Polity - 143-378

143.
The words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
the
(a) 39th Amendment (b) 41st Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment (d) 44th Amendment
144. ‘Indian is a Republic’ means -
(a) It is the people who are the final authority in all matters.
(b) There is no Parliamentary System of Government in India.
(c) There are no hereditary rules in India.
(d) India is the Union of States.
145. India has people’s sovereignty because the Preamble of the Constitution begins with the
words :
(a) Democratic India
(b) Republic of People
(c) Democracy of People
(d) We, the People of India
146. Where have the words ‘We the people of India’ been used in the Constitution of India?
(a) Directive Principles
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Citizenship
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
147. “All individuals are fully and equally human” this principal is know as -
(a) Universalism (b) Holism
(c) Socialism (d) Interactionism
148. Which of the following words is not the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Socialist (b) Secular
(c) Sovereign (d) Public Welfare
149. Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Liberty of Thought (b) Liberty of Expression
(c) Liberty of Belief (d) Economic Liberty
150. Which among the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Social Justice (b) Economic Justice
(c) Political Justice (d) Religious Justice
151. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
(a) Liberty of though (b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression (d) Liberty of belief
152. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Preamble
(d) Right to Constitution Remedies
153. Who among the following called the Preamble of Indian Constitution “the horoscope of our
sovereign, democratic republic”?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) B.R Ambedkar
(d) K.M. Munshi
(e) Mahatma Gandhi
154. Who has termed Constitution a sacred document?
(a) B.R Ambedkar
(b) Mehatma Gandhi
(c) Deendayal Upadhyay
(d) Mohammed Ali jinnah
155. In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that ‘The Preamble forms part of the
Constitution?
(a) Union of India Vs. Dr. Kohli
(b) Banarsidas Vs. State of U.P.
(c) Bommai Vs. Union of India
(d) Malak Singh V.s State of Panjab
156. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare that the Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution?
(a) Berubari (b) Sajjan Singh
(c) Golak Nath (d) Keshvanand Bharti
157. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court regarded Preamble as a part of the basic
structure of India Constitution?
(a) Beru Bari Case (b) A.K. Gopalan Case
(c) Privy Purse Case (d) Keshwanand Bharti Case
158. Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in -
(a) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) The Preamble and the Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) The Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of above
159. The ideals and objectives outlined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution have been
further elaborated in -
(a) The Chapter on Fundamental Rights
(b) The Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy. Fundamental Rights, and
Fundamental Duties
(d) Nowhere else in the text of the Constitution.
160. The objective of Indian Constitution is reflected in which of the following?
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Parliament
161. How many types of justice has been enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) One (d) Four
162. “The State is everywhere : It leaves hardly a gap. “ This statement explains the concept of
(a) Welfare State (b) Communist State
(c) Democratic State (d) Police State
163. Constitution of India provides which type of governance system?
(a) Democratic (b) Presidential
(c) Parliamentary (d) Semi-democratic
164. Which of the following is not a feature of good governance?
(a) Accountability (b) Transparency
(c) Rule of Law (d) Red Tapism
165. Which one of the following is not the feature of Indian Constitution?
(a) Parliamentary Government
(b) Presidential Government
(c) Independence of Judiciary
(d) Federal Government
166. There is parliamentary system of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
167. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changes without election
168. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian polity?
(a) A Government following the Constitution
(b) Democratic Government
(c) Rule of Law
(d) Authoritarian Government
169. ‘Welfare State’ aims to
(a) Secure maximum welfare to of maximum numbers
(b) Management of welfare of weaker sections
(c) Provide health facilities
(d) None of above
170. What is the main source of Political Power in India?
(a) The People (b) The Constitution
(c) The Parliament (d) The president
171. The Democracy of India is based on the fact that -
(a) The Constitution is written
(b) Fundamental rights have been provided
(c) Public enjoys the rights to choose and change the Government
(d) Directive principles of state policy have been provided here
172. Indian Constitution is -
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Neither rigid nor flexible
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible
173. Which one of the following points differentiates the Indian Parliamentary system and British
Parliamentary System?
(a) Collective Responsibility
(b) Judicial Review
(c) Bicameral Legislature
(d) Real and nominal Executive
174. India is a Republic which implies that
(a) The head of the State is elected
(b) The country is free
(c) The country possesses a democratic system of government
(d) The Final Authority in the country is rests with the Parliament.
175. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Federal
(b) Unitary
(c) Parliamentary
(d) Federal in nature but unitary in spirit
(e) None of the above / more / more then one of the above
176. Who called Indian Federalism as the Cooperative Federalism.
(a) G. Austin (b) K.C. Wheare
(b) Sir Ivor Jennings (d) D.D Basu
177. How many State and UTSs did the States Reorganisation Commission create in 1956?
(a) 14 States and 6 Uts (b) 17 States and 6 Uts
(c) 14 States and 8 Uts (d) 17 States and 8 Uts
178. Sikkim became a state of India under -
(a) 30th Amendment (b) 32nd Amendment
(c) 35th Amendment (d) 40th Amendment
179. Match List - I with List - II ans select the correct answer using the coded given below the list :
List - I List - II
(State) (Year of coming to
existence)
A. Nagaland 1. 2000
B. Jharkhand 2. 1962
C. Telangana 3. 1975
D. Sikkim 4. 2014
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 3 4 2
180. Bihar as an Indian State was formed in
(a) 1911 (b) 1912
(c) 1936 (d) 2000
181. The citizenship provided by the Constitution of India is :
(a) Dual citizenship (b) Single citizenship
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
182. Which articles of Indian Constitution are related to citizenship?
(a) Article 3 to 10
(b) Article 4 to 11
(c) Article 5 to 11
(d) Article 6 to 11
183. In which Part of the Constitution of India we find the provisions relating to citizenship?
(a) PART I (b) PART II
(c) PART VII (d) PART IX
184. Which one of following features of citizenship in India is correct?
(a) Dual Citizenship of the State and Nation
(b) Single Citizenship of a State
(c) Single Citizenship of whole of India
(d) Dual Citizenship of India and another Country
185. Indian citizenship cannot be obtained by -
(a) Birth
(b) Naturalization
(c) Absorbing any part of land
(d) Depositing money in Indian Banks
186. How many years does a person of Indian origin need to reside in India to become a citizen of
India under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
(a) 5 years (b) 3 years
(c) 7 years (d) 9 years
(e) 10 years
187. When was the Citizenship (Amendment) Act passed?
(a) 11th December, 2018
(b) 11th December, 2019
(c) 11th October, 2019
(d) 11th October, 2020
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above
188. Which of the following is given the power to enforce the Fundamental Rights by the
Constitution?
(a) All Courts in India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The President
(d) The Supreme Court and High Courts
189. ‘Fundamental Right’s are:
(a) Justifiable (b) Non-justifiable
(c) Flexible (d) Rigid
190. Fundamental Rights -
(a) Cannot be suspended
(b) Can be suspended by order of Prime minister
(c) Can be suspended on the will of President
(d) Can be suspended during Emergency
191. What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
(a) One act for all and one judiciary for all
(b) One act for all and State for all
(c) One State for all and one judiciary for all
(d) All acts for one and one judiciary for all
(e) None of the above / More than one of the above
192. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution puts an absolute limitation on
the legislative power :
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15
(b) Article 16 (d) Article 17
193. In which article of the Constitution ‘Equal Protection of Law’ is provided?
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 15
194. Under which article of the Constitution reservations in admission to educational institutions,
including private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/SC is made?
(a) Article 15 (4) (b) Article 15(5)
(c) Article 16(4) (d) Article 16 (5)
195. Supreme Court’s judgement of Indra Sawhney Vs Union of India Case is related to which
issue?
(a) Regarding the issue of OBC reservation in Government employment
(b) Basic structure Theory
(c) Approve the reservation on promotion of SC
(d) Extended reservation for ST
(e) None of above / More than one of the above
196. In the Indian Constitution the ‘Right to Freedom’ is granted by four Article which are -
(a) Article - 19 to Article - 22
(b) Article - 16 to Article - 19
(c) Article - 17 to Article - 20
(d) Article - 18 to Article - 21
197. Prohibition of discrimination on the ground of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under :
(a) The Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) The Right against Exposition
(c) The Culture and Educational Rights
(d) The Right to Equality
198. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution deals with the fundamental rights
related to the exploitation of children?
(a) 17 (b) 19
(c) 24 (d) 25
199. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children in factories?
(a) Article - 19 (b) Article -17
(c) Article - 23 (d) Article - 24
200. Child Rights are protected in Article _______ of ICCPR.
(a) 35 (b) 24
(c) 21 (d) 23
201. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution abolished untouchability :
202. Which Article of the Constitution of Indian is related with Freedom of the press.
203. Under which Article Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have been granted
fundamental, socioeconomic, political and cultural rights?
204. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection
against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitution Remedies
(d) Right to Equality
205. Freedom of News Papers in India -
(a) Specially provided by Article 19(1)(a)
(b) Is secured under Article 19 (1) (b)
(c) Secured by Article 361 - A
(d) Has origin by the enforcement of Rule of law
206. Which Article of the Constitution of India Republic relates to the Protection of ‘Life and
Personal Liberty’?
(a) Article - 19 (b) Article -21
207. Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of article 21 of the Constitution?
(a) Medical aid to injure by a doctor
(b) Sexual Harassment of woman at work place
(c) Pollution of the quality of water.
(d) Capital Punishment
208. Under which Article of Indian Constitution wearing of ‘Kirpans’ by Sikh is deemed as a right
to freedom of religion?
(a) Article - 24 (b) Article - 25
209. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution refers to -
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Freedom of Religion
(d) Protection of Minorities
210. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human and forced labour
(b) Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(c) Article 26 - Freedom to mange religious affairs
(d) Article 29 - Freedom of establishment and administration of educational
institutions by minorities
211. Which Article of the Constitution protects the ‘Right of minorities to establish and
administer educational institutions of their choice’?
(a) 19 (b) 26
(c) 29 (d) 30
212. Which of the following rights can be enforced under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Constitutional Rights (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Statutory Rights (e) All of the above
213. The Guardian of fundamental Rights is
(a) Judiciary (b) Executive
(c) Parliament (d) None of these
214. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(a) K.M. Munshi was one of the members of the drafting committee of the Constitution.
(b) The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constitution Assembly.
(c) The Panchayati Raj was recommended by Balawant Rai Mehta Committee Report -
1957.
(d) The President of India is the Guardian of Fundamental rights under the
Constitution.
215. Under the Indian Constitution who amongst the following is considered to be the guardian of
the fundamental rights?
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) Judiciary (d) Prime Minister
216. Which one of the following is regarded as the protector of fundamental rights of citizens and
Guardian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The Parliament (b) The Attorney General
(c) The Supreme Court (d) The President
217. Which one of the following writs can be issued by a High Court to secure the liberty of the
Individual?
(a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto
(c) Habeas Corpus (d) Prohibition
218. The writ which may be filed for protection of rights to Personal freedom is -
(a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto
(c) Habeas Corpus (d) Certiorari
219. The Supreme Court of India has propounded the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ of the
Constitution in which of the following cases?
(a) Golaknath Vs. Punjab State
(b) Sajjan Singh V.s Rajasthan State
(c) Keshavananda Bharati Vs. Kerala State
(d) Shankari Prasad Vs. Indian Union
220. Which one of the following cases outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Gopalan v/s Madras State
(b) Golaknath v/s Pujab State
(c) Keshvananda Bharati v/s Kerala State
(d) None of these
221. When was the Fundamental Right to property abolished?
(a) In 1978, by 44th Constitutional Amendment
(b) In 1982, by 46th Constitution Amendment
(c) In 1973, by 31th Constitution Amendment
(d) None of these
222. By which amendment the Right to Property was abolished?
(a) 24th (b) 44th
(c) 25th (d) 42th
223. Right to property according to the Constitution of India is a-
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Directive Principle
(c) Legal Right (d) Social Right
224. The ‘Right to Property’ was deleted from the list of fundamental rights guaranteed to the
citizens if India by -
(a) Forty - second Amendment
(b) Forty -third Amendment
(c) Forty - fourth Amendment
(d) Forty - fifth Amendment
225. Which one of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to Constitution Remedy
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Peaceful Assembly
(d) Right to free movement all over the Country
226. Indian Constitution does not grant which of the following rights?
(a) Right of Equal Shelter
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Liberty
227. The ‘Right to Equality is granted 5 Articles in the Indian Constitution. These are
(a) Article 13-17 (b) Article 14-18
(c) Article 15-19 (d) Article 16-20
228. Which of the following is not a fundamental right granted by the Indian Constitution to the
citizens?
(a) Right to Settle in any part of the Country
(b) Right to Gender Equality
(c) Right to information
(d) Right Against Exploitation
229. Which one of the following rights is available to all persons under the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equal Protection of the Law.
(b) Right Against Discrimination
(c) Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
230. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s
choice?
231. Which of the following fundamental rights is not available to foreign citizen?
(a) Equality Before Law
(b) Right to freedom of Expression
(c) Right Freedom of Life and liberty
(d) Right Against Exploitation
232. Which of the following rights are not available to all persons in India?
Select your answer by using code given below:
1. Equality Before the Law
2. Right Against Discrimination
3. Freedom to move freely throughout the country
4. Right to Contest Election
Code :
(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 2, 3, 4
233. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-
citizens?
(a) Right to Constitution Remedies
(b) Freedom of Speech
(c) Freedom to Move and Settle in any Part of the Country
(d) Freedom to Acquire Property
234. The Constitution of India recognizes -
(a) Only religious minorities
(b) Only linguistic minorities
(c) Religious and linguistic minorities
(d) Religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
235. Right to education to all children between the age group 6 to 14 years is -
(a) Included in the Directive principles of State Policy
(b) A Fundamental Right
(c) A Statutory Right
(d) None of the above
236. When was the Right to Education added through the amendment in the Constitution of India?
(a) 1st April, 2010 (b) 1st August, 2010
(c) 1st October, 2010 (d) 1st December, 2010
237. Which one of the following is a human right a well as a fundamental right under the
Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Information (b) Right to Work
(c) Right to Education (d) Right to Housing
238. Which one of the following rights cannot be suspended or restricted even during National
Emergency?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the country.
(b) Right to life and personal liberty.
(c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(d) Right to carry on any profession or business.
239. Which Article of the Constitution provides protection to the accused regarding conviction
from double-bar and self-incrimination?
240. “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.” Under
which Article, the above preservation of conviction for crime is given?
(c) Article -21 (d) Article - 22
241. In which Article of Indian Constitution Doctrine of Due Process of Law is included?
(a) 11 (b) 16
(c) 21 (d) 26
242. Which Article gives safeguard to the Fundamental Rights of arrested person?
243. Which one of the following writs is regarded as the greatest safeguard for the liberty of a
person?
(a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition
244. Bonded Labour was abolished in India, by an Act of Parliament enacted in the year -
(a) 1971 (b) 1976
(c) 1979 (d) 1981
245. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution
is to establish:
(a) Political Democracy
(b) Social Democracy
(c) Gandhian Democracy
(d) Social and Economic Democracy
246. The Directive principles of State policy may be classified in to which of the following parts
for the sake of convenient study?
(a) Socialist (b) Liberal intellectualistic
(c) Gandhian (d) All of the above
247. Which one of the following is not the objective of the directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) To establish a warfare State
(b) To ensure socio-economic justice
(c) To establish a Religious State
(d) To establish a Secular State
248. The idea of India as Welfare State is found in -
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Fundamental Duties
(d) Both (a) and (c)
249. In Indian Constitution, the idea of the Directive Principles of State Policy has been taken
from the Constitution of -
(a) Ireland (b) Canada
(c) South Africa (d) Australia
250. Directive Principles of State Policy are -
(a) Justiciable (b) Non-Justiciable
(c) Fundamental Rights (d) None of these
251. According to the Constitution of India, Which of the following are fundamental to the
governance of the country?
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
252. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right Against Exploitation
(b) Equal Pay for Equal Work
(c) Equality Before Law
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion
253. Panchayati raj System in India is laid down under -
(d) Election Commission Act
254. Which one of the following Articles directs the State Governments to organize the
Panchayats?
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above
255. In the Constitution of India, Promotion of International Peace and Security is included in the-
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
256. Which part of the Indian Constitution refers to the responsibility of the state towards
international peace and Security?
(c) Directive Principles of State policy
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
257. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by?
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice
258. Which Article of the Constitution of India has the provision of participation of workers in
management of industry?
(a) Article 43 (b) Article 43 A
259. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy
by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
260. Which of the following was not added to the Directive Principles by the 42nd Amendment of
the Constitution?
(a) Protection of Children and youth from exploitation
(b) Equal justice and free legal aid
(c) Uniform civil code
(d) Participation of workers in management of industries
261. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of the consumption of Intoxicating Drinks
(b) Cow - Protection
(c) Environment - Protection
(d) Free Education to children up to the age of fourteen (14)
262. How are the Directive principle of State Policy different from fundamental Rights?
(a) Former is for Union Government and later is for state Government
(b) Former is a part of Constitution where later is not.
(c) Directive Principles are not enforceable where as fundamental Right can be
enforced.
(d) None of these.
263. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of Trafficking in human beings and forces labour.
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and
of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) Neither nor 2
264. The ‘Directive principles’ are ....................
(a) Justifiable (b) Non-justifiable
(c) Rigid (d) Flexible
265. Which one of the following is a Directive principle of State Policy?
(a) The State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment.
(b) The State shall not deny quality to any person before the law.
(c) The State shall not discriminate against any person on the grounds of religion, race,
casts, sex or place or birth.
(d) Untouchability enforcement
266. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principles of State Policy about -
(a) Adult education
(b) Living wages for workers
(c) Free legal aid to the poor
(d) Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 years
267. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy was added to the Constitution at
a later date?
(a) Organization of village Panchayats
(b) Prohibition of Cow Slaughter
(c) Free Legal Aid
(d) Uniform Civil Code
268. Which of the following is not including in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of Liquor
(b) Right to work
(c) Equal Wage for Equal Work
(d) Right to Information
269. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy?
(a) Uniform Civil Code
(b) Freedom of the Press
(c) Freedom of the Religion
(d) Equality Before Law
270. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for men and woman
(b) Equal right to an adequate means of livelihood
(c) Abolition of Untouchability
(d) Just and humane conditions of work
271. Which of the following is empowered to make law for economic and social planning besides
the infants and minors in India?
(a) Only the Central Government
(b) Only the State Government
(c) Both the Central and State Governments
(d) Only the Local Government
272. The Fundamental Duty to uphold and project the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is
mentioned at number -
(a) four (b) one
(c) two (d) three
273. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions recommended the inclusion of
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?
(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balram Jakhar Committee
(d) Sarkaria Commission
274. Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are enumerated in -
(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV A of the Constitution
(c) Part II of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
275. Which Article of Indian Constitution enumerates Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens?
(a) Article 50 - A (b) Article 50 - B
(c) Article 51 - A (d) Article 51 - B
276. In which year Fundamental Duties of Citizens were introduced by 42-Amendment?
(a) 1976 (b) 1975
(c) 1978 (d) 1980
277. Protection of which one of the following is a fundamental Duty of an Indian citizen?
(a) Village Panchayat
(b) National Flag
(c) Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes
(d) Wild Life
278. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural
environment”?
The above statement refers to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 48 - A
(c) Article 51 -A (d) Article - 56
279. Which one of following is incorrect?
(a) Fundamental Duties are the part of the Fundamental Rights.
(b) Fundamental Duties are not a part of Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part -IV A of the Indian Constitution.
(d) Article 51A explains the duties of every citizen of India.
280. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(a) To respect the National Anthem
(b) To safeguard pubic property
(c) To protect monuments and places of pubic importance
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment
281. How many Fundamental Duties are there in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Nine (b) Eleven
(c) Twelve (d) Twenty
282. Which one of following is NOT provided in part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the India
Constitution?
(a) To respect the National Flag.
(b) To promote spirit of brotherhood amongst all people of India.
(c) To respect our parents and teachers
(d) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
283. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.
284. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Parts of the - Subject
Constitution
(a) Part II - Citizenship
(b) Part III - Fundamental Rights
(c) Part IV - Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Part V - Fundamental Duties
285. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in
the -
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
286. The two Union Territories which have been given right to take part in the election of the
President of India by the 70th Amendment of Indian Constitution, are :
(a) Delhi and Chadigarh
(b) Delhi and Puducherry
(c) Delhi and Daman & Diu
(d) Chandigarh and Puducherry
287. In India, the President is elected by
(a) Direct Election
(b) Single Transferable Vote system
(c) Proportional Vote System
(d) Open Ballot System
A:- (b & c)
288. The electoral collage of President consist of -
1. Elected members of both houses of Parliament
2. Elected members of both house of State Legislatures.
3. Elected members of the Legislatures assemblies of all states
4. Elected members of legislative assemble of Delhi and Pondicherry.
Code :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are right (b) 1 and 3 right
(c) 1, 2, 4 are right (d) 1, 3, 4 are right
289. Who among the following are not included in the Electoral Collage for the election of the
President of India?
(a) Elected members of the House of the People.
(b) Elected members of the Council of States.
(c) Elected member of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Councils of the States.
290. The members of board of election of the President of India are -
1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
2. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
3. Elected members of Vidhan Sabha
4. Elected members of Vidhan Parishad
Code :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
291. The President of India is elected by -
(a) Only the members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Only the members of Lok Sabha
(c) Only by the Members of State Legislative Assemblies and Lok Sabha
(d) By the Elected Members of Rajya Sabha Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Assemblies.
292. President of India is elected by :
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Parliament Members
(d) Members of parliament and Members of State Legislative Assemblies
293. Electoral College for the election of the President of India consists of -
(a) All the elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) All the elected members of the Loka Sabha
(c) All the members of the State lagislative Assemblies.
(d) All the elected members of both the House of Parliament and elected members of the
State Legislative Assemblies.
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above
294. Which one of following is not correct regarding Presidential election?
(a) Election of the successor must be held before the expiry of the term of the incumbent
President
(b) The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters
upon his office.
(c) On the expiration of his term, he continues to hold office until his successor enters his
office.
(d) President’s election may be postponed on the ground that the electoral collage is
incomplete.
295. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if -
(a) He is a candidate
(b) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature.
(c) He is a members of the Upper House of the State Legislature.
(d) He is members of the Lower House of the State Legislature.
296. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for the candidature of President?
(a) Completion of 35 years
(b) Educated
(c) Qualified for election a member of the house of people
(d) Citizen of India
297. Consider the following statements about the President of India -
(1) He should be citizen of India by birth
(2) He should have completed the age of 35 years.
(3) He should be qualified for election as a members of Parliament
Which of these statement is/are correct
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
298. Which article of the Indian Constitution prescribe eligibility conditions for re-election to the
post of the President of India?
299. If there is any dispute regarding the President election, it can be referred to -
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) None of these
300. Which of the following President was appeared before Supreme Court, when Supreme Court
was hearing election dispute of the President?
(a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(b) V.V Giri
(c) Fakharuddin Ali Ahman
(d) Gyani Zali Singh
301. The President holds office for a term of 5 years from date on -
(a) Which he/she is elected
(b) Which is decided by Parliament
(c) Which he enters upon his office/hold office
(d) Which is decided by Election Commission
302. To whom does the President of India address his resignation?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Vice - President of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister of India
303. To whom does the President of India submit his resignation?
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Vice - President of India
(c) The Chief justice of India
(d) The prime minister of India
304. The President of India can be removed from his post by -
(a) The prime minister of India
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Chief justice of India
(d) Parliament
304. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can be President be impeached?
305. The President of India can be removed from office even before the expiry of the term.
(a) By the political party in power
(b) By the Prime Minister
(c) Through impeachment
(d) Through trial by court
306. By which House of Parliament, impeachment may be imposed on President?
(a) House of People
(b) Council of States
(c) By any House of parliament
307. Which one of the following has the power to initiate the Motion of impeachment of the
Present of India?
(a) Both the House of the parliament
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
308. The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the Constitution by -
(a) The Chief justice of India.
(b) The Vice-President of India
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The two Houses of Parliament.
309. At least how many days of prior notice is required for the impeachment of the President of
India?
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days
(c) 21 days (d) 30 days
310. Which one of following is a part of the electoral college of the President but not the process
of impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
311. The procedure of impeachment of the President of India is -
(a) Quasi-Judicial Procedure
(b) Executive Procedure
(c) Judicial Procedure
(d) Legislative Procedure
312. The vacant post of the President is to filled within-
(a) 90 days (b) Six months
(c) Nine months (d) one year
313. What is the deadline to fill the occurrence of vacancy due to death, resignation or removal of
the President in India?
(a) One month (b) Nine month
(c) Three months (d) Six months
314. For how long can the Vice-President act as President when the President cannot perform his
duties for reasons of death resignation, removal or otherwise?
(a) 5 years (b) 1 half years
(c) 1 year (d) 6 months
315. In case the post of the President of India falls vacant due to his death, resignation or removal
from office, who will occupy that post?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Vice - President
316. In case the post of President of India falls vacant, and there is no Vice-President also, who
among the following would be the acting president?
(a) Vice - Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Attorney - General of India
(c) Loka Sabha
(d) Chief justice of the Supreme Court
317. If the position of President and Vice-president are vacant, who officiates as the President of
India?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Speaker of Lok-Sabha
(d) None of these
318. Who is the Executive Head of State in India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Leader of the Opposition
(d) Chief Secretary, Government of India
319. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution vests the executive power of the
Union in the President?
320. All the executive power in Indian Constitution vested in -
(a) Prime Minister (b) Council of Ministers
(c) President (d) Parliament
321. Who of the following has been vested with the executive powers of the central government
under the Constitution of India?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Central Cabinet
(d) All the above
322. President of India exercises his powers
(a) either directly or though officers subordinate to him
(b) though ministers
(c) though Prime Minister
(d) through Cabinet
323. Who amongst the following is the head of Indian Republic?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Cabinet
(d) Political head along with the Council of Ministers
324. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President
to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th (b) 40th
(c) 42th (d) 44th
325. The President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of :
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Election Commission
(c) Chief justice of India
(d) Cabinet
326. The joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is summoned by -
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
327. The President of India addresses the Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution
(a) in a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
(b) in a joint meeting of both Houses of Parliament
(c) in a joint session of both Houses of Parliament
(d) both Houses of Parliament assembled together
328. Which one of the following statements about the president of India is not correct?
(a) He is a Constitution part of Parliament.
(b) He participate in the discussions in the both Houses.
(c) He addresses the joint meeting of both the Houses every year.
(d) He can promulgate ordinance in certain situations.
329. The only instance when the president of India exercised his power of veto, is related to -
(a) The Hindu Code Bill
(b) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
(d) The Dowry Prohibition Bill
330. Who among the following Presidents exercised a power which is ‘Packet veto’ in
Constitution terminology?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) V.V Giri
(c) Gyani Zail Singh
(d) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(e) None of th above
331. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the President of India enjoys the power to
withhold his assent to any Bill passed by both the Houses of the Parliament?
332. Who amongst the following has the power to withhold assent to a Bill, after it has been passed
by the two Houses of Parliament?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
333. On which matter, it is not essential for the President to take advice from the Council of
Ministers?
(a) Appointment of Ambassadors
(b) To assent to Bills
(c) To assent to Bills referred by Governors
(d) To dissolve Lok Sabha
(e) To assent on constitution amendment bill
334. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the
Ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
making any changes (in the year 2002)?
335. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution, the President of India has been
empowered to promulgate an ordinance?
336. Under which Article of the Constitution the President of India has been empowered to
promulgate an Ordinance?
337. An ordinance promulgated by the President must be placed before the parliament within
what time frame after the start of its session?
(a) 1 month (b) 6 weeks
(c) 8 weeks (d) 6 months
338. Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India?
1. Chairman of the Finance Commission
2. Vice-Chairman of the Planning Commission
3. Chief Ministers of the Union Territories
Select the correct answer by using the following code:
(a) 1 is correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct
339. Who among the following is appointed by the President :
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor general
(c) Governor of State
(d) All of the above
340. Which on of the following is not appointed by the Present of India:
(a) Vice - President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
341. The Constitution authorizes the President to make provisions for discharge of duties of
Governors in extraordinary circumstances under
342. Indian Constitution doesn’t empower the President of India with the right of
(a) Appointment of Prime Minister
(b) Appointment of Chief Minister in States
(c) Being the Supreme commander of Defence Forces
(d) Executing emergency in any part of the country
343. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to consult the supreme
Court?
344. Which of the following is incorrect about the powers of the President of India?
(a) The President should accept the advice of Supreme court
(b) Emergency powers
(c) Power of extension of President’s Rule in States
(d) President can accept or reject the advice of the Supreme Court
345. According to the Constitution, which among the following is literally not a ‘Power’ of the
President of India?
(a) Promulgation of Ordinances
(b) To consult the Supreme court
(c) To send messages to Houses of Parliament
(d) To grant Pardon
346. The President of India does not have the right to -
(a) Give pardon
(b) Remove a judge of Supreme Court
(c) Declare emergency
(d) Pass ordinances
347. Power of the president to grant pardons etc. is a
(a) Legislative Power
(b) Judicial Power
(c) Executive Power
348. Which of the following doesn’t consists in the power ‘To Pardon’ of President?
i. Pardon ii. Commutation
iii. Remission iv. Respite
v. Reprieve vi. Detention
vii. Continuation
(a) i (b) ii iii
(c) iv v (d) i ii iii iv v
(e) vi viii
349. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution mentions the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?
(e) None of the above
350. Which one of the following is not Constitutional Prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning an ordinary Bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning a financial bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Appointing the Prime Minister
351. Who prepares the President’s address to Parliament?
(a) President himself
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Central Cabinet
352. The First President of Independent India hailed from -
(a) U.P (b) Andra Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu
353. Which President of India completed two successive terms?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Both (a) and (b)
354. The single instance of the unanimous election of the President of India so far was the election
of -
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
355. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :
List - I List - II
(President) (Term)
A. Fakhruddhin 1. 1969-1974
Ali Ahmad
B. N. Sanjiva Reddy 2. 1974-1977
C. Dr. Zakir Hussain 3. 1977-1982
D. V.V. Giri 4. 1967-1969
Code :
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
356. Who of the following before becoming the president of India did not hold the office of Vice-
President?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(c) Nellam Sanjiva Reddy (d) R. Venkatraman
357. Among the following Presidents of india, who is known as the Philosopher King or the
Philosopher Ruler?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam
358. The first President of India Rejendra Prasad belonged to which Sate?
(a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Delhi
(d) Uttar Pradesh
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above
359. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union Movement?
(a) V.V. Giri (b) N. sanjiva Reddy
(c) K.R. Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain
360. Which President of India was called the ‘Missile Man’?
(a) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
361. Who of the following Chief justices of India acted as the president of India also?
(a) Justice M.C. Mahajan
(b) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(c) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(d) Justice B.K. Muskherjee
362. Who was to receive first Bharat Ratna?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) S. Radhaksrishnan
363. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) To hold office of President Candidate should have the minimum age of 35 years.
(b) Vice-President is chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Vice-President is appointed by the president of India.
(d) First President of India was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
364. A Bill presented in parliament becomes an Act after-
(a) It is passed by both the Houses.
(b) The president has given his Assent.
(c) The Prime Minister has signed it.
(d) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of the Union-
Parliament.
365. Who has the Constitutional power to declare a geographical area as a ‘Schedule Area’?
(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister (d) President
366. Which of the following is the discretionary powers of President?
i. To appoint Prime minister to the leader of majority party.
ii. To summon the Parliament.
iii. To return a bill to the Parliament with objections.
iv. To appoint the members of Council of Ministers.
v. To assent the bill referred by Governor.
vi. To detain a bill.
vii. To ask the Prime Minister for such information related to any advise.
viii. To say the Council of Ministers for reconsideration on any advise.
(a) i ii iv vii
(b) ii v vi viii
(c) i iii vi viii
(d) ii v vii viii
(e) iii vi vii viii
367. Which of is the legislative power of the President according to constitution?
(a) To summon the session of Parliament
(b) To prorogate the session of Parliament
(c) To adjourn the meeting of Parliament
(d) To promulgate ordinance
368. “He represents the nation but does not lead the nation” - this dictum applies to whom of the
following?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
369. Which one of the following President of India has been the Governor of Bihar?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. S.D. Sharma
(d) V.V. Giri
370. Rashtrapati Bhavan was designed by :
(a) Edward Stone
(b) Le Corbusier
(c) Edwin Lutyens
(d) Tarun Dutt
371. The Vice-President of India elected by :
(a) The People
(b) The Electoral College which elects the President
(c) The members of both the Houses of Parliament
(d) The State Legislatures
372. Who amongst the following elects the Vice-President of India?
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. Member of Lok Sabha
2. Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Members of Legislative Assemblies
4. Members of Legislative Councils
Code :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
373. The Vice - President of India :
1. Is the second highest dignitary of India.
2. Has no formal function attached to his office
3. Discharges the functions of the president during his a absence.
4. Acts as the President if the President resigns, or is removed or dies.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All the four
374. The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of -
(a) Council of States (b) Lok Sabha
(c) Cabinet (d) Council of Minsters
375. The Proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President can be presented in -
(a) Any House of the parliament
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) The Lok Sabha
376. A resolution for the removal of the Vice - President of India can be proposed in -
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Any House of Parliament
(c) Joint Session of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha only
377. Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice - President
(c) The Prime of Minister
(d) The Speaker of Loksabha
378. Who is the Ex- Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Prime Minister
(e) None of the above/ More than one of the above

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