1. Which statement is accurate regarding the reason premature infants develop neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

A. the alveoli lack surfactant

B. the lungs lack ability to absorb oxygen
C. the lungs cannot remove CO2 from the blood
D. immature lungs cannots exchange CO2 and O2 effecively.
2. A neonate experiences meconium aspiration at the time of delivery and develops respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which
nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for an infant diagnosed with this disorder?
A. Risk for Infection
B. Risk for Aspiration
C. Impaired Gas Exchange
D. Dysfunctional Ventilatory Weaning Response
3. When performing a physical assessment of an unusually small newborn infant, the nurse can determine that the infant is small
for gestation age (SGA) rather than premature by which of the following characteristics?
A. vigorous cry
B. increased lanugo
C. weaking sucking reflex
D. diminished ear recoil
4. Compared with an infant born vaginally an infant born via cesarean section is more likely to manifest which condition?
A. crib death syndrome
B. neurological deficits
C. failure to thrive syndrome
D. Respiratory distress syndrome
5. A nurse should observe for which particular complication in infants who are born breech?
A. cyanosis
B. fracture hip
C. hydrocephalus
D. brachial palsy
6. A nurse caring for the newborn of a diabetic mother would give highest priority to assessing for which conditions?
A. Hypocapnia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperinsulinism
7. What is the best technique for assessing jaundice in a newborn?
A. testing capillary refill
B. blanching skin on the forehead
C. assessing the skin on the palm of the hands
D. assisng the skin on the bottom of the feet

8. A 48-hour-old infant who is being breast-fed is diagnosed with physiological jaundice and is prescribed phototherapy
treatment. Which measure taken by the nurse would enhance bilirubin excretion?
A. keeping the infant snugly wrapped
B. placing the infant in a quite, darkened area
C. providing the infant with additional oral fluids every 3 hours
D. encouraging the mother to temporarily suspend breast-feeding her infant
9. The nurse is assisting a new mother with breast-feeding. The nurse notes that the infant is nursing well when which behaviors
are observed? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A. The infants makes a clicking noise
B. Swallowing is audible
C. The mother reports a pulling sensation on her nipple
D. The infants sucks with dimpled cheeks
E. The tip of the infant's nose and chin touch the breast
10. A 12-hour-old infant has hemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the most common complication of this disorder?
A. respiratory failure
B. Liver failure
C. Jaundice
D. Blindness
11. When instructing a new mother about the newborn's need for sensory stimulation, the nurse should explain that the most
highly developed sense is the neonate is:
A. taste
B. smell
C. touch
D. hearing
12. At the time of delivery, the nurse assigns a newborn an Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes. THe purpose of this scoring system is
to obtain:
A. the infant's initial vital signs
B. a survey of gross functioning
C. an initial assessment of vital functions
D. an assessment of mental retardation
13. A new father observes his newborn infant receiving a vitamin K injection and asks the nurse, "Why did my son need a shot?"
The nurse's response should be based on the understanding that infants:
A. need vitamin K to stimulate liver maturation
B. cannot get enough vitamin K from their feeeings
C. have a sterile intestinal tract and cannot synthesize vitamin K
D. are often born with hypokalemia, which responds to vitamin K therapy
14. "What abnormal placental implantation is described as, "chorionic villi that penetrates beyond the myometrium into the
entire uterine wall and possibly to other adjacent organs such as the bladder"?
a. Placenta circumvallate
b. Placenta Increta
c. Placenta Accreta
d. Placenta Percreta
15. This condition is commonly experienced as one-sided, lower abdominal pain associated with ovulation, depending on which
side release of the egg occurs, sometimes accompanied by slight vaginal bleeding or discharge.
a. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) -
b. Unicomuate
c. Mittelschmerz
d. Post castration syndrome
16. Among the abnormal placenta, what is described as the "placenta that has one or more accessory lobes connected to the
main placenta by blood vessels"?
a. Vasa previa
b. Velamentous insertion of the cord
c. Battledore placenta
d. Placenta succenturiate
17. A mother brought her 4 years old son in the health center. Upon assessment the nurse observed that the child has pus
draining from his eye and has mouth ulcers. The following are the management for this child EXCEPT
a. Treat mouth ulcers with gentian violet
b. Treat eye infection with tetracycline eye ointment
c. Give Vitamin A treatment
d. Follow up should be done after 1 week
18. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommend the use of this tool to monitor the progress of labor, identify and intervene
in cases of abnormal labor. Which of the following has been established universally as the "gold standard" labor monitoring tool
for maternal and fetal well-being?
a. Partograph
b. Gantt chart
c. Labor curve
d. Growth chart
19. A nurse complete a health history of a client from a couple with history of infertility. What are the two assessment
possibilities?
a) Testicular biopsy and culdoscopy
b) Hysteroscopy and sperm penetration assay
c) Semen analysis and cervical mucus observation
d) Laparoscopy and hormonal studies
20. You are in charge of a client who is just diagnosed of pre-eclampsia. The attending physician ordered: Hydralizine (Apresoline)
5 mg IV now. Which of the following is a priority nursing action before medication.
a) Instruct the patient to stay still
b) Check blood pressure
c) Instruct the patient to void
d) Stay with the client, she might have seizure anytime
21. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for a client experiencing premature cervical dilatation?
a) Isolate the client
b) Complete bed rest
c) Restrain the client so she cannot leave the hospital
d) Walk slowly every morning
22. As the student nurse you learned that sexual dysfunction in man and woman can be prevented through the following
management: 1.Treating health conditions 2. Talk to a counselor or mental health professionals 3. Practice healthy life style 4. Do
not use recreational drugs such as opioids
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2,3 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
23. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Lei aware that which goal takes the highest priority? The client will:
a) Make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
b) Identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
c) Verbalize possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
d) Establish adequate daily nutritional intake
24. The following are the causes of inversion of the uterus, EXCEPT;
a) Straining or coughing while the uterus is relaxed
b) Forceful pulling of the umbilical cord to hasten delivery
c) Spontaneous rupture of the bag of water
d) Fundal pressure on uncontracted uterus
25. The doctor ordered infrared, how many minutes should the infrared be administered if plugged to 220 volts?
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
26. Which of the following is the third stage of Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a) Symptomatic period
b) Asymptomatic period
c) Initial invasion of the virus
d) Seroconversion
27. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention of a child victim of abuse?
a) Analyze family dynamics
b) Implement measures to ensure the victims safety
c) Assess the scope of the abuse problem
d) Teach appropriate coping skills
28. Which of the following is NOT true about asymptomatic Urinary tract Infection (UTI)?
a) It's signs and symptoms are obvious and can be dangerous to both mother and baby
b) It is caused by urine stasis
c) It's signs and symptoms are not obvious and can be dangerous to both mother and baby
d) It is caused even by minimal presence of glucose in the urine
29. An infant was seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit and was found to have yellow fluids in scrotum that is visible on
illumination, this disorder is called:
a) Hematocele
b) Spermatocele
c) Hydrocele
d) Varicocle
30. Which of the following positions is recommended for placing an infant to sleep?
a) Side-lying position
b) Prone position
c) Supine position
d) With head elevated 30 degrees
31. Which of the following type of anemia has enlarged, yet immature red blood cell?
a) Sickle- cell anemia
b) Folic-Acid deficiency anemia
c) All of the choices are correct
d) Iron deficiency anemia
32. A client was admitted due to premature rupture of the membrane. Which of the following is a possible complication of
PROM?
a. Placenta Previa
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Umbilical cord prolapse
d. Preeclampsia
33. Retained placental fragments have been associated with pregnancy complications, this is the most common cause of bleeding
in which of the following types of postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Class IV hemorrhage
b) Late postpartum hemorrhage
c) Class III hemorrhage
d) Early postpartum hemorrhage
34. Sandra is a 14-year-old girl who wears brace for structural scoliosis; which of the following statements indicate effective use
of brace?
a) "I wonder if I can take the brace off when I go to the homecoming dance"
b) "I'm really glad that I can take this thing off whenever I get tired"
c) "I sure am glad that I only have to wear this awful thing at night"
d) "I'll look forward to taking thing off to take my bath everyday"
35. You are assisting a mother who happened to have shoulder dystocia. The following are the maneuvers you would expect
EXCEPT:
a) Mc Robert's maneuver
b) Wood's screw maneuver
c) Ritgen's maneuver
d) Supra pubic maneuver
36. Carla Hernandez came in for consultation, upon assessment, you found out that she is having premature labor contractions.
The obstetrician ordered to give her Terbutaline sulfate 25 mg SC to relax her uterus. Which of the following would you consider
to refer as a side effect of that medicine?
a) Refer for maternal heart rate over 110 BPM
b) Refer for maternal respiratory over 14 bpm
c) Refer for maternal clear breath sounds
d) Refer for maternal hyperactive bowel sounds
37. In uterine atony, which of the following independent nursing actions should be done immediately to help contract the uterus,
thus, preventing hemorrhage?
a) Bimanual compression and massage
b) Take the vital signs of the client
c) Let the client void to prevent bladder distention that hinders involution process
d) Massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions
38. Marinara admits that she is using cocaine almost daily. She asked the nurse, what will be the effect of cocaine to her
pregnancy? What will be the best response of the nurse to explain the harmful effects of cocaine to fetal growth?
a) Cocaine use can cause extreme fetal lung damage
b) Cocaine use can cause extreme vasodilation to the mother
c) Cocaine use can cause extreme illusion to the mother
d) Cocaine use can cause extreme vasoconstriction to the mother
39. A woman comes to the clinic for prenatal check-up. Which of the following assessment is an indicative of Hydatidiform Mole?
a. Complaints of nausea and vomiting
b. An enlarged uterus than expected
c. Dizziness
d. Pale conjunctiva
40. The following are conditions that leave the uterus unable to contract readily posing at risk for postpartal hemorrhage EXCEPT:
a. Multiparity
b. A rapid birth
c. Deep anesthesia or analgesia
d. Prolonged use of tocolytic drugs
41. Short umbilical cord can cause which of the following?
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruption placenta
c. Umbilical cord prolapse
d. Nuchal cord
42. Which of the following techniques during labor and delivery can lead to uterine inversion?
a. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to contract.
b. Tugging strongly on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta and hastening placental separation.
c. Applying of fundal pressure to assist the mother in bearing down during delivery of the fetal head.
d. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that has already detached from the uterine wall.
43. Which of the following client/s are at risk for developing placenta previa?
1. A 37-year-old woman who is pregnant with her 7th child.
2. A 28-year-old pregnant female with chronic hypertension.
3. A 25-year-old female who is 36 weeks pregnant that has experienced trauma to abdomen.
4. A 20-year-old pregnant female who is a cocaine user.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
44. You also assessed another parturient who is 35 weeks AOG. During Leopold's maneuver, you palpated the head of the fetus
on the right side of the abdomen. You would expect that the fetal presentation is which of the following?
a. Shoulder Presentation
b. Footling Presentation
c. Cephalic Presentation
d. Transverse Presentation
45. The client is a 36 year old woman, gravida 6, and para 6 who delivers a baby girl at 38 weeks AOG after 8 hours of labor. The
baby weighed 7 lbs and 14 ounces. The clients VS are stable and her lochia is heavy and contains various clots. The nurse would
consider the client to be at risk for uterine atony because of which of the following?
a. Client's age
b. Grandmultiparity
c. Length of labor
d. Size of the baby
46. At 2AM you have monitored a G5P4 parturient, 4AM she delivered to a live term baby girl. You would consider this as
precipitate labor which is describe as labor process that last less than:
a. 4 hours of labor
b. 2 hours of labor
c. 5 hours of labor
d. 3 hours of labor
47. Maria is a chemist and was exposed to poisonous substances. Her situation falls under what factor that categorizes pregnancy
as high risk?
a. Psychological factors
b. Social factors
c. It is not included in any factor
d. Physical factors
48. You admitted a primigravid patient who is 28 weeks AOG and is complaining of mild to moderate uterine contractions. Upon
assessment, you observed that she is having premature labor contractions. Your client asked you what is Preterm labor? Your best
response is which of the following?
a. All choices are correct
b. "Uterine contractions that may precede to premature delivery of an infant if uncontrolled."
c. "Uterine contractions that occur as a result of infections before 37 weeks of AOG."
d. "Uterine contractions that occur after 20th week and before 37 weeks of gestation that may result in cervical changes."
49. A 35-year-old client is diagnosed of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (Hydatidiform Mole). Which of the following procedure
is likely to be done for the client that would remove the products of conception?
a. Radiation Therapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Ultrasonography
d. Dilation and Curettage
50. The nurse is assigned to care for a newly delivered primiparous client and her term neonate 1 hour after a vaginal delivery.
The nurse observes that the neonate's APGAR score at 5 minutes was 9. The nurse interprets this as which of the following about
the neonate?
a. The neonate is in stable condition.
b. Vigorous resuscitation is needed.
c. The neonate was cyanotic at birth.
d. Oxygen administration was necessary at birth
51. The nurse conducts a physical assessment of the neonate as the initial bath is given several hours after birth. In assessing the
baby's skin, which of the following observations most likely require special attention?
a. Jaundice
b. Harlequin Sign
c. Vernix Caseosa
d. Cyanosis of the hands and feet
52. Which of the following characteristics is most commonly associated with a large for gestational age newborn?
a. Dysmorphic features
b. Hypothermia
c. Weight under 2000g
d. Risk for birth injury
53. A nurse is performing an assessment on a postmature neonate. Which physical characteristic would the nurse expect to
observe?
a. Smooth soles without creases
b. Desquamation over the body
c. Lanugo covering the entire body
d. Vernix that covers the body in a thick layer
54. When a neonate is delivered with meconium staining in the amniotic fluid, which sequence of events will most effectively
decrease the risk of meconium aspiration?
a. Deliver the head and then suction the mouth and then the nose
b. Clamp the umbilical cord, then suction the neonate's mouth
c. Deliver the thorax, then suction the mouth
d. Deliver the thorax, then suction the nose then the mouth
55. What is the chronic irreversible complication of hyperbilirubinemia?
a. Kernicterus
b. cHypobilirebunemia
c. Abnormal Gaze
d. Sensorineural deafness
56. Ms. S delivers a 6 lb 5 oz (2863 g) boy. Because his serum bilirubin level is elevated, the baby is receiving phototherapy. To
meet the safety needs of the baby while he is undergoing phototherapy, the nurse would:
a. Keep the baby clothed
b. Limit fluid intake
c. Provide eye and genital shields
d. Make sure the light is not closer than 24 inches
57. While walking around Puting Kahoy a man approach Bea and suddenly exposed his genitals, what type of sexual alteration is
this?
a. Necrophilia
b. Zoophilia
c. Exhibitionist
d. Voyeurism
58. May, 4 years old, was brought to the health center because of ear pain. When the community nurse further assessed the
patient, he observed that pus is draining from the ear. The mother verbalized that she noticed the discharge for 3 weeks already.
How will the nurse classify her condition?
a. Acute ear infection
b. No ear infection
c. Mastoiditis
d. Chronic ear infection
59. Which of the following is NOT a general danger sign?
a. Lethargy/difficult to awaken
b. Convulsion
c. Difficulty of breathing
d. Inability to drink or breastfeed
60. Which of the following is an inflammation of the male reproductive system where there is inguinal and scrotal pain, fever, and
tenderness of the affected part? Urinalysis result of patient with this condition shows bacteria and WBCs. Treatments for this
includes antibiotics and symptomatic relief.
a. Phimosis
b. Epididymitis
c. Balanophostitis
d. Paraphimosis
61. What disorder is caused by forceful bending of the penis during vaginal intercourse or by a sharp blow to the erect penis
during a fall, car accident, or other mishap and may also be caused by a traumatic masturbation?
a. Chordee
b. Epispadias
c. Penile fracture
d. Phimosis
62. If pneumonia is present with major signs and symptoms, which of the following treatment is needed?
a. ORS 240cc/loose stool
b. Amoxicyllin P.O. BID
c. Procaine Penicillin IM OD
d. Cotrimoxazole P.O. BID
63. What type of infertility is described as inability to conceive despite management done?
a. Sub infertility
b. Sterility
c. Secondary infertility