PRE MOCK TEST 7

EXAMINATION

Important instructions :

1. The test is 3 hour 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200
multiple - choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. 50 questions in each subjects are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below.
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 Questions in each subject. All questions
are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 questions in each subject, a candidate
needs to attempt any 10 questions out of 15 .
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/-
marking responses.
3. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the exami-
nation with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of
unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this exam-
ination.

Name of the candidate :

Roll Number :

1 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 PHYSICS

SECTION A 5. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1

to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It
takes time t2 when lift is moving up with
1. The constant acceleration. Then
[ x equation
] of wave is given by y = A sin
(1) t1 > t2 (2) t2 > t1
ω − k where ω is the angular velocity and
v (3) t1 = t2 (4) t1 > t2
v is the linear velocity. Write dimensional
formula of k. 6. An block is kept on an inclined plane of an-
[ ] [ ]
(1) M0 L0 T1 (2) M1 L0 T−1 gle 30◦ . The coefficient of kinetic friction
[ 0 1 1] [ 1 −1 1 ]
(3) M L T (4) M L T between the block and the inclined plane
p
is (1/ 3). What is the acceleration of the
2. In an experiment the value of two resistance block?
were measured to be R1 = (5.0 ± 0.2)Ω & (1) Zero (2) 2 m/s2
R 2 = (10.0 ± 0.1)Ω. Then their combined re-
(3) 1.5 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2
sistance in series will be :-
(1) (15 ± 0.1)Ω (2) (15 ± 0.2)Ω 7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm
(3) (15 ± 2%)Ω (4) (15 ± 3%)Ω at two revolutions per second. The acceler-
ation of the particle in m/s2 is :-
3. Find the incorrect option for given v-t graph (1) π2 (2) 8π2
:- (3) 4π 2
(4) 2π2

8. The distance of the centre of mass of the T-

shaped plate from O is :-

(1) In AB, DE and GH velocity and acceler-

ation have same direction
(2) Total distance in ABCDEFG is 600 m (1) 7 m (2) 2.7 m
(3) acceleration in BC and EF is zero (3) 4 m (4) 1 m
(4) at point C velocity of particle is chang-
ing its direction 9. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass M
moving at speed v collides elastically with
4. A particle is kept at rest at origin. Another another block of same mass M which is ini-
particle starts from (5, 0) with a velocity of tially at rest. After collision the first block
−4 î + 3 ĵ . Find their closest distance of ap-
moves at an angle θ to its initial direction
proach :- v
and has a speed . The second block’s speed
(1) 3 m (2) 4 m 3
after the collision is :-
(3) 5 m (4) 2 m

2 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 p p
3 2 2 (1) ρ 3 < ρ 1 < ρ 2 (2) ρ 1 > ρ 3 > ρ 2
(1) v (2) v
2 3 (3) ρ 1 < ρ 2 < ρ 3 (4) ρ 1 < ρ 3 < ρ 2
3 3
(3) v (4) p v
4 2 13. Two rods of copper and brass having the
same length and cross-section are joined end
10. If two discs of moment of inertia I 1 and to end. The free end of the copper is at 0◦ C
I 2 rotating about collinear axis passing and of brass is at 80◦ C in steady state. If
through their centres of mass and perpen- thermal conductivity of copper is 4 times of
dicular to their plane with angular speeds, that of brass. Find the temperature at junc-
ω1 and ω2 respectively in opposite direction tion of two rods
are made to rotate combinedly along same (1) 80◦ C (2) 64◦ C
axis, then the magnitude of angular velocity (3) 20 C
◦
(4) 16◦ C
of the system is :-
I 1 ω1 + I 2 ω 2 I 1 ω 1 − I 2 ω2 14. If C p and C v are the specific heats of nitro-
(1) (2) gen per unit mass at constant pressure and
I1 + I2 I1 + I2
I 1 ω1 + I 2 ω 2 I 1 ω 1 − I 2 ω2 volume respectively, then :-
(3) (4) (1) Cp − Cv = R (2) Cp − Cv =
R
ω1 + ω2 ω1 − ω2 14
R
11. For a body escape velocity is 11 km/s. If the (3) Cp − Cv = (4) Cp − Cv = 28R
body is projected at an angle of 60◦ with the
28
vertical, then escape velocity will be 15. Two S.H.Ms. s 1 = asin ω t and s 2 = bsin ω t
p
(1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s are superimposed on a particle. The s1 and
11 s2 are along the direction which make angle
(3) p km/s (4) 33 km/s
3 37◦ with each other then :-
(1) the particle will perform S.H.M.
12. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids
(2) the particle will not perform S.H.M.
1 and 2 having densities ρ 1 and ρ 2 , respec-
(3) the particle will perform periodic mo-
tively. A solid ball, made of a material of
tion but not S.H.M.
density ρ 3 , is dropped in the jar. It comes
(4) the motion will not be oscillatory.
to equilibrium in the position shown in the
figure. Which of the following is true for 16. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate
ρ 1 , ρ 2 &ρ 3
α for some time. After which it decelerates
at a constant rate β and comes to rest. If to-
tal time elapsed is t, then maximum velocity
acquired by car will be
( 2 ) ( 2 )
α − β2 t α + β2 t
(1) (2)
αβ αβ
(α + β) t αβ t
(3) (4)
αβ α+β

17. Dimension of electric field is :

[ ] [ ]
(1) MLT3 A−1 (2) MLT−3 A1

3 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 [ ] [ ]
(3) MLT−3 A−1 (4) MLT3 A1

18. A part of circuit given here. If VA − VB = 4V ,

then find charge on 4µF capacitor :-

(1) Zero (2) 2µC

(3) 8µC (4) 4µC
(1) A (2) B
19. In the circuit shown, if key K is open, then (3) C (4) D
ammeter reading will be
22. In absence of external magnetic field mag-
netic moment of paramagnetic material is :
-
(1) zero
(2) Infinite
(3) between zero and one.
(4) Much greater than one.

23. A stepdown transformer reduces the voltage

(1) 50 A (2) 2 A
of a transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V.
10
(3) 0.5 A (4) A The power delivered by it is 880 W and its
9
efficiency is 88%. The input current is :-
20. In a meter bridge, the null point is found at (1) 4.65 mA (2) 4.65 A
a distance of 25 cm from A. If now a resis- (3) 0.4545 A (4) 46.5 A
tance of 10Ω is connected in parallel with S,
the null point occurs at mid point of AB. The 24. In an AC circuit the emf(e) and the current
value of R is :- (i) at any instant are given respectively, by
: e = E0 sin ωt and i = I0 sin(ωt − ϕ). The av-
erage power in the circuit over one cycle of
AC is :-
E0 I0
(1) cos ϕ (2) E0 I0
(1) 6.67Ω (2) 1.67Ω 2
(3) 2.67Ω (4) 4.67Ω E0 I0 E0 I0
(3) (4) sin ϕ
2 2
21. Figure shows three long straight wires P, Q
and R carrying currents normal to the plane 25. Out of the following options which one can
of the paper. All three currents have the be used to produce a propagating electro-
same magnitude. Which arrow best shows magnetic wave?
the direction of the resultant force on the (1) A charge moving at constant velocity
wire P (2) A stationary charge

4 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 (3) A chargeless particle 32. If potential Barrier curve for unbiased diode
(4) An accelerating charge given below. Then the potential barrier
curve for forward biased will be.
26. An object is 20 cm away from a concave mir-
ror of focal length 15 cm. If the object moves
with a speed of 5 cm/s along principle axis,
then the speed of the image will be :-
(1) 45 cm/s (2) 27 cm/s
(3) 9 cm/s (4) 10 cm/s

27. A man uses a convex lens of focal length

5 cm as magnifying glass. The least distance
of distinct vision of the man is 25 cm. Calcu-
late the magnification if the image is formed
at the least distance of distinct vision.
(1) 1.5 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6

28. In YDSE, the intensity of central bright

fringe is 8 mW/m2 . What will be the inten-
sity at λ/6 path difference?
(1) 8 mW/m2 (2) 6 mW/m2
33. Average velocity of a particle executing
(3) 4 mW/m 2
(4) 2 mW/m2
SHM in one complete vibration is
Aω
29. If the energy of electron is 10keV then find (1) zero (2)
2
out the value of de-broglie wavelength asso- A ω2
(3) A ω (4)
ciated with it :- 2
(1) 0.186Å (2) 1.227Å
(3) 0.122Å (4) 12.27Å 34. If potential energy is given by U = 2 x2 y −
3 yz. Then force at the position (1, −1, −1) is
30. Of the various series of the hydrogen spec- :
p
trum, the one which lies wholly in the ultra- (1) 5 N (2) 5 2 N
violet region is :- (3) 25 N (4) 15 N
(1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series
(3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series 35. Figure shows the vertical section of friction-
less surface. A block of mass 2 kg is released
31. In a vessel, the gas is at pressure P . If the from the position A; its KE as it reaches the
mass of all the molecules is halved and their position C is :-
speed is doubled, then the resultant pressure
will be
(1) 2P (2) P
(3) P /2 (4) 4P

5 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 of the human body is 0.83calg−1 ◦ C−1 :-
(1) 8.2◦ C (2) 4.01◦ C
(3) 6.0 C
◦
(4) 5.03◦ C

40. A gas at NTP is suddenly compressed to one

fourth of its original volume. If γ is sup-
posed to be 3/2, then the final pressure is
(1) 180 J (2) 140 J
:-
(3) 40 J (4) 280 J
3
(1) 4 atmosphere (2) atmosphere
SECTION B 2
1
(3) 8 atmosphere (4) atmosphere
4
36. Coefficlent of linear expansion of brass and 41. A mass is suspended separately by two
steel rods are α1 and α2 . Lengths of brass springs of spring constants k1 and k2 in suc-
and steel rods are l 1 and l 2 respectively. If cessive order. The time periods of oscilla-
( l 2 − l 1 ) is maintained same at all tempera- tions in the two cases are T1 and T2 respec-
tures, which one of the following relations tively. If the same mass be suspended by
holds good? connecting two springs in parallel (as shown
(1) α21 l 2 = α22 l 1 (2) α1 l 1 = α2 l 2 in figure), then the time period of the oscil-
lation is T. The correct relation is :
(3) α1 l 2 = α2 l 1 (4) α1 l 22 = α2 l 21

37. The acceleration due to gravity at a height

0.5 km above the earth is the same as at a
depth d below the surface of earth. Then :-
3
(1) d = 1 km (2) d = km
2
1 (1) T2 = T21 + T22 (2) T−2 = T−2 −2
1 + T2
(3) d = 2 km (4) d = km
2
(3) T−1 = T−1 −1
1 + T2 (4) T = T1 + T2
38. Find the viscosity of glycerine (having den-
sity 1.3 g cm−3 ) if a steel ball of 2 mm ra- 42. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment
dius (density 8 g cm−3 ) acquires a terminal of 2 × 104 J T−1 is free to rotate in a hor-
velocity of 4 cm s−1 in falling freely in the izontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field
tank of glycerine B = 6 × 10−4 T exists in the space. The work
(1) 14.6 poise (2) 12.2 poise done in taking the magnet slowly from a di-
(3) 10.4 poise (4) 9.8 poise rection parallel to the field to a direction 60◦
from the field is
39. A normal diet furnishes 200kcal to a 60 kg (1) 12 J (2) 6 J
person in a day. If this energy was used to (3) 2 J (4) 0.6 J
heat the person with no losses to the sur-
roundings, how much would the person’s 43. A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2
temperature increases ? The specific heat and B3 are connected to a 250 V source, as
shown in the figure. Now P1 , P2 and P3 are

6 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 the output powers of the bulbs B1 , B2 and B3 (3) 30◦ (4) 45◦
respectively. Then :-
47. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a
volume V at a pressure P and absolute tem-
perature T . The mass of each molecule of
the gas is m. Which of the following gives
the density of the gas?
(1) P /( kT ) (2) Pm/(kT )
(3) P /( kTV ) (4) mkT
(1) P1 > P2 = P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P 1 < P2 = P3 (4) P 1 < P 2 < P 3 48. Momentum of photon of wavelength λ is
hv
(1) (2) zero
44. The direction of magnetic force on the elec- c
tron as shown in the diagram is along hλ hλ
(3) (4)
c2 c

49. A helium nucleus 2 He4 can be produced by

fusing two deuterium nuclei. If the nuclear
masses of deuterium and helium nuclei are
2.0149 a.m.u. and 4.0027 amu respectively,
(1) y-axis (2) − y axis then the energy liberated in this process is :-
(3) z-axis (4) − z axis (1) 28.3MeV (2) 25.24MeV
(3) 47.6MeV (4) 11.9MeV
45. First law of thermodynamics is consequence
of conservation of 50. Figure gives a system of logic gates. It can
(1) work (2) energy be found that to produce a high output (1)
(3) heat (4) all of these at R, we must have :-

46. The refractive index of the material of a

p
prism is 2 and its refracting angle is 30◦ .
One of the refracting surfaces of the prism
is silvered. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path after reflection from the sil-
vered surface if its angle of incidence on the
(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1
prism is :-
(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0
(1) 60◦ (2) 0◦

CHEMISTRY

7 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 SECTION A Choose the correct answer from the follow-
ing options.
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
51. Which of the following can not be used to (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes? (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(1) CrO3 in anhydrous medium (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) Pyridinium chlorochromate
(3) KMnO4 in acidic medium 55. Select the correct statements.
(4) Heating in presence of Cu at 573 K (I) Heat and work are path dependent
function.
52. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes (II) Mass and internal energy are intensive
by heating with conc. H2 SO4 , the initiation properties.
step is: (III) For a cyclic process ∆ H=0
(IV) Mass and density are extensive prop-
(1) Elimination of water
erty.
(2) Formation of an ester (V) Surface tension is an intensive property
(3) Formation of carbocation Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Protonation of alcohol molecule given below.
(1) I and V (2) II and IV
53. Which one of the following equations does (3) I, III and V (4) I, II and III
not correctly represent the first law of ther-
modynamics for the given process involving 56. 1 mole of FeC2 O4 is oxidised by x mole of
an ideal gas? Cr2 O27− in acidic medium. Here, x is
(Assume non-expansion work is zero) (1) 3 (2) 1.5
(1) Adiabatic process: ∆U = −W (3) 0.5 (4) 1.0
(2) Isochoric process : ∆U = q
(3) Isothermal process : q = −W 57. Which of the following statements is incor-
(4) Cyclic process : q = −W rect?
(1) Sulphuric acid is a molecule which con-
54. Match List-I with List-II. tain coordinate bonds.
(2) Atomic orbitals of C in CO2 is sp-
hybridised.
(3) Hydrogen bonding is present in hydro-
gen sulphide.
(4) Number of pi-bonds in naphthalene is 5
.

58. Given below are two statements, one is la-

belled as Assertion (A)and the other is la-
belled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): PCl5 is well known, but NCl5

8 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 is not. (1) Antilog [25.42] (2) Antilog [2.542]
Reason (R): Nitrogen does not have d - (3) Antilog [24.52] (4) Antilog [254.2]
orbitals in its valence shell.
In the light of the above statements, choose 62. (NH4 )2 CO3 is added to precipitate out the
the most appropriate answer from the op- carbonates of group V cations. Na2 CO3 is
tions given below. not added because
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is (1) CaCO3 is soluble in Na2 CO3
not the correct explanation of (A). (2) Na2 CO3 increases the solubility of
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. group V cations.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (3) MgCO3 will be precipitated out in
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is group V.
the correct explanation of (A). (4) Na2 CO3 is weaker electrolyte than
(NH4 )2 CO3 .
59. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: O2 and F2 both stabilise higher 63. Match the List-I with List-II.
oxidation states of metals but the higher ox-
idation state of metal with O2 is more stable.
Statement II: XeF4 is square planar.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are Choose the correct answer from the options
false. given below.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
false. (2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is (3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
true. (4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
64. Which of the following are isoelectronic and
true.
isostructural?
60. If the rate constant of a reaction with virus NO− 2− −
3 , CO3 , ClO3 , SO3
is 4.8 × 10−4 s−1 , then the time required for
(1) NO− 2−
3 , CO3 (2) SO3 , NO−
the virus to become 80% inactivated is 3

[Given : log 5 = 0.699 ] (3) ClO− 2−

3 , CO3 (4) CO23− , SO3
(1) 48 min (2) 62 min
65. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of ni-
(3) 39 min (4) 56 min
trogen in NO2 + , NO3 − and NH4 + are
61. 10Cl− (aq) + 2MnO− +
4 (aq) + 16H (aq) ⇌ (1) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively
2+
5Cl2 ( g) + 2Mn (aq) + 8H2 O( l ) (2) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
The value of E ◦ for this reaction is 0.15 V. (3) sp2 , sp and sp3 respectively
What is the value of the equilibrium con-
(4) sp2 , sp3 and sp respectively
stant (K C ) for this reaction?

9 PRE MOCK TEST 7

66. The pair from the following pairs having to
both compounds with net non zero dipole (1) increase the ionisation of the com-
moment is pound.
(1) cis-butene, trans-butene (2) decrease the melting point of the com-
(2) CH2 − Cl2 , CHCl3 pound.
(3) benzene, anisidine (3) increase the reactivity of the com-
(4) 1,4-dichlorobenzene, 1,3-dichlorobenzene pound.
(4) convert the covalent compound into a
67. Uncertainty in position of minute particle of mixture of ionic compounds.
mass 25 g in space is 10−5 m. What is the un-
certainty in its velocity 72. Given that the standard potential of Cu2+ /Cu
) ( )
(in ms−1 ? h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js and Cu+ /Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V respec-
(1) 2.1 × 10−34 (2) 0.5 × 10−34 tively, E ◦ of Cu2+ /Cu+ is
(1) 0.182 V (2) 0.158 V
(3) 2.1 × 10−28 (4) 0.5 × 10−23
(3) −0.182 V (4) −0.158 V
68. Glucose on reaction with ammoniacal silver
73. Choose the incorrect statement according to
nitrate gives silver mirror because it has
the Arrhenius equation
(1) alcoholic silver nitrate (1) a high activation energy usually implies
(2) ester group a fast reaction.
(2) rate constant increases with increase in
(3) aldehyde group
temperature this is due to greater num-
(4) ketone group ber of collision whose energy exceeds
the activation energy.
69. If an ideal solution is made by mixing 2 (3) higher the magnitude of activation en-
moles of benzene ( p◦ = 266 mm of Hg ) and ergy, stronger is the temperature de-
3 moles of another liquid ( p◦ = 236 mm of pendence of the rate constant.
Hg ). The total vapour pressure of the solu- (4) the pre-exponential factor is a measure
tion at the same temperature would be of the rate at which collisions occur, ir-
(1) 502 mm of Hg (2) 248 mm of Hg respective of their energy .
(3) 600 mm of Hg (4) 250.6 mm of Hg
74. The strength of an aqueous solution of I2 can
be determined by titrating the solution with
70. In a first order reaction, the concentration
standard solution of
of the reactant changes from 0.6M to 0.3M
in 30 min. The time taken for the concen- (1) oxalic acid
tration to change from 0.1M to 0.025M is (2) sodium thiosulphate
(1) 60 min (2) 300 min (3) sodium hydroxide
(3) 3 min (4) 15 min (4) Mohr’s salt.

71. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is 75. Given below are two statements, one is la-
fused with a piece of sodium metal in order belled as Assertion (A) and the other is la-

10 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 belled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) Dipositive zinc exhibits dia-
magnetism due to loss of two electrons from
3 d -orbital of neutral atom.
Reason (R) The electronic configuration of
zinc is [Ar] 3 d 10 4s2 .
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the op-
tions given below.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
the correct explanation of ( A ).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is not true.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
76. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
(1) Cytosine and adenine
(2) Cytosine and guanine
(3) Cytosine and thymine
(4) Cytosine and uracil
Si4+ is not very strong.
(c) Si has very high melting point
(d) Si does not react with chlorine.
(1) Both (c) and (d) (2) Both (a) and (b)
(3) Both (b) and (d) (4) Only (b)
80. The dipole moments of halo compounds are
in the order
(1) CH3 Cl > CCl4 > CH2 Cl2 > CHCl3
(2) CHCl3 > CH3 Cl > CH2 Cl2 > CCl4
(3) CH3 Cl > CH2 Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4
(4) CHCl3 > CCl4 > CH3 Cl > CH2 Cl2
81. High oxidising power of fluorine is due to
(1) high electron affinity.
(2) high heat of dissociation and low heat
of hydration.
(3) low heat of dissociation and high heat
of hydration.
(4) high heat of dissociation and high heat
of hydration.

77. Which of the following does not give iso- 82. The value of log K c for the reaction,
cyanide test PCl5 ( g) −→ PCl3 ( g) + Cl2 ( g) at 400 K if
(1) Aniline ∆ H ◦ = 772 kJ mol−1 and

(2) Methanamine ∆S ◦ = 122JK−1 mol−1 is

(3) N-methylmethanamine (1) −3.71 (2) 3.71
(4) Ethanamine (3) 25.42 (4) −25.42

78. Among Al2 O3 , SiO2 , P2 O3 and SO2 the cor- 83. Which one of the following exhibit (s)
rect order of acid strength is optical isomerism
(1) Al2 O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2 O3 (a) [Cr (C2 O4 )3 ]3−
(2) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2 O3 < P2 O3 (b) cis- [PtCl2 (en)2 ]2+
(3) SO2 < P2 O3 < SiO2 < Al2 O3 (c) cis - Platin
(4) Al2 O3 < SiO2 < P2 O3 < SO2 (1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c).
79. [SiF6 ]2− is known whereas [SiCl6 ]2− not.
Possible reasons are? 84. The bond dissociation energy of B − F in
(a) Six large Cl cannot be accommodated
− BF3 is 646 kJ mol−1 whereas that of C − F
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size. in CF4 is 515 kJ mol−1 . The correct reason
(b) Interaction between lone pair of Cl− and for higher B-F bond dissociation energy as

11 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 compared to that of C − F is (1) 13 × 10−5 Ms−1 (2) 28 × 10−5 Ms−1
(1) significant pπ − pπ interaction between (3) 7.6 × 10−4 Ms−1 (4) 2.13 × 10−5 Ms−1
B and F in BF3 whereas there is no pos-
sibility of such interaction between C 87. If the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of
and F in CF4 . hydrogen atom is A , then the longest wave-
(2) lower degree of pπ - pπ interaction be- length in Paschen series of He+ is
tween B and F in BF3 than that between (1)
36 A
(2)
5A
C and F in CF4 . 7 9
(3) smaller size of B-atom as compared to 36A 9A
(3) (4)
that of C-atom. 5 5
(4) stronger bond between B and F in BF3
88. There are four elements p, q, r and s having
as compared to that between C and F in
atomic numbers Z − 1, Z, Z + 1 and Z + 2 re-
CF4 .
spectively. If the element q is an inert gas,
85. Given below are two statements. select the correct statements
Statement I: Perfectly ideal solution is not (i) p has most negative electron gain en-
possible with respect to binary solution of thalpy in the respective period.
two liquids. (ii) r is an alkali metal.
Statement II: No two substances can have (iii) s exists in +2 oxidation state.
exactly the same nature of intermolecular Choose the correct answer from the options
forces and also of the same magnitude. given below.
In the light of the above statements, choose (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
the correct answer from the options given (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are 89. Hydrolysis of which of the following com-
false. pound will give carbolic acid?
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is (1) Cumene
false. (2) Benzene diazonium chloride
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is (3) Benzal chloride
true. (4) Ethylene glycol ketol
(4) Both statement I and statement II are [ ]
true. 90. If at 350 K the concentration of H3 O+ is
10−6 M, then the value of K w at this temper-
SECTION B ature will be
(1) 10−13 M2 (2) 10−6 M2
(3) 10−12 M2 (4) 10−14 M2
86. Consider the reaction,
91. Which of the following compound is most
2 N2 O5 ( g) −→ 4NO2 ( g) + O2 ( g)
stable?

If the concentration of NO2 increases by

8.5 × 10−3 M in 100 s, then the rate of reac-
tion will be

12 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 (1) 3-Methylbutan-1-ol & 2-Methylbutan2-
ol.
92. Which of the following is correct regarding
(2) 3-Methylbutan-3-ol & 2-Methylbutan1-
bond enthalpy?
ol.
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2 (3) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol & 3-Methylbutan1-
(2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 ol.
(4) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol & 2-Methylbutan2-
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
ol
(4) Cl2 > F2 > I2 > Br2
98. Given below are two statements.
93. Which one of the following is likely to give
Statement I The solubility of n-alcohol in
a precipitate with AgNO3 solution?
water decreases with an increase in molec-
(1) (CH3 )3 CCl (2) CHCl3 ular weight.
(3) CH2 = CH − Cl (4) CCl4 Statement II The reactive proportion of the
hydrocarbon part in alcohols increases with
94. Which is incorrect about primary standard? increasing molecular weight which permits
(1) They are stable in air. enhanced hydrogen bonding with water.
(2) They exist in highly pure state. In the light of the above statements, choose
(3) They readily dissolve in water. the correct answer from the options given
(4) All of these. below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
95. What is the compound A ?
false.
(2) Statement I is true but statement II is
false.
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Malonic acid true.
(3) Succinic acid (4) Adipic acid (4) Both statement I and statement II are
true.
96. Among the following compounds, the
strongest acid is : 99. In an aprotic solvent, which relative or-
der best describes the nucleophilicity of the
(1) HC ≡ CH (2) C6 H6 halide ions?
(3) C2 H6 (4) CH3 OH (1) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride >> Fluo-
ride
97. X&Y are respectively? (2) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride > Fluoride
(3) Iodide < Bromide < Chloride < Fluoride

13 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 (4) Iodide < Bromide > Chloride > Fluoride 0.0054◦ C. If K f for water is 1.80 , the cor-
rect formulation of the above molecule is
100. A 0.001 molal solution of [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl4 ] in
(1) [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl3 ] Cl (2) [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl2 ] Cl2
water had a freezing point depression of
(3) [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl] Cl2 (4) [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl4 ]

BOTANY
SECTION A 103. Consider the following statements about
Deuteromycetes.
(I) Some members are saprophytes or par-
asites.
101. Lichens are composite organisms consisting
(II) A large number of members are decom-
of a fungus and a photosynthetic partner (al-
posers of litter and help in mineral cy-
gae), growing together in a symbiotic rela-
cling.
tionship. Consider the following statements
(III) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Tricho-
about lichens,
derma are examples of Deuteromycetes.
(I) Lichens are very good air pollution in-
Which of the above are correct?
dicators.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(II) Algal partner and fungal partner live
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
mutually.
(III) Algae prepares food for fungi.
104. Which of the following group always pro-
(IV) Fungi provides shelter and absorbs wa-
duce an infectious spore like stage in their
ter and minerals for algal partner
life cycle?
Which of the statements given above are
(1) Amoeboid protozoans
correct?
(2) Ciliated protozoans
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV
(3) Flagellated protozoans
(3) I, II and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
(4) Sporozoans
102. Assertion (A) Fungi are widespread in dis-
105. Mosses and ferns are found in moist and
tribution and they even live on or inside
shady places because, both
other plants and animals.
Reason (R) Fungi are able to grow any- (1) Require presence of water for fertilisa-
where on land, water or on other organisms tion
because they have variety of pigments in- (2) Do not need sunlight for photosynthesis
cluding chlorophyll, carotenoids, fucoxan- (3) Depend for their nutrition on microor-
thin and phycoerythrin. ganisms which survive only at low tem-
perature
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the cor-
(4) Cannot compete with sun-loving plants.
rect explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
106. Natural system of classification was pro-
correct explanation of A
posed by
(3) A is true, but R is false
(1) Linnaeus
(4) Both A and R are false

14 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 (2) Hutchinson
(3) Engler and Prantl
(4) Bentham and Hooker.

107. Algae have cell wall made up of

(1) Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(2) Pectins, cellulose and proteins
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(4) Cellulose, galactans and mannans.

108. Primary root is the direct elongation of the

(1) Pedicel (2) Radicle
(3) Plumule (4) Stamen

109. Twisted aestivation is found in:-

(1) Malvaceae (2) Asteraceae
(3) Fabaceae (4) Poaceae (1) A-I-P, B-II-q, C-III-r, D-IV-s
(2) A-III-q, B-II-s, C-IV-p, D-I-r
110. Groundnut belongs to the family :- (3) A-III-q, B-II-s, C-I-r, D-IV-p
(1) Fabaceae (2) Malvaceae (4) A-III-q, B-II-r, C-I-p, D-IV-s
(3) Liliaceae (4) Asteraceae
113. Consider the following statements and
111. Match column-I with column-II and choose choose the correct option
the option which shows their correct combi- (1) The thread like cytoplasmic strands,
nation. running from one cell to other is known
as plasma membrane
(2) Xylem and phloem constitute the vas-
cular bundle
(3) The first formed xylem elements are de-
scribed as metaxylem
(4) Radial vascular bundles are mainly
found in the leaves

114. Match the following in column I with col-

umn II and choose the correct combination
(1) A − IV , B − V , C − I I I, D − I, E − V I, F − I I
(2) A-IV, B - III, C-V, D - I, E-II, F - VI
(3) A − V I, B − IV , C − I I I, D − V , E − I, F − I I
(4) A − VI, B − IV, C − V, D − III, E − I, F − II

112. Match column - I, II and III and choose the

correct option

15 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 119. The ’power house’ of cell is
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
(3) Ribosome (4) Golgi complex

120. If the cell has 14 chromosomes at inter-

phase, then, how many chromosomes will
the cell have at telophase of cell cycle?
(1) 28 (2) 14
(3) 7 (4) 21

121. Which one of the following stages corre-

(1) A − 3, B − 2, C − 1, D − 4 sponds to Mendel’s law of independent as-
(2) A − 2, B − 1, C − 4, D − 3 sortment?
(3) A − 1, B − 2, C − 3, D − 4 (1) Prophase (2) Anaphase
(4) A − 3, B − 4, C − 2, D − 1 (3) Metaphase (4) Telophase

115. Which of the following is absent in phloem 122. Meiosis I is known as

of pinus (1) Equational (2) Reductional
(1) Phloem parenchyma (3) Mitosis (4) None of these
(2) Sieve cells
(3) Companion cells 123. Maize, Sugarcane and some other tropical
(4) None of these plants have high efficiency of CO2 fixation
because they operate
116. The type of ribosomes found in prokaryotes
is (1) Calvin cycle
(1) 70S type (2) 80S type (2) Hatch-Slack cycle
(3) 30S type (4) 50S type (3) TCA cycle

117. The main arena of various type of activities (4) Amphibolic pathway
of a cell is
124. In maize, mesophyll cells perform photosyn-
(1) Plasma membrane
thetic cycle
(2) Mitochondria
(1) C4 (2) C3
(3) Cytoplasm
(3) C2 (4) C1
(4) Nucleus
125. Which of the following is proved by
118. Choose the incorrect option.
Cornelius Van Niel
(1) Centriole composed of tubulin protein
(1) Oxygen is released from CO2
(2) Centrosome serves as microtubule or-
(2) Oxygen is released from H2 O
ganising centre
(3) Oxygen is released from both H2 O and
(3) Centriole is present in all plant and
CO2
animal cells
(4) None of these
(4) Set of centrioles together form centro-
some

16 PRE MOCK TEST 7

126. Which one of the following is the first step over the period of one day. If, AGR = abso-
of glycolysis ? lute growth rate and RGR = relative growth
(1) Breakdown of glucose rate, then select the correct option
(2) Conversion of glucose into fructose
(3) Phosphorylation of glucose
(4) Dehydrogenation of glucose,

127. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of

oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed be-
cause
(1) A proton gradient forms across the in- AGR RGR for AGR for leaf B
ner membrane leaf A leaf A leaf B RGR for
(2) There is a change in the permeability of (1) 1% 1 2% 2
the inner mitochondrial membrane to- (2) 100% 5 10% 5
wards adenosine diphosphate (ADP) (3) 5 100% 5 10%
(3) High energy bonds are formed in mito- (4) 5 100% 5 100%
chondrial proteins
132. Read the following statements regarding
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into
arithmetic growth and select the correct an-
intermembrane space.
swer.
128. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is oxidised (i) Rate of growth is constant.
during glycolysis. What is the fate of hy- (ii) One daughter cell remains meristem-
drogen atom and electron liberated ? atic while the other one differentiates
(1) They bring about oxidation of NAD and matures.
(2) They are transferred to oxaloacetic acid (iii) Mathematical expression is L1 = L0 + rt.
(3) They are eliminated to form methane (1) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
(4) They reduce NAD+ . (2) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(3) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
129. Medullary rays are formed of parenchyma- (4) All statements are correct.
tous cells, which are present in ......
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root 133. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of
(3) Monocot leaf (4) Dicot stem endosperm in angiosperms requires
(1) Fusion of one polar nucleus and second
130. Which of the following plant growth regu- male gamete only
lators, is derivative of accessory photosyn- (2) Fusion of two polar nuclei and male ga-
thetic pigments? mete only
(1) Abscisic acid (3) Fusion of 4 or more polar nuclei and
(2) Gibberellic acid male gamete only
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) All the above type of fusion in different
(4) Ethylene types of angiosperms.

131. The given figure shows growth of two leaves

17 PRE MOCK TEST 7

134. Which one of the following statement is not 137. Which of the following statement is incor-
true?
(1) Pollen grains are released from anthers
at 2-celled stage
(2) Sporogenous tissue directly behaves as
the megaspore mother cell
(3) Megaspore divides thrice to form an
eight nucleate embryo sac
(4) Egg and synergids always lie near the
micropylar end of ovule
135. Consider the following statements with re-
spect to flowering plants :
(a) Pollen grains represent the male ga- 138. PCR is used for which of the following?
metes
(b) Functional megaspore develops into
embryo sac which represents the female
gamete
(c) Transfer of pollen grains from anther
to stigma of different plant is known as
xenogamy
(d) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to
stigma of another flower of the same
plant is known as geitonogamy.
Of the above statements
(1) a and b alone are correct
(2) a and c alone are correct
(3) a and d alone are correct
(4) c and d alone are correct
SECTION B
136. Genetic engineering is possible, because
(1) We can cut DNA at specific sites by en-
donucleases like DNase I.
(2) Restriction endonucleases purified
from bacteria can be used invitro.
(3) The phenomenon of transduction in
bacteria is well understood.
(4) We cannot see DNA by electron micro-
scope.
rect?
(1) EcoR I cuts the DNA between bases G
and A.
(2) Each EcoR I restriction endonuclease
recognizes a specific palindromic nu-
cleotide sequences in DNA.
(3) When cut by same restriction enzyme,
the resultant DNA fragments do not
have the same kind of sticky ends.
(4) Making multiple identical copies of any
template DNA is called cloning.
(1) Constructing the DNA maps
(2) Detecting the presence of transgene in
an organism
(3) Amplifying gene of interest
(4) All of these
139. Assertion:(A) All endonuclease cut DNA at
specific sites.
Reason:(R) Endonucleases are found in
viruses.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the cor-
rect explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
140. Which of the following is incorrectly
matched?
(1) Ethylene-Ripening hormone
(2) Cytokinins - Root initiation in callus
(3) Somatic embryo - Embryo produced
from a vegetative cells
(4) Meristem culture - Virus free plants
141. Protoplast of two different species are fused
in
(1) Micropropagation
18 PRE MOCK TEST 7
 (2) Somatic hybridization
(3) Clonal propagation
(4) Autoradiography
142. Cry gene is obtained from
(1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Rhizopus leguminosarum
(4) Rhizobium phaseoli
143. Select the wrong statement
(1) Human insulin is being commercially
produced from a transgenic species of
Escherichia coli
(2) The first transgenic Cow, Rosie, pro-
duced human α-lactalbumin enriched
milk
(3) Human protein, α-1-antitrypsin is used
to treat emphysema
(4) Bt toxin genes cryIAc control corn
borer.
144. Which statement is correct about Bt cotton
(1) Contains a gene from jelly fish which
makes it glow in dark
(2) It contains a gene form Bacillus bacteria
which is not useful to plant
(3) It contains a gene from Bacillus bacteria 149. Photosynthetic efficiency is
which kills the pests
(4) It contains a gene from Bacillus bacteria
which kills other plants
145. Homeostasis is
(1) Tendency of biological systems to 150. Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are
change with change in environment
(2) Organism try to maintain the con-
stancy of its internal environment de-
spite varying external conditions
(3) Disturbance of self regulatory system
and natural controls
(4) Mechanism to maintain disorderliness
in organism
19
146. Which of the following statement is false?
(1) Regulators are organisms that are able
to maintain homeostasis by physiologi-
cal means or sometimes by behavioural
means.
(2) All birds and mammals, and very few
lower vertebrates and invertebrates are
capable of osmoregulation and ther-
moregulation.
(3) Sweating and shivering are the means
of thermoregulation by human.
(4) Plants are capable of thermoregulation.
147. If N is the population density at time t, then
its density at time t + 1 is .
(1) N t+1 = N t + [(B + I ) + (D + E )]
(2) N t+1 = N t − [(B + I ) + (D + E )]
(3) N t+1 = N t + [(B + I ) − (D + E )]
(4) N t+1 = N t − [(B + I ) − (D + E )]
148. Thorns of citrus and bougainvillea are the
most common morphological means of
(1) Reproduction
(2) Competition
(3) Defence
(4) Economical importance
(1) 2 − 10% of PAR
(2) 0 · 2 − 0 · 5% of solar radiations
(3) 2 − 10% of solar radiations
(4) 0 · 2 − 0.5% of PAR.
(i) Autotrophs
(ii) Heterotrophs
(iii) Saprotrophs
(iv) Chemoautotrophs
Choose the correct answer :
(1) i and iii (2) i and iv
(3) ii and iii (4) i and ii.
PRE MOCK TEST 7
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION A (4) Only glucose

155. Non-essential amino acids

151. In glycine, the R group is replaced by (1) Must be obtained from food
(1) A methyl group (2) Are synthesized in our body
(2) Hydroxy methyl (3) Are not essentially needed in our diet
(3) A carboxylic group (4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) A hydrogen atom
156. Match the columns and choose the correct
152. Identify the structure given below. answer.

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii), e(v)

(1) Adenylic acid (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii), e(v)
(2) Deoxyadenylic acid (3) a(ii), b(i), c(v), d(iv), e(iii)
(3) Nucleoside (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v), e(iii)
(4) Adenosine
157. Mark the incorrect match that is not related
153. Choose the correct statements.
(1) Starch in plants and glycogen in ani-
mals are storage molecules
(2) Starch can hold iodine, molecules in its
helical loops but cellulose being non-
helical cannot hold iodine.
(3) Chitin, a heteropolysaccharide occur-
ring in the exoskeleton of arthropods,
consists of N-acetyl glucosamine.
(4) Right end of polysaccharide is called re-
ducing end while left end is called non-
reducing end 158. Spermiation is
(1) i and ii only (2) ii and iii (1) Release of sperms from the walls of
(3) i, ii and iv (4) iii only seminiferous tubules into it’s lumen
(2) Release of secondary spermatocytes
154. Glycogen on hydrolysis yields from seminiferous tubules into it’s lu-
(1) Glucose and maltose men
(2) Glucose and fructose (3) Release of spermatids from
(3) Lactose and glucose seminiferous tubules into it’s lumen

20 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 (4) Transformation of spermatids to sper-
matozoa
159. In Phenylketonuria,
I: Phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives
are accumulated in brain resulting in
mental retardation.
II: These are also excreted through urine
because of its poor absorption by kidney.
(1) Only I is correct (2) Only II is correct 163. Which of the following statements are cor-
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect
160. The point mutation leading to sickle cell
anaemia occurs:
(1) at sixth position in the beta globin gene
of haemoglobin
(2) at seventh position in the alpha globin
gene of haemoglobin
(3) at sixth position in the beta chain of
myoglobin
(4) at sixth position in the alpha chain of
myoglobin
161. In the given below figure what does (a) and
(b) represent
165. Consider the following statements:
(1) GAG, Glutamic acid
(2) GUG, Valine
(3) GAG, Valine
(4) GUG, Glutamic acid
162. Which of the following is not correct for
”snips”?
(1) There are 1.4 million locations in hu-
man genome.
(2) Where single base differences occur.
(3) They shed light on chromosome struc-
ture and dynamics
(4) It promises to revolutionise the pro-
cesses of finding chromosomal loca-
tions for disease associated sequences.
rect?
(A) DNA polymorphism plays important
role in evolution and speciation.
(B) 99.9% nucleotides bases are exactly
same in all people
(C) Chromosome 1 has the fewest genes
(23) and Y-chromosomes has most
genes (2968)
(D) BAC and YAC have been used in Human
Genome Project.
(1) All correct
(2) All incorrect
(3) A, B, D are correct
(4) B, C, D are correct
164. The zwitterion is shown by:
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Both A and C (4) A, B and C
I: In prokaryotes, control of the rate of tran-
scriptional initiation is the predominant site
for control of gene expression.
II: Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as negative regulation.
III: The inducer of the lac operon is lactose.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) I and II only (2) I and III only
(3) II and III only (4) I, II, and III
21 PRE MOCK TEST 7
166. Repressor mRNA will be formed in
(1) Absence of inducer
(2) Presence of inducer
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Presence of lac mRNA
167. Select the correct option:
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
168. Natural selection can lead to:
I: Stabilisation in which more individuals
acquire mean character value
II: Directional change in which more indi-
viduals acquire value other than the mean
character value
III: Disruption in which more individuals
acquire peripheral character value at both
ends of the distribution curve
(1) Only I and II are correct
(2) Only I and III are correct
(3) Only II and III are correct
(4) I, II and III are correct
169. Assertion: Unlike amphibians, reptiles
were truly successful on land.
Reason: Unlike amphibians, reptiles lay
thick-shelled eggs which do not dry up in
sun.
(1) (A) is false but (R ) is true
(2) (A) is true but (R ) is false
(3) Both ( A ) and (R ) are true and (R ) is the
correct explanation of ( A )
(4) Both ( A ) and (R ) are true but (R ) is not 174. Binding of Oxygen with Hb is primarily re-
the correct explanation of ( A )
170. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the structures that
provides the site of interaction of lympho-
cytes with the antigen which then prolifer-
ate to become effector cells.
(1) Peyer’s patches (2) Bone marrow
(3) Appendix (4) Spleen
171. Select the correct option to complete the
analogy w.r.t cancer detection.
Use of X-rays : Radiography : Use of non-
ionising radiations : ........
(1) MRI
(2) Labelled antibody technique
(3) Computed tomography
(4) Biopsy
172. Assertion: Morphine is very useful in
patients who have undergone surgery
Reason: It is a very effective sedative and
pain killer.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
173. Mark the incorrect statement regarding the
transport of gas.
(1) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC.
(2) Nearly 20 − 25% of CO2 is transported
by RBC.
(3) Every 100ml of deoxygenated blood
delivers 4ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
(4) Every 100ml of oxygenated blood
delivers 20ml of O2 to the body tissues
22 PRE MOCK TEST 7
 lated to
(1) Partial pressure of O2
(2) Partial pressure of CO2
(3) Hydrogen ion Concentration
(4) Temperature

175. How many of the following factors are

favourable for the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin?
Low pO2 , High pCO2 , More H+ concentration,
Higher temperature, High pO2 , Low pCO2 ,
179. Which one does not influence the activity of
Less H+ concentration, Lower emperature.
kidney?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) Vasopressin (2) Angiotensin II
(3) 5 (4) 6
(3) Aldosterone (4) Rennin
176. Given diagram represents normal ECG
180. A skeletal muscle motor unit is best
record of human heart. Select the correct
described as:
match from options given below:
(1) a section of myofibrils from one Z line
to next Z line
(2) a motor neuron and all the muscle
fibers innervated by that nerve fiber
(3) all of the nerves that unite to make a
whole muscle contract
(4) all of the fascicles innervated by several
neurons

181. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I: A single filament of
tropomyosin runs close to the ’ F ’ actins
throughout its length.
Statement II: In the resting state a subunit
of troponin masks the active sites for myosin
on the actin filaments.
177. Which branch of the renal artery forms a tuft (1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
of capillaries called the glomerulus? correct
(1) Afferent arteriole (2) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
(2) Efferent arteriole incorrect
(3) Vasa recta (3) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
(4) Peri tubular capillary correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
178. Identify the incorrectly matched pair: incorrect

23 PRE MOCK TEST 7

182. Consider the given three statements:
Statement I: The portion of the myofibril
between two successive ’ Z ’ lines is con-
sidered as the functional unit of contraction
and is called a sarcomere.
Statement II: In resting state, both ends of
a band are overlapped by thin filaments
Statement III:The central part of thick fil-
ament, not overlapped by thin filaments is
called the ’ H ’ zone.
(1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct; Statement III is incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect; Statement III is correct
SECTION B
(3) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct; Statement III is incorrect
(4) Statement I, II and III are correct 186. Which of the disease is likely to happen if
an impairment affecting synthesis of ADH
183. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are lo- results in loss of water and dehydration?
cated on the: (1) Diabetes Insipidus
(1) tips of axons (2) Diabetes Mellitus
(2) axon membranes in the regions of the (3) Uremia
nodes of Ranvier (4) Cushing syndrome
(3) postsynaptic membrane
(4) presynaptic membrane 187. Which gland is under the direct neural
regulation of hypothalamus?
184. Which of the following is not associated (1) Neurohypophysis
with impulse transmission across an (2) Anterior pituitary gland
electrical synapse? (3) Posterior pituitary gland
(1) Faster than chemical synapse (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Rare in our system
(3) Synaptic cleft is too narrow or absent 188. Match the conducting tissues of heart in
(4) Impulse transmission is dissimilar to Column-I with their respective location
impulse conduction along a single axon given in column II and select the correct op-
tion given below
185. Select the correct matching of hormone its
source of synthesis and function.

24 PRE MOCK TEST 7


(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
189. Vasa efferentia in frogs:
(1) Are 30 − 40 in number connecting testes
to the kidneys
(2) Transports sperm from testis and open
into Bidder’s canal
(3) Do not connect to Bidder’s canal
(4) Has no role in sperm transport
190. Testes in frogs:
(1) Are attached to the lower part of kidney
by mesorchium
(2) Are compact mass of highly coiled sem-
iniferous tubules
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Are triangular shaped
191. Select the correct statement for frogs:
(1) Ear acts as organ for hearing but not
balancing
(2) External ear is absent and only tympa-
num can be seen externally
(3) These possess compound eyes
(4) All of the above
192. Regarding ’activated sludge’ produced dur-
ing secondary treatment of sewage water:
I: A small part of the activated sludge is
pumped back into the aeration tank to serve
as the inoculum.
II: Major part of the sludge is pumped
into large tanks called anaerobic sludge di-
gesters.
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) Both I and II are correct
(4) Both I and II are incorrect
193. A true coelom is:
(1) Lined on either sides by mesoderm
(2) Between ectoderm and mesoderm
(3) Between body wall and gut wall
(4) Both (1) and (3)
194. The number of correct statements among
the given statements are:
(I) The digestive system in
Platyhelminthes is incomplete.
(II) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and
Echinoderm larvae are radially
symmetrical.
(III) Bilateral symmetry is seen in Annelids
and Arthropods but not in Molluscs.
(IV) Notochord is a mesodermally derived
structure formed on the dorsal side in
Chordates
(V) Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
195. Statement I: Clarias gariepinus and its intro-
duction in Indian rivers is posing a threat to
the indigenous catfishes.
Statement II: Nile perch and its introduc-
tion into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to
the extinction of an ecologically unique as-
semblage of more than 200 species of Cich-
25 PRE MOCK TEST 7
 lid fish in the lake. (IV) The first organisms that invaded land
(1) Only Statement I is correct. were plants.
(2) Only Statement II is correct. (V) Lobefins evolved into the first amphib-
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are ians.
correct. (VI) The amphibians evolved into reptiles.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) 3 (2) 4
incorrect. (3) 5 (4) 6

196. Different types of barriers of innate immu- 199. A normal woman, whose father was colour
nity prevent the entry of microbes within blind, married a normal man. What is the
the body of mammals includes chance of occurrence of colour blindness in
a. Skin the progeny?
b. Macrophages and T-helper cells (1) 25% (2) 50%
c. HCl in stomach (3) 100% (4) 74%
d. Secretion of tear glands
Select the option with correct set. 200. Match the following sexually transmitted
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d diseases (Column - I) with their causative
(3) a, b and d (4) b, c and d agent (Column - II) and select the correct op-
tion.
197. Histamine is secreted by
(1) Mast cells (2) Kupffer cells
(3) Oxyntic cells (4) Neutrophils

198. How many of the given statements are cor-

rect regarding the timeline of evolution of
different life forms on Earth?
(I) By the time of 500 mya, invertebrates
were formed and active.
A B C D
(II) Jawless fish probably evolved around
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
350 mya.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(III) Sea weeds and few plants existed prob-
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
ably around 320 mya.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

26 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 GREAT INDIAN BATTLE 6
EXAMINATION
SOLUTIONS
CODE A

PHYSICS

SECTION A 6. (1)

1. (1)
[x] [ ]
L [ ]
[k] = = −1
= M0 L0 T1
v LT

2. (3)
R 1 + R 2 = (15 ± 0.3)Ω
= (15 ± 2%)Ω N = mg cos θ

3. (4) fK = µK N
Direction is changing at D&G. 1
= p × mg cos 30◦
3
4. Ans : (1) mg
=
2
mg sin θ − fK = mg
1
mg × − fK = ma ⇒ ma = 0
2
a=0
3
tan θ = ⇒ θ = 37◦
4 7. (3)
d
sin 37◦ = ⇒ d = 3
5 radius = 25 cm = 0.25 m
5. (1) n = 2rev/sec
√
2h ω = 2π n = 4π
For stationary lift t1 = and when the a = ω2 r
g
lift is√moving up with constant acceleration = 16π2 × 0.25
2h = 4π2
t2 =
g+a
∴ t1 > t2

1 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 8. (2) 11. (1)
∵ m ∝ Area Escape velocity does not depend upon the
m1 A1 2×8 4 angle of projection.
= = =
m2 A2 2 × 6 3
12. (4)
Liquid with low density float over high den-
sity.

13. (4)

( ) ( )
m 1 y1 + m 2 y2 dQ dQ
ycm = =
m1 + m2 dt Br dt Cu
kA 4kA
4(−1) + 3(−5) ⇒ (80 − T0 ) = (T0 − 0)
= L L
4+3
⇒ T0 = 16◦ C
−19
= = −2.7 m from O
7 14. (3)
9. (2) Difference in Molar specific heats = R
In elastic collision energy of system remains ∴ 28C p − 28C v = R
same R
⇒ C p − Cv =
(K.E)before collision = (K.E)After collision 28

Let speed of second body after collision is v0 15. (1)

1 1 ( v )2 1 ( 0 )2 Since both individual SHM’s have same fre-
mv2 + 0 = m + m v quency the resulting motion of particle will
2 2 3 2
p the SHM. Here the path of particle is straight
2 2
⇒ v0 = v line.
3

10. (2) 16. (4)

Initial velocity (u) = 0; acceleration in the
first phase = α; deceleration in the second
phase = β and total time = t.
When car is accelerating then
final velocity (v) = u + α t = 0 + α t1
v
or t1 = and when car is decelerating, then
from conservation angular momentum α
v
final velocity 0 = v − β t2 or t2 =
Li = Lf β
v v
Therefore total time ( t) = t1 + t2 = +
⇒I1 ω1 − I2 ω2 = (I1 + I2 ) ω α β
I1 ω 1 − I2 ω 2 ( ) ( )
⇒ω = 1 1 β+α αβ t
I1 + I2 t=v + =v or v =
α β αβ α+β

2 PRE MOCK TEST 7

17. (3) R=
20
= 6.67ohm
[ ] 3
F MLT−2
E= =
q [AT] 21. (3)
[ ] The forces FQ and FR are the forces applies
E = MLT−3 A−1 by wires Q and R respectively on the wire
P as shown in figure. Their resultant force
18. (1)
F is best shown by C.
Q Q
VA + − 6 + + 2 = VB
4 4
Q Q
− 6 + + 2 = VB − VA
4 4
2Q
− 4 = −4
4
2Q
=0
4
Q=0
22. (1)
19. (2) If B ext = 0 then for paramagentic materical
M=0

23. (3)
Pout
Efficiency = × 100
P in
88 880
=
100 P in
If K is open then No current in the branch
P in = 1000 W
BC
V 10 V I = 1000
I= = = 2A
R 5 1000
I= = 0.4545 A
20. (1) 2200
Case-1 24. (1)
( )
S 75 100 − ℓ
= or {(
P = ei = (E0 sin ωt) I0 sin(ωt − ϕ)
}
R 25 ℓ
S P = E0 I0 sin ωt(sin ωt cos ϕ − cos ωt sin ϕ)
=3 ( )
R P = E0 I0 sin2 ωt cos ϕ − sin ωt cos ωt sin ϕ
S = 3R ....... (1) E0 I0
< P >= E0 I0 < sin2 ωt > cos ϕ − < sin 2ωt
Case-2 2
E0 I0
S × 10 50 < P >= cos ϕ − 0
= 2
(S + 10)R 50 E0 I0
S × 10 = (S + 10)R = cos ϕ
2
3R × 10 = (3R + 10)R 30 = 3R + 10 25. (4)
3R = 20 To generate electromagnetic waves we need

3 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 accelerating charge particle. =
2 mN 2
v = 2P (Using (1))
3 V rms
26. (1)
f −15 −15 32. (1)
m= =
f − u −15 + 20
=
5
= −3 In case of F.B. effective barrier potential
VIM = −m2 VOM decreases.
VI = −(−3)2 (5) = −45 cm/s Hence barrier height also decrease.
( )
Veff Br = Vex − VBr
27. (4) ( )
For magnifying glass magnification when Vext ↑: Veff Br ↓
D 25
m = 1+ = 1+ =6 33. (1)
f 5
As particle completes one vibration dis-
28. (2) ( ) placement is zero. Hence average velocity
2
I = 4 I 0 cos
ϕ is zero
2
2π λ π 34. (2)
ϕ= × =
λ 6 3
(π) U = 2 x2 y − 3 yz
I = 8 cos2 = 6 mW/m2
6
⃗ = −∂U î − ∂U ĵ − ∂U k̂
F
29. (3) ∂x ∂y ∂z
( 2 )
⃗ = −4 x y î − 2 x − 3 z ĵ − (−3 y) k̂
F
h
λ= p
2mE At (1, −1, −1)
6.6 × 10−34 ⃗ = 4 î − 5 ĵ − 3 k̂
F
=p
2 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 10 × 103 × 1.6 × 10−19 p
⃗ | = 5 2N
|F
= 0.122 A◦
35. (2)
30. (1) mg(14) = mg(7) + K
K = 7mg = 140 J
31. (1)
1 mN 2
SECTION B
As P = v (i)
3 V rms 36. (2)
where m is the mass of each molecule, N is Linear expansion of brass = α1
the total number of molecules, V is the vol- Linear expansion of steel = α2
ume of the gas. Length of brass rod = l 1 ,
When mass of all the molecules is halved Length of steel rod = l 2
and their speed is doubled, then the pres- On increasing the temperature of the rods
sure will be by ∆T , new lengths would be
1 (m) N l 01 = l 1 (1 + α1 ∆T )
P0 = × × (2vrms )2
3 2 V l 02 = l 2 (1 + α2 ∆T )
Subtracting eqn. (i) from eqn. (ii), we get

4 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 l 02 − l 01 = ( l 2 − l 1 ) + ( l 2 α2 − l 1 α1 ) ∆T k = k1 + k2
According to question, 1 1 1
= +
l 02 − l 01 = l 2 − l 1 (for all temperatures) T2eq T21 T22
∴ l 2 α2 − l 1 α1 = 0 or l 1 α1 = l 2 α2 T− 2
= T−2 −2
eq 1 + T2

37. (1) 42. (2)

∆g 2 h ∆g d
= , = Here, M = 2 × 104 J T−1
g R g R
B = 6 × 10−4 T, θ1 = 0◦ , θ2 = 60◦
2h d ( )
So = W = MB (cos θ1 − cos θ2 ) = MB 1 − cos 60◦
R R ( )
2 × 0.5 = d 4 −4 1
W = 2 × 10 × 6 × 10 1− = 6 J.
d = 1 km 2

43. (4)
38. (1)
Bulb B3 will get 250 V, hence it work with
2 g(ρ − σ)r2 2 g(ρ − σ)r2 full power (60 W). But bulb B1 and B2 are in
vI = i.e., η =
9 η 9 vT series hence both will not get whole 250V.
2 980 × (8 − 1.3) × (0.2)2 Among the bulbs B1 and B2 ,B1 has less resis-
So, η = × =
9 4 tance and B2 has more. So B2 will get more
14.6 Poise voltage but will be less than 250V

39. (2) 44. (1) Apply Fleming’s left hand rule

Q = ms∆T
200 × 1000Cal 45. (2)
∆T = = 4.01◦ C
0.83 × 60 × 1000
46. (4)
40. (3) Light should be incident ⊥ on silvered sur-
γ
P1 V1 = P2 V2
γ face sin i = µ sin r
[ ]3/2
V1
P2 = (1)
( V1 /4)
P2 = 8 atm

41. (2)
Time period
√ ( )
m −1 1
T = 2π i = sin p = 45◦
k 2

k=
4π 2 m 47. (2)
T2 As PV = nRT
In parallel combination PV mass
or n = =
RT molar mass

5 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 mass ( molar mass )P 2 2 4
Density, ρ = = 1 H + 1 H → 2 He
volume RT Energy released
( mN A ) P mP [ ( ) ( )]
= ∴ρ= (∵ R = N A k )
RT kT Q = 2 m 21 H − m 42 He c2
Q = [2(2.0149) − 4.0027](931.5MeV)
48. (1)
Q = 25.24MeV
E hv
p= =
c c
50. (3)
49. (2) Output, R = XY for X = 1 and Y = 0,
R=1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION A type Ma4 b2 shows cis-trans isomerism.

(B) Ti3+ has 3d 1 configuration, hence
shows paramagnetic behaviour. Com-
51. (3) plex gives Cl− and NO− 3 ions in solution

Primary alcohols can be oxidised to alde- hence, shows ionisation isomerism.

hydes with KMnO4 in aqueous or alkaline
medium. Acidic KMnO4 oxidises p alcohols
to carboxylic acid directly.
52. (4)
53. (1)
According to first law of thermodynamics,
∆U = q + W
For adiabatic process, q = 0, ∆U = W
For isochoric process, ∆V = 0,W = 0
Thus, ∆U = q
For isothermal process, ∆U = 0
Thus, q = −W
(C) Pt2+ has 3d 8 configuration but ligands
are strong field ligands hence, it forms
square planar complex. Thus, all elec-
trons are paired and it also exhibits ion-
isation isomerism.
(D) Co3+ has 3 d 6 configuration. But, lig-
ands present are strong enough to cause
electron pairing, hence, it shows dia-
magnetic behaviour and exhibits cis-
trans isomerism as it is Ma 4 b2 type
complex.
55. (3)
56. (3)
FeC2 O4 ⇌ Fe2+ + C2 O24−

For cyclic process, ∆U = 0; thus, q = −W . Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ and C2 O24−

to CO2 by Cr2 O27− .
54. (2)
(i) Oxidation of Fe2+ −→ Fe3+
The correct math is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.
(A) Cr3+ has 3 d 3 configuration, with 3 un- by Cr2 O27−
[ 2+ ]
paired electrons. Hence, it shows para- Fe −→ Fe3+ + e− × 6
magnetic behaviour. Complex of the

6 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 Cr2 O27− + 14H+ + 6e− −→ 2Cr3+ + 7H2 O 10Cl− (aq) + 2MnO− +
4 (aq) + 16H (aq)
Thus, 6Fe2+ ≡ 1Cr2 O27− ⇌ 5Cl2 ( g) + 2Mn2+ (aq) + 8H2 O( l )
1
1Fe2+ ≡ Cr2 O27− The number of electrons exchanged (n) = 10
6 0.059
(ii) Oxidation of C2 O24− −→ CO02 by Cr2 O27− From Nernst equation, E◦ = log K C
n
[ [ ] [ ]
C2 O4 2− −→ 2CO2 + 2 e− ] × 3 nE ◦ 10 × 0.15
∴ K C = antilog = antilog
0.059 0.059
Cr2 O27− + 14H+ + 6 e− −→ 2Cr3+ + 7H2 O
= Antilog [25.42]
3C2 O24− ≡ Cr2 O27−
1 62. (3)
1C2 O24− ≡ Cr2 O27−
3 Na2 CO3 produces a large number of CO23−
Thus, total Cr2 O27− required ions which can precipitate out MgCO3 along
1 1 1 with group V cations. Hence, it interferes in
= + = = 0.5 mol
6 3 2
the detection of group V cation.

57. (3) 63. (1)

In H2 S, H is not bonded to any electroneg- The correct match is A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-
ative atom (as of N, O and F). Thus, H- (iv).
bonding is absent in H2 S.

58. (1)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).

59. (4)

60. (4)
Given, k = 4.8 × 10−4 s−1
Since, it indicates first order reaction,
2303 a
∴ k= log
t a−x 64. (1)
( )
3 : 4 atoms; total number of electrons
NO−
2.303 100
4.8 × 10−4 = log
t 20
= 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32
2.303
4.8 × 10−4 = log 5 CO3 2− : 4 atoms; total number of electrons
t
3353.7 = 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32
t = 3353.7 s = min = 55.895 min.
60
Both involves sp2 hybridization, trigonal
t ≈ 56 min
planar geometry, trigonal planar shape.
SO3 also involves sp2
61. (1)
For the given reaction, hybridization, and trigonal planar shape;
but not isoelectronic ClO−
3 involves sp hy-
3

7 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 bridization, distorted tetrahedral is its elec- ple
tron pair geometry (structure) and pyrami-
h
dal is its molecular geometry (shape). ∆ x · m∆ v =
4π
65. (2) 6.6 × 10−34 × 1000
∆v = = 2.1 × 10−28 m/s
4 × 3.14 × 2.5 × 10−5

68. (3)
Glucose gives silver mirror with ammonia-
cal silver nitrate because of the presence of
- CHO group (aldehyde group) in the struc-
ture of glucose.

69. (2)
As Ptotal = P 0A χ A + PB0 χB
2 3
= 266 × + 236 ×
2+3 3+2
2 3
66. (2) = 266 × + 236 × = 106.4 + 141.6
5 5
In CH2 Cl2 there are 2C − H bonds and 2C − Cl = 248 mmHg
bonds.
Here the resultant of 2C − H dipole bonds are 70. (1)
reduced by the 2C − Cl dipole bonds. Time taken to reduce reactant form 0.6M to
0.3M is 30 min. i.e t 1/2 = 30 min
From 0.1M to 0.025M, concentration has be-
1
comes times
4
∴ t 3/4 = 2 t 1/2 = 2 × 30 = 60 min
This result in non-zero dipole moment of
71. (4)
CH2 Cl2 .
Lassaigne’s test is a general test for the de-
tection of halogens, nitrogen and sulphur
in an organic compound. These elements
are covalently bonded to the organic com-
pounds. In order to detect them, these have
Similarly, the net dipole moment of CHCl3 to be converted into their ionic forms. This
is non-zero. is done by fusing the organic compound
with sodium metal.
67. (3)
According to Heisenberg uncertainty princi- 72. (2)
Cu2+ + e− −→ Cu+ ;

∆G 1 = − nFE ◦1 = −1 × F × E ◦1
Cu+ + e− −→ Cu; ∆G 2 = −1 × F × 0.522

8 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 Cu2+ + 2 e− −→ Cu; ∆G 3 = −2 × F × 0.34 80. (3)
Now, ∆G 3 = ∆G 1 + ∆G 2
− 2 × F × 0.34 = −FE ◦1 − 0.522F
E ◦1 = +0.158 V

73. (1)
Among the given statements (a) is incorrect
as higher activation energy usually implies
a slow reaction.

74. (2)

75. (3)
Dipositive zinc exhibits diamagnetism as its
configuration is [Ar]3d 10 (electrons are re-
moved from outermost shell, i.e. 4s2 (from
isolated gaseous atom) with no unpaired
electron. So, due to the unavailability of the
unpaired electron, it shows diamagnetism.
76. (3)
DNA contains cytosine and thymine as
pyrimidine bases and guanine and adenine
as purine bases.
77. (3)
Isocyanide test is answered by both aliphatic
and aromatic primary amines; so, aniline,
methanamine, and ethanamine will answer
thetest, whereas, N-methyl methanamine, a
secondary amine, will not answer this test.
78. (4)
In general, as non-metallic character in-
creases across the period, the acidic charac-
ter of their oxides increases. Thus, the cor-
rect order of acidic strength can be given as
Al2 O3 < SiO2 < P2 O3 < SO2
79. (2)
So, the order of dipole moment will be
CH3 Cl > CH2 Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4 .
Problem Dipole moment tells about the
charge Solving separation in a molecule.
Larger the Tactics difference in electroneg-
ativity of bonded atoms, larger the dipole
moment.
81. (3)
The atomisation energy of fluorine is abnor-
mally low. This reflects the low bond en-
thalpy of fluorine. The main reason for such
a high oxidising power of fluorine is the very
high hydration enthalpy of the fluoride ion.
This is because the ion is very small. There
is a very strong attraction between the fluo-
ride ions and water molecules.
The stronger the attraction, the more heat is
evolved when the hydrated ions are formed.
Hence, low heat of dissociation and high
heat of hydration leads to high oxidising
power of fluorine.
82. (1)

9 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 ∆G ◦ = ∆ H ◦ − T ∆S ◦ (at standard conditions) between C and F in CF4 .
∴ ∆H ◦ = 77.2 × 103 J mol−1
85. (4)
∴ ∆S ◦ = 122JK−1 mol−1 , T = 400 K In any two substances, the nature and mag-
Also, ∆G ◦ = 77200 − 400 × 122 = 28400 J nitude of the intermolecular forces are not
28400 = −2.303RT log K C the same. Hence, the binary solution of two
liquids can never form a perfectly ideal so-
log K C = −3.714JK−1 mol−1
lution. Thus, both statements I and II are
correct.
83. (3)
SECTION B

86. (4)
For, the reaction
2 N2 O5 ( g) ⇌ 4NO2 ( g) + O2 ( g)
Rate of reaction
1 d [NO2 ] 8.5 × 10−3
= = = 2.13 × 10−5 Ms−1
4 dt 4 × 100

87. (1)
Lyman series hydrogen atom, the shortest
wavelength corresponds to : n1 = 1 and n2 =
(Here the cis isomer alone has optical iso-
∞.
merism; transform does not have ) [ ] [ ]
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) Cisplatin: λ
= RZ 2 − ⇒ = R −
12 ∞2
n21 n22 A
1
=R ....(i)
A
For Paschen series of He+ ion, the longest
wavelength corresponds to
n 1 = 3 and n 2 = 4
[ ]
This is a planar molecule and so does not 1
= RZ 2 1
−
1
have optical isomerism. Thus we see, here λ n21 n22
[ ]
only a & b have optical isomerism. 1 1 1 1
= × 22 × 2 − 2
λ A 3 4
84. (1) 36 A
The reason for higher B − F bond dissocia- ⇒ λ=
7
tion energy as compared to that of C − F is
pπ − pπ back bonding in BF3 molecule, all 88. (4)
B − F bonds have partial double bond char- As q is a noble gas, p, r and s having atomic
acter whereas such bonding is not possible number Z − 1, Z + 1 and Z + 2 should belong
to halogen, alkali metal and alkaline earth

10 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 metal respectively. As halogen has one elec- 94. (4)
tron less than stable noble gas configuration,
it has a greater tendency to accept an addi- 95. (4)
tional electron forming an anion. Alkaline Acidified KMnO4 oxidizes cyclohexene to
earth metal having valence shell configura- adipic acid, i.e. hexane-1, 6-dioic acid.
tion ns2 exists in +2 oxidation state.

89. (2)
Hydrolysis of benzene diazonium chloride
will give carbolic acid.

96. (4)
Here the acid strength follows the order,
(4) CH3 OH > (1) HC ≡ CH > (2) C6 H6 > (3)
90. (3)
C 2 H6
The ionic product of water is given by
[ ]
H3 O+ [OH− ] = K w This is because acid strength follows the or-
[ ] der Alcohol > alkyne(sp hybrid carbon cen-
∵ H3 O+ = [OH− ] = 10−6 M
tre) > alkene, arene ( sp hybrid carbon cen-
(
∴ K w = 10−6 × 10−6 = 10−12 M2 tre) > alkane sp3 hybrid caron centre)In
general a hydrogen attached to a more elec-
tronegative atom is more acidic.
91. (1)
97. (3)

Among the given compounds (1) is the most

stable compound as it is a conjugated diene.
Problem Solving Tactics Conjugated dienes
are more stable than non-conjugated dienes
(both isolated and cumulated) due to factors
such as delocalisation of charge through res-
onance and hybridisation energy.

92. (3)

93. (1)
Tert-butyl chloride forms most stable 3◦ car- 98. (2)
bocation, hence will give white precipitate As the molecular weight increases, non-
of AgCl with AgNO3 solution immediately. polar part increases and solubility de-

11 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 creases. So, statement I is correct. State-
ment II is incorrect because hydrogen bond-
ing is not affected by an increase in the non-
polar part.
100. (2)
99. (3)
In an aprotic solvent, the increasing order
for the nucleophilicity of the halide ions
is iodide < bromide < chloride < flouride.
A polar aprotic solvent does not form hy-
drogen bond with nucleophiles to a signifi-
cant extent, meaning that the nucleophiles
have greater freedom in solution. Under
these conditions, nucleophilicity correlates
well with basicity and fluoride ion, being
the most unstable of the halide ions, reacts
fastest with electrophiles.
∆T f = i × K f × m ⇒ 0.0054 = i × 180 × 0.001
The van’t Hoff factor, i = 3
This suggests that 1 molecule of
[Pt (NH3 )4 Cl4 ] dissociates in solution to pro-
duce 3 ions. Hence, the correct formula of
the complex is [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl2 ] Cl2
[Pt (NH3 )4 Cl2 ] Cl2 −→ [Pt (NH3 )4 Cl2 ]2+ +
2Cl−

BOTANY
SECTION A SECTION B

101. (4) 113. (2) 125. (2) 136. (2) 148. (3)
102. (3) 114. (4) 126. (3) 137. (3) 149. (1)
103. (4) 115. (3) 127. (1) 138. (3) 150. (3)
104. (4) 116. (1) 128. (4) 139. (3)
105. (1) 117. (3) 129. (4) 140. (2)
106. (4) 118. (3) 130. (1) 141. (2)
107. (4) 119. (1) 131. (3) 142. (2)
108. (2) 120. (2) 132. (1) 143. (4)
109. (1) 121. (2) 133. (2) 144. (3)
110. (1) 122. (2) 134. (2) 145. (2)
111. (4) 123. (2) 135. (4) 146. (4)
112. (3) 124. (1) 147. (3)

12 PRE MOCK TEST 7

 ZOOLOGY
SECTION A SECTION B

151. (4) 163. (3) 175. (2) 186. (1) 198. (4)
152. (1) 164. (2) 176. (2) 187. (4) 199. (1)
153. (3) 165. (4) 177. (1) 188. (2) 200. (1)
154. (4) 166. (3) 178. (2) 189. (2)
155. (4) 167. (1) 179. (4) 190. (2)
156. (4) 168. (4) 180. (2) 191. (2)
157. (3) 169. (3) 181. (3) 192. (3)
158. (1) 170. (2) 182. (4) 193. (4)
159. (3) 171. (1) 183. (3) 194. (2)
160. (1) 172. (1) 184. (4) 195. (3)
161. (2) 173. (4) 185. (3) 196. (2)
162. (3) 174. (1) 197. (1)

13 PRE MOCK TEST 7