English

*6051CMD303122FSMT016*
(6051CMD303122FSMT016) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 25-04-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : APTS-16
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 27 pages.

Q16 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
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10. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 6. The work done to slowly raise a mass m from the
surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal
1. [MLT – 1] + [MLT – 1] = ...................... to the half of the radius of the earth, is :
(1) [M°L°T°] (2) [MLT – 1] (1) mgR (2) 2mgR
(3) 2[MLT – 1] (4) None of these (3) 1 (4) 3
mgR mgR
3 2
2. Which of the following statements regarding the 7. Copper piece of fixed volume V is converted
freely falling body from rest are correct? into a wire of cross-sectional area A. When this
(1) The body is non-uniformly accelerated wire is subjected to a constant force 'F', the
extension produced in the wire is ' Δ ℓ '. Which of
(2) The body is not accelerated. the following graphs is a straight line
(3) The distance travelled by the body in the (1) Δ ℓ versus 1 (2) Δ ℓ versus A2
first second, first two seconds and first A
three seconds are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. (3) Δ ℓ versus 1
(4) Δ ℓ versus A
A2
(4) The distance travelled by the body in the 8. A bubble from bottom of lake rises to its surface. Its
first second, first two seconds and first volume doubles in the process. Assuming isothermal
three seconds are in the ratio of 1 : 4 : 9 conditions, atmospheric pressure = 75 cm of Hg and
3. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary ratio of densities of mercury and water 40/3. The
lift and when it is moving downward with depth of lake will be :-
uniform acceleration 'a' is 3 : 2. The value of 'a' (1) 5m (2) 10m (3) 30m (4) 50m
is (g-acceleration due to gravity on the earth)
9. Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g A man melts 60 g
(1) 3 (2) g
g of ice by chewing in 1 minute. His power is
2 3
(3) 2 (1) 4800 W (2) 336 W
g (4) g
3 (3) 1.33 W (4) 0.75W
4. A particle is projected at 60° to the horizontal with
a kinetic energy k. The percentage loss in kinetic 10. 10,000 small balls, each weighing 1 g, strike one
square cm of area per second with a velocity 100
energy of the particle at the highest point is m/s in a normal direction and rebound with the
(1) 50% (2) 25% same velocity. The value of pressure on the
surface will be:
(3) 75% (4) 60%
(1) 2 x 103 N/m2 (2) 2 x 105 N/m2
5. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that
delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle (3) 107 N/m2 (4) 2 x 107 N/m2
starts from rest, the force on the particle at time t 11. 7
5 moles of hydrogen γ = ( ) initially at STP
is proportional to 5
1 1
are compressed adiabatically so that its
(1) t− 2 (2) t2 temperature becomes 400°C. The increase in the
(3) 3
t− 2 (4) 3
t2
internal energy of the gas (in kilo-joules) is:
(1) 21.55 (2) 41.50 (3) 65.55 (4) 80.55

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12. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken around the 15. Each of the properties of sound listed in column A
cycle ABCD as shown in the P-V diagram. The primarily depends on one of the quantities in column B.
work done during the cycle is given by: Choose the matching pairs from two columns
Column A Column B
Ptich Waveform
Quality Frequency
Loudness Intensity

(1) Pitch - wave form, Quality - frequency;

Loudness - intensity
(2) Pitch - frequency; Quality - wave form;
Loudness - intensity
(1) 1
PV (2) PV (3) 2PV (4) 4PV
(3) Pitch - intensity; Quality - wave form;
2
13. On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass M is Loudness - frequency
attached between two springs. The other ends of (4) Pitch - wave form; Quality - intensity;
the spring are fixed to firm supports. If each Loudness - frequency
spring has force constant k, the period of 16. Two charges of 40 μ C and −20 μ C are placed at
oscillation of the body is: (assuming the springs a certain distance apart. They are touched and
as massless) kept at the same distance. The ratio of the initial
to the final force between them is:
(1) 8:1 (2) 4:1 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:1
17. There exists a non-uniform electric field along x-
axis as shown in the figure below. The field
increases uniformly along +ve x - axis. A dipole
is placed inside the field as shown. Which one of
(1) 2 π (M/2k)1/2 (2) 2 π (2M/k)1/2 the following is correct for the dipole?
(3) 2 π (Mg sin θ /2k) (4) 2 π (2Mg /k)1/2
14. The stationary wave produced on a string is
represented by the equation
πx
y = 5 cos( ) sin(40 π t) where x and y are in
3
cm and t is in seconds. The distance between (1) Dipole moves along positive x -axis and
consecutive nodes is: undergoes a clockwise rotation
(1) 5 cm (2) π cm (2) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and
undergoes a clockwise rotation
(3) 3 cm (4) 40 cm
(3) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and
undergoes a anticlockwise rotation
(4) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and
undergoes a anticlockwise rotation
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18. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 Ω 24. An air bubble in a glass slab (μ = 1.5) when viewed
one can use n rows of m cells connected in from one side appears at 9 cm and appears at 5 cm
parallel. If the total no. of cells is 24 and the from other side. The thickness of the slab is
internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 then:
(1) 21 cm (2) 9.33 cm
(1) m = 12, n = 2 (2) m = 8, n = 4
(3) 14 cm (4) 18.5 cm
(3) m = 2, n = 12 (4) m = 6, n = 4
25. In the given figure, charge on the conducting spherical
19. A 100-W bulb and a 25-W bulb are designed for shell of radius 10 cm is (k is coulomb's constant)
the same voltage. They have filaments of the same
length and material. The ratio of the diameter of
the 100-W bulb to that of the 25-W bulb is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) √ 2:1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) k (4) 100k
Two parallel wires carry currents of 20 A and 40 A in k k
20.
opposite directions. Another wire carrying a current 26. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential
antiparallel to 20 A is placed midway between the difference of V volts. After disconnecting the
two wires. The magnetic force on it will be charging battery, the distance between the plates of
(1) towards 20 A the capacitors is decreased using insulating handle.
(2) towards 40 A The electric field between the plates
(3) zero (1) Decreases
(4) perpendicular to the plane of the currents (2) Increases
21. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic (3) Remains same
moment M and pole strength m units is broken
into two at the middle. The magnetic moment (4) First increases then decreases
and pole strength of each piece will be 27. Light with a wavelength of 500 nm is incident on a
(1) M/2, m/2 (2) M, m/2 metal with a work function of 2.28 eV. The de-
(3) M/2, m (4) M,m. Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron will be.
22. In series LCR AC circuit, the capacitance is changed (1) <2.8 × 10 – 10 m (2) <2.8 × 10 – 9 m
from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the (3) ⩾2.8 ×10 – 9m (4) <2.8×10 – 12m
inductance should be changed from L to 28. The wavelength of matter wave is independent of
(1) L/4 (2) L/2
(1) Mass (2) Velocity
(3) 2L (4) 4L
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Charge
23. Which of the following is an ascending order of
29. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave
frequency rectifier with a sinusoidal signal without filter is
(1) Red, blue, yellow, green 50V. The D.C component of the output voltage is
(2) Blue, green, yellow, red (1) 50 (2) 100
V V
(3) Red, Yellow, green, blue π π
(3) 50√2V (4) 10V
(4) Red, green, yellow, blue
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30. In photoelectric effect, the curve between 34. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave
photoelectric current and anode potential V (for of intensity I W/m2 on a non-reflecting surface is :-
different frequencies) is shown in figure, then (1) Ic (2) Ic2 (3) I/c (4) I/c2
35. Which set of colours will come out in air for a
situation shown in figure?

(1) v1 > v2 > v3 (2) v1 < v2 < v3

(1) Yellow, Orange and Red
(3) v1 = v2 = v3 (4) v1 > v2 < v3
(2) All
31. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes
D1, D2 and D3 are ideal then i is :- (3) Orange, Red and Violet
(4) Blue, Green and Yellow
SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )

36. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its

velocity at half of the height is 10 ms – 1, then the
maximum height attained by it is (g = 10 ms – 2)
(1) 5m (2) 10m (3) 15m (4) 20m
(1) E/R (2) E/2R (3) 2E/3R (4) Zero
37. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity u
32. A α – particle of 1 MeV energy is moves on making an angle of θ with the horizontal.
circular path in uniform magnetic field. Then Calculate the magnitude of the angular momentum
kinetic energy of proton in same magnetic field of the projectile about the point of projection when
for circular path of double radius is :- the particle is at its maximum height.
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV (1) mu3 sin2 θ cos θ (2) mu3 sin2 θ cos2 θ
2g 2g
(3) 2 MeV (4) None
(3) mu3 sin θ cos θ
33. (4) None of these
In an AC series circuit given that, R = 10Ω, XL = 20Ω 2g
and XC = 10Ω. Then choose the correct options :- 38. Two wheels A and B are placed co-axially.
(1) Voltage function will lead the current Wheel A has moment of inertia I and angular
function velocity ω while B is stationary with moment of
inertia 4I. Then calculate angular velocity when
(2) Total impedance of the circuit is 10 √ 2Ω
they rotate jointly.
(3) Phase angle between voltage function and
(1) ω (2) ω
current function is 45° 4 2
(4) All of these (3) ω (4) 2ω
5 3

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39. An object flying in air with velocity 43. Current in 4 Ω resistance shown in figure is :-
^ ^ ^
(20i + 25j − 12k suddenly breaks in two pieces
)

whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller

mass flies off with a velocity 100i^ + 25j^ + 8k^ .
( )

The velocity of the larger pieces will be:

^ (a) Just after the closing of the key
(1) 4i^ + 25j^ − 16k
(b) Some time after the closing of the key
(2) ^ ^ ^
−100i − 35j − 8k 5 5
(1) 5A, A (2) A, Zero
^ 3 3
(3) 20i^ + 15j^ − 80k
(3) 5 (4) Zero, 5A
(4) ^ ^ ^ A, 5A
−20i − 15j − 80k 3
40. If orbital velocity of satellite is given by υ = GaMbRc, 44. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the
then (G = universal gravitation constant, M = mass of hydrogen atom, then the energy required to
the the planet and R = Radius of the planet) remove an electron from n = 2 is –
(1) a = 1 , b = 1 , c = − 1 (1) 10.2 eV (2) 0 eV
3 3 3 (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
1
(2) a = ,b= 1,c=−1 45. The mass of a 73 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than
2 2 2
1 the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The
(3) a = ,b=−1,c= 1
2 2 2 binding energy per nucleon of 73 Li nucleus is
1
(4) a = ,b=−1,c=−1 nearly :-
2 2 2
(1) 23 MeV (2) 46 MeV
41. A coil of resistance R and inductance L is
connected to a battery of E volt. The final (3) 5.6 MeV (4) 3.9 MeV
current in the coil after long time is 46. Position of an object is given by x = 2 + 12t2 – t3 m.
(1) E (2) E Find position of an object when speed becomes
R L maximum:
(3) E (4) EL
√ √ (1) 258 m (2) 130 m
R2 + L 2 R2 + L 2
42. In a double slit experiment, instead of taking slits (3) 160 m (4) 200 m
of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide as 47. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
the other. Then, in the interference pattern → = V ^i (V > 0) enters an electric field
V 0 0
(1) the intensities of both the maxima and the → = −E i (E = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ is its
E
^
0 0 0
minima increases de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
(2) the intensity of the maxima increases and Broglie wavelength at time t is :-
the minima has zero intensity.
(1) λ0 (2) λ eE0
(3) the intensity of the maxima decreases and eE0 0 ( 1+ t)
( 1+ mV0
t) mV0
that of the minima increases
(4) the intensity of the maxima decreases and (3) λ 0 t (4) λ 0
the minima also decreases
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 English 7
48. If intensity of each of the two waves is I and they 50. Two particles X and Y having equal charges,
are having phase difference of 1200, when the after being accelerated through the same
waves are superposed, then the resultant potential difference, enter a region of uniform
intensity will be : magnetic field and describes circular path of
(1) I (2) 2I radius R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of mass
of X to that of Y is
(3) I/2 (4) 4I 1/2
(1) R1 (2) R2
49. The de-Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron (
R2
)
R1
at 927°C is λ . It's wavelength at 327°C will be:- 2
(3) R1 (4) R1
( )
(1) λ /2 (2) λ / √ 2 R2 R2

(3) λ √ 2 (4) 2 λ

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( CHEMISTRY ) 55. Which of the following has least tendency to

undergo catenation
51. Which of the following statements regarding α − (1) C (2) Si
amino acids are correct.
I. Proteins on hydrolysis gives only α − amino (3) Ge (4) Sn
acids. 56. The interhalogen compound which does not exist is
II. Gln stands for Glutamic acid.
(1) IF5 (2) ClF3
III. Amino acids with equal number of amino
and carboxyl groups are neutral amino acids. (3) BrCl (4) ICl4
IV. All naturally occuring α − amino acids are 57. The yellow colour of chromates changes to
optically active. orange on acidification due to formation of
(1) I and III (2) I, II and IV (1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O3
(3) III and IV (4) II, III and IV (3) Cr2 O2−
7 (4) CrO−4
52. Which of the following is a hypothetical 58. The number of electrons exchanged when one
molecular formula mole KMnO4 reacts with H2O2 in acidic medium
(1) CsBr3 (2) CsI3 is equal to that of
(3) CsCI (4) CsF3 (1) S electrons in Ca (At. No = 20)
53. Which one of the following has Hydrogen (2) P electrons in Ne (At, No = 10)
bonding? (3) d electrons in Cr (At. No = 24)
(1) HI (2) HBr (3) HF (4) HCl (4) f electrons in La (At No = 57)
54. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as 59. Find state of hybridisation of C2, C3, C5 and C6
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). in the given hydrocarbon in the sequence
Assertion (A) : La(OH)3 is the most basic while
Lu(OH)3 is the least basic.
Reason (R) : As the size of lanthanoids decreases
covalent character hydroxides decreases and basic
character increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (1) Sp3, Sp2, Sp2 and SP
appropriate answer from the options given below. (2) Sp, Sp2, Sp2 and Sp3
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct (3) Sp, Sp2, Sp3 and Sp2
explanation of A.
(4) Sp, Sp3, Sp2 and Sp3
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
60. An element A belongs to IIA group and another
correct explanation of A.
element B belongs to VIA group. The compound
(3) A is not correct but R is correct. formed between A and B contains
(4) A is correct but R is not correct. (1) A+2, B – ions (2) A+2, B-2 ions
(3) A – 2, B+2 ions (4) A+, B – 2 ions
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61. Which bond angle, θ would result in the maximum 68. An organic compound give (+)ve haloform test
dipole moment for the triatomic molecule XY2 but does not react with tollen’s reagent.
shown below: (1) Acetone (2) 2 - butanol
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) 1 - Butanol
69. What reagent is needed to accomplish the
following synthesis ?

(1) θ = 90∘ (2) θ = 120∘

(3) θ = 150∘ (4) θ = 180∘

(1) ⊕
H3 O (2) −

KMnO4 , O H
62. The molecule having highest bond energy is
(1) N – N (2) F – F (3) O3, Zn/H2O (4) Ph – CO3H
(3) C – C (4) O – O 70. Toluene is aromatization product of -
63. The orbital overlapping is maximum in (1) n-hexane (2) n-heptane
(1) HI (2) Cl2 (3) HCl (4) HBr (3) n-octane (4) Iso- octane
64. When borax is heated with CoO on a platinum 71. Which gives haloform test with Cl2/NaOH
loop, blue colour bead formed is largely due to (1) CH3OH
(1) B2O2 (2) Co(BO2)2 (2) CH3CH2OH
(3) CoB4O7 (4) Co[C4O5(OH)4] (3) CH3CH2CH2OH
65. The compound which is not isomeric with (4)
diethyl ether is
(1) Butanone
(2) Methyl propyl ether
72. Which is not a π -bonded complex ?
(3) 2-methyl propane-2-ol
(1) Zeise's salt
(4) 1-butanol
(2) Ferrocene
66. Which is false about acetic acid
(3) Dibenzene chromium
(1) it is a polar molecule
(2) it forms H bonds (4) Tetraethyl lead

(3) it is stronger than mineral acids 73. The complex salt having the molecular
composition —[Co(NO2)(SCN)(en)2]Br exhibits
(4) it has higher boiling point than corresponding
alcohols. (1) linkage isomerism only

67. Which of the following compounds does not (2) ionization isomerism only
have a carboxyl group? (3) cis-trans isomerism only
(1) Methanoic acid (2) Ethanoic acid (4) All of these
(3) Picric acid (4) Benzoic acid
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74. How much time is required for complete 78. If 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 40 ml of
decomposition of 4 mole of water using a current 0.5M HCOOH, the pH of the resulting solution
of 4 ampere? is [Ka(HCOOH) = 1.8 × 10 – 4]:-
(1) 96500 sec (2) 1.93 × 104 sec (1) 3.75 (2) 5.6 (3) 7.5 (4) 3.4
(3) 1.93 × 105 sec (4) 3.85 × 104 sec 79. At some elevated temperature value of Kw is 10-10 if
any solution has [H+] = 10-7 at this temperature,
75. A. When acidified zinc sulphate solution is solution is
electrolysed between zinc electrodes, it is zinc (1) Acidic (2) Basic
that is deposited at the cathode and hydrogen
evolution does not take place. (3) Neutral (4) Can't be predicted
R. The electrode potential of zinc is more 80. 1 mole of non-ideal gas undergoes change of
negative than hydrogen as the overvoltage for state from (1atm, 3L, 80 K) to (5atm, 4L, 245K).
the hydrogen evolution on zinc is quite large. Change in internal energy is 20L atm. Calculate
the value of Δ H in terms of L atm
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A (1) 37 (2) 23
(2) If both A and R are true but R is not the (3) 44 (4) 17
correct explanation of A
81. The sublimation energy of I2(s) is 57.3 kJ/mol
(3) If A is true but R is false and the enthalpy of fusion is 15.5 kJ/mol. The
(4) If both A and R are false enthalpy of vaporisation of I2 is
76. Among the following given compounds (1) 41.8 kJ/mol (2) – 41.8 kJ/mol
(3) 72.8 kJ/mol (4) – 72.8 kJ/mol
82. In contact process SO3 is formed by following
process :-
The decreasing order of their acidity is : 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
If the rate of reaction is 1.6 × 10 – 3 mol L – 1 S – 1
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > IV > III > I
the what will be the rate of appearance of SO3?
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > III > IV > I
(1) 8 × 10 – 4 mol L – 1S – 1
77. Most powerful base among the following
(2) 3.2 × 10 – 3 mol L – 1S – 1
molecules is
(3) 1.6 × 10 – 3 mol L – 1S – 1
(1)
(4) 6.4 × 10 – 3 mol L – 1S – 1
(2) 83. The rate of reaction increases by the increase of
temperature because -
(1) No. of molecules is increased
(3)
(2) Energy of products decreases
(4) (3) Fraction of activated molecules increases
(4) Mechanism of reaction is changed
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84. Assertion (A) : Thin layer chromatography is an 88. A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea
adsorption chromatography. (molecular mass = 60 g mol-1) is isotonic with a
Reason (R) : A thin layer of silica gel is spread 5% solution of a non-volatile solute. The
molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is
over glass plate of suitable size acts as an
adsorbent in T.L.C. (1) 250 g mol-1 (2) 300 g mol-1
(1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct (3) 350 g mol-1 (4) 200 g mol-1
explanation of A. 89. Number of chiral carbons in β − D − (+) Glucose is
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the (1) Five (2) Six
correct explanation of A.
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) A is correct but R is not the correct.
90. Which pair of species has same percentage of
(4) A is not correct but R is correct. carbon?
85. An electron jumps from lower orbit to higher (1) CH3COOH and C6H12O6
orbit, when (2) CH3COOH and C2H5OH
(1) Energy is released (3) HCOOCH3 and C12H12O11
(2) Energy is absorbed (4) C6H12O6 and C12H22O11
91. Consider the following statements regarding the
(3) No change in energy first ionisaion enthalpy of Boron is less than
(4) It radiates energy Berrylium.
I. It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron.
SECTION - B ( CHEMISTRY ) II. 2p electron of Boron is more shielded from the
nucleus by the inner core of electrons than the 2s
86. Which of the following is not a characteristics of electrons of Be.
Planck's quantum theory of radiation? III. 2s electron has more penetration power than 2p
(1) Energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole electron.
number multiples of quantum IV. Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
The correct statements are
(2) Radiation is associated with energy
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(3) Radiation is associated with energy emitted
(3) I, II and IV (4) II, III and II
or absorbed continously but in the form of
small packets called quanta 92. Most reactive species towards electrophilic
substitution reaction is
(4) The magnitude of energy associated with
quantum is proportional to frequency (1) (2)
87. If α is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4. The
Van't Hoff factor used for the calculation of
molecular mass is
(1) 1 + 2α (2) 1 − 2α (4)
(3)
(3) 1+ α (4) 1− α

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93. IE1,IE2,IE3,IE4 and IE5 for an element are 6.9, 97. In 3rd group cationic analysis, NH4Cl is added
13.9, 33.5, 46.2 and 172 eV respectively. The before adding NH4OH. This is due to
element is most likely to be (1) decreases the concentration of OH-
(1) Al (2) Ca (3) Si (4) Mg (2) increase the concentration of OH-
94. A mixture of inorganic substances on treatment (3) increase concentration of Cl-
with H2SO4 (dilute) gives out a gas which turns
K2Cr2O7 paper green and lead acetate paper (4) prevent interference of P O3−
4
ion
black. The mixture contains 98. Which of the following co-ordination
(1) Nitrite (2) Nitrate compounds has bridging carbonyl ligand?
(3) Sulphite (4) Sulphide (1) [Co2(CO)8] (2) [Mn2(CO)10]
95. For the reaction P + Q ⇌ R + 2S, initially the (3) [Cr(CO)6] (4) [Fe(CO)5]
concentration of P is equal to that of Q (1 molar) 99. In carius method of estimation of halogen, 1.25g
but at equilibrium, the concentration of R will be of an organic compound gave 0.94g of AgBr. The
twice of that of P, then the equilibrium constant percentage of Bromine in the organic compound is
of the reaction is
(1) 16.5% (2) 45.6%
(1) 4/3 (2) 32/3 (3) 3/10 (4) 1/10
(3) 32% (4) 64%
96. Which one is incorrect?
100. The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of
(1) Nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of
Nitrogen in which one of the following compounds.
(1)
are functional group isomer
(2)
(2)
are metameters
(3)

are tautomers
(3)

(4)
(4)

are positional isomers

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 106. Type of root (prop root) in banyan tree is :

(1) Fasciculated Root (2) Secondary root
101. All of the given are specific epithets of genus
Solanum, except (3) Adventitious root (4) Tap root
(1) tuberosum (2) aestivum 107. Select the correct match-
Placentation Example
(3) nigrum (4) melongena
(i) Axile (a) Argemone
102. Lichens are symbiotic association between algae
and fungi which one is not a function of fungi in (ii) Parietal (b) China rose
lichens? (iii) Basal (c) Primrose
(1) Preparation of food for algae (iv) Free central (d) Marigold
(2) Provide shelter to algae
(1) i=(b); ii=(c); iii=(d); iv=(a)
(3) Absorb mineral nutrients
(2) i=(b); ii=(a); iii=(c); iv=(d)
(4) Provide water to algae
(3) i=(d); ii=(a); iii=(b); iv=(c)
103. Deuteromycetes are known as imperfect fungi
because- (4) i=(b); ii=(a); iii=(d); iv=(c)
(1) They reproduce sexually without involvement 108. How many of the below can be stored in phloem
of gametes parenchyma.
(2) They lack vegetative phase in their life cycle Resin, Food, Mucilage, Latex
(3) Sexual spores are endogenously produced (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Sexual phase of these fungi is not known (3) 5 (4) 4
104. Consider the following characteristics :- 109. Scattered vascular bundles can be seen in which
(a) Occurance of true roots, stem and leaves plant stem :
(b) Heterosporous nature
(1) Cucurbita stem (2) Gram stem
(c) Independent free living gametophytes
(d) Presence of archegonia (3) Sunflower stem (4) Maize stem
(e) Presence of vascular tissue 110. "Body of animals and plants are composed of
(f) Formation of seeds cells and products of cells" this hypothesis was
How many of the above are similar between proposed by :-
pteridophytes and gymnosperms ?
(1) Rudolf virchow (2) Schwann
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Five (4) One
(3) Schleiden (4) Flemming
105. A single prothallus of homosporous fern plant
doesn't show
(1) The ability to produce gametes
(2) The free living nature
(3) The ability to produce spores
(4) The ability to bear both kinds of sex organs
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111. a : Zygotene and diplotene are stage of prophase-I of 116. Which of following property, doesn't belong to
meiosis. sporopollenin?
b : Zygotene and diplotene are stage of prophase-II (1) Shows resistance to high temperature
of meiosis. (2) No enzyme found so far which can degrade it
c : Zygotene and diplotene stages are also present in (3) It is present continuously around entire pollen
mitosis. grain
d : After 1st meiosis, both nuclei has 1C amount of (4) Can withstand strong acids & alkali
DNA. 117. Junction between ovule & funicle represent
In given statements which of the following is/are
correct (1) Scar in seed (2) Hilum in ovule
(1) a and c (2) b and d (3) Placenta (4) Both 1 & 2

(3) c and d (4) Only a is correct 118. Autosomal recessive disease where 'Hb' polypeptide
is affected qualitatively. The disease is
112. In majority of plants, the light saturation occurs at
(2) Sickle-cell
_______ of the total sunlight available to plants (1) Thalassemia
anaemia
(1) 70% (2) 10%
(3) Leukemia (4) Haemophilia
(3) 50% (4) 25%
119. Colour-blindness appears more in males than in
113. Enzyme which are not required for the alcohol females because
fermentation (1) Males are hemizygous (or) presence of
(1) Pyruvate decarboxylase single 'x' chromosome
(2) Alcohol dehydrogenase (2) Males have higher level of testosterone
(3) Colour-blindness is Y-linked disease
(3) Lactate dehydrogenase
(4) Females develop immunity to disease
(4) 1 and 2
120. Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive
114. Seed dormancy is regulated by : pea plant with a dominant pure violet-flowered
(1) PGR which acts as a general plant growth plant. The first generation of hybrids would show
inhibitor. (1) 50 per cent white-flowered and 50 per cent
violet-flowered plants
(2) GA3 which inhibits formation of (2) All violet-flowered plants
α -amylase in seeds.
(3) 75 per cent violet-flowered and 25 per cent
(3) Cytokinin which promotes cell division. white-flowered plants
(4) Auxin which promotes differentiation. (4) All white-flowered plants
115. As the anther develops, each cell of sporogenous 121. Complete genome of which crop & non-crop
tissue undergo how many meiotic division(s) to plants has been sequenced respectively ?
produce pollen tetrad (1) Rice & Arabidopsis
(1) 2 (2) 3 (2) Arabidopsis & Caenorhabditis
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) Arabidopsis & Rice
(4) Arabidopsis & Drosophila
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122. 32P was used to radiolabel which component of
bacteriophage in Hershey and Chase experiment :-
(1) Viral protein
(2) Viral DNA
(3) Viral RNA
(4) Both DNA and protein
123. Which of the following changes (A – D) usually
tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they
move to higher altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(A) Increase in red blood cell size
(B) Increase in red blood cell production
(C) Increased breathing rate
(D) Increased affinity of 'Hb' with O2
Choose the correct answer.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and D
124. Select the statement which is incorrect w.r.t.
species-area relationship
(1) For small areas, the value of slope of
regression lies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2
(2) On logarithmic scale, the relationship
becomes rectangular hyperbola
(3) For a very large area the regression
coefficient ranges between 0.6 to 1.2
(4) Alexander von Humboldt found that within a
region species richness increases with
increasing explored area but only upto a limit
125. Similarity in DNA and RNA is that
(1) Both are polymers of nucleotides
(2) Both have similar pyrimidines
(3) Both have similar sugar
(4) Both are genetic material in man
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126. Assertion : In racemose inflorescence the main
axis continue to grow.
Reason : In cymose inflorescence flowers are
borne in basipetal succession.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
127. Moll's Half leaf experiment proves that :
(1) Light is essential for photosynthesis
(2) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O2 releases during photosynthesis
(4) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
128. Assertion: Biotic community has higher position
than the population in ecological hierarchy
Reason: Population of similar individuals remain
isolated in the community
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
129. Match column I with column II and select the
correct option:
Column I Column II
a Deuteromycetes i Conjugation fungi
b Ascomycetes ii Imperfect fungi
c Basidiomycetes iii Sac fungi
d Phycomycetes iv Club fungi
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
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130. In the given diagram, identify the labelled
structures [A] and [B] :-
(1) [A] Epidermis, [B] Microspore tetrad
(2) [A] Epidermis, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(3) [A] Nucellus, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(4) [A] Nucellus, [B] Microspore tetrad
131. Which of the following statements regarding
gymnosperms are correct?
I. Ovules are naked as not enclosed by any ovary
wall before fertilisation but seeds that develop
after fertilisation are covered.
II. In all living Gymnosperms, sporophyte is
dominant over the gametophyte.
III. They are heterosporous.
IV. The male and female gametophytes do not
have an independent existence.
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
132. Read the statements carefully :
I. The ___(A)___ is the main arena of cellular
activities in both plant and animal cells.
II. ___(B)___ not only gives shape to the cell but also
protects the cell from mechanical damage &
infection.
III. ___(C)___ is the important site for the formation
of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Choose the correct option which correctly fills A, B
& C to complete the statements?
A B C
(1) SER Cytoplasm Cell wall
(2) Cytoplasm Cell wall SER
(3) Cytoplasm Cell wall Golgi apparatus
(4) Mitochondria Cytoplasm SER
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133. Assertion :- Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
is known as dark reaction.
Reason :- It takes place in absence of light always.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True &the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
134. Assertion (A) :- Synaptonemal complex develops
between two synapsed homologous chromosomes.
Reason (R) :- Synapsis occurs in diplotene stage of
prophase-I.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
135. Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select
the option which includes all the correct ones only :-
(a) In members of malvaceae family, flowers are
zygomorphic.
(b) In members of malvaceae family, infinite stamens
are present.
(c) In members of solanacae family, flowers are
actinomorphic
(d) In members of malvaceae family, axile placentation
is present.
(1) Only statement a and b
(2) Only statement b and c
(3) Only statement c and d
(4) Statement b, c and d
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SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) 139. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to
given diagram :
136.

In the given diagram the type of chromosome is :

(1) Acentric (2) Metacentric
(3) Submetacentric (4) Telocentric
137. Which of the following is correct statement for
below given equation ?
(a) This experiment gave unequivocal proof that
DNA is genetic material and was performed by
Acetyl Co.A + CO2 + NADH2 Meselson and Stahl.
(b) A represents attachment of radioactive phages
(1) During this process 2 molecule of NADH2
are produced from the metabolism of two to bacteria.
molecules of pyruvic Acid (c) B represents removal of viral coats by agitating
(2) It is a connecting link between glycolysis them in blender
and Kreb's cycle. (d) C is the separation of viral particle from
bacteria by centrifugation.
(3) With the help of ETS this equation gives 3
ATP. (1) Three (2) Four
(4) All of the above are correct (3) Two (4) One
138. State true (T) or false (F) for the given
statements and select the correct option.
(a) 7-celled & 8-nucleated female gametophyte
in angiosperms is formed only by monosporic
development.
(b) Multiplication by fragmentation is observed
in filamentous fungi, filamentous algae and
protonema of mosses.
(c) Water is required for transfer of pollen in
Vallisneria plant.
(a) (b) (c)
(1) F T F
(2) F T T
(3) T F T
(4) F F F

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140. Population growth curve is given below, a 144. How many statements are correct in following ?
and b respectively. Find the correct option (a) Net gain of 2ATP directly in glycolysis
having correct labelling (b) Final hydrogen acceptor in mitochondrialETS is
oxygen
(c) Glycolysis is occurs in cytoplasm
(d) TCA cycle of prokaryotes occurs inMitochondria
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
145. Choose the statements which are correct from at
(1) dt a to d?
a− = rN
dN
dt (a) 6 turn of calvin cycle is required forsynthesis
b− = rN
dN of one glucose
(b) Chl-b is chief pigment
(2) a−
dN
= rN (
K−N
)
(c) 12 water molecules are form in ETS of Z-
dt K scheme
dN
b− = rN (d) α -Ketoglutaric acid is only five carbon
dt
intermediate in TCA-cycle
(3) dt K−N
a− = rN ( )
dN K (1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d
dN
b− = rN (3) b, c (4) a, d
dt
(4) dN 146. Read the following statements and find out
a− = rN
dt theincorrect statement:
dN K−N
b− = rN ( )
dt K (1) Leaves are converted into spines for defence as
141. New York at … a … … latitude has … in Cactus or into tendrils for climbing as in peas.
b … .species of birds, whereas Greenland at … (2) In Australian acacia the leaves are small
and short lived. The lamina in these plant
c … … .latitude has … … d … ..species of birds expand become green and synthesise food.
(1) a - 23.5o N, b - 1200, c – 41o N, d – 105 (3) The fleshy leaves of onion & garlic store
(2) a - 71o N, b - 105, c – 41o N, d – 56 food.
(3) a – 41o N, b - 105, c – 71o S, d – 65 (4) Leaves of certain insectivorous plants suchas
(4) a - 41o N, b - 105, c – 71o N, d – 56 pitcher plant and venus fly trap are modified
leaves.
142. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it
becomes 147. "There may be variation in the length of
filaments within a flower"
(1) Triploid (2) Tetraploid Select the correct option in respect of given
(3) Diploid (4) Monoploid statement.
143. Botanical name of groundnut is: (1) Salvia and mustard (2) Radish and Turnip
(1) Lens esculantus (2) Dolichos lublub (3) China rose and Pea (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Arachis hypogea (4) Cicer arietinum
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148. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding Bryophytes?
(1) Fertilisation take place in the presence of
water
(2) Sporophyte is depend on gametophyte
(3) Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce
sporophytes
(4) Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed
149. Assertion :- Lysosomes are capable of digesting
carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Reason :- Isolated lysosomal vesicles have been
found to be very rich in almost all types of
hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases-lipases,
proteases, carbohydrases, nucleases etc.)
19
150. What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus,
Chlorella and Spriulina?
(1) They all are placed under same Kingdom
according to Five Kingdom classification.
(2) They all have nuclear membrane.
(3) They all may be used as food or food
supplement.
(4) They all are autotrophic.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the

Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 157. Find the incorrect statement about human heart
(1) Left side of heart deals with oxygenated
151. Which of the following pairs are correctly
blood
matched?
Animals Characteristic features (2) Heart is situated in thoracic cavity
I Crocodile 4-chambered heart (3) Left atrium communicates to left ventricle
II Sea urchin Parapodia via tricuspid valve
III Obelia Metageneis (4) Ventricles are more muscular than atria
IV Human Thecodont 158. What would be the immediate effect if chordae
tendinae, attached to bicuspid valve is cut
(1) II, III and IV (2) Only I and IV
(1) Blood would flow back from right atria to
(3) Only I and II (4) I, III and IV
right ventricle
152. Peripatus is a connecting link between: (2) Blood would flow back from right ventricle
(1) Coelenterata and Porifera to right atrium
(2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis (3) Blood would flow back from left ventricle
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata to left atrium

(4) Annelida and Arthropoda
153. Calotes is a
(1) Wall lizard (2) Flying lizard
(3) Tree lizard (4) Garden lizard
154. Which of the following is not a similarity
between starch and cellulose?
(1) They are homo polysaccharides
(2) They are found mainly in plants
(3) They form helical structure and hold iodine
(4) They have glycosidic bonds
155. The maximum volume of air a person can
exhale after maximum inhalation is measured with
(1) Thermometer (2) Spirometer
(3) Sphygmomanometer(4) Stethoscope
156. The respiratory centre in brain is stimulated by
(1) CO2 concentration in venous blood
(2) CO2 concentration in arterial blood
(3) O2 concentration in venous blood
(4) O2 concentration in arterial blood
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(4) Right side of the heart will start dealing
with oxygenated blood
159. Which of the following event activate Renin-
Angiotensin Mechanism
(1) Accumulation of angiotensinogen in blood
(2) Release of Aldosterone from adrenal cortex
(3) Decrease in blood volume & fall of GFR
(4) Release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor.
160. During micturition
(1) Urinary bladder contract and urethral
sphincter relax
(2) Urinary bladder relax and Urethral
sphincter contract
(3) Both urinary bladder and urethral sphincter
relax.
(4) Both urinary bladder & urethral sphincter
contract.
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161. Myasthenia gravis is
(1) Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular
junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle
(2) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
mostly due to genetic disorder
(3) Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle
due to low Ca2+ in body fluid
(4) Inflammation of joints
162. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle,
mostly due to genetic disorder, is
(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Gout
(3) Tetany
(4) Muscular dystrophy
163. Find out the correct statement from the following:
1. Hormones interact with membrane bound
receptors normally do not enter the target cells.
2. Iodothyronines have membrane bound receptors.
3. Hormones which interact with intracellular
receptors mostly regulate gene expression.
4. Steroid hormones generate second messenger
(1) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only
(3) 1 and 3 only (4) 2 and 4 only
164. Find the total no. of hormones from the
following which binds to intracellular receptors.
Cortisol ,Testosterone, T3, Glucagon, Oxytocin,
FSH, Progesterone, ICSH, Oestrogen, GH
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
165. If ovulation in a human female takes place on
17th day of first menstrual bleeding, then the
duration of menstrual cycle in that female should
be
(1) 19 days (2) 28 days
(3) 31 days (4) 17 days
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166. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) Menstrual blood does not clot
(2) Lack of menstruation may indicate pregnancy
(3) Corpus luteum is retained if fertilization
occurs
(4) Menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of
age, termed as menarche
167. How many of the following statements are
correct with respect to test tube baby programme
(A) Foetus develop inside the body of female but
fertilization occurs outside the body
(B) Fertilization is invivo but foetus grow in test
tube, outside the body of female
(C) May include ZIFT and IUT
(D) Embryo transfer always followed by invitro
fertilization
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
168. How many of the following diseases can also be
transmitted by sharing of injection needles?
Cholera, AIDS, Hepatitis-B, Genital herpes,
Typhoid
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
169. Evolution of different species in a given area
starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Natural selection
(3) Migration
(4) Convergent evolution
170. A person received a blood transfusion and he
suspects that the donor’s blood was not properly
tested. The recipient’s blood does not have any
anti HIV antibodies as yet. Which of the
following tests would be of diagnostic value?
(1) Autoradiography (2) PCR
(3) Probe (4) Northern blot
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171. Smack is obtained by 177. The genetic defect, adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(1) Oxidation of morphine deficiency, may be cured permanently by

(2) Acetylation of cannabis (1) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered

lymphocytes having functional ADA
(3) Acetylation of morphine cDNA
(4) Chlorination of morphine (2) Administering adenosine deaminase
172. A patient brought to hospital with myocardial activators
infarction is immediately given (3) Introducing "ADA" gene into cells at early
(1) Pencillin (2) Streptokinase embryonic stages
(3) Cyclosporin-A (4) Statins (4) Enzyme replacement therapy
173. The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly 178. How many recombinant therapeutics have been
caterpillar is presently marketed in India?
(1) Bacillus (1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 12 (4) 90
(2) Saccharomyces
thuringiensis 179. Match the following:
(3) Lactobacillus (4) Cyanobacteria Column-I Column-II
174. In genetic engineering, the antibiotic resistance A Sycon 1 Bath sponge
gene are used B Spongilla 2 Scypha
(1) To select healthy vectors C Euspongia 3 Fresh water sponge
(2) As sequences from where replication starts
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) To keep the cultures free of infection
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1 (4) A-3, B-1, C-2
(4) As selectable markers
180.
175. Which of the following should be chosen for the
best yield if one were to produce a recombinant
protein in large amounts ?
(1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
(1) A-Trichoderma polysporum, B- Fungi, C-
(2) A stirred-tank bioreactor without inlets and
outlets Roquefort cheese, D- Streptococcus
(3) A continuous culture system (2) A-Trichoderma polysporum, B- Fungi, C-
(4) Any of the above Penicillin, D- Streptococcus
176. Advancement in genetic engineering has been (3) A-Trichoderma viride, B- bacteria, C-
possible due to discovery of Roquefort cheese, D- streptomycin
(1) Oncogenes (4) A-Trichoderma reesei, B- Fungi, C-
Roquefort cheese, D- streptomyces
(2) Transposons
(3) Exonucleases
(4) Restriction endonucleases
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181. Which one of the following acts by SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
competitively inhibiting the enzyme for
synthesis of cholesterol ? 186. Assertion: Gap junctions perform cementing
(1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Statins function to keep the neighbouring cells together.
Reason: Tight junctions facilitate the cells to
(3) Streptokinase (4) Penicillin communicate with each other by connecting the
182. Match the following list of bacteria and cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of
their commercially important products: ions, small and big molecules, etc.
Bacterium Product
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(i) Aspergillus niger (A) Lactic acid reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(ii) Acetobacter aceti (B) Butyric acid
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(iii) Clostridium butylicum (C) Acetic acid is not the correct explanation of assertion
(iv) Lactobacillus (D) Citric acid (3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(1) (i)-(B), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(D), (iv)-(A) (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(2) (i)-(B), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(C), (iv)-(A)
187. An individual suffers brain damage that results
(3) (i)-(D), (ii)-(C), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(A) in respiratory failure. Which region of the brain
(4) (i)-(D), (ii)-(A); (iii)-(C), (iv)-(B) was most likely damaged?
183. Cotton fibre made up of :- (1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(3) Limbic lobe
(3) Cellulose (4) Inulin (4) Superior colliculus
184. Which protein is found in maximum amount in 188. In the given diagram identify the structures
bio-sphere which can store the sperm?
(2) Carbonic
(1) Catalase
anhydrase
(3) Collagen (4) RUBISCO
185. In frog, heart is ______.
(1) Myogenic (2) Auto excitable
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neurogenic

(1) A,G,E and D (2) A,and D

(3) A,G D (4) D,E, and F
189. Identify the mis-match pain about cockroach
(1) Alary muscles - 12 (2) Ootheca - 9-10
(3) Spiracles - 20 (4) Ommatidia - 4000
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190. Match the following and choose the correct
option
(1)A - iii; B - ii; C - i; D - iv
(2)A - iv; B - iii; C - ii; D - i
(3)A - iv; B - ii; C - iii; D - i
(4)A - ii; B - iii; C - i; D – iv
191. The domestic sewage in large cities
(1) Has a high BOD.
(2) Is processed by anaerobic and then aerobic
bacteria in the secondary treatment in
Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs)
(3) When treated in STPs does not really
require the aeration step as the sewage
contains adequate oxygen
(4) Has very high amount of suspended solids
and dissolved salts
192. Some of the steps involved in the production of
humulin are given below. Choose the correct
sequence:
(i) Synthesis of gene for human insulin artificially
(ii) Culturing recombinant E.coli in bioreactors
(iii) Purification of humulin
(iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid
(v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into
E.coli
(vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from
E.coli
(1) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii), (v), (vi)
(2) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (ii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (vi), (iii)
(4) (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (vi), (iv)
193. In male frog copulatory pad present on the:
(1) Second digit of the fore limbs
(2) First digit of the hind limbs
(3) First digit of the fore limbs
(4) Second digit of the hind limbs
194. Restriction endonuclease
(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the
nucleus
(4) Synthesizes DNA
195. The introduction of t-DNA into plant involves
(1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(2) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
(3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat-
shocking the plants
(4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief
period
196. Given figure represent which type of natural
selection?
(1) Disruptive (2) Directional
selection selection
(3) Stabilizing
(4) Sexual selection
selection
197. Which of the following method is involved in
selection of recombinants from non-recombinants ?
(2) Insertional
(1) PCR
inactivation
(3) Gel electrophoresis (4) Molecular probe

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198. How many statements are incorrect among the 199. Cerebral aqueduct passes through -
following? (1) Forebrain (2) Mid brain
i. Oparin of England and Haldane of Russia
proposed that the first form of life could have come (3) Hind brain (4) Both (2) and (3)
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules 200. Which of the following is used in the production
(e.g. RNA, protein, etc.) and that formation of life of insulin by genetic engineering?
was preceded by chemical evolution (1) Rhizobium (2) Entamoeba coil
ii. The conditions on earth were – high
temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere (3) Saccharomyces (4) Escherichia coil
containing CH4, O2, etc.
iii. In 1952, S.L. Miller, an American scientist
created similar conditions in a laboratory scale
iv. S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed
flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour at
800oC.
v. With limited evidence, the first part of the
conjectured story, i.e., chemical evolution was
more or less accepted.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

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