*6051CMD303122FSMT009*

(6051CMD303122FSMT009) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

English

NEET (UG)
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 12-04-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : APTS-09
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 27 pages.

Q9 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet.
5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
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Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
16. Compensatory time of one hour five minutes will be provided for the examination of three hours and 20 minutes duration,
whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 6. Assertion (A) : When height of a capillary tube

is less than liquid rise in the capillary tube then
1. A body falls from rest in the gravitational field the liquid does not over flow
of the earth. The distance travelled in the fifth Reason (R) : Product of radius of meniscus and
second of its motion is (g = 10m/s2) height of liquid in capillary tube always remains
(1) 25m (2) 45m constant.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) 90m (4) 125m
the correct explanation of (A)
2. An electric motor creates a tension of 1500 N in a
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
hoisting cable and reels it in at the rate of 4 ms – 1.
What is the power of the electric motor ? (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) 4 kW (2) 6 kW (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) 9 kW (4) 8 kW
7. In an industrial process 10 kg of water per hour is
3. A man pushes a stationary heavy vehicle and to be heated from 20oC to 80oC. To do this steam at
fails to displace it. Then which is correct 150oC is passed from a boiler into a copper coil
regarding the work done by him? immersed in water. The steam condenses in the coil
(1) Negative work (2) Positive work and is returned to the boiler as water at 90oC. How
many kg of steam is required per hour. (Specific
(3) No work at all (4) Can't say heat of steam = 1 calorie per goC. Latent heat of
4. The motion of planets in the solar system is an vaporiasation = 540 cal/g
example of conservation of :- (1) 1 g (2) 1 kg
(1) Potential energy (3) 10 g (4) 10 kg
(2) Linear momentum 8. The density of a gas is 6 x 10-2 kg/m3 and the
(3) Angular momentum root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is
500 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas on the
(4) Kinetic energy
walls of the vessels is:
5. If Ve is the escape velocity for earth when a
(1) 5 x 103 N/m2 (2) 1.2 x 10-4 N/m2
projectile is fired from the surface of earth. Then
the escape velocity of the same projectile when (3) 0.83 x 10-4 N/m2 (4) 30 N/m2
fired from center of earth is : 9. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1 expands
(1) 3 (2) 3 V according to the law (P/V) = constant. Find the
√ Ve e work done when the final temperature becomes T2:
2 2
(3) 2 (4) 2 (1) R(T2 - T1) (2) (R/2)(T2 - T1)
√ Ve Ve
3 3
(3) (R/4)(T2 - T1) (4) PV(T2 - T1)
10. A particle executes SHM with amplitude of 20 cm
and time period of 12 sec. What is the minimum
time required for it to move between two points 10
cm on either side of the mean position?
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 3 sec (4) 4 sec
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11. A uniform vertical field E is established between 15. Assertion: The work done by the electric field of
two parallel plates. In this field, a small conducting a nucleus in moving an electron around it in a
sphere of mass M is suspended from a string of complete orbit is greater if the orbit is elliptical
length (l). If the sphere is given a charge +q (stat- than if the orbit is circular.
coulomb) and if lower plate is charged positively, Reason : Electric field is conservative.
the period of the simple pendulum is: (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(1) 2 π √ l/g
(2)
2 π 


l
qE (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
⎷ ( g+ m
)

(4) If the assertion is false and reason is true

(3)
2 π 


l
qE
(4)
2 π 


qE
l
16. For a cell, the terminal potential difference is
⎷ ( g− m
) ⎷ (
m
− g)
2.2 V when the circuit is open and reduces to
12. A travelling wave is described by the equation y 1.8 V, when the cell is connected across a
(x,t) = [0.05 sin (4x - 8t)]m Ω
resistance, R = 5 . The internal resistance of
The velocity of the wave is : [all the quantities the cell is:
are in SI unit]
(1) 10 Ω (2) 9 Ω
(1) 4 ms-1 (2) 2 ms-1 9 10
(3) 0.5 ms-1 (4) 8 ms-1 (3) 11
9
Ω (4) 5
9
Ω
13. Two identical stringed instruments have 17. In the adjoining circuit, the e.m.f. of the cell is 2
frequency 100 Hz. If tension in one of them is volt and the internal resistance is negligible. The
increased by 4% and they are sounded together resistance of the voltmeter is 80 ohm. The
then the number of beats in one second are reading of the voltmeter will be:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
14. A semi-circular arc of radius 'a' is charged
uniformly and the charge per unit length is 2λ.
The electric field at the centre of this arc is
(1) λ (2) λ
πε a 0 πε a
2 0
2

(3) λ (4) λ 2
(1) 0.80 volt (2) 1.60 volt
4π ε a 2
0 πεa 2
0
(3) 1.33 volt (4) 2.00 volt

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18. Two parallel conductors carry equal sinusoidal 21. The number of wavelengths in the visible
π
alternating currents differing in phase by rad. spectrum is
Which one of the following graphs shows how F, (1) 4000 (2) 6000
the mutual force of attraction, varies with time t ?
(3) 2000 (4) Infinite.
(1)
22. A ray of light is incident at a transparent medium- water
interface at an angle of incidence of 30°, it emerges
finally parallel to the surface of water, then the refractive
index of transparent medium would be

(2)

(1) 8 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) √ 3

(3) 3 2
23. Two conducting concentric spherical shells carry
charge Q each. As the outer shell is earthed by closing
switch, the charge that will flow through the switch is

(4)

(1) Q (2) 2Q (3) 3Q (4) 4Q

19. The time required for a current to attain the
given value in a DC circuit containing L and R, 24. The charge is distributed uniformly in the
depends upon volume of a sphere of radius 20 cm such that the
potential on its surface is 50 V. The potential at
(1) R only the centre of the sphere will be
(2) L only (1) 75 V (2) 25 V
(3) L/R (3) 50 V (4) Zero
(4) the applied potential difference 25. An electron having a charge – e located at A in
20. Frequency of an electromagnetic wave is 10 the presence of a point charge +Q located at B is
MHz. Then its wavelength is moved to a point C so that ABC is an equilateral
(1) 30 m (2) 300 m triangle. The work done in this process is :-
(1) 1 Q (2) 1 Qe
(3) 3m (4) None of these.
π
4 ∈0 AC π
4 ∈0 AC
(3) 1 −Qe
π
4 ∈0 AB
(4) Zero

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26. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron 30. A bullet moving with a speed of 72 m/s enters a
emitted from the surface of work function f due thick wooden block and comes to rest after
to incidence of light of frequency n is E. If the penetrating through a distance of 9 cm. If the
frequency of incident light is doubled, then wooden block were 8 cm thick, the bullet would
maximum kinetic of emitted photon will be come out of the block with a speed :-
(1) 2E (2) 2E - f (1) 24 m/s (2) 8 m/s (3) 9 m/s (4) 64 m/s
(3) 2E + f (4) 2E + 2f 31. Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass 600 g at
–12oC. Specific heat of ice is 2222.3J kg −1 C −1 and
0

27. Kinetic energy with which the electrons are latent heat of ice in 336kJ /kg–1
emitted from the metal surface due to A. Final temperature of system wil be 00C
photoelectric effect is B. Final temperature of system will be greater than 00C
(1) Independent of the intensity of illumination C. Final temperature will have a mixture of ice and
water in the ratio of 5:1
(2) Independent of the frequency of light D. The final system will have mixture of ice and water
(3) Inversely proportional to the intensity of in the ratio of 1:5
illumination E. The final system will have water only
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Directly proportional to the intensity of
below:
illumination
(1) A and C only (2) A and E only
28. To establish an instantaneous displacement
current of I ampere in the space between the (3) B and D only (4) A and D only
1 32. An iron sphere contains cavity weighs 6000 N in
plates of a parallel plate capacitor of farad,
2 air and 4000 N in water. What is the volume of
dV
the value of is cavity ? Density of iron is 7.87 g/cc
dt
(1) 2I (2) I (1) 0.8 m3 (2) 0.12 m3
2
(3) 2 m3 (4) 5 m3
(3) 1 (4) I
2I 33. The two wires shown in fig. are made of the same
29. In a screw gauge 1 pitch = 1 mm and there are material which has a breaking stress of 8 × 108
100 divisions on circular scale. If zero error in N/m2. The area of cross section of the upper wire
screw gauge is – 0.03 mm and during taking is 0.006 cm2 and that of the lower wire is 0.003
cm2. The mass m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 36 kg
readings figure is as shown below, find the and the hanger is light. Find maximum load that
length fitted in screw gauge. can be put on the hanger without breaking a wire.
Which wire will break first if the load is increased:

(1) 5.55 mm (2) 5.58 mm (1) 10 kg, lower (2) 2 kg, upper
(3) 5.52 mm (4) 5.45 mm (3) 14 kg, lower (4) 2 kg, lower
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34. The average and rms value of voltage for square 39. At what height from the surface of earth the the
wave shown in fig. having peak value V0- value of g is 2.5 m/s2. Take g at surface of earth
as 10 m/s2.Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
(1) 3200 km (2) 1600 km
(3) 6400 km (4) 4800 km
40. In the figure, the magnetic field at C due to curved
part is
(1) (2)

(3) V0, V0 (4) Zero, Zero

35. Which of the following graphs represent the
variation of current (I) with frequency (f) in an
AC circuit containing a pure capacitor?

(1)
directed into the plane of the paper
(2)
directed towards you
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
(3) (iii) (4) (iv) (3)
directed towards you
SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )
(4) directed into the plane of the paper.
36. Two bodies A ( of mass 1 kg) and B ( of mass 3
kg) are dropped from height of 16 m and 25 m, 41. Of the following, the most suitable material for
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them making permanent magnet is
to reach the ground is
(1) Steel (2) Soft iron
(1) 12 (2) 5 (3) 5 (4) 4
5 12 4 5
(3) Copper (4) Nickel
37. A ball dropped from a height of 2m rebounds to 42. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of
a height of 1.0 m after hitting the ground. Then intensities I and 4I are superposed. The
the percentage of energy loss is :- maximum and minimum possible intensities in
(1) 25 (2) 30 the resulting beam are
(1) 5I and I (2) 5I and 3I
(3) 50 (4) 100
(3) 9I and I (4) 9I and 3I
38. Two particles which are initially at rest, move
towards each other under the action of their
mutual attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at
any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of
the system will be:
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) Zero (4) 1.5v
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43. Two sources kept close to each other on a 46. Which of the following Boolean expression is
horizontal line are used to obtain an interference represented by the given circuit :
pattern on an adjacent vertical wall which is
perpendicular to the given line. The pattern of
fringes will be
(1) Family of Hyperbolas (1) (A + B) ∙ C (2) A ∙ B + C
(2) Circular (3) (4)
(3) Parabola
47. The fig. shows the position time graph of a
(4) Straight line particle moving on a straight line path. What is
44. Which of the following statements about the the magnitude of average velocity of the particle
Bohr model of the hydrogen atom is false? over 10 seconds ?
(1) Acceleration of electron in n = 2 orbit is
less than that in n = 1 orbit
(2) Angular momentum of electron in n = 2
orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit
(3) Kinetic energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is
less than that in n = 1 orbit
(4) Potential energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is
less than that in n = 1 orbit (1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
45. The V-I characteristic for a p-n junction diode is plotted (3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s
as shown in the figure. From the plot we can conclude 48. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a
that [Vb → breakdown voltage, Vk → knee voltage] tower of height H with velocity 20m/s. A man is
standing at the foot of tower starts running at the
same instant when ball is thrown. What should
be the velocity of man to catch the ball before
striking to the ground. (Consider height of man
negligible):-

(1) the forward bias resistance of diode is very

high; almost infinity for small values of V
and after a certain value it becomes very low
(2) the reverse bias resistance of diode is very
high in the beginning upto breakdown
voltage is not achieved (1) 10 m/s (2) √ 2gH

(3) both forward and reverse bias resistances (3) 20 m/s (4) none of these
are same for all voltages
(4) both (1) and (2) are correct
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49. A mass m rest on an inclined plane of mass M 50. As per Bohr model the minimum energy (in eV)
which is further resting on a smooth horizontal required to excite the electron from the ground
plane. Now if the mass starts moving the state of doubly ionised lithium (Z = 3) is :-
position of centre of mass of the system will :- (1) 1.51 (2) 13.6
(3) 91.8 (4) 122.4

(1) Remain at rest

(2) Move in horizontal direction
(3) Move vertically upward
(4) Move vertically downward

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( CHEMISTRY ) 58. Compound A reacts with Na metal to give B. A

also reacts with PCl5 to give C. B and C reacts
51. During electrolysis of fused NaCl, the anodic with each other to give dimethyl ether. Then A,
reaction is B and C respectively are
(1) Reduction of Na+ to Na (1) CH3 OH, CH3 ONa, CH3 COCl
(2) Oxidation of Na to Na+ (2) CH3 OH, CH4 , CH3Cl
(3) Reduction of chloride ions (3) CH3 OH, CH3ONa, CH3 Cl
(4) Oxidation of chloride ions (4) CH3 Cl, CH4, CH3 OH
52. The outermost electronic configuration of most 59. The formation of cyanohydrin from acetone is
electronegative element is which type of reaction?
(1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np4 (1) Electrophilic substitution
(3) ns2np5 (4) ns2np6 (2) Electrophilic addition
53. In which process does the nitrogen undergo (3) Nucleophilic addition
oxidation? (4) Nucleophilic substitution
(1) N2 → 2NH3 (2) N2O4 → 2 NO2 60. Gas evolve at anode during kolbes electrolysis of
(3) NO−
3 → N2 O5 (4) NO−
2 → NO−
3 CH3 – CH2 – COONa :-
54. Which of the following transition element shows (1) CO2 (2) H2
the highest oxidation state? (3) CH4 (4) CaCO3
(1) Mn (2) Fe (3) V (4) Sc 61. Assertion(A): [Cu(CN)4]2 – is more stable than
55. [Cu(H2O)4]2+.
Reason(R): On heating [Cu(H2O)4]2+ with NH3,
IUPAC name of is [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is formed.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) 3,3 – dimethyl – 1 – hydroxycyclohexane explanation of A
(2) If both A and R are true but R is not the
(2) 1, 1 – dimethyl – 3 - hydroxy cyclohexane
correct explanation of A
(3) 3, 3 – dimethyl cyclohexan – 1 – ol (3) If A is true but R is false
(4) 1, 1 – dimethyl cyclohexan – 3 – ol (4) If both A and R are false
56. Which of the following has fractional bond order 62. Which of the following are colourless : TiF6 – 2,
(1) O2+ (2) O2− CoF6 – 3, Cu2Cl2 and NiCl4 – 2.
2 2

(3) C22− (4) H2− (1) CoF63 – and NiCl4 – 2

57. The type of overlapping in Br - F bond in BrF3 (2) TiF6 – 2 and CoF6 – 2
molecule is (3) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl4 – 2
(1) sp3 - p (2) sp2 - p (4) TiF6 – 2 and Cu2Cl2
(3) sp3d - p (4) sp3d3 - p

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63. In SRP value of elements A, B, C are 0.68, 69. An elementary reaction is given as 2P + Q →
– 2.4, 0.30 V respectively. The order of product. If conc of Q is kept constant and conc
reducing power is :- of P is doubled then rate of reaction is :
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C (1) Double (2) Halved
(3) B > C > A (4) C > A > B (3) Quadrupled (4) Remains same
64. The specific conductance of a solution is 0.2 70. Equivalent weight of FeS2 in following reaction
ohm – 1cm – 1 and conductance is 0.04 ohm – 1. is :
The cell constant would be :- FeS2 → Fe+2 + SO3
(1) 1 cm – 1 (2) 0 cm – 1 (1) M (2) M
11 14
(3) 5 cm – 1 (4) 0.2 cm – 1 (3) M (4) None of these
65. Which of the following possess highest P Kb 13
value? 71. The de Broglie wavelength of 1mg grain of sand
(2) blown by a 20 ms-1 wind is:
(1)
(1) 3.3 × 10−29 m. (2) 3.3 × 10−21 m.
(3) 3.3 × 10−49 m. (4) 3.3 × 10−42 m.
(4) 72. The main factor responsible for weak acidic
(3)
nature of BF3 is :-
(1) Large electronegativity of F
66. Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded (2) 3C-2e – bond in BF3
isothermally and reversibly from 1L to 10L at
300K. The enthalpy change (in kJ) for the
π π
(3) P – d back boding in B – F

process is :- (4) P π – P π back bond in BF3

(1) 11.4 kJ (2) – 11.4 kJ 73. The product obtained by the hydrolysis of Al4C3,
Mg2C3 and CaC2 respectively.
(3) 0 kJ (4) 4.8 kJ
(1) Acetylene, Methane, Propyne
67. For which of the following molecule, standard
molar enthalpies of formation at 298 K is zero (2) Methane, Propyne, Acetylene
(1) Cl2 (l) (2) CO2 (g) (3) Propyne, Methane, Acetylene
(3) Br2 (l) (4) HCl (g) (4) Methane, Acetylene, Propyne
68. The experimental data for the reaction 74. PbI4 does not exist because :
2A + B2→ 2AB is : (1) Iodine is not a reactive element
(2) Pb(IV) is oxidising and I – is strong
reducing agent
(3) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II)
(4) Pb+4 is not easily formed
The rate equation for the above data is :-
(1) rate = k[B2]2 (2) rate = k[B2]
(3) rate = k[A]2[B2]2 (4) rate = k[A]2[B2]
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75. Arrange the following in decreasing order of 80. Assertion : If water is heated to 50°C then pH
ionic size will increase.
(1) Ce3+ > Lu3+ > Gd 3+ > Eu3+ Reason : Kw decreases with increase in
temperature.
(2) Ce3+ > Eu3+ > Gd 3+ > Lu3+
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the
(3) Eu3+ > Ce3+ > Gd 3+ > Lu3+ Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(4) Gd 3+ > Eu3+ > Ce3+ > Lu3+ (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason
76. The elements X, Y and Z forms oxides which are is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
acidic, basic and amphoteric respectively, then (3) Assertion is True but Reason is false
correct order of their electronegativities is :- (4) Both Assertion and Reason are False
(1) X > Y > Z (2) Z > Y > X 81. Calculate pH of a solution of given mixture (0.1
(3) X > Z > Y (4) Y > X > Z mole CH3COOH + 0.2 mole CH3COONa) in
77. Assertion (A) :- Order of IP in 13th group is 100ml of mixture (Ka = 2 × 10 – 5)
B > T ℓ > Ga > In > A ℓ . (1) 5 (2) 5.6
Reason (R) :- This irregular trend in I.E. is due (3) 6.6 (4) 7.6
to Transition contraction & Lanthanoid
contraction is present in 13th group. 82. For the reaction PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
The forward reaction at constant temperature is
(1) A is correct & R is correct, R is correct favoured by :-
explanation of A
(1) adding inert gas at constant volume
(2) A is correct, R is incorrect
(2) adding chlorine gas at constant volume
(3) A is incorrect, R is correct
(3) adding inert gas at constant pressure
(4) Both A & R incorrect
(4) None of these
78. The hybridisation of central iodine atom in IF5,
I3− and I3+ are respectively : 83. Calculate the percentage degree of dissociation
of an electrolyte AB3 (normal molar mass = 164)
(1) sp3d2, sp3d, sp3 (2) sp3d, sp3d, sp3 in H2O if observed molar mass is 65.6 :-
(3) sp3d2, sp3d2, sp3 (4) sp3d, sp3d2, sp3 (1) 50% (2) 25%
79. (3) 75% (4) 85%
The O18-labelled ester is
hydrolyzed with aqueous H2SO4. The products 84. Given
will be :-
(1)
and C2H5OH
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds
(2) will be in the order
and
(1) II > III > I (2) II > I > III
(3)
and C2H5OH (3) III > II > I (4) I > II > III
(4)
and

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85. Major Product of given reaction : 89. In the following reaction, the product (P) is

Major
(1)

product.
(1) (2)

(3)
(2)

(4)
(3)

90. In which of the following reactions, increase in

the pressure at constant temperature does not
(4) affect the moles at equilibrium?
(1) H (g) + 1 O (g) ⇌ H O (g)
2 2 2
2
(2) H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2Hl (g)

SECTION - B ( CHEMISTRY ) (3) 1

C (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ CO (g)
2
86. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as (4) 2NH3 (g) ⇌ N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)
the major interaction, is present in 91. Rate of reaction towards SN1 is :-
(1) Benzene and CCl4
(2) Benzene and C2H5OH (a) (b)
(3) CH3COCH3 and CH3CN
(4) KCl and water
(c) (d)
87. Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?
(1) Vitamin-C (2) Vitamin-D (1) b > a > c > d (2) c > a > b > d
(3) Vitamin-A (4) Vitamin-K (3) a > c > b > d (4) c > b > a > d
88. Mole fraction of solvent in aqueous solution of
NaOH having molality of 3 is
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.05
(3) 0.7 (4) 0.95

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92. What are the hydrolysis products of (i) sucrose 97. Δ
Given that C + O2 → CO2, H° = – x kJ
and (ii) lactose? Δ
2CO + O2 → 2CO2, H° = – y kJ
(1) (i) D-glucose; (ii) D-galactose The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide
(2) (i) D-fructose ; (ii) D-glucose will be
(1) y − 2x (2) 2x – y
(3) (i) D-glucose and D-fructose
2
(ii) D-galactose and D-glucose
(3) y – 2x (4) 2x − y
(4) (i) D-galactose and D-fructose 2
(ii) D-glucose and D-glucose 98. Assertion : Aniline does not give Friedel craft
93. What will be value of Ecell for reaction reaction.
Mg(s) + 2Ag + ⇌ Mg +2 + 2Ag(s) Reason : In presence of Lewis acid (AlCl3),
(10−3 M) (0.02M) aniline forms salt and nitrogen acquires positive
0
Given is 3.17 V
Ecell charge which is strong deactivating group.
(1) 2.67 (2) 2.13 (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(3) 3.27 (4) 3.041 Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
94. Δ
For mixing of two gases H = 0 in a closed
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but
container, for mixing of gases the correct
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
statement is :-
Assertion.
Δ
(1) Since disorderness increases so T S becomes +ve &
Δ
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
G will be –ve.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
Δ
(2) Since disorderness decreases so T S becomes +ve.
Δ
so G will be –ve.
99. Which is incorrect statement ?
(1) Hg2Cl2 does not give chromyl chlorite test
(3) T Δ S becomes – ve
(2) S2 – salt give purple colour complex with
(4) for reaction; Δ G > 0 sodium nitro prusside
95. What weight of 95% CaCO3 will be required to (3) CuSO4 give deep blue soluble complex
produce 11.2 litre CO2 at STP:- with excess NH4OH solution
(1) 50 g (2) 100 g (4) NH3 gas give green colour ppt with
(3) 52.6 g (4) 25 g Nesseler reagent
96. 0.25 mol of P4 molecules contains ___ 100. Which among the following statement is wrong
electrons:- regarding Mohr's salt :-
(1) 90.3 × 1024 (2) 9.03 × 1024 (1) It has five ions per molecule
(3) 9.03 × 1023 (4) 90.3 × 1025 (2) It is a double salt.
(3) It does not give test of Fe+2 ions.
(4) It contains two type of cations.

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( BOTANY )
101. Some organisms with their respective taxonomic
category are given below. Which of the
following is correctly matched ?
(1) Man – Class - Primata
(2) Mango – Family - Anacardiaceae
(3) Wheat – Order - Poaceae
(4) Leopard – Genus - pardus
104. Find out the incorrect information regarding the
given figure :-
(1) Both are the member of kingdom Protista
(2) a-is heterotroph and b-is autotroph
(3) a-is Euglena and b-is Paramoecium
(4) Cell wall is absent in both a and b

102. 105. Protonema stage is found in

(1) Hornworts (2) Mosses
(3) Liverworts (4) Fungi
106. In triple fusion, how many gametes and nuclei
takes part respectively :-
Which of the following statement is not true for (1) 1 and 3 (2) 3 and 1
the organism represented in figure? (3) 3 and 5 (4) 5 and 3
(1) Figure indicates a filamentous blue-green algae. 107. _________ is added to ice creams to increase its
(2) Organism given in figure is able to fix viscosity.
environmental CO2. (1) Mannitol (2) Carrageenan
(3) Every cell of given organism fixes (3) Starch (4) Chlorellin
environmental N2.
108. Which of the following tissue/cell by region is
(4) Organism have chromatopores in their few not included in ground tissue system.
cells.
(1) Cortex (2) Endodermis
103.
(3) Pericycle (4) Sieve cell
109. r-RNA is synthesized by :-
(1) Nucleus (2) NOR
(3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome

Identify the organism in the figure and select the

site of basidiospore formation :-
(1) Aspergillus and "D"
(2) Agaricus and "C"
(3) Agaricus and "A"
(4) Penicillium and "B"
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110. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 116. A drone (male honey bee) cannot have
matching. (1) Maternal grand father
(2) Grand son
(3) Father
(4) Mitotic gametogenesis
117. Given figure represents :-

(1) x-chlorophyll a, y-chlorophyll b, z-carotenoids

(2) z-chlorophyll a, y-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(3) y-chlorophyll a, z-chlorophyll b, x-carotenoids
(4) y-chlorophyll a, x-chlorophyll b, z-carotenoids
111. Which of the following is not a synthetic PGR?
(1) NAA (2) Zeatin (1) Capping (2) Polyadenylation
(3) Kinetin (4) 2, 4, 5-T (3) Splicing (4) All of the above
112. In given following matches all are correct except 118. The vector used in HGP were
(1) Stamen - Modified Microsporangium (1) BAC & YAC
(2) Ovule - Integumented Megasporangium (2) Plasmid and cosmid
(3) Pistil-Modified Megasporophyll (3) T2 phage and T4 phage
(4) Seed - Fertilized ovule in Amphimixis (4) Both (1) and (3)
113. To develop a mature female gametophyte from 119. Pollination in Ophrys (a Mediterranean orchid)
MMC how many meiotic & mitotic divisions are occurs by
needed respectively
(1) Insect through clip mechanism
(1) 3, 1 (2) 2, 2
(2) Insect through trap door mechanism
(3) 1, 3 (4) 1, 1
(3) Insect through pseudo copulation mechanism
114. Which of the following statements are true about
the viruses? (4) Insect through lever mechanism
(1) Free-living outside (2) Obligate parasites 120. If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of
host cell given '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
population is ...................... individuals per
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above Drosophila per week.
115. In sickle-cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced (1) Zero (2) 0.1
by ______ in ______ polypeptide chain result in
sickle shaped haemoglobin (3) 10 (4) 1.0
(1) Valine ; α (2) Alanine ; β
(3) Valine ; β (4) Serine ; β

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121. The more conservative and scientifically sound 125. In given diagram parts indicated as A, B, C,
estimate made by Robert May has placed the D are :
global species diversity at about
(1) 1.5 million (2) 20 to 50 million
(3) 2.5 million (4) 7 million
122. Which ecological pyramid may usually be
inverted
(1) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea ecosystem
(3) Pyramid of energy in tree ecosystem
(1) A-Scutellum, B-Epiblast,
(4) Pyramid of number in pond ecosystem C-Coleorhiza, D-Coleoptile
123. Organisms are classified into different trophic (2) A-Plumule, B-Radicle,
levels according to- C-Scutellum, D-Coleoptile
(1) Their habitat (3) A-Coleoptile, B-Scutellum,
(2) The source of their nutrition C-Epiblast, D-Coleorhiza
(3) How much they weigh (4) A-Shoot apex, B-Scutellum,
C-Epiblast, D-Root cap
(4) All of the above
126. The figure depicits. :-
124. What is common to the techniques
(i) Gene bank
(ii) Cryopreservation and
(iii) Tissue culture
(1) All are in situ conservation methods
(2) All are ex situ conservation methods
(3) All are not advanced methods
(4) All are methods of conservation of extinct
organisms

(1) Linkage
(2) Independent assortment
(3) Law of dominance
(4) Equational division

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127. Which of the following figure show axile type 131. Photosynthsis is essentially light dependant
placentation ? reaction is demonstrated using green and purple
(2) bacteria by
(1)
(1) C. V. Niel (2) Ingenhousz
(3) Priestley (4) Engelmann
132. Stability of genetic material was very evident in
.........................
(1) Biochemical experiment
(3) (2) Transduction experiment
(3) Hershey and chase experiment
(4)
(4) Giffith transforming principle
133. Find incorrect statement
(1) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate
(2) DNA depends on RNA for protein
synthesis
(3) RNA can directly code for the protein synthesis
(4) Tailing in hnRNA occurs in template
128. Assertion: Independent pairs segregate dependent manner
independently of each other. 134. The co-factor required for the activity of
Reason: Tightly linked genes show very low pyruvate dehydrogenase during pyruvate
recombination. oxidative decarboxylation :
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) Zinc (2) Magnesium
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (3) Manganese (4) Copper
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. 135. Most food chains are composed of
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) 1 or 2 species
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) 3 or 4 species
129. Which enzyme polymerizes RNA with defined
sequences in a template independent manner? (3) 9 or 10 species
(1) Peptidly transferase (4) More than 16 species
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
130. Number of oxygen atoms utilized during ETS for
one acetyle Co-A
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 10 (4) 12
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SECTION - B ( BOTANY ) 139. Consider the following statements :

(A) In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous
136. Examine the figure given below and select the structure formed by the extension of the plasma
right option- membrane into the cell is known as polysome.
(B) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the
major site for synthesiss of glycoproteins.
(C) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the
whole of biosphere.
(D) Mitochondria, chloroplasts and peroxisomes
are not considered as part of endomembrane
system.
Of the above statements .
(1) C and D are correct
(1) A – Seta, B – Sporophyte, C – Protonema,
(2) A and B are correct
D – Rhizoids
(2) A–Antheridiophore, B–Male thallus, C–Globule, (3) B and C are correct
D–Roots (4) A and D are correct
(3) A – Archegoniophore, B – Female thallus, 140. Match the following columns.
C – Gemmacup, D – Rhizoids Column I Column II
(4) A – Archegoniophore, B – Female thallus, Inner mitochondrial
C – Bud, D – Foot A Glycolysis 1
membrane
137. Find out the correct match from the following TCA
table :- B 2 Mitochondrial matrix
cycle
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Stipulated Fibrous C ETS 3 Cytoplasm
(i) Pea leaf root (1) A-3, B-1, C-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(ii) Mustard Alternate Reticulate
phyllotaxy venation (3) A-2, B-1, C-3 (4) A-3, B-2, C-1
(iii) Eichornia Offset Rossete 141. Assertion :- Mustard & Datura are actinomorphic
leaves flowers.
Options :- Reason :- In above plants flower can be divided
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) only into two equal radial halves by any vertical plane
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (ii) only through the centre.
138. Which of the following options is correct about the (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
structures which are visible in the cross section of Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
a centriole? (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
Peripheral Central
microtubules microtubules Hub Spokes
Inter triplet is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
bridge
(triplets) (singlets) (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(1) 9 0 1 9 9 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(2) 9 2 9 9 9
(3) 9 2 1 2 2
(4) 9 2 1 9 9

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142. Assertion (A) : Chromosomes cluster at opposite 145. Meiosis involves :-
spindle pole and their identity is lost as discrete (1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and
elements during telophase of mitosis. recombination between sister chromatids of
Reason (R) : Initiation of condensation of nonhomologous chromosomes.
chromosomes occur during prophase of mitosis. (2) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and
(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and recombination between nonsister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Pairing of nonhomologous chromosomes
(2) Assertion and Reason both are correct but and recombination between nonsister
Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(3) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect (4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and
recombination between sister chromatids of
(4) Assertion is correct while Reason is incorrect homologous chromososomes.
143. Following paragraph refers to a transcription unit. 146. Which one of the following shows maximum
Fill up the blanks. genetic diversity in India?
The ___(a)__ is located towards 5 ′ end (__(b)__) (1) Rice (2) Maize
of the structural gene (the reference is made with
respect to the polarity of coding strand). Template (3) Mango (4) Groundnut
and coding strand is defined by __(c)__. The 147. The trait shown in the given pedigree chart is
__(d)__ is located towards 3 ′ end (__(e)__) of the most likely a/an:
coding strand.
(1) (a) promoter; (b) upstream; (c) promoter;
(d) terminator; (e) downstream
(2) (a) promoter; (b) upstream; (c) terminator;
(d) promoter; (e) downstream
(3) (a) promoter; (b) downstream; (c) promoter; (1) Autosomal recessive trait
(d) terminator; (e) upstream (2) Autosomal dominant trait
(4) (a) terminator; (b) upstream; (c) promoter; (3) Sex linked recessive trait
(d) promoter; (e) downstream (4) Sec linked dominant trait
144. Assertion : Auxin help to prevent fruit and leaf 148. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was
drop at early stages. discovered in the photosynthesis of
Reason : Auxin promote the abscission of older (1) Bryophyte (2) Gymnosperm
mature leaves and fruits.
(3) Angiosperm (4) Algae
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. 149. A female whose father was colorblind marries
and normal male whose father was also
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason colorblind. What is the probability that their
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. daughter will be colorblind?
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 150. Find out the flowers showing zygomorphic
symmetry- datura, chilly, gulmohor, brinjal,
calotropis, pea
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 158. Find out the incorrect statment

(1) Inulin is a polysaccharide
151. Find out the odd one
(2) GLUT-4 protein enables glucose transport
(1) Sea lily (2) Sea hare into cells
(3) Sea urchin (4) Sea cucumber (3) Ribose sugar is present in RNA and ATP
152. This serve as an important biofertilizer in paddy (4) Sucrose is a dipeptide, commonly known as
fields table sugar
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Mycorrhiza 159. Mark the wrong statement
(3) Lichens (4) Rhizobium (1) Zinc is a cofactor for enzyme carboxy
153. Animals with soft body, bilateral symmetry, peptidase
triploblastic and unsegmented, usually protected (2) Km is the substrate concentration at which
by a shell made up of calcium carbonate belongs the rate of reaction is maximum
to phylum ____
(3) A nucleotide is made of a heterocyclic
(1) Porifera (2) Echinodermata compound, monosaccharide and phosphoric acid
(3) Mollusca (4) Arthropoda (4) Tyrosine, Phenylalanine and Tryptophan
154. Bony fishes are are aromatic amino acids
(1) Having external fertilization 160. Following are examples of primary metabolites
except
(2) Mostly oviparous
(1) Lecithin (2) Cholesterol
(3) With direct development
(3) Triglyceride (4) Lectin
(4) All of these
161. Trachea divides into right and left pulmonary
155. From the given list how many phyla are bronchi at the level of
exclusively marine Coelenterata, Ctenophora,
Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Protochordata, (1) 7th cervical vertebra
Cyclostomata (2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 7th thoracic vertebra
156. The fluid connective tissue contains all of the (4) 2nd thoracic vertebra
following cells, except
162. Carotid and aortic bodies send chemical signals
(1) Platelets (2) Fibroblasts to the
(3) WBCs (4) RBCs (1) Cerebral hemispheres
157. Heart cells have the ability to contract as a unit (2) Respiratory centre in the medulla
due to the presence of
(3) Diaphragm
(1) Multinucleate
(2) Fusiform shape (4) Intercoastal muscles
condition
(3) Intercalated discs (4) Striations

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163. Which of the following granulocyte is
phagocytic in nature?
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Monocyte
(3) Neutrophil (4) Both 2 & 3
164. What percentage of cardiac output is filtered by
kidneys per minute?
(1) 100% (2) 20% (3) 5% (4) 50%
165. Podocytes of Bowman's capsules are modified
(1) Transitional epithelial cells
(2) Cuboidal epithelial cells
(3) Squamous epithelial cells
(4) Both (1) & (3)
166. ATP hydrolysis provides energy for muscle
contraction by allowing for
(1) An action potential formation in the muscle
cell.
(2) Removal of Troponin from Actin
(3) Cross-bridge attachment of myosin to actin.
(4) Release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic
reticulum.
167. A motor unit is best described as
(1) All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a
single muscle bundle.
(2) One muscle fibre and its single nerve fibre.
(3) A motor neuron along with the muscle
fibres that innervates.
(4) As the neuron which carries the message
from muscles to CNS.
168. The new potential developed on postsynaptic
membrane is
(1) Excitatory always
(2) Inhibitory always
(3) May be excitatory or inhibitory
(4) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory
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169. Which of the following layers are present in the
adrenal cortex from inner to outer ?
(1) Zona reticularis, zona fasciculata, zona
glomerulosa
(2) Zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, zona
reticularis
(3) Zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, zona
fasciculata
(4) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona
reticularis
170. What are the functions of sertoli cells
(A) Provide nourishment to the developing ova
(B) Provide nourishment to developing sperm.
(C) Prevent the developing sperm to come in
contact with blood
(D) Secretes androgens
(1) A&C (2) A,C,D
(3) A,B,D (4) B&C
171. The receptor for LH &FSH is present on
(1) Sertoli cells and Leydig cells respectively
(2) Leydig cells and Spermatogonia respectively
(3) Leydig cells and Sertoli cells respectively
(4) Leydig cells and anterior pituitary respectively
172. In which ART the semen is artificially introduced
into the uterus of female reproductive tract?
(1) GIFT (2) IUI (3) IUT (4) ICSI
173. Which of the following cannot be considered as
assisted reproductive technology
(1) Invitro fertilization(IVF)
(2) Gamete Intra Fallopian tube Transfer(GIFT)
(3) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection(ICSI)
174. "Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
and get selected by nature". The above statement
is related to
(1) Darwinism (2) Lamarckism
(3) Modern theory (4) Abiogenesis
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175. Which of the following are the two key concepts 180. Technology of biogas production was developed
of Darwinian theory of evolution? in India mainly due to the efforts of
(1) Genetic drift and mutation (1) IARI (2) KVIC
(2) Adaptive radiation and homology (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) ICAR
(3) Mutation and natural selection 181. The conditions which are favourable for the
(4) Branching descent and natural selection formation of oxyhaemoglobin are:
176. Single step large mutation leading to speciation (1) pO2 ↑, pCO2 ↑, H + conc. ↓, T emperature ↓
is also called (2) pO2 ↓, pCO2 ↓, H + conc. ↑, T emperature ↑
(1) Founder effect (2) Saltation (3) pO2 ↑, pCO2 ↓, H + conc. ↓, T emperature ↓
(3) Branching descent (4) Natural selection (4) pO2 ↑, pCO2 ↑, H + conc. ↓, T emperature ↑
177. Read the following statements 182. Most abundent leucocytes are
More children in metro cities of India (1) Neutrophils (2) Lymphocytes
a suffer from allergies and asthma due
to sensitivity to environment (3) Basophils (4) Monocytes
Bone marrow is the only primary 183. Total volume of air a person can inspire after a
b normal expiration is equal to
lymphoid organ
Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes (1) TV + TRV + ERV
c are responsible for the formation of (2) TV + ERV
lymphocytes (3) TV + IRV
Spleen has a large reservoir of
d (4) TV + TRV + ERV + RV
erythrocytes
How many of the given statement/s is/are correct? 184. Drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of
allergy:-
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (i) Histaminic drugs
178. If a person is infected with some deadly (ii) Adrenaline
microbes to which quick immune response is (iii) Steroids
required. The doctor needs to directly inject (iv) Vaccine
(1) Antibiotics (1) i, ii and iv (2) iii and iv
(2) Antigens collected from the patient body (3) ii and iii (4) i and ii
(3) Attenuated pathogen 185. Select the statement which is not correct w.r.t.
(4) Preformed antibodies cockroach?
(1) In cockroach the grinding of the food
179. In which of the following step large and
particles is performed by mandibles
small particles are removed from sewage
through sequential filtration and sedimentation? (2) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of
nitrogenous waste in the form of urea
(1) Primary treatment
(3) Hind gut of cockroach is differentiated into
(2) Secondary treatment
ileum, colon and rectum
(3) Biological treatment (4) Blood vessels are poorly developed, open
(4) Tertiary treatment into spaces called haemocoel
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SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY ) 191. The following graph of relative concentrations of
the four hormones present in the blood plasma of
186. Vertebral column is formed by:- a woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the
(1) 26 vertebrae placed dorsally hormones A, B, C and D.
(2) 26 vertebrae placed ventrally
(3) 26 vertebrae placed laterally
(4) 26 vertebrae placed dorso-laterally
187. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation
of antibiotic is a cumbersome procedure
β
(2) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase
leads to colourless colonies
β
(3) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase
(1) A–FSH, B–Progesterone, C–LH, D–Oestrogen
leads to blue color colonies
(4) In insertional inactivation, the desired DNA (2) A–LH, B–Progesterone, C–FSH, D–Oestrogen
is inserted within the coding sequence of an (3) A–FSH, B–Oestrogen, C–LH, D–Progesterone
β
enzyme -galactosidase
(4) A–LH, B–Oestrogen, C–FSH, D–Progesterone
188. Early detection of a disease is possible by
192. Below figures are related with different kind of
(1) PCR muscles, identify them correctly with their
(2) Gene therapy correct structure from options:
(3) Recombination DNA technology and ELISA
(4) Both (1) and (3)
189. Gene therapy can be referred to as
(1) Pre-clinical testing for inherited diseases in
new-borns
(2) Treatment of diseases caused by genetic (1) (a) skeletal striated, (b) smooth non-
defect striated, (c) cardiac - non-striated
(3) Molecular diagnosis using antigen antibody (2) (a) smooth non-striated, (b) skeletal - non-
interaction striated, (c) cardiac - striated
(4) Cancer treatment using in-vivo cultured (3) (a) skeletal striated muscle, (b) smooth
stem cells muscle-non-striated, (c) cardiac striated
190. How many documented varieties of basmati rice (4) (a) cardiac striated, (b) smooth- striated, (c)
are grown in India? skeletal - striated
(1) 27 (2) 37
(3) 20000 (4) 50000

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193. Arrange the type of WBC in the increasing order 195. Assertion(A): Allergy is exaggerated response of
of their abundancy. the immune system.
A = Eosinophil Reason(R): Allergy is confined to a person only.
B = Neutrophil (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
C = Basophil true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
D = Monocyte of Assertion (A).
E = Lymphocyte
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) A → B → C → D → E true but Reason (R) is NOT a correct
(2) B →E →D→A→C explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) C → A → D → E → B (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) A →C→D→E→B (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
194. Identify A to H in the given figure. 196. Match the following (column-I with column-II)
Column I Column II
(a) Monascus (i) Butyric acid
(b) Clostridium butylicum (ii) Statins
(c) Acetobacter aceti (iii) Lactic acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Acetic acid
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) A-Neurotransmitters, B-Pre-synaptic membrane, (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
C-Receptors, D-Axon. E-Synaptic vesicles, F-
Axon terminal, G-Synaptic cleft, H-Post-synaptic (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
membrane 197. Match the organism with its use in
biotechnology.
(2) A-Axon, B-Axon terminal, C-Synaptic
vesicles, D-Presynaptic membrane, E- (i) Cloning
Synaptic cleft, F-Post-synaptic membrane, (A) Bacillus thuringiensis vector
G-receptors, H-Neurotransmitters (ii)
(3) A-Receptors, B-Post-synaptic membrane, (B) Thermus aquaticus Construction
of first rDNA
C-Pre-synaptic membrane, D-Axon molecule
terminal, E-Neurotransmitters, F-Synaptic
cleft, G-Synaptic vesicles, H-Axon (C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (iii) polymerase
DNA

(4) A-Axon terminal, B-Neurotransmitters, C- (D) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) proteins

Synaptic vesicles, D-Axon, E-Presynaptic
membrane, F-Post-synaptic membrane, G-
Synaptic vesicles, H-Synaptic cleft
Cry
Select the correct option from the following.
(1) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(iii); (D)-(i)
(2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(iii); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(i)
(4) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

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198. A. Increase alertness 199. What is the function of vocal sac in male frog?
B. Pupilary constriction (1) Respiration (2) Excretion
C Piloerection
D. Increase heart rate (3) Copulation (4) Mating call
E. Increase respiratory rate 200. In frog Bidder's canal is present in :
F. Sweating
(1) Testis (2) Cloaca
Which of the above are effects of adrenaline
(1) All except C (3) Kidney (4) Urinary bladder
(2) All except B and F
(3) All except B
(4) All except B, E and F

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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