PHYSICS

NEET MODEL TEST – VI JUNE, 2016

1. Which of the following will have the dimensions of time?

R L C
1) LC 2) 3) 4)
L R L
2. A Boy standing at the top of a tower of 20m height drops a stone. Assuming, g  10ms 2 , the velocity with
which it hits the ground is
1)20m/ s 2) 40m/s 3) 5m/s 4) 10m/s
3. Three different objects of masses m1, m 2 and m3 are allowed to fall from the same point O along three
different frictionless paths. The speeds of the three objects on reaching the ground will be in the ratio of
1 2 3
1) m1 : m 2 : m3 2) m1 : 2m 2 : 3m3 3) 1:1:1 4) : :
m1 m 2 m3
    
4. A and B are two vectors and  is the angle between them. If A  B  3 A, B , them the value of  is

 
1) 60 2) 45 3) 30 4) 90
5. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100m, taking 62.8s for every circular lap. The
average velocity and average speed for each circular lap respectively is
1) 0, 0 2) 0, 10 m/s 3) 10 m/s, 10 m/s 4) 10 m/s, 0
6. A car of mass 1000kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle
is 45 , the speed of the car is
1) 20ms 1 2) 30ms 1 3) 5ms 1 4) 10ms 1
7. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts
moving upwards with an acceleration 10m / s 2 .If g =10m/s 2 , the tension in the supporting cable is
1) 9680 N 2) 11000 N 3) 1200 N 4) 8600 N
8. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in newton and x is in
metre. The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
F(N)
3
2
1
O X(N)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1). 4.5 J 2) 13.5 J 3) 9.0 J 4) 18.0 J
9. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional
forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine ? ( Take g  10m / s 2 )
1) 8.1 kW 2) 10.2 kW 3) 12.3 kW 4) 7.0 kW
10. Two bodies of masres 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors i  2 j  k and 3i  2j  k respectively. The
  
centre of mass of this system has a position vector
1) 2i  2k 2) 2i  j  k 3) 2i  j  2k 4) i  j  k
11. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity  . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is  . The coin will revolve with the record if
2 g g
1) r  g2 2) r  3) r  2 4) r  2
g  
12. If a flywheel makes 120 rev/min, then its angular speed will be
1) 8 rad/s 2) 6 rad/s 3) 4 rad/s 4) 2 rad/s
13. For a satellite escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the satellite is launched at an angle of 60 with the vertical, then
escape velocity will be
11
1) 11 km/s 2) 11 3km / s 3) km / s 4) 33 km/s
3
14. Distance of two planets from the sun are 1013 and 1012 m respectively. The ratio of time period of these two
planets is
1
1) 2) 100 3) 10 10 4) 10
10

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15. Certain quantity of water cools from 70C to 60C in the first and 54C in the next 5 min. The temperature
of the surroundings is
1) 45C 2) 20C 3) 42C 4) 10C
16. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. If first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns
to white hot. The correct. Explanation for the above observation is possible by using
1) Stefan’s law 2) Wien’s displacement law
3) Kirchhoff’s law 4) Newton’s law of cooling
17. If U and W represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a
thermodynamical process, which of the following its true ?
1) U = – W, in an adiabatic process 2) U = – W, in an adiabatic process
3) U = – W, in an adiabatic process 4) U = – W, in an adiabatic process
18. A black body at 227C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cal cm-2s-1 . At a temperature of 2270C the rate of heat
radiated in the same units will be
1) 60 2) 50 3) 112 4) 80
19. The efficiency of Carnot engine is 50% and temperature of sink is 500 K. If the temperature of source is
kept constant and its efficiency is to be raised to 60%, then the required temperature of the sink will be
1) 600 k 2) 500 K 3) 400 k 4) 400 K
20. The composition of two simple harmonic motion of equal periods at right angle to each other and with a
phase difference of  result in the displacement of the particle along
1) circle 2) figure of eight 3) straight 4) ellipse
21. The frequency of sinusoidal wave 0.40 cos [2000t + 0.80] would be
1000
1) 1000 Hz 2) 2000 Hz 3) 20 Hz 4) Hz

22. Two trains move towards each other with the same speed. The speed of sound is 340 m/s. If the tone of the
whistle of one of them heard on the other change 9/8 times. Then the speed of each train should be
1) 20 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 200 m/s 4) 2000 m/s
23. A closed organ pipe (closed at one end) is excited to support the third overtime. It is found that air the pipe
has
1) three nodes and three antinodes 2) three nodes and four antinodes
3) four nodes and three antinodes 4) four nodes and four antinodes
24. A charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two exactly equal positive charge Q. The system of
three charge will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to
Q Q
1)  2) + Q 3) – Q 4)
4 2
25. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6F is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its
energy will be
1) 4  10-4 J 2) 4  10-14 J 3) 9  10-4 J 4) 12  10-6 J
26. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by 10 percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance
become respectively
1) 1.2 times, 1.1 times 2) 1.21 times, same
3) Both remain the same 4) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
27. When a wire of uniform cross-section a, length l and resistance R is bent into a complete circle, resistance
between two of diametrically opposite points will be
R R R
1) 2) 3) 4R 4)
4 8 2
28. The resistance of a discharge tube is
1) zero 2) ohmic 3) non-ohmic 4) infinity
29. The masses of the three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 : 3 :
1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is
1) 1 : 3 : 5 2) 5 : 3 : 1 3) 1 : 25 : 125 4) 125 : 15 : 1
30. A current of 2A, passing through a conductor produced 80J of heat in s. The resistance of the conductor in
ohm is
1) 0.5 2) 2 3) 4 4) 20
2
31. A straight wire of length 0.5 m and carrying a current of 1.2 A is placed in uniform 2 T. The magnetic field
is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is
1) 2.4 N 2) 1.2 N 3) 3.0 N 4) 2.0 N
32. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron
moves in a circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular
path will be
1) 2.0 cm 2) 0.5 cm 3) 4.0 cm 4) 1.0 cm
33. In which type of material the magnetic susceptibility does not depend on temperature ?
1) Diamagnetic 2) Paramagnetic 3) Ferromagnetic 4) Ferrite
34. The current in self- inductance L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly from 1 A to 11 A in 4 millisecond.
The emf induced in inductor during the process is
1) 100 V 2) 0.4 V 3) 4 V 4) 440 V
35. The primary winding of transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is
connected to an AC supply of 20V-50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of
1) 2 V, 5 Hz 2) 200 V, 500 Hz 3) 2 V, 50 Hz 4) 200 V, 50 Hz
36. A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 5 cm are combined together. What
will be their resulting power ?
1) + 6.5 D 2) – 6.5 D 3) +7.5 D 4) – 0.75 D
37. A current of 1.5 A flows through a coil of self inductance 0.8 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is
1) 1.2 Wb 2) 0.53 Wb 3)0.96 Wb 4) 1.8 Wb
38. Interference is possible in
1)light waves only 2)sound waves only
3)Both light and sound waves 4)Neither light nor sound waves
39. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li2+ from the first to the second Bohr orbit is
1) 30.6 eV 2) 46.4 eV 3) 91.8 eV 4) 112.6 eV
40. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 10F,
 = 1000 rads–1 and R = 300  ?
1) 0.1 mH 2) 100 mH 3) 10 mH 4) 1 mH
41. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
1) PE decreases and KE increases 2) PE increases and KE decreases
3) both KE and PE decreases 4) absorption spectrum
13 14
42. The nuclei 6 C and 7 N can be described as
1) isotones 2) isobars 3) isotopes of carbon 4) isotopes of nitrogen
43. The nucleus 115
48 Cd , after two successive -decay will give
115
1) 46 Pa 2) 49 In114 3) 50 Sn113 4) 50 Sn115
44. Water rises upto a height h in a capillary tube of certain diameter and length, when dipped in water. This
capillary tube is replaced by a similar tube of half the diameter and twice the length. Now, the water will
rise to a height of
h
1) h 2) 3) 2h 4) 4h
2
45. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2, the electric charge
inside the surface is
    
1) (2  1 )o 2) (2  1 )o 3)  2 1  4) 2 1
 o  o
CHEMISTRY
46. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction A  BC
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.10
4 0.012 0.070 0.80
1) Rate = k  B 2) Rate = k  B 3) Rate = k  A  B 4) Rate = k  A   B
3 4 3 2 2

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47. When K2O is added to water, the solution is basic because it contains a significant concentration of
1) O 22  2) O3 3) OH 4) K 

48. How many EDTA molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with Ca2+ ion?
1) 6 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2
49. In a face centred cubic arrangement of A and B atoms in which A atoms are at the corners of the unit cell
and B atoms at the face centres, one of the A atom is missing from one corner in unit cell. The simplest
formula of compound is
1) A7B3 2) AB3 3) A7B24 4) A7/8B3
50. 75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 min. what is the time required for 93.75% of the reaction
(in min) to be completed?
1) 60 2) 45 3) 90 4) 120
CH2 = CH –– CH = CH –– CH –– C  CH
51. The IUPAC name of
|
CH = CH2

1) 3 – Ethynylhepta – 1, 4, 6 – triene 2) 3 – Ethenylhepta – 4, 6 – dien – 1 – yne

3) 5 – Ethynylhepta – 1, 3, 6 – triene 4) 5 – Ethenylhepta – 1, 3 – dien – 6 – yne
52. A and B are two isomeric compounds with molecular formula, C5 H10 . A decolourises Br2 / CCl4 but B
does not. Pick up the correct statement about A and B
1) A can be cyclopentane 2) B can be cyclopentane
3) A and B both are olefins 4) A cannot be 2 – pentene
1
53. In which of the following diatomic molecules is the bond order of each molecule 2 ?
2
     
1) N 2 , NO, O 2 2) O 2 , NO, CN 3) N 2 , CN, O2 4) CN  , N 2 , N 2

54. Equal weights of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed in evacuated container at room temperature. The
pressure exerted by the mixture is 680 mm. The pressure exerted by oxygen is
1) 640 mm 2) 40 mm 3) 340 mm 4) 510 mm
55. M (g)  M  (g) e ; H  100 eV
M  g   M 2  g   2e  ; H  250 eV . Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
1) 1E1 of M(g) is 100 eV 2) 1E2 of M+(g) is 150 eV
3) 1E2 of M(g) is 250 eV 4) 1E2 of M(g) is 150 eV
2
–– C  CH   X
Hg , Dil. H 2SO 4
56. Identify ‘X’ in the following reaction,

–– CH2CHO –– CHO –– COCH3 O

1) 2) 3) 4)
CHO
57. Which of the following compounds is most rapidly hydrolysed by SN1mechanism?
1) CH 3CH  CHCl 2) ClCH 2CH  CH 2 3)  C6 H 5 3 CCl 4) C6 H 5CH 2Cl
58. Which of the following compounds is achiral?
1) CH3 – CH–CH2 2) CH3CHOHCN
O
H
2) OH 4) Cl Br
O
59. A system at 273 K absorbs 1200 J of heat. As a result, its volume as well temperature become double.
The work done by the system on the surroundings is 800 J. E for the process will be
1) + 400 J 2) – 400 J 3) + 2000 J 4) – 2000 J.
60. For the reaction 2 A(g) + B2(g)  2 AB2(g) the equilibrium constant, Kp at 300 K is 16.0. The value of
Kp for AB2  g   A  g   1/ 2B2  g  is
1) 8 2) 0.25 3) 0.125 4) 32

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61. 50 ml of solution of pH = 1 is mixed with 50 ml of solution of pH = 2. The pH of the mixture is nearly
1) 2 2) 1.74 3) 1.26 4) 0
62. The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and sodium acetate at 298 K are 126.45,
426.16 and 91.0 ohm– 1 cm2 respectively. The value of equivalent conductance of acetic acid at the same
temperature is
1) 643.61 ohm– 1 cm2eq– 1 2) 299.71 ohm– 1 cm2eq– 1
3) 517.16 ohm– 1 cm2eq– 1 4) 390.71 ohm– 1 cm2eq– 1
63. In the reaction I 2  XeF2 
BF3
2IF  Xe . I2 behaves as a/an
1) Oxidising agent 2) Reducing agent 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of these
64. The compound with highest pKa is expected to be
1) p – nitrophenol 2) p – chlorophenol 3) p – methylphenol 4) p - methoxyphenol
65. Most reactive compound towards formation of cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by
acidification is
1) benzaldehyde 2) p – nitrobenzaldehyde
3) phenylacetaldehyde 4) p – hydroxbenzaldehyde
66. At 298 K, the solubility product of MI is 10 – 6 (conc. are expressed as mol kg – 1). The solubility of MI in
0.1 molal KI solution is
1) 10 – 6 mol kg – 1 2) 10 – 5 mol kg – 1 3) 10 – 4 mol kg – 1 4) 10 – 3 mol kg – 1
67. Which has the minimum freezing point?
1) One molalNaCl solution 2) One molalKCl solution
3) One molal CaCl2 solution 4) One molal urea solution
68. Yellow colour of chromites changes to orange on acidification due to the formation of
1) CrO3 2) CrO 24 3) Cr2O 72 2
4) Cr3O10
69. A mixture of benzoic acid K a  6.3  10 5  and o – chlorobenzoic acid K a  12  105  can be
separated by treating with an aqueous solution of
1) Sodium formate 2) Sodium carbonate 3) Sodium hydroxide 4) Sodium chloride
70. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 ml of 0.5 M HCl with 250 ml of 2 M HCl will be
1) 0.875 M 2) 1.00 M 3) 1.25 M 4) 2.5 M
71. 180 mL of hydrocarbon takes 15 min to diffuse. Under the same conditions 120 mL of sulphur dioxide
(mol. wt. 64) takes 20 min. the molecular weight of the hydrocarbon is:
1) 16 2) 32 3) 48 4) 64
72. Dissociation energies of methane and ethane are 1500 and 2600 kJ mol – 1 respectively. What will be
C – C bond energy?
1) 1100 kJ 2) 4100 kJ 3) 350 kJ 4) none of these
73. PCl5 is in equilibrium with PCl3 and Cl2 in a cylinder provided with a piston. When the system is
compressed with the help of the piston which of the following will happen?
1) Some more PCl5 will decompose to give PCl3 and Cl2
2) Some PCl3 and Cl2 will combine to give more of PCl5
3) There will be no effect
4) Some PCl5 will decompose to give phosphorous and Cl2.?
74. The conjugate base of HSO 4 ion is
1) HS 2) H 2SO4 3) SO 32 4) SO 24
75. The pH of 2.5  101 mol dm3 HCN(aq)  K a  4  1010  is
1) 2  105 2) 2.0 3) 4.7 4) 5.0
76. The product of the following reaction is HO NH2 (CH3CO)2 O(1 mole)
+
H

1) CH3COO NH2 2) HO NHCOCH3

3) HO NH2 4) HO NH2

COCH3 COCH3

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77. Compound contains two types of atoms, X and Y. Its crystal structure is a cubic lattice with X atoms at the
corners of the unit cell and Y atoms at the body centre. The simplest formula of this compound is
1) XY 2) XY2 3) X2Y 4) X2Y2
78. One molal aqueous is BaCl2 solution will boil at (assuming BaCl2 is 100% dissociated and K b  0.52 )
1) 101.560C 2) 100.520C 3) 1.56 4) 0.52
79. The reagent which can be used to distinguish between starch and sucrose is
1) Tollens’ regent 2) Phenythydrazine 3) Brady’s regent 4) Iodine solution
80. The emf of the cell Cu  s  | Cu 2   aq  || Ag   aq  | Ag is 0.46 V. The standard reduction potential
of Ag  / Ag is 0.80V . The standard reduction potential of Cu 2 / Cu will be
1) – 0.34 V 2) + 0.34 V 3) – 1.26 V 4) + 1.26 V
CH CH CH3

81. The addition of HCl to results in the formation of

Cl Cl

CH CH2 CH3 CH2 CH CH3

1) 2)
Cl

CH2 CH2 CH2

3) 4) Equimolar mixture of 1) and 2)

82. Which of the following aqueous solutions will have the highest osmotic pressure?
1) 1% glucose 2) 1% sucrose 3) 1% NaCl 4) 1% CaCl2
83. Zr and Hf have almost same size due to
1) increase in the Effective nuclear charge 2) increase in shielding effect
3) lanthanide contraction 4) none of these
84. What is the correct sequence of bond order?
1) O2>O2-1>O2-1 2) O2-1>O2+1>O2 3) O2+1>O2-1>O2 4) O2+1>O2>O2-1
85. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is
1 1 1 1
1) 2, 0, 0, + 2) 2, 1, -1, + 3) 3, 1, 1,  4) 3, 0, 0, 
2 2 2 2
86. The first line in the Balmer series in the H-atom will have the frequency
1) 4.57 1014 s 1 2) 3.89  1015 s 1 3) 7.53  1015 s 1 4) 8.15  1013 s 1
87. The concentration at which degree of dissociation of a 0.2 M solution of CH3COOH becomes double is (Ka
of CH3COOH = 1.8  10–5)
1) 0.1 M 2) 0.009 M 3) 0.4 M 4) 0.049 M
88. Which one of the following statements is not true?
1) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
2) Aspirin is both analgesic and antipyretic
3) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial drug
4) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptics.
89. The activation energy of a reaction is 5 kcal/mol. The increase in the rate constant when its temperature is
raised from 300K to 310 K is approximately
1) 15% 2) 50% 3) 100% 4) 31%
90. NH3 gas is liquefied more easily than N2. Hence
1) van der Waal’s constants a and b of NH3 is greater than that of N2
2) van der Waal’s constants a and b of NH3 is smaller than that of N2
3) a ( NH3) > a (N2) but b (NH3) < b (N2)
4) a ( NH3) < a (N2) but b (NH3) > b (N2)
BIOLOGY
91. Identify the wrong match with respect to the disease and its casual organism.
1) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis 2) Loose smut of wheat - ustilago nuda
3) Root knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp. 4) Late blight of potato-Alternaria solani
92. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in
1)Oscillatoria 2) Rhodospirillum 3) Chlorobium 4) Chromatium

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93. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is
1)Volvox  Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus Lantana Oak
2) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla Oak Lantana
3) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus
4) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia Hydrilla Volvox
94. Cotyledons and testa, respectively are the edible parts in
1) Walnut and Tamarind  2) French bean and coconut
3) Cashewnut and Litchi 4) Groundnut and pomegranate
95. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that genetic code is a triplet code?
1) Hershy and chase 2) Meselson and Stahl
3) Beadle and Tatum 4) Nirenberg and Mathaei
96. Consider the following statements
(i) In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are collateral and endarch.
(ii) The inner most layer of cortex in a dicot root is endodermis.
(iii) In a dicot root, the phloem masses are separated from the xylem by parenchymatous cells that are
known as the conjunctive tissue.
Of the statements given above
1) (i) is true, but (ii) and (iii) are false 2) (ii) is true, but (i) and (iii) are false
3) (i) is false, but (ii) and (iii) are true 4) (iii) is false, but (i) and (iii) are true
97. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?
1) Indole acetic acid 2) Gibberellic acid 3) Abscissic acid 4) Indole butyric acid
98. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in the photosynthesis of
1) A bryophyte 2) A gymnosperm 3) An angiosperm 4) An alga
99. Refer the experiment given below

After a few days, which of the following will have occurred?

1) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y. 2) A drop in level X and a drop in level Y.
3) A rise in level X and a rise in level Y. 4) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y.
100. A renewable, exhaustible natural resource is
1) Coal 2) Petroleum 3) Minerals 4) Forest
101. Coiling garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of
1) Thigmotaxis 2) Thigmonasty 3) Thigmotropism 4) Thermotaxis
102. The Scutellum of grass embryo is comparable to which part of the other monocotyledons?
1) Cotyledon 2) Endosperm 3) Aleurone layer 4) Plumule
103. “Himgiri” developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of
1) Coffee 2) Sugarcane 3) Maize 4) Wheat
104. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in the species of
1) Citrus 2) Gossypium 3) Triticum 4) Brassica
105. What are the structures called that give an appearance as “Beads-on-string” in the chromatin when viewed
under electron microscope?
1) Nucleotides 2) Nucleosomes 3) Chromomeres 4) Genes
106. The Scrubber is used mainly to remove the following gas/es from the exhaust after spraying water/ lime
1) CO2 2) SO2 3) O2&N2 4) CO&CO2
107. The gemetophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
1) Polytrichum 2) Adiantum 3) Marchantia 4) Pinus
108. Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) In Torpedo the electric organs are capable of generating strong electric shock to paralyze the prey,
(ii) Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal anal and caudal fins in swimming.
(iii) Amphibian skin is moist and has thick scales,
(iv) Birds are poikilothermous animals,
(v) The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of milk producing mammary glands by
which the young ones are nourished.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true; (iv), E are false
(2) (i), (ii) and (v) are true; (iii) and (iv) are false
(3) (i), (iv) and (v) are true; (ii) and (iii) are false
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false; (iii) and (v) are true
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109. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person, the P-wave represents the
1) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
2) Beginning of the systole
3) End of systole
4) Contraction of both the atria
110. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
1) Papaya 2) Cucumber 3) Castor 4) Maize
111. Measuring Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for
1) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
2) Working out the efficiency of RBC about their capacity to carry oxygen.
3) Estimating the organic content of the protoplasm
4) Estimating the fermenting efficiency of different of strains of yeast.
112. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of
1) Ethanol 2) Streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels
3) Citric acid 4) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
113. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having
1) Seeds 2) Motile sperms 3) Cambium 4) Vessels
114. The highest number of species amongst the following in the world is represented by
1) Fungi 2) Mosses 3) Algae 4) Lichens
115. Vexillary aestivation is charecterstic of the family
1) Fabaceae 2) Asteraceae 3) Solanaceae 4) Brassicaceae
116. Identify A, B
1) A - DNA; B - HI histone; C - Histone octamer
2) A - HI histone; B - DNA; C - Histone octamer
3) A - Histone octamer; B - RNA; C - HI histone
4) A - RNA; B - HI histone; C - Histone octamer
117. F2 generation in a mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are
same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of
1) Co-dominance 2) Dihybrid cross
3) Mono hybrid cross with complete dominance 4) Mono hybrid cross with incomplete dominance
118. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group
1) Fungi 2) Animalia 3) Monera 4) Plantae
119. Root development is promoted by
1) Abscissic acid 2) IAA 3) Gibberellin 4) Ethylene
120. Silencing of m-RNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to
1) Bollworms 2) Nematodes 3) White rust 4) Bacterial blights
121. The curve given below shows enzyme activity in relation to three conditions (pH, temperature
and substrate concentration)

What do the two axises (x and y) represent?

X - axis Y - axis
Enzyme activity pH
Temperature Enzyme activity
Substrate concentration Enzyme activity
Enzyme activity Temperature
122. Identify the wrong match
1) Pencillium - Conidia 2) Water hyacinth - Runner
3) Bryophyllum - leaf buds 4) Agave – Bulbils

8
123. Choose the right option.

S.No.
A B C D
(1)
Volvo x Chlamydomonas Laminaria Chara
(2)
Chara Laminaria VoIvox Chlamydomonas
(3)
Laminaria Volvo x Chlamydomonas Chara
(4)
Chlamydomon Chara Laminaria Volvox
as column-II and choose the right option
124. Match the column-I with
Column-I Column-II
A. Statins I. Yeast
B. Ethanol II. Blood-cholesterol lowering agent
C Dung III. Insect-resistant plant
D. Bt-cotton . IV Biogas
1) A(II); B(I); C(IV); D(III) 2) A(III); B(IV); C(I); D(II)
3) A(I); B(II); C(III); D(IV) 4) A(IV); B(II); C(I); D(III)
125. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
1) Caused by a virus 2) Caused by gram +ve bacteria
3) Caused by gram -ve bacteria 4) not an infectious disease
126. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?
1) Golgi complex 2) Peroxisome 3) Vacuole 4) Lysosome
127. Industrial melanism as observed in Peppered moth proves that
1) the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
2) the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
3) melanism'is a pollution-generated feature
4) the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
128. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of “Bordeaux mixture” as a popular fungicide?
1) Loose smut of wheat 2) Black rust of wheat
3) Bacterial leaf blight of Rice 4) Downy midew of grapes
129. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action?
1) Pollen exine 2) Leaf cuticle 3) Cork 4) Wood fibre
130. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because
1) Haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids.
2) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive, are expressed in haploids.
3) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
4) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than in diploids.

9
131. Study the diagram of Synapse

I. Which numbered label indicate the location of the receptor molecules?

II. Which number points to a synaptic vesicles?
III. Which number point to neurotransmitter?
IV. Which number points to synaptic cleft?
I II III IV
1) C A B D
2) B A C D
3) C A D B
4) C D A B

132. Plants with ovaries having only one or few ovules, are generally pollinated by
1) bees 2) Butterflies 3) birds 4) wind
133. Mendelian recombinations are due to
1) Crossing – over 2) Anaphasic Segregation 3) Mutations 4) Synapsis
134. What is it that forms the basis of DNA finger printing?
1) The relative proportion of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
2) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
3) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and groves of the fingerprints
4) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
135. In a fully turgid cell the value of which of the following is zero?
1) Osmotic potential 2) Pressure potential 3) Osmotic pressure 4) Water potential
136. Select the option which correctly fills the blanks in the given table…

Phylum Excretory Respiratory Circulatory

organ system system

Annelida E F Closed

Mollusca Metanephridia G H

E F G H
1) Flame cells book gills ctenidia/gills open
2) Nephridia skin / gills ctenidia/gills open
3) parapodia book gills book lungs closed
4) protonephridia booklungs ctenidia/gills open
137. In chordates, the notochord is
1) mesodermal and dorsal to nerve cord 2) endodermal and ventral to nerve cord
3) ectodermal and dorsal to nerve cord 4) mesodermal and ventral to nerve cord
138. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct ?
1) Insects are completely pseudocoelomates
2) Molluscs are acoelomates
3) Round worms of Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates
4) Flat worms of Platyhelminthes are eucoelomates
139. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature
without even a single exception?
1) Reptilia : possess three-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
2) Mammalia : give birth to young ones.
3) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw.
4) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.

10
140. Read the following related to human eye
Part Character Special feature
of
eye

A B Greatest visual activity

Rods Rhodopsin C

D Absence of Slightly above the posterior pole of

photoreceptor cells eye ball

Identify the correct indications of A,B,C & D from the following

A B C D
1) Fovea Rods are densely packed day light & Colour vision Blind spot
2) Blindspot cones are densely packed twilight vision Fovea
3) Fovea cones are densely packed Twilight vision Blind spot
4) Pupil Rods are densely packed Color vision visible part of eye
141. Identify the part among the following with cuboidal epithelium with microvilli
1) ducts of glands 2) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
3) walls of blood vessels 4) lining of stomach and intestine
142. Communication junctions of cardiac muscle tissue which allow the cells to contract as a unit are
1) intervertebral discs 2) Adhering junction 3) tight junctions 4) Intercalated discs
143. Which of the following is a correct match ?
1) Cray fish – elasmobranch 2) Cuttle fish – osteichthyes
3) jelly fish – echinodermata 4) silver fish – arthropoda
144. Which of the following characters are NOT CORRECT for class Aves?
A) Dry skin without glands except oil/preen gland located at the tip of tail.
B) Alimentary canal has two additional chambers, crop and gizzard.
C) Endoskeleton is fully cartilaginous.
D) Long bones are hollow and pneumatic with air cavities.
1) ‘A’ and ‘C’ 2) ‘C’ only 3) ‘B’ and ‘C’ 4) ‘A’ and ‘D’
145. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those
living at an altitude of 5300 meters have around 7 million. This is because at high altitude...
a)people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
2) people get pollution-free air to breath and more oxygen is available.
3) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
4) atmospheric PO2 is less and hence more number of RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of
O2 to survive.
146. The type of connective tissue that forms the connections between the muscle and bone is
1) Loose connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue
3) Adipose tissue 4) Dense regular connective tissue
147. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
1) Adaptive radiation** 2) Convergent evolution
3) Industrial melanism 4) Connecting link
148. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following ?
1) glucocorticoids 2) Cortisol 3) Aldosterone 4) Adrenaline
149. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of :
1) Tuberculosis 2) Typhoid 3) Malaria 4) Pneumonia
150. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect ?
1) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
2) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
3) The flow of blood into the systemic aorta will be slowed down
4) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
151. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human
testis is:
1) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid – sperms
2) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia - sperms
3) spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte - sperms
4) spermatocyte – spermatogonia

11
152. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
1) Whore cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
3) Who cannot produce an ovum
4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
153. The ear ossicle attached to the inner surface of the ear drum is
1)Stapes 2)Incus 3)Maleus 4)Cochlea
154. Which one of the follwing mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbondioxide
aerobically?
1) unstraited muscle cells 2) liver cells 3) red blood cells 4) white blood cells
155. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts
climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?
1) adrenaline 2) glucagon 3) gastrin 4) thyroxine
156. Consider the following statements concerning food chains
(A) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
(B) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers
(C) The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels.
(D) The length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels.
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1) A, B 2) B, C 3) C, D 4) A, D
157. The drug which has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system and produces a sense of
euphoria and increased energy is
1)Heroin 2)Marijuana 3)Cocaine 4)Morphine
158. Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence
in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together.
Developmental stage Site of occurrence
a)8 - celled morula ---- Starting point of Fallopian tube
2) Late morula ---- anterior part of vagina
3) Blastocyst ----- Uterine wall
4) Blastula ---- End part of Fallopian tube
159. Match the following
Excretory organ Animal
A)Protonephridia 1)Ascidia
B)metanephrida 2)Nereis
C)Antennal gland 3)Amphioxus
D)Neural gland 4)Palaemon
5)Palamnaeus
ABCD
1) 2 3 4 1
2) 3 2 5 1
3) 2 4 5 1
4) 3 2 4 1
160. The role of oxytocin in human adult females is
1) Creation of strong uterine contractions during parturition
2) Production of milk in mammary glands
3) Stimulates growth of mammary glands
4) Stimulates pituitary to secrete hormones
161. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to
both its parents. This phenomenon is called
1) Metamorphosis 2) Heterosis 3) Transformation 4) Splicing
162. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of the gut epithelium is blocked with an inhibitor?
1) Trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
2) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
3) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
4) inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin
163. Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it ?
1) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing
2) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
3) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
4) All sponges are marine and have collared cells

12
164. Identify the origin of sympathetic nerve fibres and the location of their ganglia
a)they arise from thoraco-cervical rregion of spinal cord and form ganglia just beside the vertebral
column
2) they arise from thorcaco-lumbar region of spinal cord and form ganglia just beside the vertebral
column
3) they arise from cranio-sacral region of spinal cord and form ganglia very close to effector organ
4) they arise from thoraco-lumbar region of spinal cord and form ganglia very close to effector organs
165. Select the correct matching of animals, their symmetry, organisation and coelm type

Animal Symmetry Organisation Type of coelom

1) Cetenophores Radial Diploblastic Pseudocoelomates
2) Echinoderms Bilateral Diploblastic Coelomates
3) Platyhelminthes Bilateral Triploblastic Acoelomates
4) Annelids Biradial diploblastic coelomates

166. Which one of the follwing Palindromic base sequence in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by
some Particular restriction enzyme?
(1) 51 ________ GATATG ________ 31
31 ________ CTACTA ________ 51
(2) 51 ________ GAATTC ________ 31
31 ________ CTTAAG ________51
(3) 51 ________ CACGTA _______ 31
31 ________ CTCAGA _______ 51
(4) 51 ________ CGTTCG _______ 31
31 ________ ATGGTA ________ 51

167. Identify the correct statement among the following

a)pyramid of energy is inverted in case of aquatic ecosystem
2) saprophytes are not represented in ecological pyramids
3) pyramid of biomass are always inverted in nature
4) herbivores are more than producers in the pyramid of number
168. Which of the following relations is correct regarding GPP and NPP of an ecosystem?
a)NPP = GPP + Animal consumption 2) NPP = GPP –Animal consumption
3) NPP = GPP – plant respiration 4) NPP = GPP + plant respiration
169. Select the right option with respect to the codes (A,B and C) given below
Free floating form of Cnidaria -- A
Blood filled cavity in arthropods -- B
Lateral appendages in aquatic annelids --- C
A B C
1) Polyp haemocoel parapodia
2) Medusa Enterocoel nephridia
3) Polyp haemocoel parapodia
4) Medusa haemocoel parapodia
170. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
against them ?
1) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (Poikilothermal)
2) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
3) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
4) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
171. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
1)Renal corpuscle, Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are present in cortical region of kidney.
2) the medullary zone of kidney is divided into renal pyramids projecting into calyces.
3) inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between medullary pryamids as renal pelvis.
4) glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is known as renal corpuslce.

13
172. Diagram given below shows stages in embryogenesis in a typical
dicot (Capsella). Identify structures A to D respectively
1) Suspensor, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
2) Hypophysis, Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledons
3) Suspensor, Plumule, Radicle, Cotyledons
4) Suspensor, Radicule, Plumule, Hypocotyls

173. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is
a derivative of
1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B1 3) Vitamin C 4) Vitamin D
174. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1400 cc in
1)Homo erectus 2) Homo neanderthealensis 3) Homo habilus 4) Rama pithecus
175. Systemic heart refers to
1) The two ventricles together in humans
2) The heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
3) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
4) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
176. Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
for four features (1-4) which one feature is correctly decribed?
Feature sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system
1) Salivary gland inhibit secretion stimulate secretion
2) pupil of the eye dilates constricts
3) heart rate decreases increases
4) intestinal peristalsis stimulates inhibits
177. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Electrostatic precipitator (i) Removes gases like SO2
(Q) Scrubber (ii) Removes impurities from exhaust of vehicles
(R) Catalytic converter (iii) Removes particulate matter
1) (p-i) ,(q-ii),(r-iii) 2) (p-iii),(q-i),(r-ii) 3) (p-iii),(q-ii),(r-i) 4) (p-ii),(q-i),(r-iii)
178. A normal - Visioned man whose father was colourblind, marries a woman whose father was also
colourblind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be
colourblind?
1) 100% 2) 0% 3) 25% 4) 50%
179. Match the column-I & column-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) Cold (i) Rhino Virus
(Q) Pneumonia (ii) HIV
(R) AIDS (iii) Salmonella typhi
(S) Typhoid (iv) Halmophilus Influenza
(v) Plasmodium Vivex
1) P - i, Q - iv, R - v, S – ii 2) P - i, Q - iv, R - ii, S - v
3) P - i, Q - iv, R - ii, S – iii 4) P - i, Q - iii, R - ii, S – iv
180. Gel electrophoresis is used for—
1) Isolation of DNA molecule
2) Cutting of DNA in to fragments
3) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
4) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning Vector

Boscoss, III & IV Floor, ESSEL Centre, Near PVS Circle, Mangalore-3, Ph: 0824-4272728, 9972458537/NEET-2016

14
 PHYSICS
NEET MODEL TEST – VI JUNE, 2016

SOLUTION
1. (3)
L L
is time constant of R – L circuit so, dimension of is same as that of time.
R R
2 2 2
Alternative Dimension of L  [ML T A ]  [T]
2 3 2
Dimension of R [ML T A ]
2. (1)
Given, g = 10m/s-2 and = h = 20 m
We have  = 2gh  2  10  20  400  20m / s
3. (3)
When an object falls freely under gravity, then its speed depends only on its height of fall and is
independent of the mass of the object. As all objects are falling through the same height, therefore their
speeds on reaching the ground will be in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1
4. (1)
Given, |A  B| = A (A . B)  A sin  = 3 AB cos   tan  = 3   = 60
5. (2)
On a circular path in completing one turn, the distance travelled is 2r while displacement is zero.
Displacement 0
Hence, average velocity =  0
Time  int erval t
Diatance 2r 2  3.14 100
Avarage speed    = 10 ms–1
Time  int erval t 62.8
6. (2)
2
The angle of banking tan   Given,  = 45
1g
2
Radius of banked curve road r = 90 m and g = 10 m/s2  45 =
90  10
  90  10  tan 45o  90  10  1  30m / s
7. (2)
Total mass (m) = Mass of lift + Mass of lift + Mass of person = 940 + 60 = 1000 kg
So, from the free body diagram T – mg = ma
Hence, T – 1000  10 = 1000  1 T = 11000 N
8. (2)
Work done in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m, is given by area under the curve
1
W = Area of square + area of triangle = 3  3 +  3  3 = 9 + 4.5 = 13.5 J
2
9. (1)
90 mgh 90 15 10  60 90
Pgenerated  Pinput      = 8.1 kW
100 t 100 1 100
10. (2)
m r  m 2 r2
The position vector of centre of mass r  1 1
m1  m 2
1(i  2j  k)
  (3i  2j  k)

 (8i  4j  4k)
  2i  j  k
1

1 3 4
11. (3)
When the disc spins, the frictional force between the gramophone record and coin is  mg. The coin will
g
revolve with record, if Ffrictional  Fcentripetal or  mg  m 2 r  2
r
12. (3)
Angular velocity of flywheel is given by  = 2
Where,  is number of revolutions per second or frequency of revelation
2 120
Here,  = 120 rev/min     4 rad/s
60

15
13. (1)
2GM 8GR 2
ve   2gR 
R 3
From above equations it is clear that value of escape velocity of a body does not depend upon the mass
(m) of the body and its angle of projection from the surface of the earth or the planet. So, escape velocity
remains same.
14. (3)
According to Kepler’s third law (or law of periods) the square of the time taken to complete the orbit
(time period T) is promotional to the cube of the semi-major axis (r) of the elliptical orbit
i.e, T2  r3
T 2 r 3 (1013 )3 T 2 1039 T1
Here, r1 = 1012 m, r2 = 1012 m  12  13  12 3 or 12  36 = 103 or  10 10
T2 r2 (10 ) T2 10 T2
15. (1)
Concept Apply Newtom’s law of cooling. Let the temperature of the surrounding be tC. F
(70  60)
For first case,  K(65o C  t o C)
5 min
(65o is average of 70oC and 60oC)
10
 K(65o C  t o C) …….(i)
5 min
(60  54)
For second case,  K(57  t) ……… (ii) (57oC is average of 60oC and 54oC)
5 min
10 (65  t)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),  So, t = 45oC
6 (57  t)
16. (2)
Equation of Wien’s displacement law is given by m T = constant
17. (1)
From first law of thermodynamics Q  U  W
For adiabatic process, Q = 0  Q = 0 U = – W
18. (3)
According to Stefan’s law E = T4
 = Stefan’s constant T = temperature
4
E1  T1 
4 4
 273  727  1000 
    E2  7      7 = 112 cal-cm2s-1
E 2  T2   273  227   500 
19. (3)
T
Efficiency of the Carnot engine is given by   1  2
T1
T '2 T '2
0.6=1– or  1  0.6  0.4 or T '2 = 0.4  1000 = 400 K
1000 1000
20. (3)
Let the SHM’s be x = a sin t …..(i)
and y = b sin(t + ) …… (ii) or Eqs. (i) and (ii)
x y x y b
 sin t and   sin t    or y   x
a b a b a
It is an equation of a straight line
21. (4)
Equations of harmonic wave in cosine function is y = a cos (2 t + ) …….(i)
 where, a  ampllitude 
   frequency 
 
 and   phase 
Given equation is = 0.40 cos (2000t + 0.80)
Comparing this equation with Eq.(i) 2 = 2000
2000 1000
  Hz
2 
16
22. (1)
 v  v1  9 340  v 340
'         17 = 340 or v  20m / s
 v  vs  8 340  v 17
23. (4)
In general the frequency of note produced in nth normal mode of vibration of closed organ pipe would be
(2n  1)
n   (2n  1)1
4L
This is (2n – 1) th harmonic or (n – 1) th overtone. Third overtone has a frequency 71. Which means
7    
L    
4 2 2 2 4
Which is three full loops and a loop, which is equal to four nodes and four antinodes
24. (1)
Let two equal charges Q each be held at A and B. where AB = 2x. C is the centre of AB, where charge q
is held. Net force on q is zero. So, q is already equilibrium
A q B
  
2x

For the three charges to be in equilibrium, net force on each charge must be zero.
Now, total force on Q at B is
1 Qq 1 QQ 1 Qq 1 Q2 Q
. 2  .  0 or .   . 2 or = 
40 x 40 (2x) 2
40 x 2
40 4x 4
25. (3)
Energy stored in a charged capacitor is in the form of electric field energy and it resides in the dielectric
1
medium between the plates. This energy stored in the capacitor is given by U  CV 2
2
It initial potential is V1 and final potential is V2 , then increase in energy ( U)
1 1
U  C(v 22  v12 )   (6  106 )  [(20) 2  (10) 2 ] = (3  10-6)  300 = 9  10-4 J
2 2
26. (2)
1
After stretching, specific resistance () will remain same. Original resistance wire, R 
A
Ratio of resistance before and stretching
2
R 2 l2 A1  l2 
   
R1 l1 A 2  l1 
R 2 (1  10%l)2

R1 l2
2
 11 
R 2  10 
l
 R2 = 1.21 R1
R1 l2
27. (1)
R
When wire is bent to form a complete circle, then Total circumference, 2r = Total length, R  r 
2
R R
Resistance of each semicircle = r  
2 2

A B

R R R2

R
Thus, net resistance in parallel combination of two semicircular resistances R '  2 2  4 
R R R 4

2 2

17
28. (3)
In discharged tube, the current is due to flow of positive ions and electrons. Moreover, secondary
emission of electrons is also possible. So, V – 1 curve is non-linear, hence its resistance is non-ohmic
29. (4)
Let A1, A2, A3 be the area cross-section of three wires of copper of masses m1, m2, m3 and length l1, l2, l3
respectively. Given m1 = m, m2 = 3m, m3 = 5m, l1 = 5l, l2 = 3l, l3 = l
Mass = volume  density
So, m = A1  5l   ……..(i)
3m = A2  3l   …….. (ii)
5m = A3  l   …….. (iii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get,
l 5l     R1
A3 = 25A1  R1   1   R3   3  
A1 A1 A 3 25A 1 125
l2 3l 3 3 R
R2     R1  R1 : R 2 : R 3  R1 : R 1 : 1 = 125 : 15 : 1
A2 5A1 25 25 125
30. (2)
H
 H  i 2 RtJ  R 
(i 2 t)
80
Given, H = 80 J, I = 2A, t = 10s, So, R   2
(2)2  10
31. (2)
i.e., Fmax = ilB given, I = 1.2 A, l = 0.5 m and B = 2T  F = 2  1.2  0.5 = 1.2 N
32. (4)
The force F on the charged particle due to external magnetic field provides the required centripetal force
(=mv2/r) necessary for motion along the circular path of radius r.
mv2 mv m 
So,  or r = rv   constant 
r qB  qB 
As v is doubled, the radius also becomes double. Hence, radius = 2  2 = 4 cm.
33. (1)
34. (1)
Emf induced in the coil or inductor of self-inductance L is given by
di di
E=–L or | e | L Here, L = 40 mH = 40  10-3 H
dt dt
Di = i2 – i1 = 11 – 1 = 10 A
Time taken to change current from i1 to i2 is dt = 4  10-3 S
 10 
So, | e | 40  103    = 100 V
 4  103 
35. (4)
The transformer converts AC high voltage into AC low voltage but it does not cause any change in
V N
frequency. The ratio of voltage across input with output voltage is given by s  S
VP N P
NS = No. of turns in secondary coil
NP = No. of turns in primary coil
N 5000
Making substitution, we obtain VS  S VP   20 = 200 V
NP 500
36. (4)
Power of a lens is the ability of the lens to coverage a beam of light falling on the lens. It is measured as the
1
reciprocal of focal length of the lens. i.e. P 
f (in m)
100
when f is in cm, P  D
f
Here, f1 = 80 cm, f2 = – 50 cm
Combined power of two lenses in contact is given by Peq = P1 + P2
1 1 100 100
 Peq   [f1 and f2 are with sign]  P    0.75D
f1 (m) f 2 (m) 80 50
18
37. (1)
 = LI = 0.8  1.5 = 1.2Wb
38. (3)
Interference phenomenon is shown by both light and should waves.
39. (3)
 1 1  1 1  3
E = 13.6Z2  2  2  eV = 13.6  (3)2  2  2  = 13.6  9  = 91.8eV
n  1 2  4
 1 n2 
40. (2)
For maximum current (resonance)
1 1 1
L = or L  2  L = 0.1H = 100mH
C C (1000)  10 106
2

41. (3)
kZe2
Kinetic energy of electron is given by KE 
2r
2
kZe
Potential energy of electron is U 
r
42. (1)
Isotones are the nuclides which contain the same number of neutrons. In 6C13 and 7N14, number of
neutrons in carbon = 13 – 6 = 7 and number of neutrons in nitrogen = 14 – 7 = 7.
43. (4)
When a parent nucleus emits a -particle (i.e. an electron) mass number remains same because mass of
electron is negligibly low. Atomic number is increased by one. The nucleus 48Cd115 after two successive
-decays will give 50Sn115
44. (3)
1 1 r
T  grh  g   (2h)
2 2 2
45. (2)
q
According Gauss’ law, 2 – 1 =  q = (2 – 1) o
0
CHEMISTRY
46. (1)
Keeping [A]0 constant, if [B]0 is doubled, rate becomes 8 times. This means Rate   B . If [B]0 is kept
3

constant and [A]0 is doubled, there is no effect on rate, i.e., rate is independent of concentration of [A].
Hence overall rate law is: Rate = k[B]3.
47. (3)
K2O + H2O  2KOH  2K+ + 2OH–
48. (3)
EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.
49. (3)
1 7
If one atom (A) is missing from one corner, number of atoms A/unit cell = 7  
8 8
1
Number of atoms B (present at the face centres)  6  3
2
7
Thus, A : B = : 3
8
Hence, the simplest formula is A7B24.
50. (1)
t93.75% = 2t75% = 2  30 = 60 min
51. (1)
7 6 5 4 3
C H 2  C H  C H  C H  CH  C  CH
|
C H  C H2
2 1
3 – Ethynylhepta – 1, 4, 6 – triene
Double bond gets preference over triple bond

19
52. (2)
Since A decolorizes Br2/CCl4 but B does not. Therefore, A can be 2 – pentene or B can be cyclopentane.
Thus, option (2) is correct
53. (1)
1
B. O. in N 2  10  4   3.0
2
1
B. O. in N 2   9  4   2.5
2
1
B. O. in NO = 10  5  2.5
2
1
B. O. in O2  10  5  2.5
2
1
B. O. in CN   10  4   3
2
Thus, option (1) is correct, i.e., N 2 , NO and O 2 all have a bond order of 2.5.
54. (2)
w w
n
H 2  , n O2 
2 32
w / 32 680
p O2   680   40 mm
w / 2  w / 32 17
55. (3)
1E1 of M  g   100eV
1E1  1E 2  of M  g   250 eV  1E 2 of M  g   250  100  150 eV
+
and 1E1 of M (g) = 250 – 100 = 150 eV
56. (3) OH O
| ||
–– C  C – H 
 –– C = CH2 
HOH
–– C – CH3

57. (3)
 C6 H 5 3 CCl Gives the most stable carbocation,  C6 H 5 3 C  and hence is most rapidly hydrolysed by
S N 1 mechanism
58. (4)

Cl Br
Has a vertical plane of symmetry passing through CH–Br and CH–Cl groups and hence is achiral. All the
remaining compounds has one chiral carbon each and hence are chiral
59. (1)
q   1200J, w   800J, E  q  w  1200   800    400 J
60. (2)
The reaction is reversed and divided by 2, therefore, for the required reaction,
1 1
K   0.25
16 4
61. (3)
pH  1means  H    10 1 M
101
 50 ml of this solution contains H+ =  50  0.005 mol
1000
pH  2 means  H    10 2 M
102
 50 ml of this solution contains H +
=  50  0.0005 mol
1000
Total [H+] = 0.0055 mol,
Total volume = 100 ml
0.0055
  H   in the final solution =  1000  0.055 M
100
pH =  log  0.055  log  55  10 3  = 3 1.74  1.26

20
62. (4)
 CH3COOH  CH COO  H  (CH COO  Na  )  (H   Cl )  (Na   Cl )
3 3

=  CH3COONa   HCl   NaCl = 91 + 426.16 – 126.45 = 390.71 ohm– 1 cm2eq– 1

Note: In SI system a factor 10– 4 would have been there. Thus
 A  CH3COOH  9110 4  426.16  10 4  126.45 10 4  390.71 104 Sm 2 eq 1
63. (2)
I2 is oxidized to +1 oxidation state in 1F and thus behaves as a reducing agent
64. (4)
Electron – donating groups decrease acidic character or increase the pK a values. Since methoxy group is
a powerful electron – donating group, therefore, p – methoxyphenol has the highest pKa value
65. (2)
Due to electron – withdrawing effect of NO2 group, the electron – density on the carbon atom of the
aldehyde group is minimum in p – nitrobenzaldehyde and hence it is most reactive towards cyanohydrin
formation
66. (2)
For MI, K sp   M    I    10 6   M    0.1

or  M    105 M i.e., solubility = 105 mol kg – 1

67. (3)
No. of particles produced from CaCl2 is maximum. Hence, depression in freezing point is minimum i.e.,
it will have the lowest freezing point.
68. (3)
Yellow chromates are converted to orange dichromates on adding acid and vise versa when alkali is
added to dichromates
2 CrO 24  2H   Cr2O72  H 2O

69. (1)
Since HCOOH is a stronger acid than benzoic acid and weaker acid than o – chlorobenzoic acid,
therefore, o – chlorobenzoic acid displaces HCOONa while itself gets dissolved.

Cl Cl
+HCOOH
+HCOONa 
COOH COONa Weaker acid

Stronger acid

C6H5COOH + HCOOONa C6H5COONa + HCOOH

Weaker acid Stronger acid

In other words, benzoic acid remains undisolved and thus can be separated
70. (1)
M1V1  M 2 V2  M 3V3  0.5  750  2  250  M 3  1000 or M 3  0.875
71. (1)
r M
HC So 2 180 /15 64 64
r
 or  or 2  or M HC  16
SO2 M HC 120 / 20 M HC M HC
72. (3)
H
|
H – C – H(g)  C(g) + 4H(g),  H = + 1500 kJ,
|
H
1500
 B.E.  kJ  375kJ
4

21
 H H
| |
H – C – C – H  2C(g) + 6H(g),  H = + 2600 kJ,
| |
H H

B.E. (6 C – H) + B. E. (C – C) = 2600i.e., 6  375  B.E. (C – C) = 2600

or B.E. (C – C) = 350 kJ
73. (2)
PCl5  PCl3  Cl 2 . When pressure is increased, equilibrium will shift in the backward direction
74. (4)
Conjugate acid  Conjugate base + H+  Conjugate base of HSO 4  SO 42 
75. (4)
HCN  H   CN 
2
 H  
Ka 
 HCN 
or  H    K a  HCN    4  10  2.5  10   10
10 1 5
 pH  5.0

76. (2)
NH2 group is more nucleophilic than OH group, therefore, acetylation occur at NH2 group rather than at
OH group. Thus, option (2) is correct.
77. (1)
1
X atoms per unit cell =  8  1
8
Y atoms per unit cell = 1
Hence, formula is XY
78. (1)
BaCl 2  Ba 2  2Cl  , i  3
Tb  iK b m  3  0.52  1  1.560  Boiling point of the solution = 101.560 C.
79. (4)
Iodine produces blue colour with starch
80. (2)
E 0cell  E 0Ag / Ag  E 0Cu 2 / Cu i.e. 0.46  0.80  E 0Cu  / Cu or E 0 Cu 2 / Cu  0.34 V
81. (1)
This is due to the stability of the carbocation formed
82. (3)
Mass/ molecular mass = number of moles. Higher number of moles in NaCl and hence it will have the
highest osmotic pressure.
83. (3)
84. (4)
Bond order of O2+ is 2.5, Bond order of O2 is 2; Bond order of O2-1 is 1.5
85. (3)
The electronic configuration of 17Cl: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2px2 3py2 3pz1
1
The correct set of quantum numbers for 3pz electron is 3, 1, 1, 
2
86. (1)
Frequency of the first line in the Balmer series is
c 1 1
  c.   31010 109677   2  2  s 1
  n1 n 2 
1 1  1 1  1 1
 3.29 1015  2  2  s 1  3.29  1015  (2) 2  (3) 2   3.29  10
15
 4  9 
 n1 n2   
5
 3.29  1015   4.57  1014 s 1
36

22
87. (4)
Since CH3COOH is weak acid, so Ostwald’s dilution law can be applied.
Ka 1.8  105
   9.5  103
C 0.2
When degree of dissociation becomes double i.e., 2 
Ka 1.8  105
C   0.049 M
 2 (2  9.5 10 3 )2
88. (1)
Ampicillin is a modification of penicillin and thus is not a natural antibiotic. These semisynthetic
penicillin (SSP) like ampicillin, cloxacillin, etc., are produced by chemically combining specific side
chains (in place of benzyl side chain of penicillin group) or by incorporating specific precursors in the
mold cultures. The aim of producing SSP’s is to overcome penicillin’s shortcomings such as poor oral
efficacy, hyper sensitivity, susceptibility to penicillinase, narrow spectrum of activity, etc.
89. (4)
From Arrhenius equation
k2 Ea  T2  T1 
log   
k1 2.303R  T1T2 
k2 500  10 
log     0.1167
k1 2.303  2  310  300 
Antilog (0.1167) = 1.308
k k k  k1
Hence, 2  1.308 Or 2  1  1.308  1; 2  0.308
k1 k1 k1
o k2 – k1 = 0.308 k1 i.e. k2 increase = 30.8% = 31%
90. (3)
More the value of a and lesser the value of b, the more easily the gas is liquefied.

BIOLOGY
91. (4)
Late blight of Potato is caused by Phytophthora infestans
92. (1)
Oscillatoria is a cyanobacteria shows photosynthesis and release oxygen
93. (1)
94. (4)
95. (4)
96. (3)
97. (3)
98. (4)
And alga called Chlorella was used to show fixation of CO2 into PGA
99. (1)
100. (4)
101. (3)
102. (1)
103. (4)
Himigiri is a resistant wheat variety developed against leaf and stripe rust
104. (1)
105. (2)
106. (2)
107. (4)
108. (2)
109. (2)

23
110. (1)
111. (1)
112. (4)
Statins are blood Cholesterol lowering agent produced commercially from a yiest Monascus purpureus
113. (2)
114. (1)
115. (1)
Fabaceae is also called Papilionaceae has five petals, one standard petal, two wing petals and two keel
petals which are united . They show descendingly imbricate aestivation
116. (1)
117. (4)
Mirabilis jalapa (4 O’ Clock plant)
Antirrhina (Snapdragon) show incomplete dominance in their flower colour, where both genotypic and
phenotypic ratio are same as 1:2:1
118. (3)
119. (4)
120. (2)
A nematode, Meloidegyne incognitia imfects roots of tobacco plants and cause great reduction in the
yield. This infection is prevented by a process called RNA interference (RNAi). RNAi involves in
silencing a specific mRNA by a complimentary double standed RNA that binds to and prevents
(silencing) the translation of mRNA of the pathogen
121. (2)
122. (2)
Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) has the subaerial stem stolon
123. (1)
124. (1)
125. (1)
126. (2)
Endomembrane system has Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgibodies, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
127. (2)
128. (4)
129. (1)
130. (2)
131. (2)
132. (4)
133. (2)
134. (4)
135. (4)
136. (2)
137. (4)
138. (3)
139. (4)
140. (3)
141. (2)
142. (4)
143. (4)
Silver fish is an insect
144. (1)
145. (4)
146. (4)
147. (1)

24
148. (4)
Adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla
149. (2)
150. (2)
151. (1)
152. (3)
153. (3)
154. (3)
155. (1)
156. (2)
157. (3)
158. (3)
159. (4)
160. (1)
161. (2)
Heterosis is also called hybrid vigour
162. (4)
163. (3)
164. (3)
165. (3)
166. (2)
167. (2)
168. (3)
169. (4)
170. (1)
171. (3)
172. (3)
173. (1)
174. (2)
Brain size of Homo neanderthealensis was more than 1400 CC and it is almost similar to modern man
175. (2)
176. (2)
177. (2)
178. (2)
XC Y  XC X c

Normal Noramal
Visioned visioned (Carrier)
Gamete  
XC Y X C Xc

XC XC XC Xc XC Y Xc Y

Normal Normal Normal Colour

visioned visioned visined blind
(Carrier)
179. (3)
180. (3)

Boscoss, III & IV Floor, ESSEL Centre, Near PVS Circle, Mangalore-3, Ph: 0824-4272728, 9972458537/NEET-2016

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