. criminal victim
b. Criminology b. criminal psychiatry
c. Victimology c. victimless crime
d. Criminal justice d. victimology
2766. The study of Criminology involves the use of 2776. It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s
knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of external manifestation in relation to criminality.
study which makes the study of criminology: a) Epidiomology
a. Dynamic b) Criminal Psychiatry
b. Nationalistic c) Criminal psychology
c. Social science d) Physical anthropology
d. An applied science 2777. A crime can be classified according to its stages of
2767. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the commission. What crime is committed when the offender
relationship between criminality and the inhabitants of a merely commences the execution of an offense by overt
certain locality: act but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
a.Ecology execution which would produce the felony by reason of
b) Demography some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance?
c) Epidiomology a. Attempted crime
d) Physical anthropology b. Consummated crime
2768. It is the study of human society, Its origin, structure, c. Frustrated crime
functions and direction. d. Complex crime
a. Sociology 2778. It is the process by which individual reduce the
b. Criminology frequency of their offending behavior as the age
c. Psychology increases.
d. Anthropology a. doing gender
2769. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation. b. aging out
a. Criminology c. criminal reduction
b. Criminal Etiology d. active precipitation
148 | P a g e

2779. Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code a. road rage
according to their gravity. What crime to which the law b. hate crime
attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties. c. mass murder
a. grave felonies d. serial murder
b. less grave felonies 2789. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
c. light felonies a. Margaret Juke b. Ada
d. complex felonies Kallikak
2780. What crimes according to the time or period of the c. Ada Juke
commission are those which are committed only when the d. Ada Edwards
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission 2790. It refers to an study showing the relationship between
like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place. the physical built of a person to his personality structure
a. seasonal crimes and the type of offense he is most prone to commit
b. instant crimes a. physiognomy b)
c. situational crimes somatotype
d. continuing crimes c. phrenology
2781. There are crimes that are committed within a certain d) psychology
length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts 2791. It is a proposal of a double male or super male
in a lengthy space of time? syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra
a. static crime Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and
b. instant crime aggressive.
c. situational crime a. XYY syndrome b XXY
d. episoidal crime syndrome
2782. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
are committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means syndrome
for living are what crimes? 2792. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
a. Rational crimes delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
b. Irrational crimes from one generation to the next taking place mostly
c. Blue-collar crimes among disorganized urban areas.
d. White collar crimes a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
2783. It is that element of intentional felony which means Phenomenon
that the person who committed the felony has the capacity c. Crime
to distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully d) Delinquent behavior
understands the consequences of his actions: 2793. In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed
a. intelligence as manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
b. imprudence either with the prince of darkness or an expression of
c. intent divine wrath.
d. freedom a. Classical theory
2784. A psychological disorder in which a child shows b. positivist theory
developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity c. Demonological theory
and lack of attention. d. neo-classical theory
a. psychotism 2794. An attempt to determine intelligence and personality
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder on the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
c. neuroticism a. Physiognomy
d. KSP disorder b. palmistry
2785. The commission of criminal acts using the c. Craniology
instruments of modern technology such as computers or d. Somatotype
the internet. 2795. It involves the measurement of facial and other body
a. cyber sex characteristics as indicative of human personality.
b. cyber crime a. Physiology
c. computer crimes b. somatotype
d. computer hacking c. Physiognomy
2786. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed d. Palmistry
to bring financial gain to the offender. 2796. According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or
a. organized crime body built which have relationships to personality
b. economic crime characteristics are the following, EXCEPT:
c. cyber crime a. Ectomorph
d. profit crime b. extomorph
2787. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term c. Endomorph
is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”. d. Mesomorph
a. violence 2797. A type of violent offender who uses violence as a
b. revolution means of perpetrating the criminal act:
c. guerilla a. Culturally violent offender
d. rebel b. pathologically violent offender
2788. The killing of a large number of people over time by c. Criminally violent offender
an offender who seeks to escape detection. d. d. situationally violent offender
149 | P a g e

2798. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of a. Cesare Beccaria

etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises b. Cesare Lombroso
from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and anti- c. Emile Durkheim
social components of his personality? d. Enrico Ferri
a. Acute
c. Chronic 2808. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free
b. neurotic Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally
d. normal retardate persons or those with some psychological
2799. Criminals can also be classified according to this imbalances and personality disorders or physical
behavioral system. What are those criminals who have disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby
high degree of organization that enables them to commit citing said theory as one of crime causation.
crime without being detected and usually operates in a a. Classical Criminology
large scale? b. Positivist Criminology
a. ordinary criminals c. Neoclassical Criminology
b. professional criminals d. Social Structure Theory
c. situational criminals 2809. This refers to the act of killing a large number of
d. organized criminals people in a single violent outburst.
2800. A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are a. Road rage
acquainted with each other. b. serial killing
a. statutory rape c. Mass murder
b. date rape d. mass destruction
c. marital rape 2810. A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves
d. acquaintance rape sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often
2801. According to Lombroso, these are physical torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the a. Masochism
general population and are throwbacks to animals or b. bestiality
primitive people. c. Sadism
a. physical deviations d. Incest
b. distinguishable traits 2811. A sexual relationship between persons closely related
c. atavistic stigmata by blood.
d. ape-like appearance a. Incest
2802. It is the most essential part of the definition of the b. sadism
criminal law: c. Masochism
a. elements d. rape
b. penalty 2812. These are violent acts directed toward a particular
c. degree of evidence person or members of group merely because the targets
d. motive share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
characteristics.
2803. The concept that conduct norms are passed down a. Violent crimes
from one generation to the next so that they become b. hate crimes
stable within the boundaries of a culture. c. Copy-cat crimes
a. heredity d. victimless crimes
b. inheritance 2813. A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated
c. cultural transmission violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by
d. DNA subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually
2804. Group of urban sociologists who studies the intended to influence an audience.
relationship between environmental conditions and crime. a. Rebellion
a. classical school b. piracy
b. chicago school c. Terrorism
c. neo-classical school d. little war
d. positive school 2814. It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might
2805. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws: inhibit the exercise of free will.
a. Drakon a. Classical theory
b. the Hittites b. neo-classical
c. Solon c. Sociological
d. Hammurabi d. positivist
2806. He said that individuals are like human calculators. 2815. These are crimes committed by a person of
Before a person commits a crime, he first analyzes respectability and high social status in the course of
whether the satisfaction he would gain is greater than the occupation.
possible negative effect he would have to suffer if the gets a. Blue collar crimes
caught doing the crime: b. crime of the upper world
a. Cesare Beccaria c. White collar crimes
b. Cesare Lombroso d. crime of the underworld
c. Edwin Sutherland 2816. Public order crime is otherwise known as:
d. Jeremy Bentham a. Violent crimes
2807. Who stated that crime is normal in a society? b. economic crimes
150 | P a g e

c. Organized crimes 2825. A term that used to describe motorists who assault
d. victimless crimes each other.
2817. The law that provides Board Examination for a. road rage
Criminologists in the Philippines. b. predation
a. R.A. 6975 c. hate crime
b. R.A. 8551 d. serial murder
c. R.A. 6506 2826. This theory argues that intelligence is largely
d. R.A. 8353 determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and,
2818. Criminals who have a high degree of organization to that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to
enable them to commit crimes without being detected. behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Professional criminals a. Nature Theory
b. ordinary criminals b) Psychological theory
c. Organized criminals c) Strain Theory
d. expert criminals d) Labeling theory

2819. Who among the following are the “Holy Three in 2827. The theory which states that attachment, connection
Criminology”? and link to society will determine whether a person shall
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria commit a crime or not:
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri a. social control
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri b) social disorganization
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso c) social bond
2820. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____ d) social learning
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a 2828. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The
different sets of conduct norms. severity of the punishment should be commensurate with
a) Emile Durkheim the seriousness of the crime.
b) Andre Michael Guerry a. restorative justice
c) Thorsten Sellin b. jus desert
d) Abraham Maslow c. utilitarianism d.
equality of punishment
2821. This school of thought in criminology states that 2829. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls
although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain
that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause functioning.
them commit crimes: a. hyperglycemia
a) neo-classical b. hyperglycomia
b) utilitarianism c. hypoglycemia
c) classical d. hypoglycomia
d) positivist 2830. This school on crime causation emphasized economic
2822. This theory reflects the way people react to a given determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality
situation based on the social influences they acquired from among all citizens. They provided statistical data which
other people that practically determine their behaviors. claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
This theory likewise serves as the learning process of associated with variations in economic conditions.
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most a. Cartographic School
important theory in crime causation. b. Socialist School
a) Social Disorganization theory c. Psychiatric School
b) Culture Conflict theory d. Chicago School
c) Differential Association Theory 2831. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This
d) Social Reaction Theory was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
2823. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the personality that is characterized by an inability to learn
loss of order in a society. from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
a. synomie better known as:
b) anarchy a. psychotic personality
c) anomie b. psychopathic personality
d) chaos c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox

2824. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states 2832. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
and that those with weaker personalities tend to get and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as
influenced easier by those with stronger personalities: pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Emile Durkheim b)
Adolphe Quetelet a. Disorganization Theory
c) Gabriel Tarde b. Culture Conflict Theory
d) Enrico Ferri C.Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
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2842. It is otherwise known as the decline in criminal

2833. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per activities together with the time.
month. It is the theoretical basis which determines the a. Birth cohort
peace and order situation. b. aging out phenomenon
a. index crimes c. Criminal aging
b. crime rate d. crime rate
c. non-index crimes 2843. He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and
d. crime statistics punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness
2834. The Idea that low female crime and delinquency rates shared by the greatest number of people.
are a reflection of the leniency which the police treat a. Utilitatrianism
female offenders. b. Jeremy Bentham
a. Doing gender c. Felicific Calculus
b. masculinity hypothesis d. Cesare Beccaria
c. Chivalry hypothesis
d. pre-menstrual syndrome 2844. The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother,
2835. A stage of development when girls begin to have which occurs during the third year from birth is known as:
sexual feeling for their fathers. a. Oedipus Complex
a. Oedipus complex b. Inferiority Complex
b. doing gender c. Electra Complex
c. Electra complex d. Incest
d. chivalry hypothsis 2845. Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through
2836. The legal principle by which the decision or holding in series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This
an earlier case becomes the standard by which crime is classified as:
subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means “to a. Instant crime
stand by decided cases”. b. episoidal crime
a. jus desert c. Situational crime
b. stare decisis d. seasonal crime
c. story decisis 2846. The following are the characteristics of the Classical
d. just stare School of Criminology:
2837. This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that I. The basis of criminal liability is human free
people are law abiding but under great pressure, they will will and the purpose of penalty is retribution
resort to crime. II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
a. strain theory absolute free will to choose between right
b. social learning and wrong.
c. cultural deviance III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-
d. anomie criminals because of their physical
2838. The first IQ test was developed by a French deviations.
psychologist named: IV. That every man is therefore responsible for
a. Rafael Garofalo his act.
b. Albert Bandura
c. Walter Reckless a. I, II, III are correct.
d. Alfred Binet b. I, III, IV are correct.
2839. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he c. II, III, IV are correct.
concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related d. I, II, IV are correct.
to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to 2847. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the
use the term “moron”. exercise of free will.
a. Robert Dugdale a. Classical theory
b. Henry Goddard b. positivist theory
c. Eaenest Hooton c. Neo-classical theory
d. Charles Goring d. radical theory
2840. This theory focuses on the development of high crime 2848. His great contributions to criminology were the
areas associated with the disintegration of conventional principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
values caused by rapid industrialization, increased a. Cesare Beccaria
migration and urbanization. b. Jeremy Bentham
a. Cultural Deviance Theory c. Cesare Lombroso
b. Differential Association Theory d. Emile Durkheim
c. Social Disorganization Theory 2849. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired
d. Strain Theory the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop
the theory of atavism.
2841. A societal stage marked by normlessness in which a. Cesare Lombroso
disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion. b. Charles Goring
a. Social disorganization c. Cesare Beccaria
b. Anomie d. Charles Darwin
c. Strain 2850. According to him, people with criminal behavior,
d. Synomie should be prohibited from having children.
a. Robert Dugdale
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b. Henry Goddard c. Mitigating

c. Charles Goring d. Aggravating
d. George Wilker 2859. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
2851. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and liability.
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act a. Exempting
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the b. aggravating
actor. c. Justifying
a. Containment Theory d. Mitigating
b. Theory of Imitation 2860. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Manila
c. Social Process Theory City Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
d. Social Reaction theory ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
2852. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. loitering?
a. Born-criminal type a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. insane b. Yes under the principle of retroactive
c. Criminaloid effect of criminal law
d. pseudo-criminal c. No, for the act was done prior to the
2853. These are crimes which are wrong from their very effectivity of the law.
nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other d. No, for A did not loiter again.
violations of the Revised Penal Code. 2861. His theory was that God did not make all the various
a. Heinous crimes species of animals in two days, as what the bible says but
b. mala in se rather that the species had evolved through a process of
c. Serious crimes adoptive mutation and natural selection which led to his
d. mala prohibita conclusion that man was traced to have originated from
2854. These are crimes which are wrong only because the apes.
there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an a. Jeremy Bentham
orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of b. Charles Darwin
special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. c. Prince Charles
a. Mala prohibita d)Charles de Gaulle
b. less grave felonies 2862. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
c. Mala in se of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
d. light felonies upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute
2855. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
nulla poena sine lege” means: studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern
a. An act done by me against my will is not and Empirical Criminology”.
my act a) Cesare Beccaria
b. There is no crime where no law b) Edwin Sutherland
punishing it. c) Cesare Lombroso
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. d) Jeremy Bentham
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. 2863. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
2856. He was the one who introduced the following of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute
regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern
laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”: and Empirical Criminology”.
a) Raffaelle Garofalo a) Cesare Beccaria
b) Edwin Sutherland b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria c) Cesare Lombroso
d) Paul Topinard d) Jeremy Bentham
2857. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill. 2864. Which of the following is NOT included in the
It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not components of criminal justice system of the United
he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical States?
Theory in giving punishment is________________. a. Law enforcement
a) Restoration b. Corrections
b) Treatment c. Prosecution
c) Retribution d. Courts
d) Deterrence 2865. The power of the state to give any form of charity of
public nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that
youthful offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim
2858. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the of improper care and that the state is duty bound to
commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, provide protection.
without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty a. positivism
provided by law for the offense. b. loco parentis
a. Justifying c. patria potestas d.
b. Exempting parens patriae
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2866. Under the law, they are the one responsible for I. Treats the child with excessive
preventing the child from becoming addicted to harshness of cruelty.
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel
any harmful practices. or example
a. DSWD III. Compel the child to beg
b. Parents IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions.
c. state a. I and II only
d. police c. I and III only
2867. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have b. I, II, III and IV
been commenced upon: d. I, II and III only
a. birth of the child 2875. Who among the following is considered as “Child in
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday Conflict with the Law”?
c. from the time of his conception a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
d. upon reaching the age of majority b. Yang who is 10 years old.
2868. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
the legal guardian of the child even though the parents of d. anyone of them
the child are still alive when the best interest of the said 2876. Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are
child so require. most beneficial for the child.
a. adopter a. child as zone of peace b. nation
b. loco parentis building
c. guardian ad litem c. best interest of the child
d. temporary guardian d. presumption of minority
2869. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is 2877. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in
exempt from criminal liability unless: relation to the persons and property of their an
a. he is committed a henious crime unemancipated child.
b. he is the principal accused a. Paretal authority
c. he acted without discernment b. Patria Potestas
d. he acted with discernment c. Parens’ Patriae
2870. The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be d. Parental Responsibility
prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT: 2878. A person of such age is automatically exempted from
a. mendicancy criminal liability but should be taken to the custody and
b. sniffing of rugby care of his parents, DSWD representative or any
c. prostitution institution engage in child caring.
d. theft a. 15 years and below
2871. A child left by himself without provisions for his b. under 18 years of age
needs/or without proper supervision falls under what c. under 15 years of age
special category of a child? d. under 21 years of age
a. abandoned child 2879. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child
b. abused child by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
c. neglected child a. illegitimate
d. dependent child b. legitimated
2872. In the absence of death of both parents of the child c. legitimate
who shall continue to exercise authority over the child? d. adopted
I. Surviving grand parents 2880. In case of separation between parents of the child, a
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of child of such age is given by the court the preference to
age choose between either parents.
III. Surviving parents of child a. under 9 years of age
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 b. 7 years of age
years of age. c. 10 years of age
a. I, II and IV only d. 5 years of age
b. I and II only 2881. Refers to aggregate of persons working in
c. I, II, III only commercial, industrial and agricultural establishments or
d. all of the above enterprises whether belonging to the labor or management
2873. Is a self-association of peers, bound together by whose primary duty is to care for the welfare of the
mental interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a working children.
specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal a. civic association of adult
activities and control over a particular territory, facility or b. community
type of enterprises. c. Samahan
a. Juvenile gang d. youth association
b. Organized criminal 2882. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
c. a bond a. death of the parents
d. street corner gang b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
2874. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds d. All of the choices
that the parent: 2883. Which of the following is the best way for the police to
win youth’s trust and confidence?
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a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good
and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a
person in authority
2884. A child born inside a marriage where either party is
suffering from an impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
2885. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody
of a child who committed an offense by the law
enforcement officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
2886. This common procedure applied when arresting an
offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is
the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
2887. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
conditions which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and most
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development. It also means the least
detrimental available alternative for safeguarding the
growth and development of the child.
a. Child at risk
b. Best Interest of the Child
c. Full development.
d. Child welfare program
2888. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall
be determine in the absence of proof what principle shall
be observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced
pending such issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to
prove his age.
2889. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability
to respond to repeated physical and psychological
violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome
2890. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion
program without necessity of court intervention on the
following:
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committee is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more
than 12 years imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime
committed does not exceeds 12 years
imprisonment.
2891. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict
with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall:
A. Pronounce its judgment;
B. Wait for the application for suspension of
sentence of the child and order his turn over to
DSWD.
C. Automatically place the child in conflict
with law under suspension of sentence.
D. Determine the civil liability and order the
final discharge of the child in conflict with the law.
2892. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age
of 18 while under suspended sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence;
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with
the law;
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain
period or to its maximum age of 21.
D. Any of the above choices
2893. All records and proceedings involving children in
conflict with the law from initial contact until final
disposition of the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part
of the public record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential
2894. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18 th
birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with
greeting to herself. How will you classify Mona as an
offender?
a. juvenile offender
b. habitual offender
c. adult offender
d. none
2895. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile
delinquency when parents find it hard to balance their
jobs with their parental responsibilities
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
d. it is only within the family that a child must
learn his life values
2896. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street
24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods
given by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him
at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro
as a child?
a. neglected child b.
independent child
c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
2897. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by
her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a
victim?
a. an adult
b. an insane
c. a child
d. an adolescent
2898. It is the act of buying and selling children:
a. exploitation
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b. prostitution a) the person trafficked is an elderly

c. abuse b) the person trafficked is a woman
d. trafficking c) the person trafficked is a special child
2899. This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether d) the person trafficked is a child
habitual or not: 2909. This refers to any word or deed which debases,
a. exploitation degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the
b. abuse child as human being.
c. prostitution a. eglect
d. trafficking b. psychological abuse
2900. Children are declared as ____________ in situations c. sexual abuse
of armed conflict: d. cruelty
a. priorities for evacuation
b. exemptions 2910. The following person are liable for child prostitution,
c. zones of peace EXCEPT:
d. shields a. those who act as procurer of child
2901. This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her prostitute
personal services or those of a person under his or her b. children recruited as prostitutes
control as security or payment for a debt, when the length c. managers or owners of the establishment
and nature of services are not clearly defined: where the prostitution takes place
a. debt bondage d. clients of child prostitute
b. involuntary servitude 2911. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and
c. abuse coercing of children as actors or models in printed
d. slavery pornographic materials:
2902. A working child below fifteen years old may be a. indecent shows
allowed to work for only _______ hours per day: b. child prostitution
a. eight c. obscene publication
b. four d. child exploitation
c. five 2912. The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and
d. six purposes of human trafficking:
2903. Publication of photographs of persons or children in a. R.A. 9344
various obscene or indecent poses meant to cause sexual b. R.A. 7610
excitement to those who will see them is a form of: c. R.A. 9208
a. adult entertainment d. R.A. 8043
b. illegal publication
c. obscene material 2913. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when
d. pornography the trafficked person is a child.
2904. Employers shall provide an opportunity for education 2nd. As a general rule, children below 15
to all working children up to this level: years of age shall not be employed.
a. elementary
b. college a. Both statements are correct.
c.secondary b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is
d. vocational incorrect.
2905. In employing children, the employment contract must c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is
be signed: correct.
a) by the Department of Labor and d. Both statements are incorrect.
Employment 2914. The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their Children
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer Act of 2004”:
c) by the child’s parent or guardian a. R.A. 9262
d) and notarized by a Notary Public b. R.A. 7610
2906. In cases of working children, this has the duty of c. R.A. 9208
securing the permit from the Department of Labor and d. R.A. 9344
Employment: 2915. It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the
a. parents woman or her child resulting to the physical and
b. working child psychological or emotional distress.
c. manager a. stalking
d. employer b. economic abuse
2907. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to c. battery
cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as d. sexual violence
but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and 2916. This includes the employment, use, inducement or
repeated verbal abuse: coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or
a. battery lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or
b. psychological incest with children.
c. sexual a. sexual abuse
d. physical b. physical abuse
2908. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified b. psychological abuse
when: d. cruelty
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2926. This form of child abuse includes lacerations,

2917. Refers to a program organized by travel fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and serious bodily
establishments and individuals which consist of packages harm suffered by a child:
or activities, utilizing and offering escort and sexual a. psychological
services as enticement for tourists. b. emotional
a. prostitution c. physical
b. exploitation d. cruelty
c. sex tourism
d. pornography 2927. This refers to offenses where there is no private
2918. Refers to an intentional act committed by a person offended party:
who knowingly and without lawful justification follows the a. Victimology
woman or her child or places the woman or her child b. public order crime
under surveillance directly or indirectly. c. Victimless crime
a. stalking d. d. both a and c
b. economic abuse
c. battery 2928. This is the Latin term for parental authority:
d. sexual violence a) loco parentis
2919. A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may b) patria potestas
work but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours: c) parens patriae
a) eight d) patria adorada
b) seven 2929. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the
c) ten adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised
d) six trial custody for a period of:
2920. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen a) at least six months
years old may be allowed to work between the hours of: b) not more than six months
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven c) at least one year
to eight o’clock p d) not less than one year
c) six to ten o’clock pm 2930. This refers to the document issued by the court
d) seven to ten o’clock pm signifying the approval of the application for adoption:
2921. It means failure to provide, for reasons other than a) decree of adoption
poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food, b) petition for adoption
clothing, medical care, shelter and basic education c) annulment
a. sexual abuse d) rescission
b. physical abuse 2931. This is the legal age in the Philippines:
c. psychological abuse a) twenty-one
d. neglect b) seventeen
2922. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman c) eighteen
financially dependent. d) twelve
a. stalking 2932. A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily
b. economic abuse committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child
c. battery placement agency and is free from parental authority:
d. sexual violence a) child legally available for adoption
b) legally-free child
2923. No child shall be employed as a model in any c) emancipated child
advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the following: d) abandoned child
2933. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as
II. pornographic materials but not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and
III. medicines for use of adults repeated verbal abuse:
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling a) battery
a. I, II, III are correct b) psychological
b. II, III, IV are correct c) sexual
c. I, II, IV are correct d) physical
d. I, III, IV are correct 2934. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen
2924. The law that provides special protection of children years old may be allowed to work between the hours of:
against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination. a) six to eight o’clock pm
a. R.A. 7610 b) seven to eight o’clock p
b. R.A. 9208 c) six to ten o’clock pm
c. R.A. 9231 d) seven to ten o’clock pm
d. P.D. 603 2935. Emancipation takes place when:
2925. The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor. a) the parents decide to emancipate him or
a. R.A. 9262 her
b. R.A. 7610 b) the child becomes 18 years old
c. R.A. 9231 c) the child is already married
d. R.A. 9344 d) the child applies for it
d) games and gadgets
157 | P a g e

2936. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic d) civil liability only
suspension of sentence until the maximum age of __: 2946. If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is
a) twenty-three imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be
b) eighteen within the jurisdiction of the ____________:
c) twenty-one a) barangay
d) twenty b) DSWD
2937. In case the child has been found guilty by the court, c) police
he shall be ordered to be transferred to _______: d) court
a) a youth rehabilitation center 2947. Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is
b) a youth detention home over fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the
c) a city or municipal jail child acted with or without discernment is made initially by
d) an agricultural camp the _______:
2938. Preliminary investigation shall only be conducted a) social worker
when the: c) law enforcer
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen b) CICL
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion d) judge
c) CICL acted with discernment 2948. The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict
d) victim filed the complaint with the law lies with the _______:
2939. The law enforcement officer must ensure that all a) social worker
statements signed by the child during investigation are b) law enforcer
witnessed and signed by the following: c) CICL
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker d) judge
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel 2949. The age of full criminal responsibility is:
d) social worker a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
2940. The body search of the child in conflict with the law b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
must be done only by a law enforcement officer: c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
a) who has initial contact d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years
b) assigned to the case old
c) of the opposite sex 2950. It pertains to the document that must be signed by the
d) of the same gender parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the
2941. The first important thing that a law enforcer must do conditions of diversion:
upon initial contact is to ____: a) contract of diversion proceedings
a) know the age of the child b) certification of conciliation
b) notify the local DSWD c) memorandum of agreement
c) call the parents d) contract of diversion
d) make a report 2951. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen
years of age shall be turned over to the
2942. It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in ________________ by the police for the determination of
conflict with the law: appropriate program:
a) testimony of the parents of the child a) nearest police station
b) testimony of the child b) family
c) certificate of birth c) local DSWSD
d) school records d) court
2943. It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the
sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of 2952. The diversion proceedings must be completed within
the child in conflict with the law, whereby the child ____ days:
undergoes rehabilitation within a fixed period under such a) thirty
terms and conditions as may be ordered by the court: b) forty-five
a) probation c) sixty
b) suspension of sentence d) twenty
c) parole 2953. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law
d) pardon is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
2944. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after ____________ of the sentence shall automatically be
conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions suspended:
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation a) imposition
officer: b) determination
a) suspension of sentence c) execution
b) parole d) discharge
c) probation 2954. The ________________ has the right to refuse the
d) pardon diversion program designed for the child:
2945. A child in conflict with the law is exempted from a) offended party
_____: b) parents of the child
a) both criminal and civil liability c) victim
b) neither criminal nor civil liability d) social worker
c) criminal liability only
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2955. When the court decides to execute the suspended c. ego

sentence, the child must be transferred to a: d. Superego
a) youth rehabilitation center 2965. What is the process of interpreting our behavior in
b) youth detention home ways to make it more acceptable to the self usually with
c) agricultural farm the use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real
d) prison cause?
2956. It shall be the duty of the ______________________ a. projection
to make proper recommendation to the court regarding the b. sublimation
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation c. rationalization
while under suspension of sentence: d. Compensation
a) prosecutor
b) social worker 2966. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified
c) lawyer as follows, EXCEPT:
d) judge a. avoidance-approach
2957. All records pertaining to the case of the child in b. avoidance-avoidance
conflict with the law shall remain _______ and ______: c. approach-avoidance
a) privileged and confidential d. approach-approach
b) classified and confidential 2967. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree
c) privileged and restricted manifests what particular defense mechanism?
d) secret and confidential a. repression
b. sublimation
2958. The age of full criminal irresponsibility is: c. displacement
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with d. projection
discernment 2968. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or
b. 18 to 70 years old pathological stealing.
c. 15 years old and below a. kleptomania
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with b. pyromania
discernment c. phobia
2959. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his d. Dipsomania
environment or the way human beings act. 2969. This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction
a. Human Beings to an object or state of affairs at the same time repulsion
b. Learning towards something associated with it.
c. Human Behavior a. avoidance-avoidance
d. Stimulus c. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
2960. Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes d. multiple
exhibited by people because of their inherited capabilities 2970. This is the process of excluding from the
or the process of natural selection. consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain,
a. Inherited Behavior shame or guilt.
b. Inborn Behavior a. identification
c. Learned Behavior b. regression
d. both a and c c. repression
2961. It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to a d. fixation
state of form adjustment and attempt to experience them 2971. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt
again in memory. deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a
a. phobia desirable type of behavior.
b. anger a. rationalization
b. frustration b. sublimation
d. regression c. compensation
2962. Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self d. projection
from _____. 2972. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting
a. anger an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
b. fear a. olfactory
c. pleasure b. Auditory
d. pain c. cutaneous
2963. Human behavior is man’s response to the d. gustatory
interpretation of the ______ from within the person or from 2973. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that is
his environment. a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
a. stimulus a. Neurosis
b. action b. Depression
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. c. Psychosis
inclination d. Anxiety
2964. This personality system controls the gateway to 2974. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
action. a. frustration
a. alter ego b. conflict
b. Id
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c. anxiety 2985. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the

d. Depression evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his
2975. The aggregate observable responses of an organism lack of preparation. This is an example of what type of
to internal and external stimuli. defense mechanism?
a. human behavior a. Reaction formation
b. behavior b. displacement
c. personality c. Sublimation
d. attribute d. rationalization
2976. The process by which behavior changes as a result of 2986. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when
experience or practice. she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an
a. actualization example of what defense mechanism?
b. learning a. Regression
c. thinking b. suppression
d. feeling c. Repression
2977. This type of conflict occurs when there are two d. displacement
desirable but mutually exclusive goals. 2987. Texting while driving is an example of what
a. avoidance-avoidance classification of human behavior?
b. approach-approach a. Habitual
c. approach-avoidance b. symbolic
d. multiple c. Instinctive
2978. This type of conflict when there are two courses of d. complex
action, each of which has both pleasant and unpleasant 2988. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus
consequences. which largely helps to determine the actual behavioral
a. avoidance-avoidance response in a given situation.
b. approach-approach a. Perception
c. approach-avoidance b. awareness
d. multiple c. Sensation
2979. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear d. Learning
of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia 2989. A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is
b. phobia said to be:
c. exaltation a. Psychotic
d. Mania b. ambivert
c. Neurotic
2980. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia. d. angry bird
a. psychoses 2990. He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”.
b. neuroses a. Tom Cruise
c. abnormality b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso
d. Psychopathy c. Sigmund Freud
d. Cesare Lombroso
2981. Hydrophobia is fear of ________. 2991. Coping mechanism is the way people react to
a. Water __________.
b. darkness a. Fear
c. Snakes b. anxiety
d. deep water c. Frustration
2982. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination d. Anger
and regression.
a. psychosis 2992. It can be seen among people who handle their
b. neurosis problems in a very objective way.
c. abnormality a. Coping Mechanism
d. psychopathy b. Direct Approach
2983. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental c. Detour
traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring. d. Withdrawal
a. heredity 2993. The most tolerated way of handling frustration.
b. environment a. Defense Mechanism
c. inheritance b. Direct Approach
d. Introvert c. Detour
2984. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have d. Withdrawal
problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense 2994. A type of defense mechanism whereby a person
mechanism? concentrates in area where he can excel.
a. Fantasy a. Displacement
b. sublimation b. compensation
c. Denial c. Rationalization
d. displacement d. fantasy
160 | P a g e

2995. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by c. sabotage

Pining Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi d. bombing
Chupapi, because of low self-esteem? 3005. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack
a. Identification of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and
b. projection aggression to environment and other people.
c. Fantasy a. schizophrenic personality
d. regression b. psychopathic personality
2996. This refers to an action-producing agent: c. compulsive neurosis
a. Motives d. neurotic personality
b. Drives 3006. Which of the following is not a common tactic in
c. Stimulus terrorism?
d. sensation a. robbery
2997. Human actions in relation to events taking place c. bombing
inside the body such as the brain and the nervous system b. hijacking
is known as: d. kidnapping
a. Neurological 3007. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a
b. psychological person performs an act while sleeping.
c. Cognitive a. somnambulism
d. Humanistic b. mesmerism
c. somnolencia
2998. A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating d. delirium
manifests what particular classification of human 3008. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual
behavior? excitation and gratification.
a. Habitual a. voyeurism
b. complex b. fetishism
c. Instinctive c. pedophilia
d. symbolic d. bestiality
2999. Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards 3009. A person suffers from _____ when he developed a
signify one’s academic achievement. This classification of maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an
human behavior is known as: external influence that later on becomes a part of his
a. Habitual lifestyle and which he uses to relate to the world around
b. complex him.
c. Instinctive a. personality disorder
d. symbolic b. abnormal behavior
3000. Mathematical ability and English communication skills c. personality behavior
are examples of what type of human behavior? d. abnormal personality
a. Learned 3010. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation
b. inborn EXCEPT,
c. Operant a. Preservation of life
d. both a and c b. Arrest of hostage taker
3001. Eating when you are hungry is an example of c. recover and protect property
_______ behavior. d. involve the media
a. Habitual 3011. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
b. complex a. police handling of the situation
c. Instinctive b. negotiation
d. Symbolic c. contact
3002. It is the ability to withstand frustration without d. control of area and people
developing inadequate modes of response such as being 3012. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking
emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or situation is,
becoming aggressive. a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators
a. Frustration Tolerance should not command
b. Frustration Shield b. open the communication at once
c. Frustration Flexibility c. negotiate
d. all of the above d. ask for demands
3003. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up 3013. When both hostage and hostage taker develop a
applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when he mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other
failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage shared stand on issues, leading them to become enemies
because he was under height. This is an example of: of the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Sublimation a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. repression b. Confrontation
c. Substitution c. Negotiation
d. withdrawal d. familiarization
3004. Which of the following items does not belong to the 3014. Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to
group? assault or injure is:
a. prostitution a. need deference
b. assassination b. need aggression
161 | P a g e

c. need recognition a. Anti-social

d. need order b. Psychopath
3015. The need to influence or control others is: b. Schizophrenic
a. need order d. Sociopath
b. need dominance 3025. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and morbid
c. need achievement sense of religious feeling.
d. need exhibition a. mania
3016. A person has _____ when he/she has painful b. mania fanatica
memories associated with some shocking experience b. delusion
which are repressed and cannot be d. legal insanity
recalled.
a. anxiety 3026. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in
b. delusions the male or an inability to achieve it.
c. amnesia a. masturbation
d. phobia b. prostitution
3017. The first step in hostage taking crisis is: c. exhibitionism
a. crowd control d. frigidity
c. negotiation 3027. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual,
b. assault preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by
d. traffic control any technique, other than willing coitus between man and
3018. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place woman and involving actions that are directly results in
pleasure in imagining having sexual relations with newly genital excite.
dead young female bodies who were victims of suicides or a. crime against chastity b. acts
vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio of lasciviousness
commit? c. sexual deviation
a. necrophilia d. sexual offenses
b. rape 3028. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
c. incest Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
d. none a. to accept their beliefs as being true
3019. The most important person in a hostage situation: b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are
a. negotiator wrong
b. hostage taker c. to show them that they are just crazy
c. commander d. to try to bluff or trick them
d. hostage 3029. The following are reasons, why common criminals are
3020. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside easy to negotiate, except:
the bank together with their hostages; their demand is a. fears of police assault and punishment
geared towards: b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
a. revenge c. they are familiar with police operations and
b. economic gain tactics
c. escape d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
d. vindication 3030. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used
3021. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which is_____?
indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown A. Kidnapping
by: C. Bombing
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position B. Assassination
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and D. Extortion
assurance 3031. A personality disorder characterized by
c. by not attempting to trick or lie suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to
you are willing to negotiate blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to
3022. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching ascribe evil motives to others.
nude woman or man. A. Paranoid Personality
a. exhibitionism B. Dependent Personality
b. voyeurism C. Schizoid Personality
c. transvestitism D. Borderline Personality
d. fetishism 3032. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to
form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”.
3023. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack A. Paranoid Personality
of conscience deficient feeling of affection to others and B. Schizoid Personality
aggression. C. Dependent Personality D.
a. schizophrenic personality Borderline Personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis 3033. A personality disorder characterized by instability,
d. neurotic personality reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems.
3024. This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and
the principles upon which society is based. unpredictable.
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A. Borderline Personality B. c. for personal reason

Compulsive Personality d. because of political and ideological belief
C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti- 3043. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for
social Personality death is called;
A. eros
3034. When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental B. animus
and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is C. thanatos
considered as: D. lupus
A. Anxiety Disorder 3044. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but
B. Somatoform Disorder “SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
C. Dissociative Disorder a. the truth will prevail
D. Amnesia b. kill the hostage-taker
3035. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking c. to save lives
situation is, d. save the host
a. commanders should not negotiate, 3045. When a highly trained and motivated group of
negotiators should not command hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were
b. open the communication at once left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
c. negotiate hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
d. ask for demands more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they
3036. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical a. attack them swiftly with precision
and psychic energy, hence: b. withhold the media from the terrorist
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for c. give all their demands
the authorities d. let the hostages killed
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender 3046. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them an airplane/helicopter, what will you do?
down a. go to your ground commander
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender. b. give it with consent
3037. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation. c. talk to him and delay the moment
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker d. assault and kill him immediately
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the
hostages 3047. Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker a. Prostitution
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker b. Bombing
c. Assassination
3038. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies d. Kidnapping
a need: 3048. These are important in a hostage taking situation,
a. interest EXCEPT:
b. perception a. Presence of linguist negotiator
c. motives b. Considerable screening of all members
d. drives c. Dry run or constant practice
3039. It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
plan, policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with 3049. It is the position from which a unit commander and his
sudden violent act of terrorist. staff exercise command over the hostage incident.
a. Crisis management a. command post
b. stress mgt. b. outer perimeter
c. hostage negotiation c. inner perimeter
d. political analysis d. command headquarters
3040. Last option in hostage crisis: 3050. It is an assault team responsible in carrying out
a. crowd control b. assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
negotiation a. Negotiation Team
c. traffic control d. b. Medical Team
assault c. Tactical Team
3041. It is any incident in which people are being held by d. Response Team
another person or persons against their will, usually by 3051. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the Manual of 2010, this group should immediately be
perpetrator. activated in case of hostage situation:
a. kidnapping a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. crisis management b. Civil Disturbance Management
c. hostage incident Team
d. abduction c. Crisis Management Task Group
3042. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take d. PNP Command Post
hostages: 3052. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest ranking PNP officer
a. by reason of mental illness who first arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis.
problems
163 | P a g e

Having decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the C. Seven

objectives are as follows, except one: D. Six
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed,
and set free. 3061. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile Justice System in
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding the Philippines.
to the demands of the hostage takers. A. RA 9344
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. B. RA 10630
d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by C. RA 10627
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm D. RA 8960
3053. Which of the following is considered least among 3062. It is one of the most important assets of the nation.
terroristic tactic? Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his
a. noise barrage welfare and enhance his opportunities for a useful and
b. assassination happy life.
c.bombing A. Teenager
d.kidnapping B. Kid
3054. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator C. Child
should not: D. Youth
a.give his name 3063. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under
b. give his rank and designation what agency of the government?
c.give in to all demands A. Department of Justice
d.look friendly or accommodating B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
3055. The highest ranking field commander should not also C. Department of Tourism
be the chief negotiator because: D. Department of Interior and Local Government
3064. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or
a. hostage takers will be afraid to the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a
b. he is not authorized to grant concessions public or private custodial setting, from which the child in
c. of conflict of interest as mediator and conflict with the law is not permitted to leave at will by
decision maker order of any judicial or administrative authority.
d. hostage takers will not trust him A. Apprehension
3056. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used B. Confinement
terrorist tactic where target are often police, military C. Deprivation of Liberty
officials or political figures? D. Incarceration
a.Hijacking
b. Ambush 3065. It refers to any organization whose members are 21
c.Assassination years or older which is directly or indirectly involved in
d. Kidnap for Ransom carrying out child welfare activities and programs.
3057. The stage of advance planning, organization and A. NGO
coordination and control in response to an anticipated B. Youth association
future crisis occurrence is called C. Youth organization
a. Proactive Crisis Management D. Civic organization
b. Reactive Crisis Management
c. Performance Stage 3066. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with
d. Reaction Phase the law shall be conducted in the presence of the
following, EXCEPT.
3058. A comprehensive plan which delineates A. Child’s counsel of choice
responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called C. Child’s relative
a. Floor plan D. Child’s parents
b. Bomb threat plan
c. Drill 3067. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the
d. Contingency plan Protection of Children in the formulation and
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
3059. the crime charged against a child in conflict with the programs in the If community.
law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will A. Women and Children Protection Desk
determine whether diversion is necessary? B. Local Government Unit
A. The Police C. Sangguniang Kabataan
B. The Prosecutor D. Local Social Welfare and Development
C. The Court 3068. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence
social structures.
D. The Barangay Chairman A. Biogenic approach
3060. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the B. Sociogenic approach
law enforcement officer shall immediately but not later C. Psychogenic approach
than hours after apprehension, turnover custody D. All of these
of the child to the Social Welfare and Development Office. 3069. It refers to a person whose behavior results with
A. Nine repeated conflict with the law.
B. Eight A. Delinquent
164 | P a g e

B. Habitual delinquent 3078. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
C. Juvenile functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity
D. Recidivist as to require professional help or hospitalization?
3070. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period A. Mentally Ill Children
shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon. B. Physically Handicapped Children
A. 3 Months C. Emotional Disturbed Children
B. 5 Months D. Retarded at Maturity
C. 4 Months 3079. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
D. 6 Months becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
3071. These are undesirable conditions in the community A. Social delinquent
which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. B. Accidental delinquent
A. Gambling Houses C. Asocial delinquent
B. Recreational Facilities D. Neurotic delinquent
C. Vice Dens 3080. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or
D. Attractive Nuisances seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or
3072. This view asserts that children who started delinquent made to beg in the streets or public places, or when
careers early and committed violent acts throughout their children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling,
adolescence would likely to continue as adults. prostitution, or other vices.
A. Culture conflict A. Physically Neglected Child
B. Persistence B. Emotionally Neglected Child
C. Containment theory C. Psychologically Neglected Child
D. Reflective role taking D. Sexually Neglected Child
3073. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 3081. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile
years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed
is often referred to as? annually by Local Government Unit and its result shall be
A. Socialized delinquent submitted by the provincial and city governments to the
B. Truant Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council not later than of what
C. Criminal date of every year?
D. Youth offender A. February 28
3074. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates B. April 30
youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have C. March 30
behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the D. May 30
appropriate care for them or recommending their 3082. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with
permanent treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this
agencies? classification are only slightly retarded and they can
A. Rehabilitation Center usually get by in regular classes if they receive some extra
B. Reintegration Center help, guidance and consideration.
C. Reformation Center A. Trainable group
D. Restoration Center B. Custodial group
3075. Which among the following is not part of the rights of C. Educable group
a child in conflict with the law? D. Borderline or low normal group
A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital 3083. It refers to any club, organization or association of
punishment or life imprisonment, without the individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly
possibility of release or indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare
B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, programs and activities.
inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment A. Samahan
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, B. Student organization
of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a C. Sanguniang Kabataan
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the D. Youth association
shortest appropriate period of time 3084. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to
D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments
cases over the life course.
3076. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be A. Culture conflict
considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that B. Social development model
a crime will be committed. C. Differential opportunity
A. Precipitating factor D. Containment theory
B. Environmental factor 3085. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75,
C. Biologic factor and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾
D. Predisposing factor of that expected of a normal child of the same
3077. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that chronological age.
give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may A. Trainable group
report the same to what agency? B. Borderline or low normal group
A. School C. Educable group
B. Neighborhood Association D. Custodial group
C. Barangay Council
D. Church
165 | P a g e

3086. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an
result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance and offense under Philippine laws?
curiosity. A. Juvenile Delinquent
A. Predisposing factor B. Child in Conflict with the Law
B. Environmental factor C. Minor Offender
C. Biologic factor D. Youth Criminal
D. Precipitating factor 3096. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
3087. This is where the molding of the character of the child delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
starts and every member of the family should strive to policies and activities.
make it a wholesome and a harmonious place. A. Philippine National Police
A. Family B. Department of National Defense
B. Home C. Local Government
C. Church D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
D. School 3097. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below
3088. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning 15 Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts A. RA 7610
with governmental and social control agencies and other B. RA 9262
similar variables. C. RA 7658
A. Biogenic approach D. RA 9231
B. Socio-genic approach 3098. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs
C. Psychogenic approach and illicit experiences is stressed.
D. None of the above A. Conflict sub-culture
3089. What program is required for the child in conflict with B. Criminal sub-culture
the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an C. Retreatist sub-culture
offense without resorting to formal court proceedings? D. All of these
A. Diversion 3099. It refers to one with no proper parental care or
B. Community Service guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at
C. Parole least six months.
D. Probation A. Neglected Child
3090. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors B. Deserted Child
and youthful offender through the cooperation of the C. Unattended Child
criminal justice system. D. Abandoned Child
A. Child Justice System 3100. It refers to the programs provided in a community
B. Youth Justice System setting developed for purposes of intervention and
C. Minor Justice System diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict
D. Juvenile Justice System with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or
3091. A category of delinquency which may be credited to community.
peer pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young A. Community Juvenile Programs
person. B. Community Rehabilitation Programs
A. Social C. Community Outreach Programs
B. Accidental D. Community - Based Programs
C. Neurotic 3101. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the
D. Asocial Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
3092. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
an activity. programs in the community?
A. Coercion A. Sangguniang Kabataan
B. Cruelty B. Kabataan Partylist
C. Molestation C. Commission on Human Right
D. Abuse D. National Youth Commission
3093. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of 3102. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends
Children Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and upon the quality and type of education they receive as well
Discrimination Act of 1992. as on the treatment at home and in the community, their
A. RA 6809 I.Q range from about 50 to 75.
B. RA 9344 A. Educable
C. RA 9262 B. Custodial
D. RA 7610 C. Borderline
3094. It asserts that lower class youths with limited D. Trainable
legitimate opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal 3103. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal
career to achieve alternate means universal success pattern of rules and regulations.
goals. A. Recidivism
A. Culture conflict B. Juvenile delinquency
B. Social development model C. Quasi recidivism
C. Containment theory D. Delinquency
D. Differential opportunity 3104. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective
3095. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or
which among the following refers to a child who is alleged watchful and concerned neighbors.
166 | P a g e

A. Clever guardians 3113. Family home type which provide temporary shelter
B. Proficient guardians from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
C. Capable guardians DSWD.
D. Qualified guardians A. Receiving homes
B. Maternity homes
C. Nursery
D. Shelter care institution
3105. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and 3114. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by for which the youth feels no remorse.
himself without provision for his needs and/or without A. Asocial
proper supervision. What classification of neglected child B. Neurotic
is this? C. Accidental
A. Physically Neglected Child D. Social
B. Psychologically Neglected Child 3115. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the
C. Emotionally Neglected Child manner by which an individual reduce the rate of their
D. Sexually Neglected Child aberrant behavior as they age.
3106. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and A. Aging-out
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- B. Decadence
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services C. Desistance
for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and D. Reduction
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development. 3116. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that
A. Child Justice and Welfare the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
B. Youth Justice and Welfare accordance with the Constitution and international
C. Minor Justice and Welfare instruments on human rights?
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare A. National Youth Commission
3107. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard B. Kabataan Partylist
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to C. Commission on Human Rights
their perception or view of how significant others feel D. Sangguniang Kabataan
about them. 3117. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which
A. Reflective role taking results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
B. Culture conflict affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of
C. Persistence conformist society.
D. Containment theory A. Differential opportunity
3108. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the B. Culture conflict
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any C. Containment theory
duly licensed child placement agency or individual. D. Social development model
A. Placement 3118. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some
B. Commitment hereditary defect.
C. Consignment A. Psychogenic approach
D. Entrustment B. Biologic approach
3109. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child. C. Sociogenic approach
A. Abuse D. Biogenic approach
B. Cruelty 3119. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
C. Exploitation authority.
D. Neglect A. Emotional Disorder
3110. High moral principles should be instilled in the child by B. Vagrancy
the following, EXCEPT. C. Truancy
A. Government D. Anti Social Behavior
B. School 3120. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
C. Home defective which restricts their means of action on
D. Church communication with others.
3111. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs A. Physically Handicapped Children
and / or without proper supervision. B. Mentally Subnormal
A. Unattended Child C. Essentially Incurable
B. Neglected Child D. Retarded at Maturity
C. Dependent Child 3121. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon
D. Abandoned Child any knowledge of a child who have been treated or
3112. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of suffered from abuse.
determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, of abuse
economic, psychological or educational background B. Report the incident to the family
without resorting to formal court proceedings. C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
A. Diversion D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
B. Friendly Interview 3122. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against
C. Due Process any violation of R.A. 7610?
D. Preliminary Investigation A. Parents or guardians
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B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree A. Maternity home

of consanguinity B. Hospital
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any C. Rehabilitation center
three responsible citizen D. Foster homes
D. All of the choices 3132. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
3123. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own behavior.
emotion and mood. A. Psychological injury
A. Neurotic B. Mental injury
B. Social C. Physical injury
C. Accidental D. Emotional injury
D. Asocial 3133. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
3124. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
A. Coercion It may take the form of an individualized treatment
B. Abuse program, which may include counseling, skills training,
C. Cruelty education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
D. Molestation psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
3125. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency
and that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both A. Diversion
deviant and conventional values. B. Rehabilitation
A. Swift C. Probation
B. Drift D. Intervention
C. Coast 3134. If children, whether male or female, who for money,
D. Waft profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
3126. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
offender who is arrested more than four times before the sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
age of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an A. Child Abuse
adult criminal. B. Child Trafficking
A. Acute offender C. Child Prostitution
B. Severe offender D. Child Exploitation
C. Chronic offender 3135. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
D. Desperate offender occurring
3127. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do A. Control
so with a permit or clearance issued by: B. Recession
A. The parents C. Repression
B. The guardians D. Prevention
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development 3136. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
D. Any of the choices it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
3128. This refers to children who are unable to cope with defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code,
their family life and chooses to leave the family home. This including a barangay tanod.
is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home A. Police Officer
conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for B. Probation Officer
adventures. C. Law Enforcement Officer
A. Vagrancy D. Public Officer
B. Cheating 3137. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
C. Lying unattended or inadequately attended.
D. Stealing A. Abandoned Child
3129. What is a child caring institution that provides care for B. Abused Child
six or more children below six years of age twenty-four C. Neglected Child
hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily D. Dependent Child
medical and educational services? 3138. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years
A. Nursery old.
B. Detention Home A. Adolescence
C. Day Care B. Early adolescence
D. Maternity C. Juvenile
3130. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and D. None of the above
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, 3139. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which
protection and feelings of security of the child and most deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and custom and culture which society does not accept and
emotional development. which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure in the public interest and it is being committed by minors?
B. Special Protection of Minor A. Juvenile Delinquency
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice B. Minor Delinquency
D. Best Interest of the Child C. Child Delinquency
3131. A place of residence whose primary function is to give D. Youth Delinquency
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
168 | P a g e

3140. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in 3148. Children detained pending trial may be released on
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is bail or as provided for under Sections 34
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the and 35 of RA 9344.
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any A. Probation
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but B. Recognizance
not later than hours after apprehension. C. Parole
A. 8 D. Bond
B. 24 3149. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
C. 12 minor, whether habitual or not?
D. 36 A. Caress
3141. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by B. Abuse
aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any C. Discrimination
person who tries to control his behavior. D. Exploitation
A. Neurotic 3150. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or
B. Accidental whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good
C. Asocial cause desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is
D. Social dependent upon the public of support.
3142. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the A. Abandoned Child
CICL refused to take custody, the child may be release to B. Neglected Child
any of the following, EXCEPT. C. Abused Child
A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious D. Dependent Child
organization 3151. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible
B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay persons from various sector of the community.
Council for the Protection of Children A. Organization
C. A local social welfare and development officer B. Association
D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk C. Club
Officer D. Samahan
3143. It accounts for individual offender by reference to 3152. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short
learning process, which goes on in youth gangs, term resident care for youthful offenders.
stigmatizing contacts with social control agencies and A. Bahay Pag-asa
other variables of that time. B. Nursery
A. Biogenic C. Child caring institution
B. Psychogenic D. Foster home
C. Phatogenic
D. Sociogenic 3153. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated
3144. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, by law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall
and delinquency prevention by relaying consistent constitute at least percent of the earning of the child.
messages through a balanced approach. A. 20
A. The mass media B. 40
B. The family C. 30
C. The community D. 50
D. The educational system 3154. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
3145. What approach towards delinquency views the under the law is:
lawbreaker as a person whose misconduct is the result of A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
faulty biology? B. The undersecretary of DepEd
A. Phatogenic C. The undersecretary of the DILG
B. Biogenic D. The undersecretary of the DSWD
C. Psychogenic 3155. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
D. Sociogenic resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
3146. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain
desirable, the following factors shall be taken into reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the
consideration, EXCEPT. offended and the community; and reassurance to the
offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It
A. The safety of the child also enhances public safety by activating the offender, the
B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged victim and the community in prevention strategies.
A. Restorative Justice
C. The circumstances of the child B. Rehabilitative Justice
D. The best interest of the child C. Reformative Justice
3147. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a D. Reintegrative Justice
child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for 3156. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew by the Department of Social Welfare and Development
violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like. (DSWD), LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs
A. Delinquency monitored by the DSWD, which provides care, treatment
B. Exclusive and rehabilitation services for children in conflict with the
C. Status law. Rehabilitation services are provided under the
D. Grave guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for
169 | P a g e

under a structured therapeutic environment with the end 3165. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the
view of reintegrating them into their families and police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient
communities as socially functioning individuals. Physical to warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged
mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted violator.
pending court disposition of the charges against them. a. Investigator
A. Youth Reformation Center b. judge
B. Youth Reintegration Center c. prosecutor
C. Youth Rehabilitation Center d. solicitor genera
D. Youth Restoration Center 3166. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense
3157. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
the commission of the offense is found guilty of the introducing evidences.
offense charged, shall place the child under a. Clerk of court
. b. judge
A. Recognizance c. sheriff
B. Diversion d. jury
C. Bail 3167. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the executive
D. Suspended Sentence branch of the government.
a. law enforcement (Excutive)
3158. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in b. court
the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program? c. prosecution (Executive)
A. Punong Barangay d. correction (judiciary)
B. BCPC Chairman 3168. This is a governmental body that is charged with the
C. LSWDO responsibility of administering justice.
D. PNP member a. Law enforcement
b. correction
3159. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that c. Prosecution
the most important function of the CJS is the protection of d. court
the public and the repression of criminal conduct. 3169. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether
a. Crime prevention as an individual or as a member of some court,
b. Crime control Government Corporation, board or commission.
c. Law and order a. Agent of person in authority
d. Due process b. Government employee
3160. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of c. Government officer
an individual must be co-equal with the concern for public d. person in authority
safety. 3170. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the
a. Crime prevention Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer
b. crime control of the State or government in criminal cases.
c. Law and order a. law enforcement
d. due process b. court
3161. This concerns to the obligations of the community to c. prosecution
individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common d. correction
advantages and sharing of common burden. 3171. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office
a. Prosecution before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by
b. justice the Barangay Court.
c. equality a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
d. trial b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
3162. This function of the law enforcement is being done c. Certificate to file action
through elimination of factors influencing the occurrence of d. complaint affidavit
crimes, good community relations, educating the citizens 3172. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
about their role, introduction of delinquency prevention government in charged of processing law violators to
programs, good parenting and others. ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of
a. Maintenance of law and order peace and order.
b. Reduction of crime a. Criminology
c. crime prevention b. Criminal Justice
d. crime control c. Victimlogy
3163. This principal character of the criminal justice process d. Sociology
links all components of the CJS. 3173. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
a. Offender commission of a crime and subject of an investigation.
b. Victim a. Convict
c. witness b. respondent
d. Crime c. Accused
3164. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS. d. suspect
a. Prosecution 3174. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules
b. Correction of conduct necessary to protect life and property and to
c. Police maintain peace and order?
d. Court
170 | P a g e

a. Criminal Justice System a. Supreme Court

b. Criminology c. RTC
c. Criminal law b. Court of Appeals
d. Criminal jurisprudence d. MTC
3175. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case 3184. It is otherwise known as the Department of the Interior
which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on December
certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the
possibility of error. PPSC.
a. Preponderance of evidence a. R.A. 6975
b. Clear and convincing evidence b. P.D. 1184
c. substantive evidence c. R.A. 8551
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt d. R.A. 6040

3176. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the 3185. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s,
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the cause oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote
prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a the welfare of the people against all forms of abuse and
lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s entering exploitation.
a guilty plea. a. crime control
a. arraignment b. political parties
b. preliminary investigation c. civil society
c. pre-trial d. volunteer
d. plea bargaining 3186. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the
existence of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen
3177. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the the police work as suppressing the spread of criminality.
country which is under the ________? a. Crime Prevention
a. DOJ b. Crime control
b. DILG c. Criminal apprehension d. law
c. NAPOLCOM enforcement
d. DSWD 3187. Directly under the supervision of the Department of
3178. A person who is under custodial investigation is Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
basically protected by a number of rights mandated under System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law
the constitution and this was even expounded in the through the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the
legislative act known as _______? prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. Miranda Doctrine a. National Prosecution Service
b. R.A. 7438 b. PNP
c. Bill of Rights c. Ombudsman
d. R.A. 6975 d. Solicitor General
3179. A body officially assembled under authority of law in 3188. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more
which judicial power is vested or the administration of municipalities?
justice is delegated. a. MTC
a. court b. MeTC
b. corrections c. MCTC
c. prosecution d. MTC’s
d. law enforcement 3189. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s
3180. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace and own judgment in a given situation without referring to your
order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and property and superior due to the eminence of the situation?
ensure public safety. a. Police resourcefulness b. Police
a. police discretion
b. prosecution c. Police integrity d. police
c. court prudence
d. corrections 3190. It refers to the art or science of identifying law
3181. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation violators, locating and tracing them in order to affect their
and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime. arrest and gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. police a. Crime prevention
b. prosecution b. criminal investigation
c. court c. Crime control
d. corrections d. Intelligence work
3182. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. 3191. An attached agency of the Office of the President
a. R.A. 8294 tasked to implement and undertake drug law enforcement.
b. R.A. 7080 a. Narcotics Command
c. R.A. 1379 b. AID-SOTF
d. R.A. 3019 c. PDEA
d. NBI
3192. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
3183. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses peace officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of
punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
171 | P a g e

the law violated filed either to the court or to the office of c. Judge of MTC
the prosecutor. d. the President
a. Complaint 3201. In flagrante delicto means ______?
b. Information a. caught in the act
c. Pleadings b. caught after commission
d. Affidavit c. instigation
d. entrapment
3193. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether 3202. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
that a crime has been committed and the respondent is referring to the authority or power to hear and decided
probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. cases.
a. preliminary investigation a. Jurisdiction
b. Prejudicial question b. Venue
c. inquest proceeding c. Jurisprudence
d. custodial investigation d. Territory
3203. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the
3194. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases first time to the exclusion of other courts.
punishable by: a. original jurisdiction
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) b. exclusive jurisdiction
day. c. appellate jurisdiction
b. more than four years, two months and one day d. concurrent jurisdiction
c. less than four years, two months and one day 3204. It is the formal reading of the charges against a
d. six years, one day and above person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether
3195. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of the he pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
law in order for him to answer for the commission of an a. arraignment
offense. b. preliminary investigation
a. Arrest c. plea
b. investigation d. promulgation of judgment
c. invitation 3205. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
d. seizure Barangay level.
3196. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and a. barangay tanod
capturing the law breakers in the execution of their b. pangkat tagapagkasundo
criminal plan. c. barangay council
a. Instigation d. lupon tagapamayapa
b. Entrapment 3206. It is the most common way by which the police
c. Investigation discovers or it informed that a crime has been committed:
d. Raid a. When the witness voluntarily reports the
3197. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or crime.
interdependent from any branch of government. b. When the police discovers the crime
a. prosecution c. When the victim reports the crime
b. correction d. When the suspect surrenders
c. court 3207. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
d. community Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
3198. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other
directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did it on members who shall be:
the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the a. more than 10 but less than 20
higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
State in the prosecution of the offense? c. more than 10
a. Chief State Prosecutor d. less than 10
b. Solicitor General 3208. When arrest may be made?
c. National or provincial prosecutor a. At any time of the day and night
d. Judge b. At day time
3199. It refers to the questioning initiated by law c. At night time
enforcement officer after a person has been taken into d. from sun dust till dawn
custody. 3209. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
a. custodial investigation without a warrant?
b. interview a. All of the choices
c. inquest b. When the crime was committed in the presence of
d. interrogation the arresting officer.
3200. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade c. When the crime was in fact been committed and
27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should that the person to be arrest has committed it.
first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
required preliminary investigation. 3210. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
a. Ombudsman attend and to testify or to bring with him any books or
b. Solicitor General documents under his control at the trial of an action.
172 | P a g e

a. subpoena above), which can only be committed because of their

b. subpoena ad testificandum position.
c. subpoena duces tecum a. Court of Justice
d. warrant of arrest b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
3211. The “anti-Plunder Act”. d. Court of Tax Appeals
a. R.A. 7080 3220. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
c. R.A. 3019 signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities
b. R.A. 1379 to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
d. R.A. 6713 a. Commitment Order
3212. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide b. Mittimus
free legal assistance to poor members of society: c. warrant of arrest
a. National Bureau of Investigation d. habeas corpus
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office 3221. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
3213. This is the power to apply the law to contests or with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties convicted offender.
between the state and private persons, or between a. Penology
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the b. Probation
judicial tribunal. c. Correction
a. Judicial Power d. Criminology
b. Judicial Review 3222. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by
c. Court the president. Which of the following is not one of them?
d. Court of Justice a. Pardon
3214. This is the process or method whereby accusations b. Amnesty
are brought before the court of justice to determine the c. Commutation of Sentence
innocence or guilt of the accused. d. Parole
a. Prosecutor 3223. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
b. Prosecution prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to
c. Trial serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose
d. Preliminary Investigation fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
3215. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to a. National prisoner
hear both sides and to come to a decision. b. City prisoner
a. Mediation c. provincial prisoner
b. Settlement d. municipal prisoner
c. Arbitration
d. Agreement 3224. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted
3216. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
of the government? imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word
a. Public Prosecutor _____?
b. Private Prosecutor a. Presinto
c. Prosecution b. Precindio
d. Ombudsman c. presidio
3217. It refers to the “court of last resort”. d. precinto
a. RTC 3225. There are how many members the composed the
b. Sandiganbayan Lupon?
c. Supreme Court a. 3 members
d. MTC b. 5 to 10 members
3218. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, c. 10 to 20 members
which has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on d. 5 members
appeal decisions of the Commissioner of the Internal 3226. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a
Revenue involving internal revenue taxes and decisions of portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons
the Commissioner of Customs involving customs duties. and Parole.
a. Court of Justice a. Pardon
b. Court of Appeals b. Probation
c. Sandiganbayan c. Amnesty
d. Court of Tax Appeals d. Parole
3227. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police
stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before
the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail
b. Ordinary jail
3219. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by c. workhouses
high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27 d. prison
173 | P a g e

3228. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of b. wards

Prisons whereby a number of days are deducted from the c. physically disabled
length of years that a prisoner have been sentenced to d. youth
serve for his good conduct. 3236. Act or omission which may not be punishable if
a. Commutation of sentence committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they
b. Parole are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one
c. GCTA who is in need of supervision or assistance.
d. reprieve a. crime
3229. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into b. status offense
National and Local institution. What Department of the c. delinquency
Executive Branch is the one in charge of the National d. felonies
Penitentiary? 3237. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
a. Bureau of Jail Management and society to prevent and repressed them?
Penology a. Penology
b. Department of Justice b. Victimology
c.Department of Interior and Local c. Criminology
Government d. Sociology of law
d. Bureau of Correction
3238. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which
3230. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the indicates openness and willingness to listen can be shown
transgression of the law. by:
a. penalty a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. self-defense b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
c. exemplarity assurance
d. punishment c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
3231. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional willing to negotiate
institution which primarily in charge of those detention 3239. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation
prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and EXCEPT,
serving short sentences and under the Bureau of Jail a. Preservation of life
Management and Penology. While it is true that even the b. Arrest of hostage taker
Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails are under c. recover and protect property
the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the d. involve the media
__________? 3240. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these,
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. EXCEPT
Department of Justice a. mental derange
c. Bureau of Correction b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
d. Provincial government c. sociopath personality
3232. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving d. mental balance
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
community. 3241. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking
a. Reintegration situation:
b. reincarnation a. guns and ammunition
c. Realization b. drinks
d. Rehabilitation c. foods
3233. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, d. all of the choices
house, papers or effects, or other buildings and premises
to discover contraband or some evidence of guilt to be 3242. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
used in the prosecution of a criminal action: a. bombing
a. Search b. assassination
b. seizure c. hostage-taking
c. Raid d. media exposure
d. entrapment 3243. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense
when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical
3234. This court was established by virtue of PD1083, and psychic energy, hence:
otherwise known as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for
Philippines”. the authorities
a. Court of Tax Appeals b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
b. Shari’a Court c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them
c. Sandiganbayan down
d. Family Court d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
3235. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those 3244. When a highly trained and motivated group of
over but unable to fully take care of themselves from hostage takers asked non-negotiable demands , they were
neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due left with three options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the
to some physical defect or mental disability or condition. hostages and commit suicide; (2) lessen demands to a
a. child
174 | P a g e

more realistic proportions; and (3) surrender. If they c. traffic control

choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is: d. assault
a. attack them swiftly with precision
b. withhold the media from the terrorist 3253. It is any incident in which people are being held by
c. give all their demands another person or persons against their will, usually by
d. let the hostages killed force or coercion, and demands are being made by the
3245. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid perpetrator.
Schizophrenic hostage taker is: a. kidnapping
a. to accept their beliefs as being true b. crisis management
b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are c. hostage incident
wrong d. abduction
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them 3254. The following are the priorities in hostage taking
3246. The following are reasons, why common criminals are situation, except:
easy to negotiate, except: a. preservation of life
a. fears of police assault and punishment b. arrest of the hostage-taker
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers c. inclusion of the media
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics d. successfully negotiate
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender 3255. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
hostages:
3247. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation. a. by reason of mental illness
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the and problems
hostages c. for personal reason
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker d. because of political and ideological belief
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker 3256. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out
assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
3248. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP officer who first a. medical team
arrives in a hostage taking incident. As a rule he serves b. tactical team
now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having c. negotiation team
decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, the d. snipers
objectives are as follows, except one: 3257. This asserts that strong self-image protects the youth
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed from the influence and pressure of criminogenic pulls in
and set free. his environment.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to A. Rational theory
the demands of the hostage takers. B. Conflict theory
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. C. Label theory
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by D. Containment theory
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm 3258. The apprehension or taking into custody of a child in
3249. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management conflict with the law by law enforcement officers or private
practice, it is a “cardinal rule”: citizens is termed as:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker
face to face A.Arrest
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated B.Initialcontact
agreement C.Childcustody
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker D. All of the above
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage 3259. It is the study of human society, its origin structure,
taker functions and direction.
3250. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but a. criminology
“SALVARI VITAS”, which means: b. sociology
a. the truth will prevail c. psychology
b. kill the hostage-taker d. anthropology
c. to save lives 3260. The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
d. save the hostages a. free will
b. positivism
3251. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a hostage negotiation. c. atavism
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker d. somatology
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the 3261. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity
hostages in explaining the cause of crime.
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker a. geographical approach
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
3252. Last option in hostage crisis: d. psychological application
a. crowd control 3262. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
b. negotiation criminology.
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a. retribution C. Mass Murder

b. rejection D. Multiple Murder
c. reformation 3273. What is the legal term for nighttime?
d. restoration A. sanctuary
3263. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the B.absurdity
behavior of the criminal. C. ephitomy
a. entomology D. nocturnity
b. penology 3274. These are the rights of an accused that are derived
c. phrenology from special laws enacted by Congress.
d. criminology A. Constitutional rights
3264. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result B. Civil rights
of armed conflict.? C.Statutoryrights
a. war D. Natural rights
b. treatment 3275. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national total
c. evacuation crime volume of 84, 875, How many crimes were reported
d. education to the police?
3265. Science concerned with improving the quality of a. 22, 868
offspring. b. 22, 068
a. criminology c. 20, 250
b. eugenics d. 32, 644
c. genetics 3276. What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
d. heredity A. Apprehend
3266. Commonly known as victimless crime: B. Search
A.occassional crime C. Set free
B.political crime D. Renounce
C.public order crime 3277. How many members composed the “Pangkat?”
D. conventional crime A. 1 member
C. 2 members
3267. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately B. 3 members
unattended. D. 5 members
a. abandoned child 3278. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods
b. dependent child in the study of society, which to him passes through
c. abusive child stages divided on the basis of how people try to
d. neglected child understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
3268. The principle that events including criminal behavior understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive
that has sufficient causes.. stage and those who followed his writings were called,
a. atavism a. August Comte
b. narassism b. Positivists
c. determinism c. Positivism
d. positivism d. Sociologists
3269. An established and generally accepted moral values 3279. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
refer to. assist destitute litigant?
a. integrity a. Counsel de officio
b. morality b. counsel de parte
c. ethical standard c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. authority d. volunteer counsel
3270. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality. 3280. He represent the government’s position in a criminal
a. split mind case during court proceedings from the time of the
b. psychosis suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of his case.
c. neurosis a. Counsel de officio
d. schizoprenia b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
3271. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate d. prosecutor
events? 3281. What is the highest rank in the national prosecution
service SERVICE?
A.mass murder a. Prosecutor V
B. serial killer b. Prosecutor IV
C.homicidal c. Prosecutor VI
D. spree killer d. Chief Prosecutor
3272. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank,
flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in 3282. The Office of the ____________represents the
flight diving a chase would be an example of: Government of the Philippines, its agencies and
instrumentalities and its officials and agents in any
A. Serial Murder litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the
B. Spree Murder services of lawyers
a. Solicitor General
176 | P a g e

b. Public Attorney’s Office a. barangay tanod

c. Counsel de officio b. barangay council
b. counsel de parte c. pangkat tagpagkasundo
3283. An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own b. lupon tagapamayapa
or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any
public officer or employee, office or agency, when such 3291. It refers the process whereby disputants are
act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or persuaded by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to
inefficient amicably settle their disputes
a. agreement
a. Solicitor General Office b. conciliation
b. Public Attorney’s Office c. conference
c. Ombudsman b. mediation
b. Sandiganbayan 3292. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result
3284. An office which shall independently discharge its of the frustration and anger people experience over their
mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation, inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in a. strain theory
criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-judicial b. psychological theories
cases c. differential association theory
a. Solicitor General Office d. labeling theory
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman 3293. This theory suggest that stability and changes in
b. Sandiganbayan criminal and deviant behavior through time and different
3285. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether stages in life.
there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded a. Self Derogation Theory
belief that a crime has been committed and the b. Anomie Theory
respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held c. Life Course Theory
for trial d. Routine Activities Theory
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding 3294. This theory suggest that females and males are
c. preliminary investigation becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
b. arraignment education
3286. Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to A.Feminist Theory
determine the legality of the arrest made especially those B. Paternalism
arrests made without a warrant C.Liberation Theory
a. custodial investigation D. Life Course Theory
b. inquest proceeding 3295. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father
c. preliminary investigation and mother share similar roles in the workplace and power
b. arraignment in the family
3287. It is the power to apply the laws to contests or a. Feminist theory
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties of b. Egalitarian family
and between the state and the private persons or between c. Patriarchal family
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the d. Matriarchal family
judicial tribunals. 3296. These views suggest that males such as judges,
police officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional
a. court power views on women thus, they are more lenient to them as
b. legal power compared to their male counterparts.
c. judicial power a. Paternalism
b. right power b. Chivalry Hypothesis
3288. It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public officers c. Masculinity
accused of committing crimes in relation to their official d. Power Control Theory
functions and whose salary grade is 27 and above. 3297. This new branch in criminology opposes the
theoretical perspective and proposes the involvement of
a. Solicitor General Office all stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
b. Public Attorney’s Office a. Peacemaking Criminology
c. Ombudsman b. Sociology of Law
b. Sandiganbayan c. Restorative Justice
d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
3289. It is said that the home is the cradle of human 3298. This crimes are those that the lower class commit
personality, for it where the child develops his fundamental against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
attitudes and habits that last throughout his life a. Crimes of Passion
a. school b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
b. community c. Crimes of domination and. Repression
c. barangay d. Crimes of Lower class group
b. family 3299. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
3290. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within a. Proletariat
Barangay level. b. Bourgeois
177 | P a g e

c. Capitalist 3309. These are crimes which are wrong from their very
d. Ruling class nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
3300. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked violations of the Revised Penal Code.
communism as a remedy? a. Heinous crimes
a. George Vold b. mala in se
b. Karl Marx c. Serious crimes
c. Emile Durkheim d. mala prohibita
d. Max Weber 3310. These are crimes which are wrong only because
3301. This theory believes that society is divided into two there are laws that prohibit them in order to regulate an
groups with competing values the upper class and lower orderly society. Examples of these are the violations of
class. special laws like the violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”.
a. Class Theory a. Mala prohibita
b. Differential Opportunity b. less grave felonies
c. Conflict Theory c. Mala in se
d. Consensus Theory d. light felonies
3302. A problem that occurs when offenders who have been 3311. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen
released from the system are placed in a program simply nulla poena sine lege” means:
because the program exist. a. An act done by me against my will is not my act
a. Diversion Movement b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
b. Intervention c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one.
c. Net widening d. Mistake of fact is an excuse.
d. Primary Deviance 3312. He was the one who introduced the following
3303. It conceded factors such as insanity might inhibit the definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of knowledge
exercise of free will. regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It includes
a. Classical theory within its scope the process of making laws, of breaking
b. positivist theory laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
c. Neo-classical theory a) Raffaelle Garofalo
d. radical theory b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria
3304. His great contributions to criminology were the d) Paul Topinard
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus. 3313. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill.
a. Cesare Beccaria It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
b. Jeremy Bentham he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical
c. Cesare Lombroso Theory in giving punishment is________________.
d. Emile Durkheim a) Restoration
3305. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired b) Treatment
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to develop c) Retribution
the theory of atavism. d) Deterrence
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Charles Goring 3314. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
c. Cesare Beccaria commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
d. Charles Darwin without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
3306. According to him, people with criminal behavior, provided by law for the offense.
should be prohibited from having children. a. Justifying
a. Robert Dugdale b. Exempting
b. Henry Goddard c. Mitigating
c. Charles Goring d. Aggravating
d. George Wilker 3315. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
3307. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because liability.
they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and a. Exempting
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act b. aggravating
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the c. Justifying
actor. d. Mitigating
a. Containment Theory
b. Theory of Imitation 3316. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
c. Social Process Theory shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
d. Social Reaction theory a. Maternity home
3308. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with b. Hospital
five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. c. Rehabilitation center
a. Born-criminal type d. Foster homes
b. insane 3317. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
c. Criminaloid severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
d. pseudo-criminal behavior.
a. Psychological injury
b. Mental injury
178 | P a g e

c. Physical injury c. 12
d. Emotional injury d. 36
3318. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to 3326. This concerns to the obligations of the community to
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. individuals, and requires fair disbursement of common
It may take the form of an individualized treatment advantages and sharing of common burden.
program, which may include counseling, skills training, a. Prosecution
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her b. justice
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being. c. equality
d. trial
a. Diversion 3327. A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
b. Rehabilitation a. Stay away from bad associates
c. Probation b. Work regularly to support his family
d. Intervention c. Make periodic office report
3319. If children, whether male or female, who for money, d. Go and play in a gambling den
profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or 3328. Which of the following are the major goals of
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in correction?
sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as… a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
a. Child Abuse b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation,
b. Child Trafficking rehabilitation
c. Child Prostitution c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Child Exploitation d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
3329. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the
offender to remain in the community subject to conditions
3320. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from imposed by the court?
occurring a. Reprieve
a. Control b. Probation
b. Recession c. Commutation
c. Repression d. Parole
d. Prevention 3330. Which of the following is an open correctional
3321. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, institution known to be the best and prison without walls?
it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as a. Davao penal farm
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, b. Sablayan penal colony
including a barangay tanod. c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
a. Police Officer d. Iwahig penal colony
b. Probation Officer 3331. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
c. Law Enforcement Officer a. Davao penal farm
d. Public Officer b. Sablayan penal colony
3322. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
unattended or inadequately attended. d. Iwahig penal colony
a. Abandoned Child 3332. . Under the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
b. Abused Child treatment of Prisoners, which of the following are the two
c. Neglected Child basic principles under rules of general application to
d. Dependent Child prisoners?
3323. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of
old. race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion,
a. Adolescence national or social origin, birth or other status
b. Early adolescence 2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and
c. Juvenile moral rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
d. None of the above 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not
3324. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which their exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, it
custom and culture which society does not accept and 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures and shall be treated as such.
in the public interest and it is being committed by minors? a. 2 and 3
a. Juvenile Delinquency b. 4 and 1
b. Minor Delinquency c. 1 and 2
c. Child Delinquency d. 3 and 4
d. Youth Delinquency 3333. What does classical theory provides?
3325. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is be controlled by regulating the reproduction of
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the families
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but other persons in the process of communication
not later than hours after apprehension. c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
a. 8 penalty disorders
b. 24
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d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his
the purpose of penalty is retribution probation
3334. The theory in criminal causation focuses on the 3344. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail?
criminal disorders, chromosomes irregularity, and a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
abnormal brain activity? b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place
a. Biological c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in
b. Psychological the jail where it is off- limits to inmates
c. Sociological d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official
d. Geological communication, transaction or investigation
3335. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6 3345. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a
months or less? type of offense?
a. National prison a. Grave offense
b. Municipal jail b. Less grave offense
c. City jail c. Not so grave offense
d. Provincial jail d. Minor offense
3336. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. Complex crime 3346. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board
b. Status offense hear and decide the case brought before it?
c. Simple crime a. 24 hours
d. Victimless crime b. 12 hours
3337. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were c. 48 hours
granted the time for their marital sexual obligation. What d. 72 hours
do you call this affair? 3347. Minimum number of time in counting the inmates on
a. Sexual relation daily basis?
b. Conjugal partnership a. Three times
c. Conjugal privilege b. Two times
d. Conjugal visit c. Four times
3338. What institution conducts the training program for d. Five times
uniformed personnel of the BJMP? 3348. What is the duration should the probation officer
a. Fire Training Center submit his post sentence investigation to the court?
b. Philippine National Jail Academy a. 60 days
c. PNP Training Center b. 30 days
d. Jail Management Training Institute c. within 60 days
3339. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his d. 15 days
sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed at 3349. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in
the Reception and Diagnostic Center? the U.S
a. He is a actor and photogenic a. Mathew Davenport Hill
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph b. Edward Savage
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor c. John Augustus
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the d. Teodolo Natividad
reception procedure 3350. When does probation started?
3340. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration a. 1938
is referred to as b. 1841
a. Determinate sentence c. 1896
b. Capital punishment d. 1932
c. Corporal punishment 3351. It is regarded as the most important program that aids
d. Indeterminate sentence in the rehabilitation or prisoners
3341. Which of the following executive clemency needs the a. Recreational program
concurrence of the congress? b. Religious program
a. Pardon c. Educational program
b. Amnesty d. Employment of prisoners
c. Probation 3352. Person who are deemed instrumental on the
d. Parole reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with
3342. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted inmates?
person should serve part of his sentence? a. Chaplain
a. Pardon b. Warden
b. Parole c. Psychologist
c. Probation d. Prison guards
d. Amnesty 3353. Person who are deemed instrumental on the
3343. What should the court do where the accused violated reformation of prisoners due to their daily contact with
the terms and conditions of his probation? inmates?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community a. Chaplain
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his b. Warden
sentence c. Psychologist
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole d. Prison guards
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3354. It is given to prisoners who have returned to their b. Office of the Solicitor General
places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity. c. Trial court
a. Good conduct time allowance d. Appellate court
b. Special time allowance 3365. The court shall resolve the application for probation
c. Visitation privileges for _.
d. Good treatment allowance a. Not later than 60 days
3355. Juan Manalo was convicted by final judgment to serve b. Within 10 days
the term of imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his c. Within 5 days
sixth year of imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the d. Within 15 days
prison and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned the 3366. Pending the submission of the investigation report,
following day, how many years would be deducted from the defendant may be allowed on temporary liberty
his sentence? through_.
a. 4 years a. Release on recognizance
b. 8 years b. Bail
c. 9 years c. Manifestation
d. 11 years d. Cash bond
3356. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment 3367. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_.
would be classified as what kind of prisoner? a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the
a. Municipal prisoner offense committed.
b. Insular prisoner b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
c. Provincial prisoner c. There is undue risk that during the period of
d. Detention prisoner probation the offender will commit another crime
3357. It is one of the forerunners of modern correctional d. All of the choices
system wherein they confine the prisoners in single cell at 3368. The probationer and his probation program shall be
night but allow them to work during the day. under the control and supervision of ___?
a. Auburn system a. Probation officer
b. Pennsylvania system b. Board of pardons and parole
c. Elmira reformatory c. Court
d. None of the above d. All of the above
3358. It is an institution intended to detain or house political 3369. Is the denial of probation appealable?
offenders. a. It depends on the violation
a. Iwahig Penal farm b. Yes
b. Davao Penal Farm c. No
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm d. Partially No
d. Sablayan Prison Farm 3370. Who shall have the control over the probationer once
3359. This forerunner whereby he introduced the theory of the latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of
atavism? another court?
a. Lombroso a. Regional Director
b. Becarria b. Executive judge of the municipal court
c. Ferri c. Executive Judge of the first instance
d. Garofalo d. Appellate court
3360. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of 3371. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an
sentence? imprisonment of six months, how many years would be the
a. Pardon duration of his probation?
b. Appeal a. One year
c. Commutation b. Two years
d. Reprieve c. Shall not exceed two years
3361. It is the deduction of the term of imprisonment due to d. Shall not be more than six years
the convict’s good behavior while serving his sentence? 3372. In the hearing for the violation committed by the
a. Special time allowance probationer, the latter shall have the right to be informed of
b. Parole the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor.
c. Good conduct time allowance This right is in pursuant to his right to ___?
d. Probation a. Equal protection
3362. A writ ordering the confinement of a person in penal b. Presumption of innocence
institution. c. Miranda rights
a. Detention order d. Due process of law
b. Commitment order 3373. What is the effect of the termination of probation?
c. Warrant of arrest a. Erase criminal records
d. None of the above b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as
3363. Who grants probation? a result of conviction
a. Probation officer c. Both A and B
b. Solicitor general d. None of the above
c. Court 3374. Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___?
d. All of the above a. 3 years
3364. Where the application for probation should be filed? b. 1 year
a. Board of Pardons and Parole c. 2 years
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d. 4 years a. Mathew Davenport Hill

3375. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly b. Edward Savage
convicted offenders at the RDC? c. John Augustus
a. 45 days d. Alexander Rice
b. 30 days 3386. He is the first appointed probation officer in the world.
c. 60 days a. Hans Gross
d. 15 days b. Edward Savage
3376. An inherent responsibility of a warden in seeing to it c. John Augustus
that he continually motivates his staff and personnel to d. Benjamin Franklin
perform at their best. 3387. This case paved the way for the abolition of the first
a. Decision making probation law?
b. Control of prison operation and activities a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Personnel program b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
d. Executive leadership c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
3377. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
for at least a minimum period of 5 days to ten days for the 3388. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to applicants.
prevent physical contamination a. Post Investigation Report
a. Reception diagnostic center b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
b. Medical center c. Admission report
c. Quarantine unit d. Post Sentence Investigation
d. None of the above 3389. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must
3378. A writ issued by the court to a correctional facility a judge decide whether to grant or deny the application for
indicating the basis of confinement of a prisoner probation.
a. Mittimus a. 5 days
b. Detention order b. 15 days
c. Warrant of arrest c. 30 days
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus d. 60 days
3379. A code which provides “an eye for an eye, a tooth for 3390. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as
a tooth.” the chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. Code of Babylon a. PNP Chief
b. Code of Kalantiaw b. DILG Secretary
c. Hammurabi code c. DOJ Secretary
d. Bible d. Chief Executive
3380. A French word meaning “word of honor” 3391. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner
a. Pardon maybe checked at anytime.
b. Probation a. Search and seizure
c. Parole b. Confiscation
d. Amnesty c. Inspection
3381. Refers to those who are confined in correctional d. Operation greyhound
facilities awaiting verdict in their cases 3392. These are long, narrow, single decked ships propelled
a. Prisoner by sails, usually rowed by criminals.
b. Detainees a. Hulks
c. Probationer b. Ships of criminals
d. Offender c. Galleys
3382. It is said to be the alternative for jail confinement in d. none of the above
modern penology. 3393. What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable
a. Amnesty inmate?
b. Parole a. One is to one security officer
c. Probation b. One is to three security officers
d. Pardon c. One is to two plus one security officers
3383. He advocated the Irish system which is considered by d. One is to one plus one security officer
many as one of the most famous contributor to the 3394. Offenders who are committed to the jail or prison in
reformatory movement. order to serve their sentence after final conviction of a
a. Z.R. Brockway competent court is known as
b. Alexander Macanochie a. Detention prisoner
c. Ceasar Lombroso b. Sentenced prisoner
d. Walter Crofton c. Provincial prisoner
3384. He is the father of probation in the Philippines d. National prisoner
a. Ferdinand Marcos 3395. Penology came from the latin word “poena” which
b. Manuel Roxas means
c. Teodulo Natividad a. Conviction
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. b. Pain and suffering
3385. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in behalf of c. Punishment
alcoholic and youthful offenders and known as the father d. Deterrence
of probation.
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3396. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an a. Atonement

offending member of the society for the transgression of b. Destierro
the law c. Exile
a. Penalty d. Incapacitation
b. Punishment 3407. The early Roman place of confinement which was
c. Suffering built under the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
d. Any of the above a. Town Gates
3397. When different crimes should be punished with b. Wulnut Street Jail
different penalties, punishment should therefore be c. Bridewell Workhouse
a. Correctional d. Mamertime Prison
b. Legal 3408. What was the most popular workhouse in London
c. Productive of suffering which was built for the employment of English prisoners?
d. Commensurate with the offense a. Borstal prison
3398. An institution for the imprisonment of persons b. Panoptican prison
convicted of major offenses refers to c. Elmira reformatory
a. Jail d. None of the choices
b. Prison 3409. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the
c. Penitentiary daily menu, prepares and cooks food and serve to
d. All of the above inmates?
3399. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 day to 12 years a. General Service Branch
a. Prision correccional b. Mess Service Branch
b. Reclusion temporal c. Budget and Finance Brach
c. Arresto mayor d. Property and Supply Branch
d. Prision mayor 3410. The unit where the prisoner is given thorough physical
3400. A criminal can seek refuge in a church in order to examination including blood test, x-rays, vaccinations and
avoid punishment in a period of ninety days. This refers to immunity for the purpose of insuring that the prisoner is
a. Refuge not suffering from contagious disease?
b. Securing sanctuary a. Rehabilitation Unit
c. Hidden church b. Quarantine Cell
d. Claiming penitentiary c. Medical and Health Center
3401. This were the former warships used to house d. RDC
prisoners in the 18th century and 19th century as means of 3411. Who provides the security system of sound custody,
relieving congestion of prisones refers to security and control of inamtes and their movements and
a. Galleys also responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
b. Hulks a. Administrative Group
c. Gaols b. Security Group
d. Warships c. Rehabilitation Group
3402. In the ancient times, who were commonly subjected d. Medical Group
to harsh punishments?
a. Middle class
b. Black people 3412. What law was passed during the Aquino
c. Slaves administration that renamed the Bureau of Prisons to
d. Any of the above. Bureau of Corrections?
3403. Offenders who were convicted should be kept away a. E.O. 292
from the society for its protection. This is frequently called b. E.O. 229
as c. A.O 262
a. Incapacitation d. E.O. 292
b. Deterrence 3413. Who appoints the Director of Prisons who shall be the
c. Penalization Head of the Bureau?
d. Rehabilitation a. Chief BJMP
3404. What code specified punishment according to the b. Sec. of DILG
social class of the offenders? c. Chief Executive
a. Greek Code of Draco d. Sec. of DOJ
b. Justinian Code 3414. What agency has supervision and control over all the
c. Burgundian Code national prisons or penitentiaries?
d. Akadian Code a. Bureau of Prisons
3405. The establishment of the usefulness and b. Bureau of Correction
responsibility of the offender as a productive individual is a c. Bureau of Jail
punishment justified by d. None of the above
a. Expiation 3415. Which of the following statements is not true?
b. Rehabilitation a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
c. Atonement jurisdiction of the DOJ
d. Retribution b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
3406. The penalty of banishing a person from the place provincial government
where he committed a crime refers to what contemporary c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
forms of punishment supervision of all jails nationwide
183 | P a g e

d. The BJMP is under the DILG work in shops during the day also known as “Congregate
3416. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend? System”.
a. Chief Executive A. Auburn Prison System
b. DILG Sec B. Custody Oriented Prison
c. Chief BJMP C. Pennsylvania Prison System
d. Chief of BUCOR D. Treatment Oriented Prison
3417. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as warden? 3426. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in
a. DILG sec January 1825 and located in New York City.
b. Chief Executive A. Borstal Institution
c. Chief BJMP B. Elmira Reformatory
d. Chief of BuCor C. New York House of Refuge
3418. Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering D. Panoptican Prison
insulting words or languages on the part of prison staff to 3427. One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The
the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of consequence must be in accordance with the law it is a
prisoners. result of a judgment rendered by a court of justice.
A. Degradation A. Equal
B. Corporal Punishment B. Legal
C. Monotony C. Commensurate w/ the offense
D. Mass Movement D. Personal
3419. The public will be protected if the offender has being 3428. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion
held in conditions where he cannot harm others especially Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him?
the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders A. BuCor
in prison so that society will be ensured from further C. BJMP
criminal depredations of criminals. B. PNP
A. Deterrence D. AFP
B. Incapacitation & Protection 3429. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prison Correctional.
C. Retribution What is the duration of his penalty?
D. Atonement A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
3420. C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible B. 6M1D to 6 Y
for the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of D. 1M&1D – 6 M
punishment. 3430. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
A. John Howard A. Old Bilibid Prison
B.Charles Montesquieu B. Manila City Jail
C. William Penn C. NBP
D. Jeremy Bentham D. May Halique Estate
3421. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided 3431. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal Settlement.
prisoners into companies and appointed prisoners as petty A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
officer in charge. B. San Ramon Prison
A. Domets of France C. Sablayan Prison
C. Manuel Montesimos D. New Bilibid Prison
B. Zebulon Brockway 3432. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise admission it meant
3422. What governing law of Aklan and Panay based on the A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level Photograph
of uprightness and morality of the people? B. Examination for Contraband
A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203 C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record
B. Law of the Talion Clerk
C. Kalantiaw Code D. All of These
D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 3433. ____ is the Chairman of the Classification Board in
3423. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves BJMP.
where they were attached to workbenches and forced to A. Assistant Warden
do hard labor in the period of their imprisonment. B. Medical Officer
A. Underground Cistern C. Chief, Security Officer
B. Ergastalum D. Jail Chaplain
C. Sing-Sing Prison 3434. A general agreed principle that women prisoners
D. Alcatraz Prison should be placed in a special building on the same site
3424. It is known as the “Age of Reason of Age of with the men prison.
Enlightment” A. Diversification by Sex
A. 1870 – 1880 B. Segregation
B. 18th century C. Diversification by Age
C. 19th century D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
D. 21st century 3435. What satellite of NBP does RDC is situated?
3425. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
confined in their own cells during the night and congregate B. Camp Sampaguita
C. Main building
184 | P a g e

D. Chapel B. Deputy C/BJMP

3436. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum C. Chief of BJMP
Security Prisoners? D. Chief of Directorial staff
A. Blue 3445. One of the Administrative groups in BJMP responsible
B. Brown for preparation of the daily menu, prepare and cook the
C. Tangerine food and serve it to inmates.
D.Gray A. Mess Service Branch
3437. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del Norte, General B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
Paulino Santos led the first contingent which opened the C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
colony. D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
A. Davao Penal Colony 3446. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of __ for
B. Tagum every offender shall be observed.
C. Panabo A. 1:1+1
D. Kapalong B. 1:2
E. Tanglaw C. 1:7
3438. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the suggestion of the D. 1:500
construction of this penal institution and it was established 3447. When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that
on 1904 through the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is demands extra precaution additional guards shall be
considered a one of the most open penal institutions in the employed
world. A. High Profile offender
A. Iwahig B. Female Offender
B. Tagumpay C. High-risk offender
C. Sta. Lucia D. Either of these
D. Inagawan 3448. If the inmate agrees to abide by the same disciplinary
3439. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, he shall be asked
and Penal Farm. to, manifest his ___ in writing.
I. Central III. Pusog A. Certification
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang C. Agreement
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong B. Manifestation
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan D. Affidavit
IX. Montible X. Central 3449. John was sentenced to serve Arresto Mayor, what
A. I, II, III, IV classification of sentenced prisoner is John classified?
B. V and VI A. Municipal Prisoner
C. VII, VIII, IX & X C. City Prisoner
D. Either of these B. Provincial Prisoner
3440. Convicts committed to BUCOR are brought to RDC for D. Insular Prisoner
a total period of ____ for classification and determination 3450. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate committed for the
of appropriate program. first time. He classified as a ____ among the classification
A. 60 days of inmates according to privileges.
B. 55 days A. 1st class inmate
C. 5 days B. 3rd class inmate
D. NONE C. 2nd class inmate
D. Colonist
3441. One of the components of RDC which is responsible in 3451. What classification of Prisoners according to Degree
the examination of the prisoner’s mental and emotional of Security if the prisoner cannot be trusted in open
make-up. conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum-security
A. Medical Center prisoners in case they escape.
B. Sociologist A. Minimum Security Prisoners
C. Psychologist B. Medium Security Prisoners
D.Psychiatrist C. Maximum Security Prisoners
3442. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was D. Any of the Above
created thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the 3452. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment
Department of Interior and Local Government . imposable to inmates?
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM A. Close Confinement
B. Section 53, RA 6975 B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
C. Section 23 of RA 6975 C. Reprimand
D. Section 60 of RA 6975 D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
3443. X was sentenced to serve with a penalty of Reclusion 3453. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between
Temporal who has the jurisdiction to detain him? ___ in any calendar month provided that this punishment
A. BuCor shall be imposed only in the case of an incorrigible
C. BJMP prisoner when other disciplinary measured had been
B. PNP proven ineffective.
D. AFP A. 30-60 days
3444. All except one is included in the command group of C. 1-7 Days
BJMP B. 1 day
A. Chief of Staff D. NONE
185 | P a g e

3454. All except one are instruments of restraints. A. Wood

A. Handcuffs B. Paper
B. Whipping Rod C. Plastic
C. Leg iron D. Carton
D. Strait Jackets 3465. It is a continuing state of good order.
3455. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison A. Discipline
labor. B. Communication
A. 60 years old C. Morale
B. 56 years old D. Loyalty
C. 50 years old 3466. Unload as method in searching the prisoner for
D. 21 years old possession of contraband’s inside the prison cell and
3456. The _____ may grant GCTA to an inmate for good compound.
behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or A. Frisking
violation of prison rules and regulation. B. Shakedown
A. Director of BJMP C. Operation Greyhound
B. Warden D. Body Frisking
C. President 3467. It is considered as the highest income earner among
D. Director of Corrections the Philippine Correctional Institution.
3457. Inmates earnings that may be used to buy his needs. A. Iwahig Penal Colony
A. ½ of his earnings B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
B. ¼ if his earnings C. Davao Penal Colony
C. ¾ of his earnings D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
D. Discretion of Warden 3468. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
A. Excessive number of inmates
3458. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be denied if the B. Lack of funds
prisoner breaks the rules and only after due process is C. Sex problems
observed. D. Discipline
A. right 3469. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee
B. Privileges who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to
C. Discretion the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is
D. liberty charged with?
3459. A colonist when classified by the director of the A. B.P 85
Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion B. RA 4200
perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction C. B.P. 22
from maximum term of forty years to ___. D. PD 968
A. 20 Years 3470. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another
B. 25 Years to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another
C. 30 Years while under confinement is referred to as
D. 35 Years A. Proselytizing
3460. Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative B. Initiation
is limited to ___ hours. C. Fraternization
A. 3 D. Inducement
B. 9 3471. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling
C. 6 and use of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the
D. 12 lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in
3461. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed Command.
to see the remains of a dead immediate family member? A. 1st group Anti-Riot
A. Minimum Security B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
B.Maximum Security C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot
C. Medium Security D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot
D. None of these
3462. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period 3472. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility
not exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days. and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains.
A. 30 A. 20 kilometer
B. 90 B. 40 Kilometer
C. 60 C. 30 Kilometer
D. 120 D. 50 Kilometer
3463. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of 3473. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a
not less than ____ paces from his charge. Child in Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial
A. 10 Court?
B. 30 A. His sentence serve
C. 15 B. His sentence is suspended
D. 45 C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his
3464. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of family
precaution, the prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made D. His sentence is NOT suspended
of:
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3474. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty equivalent shall 3483. The following are the duties of the custodial force in
be deducted from the inmates sentence if, after the inmate prison, except:
abandoned prison due to disorder arising A. Censor offender’s inmate
A. STA B. Escort inmates
B. GCTA C. Inspect security devices
C. Commutation D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
D.Visitation Privilege 3484. It served as the cornerstone or rehabilitation
3475. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even A. Religion
individuals people conflicts: B. Education
A. Bodong C. Discipline
C. Capic D. Recreational
B. Korte Supremo 3485. Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; ____
D. Hito A. Social degradation
3476. The following are the aims of diversification in prison B. Exile
or jail, except: C. Physical torture
A. more effective execution of treatment programs D. Death Penalty
B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or 3486. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already
another in excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to
C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk security or has become causative in making the place
D. none of the above unsanitary.
3477. It provides some opportunities for inmates of a normal A. Contraband
sex life. B. Paraphernalia
A. Maternal Visit C. Prohibited items
B. Sodomy D.Nuisance Contraband
C. Masturbation 3487. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate
D. Conjugal Visit to a jail by competent court or authority for investigation,
3478. An offender who surrenders from escaping because trial and/or service of sentence
of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement A. Commitment
of the passing away of calamity shall be granted B. Safekeeping
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence C. Entrustment
B. 1/2 reduction of sentence D. Imprisonment
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence 3488. This was the right in ecclesiastical court during the
D. 4/5 reduction of sentence middle ages particularly in England.
A. Inquisition
3479. Which of these is known as the Release on B. Incapacitation
Recognizance Law providers for the release of offender C. Benefit of Clergy
charged with an offense whose penalty is not more than D. Retribution
six (6) months and /or a fine of P2,000.00 or both, to the 3489. The inmates may request a review of the findings of
custody of a responsible person in the community, instead the Disciplinary Board and the propriety and the penalty to
of a bail bond- the ____.
A. RA 6036 A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board
B. PD 603 B. BJMP
C. Act 2489 C. Central office/BJMP
D. RA 9262 D. Warden
3480. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents 3490. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it
and purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the has been posted, the mail should be delivered to him.
next in command or the ___ officer present shall assume A. 48 hours
the command. B. 24 hours
A. Veteran C. 30 days
B. most senior D. 60 days
C. assistant 3491. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s
D. custodian stamp at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The
3481. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial letter should be placed back in the same envelope and
force shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to resealed.
critical posts to: A. Back
A. plug off the escape routes B. Conspicuous Area
B. protect the other inmates C. Side
C. to shoot the escape D. Top
D. give warning shots 3492. In case if jailbreaks, who will immediately sound the
3482. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has alarm?
just been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control A. Desk Officer
centers shall immediately: B. Armorer
A. sound the alarm C. Control Center
B. notify the nearest police precinct D. Officer-in-Charge
C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
D. call the warden or the director
187 | P a g e

3493. It is designed to improve their communication and 3503. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a
computation skills, such as the ability to read and write in rank of Director, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the
order to enhance their individual educational level. rank of Senior Superintendent. This sentence is
A. Skills Training A. partially true
B. Adult Education C. true
C. Secondary Education B. partially false
D. Non-Formal Education for Adults D. false
3494. Detention Prisoners are allowed to smoke cigars and 3504. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment
cigarettes, except in prohibited cases. The statement is – of offenders prescribes that penal facilities should not
A. Partially true exceed _____ inmates.
B. Partially false A. 1000
C. Absolute False B. 1500
D. Absolutely True C. 1200
3495. All persons in custody shall before final conviction, be D. 2000
entitled to bail as a matter of ____ 3505. Who among the following inmates may not be allowed
A. Right to see the remains of a dead immediate family members?
B. preference A. Minimum security
C. Privilege B. Maximum security
D. Discretion C. Medium security
3496. The visiting room officer shall be responsible for D. None of these
compiling the regular visiting list for each inmate. 3506. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on
A. Special Visitor a daily basis.
B. Strange Visitor A. Two
C. Regular Visitor B. Four
D. Unusual visitor C. Three
3497. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s D. Five
quarter and the keys shall be available all the time. 3507. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
A. Key Matron quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
B. .Resident Matron A. 55 days
C. Matron B. 5 days
D. Any of these C. 60 days
3498. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of penalty of 6 years D. 15 days
and one day to 12 years. What correctional facility he 3508. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
should be incarcerated? by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
A. Bureau of Correction end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
B. Prision Correctional a road or path assigned to him.
C. Prision Mayor
D. BJMP A. 30 days
3499. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of the crime B. 50 days
murder. After 12 days from the promulgation of the C. 40 days
sentence he escaped from his place of confinement. Abdul D. 60 days
Salsalani is: 3509. In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence movements will emanate from him.
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence A. Assistant team leader
C. considered as an escaped prisoner B. Team Leader
D. Either of C C. Ground Commander
3500. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will D. Security Teams
exempt prison authorities from any liability arising from 3510. Who among the following shall be responsible in the
death or injury sustained while in prison: custody of all the properties seized from the detainee prior
A. Waiver of Liability to his detention?
B. Waiver of Responsibility A. Custodial Officer
C. Waiver of Acceptance B. Chief of Detention Center
D. Waiver of Agreement C. Evidence Custodian Officer
3501. Before the actual date of interview the media shall file D. Court
request within ____ 3511. Female detainees shall not be transported in
A. 1 day handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper
B. 3 days escort preferably aided by a police woman. The statement
C. 2 days is
D. 8 days A. Yes
3502. Who should make an immediate preparation for the B. Wholly True
issuance of the necessary anti-riot equipment and C. Partially False
firearms? D. Wholly False
A. the Warden 3512. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns that she is
C. Director for operation already overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Benny B.
B. Director Rotcha, who happens to be a law student advised her that
D. Desk Officer there is no more legal ground for his continued
188 | P a g e

imprisonment, and Benny told her that she can go. Ms. A. 2 Shifting Guards
Malou Wang got out of jail and went home. Was there any B. 3 Shifting Guards
crime committed? C. 4 Shifting Guards
A. Evasion of Service D. 5. Shifting Guards
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners 3523. How do inmates know that they have letters?
C. Evasion through Negligence A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
3513. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail guard who allowed C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the
Ms. Malou Wang to go, is concerned, the crime committed addressee
is: D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office
A. Evasion of Service 3524. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison?
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner A. Reporting illegal activities
C. Evasion through Negligence B. Doing prison assignment
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison C. Using prohibited drugs
3514. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison. D. Selling illegal commodities
A. Director 3525. ____ program employs prisoner in various product or
C. Warden good-producing tasks.
B. Superintendent A. Agricultural
D. Wardress B. Industrial
3515. What correctional institution houses accused persons C. Operational
awaiting investigation? D. Administrative
A. BUCOR 3526. The 2nd group shall not use riot control gases, except
B. Jail on orders of the –
C. Penitentiary
D. Prison A. Desk Officer
3516. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail. B. Armorer
A. DILG C. Control Center
B. Governor D. Officer-in-Charge
C. DOJ 3527. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed to have a
D. LGU Conjugal Visit. The statement is –
A. True
3517. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal B. Maybe True
severity of punishment through a compromise with the C. Maybe False
church. D. False
A. Benefit of Clergy 3528. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was appointed in 2013 at a
B. None monthly salary of 19,000, how much is longevity pay in
C. Rehabilitation 2018?
D. Retribution A. 9000 pesos
3518. Richard Alden was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 B. 1900 pesos
years imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority C. 9500 pesos
due to his frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, D. NONE
what would be his classification under PD 29? 3529. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center
A. Detention prisoner for adjustment process from life in prison to life is free
B. Municipal prisoner community within –
C.Provincial prisoner A. 60 days prior to release
D. Insular prisoner B. 30 days prior to release
3519. Theory which states that criminal behavior is learned C. 90 days before release
in interaction with other persons in the process of D. 15 days prior to release
communication. 3530. How many days are given to the disciplinary board of
A. Differential Association Theory BJMP to resolve issue?
B. Social Disorganization Theory A. 5 working days
C. Classical Theory B. 2 days
D. Strain Theory C. 30 working days
3520. Having a pornographic materials inside jail is a? D. 24 hours
A. Minor offense 3531. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth
B. Moral Turpitude inside the jail is allowed to be with his child?
C. Grave Offense A. 6 months
D. Less grave offense B. 1 year
3521. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that C. 2 years
puts him into deep sleep in lethal injection. D. 7 years
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) 3532. A colonist when classified by the director of the
B. Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion
Sodium Thiopenthotal perpetua will have benefit from an automatic reduction
D. Sodium chloride (salt) from a maximum term of forty years to ____.
3522. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 shifting guards, X A. 20 years
which is a Death Convict should have___. B. 25 years
189 | P a g e

C. 30 years 3541. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment

D. 35 years program best suited to the needs of the individual
prisoner, based on the findings.
3533. Close confinement in Prison shall not exceed – A. treatment planning
A. 45 days C. reclassification
B. 30 to 60 days B. Execution of treatment Plan
C. 7 days D. Diagnosis
D. 15 days 3542. An authorization that permits inmate to leave place of
3534. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to imprisonment on confinement for emergency reasons.
March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the judge who A. Furlough
promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the B. Prisonization
judge’s death to the service of Abdul’s sentence? C. Diversification
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore D. Counseling
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentence will be reduced 3543. A warden who limits his role to consider policy
matters and major problems, his responsibility is centered
on:
A. Decision Making
3535. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid B. Personnel Program
Prison. C. Public Relations
A. Mittimus D. Executive Leadership
B. Carpeta 3544. For minimum security institution, the purpose of
C. Commitment Order fencing the surrounding is:
D. Prison Record A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the
3536. How many days before election does inmate are institution.
prohibited from going out? B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
A. 30 days C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
B. 90 Days D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the
C. 60 Days surrounding.
D. 120 Days 3545. It is the primary objective of custodial and security
3537. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has division?
never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. A. To prevent riots
If you were the prison director, how many days for each B. To implement discipline
month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time C. To prevent escapes
allowance? D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
A. 5 days 3546. 230. When the death penalty was still enforced by
B. 8 days means of lethal injection, four guards keep a death watch,
C. 10 days the convict is confined in an individual cell ___ hours prior
D. 12 days to the scheduled time of execution which is usually 3:00 in
3538. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where the afternoon.
W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W A. 6
surrendered after 24 hours, X b. surrendered after 24 B. 24
hours, X surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered after C. 12
3 days. Who among them are not entitled to Special Time D. 36
Allowance for Loyalty under Art. 98. 3547. What is the population of a type A Jail?
A. X A. More than 100
C. W B. 20 or less
B. Y C. 21 to 99
D. Z D. 101 to 150
3539. Which of the following organizations donated the Half- 3548. This theory assumes that people are law abiding but
way House inside the compound of the Bureau of under great pressure they will resort to crime and that
Corrections? disparity between goals and means provides that
A. Office of the President pressure.
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office A. Differential Association Theory
C. United Nations Security Council B. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Asia Crime Foundation D. Strain Theory
3549. This is also known as “Youth Camps” and is being
3540. Mail letters of a Death Convict should be documented maintained by Bucor where youth offenders may serve
within ____ before the execution. their sentence in lieu of confinement in a prison.
A. 24 hours A. AFP Stockade
B. 72 hours B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
C. 48 hours C. Social Camps
D. NONE D. A or C
3550. It was established in 1910 under the American
Regime.
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A. Philippine Prison System 3560. With respect to the UN Standard Minimum Rules for
B. Provincial Jail System the Treatment of Prisoners, which of the following should
C. Probation NOT be done to the prisoners?
D. Parole A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from
3551. The following are the requisite of a valid Commitment convicted prisoners.
Order EXCEPT: B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult
A. Signature of the Judge prisoners.
B. Seal of the Court C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away
C. Valid Identification of Prisoner from male prisoners.
D. Signature of the Clerk D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children
3552. A prisoner having the natural inclination or tendency stay with her.
to evade custody against the will of the custodian or from 3561. Which of the following unusual offender should be
the place where he is held in lawful custody or under the close supervision of the jail physician?
confinement. 1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
A. Escape Prone Prisoner 2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner A. 1 and 2
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner B. 3 and 4
D. Alien Prisoner C. 1 and 3
3553. Where a person commits FELONY before beginning D. 2 and 3
to serve or while serving his sentence on a previous 3562. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
conviction A. Deputy for Administration
A. Quasi-recidivism B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
B. Reiteration C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
C. Habitual Delinquency D. Any of these
D. Recidivism 3563. All original appointments of officers in the jail bureau
shall commence with the rank of ___
3554. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in A. JO1
possession of dangerous drugs can be considered a B. Jail Inspector
quasi-recidivist? C. JO11
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while D. Jail Senior Inspector
serving his sentence 3564. What is the minimum tank required to be appointed as
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in Chief Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
prison A. Superintendent
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony B. C/Superintendent
D. A and B C. Senior Superintendent
D. Director
3555. What is the legal process that results in the removal 3565. It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to
of conviction from the official records? an institution where he can be treated well until he
A. Mitigation becomes fully recovered and accepted by the community.
B. Expungement A. Institutional Corrections
C. Exoneration B. Non Institutional Correction
D. Restriction C. BJMP
3556. Who advocated the principle that the basis of all D. Parole
social actions must be the utilitarian conception of the 3566. This is the basic needs of a convicted person under
greatest happiness for the greatest number? custody.
A. John Howard a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
B. Jeremy Bentham b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
C. Cesare Becaria A. a,b,c,d
D. George Void B. a,c,d,e
3557. Prison work assignments are usually given to C. c,d,e,f
prisoners. D. a,b,d,f
A. After recreational activities 3567. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s
B. At early morning hours conviction is final and executory and has already served
C. Before sleeping hours the minimum period of the sentence imposed to him.
D. During middle hours of the day A. Parole
3558. Forced is used only by correctional to, B. Word of Hohor
A. Exact respect B. Parole d’ Honeur
B. Enforce discipline D.Probare
C. Show physical strength and power 3568. He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island,
D. Perform assignments a penal colony in the East of Australia and initiated the
3559. One of the effects of social stigma maintained by an famous “Mark System”.
unforgiving society against criminals is ____. A. Alexander Macanochie
A. Worked out good relationship with the community B. Edward Savage
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program C. Walter Crofton
C. Difficulties in securing employment D. Edward Savage
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner
191 | P a g e

3569. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of Pardons and B. Search Warrant

Parole. C. Order of Arrest
A. Administrator D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
B. Sec. of DOJ 3579. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
C. Sociologist A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
D. Clergyman B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
3570. It is known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law that C. Minimum sentence impose
creates the board of Indeterminate Sentence which took D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in
effect on December 5, 1933. full
A. EO 83 S. 1937 3580. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer
B. EO 94 residence stated in the release document except if the
C. Act 4103 petition for transfer of residence is approved by ____.
D. EO 292 A. Regional Director
3571. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for B. Probation & Parole Officer
review of a Parole cases. C. BOARD
A. Final conviction D. Administration
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr 3581. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize
C. served the minimum period of said sentence outside travel his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT
D. None of the above more than ___.
3572. All except one are objectives of the Parole System. A. 30 days
A. It standardize the penalty B. 15 days
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of C. 20 days
liberty D. 10 days
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and 3582. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be
economic usefulness approved by the ____.
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without A. Regional Director
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and B. Probation & Parole Officer
protecting social order C. BOARD
3573. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward D. Administration
the document to the board, ____ before the expiration of 3583. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO
prisoner’s minimum sentence. pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel
A. 15 days and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration
B. 45 days and confirmed by the ____.
C. 30 days A. Regional Director
D. 60 days C. BOARD
3574. The board shall assess and determine whether the B. Probation and Parole Officer
petitioner is qualified for Parole, the decision or action D. Administration
must be suspended by ____ of the members of the board. 3584. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of
A. 4 votes Parole grants it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This
B. Majority is statement is:
C. 5 members of the Board A. Partially true
D. at least four (4) votes C. True
3575. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a B. Partially false
____ or specifically known as discharge on parole. D. False
A. Release Document 3585. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be
B. Final Release & Discharge granted.
C. Discharge on Parole a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
D. Summary Report b. those who have pending criminal case;
3576. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the c. habitual delinquencies;
parolee is to report at least once a month for those d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
residing outside Metro Manila/to report at least twice a e. conviction is on appeal
month for those who are residing in Metro Manila. A. a,b,c, and e
A. True B. a,b,c, and d
B. Partially True C. b,c,d, and e
C. False D. a,b,c,d, and e
D. Partially False 3586. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of
3577. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if the President for the objective of preventing miscarriage
parolee commits any violation of the terms and conditions of Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
stated in the release document. A. Parole
A. Violation Report B. Pardon
B. Progress Report C. Executive
C. Infraction Report D. Reprieve
D. Summary Report 3587. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in
3578. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an his exercise of the power to grant executive clemency?
____ against the parolee. A. DOJ
A. Warrant of Arrest B. BOARD
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C. Administration B. Impeachment
D. Administrator B. Estafa
3588. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an D. Parricide
individual within certain limits or conditions from the 3597. Father of Philippine Probation.
punishment that the law inflicts for the offense he has A. John Augustus
committed resulting from the partial extinction of his B. Edward Savage
criminal liability. C. Matthew Davenport Hill
A. Absolute Pardon D. Teodulo Natividad
B. Reprieve 3598. First juvenile court established in 1899
C. Commutation of Sentence A. Chicago
D. Conditional Pardon B. Massachusetts
3589. Pardon by the President shall be extended ____. C. England
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action D. Philippines
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment 3599. Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information Coolidge became a Law on _____.
D. Upon the discretion of the President A. April 26, 1878
3590. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for B. 1899
imprisonment of “prision correctional”. C. 1887
A. Article 95 of RPC D. March 4, 1925
B. Article 59 of RPC 3600. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue
C. Article 159 of RPC of ___ also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935
D. A and C A. HB 393
3591. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner B. PD 968
should be addressed to ____. C. Act 4221
A. Board D. RA 4221
B. Administrator 3601. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring
C. Chairman of BPP unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16,
D. President 1937
3592. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for A. People vs. Vera
absolute or conditional pardon if the crime committed is B. People vs. De Vera
against the national security? C. People vs. De Vega
A. DFA Secretary D. People vs. Vega
B. COMELEC 3602. How long is the period of probation of a defendant
C. DOJ Secretary sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than one
D. DND Secretary (1) year?
3593. Any wilful or malicious concealing material information A. Not to exceed 6 years
made by the client either or after the grant of Conditional B. Not to exceed 8 years
Pardon or Parole is a ground for the BOARD to – C. Not to exceed 10 years
A. Extend the period of Supervision D. Not to exceed 2 years
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document 3603. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of limited to the following, EXCEPT:
Conditional Pardon A. Pardon is administered by the court
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
behavior has shown by the client C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
3594. All except one are the instances wherein supervision violation of any election law may granted without
of parole and conditional pardon case deemed to favourable recommendation of the Commission of
archive/close. Elections.
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
against the client 3604. What court will you apply for Probation?
B. Certificate of transfer of resident A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
discharge of the client C. Same court, where you had been convicted
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the D. Any of these
deceased client 3605. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application
3595. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is for probation, the offender applying for probation –
limited to the following, EXCEPT: A. Must stay in prison as a detainee
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment B. Maybe set free without bail
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance
violation of any election law may be granted without D. all of these
favourable recommendation of the Commission of 3606. When will the court deny application for probation of a
Elections petitioner?
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction A. Petitioner is a foreigner
D. Pardon is administered by the Court B. Petitioner is a drug dependent
3596. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, C. Petitioner violates the condition
EXCEPT: D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution
A. Carnapping
193 | P a g e

3607. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of 3617. Probationer and his Probation Officer will prepare a
Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to apply for probation? _____.
A. Yes A. Associate Plan
B. True B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
C. No C. Treatment Program
D. False D. Orientation Plan
3608. Violations of the following Special Laws shall 3618. One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to
disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968. present himself to the probation officer designated to
A. Omnibus Election Code undertake his supervision within ___ from receipt of said
B. Robbery order.
C. Wage Rationalization Act A. 24 hours
D. Videogram Law B. 72 hours
C. 48 hours
3609. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive D. 150 hours
Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is disqualify to apply for 3619. When shall probation order take effect?
Probation, EXCEPT: A. Three days after issuance
A. Section 12 B. Upon its issuance
B. Section 14 C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
C. Section 13 D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
D. Section 17 3620. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed
E. Section 70 ___.
3610. This decree mandated the disqualification of the A. 15 days after granting it
petitioner’s application for probation if an appeal is B. At any time during supervision
perfected. C. Upon the application of the community
A. PD 1357 D. Any of these
B. BP 76
C. PD 968
D.PD 1257
3611. He is a convicted defendant whose application for
probation has been given due course by the court but fails
to report to the probation officer or cannot be located 3621. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if
within a reasonable period of time. the reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the
A. Absconding Petitioner court will issue a ____.
B. Absconding Probationer A. termination order
C. Disobedient Petitioner B. Warrant of Arrest
D. Uncooperative Petitioner C. OAR
3612. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and D. Revocation Order
qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of 3622. What is the effect of the recommitment of a
right? Probationer?
A. After the submission of the PSIR A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence
B. When the convict files a petition for probation B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum
C. When the appeal was undertaken sentence
D. When his probation is approved C. Minimum sentence impose
3613. When shall probation order take effect? D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
A. Three days after issuance 3623. Under rules and methods employed by probation,
B. Three days prior to issuance what is the maximum number of minor violations that
C. Upon its issuance would result in the revocation of the probation order?
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer A. 5 Violations
3614. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply B. 3 Violations
for probation? C. 4 Violations
A. Infanticide D. 2 Violations
C. Simple Theft 3624. Maximum number of probationers under supervision
B. Malicious Mischief of a probation aide
D.Unjust Vexation A. 3
3615. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional B. 7
Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers? C. 5
A. DILG Secretary D. 9
B. President 3625. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and
C. DOJ Secretary qualified petitioners, when does it become a matter of
D. Administrator right?
3616. How many days are given to the court to act on A. After submission of the PSIR
application for probation? B. When the convict files a petition for probation
A. 15 days C. When the appeal was undertaken
B. 60 days D. When the probation is approved
C. 10 days 3626. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
D. 5 days A. Criminal
194 | P a g e

B. Society C. Saint Bridget” Well

C. Family D. Walnut Street Jail
D. Governor
3627. It refers to those that handle the investigation of 3637. Who appoints Probation Administrator, Regional
petitioners for probation, and the supervision of Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
probationers, parolees and conditional pardonees. A. DILG Secretary
A. Parole and Probation Administration C. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole B. DOJ Secretary
C. Secretary of Justice D. Administrator
D. Department of Justice
3628. Post Sentence Investigation report must be submitted
by the probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 60 days 3638. It is the branch of criminology which deals with the
C. 30 days management and administration of inmates:
D. 90 days a. Criminal justice
3629. Those that have been once on probation under the b. Penology
Probation Law: c. Victimology
A. are qualified to apply for probation d. d. Jail Management
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation 3639. Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden
D. should be confined in prison by jail rules is called:
3630. Maximum term of office for those appointed as a. Instrument of restraint
members of the Board of Pardon and Parole. b. contraband
A. 3 years c. Handcuff
B. 5 years d. leg iron
C. 4 years 3640. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district,
D. 6 years city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and
3631. When will you close a probation case? sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the custody and
A. When the probationer absconds the place safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners, any fugitive from
B. When he incurred violations justice or persons detained awaiting for investigation or trial
C. When there is recommendation for revocation and/or transfer to the National Penitentiary:
D. When the termination order is approved a. Bureau of Corrections
3632. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development
among the citizen’s of ____ b. Jail Bureau
A. Good religious background c. Department of Justice
B. High Educational Level 3641. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day
C. Good Repute and Probity or as often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly
D. High Social Standing accounted for:
3633. It refers to the manner or practice of managing or a. Two
controlling places of confinement as in jails or prisons. b. Four
A. Penology c. Three
B. Penal Management d. d. Five
C. Correctional Administration 3642. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever
D. Correction the frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that
3634. It refers to a long, low narrow, single decked ships warrants limitations:
propelled by sails, usually rowed by criminals. A. type of a. Media group
ship used for transportation of criminals in the 16th century. b. news team
A. Gaols c.Press pool
B. Galleys d. public affairs
C. Hulks 3643. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in
D. D. Mamertine Prison CIW may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not
exceeding:
3635. Represented the earliest codification of Roman Law a. 1 month
incorporated into the Justinian Code. It is also collection b. 1 year
of legal principles engraved on metal tablets and set up c. 6 months
on . d. 6 years
A.Twelve Tablets 3644. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for
B.Burgundian Code Administration and Rehabilitation and one for:
C. Hammurabic Code a. Health and Care services
D. Greek code of Draco b. Prisons and Security
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
3636. The most popular workhouse in London which was
built for the employment and housing of English prisoners.
A. Bridewell
B. Hospicio de San Michelle
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3645. A representative of the news media may file a written 3654. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an a. DILG c. BUCor
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least: b. PNP
a. One day d. DOJ
b. two days 3655. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier
c. Three days sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter
d. four days term.
3646. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert a. Amnesty
inmates and be affiliated into their religion: c. Reprieve
a. Conversions b. Commutation
b. agitation d. none of the foregoing
c. Proselytizing 3656. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
d. Captivation of punishment.
3647. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a. Retribution
a confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months b. Punishment
depending upon the gravity of the offense committed: c. Deterrence
a. One to two d. Rehabilitation
b. one to three 3657. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
c. One to four a. Reprieve
d. one to five c. Amnesty
3648. During the 11th and successive years of following years b. Pardon
of prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction d. Communication
of __ days for each month of good behaviour:
a. Five
b. eight
c. Ten
d. fifteen 3658. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
3649. During the following years until the 10 th year, inclusive, before a court or competent authority and is temporarily
of inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction confined in jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial
of: or final judgment.
a. Five a. Prisoner
b. eight b. Bail
c. Ten c. Detainee
d. fifteen d. Arrest
3650. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he 3659. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be
shall be allowed a deduction of: prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by whom?
a. Five days a. Parents
b. ten days b. Offended Spouse
c. Seven days c. Guardians
d. twelve days d. Godfather
3651. GCTA means: 3660. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation
a. Good conduct turning allowance a. Matthew Davenport Hill
b. . good conduct time allowance b. John Augustus
c. Good conduct training allotment c. Father Cook
d. d. none of the foregoing d. d. Edward Savage
3661. Which of the following is an executive clemency that
3652. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person requires the concurrence of congress?
in custody of a responsible person. a. probation
a. Property bond b. Amnesty
b. Recognizance c. pardon
c. Corporate surety d. Parole
d. Cash deposit 3662. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted
3653. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the by the probation officer to the court within
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the: a. 20 days
a. Department of Justice c. 60 days
b. Chief Executive b. 30 days
c. Judiciary d. none of the above
d. Legislative 3663. Parole is a matter of ___.
338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to a. privilege
suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence b. right
and extinguish criminal liability. c. grace
a. Parole d. requirement
c. Pardon 3664. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
b. Executive clemency a. punishment
d. none of the above b. treatment
196 | P a g e

c. enjoyment a. Parole and Probation Administration

d. incarceration b. Board of Pardons and Parole
3665. PPA is headed by: c. Probation and Parole Administration
a. Director d. Board of Parole and Pardons
b. Administrator 3676. It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of
c. Secretary 2006.
d. Superior a. R.A. 7610
3666. Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal b. P.D. 603
upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. c. R.A. 9262
a. Remission d. R.A. 9344
b. Forfeiture 3677. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
c. Fine a. Director
d. All of the above b. Secretary of the dnd
3667. Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good c. Chief of executive
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and d. Prison inspector
regulations 3678. A term means a friend of a court
a. President a. Amicos curae
b. Director of Prisons b. Amigos curae
c. Warden c. Amicus curiae
d. None of the above d. None of the above
3668. A person who is placed under probation.
3679. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he
a. Petitioner
or she may not commit another crime in the future.
b. Probationer
a. Retribution
c. Probationee
b. Deterrence
d. None of the above
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation
3669. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability
of the individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
3680. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
a. Special pardon
a. Matthew Davenport Hill
b. Absolute pardon
b. Father Cook
c. Conditional pardon
c. John Augustus
d. General pardon
d. Edward Savage
3670. Which is not a form of bail?
3681. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
a. Cash deposit
provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders
b. Corporate surety
who are likely to respond to individualized community based
c. Recognizance
treatment programs.
d. Title bond
a. BJMP
3671. An offender who surrenders from escaping because
b. Bureau of Corrections
of calamity immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of
c. Provincial Government
the passing away of calamity shall be granted
d. Parole and Probation Administration
a. 1/5 reduction of sentence
3682. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual
b. 1/2 reduction of sentence
for an ordinary crime.
c. 2/5 reduction of sentence
a. General pardon
d. 2/6 reduction of sentence
b. Absolute pardon
3672. He is considered as the father of probation in the
c. Conditional pardon
Philippines.
d. Special pardon
a. Ferdinand Marcos
3683. Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of
b. Teodulo Natividad
money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some
c. Fidel Ramos
statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.
d. Antonio Torres
a. Remission
3673. The following are forms of executive clemency,
b. Forfeiture
EXCEPT
c. Fine
a. Commutation
d. All of the above
b. Reform model
3684. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is
c. Amnesty
limited to the following, except:
d. Pardon
a. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.
3674. An agency under the Department of Justice that is
b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders,
violation of any election law may be granted without favorable
that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of
recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
more than three (3) years
c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
a. BJMP
d. Pardon is administered by the court
b. Bureau of Corrections
3685. It refers to commission of another crime during service
c. Provincial Government
of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
d. Parole and Probation Administration
a. Recidivism
3675. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of
b. Delinquency
what government agency
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c. Quasi-recidivism b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,

d. City prisoner reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
3686. It refers to leniency or mercy. c. those who are habitual delinquents
a. Power d. none of the above
b. Clemency
c. Grace 3696. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of
d. Damages an inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days
3687. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a for each month for displaying good behavior?
certain category. a. 10 days
a. Special pardon b. 15 days
b. Absolute pardon c. 8 days
c. Conditional pardon d. 5 days
d. General pardon
3688. During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of 3697. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment
an inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for for a time after conviction and sentence.
each month for displaying good behavior? a. Reprieve
a. 10 days b. Amnesty
b. 15 days c. Probation
c. 8 days d. Commutation
d. 5 days
3689. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in 3698. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment a. Administrator
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by b. Warden
the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole c. Director
and Pardon is called: d. Commander
a. Amnesty
b. Parole 3699. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
c. Probation parole?
d. Pardon a. President
3690. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty. b. Board of Pardons and Parole
a. Reprieve c. Director of Prison
b. Amnesty d. Court
c. Probation
d. Commutation 3700. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
3691. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a a. Department of Social Welfare and Development
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his b. Department of Justice
prison sentences. c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
a. Parole d. Department of Health
b. Pardon
c. Probation 3701. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending
d. None of the above member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
3692. The who investigates for the court a referral for a. incarceration
probation or supervises a probationer or both b. floggings
a. police officer c. ordeal
b. probationer officer d. punishment
c. intelligence officer
d. law enforcer 3702. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But
punishments were meted according to the social class of
3693. When does probation revocable before the final the offender:
discharge of the probationer by the court for the violation of a. Justinian code
any of the conditions of probation. b. The Greeks
a. any time during probation c. Burgundian code
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer d. Code of Hammurabi
c. after 1 year under probation
d. none of the above 3703. According to this ancient law that was practice in the
areas of Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family
3694. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has but to the king:
been subsequently convicted of another crime; a. Code of Hammurabi
a. progress report b. Roman twelve tables
b. violation report c. Pharaoh’s law
c. infraction report d. Burgundian code
d. arrest report 3704. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the
detection and punishment of unbelievers and heresy:
3695. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT a. Inquisition
one: b. Lateran council
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence c. Ecclesiastical court
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d. Tortio millenio adviniente 3714. It is the study and practice of a systematic management
3705. borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners in jails or prisons and other institutions concerned with the
so that their profitability can be maximized not out of custody, treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
humanitarian reasons as the government and the merchants a. Penology
want to make it appear: b. Corrections
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners c. Correctional administration
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners d. Penal management
c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners 3715. a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners a. Penology
3706. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal b. Poena
lords instituted official methods by which God could indicate c. Peona
who was innocent and who was guilty. One such method was d. All of the abovementioned
called: 3716. It is the field of criminal justice administration which
a. Trial by fighting utilizes the body of knowledge and practices of the government
b. Trial by ordeal and the society in handling individuals who have been
c. Trial by combat convicted of an offense:
d. Dei indicum a. Penology
3707. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this b. Corrections
was tied to the crime committed: c. Criminal justice
a. Banishment d. All of the above
b. Death 3717. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
c. Torture a. Code of drakon
d. Mutilation b. Code of Hammurabi
3708. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the c. Justinian code
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the d. Burgundian code
latter to undergo institutional treatment program: 3718. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years
a. Solitary confinement before Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient
b. Punishment Sumeria:
c. Floggings a. king Ur Nammu
d. Imprisonment b. king Herodes
3709. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served c. Emperor Justin
part of his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re- d. None of the above
introducing them to free life: 3719. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder,
a. Probation assaults on noble or middle class women, sexual relations with
b. Parole noble or middle class women and giving aid or comfort to
c. Pardon escape offender:
d. Executive clemency a. Burgundian code
3710. This school argues that since children and lunatic b. Drakonian code
cannot calculate pleasure and pain they should not be c. Law of Talion
prepared as criminals and as such that they should not be d. The Greeks
punished: 3720. This people love to philosophize that their brand of
a. Classical school justice was not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that
b. Neo classical school justice should reform the offender but must also serve as
c. Positivist school deterrence to others from committing offense:
d. Hedonism a. The Romans
3711. This approached of penology assessed at the time of b. The Greeks
French Revolution: c. The Jews
a. Classical school d. The Americans
b. Neo classical school 3721. Today, the stand of the Church has become a
c. Positivist school complete reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope
d. Hedonism John Paul II who reversed this so called:
3712. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man a. Eclessiastical court
who needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that b. Inquisition
his illness which has something to do with the commission of c. Ordeal
crime may be cured”: d. Culture of death
a. Corrections 3722. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also
b. Penology practice of the Israelites in Jesus time:
c. Classical a. stoning to death
d. Positivist b. breaking on a wheel
3713. This school views as crime as social phenomenon: c. burning alive
a. Classical school d. trial by ordeal
b. Neo classical school 3723. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a
c. Positivist school board made of wood and then had their bones systematically
d. Sociology broken:
a. stoning to death
b. breaking on a wheel
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c. burning alive b. The government

d. trial by ordeal c. The jail bureau
3724. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once d. None of the abovementioned
practiced by Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also 3734. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are
been known to resort to this form of punishment during the administered and controlled by the Provincial Government
time of inquisition for non believers, witches and heretics: (Governor).
a. stoning to death STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the
b. breaking on a wheel supervision of the Department of the Interior and Local
c. burning alive Government.
d. trial by ordeal a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
3725. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
started to intensify in 17th Century. c. Both statement is true
a. Absolutely true d. Both statement is false
b. Probably true 3735. The following institutions are controlled and
c. Absolutely false supervised by our government EXCEPT:
d. Probably false a. New Bilibid Prisons
b. Manila City Jail
3726. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for c. Iwahig Penal Colony
release on the basis of individual response and progress d. Elmira Reformatory
within the correctional institution and a service by which they 3736. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an
are provided with necessary control of guidance as they served AFP stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum
the remainder of their sentence with in the free community: security risk and is __ years of old who can no longer perform
a. Probation manual work:
b. Parole a. More than 60
c. Imprisonment b. more than 50
d. Reprieve c. More than 70
3727. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: d. more than 80
a. December 5, 1933 3737. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased
b. December 25, 1933 relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased
c. December 5, 1955 relative is in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road
d. December 25, 1955 from prison:
3728. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT: a. 10
a. Granted by the court b. 30
b. He was once on Probation c. 20
c. Must not have committed any crime against national d. d. 40
security 3738. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment mandatory labor:
3729. The following are the unanticipated consequence of a. 50
punishment; EXCEPT: b. 60
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing c. 55
crime during night time d. 65
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the 3739. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
law) a. Tangerine
c. Punishment elevates the criminal b. Blue
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals c. Brown
3730. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows d. Yellow
the penal laws: 3740. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
a. Classical school a. Tangerine
b. Blue
b. Neo classical c. Brown
c. Positivist d. Yellow
3731. This school focuses on crimes and on the 3741. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
corresponding punishment attached to it: a. Tangerine
a. Classical school b. Blue
c. Brown
b. Neo classical d. Yellow
c. Positivist
3732. This school maintains that criminals must be 3742. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or
rehabilitated to institutions provided by the government and custody by an inmate:
should not be punished contrary to other schools ideology: a. Detention
a. Classical school b. emancipation
c. Release of prisoner
b. Neo classical d. escape
c. Positivist 3743. The following are considered instruments of restraint;
3733. BJMP stands for: EXCEPT:
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology a. Leg irons
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b. whipping rod d. Zebulon Brockway

c. Straight jacket 3753. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was
d. handcuffs also referred to as the Irish System:
3744. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
a. 100 or more b. Manuel Montesinos
b. 21- 99 c. Sir Walter Crofton
c. 150 or more d. Alexander Macanochie
d. 20 or less 3754. He was the superintendent of the Elmira
3745. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders: Reformatory in New York. He introduced a system of grades
a. 21 – 99 for prisoners:
b. 120 a. Zebulon Brockway
c. 20 or less b. Alexander Macanochie
d. 150 c. Manuel Montesinos
3746. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: d. Domer of France
a. 21 – 99 3755. The progressive development of the prison system
b. 120 came to the middle of the __ century:
c. 20 or less
d. 150 a. 18th
3747. This correctional facility introduced individuals b. 19th
housing in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the c. 20th
day:
d. 21st
a. Elmira reformatory 3756. This law brought about extensive reforms in the
b. Borstal institution prison and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be
c. Auburn prison system built in the yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with
labor for ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
d. Pennsylvania prison system
3748. His progressive move was noted when the convicts a. ACT of 1890
after good behavior were given marks and after accumulating b. ACT of 1790
the required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving c. ACT of 1690
convicts:
d. ACT of 1590
a. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Alexander Macanochie
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Manuel Montesinos
3749. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to 3757. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large
remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive rooms for the inmates:
practices and veered towards reformation and treatment
educational and vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a a. Auburn Prison
way to treat his lack of life skills to survive according to the b. Pennsylvania
rules of the outside society: c. Walnut Street
a. Elmira reformatory d. Irish Prisons
b. Sing-sing prisons 3758. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is
c. Alcatraz founded:
a. 1875
d. Walnut street jail b. 1876
3750. This is considered as the “institution of silent c. 1877
system” due to the imposition of strict code of silence: d. 1888
a. Auburn 3759. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain
b. Pennsylvania which organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty
c. Walnut street officer in charge:
d. Irish prisons a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
3751. He established an agricultural colony for male b. Manuel Montesinos
youth: c. Alexander Maconochie
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise d. Sir Walter Crofton
b. Sir Walter Crofton 3760. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar
to the underground cistern of long ago rome:
c. Manuel Montesinos a. St Michael System
d. Domer of france b. Sing-Sing prisons
3752. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal c. Maine State prisons
Colony located at Norfolk Island in Australia: d. Wal nut street
a. Alexander Macanochie 3761. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was
established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in
b. Domer of France cottages with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton a. Penal guards
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b. Immediate supervisors 3770. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to

c. House fathers court within___________?
d. Big brothers A. 10-days period
3762. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to B. 30-days period
lessen their period of imprisonment should be confined in a C. 15-days period
singular cell (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months D. 60-days period
with a reduce diet: 3771. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
a. 6 months disposition,documentation and appropriate order?
b. 7 months A. Bureau of Corrections
c. 8 months B. Bureau of Immigration and
d. 9 months Deportation
3763. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an C. Board of Pardons and Parole
equivalent to a modern day parole: D. National Bureau of Investigation
a. Progressive stage system 3772. A complaint may be filed by any of the following,
b. Spanish system EXCEPT:
c. Criminal justice system A. The offended party
d. None of the foregoing B. other public officers
3764. It features consisted solitary confinement of C. any peace officer
prisoners in their own cell day and night: D. Offender
a. Auburn system 3773. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
b. Pennsylvania system based on the recommendation of
c. St Michael System A. Bureau of Corrections
d. Irish system B. Office of the Executive Secretary
3765. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as C. Board of Pardon and Parole
the father of prison reform in the United States of America: D. Parole and Probation Administration
a. Alexander Maconochie
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway 3774. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration
c. Sir Walter Crofton is referred to as
d. Domer of France a. Determinate sentence
3766. It is considered the best reform institution for young b. Capital punishment
offenders: c. Corporal punishment
a. Borstal Institution d. Indeterminate sentence
b. St. Michael Institution 3775. Which of the following executive clemency needs the
c. Auburn System concurrence of the congress?
d. Pennsylvania a.Pardon
3767. This is the discipline being implemented in a. Amnesty
Louisiana state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate b. Probation
is responsible for the actuations of all the others: c. Parole
a. Rough Rider Industries 3776. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted
b. I am my Brother’s keeper person should serve part of his sentence?
c. Conditional setting a.Pardon
d. collective responsibility b.Parole
c.Probation
3768. Sweden, a convict may undergo probation with d.Amnesty
community service and render service to the community 3777. How many days before election does inmate are
for ___ to ____ hours depending on the seriousness of the prohibited from going out?
crime committed: A. 30 days
a. 50 – 250 B. 90 Days
b. 40- 280 C. 60 Days
c. 40 – 240 D. 120 Days
d. 50 – 260 3778. Maya is in prison for the past 48 months and has
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked never been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor.
to a witness who is unwilling to testify? If you were the prison director, how many days for each
A. Intelligent month would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time
B. Misleading allowance?
C. Unresponsive A. 5 days
D. Leading B. 8 days
3769. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that C. 10 days
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to D. 12 days
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the 3779. The post-sentence investigation report is submitted to
criminal? court within___________?
A. Retribution A. 10-days period
B. Restoration B. 30-days period
C. The Executive C. 15-days period
D. The Quasi-Judiciary D. 60-days period
202 | P a g e
3780. Ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the
quarantine unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A. 55 days
B. 5 days
C. 60 days
D. 15 days
3781. In the 13th century, a criminal could avoid punishment
by claiming refugee in a church for a period of ___ at the
end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by
a road or path assigned to him.
A. 30 days
B. 50 days
C. 40 days
D. 60 days
3782. Who among the following may be granted conditional
pardon?
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by
government physician
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he
broke his probation conditions
3783. The following are considered minor offenses of an
inmate, EXCEPT:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due
respect when confronted by or reporting to
any officer or member of the custodial force
c. Willful waste of food
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
orderliness in his quarter and/or
surroundings
3784. What documents are attached to the Release
Document of the parolee?
1. Prison record
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
4. Order of Court
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
3785. An advantageous result in the integration of
correctional agencies is:
a. More physical facilities to maintain
b. More prisoners to supervise
c. Divided resources such as manpower and
finances
d. Better coordination of services and
increased cost-efficiency
3786. A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional
pardon shall be favorably endorsed to the Board by the
_______ if the crime committed by the petitioner is against
national security.
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local
Government
3787. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately
released provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been
previously convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the
maximum penalty for the offense he may be
found guilty of is destierro
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the
maximum penalty of the offense he may be
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or
more than the possible maximum term of
punishment of the offense he may be found
guilty of
3788. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision
correccional. Will he qualify for probation?
a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1)
day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years
and one (1) day
c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
and one (1) day
d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one
(1) day
3789. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of
_____________ as follows: retribution, deterrence,
incapacitation and rehabilitation.
a. Criminal intent
b. Criminal mind
c. Criminal sanction
d. Criminal action
3790. The system of key control in a jail includes:
a. An updated system of monitoring and control
of keys
b. A documented inventory of security
personnel
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
them
3791. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. National Bureau of Investigation
3792. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted
to court within _____________.
a. 10-day period
b. 30-day period
c. 15-day period
d. 60-day period
3793. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon
based on the recommendation of:
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Parole and Probation Administration
d. Office of the Executive Secretary
3794. Which of the following are classified as detainees?
1. Accused person who is confined in jail while
undergoing investigation
2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
of undergoing trial
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3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting
final judgment
4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
convicted to serve a prison term
a. 3, 4 and 1
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
3795. Why is probation service analogous to parole service?
a. Both have similar investigation and
supervision functions.
b. Both services are performed by the
prosecutors.
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
d. Both services are under the courts.
3796. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation
program is exercised by:
a. The Chief of Police of the place where
he/she resides
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation
3797. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the
maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is
charged with?
a. Batas Pambansa 95
b. Batas Pambansa 85
c. Batas Pambansa 105
d. Batas Pambansa 965
3798. What is the primary purpose of the presentence
investigation?
a. To help the judge in selecting the
appropriate sentence of the offender
b. To exonerate the offender
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend
himself
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
3799. According to the control theory, crime and
delinquency result when an individual’s bond to
________________ is weak and broken.
a. Behavior
b. Police
c. Law
d. Society
3800. A drug user who is placed under probation may be
made to serve his sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
b. Commits another offense
c. He is 21 years old
d. Violates any of the conditions of his
probation
3801. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white crystalline
substance rolled in a transparent sachet and she
suspected it to be “shabu”. What should he do first?
a. Record the incident in the logbook
b. Bring the substance to NBI
c. Properly identify the substance
d. Properly preserve the evidence
3802. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall
be treated _________________.
a. Comprehensively
b. Appropriately
c. Confidentially
d. Judiciously
3803. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation
appealable?
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
c. It depends on the outcome of the
investigation
d. It depends on the violations committed
3804. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that
punishment is imposed on the offender to allow society to
vent its anger toward and exact vengeance upon the
criminal?
a. Retribution
b. Restoration
c. Rehabilitation
d. Deterrence
3805. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
a prison sentence?
a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
3806. There are various types of prison programs. For what
purpose is a rehabilitative program?
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence
b. It employs prisoners in various products or
good-producing tasks
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills
or educational achievement
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like
laundry and janitorial
3807. There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some
items in their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will
you do?
a. Invite both of them to the office and
investigate the matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
heated discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the
culprit
3808. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the
Court to pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his
civil liability. To whom shall he pay the amount for
remittance of the victim?
a. Municipal treasurer
b. Cashier of the trial court
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
d. Cashier of the Probation Office
3809. The ______________ model of correctional institution
focuses in security, discipline and order:
a. Rehabilitative
b. Reintegration
c. Medical
d. Custodial
204 | P a g e

3810. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences b. At least one half of the maximum of his
of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to indeterminate sentence
the police. What are these studies called? c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his
a. Population surveys indeterminate sentence
b. Police surveys d. At least one third of the minimum of his
c. Victimization surveys indeterminate sentence
d. Information surveys 3819. Who among the following can apply for release under
3811. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a the Law on Release on Recognizance?
little more care than other inmates. Which of the following a. One who is charged with an offense whose
should NOT be done by a jail officer? penalty is three (3) years and above
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical b. One who is charged with an offense whose
staff regularly penalty is twelve (12) months and above
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his c. One who is charged with an offense whose
prescribed diet penalty is not more than six (6) months
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate d. One who is charged with an offense whose
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient penalty is six (6) months and above
inmate 3820. Which of the following is NOT an objective in the
conduct of interview of probation applicant?
3812. What is the classification of the prisoner’s offense of a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
possession of lewd or pornographic literature and/or b. To determine how the person shall respond
photographs? to supervision
a. Minor offense c. To gather information about the person
b. Less grave offense d. To determine his paying capacity
c. Victimless offense
d. Grave offense 3821. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of
3813. Juveniles are not capable of committing deviant acts, probation in the United States?
and what are considered deviant acts are deviant only by a. Sir Walter Crofton
mainstream standards, not by the offender’s standards. b. Alexander Maconochie
This assumption is advanced by the ________________ c. John Murray Spear
theory. d. John Augustus
a. Social 3822. What is meant by the concept of probation which is
b. Juvenile from the Latin word “probatio” and had historical roots in
c. Cultural deviance the practice of judicial reprieve?
d. Choice a. Live with integrity
3814. If people fear being apprehended and punished, they b. Testing period
will not risk breaking the law. This view is being held by c. Walk with faith
the __________ theory. d. Out of the institution
a. Displacement 3823. Sociologists look at corrections as:
b. General deterrence a. The intervention which documents the
c. Discouragement attitudinal response of offenders and staff to
d. Incapacitation processes of punishment
3815. One of the following is NOT a gauge in determining b. The medium through which prisoners
the age of the child and that is: change their behavior and attitudes
a. Baptismal certificate c. The consolidation of interactions between
b. Birth certificate correctional officers and the prisoners
c. Looks d. A total institution in which the basic
d. Warts physiological needs of prisoners were to be
3816. What do you call the monitoring and support of met away from the outside world
juveniles who have been released from custody or
supervision by the juvenile court. 3824. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
a. After care a. Inmates’ health
b. Welfare b. Prison security
c. Duty c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. Concern d. Prison industry
3825. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a
3817. The scientific approach to the study of criminal thick wall about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in
behavior is ____________________. every corner, a tower post is manned by heavily armed
a. Research guards:
b. Survey a. Maximum security facility
c. Criminology b. Medium security facility
d. Study c. Super maximum security facility
3818. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what d. Minimum security facility
portion of the sentence must have been served by a 3826. Which of the following procedures should be
petitioner-prisoner? observed in handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his 1. They should be segregated especially during the
indeterminate sentence withdrawal period
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2. They should be closely supervised to prevent 1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and
attempts to commit suicide or self-mutilation submits an Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon
3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants and Parole
unless prescribed by a physician 2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders
4. They should be transferred to mental institution of the arrest of the parolee
proper psychiatric treatment 3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board
a. 2, 3 and 4 finds that the continuation of his parole is
b. 3, 4 and 1 incompatible with public welfare
c. 4, 1 and 2 4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
d. 1, 2 and 3 a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 4, 1 and 2
3827. A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, quarrelsome c. 1, 2 and 3
and does not cooperate with other inmates is referred to d. 3, 4 and 1
as 3834. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’
a. Squealer mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and
b. Sucker sentences. What shall you do?
c. Hustler a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
d. Tough b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and
3828. When does an applicant who was granted probation give it to the inmate
report to the assigned Probation Officer for Interview? c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of contents to determine the real meaning of
probation order the names and sentences
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the
probation order addressee
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his 3835. The classical theory of criminology provides that the
receipt of the probation order basis for criminal liability is ______________________
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of a. Individual’s thinking
probation order b. Individual’s mental state
3829. What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release c. Human free will
and Discharge of a Parolee? d. Human facilities
a. Bureau of Corrections 3836. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
b. Board of Pardons and Parole society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
c. Parole and Probation Administration extent of injury.”
d. Department of Justice a. Jeremy Bentham
3830. Pedro was arrested by the police for theft in the b. Cesare Beccaria
amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station c. James Wilson
and an administrative record of the arrest was prepared. d. John Howard
He was fingerprinted, interrogated and placed in a line-up 3837. What is the effect of the grant of probation?
for identification by witnesses. What process did he a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
undergo? b. The execution of sentence is suspended
a. Preliminary hearing c. The probationer is sent to prison
b. Booking d. The prison term is doubled
c. Trial
d. Indictment 3838. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that
they can engage in producing goods?
a. Industrial
3831. The “Discharge on Parole” issued by the Board to the b. Operational
parolee, and also issued by the President of the c. Agricultural
Philippines to a pardonee upon the Board’s d. Administrative
recommendation. 3839. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the
a. Release document custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical
b. Release folders posts armed with their issued firearms to:
c. Release signatures a. Shoot at the escapees
d. Release notes b. Protect the other inmates
c. Plug off the escape routes
3832. What is called the body of unwritten guidelines which d. Give warning shots
expresses the values, attitudes and types of behavior that 3840. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a
older inmates demand of younger ones? petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
a. Code of jail conduct Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
b. Rehabilitation guidelines a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
c. Code of silence BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP
d. Inmate social code for prison record and carpeta
3833. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed b. At least one (1) month before the expiration
when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and of the minimum of the prisoner’s
conditions appearing in his Release Documents? indeterminate sentence
206 | P a g e

c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the b. Congregate Group

BUCOR Director of the BPP request for c. Half-way House
prison record and carpeta d. Diagnostic Center
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the 3850. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
BUCOR Director of the request made by the happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
BPP for the prison record and carpeta Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism
3841. Which of the following contributes to prison violence? b. Rehabilitation
a. Prison industry c. Reformation
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including d. Conformance
overcrowding and threats of homosexual 3851. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of
rapes serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision
c. Conjugal visits correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out probation?
and work a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
3842. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a day
released prisoner to lead a straight life? b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1
a. Scientific advances have made modern day
living more pleasant c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12
b. Police conduct close supervision on released years
prisoners d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
c. Lasting reformation must come from within 3852. The approval of the application of probation is done
and cannot be imposed by the Judge thru the issuance of
d. Many of his contacts and friends are a. Probation Citation Ticket
underworld characters b. Probation Order
3843. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what c. Probation Certificate
shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? d. Probation Clearance
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
b. Saturate the area with riot gas 3853. According to this theory, social actions are repeated
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their (or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in
respective cell the actors mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders a. Containment
3844. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees? b. Differential Association
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole c. Operant Conditioning
b. Probation and Parole Administration d. Differential Identification
c. Bureau of Corrections 3854. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but
d. Department of Justice under great pressure they will resort to crime. . .
3845. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation a. Strain theory
based on the report of the b. Differential association theory
a. Social worker c. Social learning theory
b. Probation officer d. Psychoanalytic theory
c. Prosecutor 3855. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of
d. Police office a prison sentence?
a. Parole
3846. What law grants probation to first time offenders who b. Commutation of sentence
are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years? c. Absolute pardon
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 d. Conditional pardon
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 3856. It is a report on the background of the convict,
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 of application of probation.
3847. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance a. Probation Report
is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is: b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
a. Three (3) years and above c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
b. Not more than six (6) months d. Pre-Trial Report
c. Twelve (12) months and above 3857. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside
d. Six (6) months and above prison or jail known?
3848. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s a. Gleaning
tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation? b. Hustling
a. Leadership c. Benting
b. Supervision d. Vending
c. Activity
d. Recreation 3858. There are various types of prison programs. What
3849. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang type of program that secures prisoner from escape or
Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called violence?
_______________ for counseling and therapy. a. Maintenance
a. Recreation Center b. Rehabilitative
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c. Industrial 3867. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little
d. Security define territory is a type of gang known as:
3859. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid a. Status
Prison is called b. Sporadic
a. Carpeta c. Criminal
b. Released Document d. Collective
c. Commitment Order 3868. The correctional program which enables an individual
d. Mittimus to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual
3860. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community
Theory. living all at the same time is referred to as
a. John Howard _______________
b. Jeremy Bentham a. Livelihood program
c. Cesare Lombroso b. Guidance counseling
d. Cesare Beccaria c. Education program
3861. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants d. Religious program
pardon? 3869. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial
a. Secretary of Justice environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
b. President of the Philippines noncriminal ways to coping outside?
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court a. Psychotherapy
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy
3862. What guarantees the appearance in court of a d. Milieu therapy
defendant granted release on recognizance? 3870. Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment
a. His/her promise to live a new life nor confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are:
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison a. Somewhat prohibited
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, b. Relatively prohibited
etc. c. Absolutely prohibited
d. His/her capacity to raise bail d. Fairly prohibited
3871. Which does not form part of the basic principles for
3863. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their riot control?
minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
or participating in various types of vocational, educational b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
and treatment programs. c. Rapid execution of plan
a. Good time d. Firmness in executing the plan
b. Credits 3872. Prison time is considered a dead time when minutes
c. Days off seem to crawl and the soul grows bitter. Which of the
d. Vacation following mitigate the oppressiveness of time?
3864. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a a. Administrative program
prisoner for parole? b. Security programs
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate c. Rehabilitation programs
sentence d. Custodial program
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a 3873. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three
final judgment of conviction (3) years and one (1) day to death, is known as:
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less a. Provincial Prisoner
the good conduct time allowance earned b. Insular Prisoner
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence c. City Prisoner
a. 4, 1 and 2 d. Municipal Prisoner
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1 3874. How is an offender released from prison or jail?
d. 1, 2 and 3 1. After service of sentence
3865. When an accused is released from imprisonment on 2. Issuance of order of the court
his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon 3. Grant of parole
the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee 4. Grant of pardon
the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called: 5. Grant of amnesty
a. Promise 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
b. Acknowledgment a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
c. Surety b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
d. Recognizance c. All of those listed above
3866. According to the routine activities theory, the volume d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the 3875. The institution during the Golden Age of Penology in
following, EXCEPT: 1870 to 1880 that used parole extensively.
a. Presence of motivated offenders a. Irish Prison System
b. Absence of capable guardians b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Availability of suitable targets c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
d. Absence of motivated offenders d. Irish Parole Organization
3876. Strip search should be conducted:
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a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
witnesses BUCOR Director of the BPP request for
b. At the warden’s office prison record and carpeta
c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the
personnel BUCOR Director of the request made by the
d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the BPP for the prison record and carpeta
others to avoid further embarrassment
3877. Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century 3885. Which of the following contributes to prison violence?
in a. Prison industry
a. Japan b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
b. U.S.A. overcrowding and threats of homosexual
c. England rapes
d. Ireland c. Conjugal visits
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out
and work
3878. You are a jail personnel assigned to censor inmates’ 3886. Which of the following factors makes it difficult for a
mails. In one mail, you found unusual names and released prisoner to lead a straight life?
sentences. What shall you do? a. Scientific advances have made modern
a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden living more pleasant
b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and b. Police conduct close supervision on released
give it to the inmate prisoners
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the c. Lasting reformation must come from within
contents to determine the real meaning of and cannot be imposed
the names and sentences d. Many of his contacts and friends are
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the underworld characters
addressee 3887. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what
3879. The classical theory of criminology provides that the shall be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
basis for criminal liability is ______________________ a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
a. Individual’s thinking b. Saturate the area with riot gas
b. Individual’s mental state c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
c. Human free will respective cell
d. Human facilities d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
3880. He said the “crime must be considered an injury to 3888. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
society, and the only rational measure of crime is the a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
extent of injury.” b. Probation and Parole Administration
a. Jeremy Bentham c. Bureau of Corrections
b. Cesare Beccaria d. Department of Justice
c. James Wilson 3889. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation
d. John Howard based on the report of the
3881. What is the effect of the grant of probation? a. Social worker
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house b. Probation officer
b. The execution of sentence is suspended c. Prosecutor
c. The probationer is sent to prison d. Police office
d. The prison term is doubled
3882. To what programs shall prisoners be assigned so that 3890. What law grants probation to first time offenders who
they can engage in producing goods? are sent to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?
a. Industrial a. Presidential Decree No. 448
b. Operational b. Presidential Decree No. 968
c. Agricultural c. Presidential Decree No. 603
d. Administrative d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
3883. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the 3891. An offender can apply for Release on Recognizance
custodial force shall proceed to their assigned critical is he is convicted with an offense whose penalty is:
posts armed with their issued firearms to: a. Three (3) years and above
a. Shoot at the escapees b. Not more than six (6) months
b. Protect the other inmates c. Twelve (12) months and above
c. Plug off the escape routes d. Six (6) months and above
d. Give warning shots 3892. Which of the following is the prison administrator’s
3884. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a tool for controlling and stabilizing prison operation?
petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the a. Leadership
Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)? b. Supervision
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the c. Activity
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP d. Recreation
for prison record and carpeta 3893. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-release facility called
of the minimum of the prisoner’s _______________ for counseling and therapy.
indeterminate sentence a. Recreation Center
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b. Congregate Group c. Industrial

c. Half-way House d. Security
d. Diagnostic Center 3903. The National Record of the prisoner at the New Bilibid
3894. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest Prison is called
happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy a. Carpeta
Bentham? b. Released Document
a. Utilitarianism c. Commitment Order
b. Rehabilitation d. Mittimus
c. Reformation 3904. The founder of the Classical School of Criminological
d. Conformance Theory.
3895. Juanito was convicted and sentenced for the crime of a. John Howard
serious physical injuries to a prison term of prision b. Jeremy Bentham
correccional. Based on his penalty, is he qualified for c. Cesare Lombroso
probation? d. Cesare Beccaria
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1
day 3905. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 pardon?
day a. Secretary of Justice
c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 b. President of the Philippines
years c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
3896. The approval of the application of probation is done
by the Judge thru the issuance of
a. Probation Citation Ticket 3906. What guarantees the appearance in court of a
b. Probation Order defendant granted release on recognizance?
c. Probation Certificate a. His/her promise to live a new life
d. Probation Clearance b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment,
3897. According to this theory, social actions are repeated etc.
(or not repeated) as a consequence of their association in d. His/her capacity to raise bail
the actors’ mind with punishing or rewarding experiences.
a. Containment 3907. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their
b. Differential Association minimum or maximum term for maintaining good behavior
c. Operant Conditioning or participating in various types of vocational, educational
d. Differential Identification and treatment programs.
3898. This theory assumes that people are law-abiding but a. Good time
under great pressure they will resort to crime. . . b. Credits
a. Strain theory c. Days off
b. Differential association theory d. Vacation
c. Social learning theory 3908. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a
d. Psychoanalytic theory prisoner for parole?
3899. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of 1. Confinement in jail or
a prison sentence? prison to serve an
a. Parole indeterminate sentence
b. Commutation of sentence 2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to
c. Absolute pardon a final judgment of conviction
d. Conditional pardon 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence
3900. It is a report on the background of the convict, less the good conduct time allowance earned
prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
of application of probation. a. 4, 1 and 2
a. Probation Report b. 2, 3 and 4
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report c. 3, 4 and 1
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report d. 1, 2 and 3
d. Pre-Trial Report 3909. When an accused is released from imprisonment on
3901. By what term is selling of illegal commodities inside his or her promise to return to court as required, or upon
prison or jail known? the undertaking of a suitable person that he will guarantee
a. Gleaning the accused’ appearance in court, there is what is called:
b. Hustling a. Promise
c. Benting b. Acknowledgment
d. Vending c. Surety
d. Recognizance
3902. There are various types of prison programs. What 3910. According to the routine activities theory, the volume
type of program that secures prisoner from escape or and distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the
violence? following, EXCEPT:
a. Maintenance a. Presence of motivated offenders
b. Rehabilitative b. Absence of capable guardians
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c. Availability of suitable targets c. RDC

d. Absence of motivated offenders d. Correction
3921. The continuing relationship between probation officer
3911. A group that has a short history, limited size, and little and probationer is known as?
define territory is a type of gang known as: a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
a. Status b. None of these
b. Sporadic c. supervision
c. Criminal d. affiliation guidance
d. Collective 3922. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for
3912. The correctional program which enables an individual every____number of inmates.
to enhance his employability, develop his intellectual a. 1:2
faculties, and graduate to a free existence in community b. 1:4
living all at the same time is referred to as c. 1:12
_______________ d. 1:7
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling 3923. He was the first Superintendent of Elmira sentence
c. Education program reformatory.
d. Religious program a. John Augustus
3913. What rehabilitation program that provides a presocial b. John Howard
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop c. Zebulon Brockway
noncriminal ways to coping outside? d. Teodulo Natividad
a. Psychotherapy
b. Behavior therapy 3924. Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon
c. Occupational therapy the council.
d. Milieu therapy a. amnesty
3914. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following b. commutation
instances: c. pardon
a. Rape d. commutation of sentenc
b. Murder
c. Impeachment
d. Brigandage
3915. It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by
the Philippine Government:
a. John Augustus
b. Teodolo C Natividad
c. Edward N Savage
d. Mattew Davenport

3916. Which of the following is a prerogative of the chief

executive with concurrence of congress:
a. probation
b. amnesty
c. pardon
d. parole
3917. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims
such as gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
a. Compound crime
b. Complex crime
c. Blue collar crime
d. Victimless crime
3918. An open institution usually a penal form or camp.
a. Maximum security institution
b. Minimum security institution
c. Medium security institution
d. None of these
3919. They assist probation and parole office in the
supervision of the probationers.
a. Volunteer workers
b. Volunteer probation officers
c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides

3920. It ensures a more careful selection of the institution in

which the prisoner is to be confined.
a. Quarantine unit
b. Courts
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