PAPER II: COVERING ALL ASPECTS OF NURSING

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
INSTRUCTIONS: This paper consist of 250 Multiple Choice (Objective Questions):
Please read the instructions carefully.

Candidate’s NUMBER NOT NAME:

SELECT THE CORRECT OPTIONS ONLY.

1. Nephrons are structurally divided into

(a) Cortical and juxtapositional
(b) Cortical and juxtamedullary
(c) Cortical and juxtaglomerulla
(d) Cortical and juxtahilial

2. The hormone progesterone is produced by

(a) Graafian follicle (corpus luteum)
(b) Endometrial lining
(c) Fimbrie infundibulum
(d) Follicle stimulating hormone

3. The following are true of immunoglobulin G (IgG) EXCEPT

(a) It forms 75% of the total immunogllbulins
(b) It combats parasitic infections
(c) It activates the complement system
(d) It crosses the placenta

4. Circulating plasma proteins which are made in the liver and activated when an
antibody combine with antigen is known as
(a) Natural killer cells
(b) Lymphokines
(c) Null lymphocytes
(d) Complement

5. A visual acuity test was reported as OD 20/20, OS 20/15 – 2, it means

(a) Patient read all five letters from the 20/20 line with the right eye and three
of the five letters on the 20/15 line with the left eye
(b) Patient read all five letters from the 20/20 line with the left eye, and three of the
five letters on the 20/15 line with the right eye
(c) Patient read all five letters from the 20/20 line with the right eye and two of the
five letters on the 20/15 line with the left eye

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 (d) Patient read all five letters from the 20/20 line with the left eye and two of the
five letters on the 20/15 line with the right eye

6. The chromosomes are responsible for

(a) Cellular digestion
(b) Removal of cellular waste
(c) Cell respiration
(d) Cellular reproduction
7. During the metaphase of mitosis
(a) There is pairing of chromatid
(b) Centromeres separate
(c) Chromatid align on the centre of the spindle
(d) The chromosome uncoil and nuclear envelop reforms

8. Large connective tissue cells that are responsible for production of collagen and
elastic fibres are called
(a) Macrophages
(b) Fibroblasts
(c) Mast cells
(d) Fat cells

9. One of the following is found in the appendicular skeleton

(a) The skull
(b) The sacrum
(c) The coccyx
(d) The pelvic girdle

10. If the skin is overstretched for a long period, the dermis can be damaged
leaving lines that are visible through the epidermis. These lines are called
(a) Cleavages
(b) Tension lines
(c) Striae
(d) Skin gaps

11. A patient was exposed to cold and developed a “goose flesh”. Which smooth
muscles of the skin were contracted?
(a) Eccrine glands]
(b) Papillae
(c) Deep pilodine muscles
(d) Arrector pili muscles

12. Which of the following hormones increases uterine contraction and ovulation?
(a) Prostalgladins
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) Prolactin

13. Six activities of the digestive process are

(a) Ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion
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 (b) Ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
(c) Deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
(d) Ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation

14. Which of the following segment of the alimentary canal is the most common
location for Crohns disease?
(a) Sigmoid colon
(b) Jejunum
(c) Terminal ileum
(d) Descending colon

15. The following are common risk factors for epilepsy EXCEPT
(a) Febrile condition
(b) Hypoxia
(c) Head trauma
(d) Metabolic disturbances

16. The following are the modes of entry of bacteria into the genitourinary tract
EXCEPT
(a) Lymphogeneous spread
(b) Ascending infection
(c) Haematogenous spread
(d) Indirect extension from other organs

17. The following are complications related to tracheal sunctioning EXCEPT

(a) Infection
(b) Hypoxia
(c) Tissue trauma
(d) Bronchodilation

18. After a pelvic examination, a common occurrence in the client is

(a) Anorexia
(b) Bleeding for 1 to 2 hours
(c) Abdominal pain
(d) Orthostatic hypotension

19. The internal reproductive system of the male that aids in the maturation of the
sperm is called
(a) Ejaculating glands
(b) Vas deferens
(c) Epididymis
(d) Seminal vesicles

20. A male bilateral vasectomy functions as contraceptive because

(a) Ejaculation is prevented
(b) Sperm production is prohibited
(c) Penile erection is limited
(d) Passage of sperm to semen is prevented

21. On auscultation of the abdomen, bowel sounds heard every 5 – 15 seconds are
considered
(a) abnormal
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 (b) hyperactive
(c) hypoactive
(d) normal

22. Diverticular disease occurs most frequently in which of the following areas?
(a) Caecum
(b) Sigmoid colon
(c) Descending colon
(d) Rectum

23. Rebound tenderness is determined by

(a) palpating the abdomen for direct tenderness
(b) observing the abdomen for muscular rigidity
(c) pressing down on the abdomen a few inches and slowly releasing the
pressure
(d) pressing down on the abdomen a few inches and quickly releasing the
pressure

24. Which of the following is the most important intervention for a patient with
anorexia nervosa?
(a) Assist with activities of daily living
(b) Document intake and output chart
(c) Weigh the patient daily
(d) Restore nutritional health

25. Which of the following is a function of the liver?

(a) Synthesis of plasma protein
(b) Elimination of carbohydrates
(c) Concentration of bile
(d) Secretion of cholecystokinin

26. Which food is most likely to stimulate the release of bile?

(a) Poached egg
(b) Beans
(c) Fried potatoes
(d) Coffee

27. The enzymes of pancreas are involved in the digestion of which food?
(a) Starch and fat
(b) Starch, fat and protein
(c) Fat and protein
(d) Starch and protein

28. Digestion of foods is complete in the

(a) Small intestine
(b) Ileum of the large intestine
(c) Caecum of the large intestine
(d) Transverse colon

29. The cumulative effect of a high-fat diet could lead to

(a) Iron deficiency
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Blindness
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 (d) Heart disease

30. One of the following is a surgical management of otitis media

(a) Tympanotomy
(b) Vestibular nerve sectioning
(c) Tympanoplasty
(d) Vestibular nerve repair

31. An inflammatory granulation tissue formed at the synovium and cartilage in

rheumatoid arthritis is called:
(a) Spur
(b) Tophi
(c) Fibrosis
(d) Pannus

32. Hemophilia is a hereditary problem that --------------------- are the major carriers.
(a) the blacks
(b) the whites
(c) females
(d) males

33. The most common sites of aneurysm are the

(a) Abdominal aorta
(b) Renal arteries
(c) Popliteal arteries
(d) All of these

34. Folic acid and vitamin B12 requirement increases during pregnancy because of
their roles in
(a) building strong bones and teeth
(b) blood cells production
(c) fighting infections in the placenta
(d) enzyme action

35. Ischemia is caused by

(a) insufficient supply of blood to a specific organ or tissue
(b) a vessel constriction due to spasm
(c) narrowing of the arteries by fatty deposits
(d) None of these

36. Antigens are also known as:

(a) Agglutinogens
(b) Agglutinins
(c) Agglutinations
(d) Antibodies

37. Which of the following is genetically determined?

(a) ABO antibodies
(b) Rh antibodies
(c) Genotype
(d) Blood group

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38. An abnormally elevated pulse rate above 100 b/m in adults in referred to as
(a) Bradycardia
(b) Tachycardia
(c) Arrythmia
(d) Dysrbythmia

39. Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called

(a) Apnea
(b) Eupnea
(c) Rhythm
(d) Bradypnea

40. In lumbar puncture the Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is withdrawn from the
subarachnoid space of the following lumbar vertebrae
(a) 4th and 5th, 5th and 6th
(b) 2nd and 3rd, 4th and 5th
(c) 3rd and 4th, 4th and 5th
(d) 2nd and 3rd, 3rd and 4th

41. The fusion of the ovum and the spermatozoon results in a single cell called
(a) Embryo
(b) Zygote
(c) Foetus
(d) Morulla

42. The technique that is most appropriate for the nurse to use in opening air way
of a victim who is not breathing is:
(a) lift the chin
(b) elevates the neck
(c) clear the mouth
(d) elevate the leg

43. ----------------------- is NOT an emergency care of an epileptic patient in tonic

stage.
(a) Restrict movement
(b) Remove injurious objects from his environment
(c) Loose the tight clothings
(d) Insert tongue depressor

44. One of the following is an emergency care for client with corrosive poisoning:
(a) Induce vomitting
(b) Ask patient not to eat for the next 24 hours
(c) Give acid preparation to counter it
(d) Give emollients demulcents

45. --------------------- is NOT a sign of hypoglycemia

(a) Hunger
(b) Dizziness
(c) Extreme thirst
(d) Sweating

46. Clinical evidence of diminished cardiac output includes:

(a) bounding pulse
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 (b) rapid capillary refill
(c) widened pulse pressure
(d) narrow pulse pressure

47. One of the following in NOT an emergency management of bee sting:

(a) Refer if allergic reaction develops
(b) Scrape off sting carefully with finger nail or blunt knife
(c) Wash the area with soap and water
(d) Squeeze the sting

48. Reasons to consider ARV drugs substitution are all of the following EXCEPT
(a) Drug toxicity
(b) Intolerance
(c) Presence of active tuberculosis
(d) Pregnancy

49. The acronym V.C.T stands for:

(a) Voluntary Control and Treatment
(b) Voluntary Counselling and Teaching
(c) Voluntary Counselling and Testing
(d) Viral Control and Treatment

50. The community health nurse should suspect pancreatitis and refer when the
client complains of:
(a) infusing fresh frozen plasma
(b) infusing intravenous fluids
(c) administration of Dopamine( BONUS)
(d) applying medical anti-shock garment

51. The community health nurse should suspect pancreatitis and refer when the
client complain of:
(a) loss of appetite
(b) weight gain
(c) excessive thirst
(d) oliguria
52. One of the following is NOT among the routine immunization schedule
(a) Cholera vaccine
(b) Hepatitis B vaccine
(c) Measles vaccine
(d) Tetanus vaccine

53. A leading cause of blindness in patient with AIDS is

(a) Glaucoma
(b) Cataract
(c) Kaposis’s sarcoma
(d) Cytoimegalovirus retinitis

54. Down’s Syndrome is caused by

(a) extra chromosome
(b) missing chromosome
(c) recessive gene
(d) dorminant gene

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55. The neonatal period covers the period of birth to:
(a) 30 days
(b) 28 days
(c) 2 months
(d) 5 months

56. Gene for sickle cell disease is transmitted by

(a) bone cells
(b) sex chromosomes
(c) sex cells
(d) autosomes

57. Which of the following agents of socialization should commence sex education?
(a) The School
(b) The Family
(c) The Peer Group
(d) The Religious Group

58. The components of Maslow’s hierarchy of need theory include the following
EXCEPT
(a) Esteem and aesthetic
(b) Basic needs
(c) Integrity and initiative
(d) Actualization

59. Toxins released by clostridium Tetani are classified as:

(a) Endotoxins
(b) Infective toxins
(c) Harmful toxin
(d) Exotoxins

60. One of the following is NOT an example of immunoglobulins:

(a) Ig E
(b) Ig G
(c) Ig M
(d) Ig F

61. Positive sigh of pregnancy is

(a) Ballottement
(b) Braxton-Hicks contraction
(c) Abdominal enlargement
(d) Audible fetal heart sound

62. Which of the following stores sperm and allows it to mature?

(a) Vas deference
(b) Epididymis
(c) Seminal vesicles
(d) Testes

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63. Which gland releases a small amount of fluid just prior ejaculation to decrease
acidity in the urethra caused by urine
(a) Prostate gland
(b) Glans penis
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(d) seminal vesicles

64. During spermatogenesis, the secondary spermatocyte develops into

(a) Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatids
(c) Spermatocyte
(d) Spermategonia

65. Vasa efferentia are the ductless leading from

(a) Epididymisto urethra
(b) Testicular lobules to rete testes
(c) Rete testes to vas deferens
(d) Vas deferens to epididymis

66. Which of the following statements is peculiar of monilia vaginitis?

(a) Causative organism is Candida albicans
(b) Recurrence rate following initial cure is very low
(c) The relative concentration of lactobacilli and Candida albicans in the vagina
are inversely related
(d) Associated with hormonal factors, depressed immunity and antibiotic rate.

67. Metrorrhagia is a term for

(a) Irregular menstruation
(b) Irregular vaginal bleeding
(c) Anovular menstruation
(d) Prolonged menstruation

68. The term performance anxiety refers to

(a) Fear of failure to achieve a sustained erection
(b) Fear of having sex in a public place
(c) Fear of criticism from the sexual partner
(d) Fear of not achieving orgasm

69. An example of water shortage disease is

(a) Cholera
(b) Leprosy
(c) Bartholinitis
(d) Trichomoniasis

70. A sampling strategy that uses the most easily accessible people (or object to
participate in a study is known as
(a) Quota sampling
(b) Volunteer sampling
(c) Purposeful sampling
(d) Convenience sampling

71. The following are examples of nursing models EXCEPT

(a) Orem’s self care model
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 (b) Rogers unitary human being
(c) Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs
(d) Roy’s adaptation model

72. Which of the following does NOT require emergency care?

(a) Bleeding
(b) Burns
(c) HIV
(d) Unconsciousness

73. The following are some of the qualities of a good first aider EXCEPT
(a) Orem’s self-care model
(b) Rogers unitary human being
(c) Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs
(d) Roy’s adaptation model

74. The measure that is taken to prepare and reduce the effect of disaster is
(a) Disaster preparedness
(b) Disaster prevention
(c) Disaster management
(d) Disaster control

75. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use to clear the airway of a
chocking pregnant woman?
(a) Abdominal thrust
(b) Back slap
(c) Uterine thrust
(d) Chest thrust

76. The ratio of chest compression to ventilation during initial cardiopulmonary

resuscitation of adult is
(a) 30 chest compressions to 1 breathing
(b) 20 chest compressions to 1 breathing
(c) 30 chest compressions to 2 breathing
(d) 39 chest compressions to 3 breathing

77. Health care organization are now expected to give more priority to which of the
four specific phases of disaster management?
(a) Migration
(b) Rescue
(c) Preparedness
(d) Response

78. The following are legal and ethical issues in nursing research which a nurse
researcher must ensure EXCEPT
(a) Anonymity and confidentiality
(b) Right to refuse participation
(c) Right to withdraw from study with penalty
(d) Right of informed consent

79. Levels of measurement in research includes the following EXCEPT

(a) nominal level of measurement
(b) ratio level of measurement
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 (c) statistical level of measurement
(d) ordinal level of measurement

80. Validity of an instrument can best be described as

(a) Ability of an instrument to obtain the data that it is intended to gather
(b) Ability of an instrument to produce a research question
(c) Ability of an instrument to produce a research question
(d) All of these

81. Interview method of data collection is concerned with

(a) gathering data through content analysis
(b) gathering data through record
(c) gathering data through observation
(d) gathering data through face to face or a telephone to the subjects.

82. Coding of data refers to

(a) division of raw data
(b) multiplication of raw data
(c) classification of raw data
(d) cross tabulation of raw data

83. One of the following is not an example of a figure

(a) Histogram
(b) Table
(c) Bar chart
(d) Picture

84. When collected data is entered into the computer, it is referred to as

(a) raw data
(b) data set
(c) set data
(d) hard data

85. The first step in statistical treatment of collected data is to

(a) Calculate the sample size
(b) Provide descriptive statistics to summarize the data
(c) Provide inferential statistics to summarize the data
(d) None of these

86. A numerical quantity summarizing sample is

(a) parameter
(b) variable
(c) parametric
(d) statistic

87. The extent to which the measurement reflect the true state of affairs is called
--------------- in research
(a) Acuity
(b) Accuracy
(c) Reliability
(d) Validity

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88. ------------------ is referred to as the process of learning culture and how to live
within it
(a) Cultural belief
(b) Socialization
(c) Stratification
(d) Cultural diversity

89. -------------------- guide judgement and subsequent behaviour

(a) Attitude
(b) Skills
(c) Knowledge
(d) Values

90. The following are agents of socialization EXCEPT

(a) School
(b) Family
(c) Mammals
(d) Peer groups

91. ---------------------- is responsible for socializing groups of young ones in

particular skill and values in the society.
(a) Family
(b) Mass media
(c) Health institutions
(d) School

92. -------------------- is the different social and physical characteristics of the people
in terms of age distribution, sex, education, social class etc.
(a) Population composition
(b) Demography
(c) Population
(d) Population size

93. Examples of micro-organisms that have beneficial effect includes the following
EXCEPT
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacterial
(c) Protozoa
(d) Algae

94. ------------------- assist in breaking down dead materials and recycling chemical in
the soil
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
(d) Protozoa

95. The father of microbiology with lenses of its own making is

(a) Francesco Redi
(b) Anthoni van leeuwenhock
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Lazzaro Spallanzani

96. The method of sterilization known as pasteurization was contribution by

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 (a) Robert Kotch
(b) Semmelweiss
(c) Joseph Lister
(d) Louis Pasteur

97. ----------------- is any substance that is able to incite or induce the production of
anti body
(a) Antibodies
(b) Antigens
(c) Immune system
(d) Immunity

98. Hearing loss is categorized based on

(a) Severity
(b) Age of onset
(c) Type
(d) All of these

99. Sensorineural hearing loss results from dysfunction of the following EXCEPT
(a) Eustachian tube
(b) Vestiobulocochlear nerve
(c) Hair cells of organ of corti
(d) Auditory cortex

100. Speech in noise test is used to detect

(a) Unilateral hearing loss
(b) Pre-lingual hearing loss
(c) Conductive hearing loss
(d) Sensorineur hearing loss

101 ------------------ is responsible for the development of secondary male

characteristics
a) Androgen
b) maledrogren
c) progesterone
d) testosterone

102 Another name for menopause is ----------------------

a) climacteric
b) menarche
c) menocteric
d) anovulation

103 The following are the reproductive functions of the penis except ----------------
a) spermatogenosis
b) expulsion of semen
c) penetration of the vagina during sexual intercourse
d) for condom use in family planning

104 The ----------------- phase follows menstruation and lasts until ovulation
a) secretory

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 b) follicular
c) proliferative
d) menstrual

105 The fusion of the sperm with the secondary oocyte to form the zygote is called
a) menstruation
b) fertilization
c) conception
d) spermatogenesis

106 Ovulation occurs -------------- before the next menstruation

a) 12 days
b) 14 days
c) 15 days
d) 18 days

107 At each ejaculation the amount of semen deposited in the vagina is

a) 2 – 4ml
b) 4 – 6ml
c) 5 – 10ml
d) 10 – 10ml

108 Fertilization occurs in which of the following?

a) isthmus
b) infundibulum
c) ampulla of the fallopian tubes
d) interstitial portion
109 One of the following is a normal female pelvis
a) Android
b) Gynaecoid
c) Anthropoid
d) Platypelloid
110 Vasectomy is the occlusion of the ----------------
a) Glans penis
b) Vas deferens
c) Seminal vesicle
d) Spermatic cord
111 Characteristics of a normal 5-year-old child include
a) can tell full name and address
b) knows main colours and counts to 10
c) Asks searching questions about life
d) All of these

112 The tendency of elementary school boys to associate with boys and
elementary school girls with girls is called?
a) Gender consciousness
b) peer group
c) gender cleavage
d) gender experimentation

113 Adolescents develop the ability to use ------------ or the ability to draw to logical
conclusions based on a set of facts or premises.
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 a) Inductive reasoning
b) abstract reasoning
c) relational reasoning
d) deductive reasoning

114 -------------- is the nutrient that reduces the risk of neural tube defect in infants if
consumed by the mother at least one month before conception and during the
early weeks of pregnancy.
a) calcium
b) vitamin C
c) folic acid
d) zinc

115 The genetic makeup and sex of the baby are set at what point?
a) zygote
b) fetus
c) embryonic
d) fetal
116 The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is
a) ovary
b) cervix
c) fallopian tube
d) abdomen
117. The patient who had a dilatation a curettage procedure is being instructed
about some activity limitations. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is
appropriate?
a) Stay on bed rest for 1 week the gradually resume normal activities
b) Avoid sexual intercourse for 1 week
c) Avoid strenuous work for 6 weeks
d) Avoid tub bath or pond bath for at least 2 weeks

118. Long intervals between menses is termed as:

a) Amenorrhea
b) Oligomenorrhea
c) Menorrhagia
d) metrorrhagia
119. The most common condition associated with secondary amenorrhea is:
a) Anorexia nervosa
b) Polycyotic ovary disease
c) Pregnancy
d) Pseudocyesis

120. The term endonitriosis refers to:

a) inflammation of the endometrium
b) Hypertropy of the endinetrium
c) Enclometrial tissue is located outside the uterus.
d) metaplasia of endometrial tissue within the uterine cavity

121. Breast self-examination involves both:

a) Inspection of breasts and palpation as breast tissue.
b) Palpation of breast tissue and cervical lymph nodes
c) palpation of breast tissue and squeezing nipples for discharge
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 d) Palpation of breast tissue and axillary lymph nodes

122. Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of breast cancer?

a) Breast enlargement
b) Breast Tenderness
c) Darkening of nipple
d) unilateral discharge from nipple

123. A patient with breast tumor is scheduled for breast conservation surgery.
Which of the following statements about breast conservation surgery is correct?
a) A portion of the tumor is excised and examined
b) the tumor is removed
c) the tumor and some normal surrounding tissue will be removed
c) the under arm lymph notes are surgically resected and examined

124. Which of the following symptoms is an early manifestation of cervical cancer?

a) malodorous thick vaginal discharge
b) thin, watery vaginal discharge
c) vaginal bleeding
d) aching abdominal pain
125. The most common manifestation of endometriosis
a) menorrhagia, dysmenorrheal, dysuria, hematosia
b) Dysmenorrhagia, infertility, pelvic pain dyapreunia
c) Menorrhagia, dysuria, painful bowel movement, dysmenorrheal
d) amenorrhea, pelvic pain dyspareunia, dysuria

126. Breast milk is composed of ------------

a) 70 – 80% of water
b) 80 – 90% of water
c) 80 – 90% of water
d) 60 – 70% of water

127. What is the ideal time for initiation of breastfeeding immediately after birth
a) 10 mins
b) 20 mins
c) 30 mins
d) 40 mins
128. The production of milk takes place in the ------------- in the alveoli of the breast
lobule.
a) acne cells
b) acene cells
c) acini cells
d) acyene cells

129. Which hormone is responsible for the production of breast milk?

a) Oesttrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Prolaction
d) follicle stimulating hormone

130. The temporary reservoir for milk is called --------------

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 a) Ampulla
b) Areolar
c) Nipple
d) Lactiferous tubule

131. The most sensitive part of the breast is the ----------------

a) Ampulla
b) Areolar
c) Nipple
d) Lactiferous duct

132. What is the full meaning of LAM

a) Lactiferous amenorrhoea menses
b) Lactating after menses
c) Lactational amenorrhoea method
d) Lactating after motherhood

133. The fasion of the ovum ad the spermatozoon results in a single cell called
a) Embryo
b) Zygote
c) foetus
d) morulla

134. What gestational age does the pregnant uterus become abdominal organ is felt
at the symphysis pubis?
a) 24 weeks
b) 16 weeks
c) 12 weeks
d) 20 weeks

135. All these are danger signs in pregnancy except --------------

a) Bleeding
b) Severe headache
c) convulsions
d) morning sickness

136. The treatment of fistula is by

a) Repair
b) Healing
c) Surgery
d) conservative therapy

137. In hydatiform mole, the signs and symptoms of pregnancy are -----------------
a) exaggerated
b) militated against
c) Hindered
d) mimicked
138. In the management of haemorrhage in pregnancy all are applied except -------
a) perform vaginal examination
b) set up infusion of available
c) keep patient calm
d) Form the Doctor

139. The condition of septic abortion is similar to ---------

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 a) peuperal psychosis
b) peuperal depression
c) Peuperal sepsis
d) Peupera period

140. In complete abortion product of conception are

a) retained
b) sustained
c) missed
d) expelled

141. The following are types of neuroses except -----------------

a) Anxiety
b) Hysteria
c) Dementia
d) Depression

142 Which is the commonest type of hallucination in organic psychoses

a) visual
b) Auditory
c) Tactile
d) Gustatory

143. Rapid conversation with logically unconnected of topics is called --------------

a) Irritability
b) Anxiety
c) Flight of ideas
d) Ecstasy
144. The type of somatoform disorder characterized by morbid preoccupation with
one’s body partial withdrawal of interest from the environment is -----------------
a) Phobia
b) Hypochondriasis
c) Obsessive/compulsive
d) Schizophrenia

145. The following are characteristics of personality disorder Except ------------------

a) Relatively persistent traits
b) Spontaneous exacerbations and remissions
c) Resistance to treatment
d) Results in dementia

146. False sensory perception in the absence of real external stimuli is called
-----------
a) Delusion
b) Hallucination
c) Dejavu
d) Illusion

147. A client tells the nurse that his body is made of wood and is quiet heavy. This is
a clinical manifestation of one of the following.
a) Compulsory
b) Autism
c) Depersonalization
d) Obsession
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148. The term used to describe a feeling in which the environment is experienced as
unreal, dull or strange is known as ---------------------
a) Jamais vu
b) Dejavu
c) Depersonalization
d) Derealization

149. A middle aged man who complains of palpitations, sweating and intense fear
when speaking in public could be diagnosed with one of the following
conditions.
a) Bipolar disorder
b) Post traumatic disorder
c) Generalization anxiety disorder
d) Adjustment disorder

150. --------------- is a disorder that has strong biologic and genetic components.
a) Bipolar disorder
b) Post traumatic disorder
c) Generalized anxiety disorder
d) Adjustment disorder

151. -------------------- is defence mechanism in which the individual rejects or refuses

to acknowledge the existence of a disturbing situation or feelings associated
with it.
a) Denial
b) Menis
c) Confusion
d) Pelinun

152. ----------------- is Blaming someone else for one’s difficulties or placing one’s
unethical desires on someone else.
a) Repression
b) Dissociation
c) Isolation
d) Projection

153. Aims of rehabilitation does not include -----------

a) prevention of further limitations
b) restoration of function
c) maintenance of dependent potentials
d) early detection and treatment of disability

154. Rehabilitation is a component of care in --------------------

a) extended long term care center
b) home care services
c) community care centers
d) all settings of professional nurse practice

155. --------------- stage of rehabilitation takes care of the client’s immediate lifesaving
needs
a) acute phase

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 b) restorative phase
c) plague phase
d) deteriorative phase

156. Rehabilitation is a complex process involving ------------------

a) the client
b) the client and the nurse
c) the client and a team of professionals
d) the team of physicians

157. The success of the rehabilitative plan depends partially on -----------

a) patients attitude
b) nurses’ intervention
c) content of the plan
d) the overall effort of the team

158. ----------------- prefer fantacising and introspective thinking.

a) Professors
b) Psychologists
c) Aggressive psychopaths
d) Schizoid personality

159. The type of personality disorder in which there is excessive sensitiveness and
humiliation rebuff is called ------------------
a) Paranoid personality disorder
b) Exploitative psychopaths
c) Timid personality
d) Sensitive personality disorder

160. All these are types of psychopaths except:

a) Creative personality
b) Exploitative or intelligent personality
c) Articulate psychopaths
d) Aggressive psychopaths

161. ------------------ believed that an individual who has the ability to withstand or
cope with stresses of life is mentally healthy.
a) Nurses
b) Physicians
c) Lawyers
d) Psychologist

162. Neurotransmitters are the following except ------------------------

a) Acetycholine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Histamin
d) Oxytocin

163. ------------- described self actualization as being psychological healthy, fully

human, highly evolved and fully matured.
a) Benjamin Rush
b) Abraham Maslow
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 c) Marie Jahoda
d) Dorothea Dix
164. -------------- has been defined as a diffuse apprehension that is vague in nature
and is associated with feelings of uncertainty and helplessness.
a) Fear
b) Unhappy
c) Anxiety
d) Illusion

165. Who is the father of psychiatry

a) Benjamin Rush
b) Philippe Rinel
c) Ivan Pavlov
d) Paul Eugen Bleuler
166. ----------------- lost its connotation of pretense and illusion
a) personality disorder
b) personality
c) psychoanalysis
d) Electro enceptographic

167. --------------- is the father of modern medicine.

a) Sigmund Freud
b) Herman Wedel major
c) Benjamin Bush
d) Hippocrates

168. Hippocrates described four (4) temperaments, they include these except one of
the following ----------
a) optimist sanguine
b) Irritable choleric
c) sad melancholic
d) schizoid personality

169. ------------- is an enduring pattern of an enduring pattern of perceiving, relating to

and thinking about the environment and oneself that exhibited in a wide range.
a) Personality
b) Personality Trait
c) Psycho analytic Trait
d) Conscious Trait

170. ------------- An act of coining new words that have meanings only to the person
a) Dejavu
b) Apathy
c) Neologism
d) Nihilistic

171. ------------- is a state in which a psychiatric patient is able to maintain a particular

position in which
a) Waxy flexibility
b) Ambivalence
c) Affects

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 d) Ideas of Res

172. -------------- is a sociable and group loving person.

a) Hysterical personality
b) Introvert
c) Extrovert
d) Timid personality

173. Retrograde Amnesia can be seen in ----------------------

a) Hysteria and organic psychosis
b) Schizophrenia and mania
c) Insomnia and depression
d) Catatonic schizophrenia

174. Copying another person’s works or ideas while pretending to be the originator
of ideas is known as ----------------------------
a) gyriation
b) data
c) phlemism
d) plagiarism
175. Assessible population are always drawn from ---------------------
a) Sample size
b) target population
c) total population
d) homogenous population

176. A process of selecting a subset or a portion of the population to represent the

entire population in research is known as;
a) stratification
b) randomization
c) sampling
d) verification

177. Delimitation of the study is otherwise called:

a) constraint
b) barrier
c) scope
d) design

178. Significance of the study can be regarded as all EXCEPT:

a) benefit of the study
b) purpose of study
c) advantage of the study
d) usefulness of the study

179. A plan which specifies how data relating to a given problem will be collected
and analysed is called research -------------------------
a) setting
b) population
c) instrument
d) design
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180. Situational analysis is the process of identifying the health status of a
community, the skills required to carry out this process include the following
EXCEPT
a) Communication skills
b) listening skills
c) observation skills
d) recording skills

181. Thyroid gland is inverted by -------------------

a) Investing layer of deep cervical fascia
b) Pretracheal layer of deep cervical fascia
c) prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia
d) carotid artery

182. The following nerves, pelvis the thyroid membrane

a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b) Superior laryngeal nerve
c) External laryngeal nerve
d) Internal laryngeal nerve

183. Following muscles form the floor of carotid triangle except ----------------
a) thyrohyoid
b) Stylophyoid
c) Hyoglossus
d) Middle contrictor muscles of the pharynx

184. ------------------ are the muscle that is attached to the genial tubercles of the
mandible and body of hyoid bone except
a) Omhyoid
b) Thyrohoid
c) Sternohyoid
d) genionyoid

185. The process of inspiration which is described as active, because it is the

result of --------------------
a) muscle contraction
b) intercostals muscle relaxation
c) lung recoil
d) expiration

186. -------------- supplies the diaphragm

a) intercostals nerves
b) diaphragmatic nerves
c) phrenic nerves
d) Thoracic nerves

187. Which of the following is correct for the partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli?
a) Less than carbon dioxide
b) more than the blood
c) less than the blood
d) Equal to that of the blood

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188. The gaseous exchange in alveoli is a type of -----------------------
a) passive transport
b) active transport
c) simple diffusion
d) osmosis

189. Most of the carbon dioxide produced in the tissue is transported to the lungs as
a) Bicarbonates
b) Carbonates
c) Oxygen
d) Attached to haemoglobin

190. Which of the following organs only receives oxygenated blood

a) Eye
b) Ear
c) Spleen(LIVER)
d) Gills

191. Which of the following part of the brain regulates respiration

a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Vergus nerve
d) Cerebrum

192. The alveolar epithelium of lungs is --------------------

a) Ciliated squamous
b) nonciliated squamous
c) nonciliated columnar
d) ciliated columnar

193. Which of the following membrane encloses lungs

a) Periosteum membrane
b) Perichondium
c) Pleural membrane
d) Fascia membrane

194. Which structure carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder
a) Urethra
b) Ureter
c) Nephron
d) Bladder

195. When substances move from the tubule into the surrounding afferent arteriole.
This is known as -----------------------------
a) Re-absorption
b) tubular secretion
c) excretion
d) filtration
196. The hormone secreted by the hypothalamus to increase fluid reabsorption is
--------------------
a) antidiuretic hormone
b) angiotensin
c) rennin
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 d) aldosterone
197. Blood vessel which carries blood to the glomerulus is the ------------------
a) Peritubular capillaries
b) Renal vein
c) Renal artery
d) Afferent and efferent arterioles

198. Which of the following structures facilitates easy passage of small molecules
from blood to the glomerular capsule?
a) Glomerulus
b) Distal tubule
c) Peritubular capillaries
d) Loop of Henle

199. More urine is passed when the weather is too cold than in hot weather because
of ------------------
a) Increased production of aldosterone
b) Decreased renal function
c) Decreased sweating
d) Decreased production of antidiuretic hormones

200. -------------------- is the narrowest part of fallopian tube

a) Intramural part
b) Isthmus
c) Ampulla
d) Infundibulum

201. Prostatic urethra emerges from the following surface of prostate

a) Inferolateral
b) Anterior
c) Posterior
d) Base

202. Hypertrophy of the following lobe of prostate causes obstruction of the urethral
orifice in old age.
a) Lateral lobe
b) Posterior lobe
c) Middle lobe
d) Median lobe

203. The brain develops from -------------------

a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Primary mesoderm
d) Secondary mesoderm

204. Medulla of suprarenal gland develops from ---------------------

a) Neural crest cellss
b) Neuroectoderm
c) Surface ectoderm
d) Mesoderm

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205. Left subclavian artery develops from
a) Left fourth aortic
b) Left dorsal aorta
c) Left horn of aortic sac
d) Left seventh cervical intesegmental artery

206. ------------------ is the largest and most superiorly located division of the brain
a) Medulla oblongata
b) Midbrain
c) Cerebellum
d) Cerebrum

207. A deep groove that divides the cerebrum into two halves is called -----------
a) Longitudinal fissure
b) Saggital fissure
c) Corpus callosum
d) Parieto-occipital fissure

208. ---------------------is adherent to the lungs and the parietal pleura to the inner wall
of the thorax and to the diaphragm
a) Lungs
b) Intercostals muscle
c) Visceral pleura
d) Nerves

209. The ear has -------------- parts

a) 4 parts
b) 3 parts
c) 2 parts
d) 6 parts

210. The internal ear is also called the -------------------------

a) Incus
b) labyrinth
c) Vestibule
d) Ossicles

211. Organs involved in the sensation of the body is known as -------------------

a) Sensation fibre
b) Muscular system
c) Nervous T
d) Sensory organ

212. Which of the following is known as the window of the brain?

a) Sensory organ
b) Cranial nerves
c) Eyes
d) Ganglia

213. Organ of corti helps in -------------------

a) Maintaining equilibrium
b) Hearing
c) Balancing

26
 d) Formation of wax
214. Sense of smell is perceived by -------------------------
a) Pituitary
b) Hypothalamus
c) Olfactory lobe
d) Cerebrum

215. The two holes on the nose are called ------------------

a) Cartilage
b) Blow holes
c) Nostrils
d) Septum

216. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called
----
a) A leader
b) A manager
c) An Enterpreneur
d) A professional
217. Trade makes relates to ------------
a) Practice and knowledge acquired through experience
b) The protection of proprietary information of commercial value
c) The right to reproduce ones own original work
d) Brand identity
218. Which could provide an individual with the motivation to start a new business
venture?
a) The financial rewards
b) A desire to be independent
c) Risk taking
d) All of these
219. Which of the following factors would not be included in a PESTLE analysis?
a) Government re-cycling policy
b) Proposed reduction in interest rates
c) Competitor activity
d) Demographic changes

220. Other people at the site of emergency can be asked to ----------------

a) Carry patient
b) Do mouth to mouth breathing
c) Make the environment (area) safe
d) Bandage the fractured bones

221. All are the duties of a first aider’s assistants except --------------------
a) Get first aid equipment
b) Control traffic and onlookers
c) Expose the wounds areas
d) Mountain victims privacy

222. The first step to making during emergency call is to ----------------------

a) Call Doctor incharge of accident
b) Where the accident happened
c) Stating the name of the caller (first aider)
d) Stating the conditions of patients
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223. Disaster is defined as --------------------------
a) Occurrence that causes damage
b) Flood and erosion
c) Natural happenings in any environment
d) Lost of human life

224. A good first aider should possess a good ------------------

a) Theoretical knowledge of first aid
b) Theoretical assistance as first aider
c) Apply first aid theory work
d) Manipulate gadgets

225. A first aider should be able to -----------------

a) Assistance ability
b) Organising ability
c) Theoretical ability
d) Planning ability

226. Which of the following is the reason for business failure?

a) Lack of market research
b) Poor financial control
c) Poor management
d) All of these
227. Entrepreneurs are motivated by
a) Money
b) Personal value
c) Pull influences
d) All of these

228. Life expectancy does not vary with -----------------

a) Birth rate
b) Occupation
c) Social class
d) Gender

229. Goods or services reach the market place through -----------

a) Marketing channels
b) Multi-level pyramids
c) Monopolies
d) Multiplication

230. Doctor earn more than Teachers because ----------------

a) There is an excess supply of doctors
b) There is an excess demand for doctors
c) There is a national minimum wage
d) There is an excess demand for nurses

231. The following are clues that may indicate medical emergency -----------
a) Chest pain
b) Vomiting blood
c) Feeling of committing suicide
d) Insomnia(HOW????)

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232. A 23-year-old woman presents with a history of lower abdominal pain abnormal
vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, nausea and vomiting for5 days. The most
likely diagnosis ------------
a) Acute appendicitis
b) Ruptured ovarian cyst
c) Pelvic inflammatory disease
d) Acute pyelonephritis

233. A manger asks, why you have a nurse see the patient in triage before the
doctor sees the patient. He thinks this is a waste of resources. You explain the
purpose of triage systems is to ---------
a) Examine the patients thoroughly
b) Expedite the provision of health care
c) Diagnose all life-threatening injuries
d) Prioritise according to acuity of the presentation

234. A 2-year-old child was brought to the emergency department undifferentiated

shock. The following are common causes of shock in this age group.
a) Arrhythmias
b) Gastroentritis
c) Intussuception
d) Peritonitis

235. An 87-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her nephew

after she allegedly fell from her bed. You would be highly suspicious of older
abuse if you find -----------------
a) Contusions on the inner thigh
b) Hard burns
c) Traumatic alopecia
d) Leg burns

236. The basic steps for emergency management include the following except one
----
a) Preparedness
b) Response
c) Mitigation
d) Smart

237. Which of the following is a common sign or symptom of a patient experiencing a

diabetic emergency?
a) Slow pulse
b) Elevated blood pressure
c) Restlessness
d) Dreased respiration

238. What is an ointment?

a) Capsule melicia
b) Cream medicine
c) Cough medicine
d) Fever medicine

239. In which situation would you wrap a casualty in a cold, wet sheet?
a) Stroke
b) Fainting

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 c) Heat stroke
d) Heart attack

240. ----------------- is the organization and management of the resources and

responsibilities for dealing with all humanitarian aspect of emergencies
a) System management
b) Emergency management
c) Emergency output
d) Emergency procedure

241. Which position should the head be in during a nose bleeding?

a) Head forward
b) Head level
c) Head backwards
d) Head tilted to side

242. What is the normal body temperature?

a) 36 – 37.2ºC
b) 39 ºC
c) 31.5 ºC
d) 40.5 ºC

243. Burns larger than 1% of the body area need to be checked at hospital. Highlight
the equivalent size of 1%?
a) Head
b) Palm including fingers
c) Fingers
d) Forearm

244. After someone has fainted what position should they be in the aid recovery?
a) Lay flat
b) Lay down with legs raised
c) Sit in chair
d) Stand upright

245. The normal number of breaths per minute for an adult is -----------
a) 20 – 40 t/m
b) 30 – 60 t/m
c) 8 – 10 t/m
d) 12 – 20 t/m

246. ---------------- is the correct sequence for the primary survey the primary survey.
a) Damage, Response, Airway, Breathing
b) Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing
c) Danger, Reply, Artery, Breathing
d) Danger, Response, Advice, Back

247. If a stroke is suspected, you need to do the F.A.S.T. test what do these. Write
in full the acronym
a) Face, Abdominal, Speech, Time
b) Faint, Arms, Speech Time
c) Face, Arms, Speech, Time
d) Face, Arm, Speech, Time

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248. How many compressions and breaths should you do for each cycle of CPR?
a) 15 compressions, 2 breaths
b) 30 compressions, 15 breaths
c) 15 compressions, 5 breaths
d) 30 compressions, 2 breath

249. What is the FIRST action when examining a patient?

a) Check for breathing
b) Check for insurance
c) Check for external injuries
d) Speak to the victim and shake his shoulder

250. ------------- can cause blood circulation stop.

a) Heart attack
b) Bleeding in the veins
c) Haemorroids
d) A head wound

31