MECHANICAL ENGINEERING GRADUATE STUDENTS EXIT MODEL EXAM 1

1. Centre of buoyancy always

A. Coincides with the centre of gravity
B. Coincides with the centroid of the volume of fluid displaced
C. Remains above the centre of gravity
D. Remains below the centre of gravity
2. A floating body is said to be in a state of stable equilibrium
A. When its metacentric height is zero
B. When the metacentre is below the centre of gravity
C. When the metacentre is above the centre of gravity
D. Only when its centre of gravity is below its centre of buoyancy
3. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
a) Mass
b) Momentum
c) Energy
d) Work
4. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point,
for any given instant, is known as
a) One dimensional flow
b) Uniform flow
c) Steady flow
d) Turbulent flow
5. Fluid where its shearing stress is proportional to the velocity gradient across the sheared
section is ______ fluid.
A. Bingham
B. Newtonian
C. Perfect
D. Dilatant
6. As the pressure of a fluid increase the bulk modulus of elasticity will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
 C. Constant
D. Unpredictable.
7. In the lumped system parameter model, the variation of temperature with time is
a) Linear
b) Exponential
c) Sinusoidal
d) Cube.
8. The law governing the distribution of radiant energy over wavelength for a black body at
fixed temperature is referred to as
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Planck’s law
c) Wein’s formula
d) Lambert’s law
9. Identify the wrong statement
a) The process of heat transfer is an irreversible process
b) For heat exchange, a temperature gradient must exist
c) A material medium is not necessary for heat transmission
d) Heat flow does not depend on temperature.
10. Transmission of heat is smallest in case of
a) Gases
b) Liquids
c) Alloys
d) Solids.
11. A composite wall is made of two layers of thickness δ1 and δ2 having thermal
conductivities k and 2k and equal surface area normal to the direction of heat flow. The
outer surface of composite wall are at 100 degree Celsius and 200 degree Celsius. The
minimum surface temperature at the junction is 150 degree Celsius. What will be the
ratio of wall thickness?
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 1:2
 d) 2:3.
12. A hot fluid is being conveyed through a long pipe of 4 cm outer diameter and covered
with 2 cm thick insulation; It proposed to reduce the conduction heat loss to the
surroundings to one-third of the present rate by further covering with same insulation.
Calculate the additional thickness of insulation
a) 11 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 13 cm
d) 14 cm
13. If the fin is sufficiently thin, so heat flows pertain to
a) One dimensional heat conduction
b) Two dimensional heat conduction
c) Three dimensional heat conduction
d) No heat flow is there.
14. Convective heat transfer coefficient doesn’t depend on
a) Surface area
b) Surface roughness
c) Velocity of fluid flow
d) Orientation of solid surface
15. What is the most common firing order for a four-cylinder inline gasoline engine?
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 1-4-3-2
c) 1-3-4-2
d) 1-3-2-4
16. Which of the following factors affecting combustion in the CI engine?
a) Intake temperature
b) Jacket water temperature
c) Compression ratio
d) All of the mentioned
17. Engineer A: The purpose of valve gear mechanism is only to actuate intake and exhaust
valves
 Engineer B: The purpose of crank gear mechanism is to transmit reciprocating motion of
piston to rotary motion
Who is correct?
a) Engineer B
b) Engineer A
c) Both are correct
d) Neither of the two
18. Engineer A: When lubrication oil heated, oil becomes thin and becomes runny, which
result the oil film can break down and part contact can result
Engineer A: Cold oil is very thick and resists flow
Who is correct?
a) Engineer B
b) Engineer A
c) Both are correct
d) Neither of the two
19. Which one of the following is a function of radiator cap?
a) Seals the radiator
b) Pressurizes the system
c) Relieves excess pressure
d) All are correct
20. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Increase up to certain limit and then decrease
21. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine is _________ the
speed of the engine in rpm
a) Equal to
b) One-half
c) Twice
d) Four-times
22. Top management is concerned with formulation of
a) Guidelines for supervisors.
b) Long-term plans.
c) Short-term plans.
d) None of these.
23. In which of the following layout type, materials are feeding into the first machine and
finished products come out of the last machine?
a) Product layout
b) Process layout
c) Fixed position layout
d) Cellular manufacturing layout
24. If demand is 106 during January, 120 in February, 134 in March, and 142 in April, what
is the 3-month simple moving average for May?
a) 132
b) 126
c) 142
d) 138
25. The project life cycle consists of
a) Understanding the scope of the project
b) Objectives of the project
c) Formulation and planning various activities
d) All of the above
26. Risk due to internal environment of a firm or those affecting particular industry are
referred to as ________
a) Unsystematic risk
b) Systematic risk
c) Normal risk
d) Abnormal risk
27. The main Purpose of Financial Accounting is.
a) To Provide financial information to shareholders
b) To maintain balance sheet
 c) To minimize taxes.
d) To keep track of liabilities
28. Return on Investment =?
a) Net Sales x 100
b) Fixed Assets x 100
c) Total Assets x 100
d) None of the above
29. Which of the following is true for the calibration of instruments?
a) In casting and fabrication shops the measurements made are of more precise
nature as compared to those made in machine shop and tool room
b) Periodical calibration is made for optical measuring instruments
c) There is no need of periodic calibration in universal microscope
d) Preventive maintenance is not necessary for optical measuring instruments
30. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are
a) Accuracy and reproducibility
b) Accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
c) Drift and dead zone
d) Static error
31. Which of the following instrument is of the highest accuracy?
a) Digital length gauge
b) Inside micro-meter
c) Universal measuring instrument
d) Universal height micro-meter
32. If the displacement is measured with strain gauge then the number of strain gauge
normally required are
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
33. Which type of CMM is most suited for large heavy work pieces?
a) Cantilever type
 b) Bridge type
c) Horizontal boring mill type
d) Floating bridge type
34. Dead weight gauge is used for the measurement of pressure of
a) About 1000 bar
b) About 2000 bar
c) About 5000 bar
d) About 7000 bar
35. A transmission shaft subjected to bending loads must designed based on __________.
a) Maximum normal stress theory
b) Maximum shear stress theory
c) Maximum normal stress and maximum shear stress theories
d) Fatigue strength
36. Which bearing type allows deflection of shaft within 2-3 degrees
a) Filling notch bearing
b) Angular contact bearing
c) Self-aligning bearing
d) Double row bearing
37. Which stress theory used for design of shaft from ductile materials?
a) Maximum normal stress theory
b) Maximum shear stress theory
c) Minimum shear stress theory
d) None
38. If a spring has plain ends then number of inactive coils is.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
39. All welding processes require pressure along with heat.
a) Yes
b) No, fusion doesn’t require
 c) Can’t be stated
d) None of the listed
40. Which is not a possible type of failure in a riveted joint?
a) Crushing failure of the plate
b) hear failure of rivet
c) Tensile failure of the plate between rivets
d) Shear failure of plate
41. In machine design, which of the following is not true for rigid and flexible couplings?
a) Rigid couplings are expensive than flexible couplings
b) Flexible couplings can tolerate any slight misalignment between axes of shafts
c) Flexible couplings can absorb shocks and vibrations
d) Rigid couplings cannot tolerate slight misalignment between axes of shafts
42. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can withstand for
an infinite number of load application without failure when subjected to
a) Dynamic loading
b) Static loading
c) Combined static and dynamic loading
d) Completely reversed loading
43. Based on world best practice recommendations in maintenance management, the most
common ratio of the consecutive preventive maintenance (PM) before corrective one
(CM) is …..
a) 5 to 1
b) 12 to 1
c) 20 to 1
d) 2 to 1
44. Which one of the following is not among the causes or reasons of the occurrence of
maintenance and human error?
a) Poor equipment design and Improper work tools
b) Poor work environment and poor work layout
c) Inadequate training and fatigued maintenance personnel
d) None of the above
45. Which one of the following is not among the factors that tend to increase the amount of
maintenance-related inventory and, ultimately, the cost of maintenance?
a) Nature and condition of facilities and Cost of production downtime
b) Lack of parts standardization
c) Poor attention to inventory or order quantities and Existence of multiple storage
depots
d) Dependable suppliers
46. An engineering facility was observed over a period and we obtained the following data:
facility downtime per breakdown or failure (Tb) is 0.1 month, facility downtime per
inspection (Ti) is 0.05 month, a constant associated with this particular facility (c) = 3.
Calculate the optimal number of inspections per month.
a) 5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 10
47. Which one of the following is not among the important measures of PM?
a) Mean preventive maintenance time
b) Median preventive maintenance time
c) Maximum preventive maintenance time
d) Optimal preventive maintenance time
48. A comprehensive inspection and restoration of an item or a piece of equipment to an
acceptable level at a durability time or usage limit is known as
a) Mean time to repair
b) Maintenance plan
c) Maintenance concept
d) Overhaul
49. In die casting process......
a) Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mold by gravity
b) Metal is poured into die cavity, and after a predetermined time the mold is
inverted to permit a part of metal still in molten state to flow out of cavity
 c) Cavity is filled with a pre calculated quantity of metal and a core or plunger is
inserted to force the metal into cavity
d) Metal is forced into mold under high pressure
50. The forces required for metal cutting operation
a) Increase with increase in the feed of the tool and decreases with increase in the
depth of cut
b) Decrease with increase in the feed of the tool and increases with increase in the
depth of cut
c) Increase with increase in both the feed of the tool and the depth of cut
d) Decrease with increase in both the feed of the tool and the depth of cut

51. Calculate the power required for machining of a workpiece on lathe having efficiency of
85% on full load, when tangential force required is 1200 N and cutting speed 195 m/min.
a) 4.59 kW
b) 275.29 W
c) 3.315 kW
d) Insufficient data
52. In arc welding following is required
a) High current, low voltage
b) High current, high voltage
c) Low current, high voltage
d) Medium current, medium voltage

53. Following is (are) types of single point cutting tool(s)

a) Solid type
b) Tipped type
c) Index able insert type
d) All of the above

54. The process of reheating the martensitic steel to reduce its brittleness without any
significant loss in its hardness is
 a) Normalizing
b) Annealing
c) Quenching
d) Tempering

55. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp is known as

a) Loading
b) Glazing
c) Dressing
d) Trueing

56. Sintering is done to _____________

a) Increase final strength

b) Decrease final strength
c) Initially increase and then to decrease the strength
d) Initially decrease and then to increase the strength

57. Overbridge crane has

a) Transverse movement
b) Rotational movement
c) Mixed Movement
d) None of the above
58. Mass capacity of a conveyor is 200 ton/hr, if speed of the belt is 4 m/s then what is the
width of horizontal flat belt conveyor carrying the load? (Surcharge factor = 0.075 & ρ =
1000 kg/m3)
a) 499.23 mm
b) 500.0 mm
c) 533.7 mm
d) Insufficient data
59. Steel wire ropes are specified by
a) Weight of the wire per meter length
 b) Nominal rope diameter in millimetres followed by number of strands and the
number of wires in a strand
c) Breaking load in kN followed by diameter of strand in millimetre and number of
wires in a strand
d) None of these.
60. The main technical parameters of hoisting machines are
a) Lifting capacity
b) Dead weight of the machine
c) Speed of various movements
d) All of the above
61. In a material handling system, which one is not part of operating time?
a) Starting time
b) Constant speed time
c) Retardation time
d) Idle time
62. ______________ used to hold the load being lift without interfering in the hoisting
process but preventing the load from coming down due to gravity.
a) Brakes
b) Arresting gear
c) Gear box
d) None of the above
63. The interface between an analog signal and a digital processor is_______.
a) D/A converter
b) Modulator
c) Demodulator
d) A/D converter
64. What is the main function of a transducer?
a) To convert physical quantity into an electrical signal
b) To convert electrical signal into a physical quantity
c) Convert physical quantity into mechanical quantity
d) To convert physical quantity into a chemical quantity
65. Which of the following performs Logical and Arithmetic Operations in Mechatronics
System?
a) Sensors
b) Input Signal Conditioning Unit
c) Digital Control Unit
d) Output Display
66. Which module of data acquisition system (DAQ) consists of the CPU that controls the
complete data acquisition system?
a) Input module
b) Output module
c) Sampling module
d) Control module
67. A proximity sensor is a ____ type of position sensor.
a) Contact
b) Non-contat
c) Eddy current
d) Resistive
68. Which are the universal gates?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) All the above
69. Comparing the mechanical vapour compression refrigeration system with absorption
refrigeration system, the compressor of the former is replaced in the latter by
a) An absorber and a liquid pump
b) An absorber, a generator, a liquid pump and a pressure reduction valve
c) An absorber, an evaporator, a liquid pump and an expansion valve
d) A generator, an evaporator, a liquid pump and an expansion valve
70. If the C.O.P. of 1 TR ammonia-water absorption refrigeration plant is 0.5, then the heat
supplied in the generator is
a) 1.4 kW
 b) 3.5 kW
c) 7 kW
d) 10.5 kW
71. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
a) High pressure liquid refrigerant
b) Low pressure liquid refrigerant
c) Low pressure vapour refrigerant
d) None of the above
72. Which one of the following statement is correct,
a) Evaporative cooling and sensible cooling is same
b) Evaporative cooling is not effective for hot and dry condition
c) Evaporative cooling is a cooling and humidification
d) Evaporative cooling is a cooling and dehumidification.
73. The comfort condition is defined as
a) 15°C DBT and 80% R.H.
b) 22°C and 60% R.H.
c) 25°C and 30% R.H.
d) None of the above
74. Which of the following system is suitable fox air-conditioning a big cinema hall
a) Unitary
b) Zonal
c) Central
d) None of the above
75. The processes used in winter air-conditioning
a) Heating and humidification
b) Heating and dehumidification
c) Only heating
d) Any of the above
76. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress
components?
a) 1
 b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
77. A bar of diameter 50 mm and length 2.5 m has young's modulus Ex = 200 GPa is subject
with an axial load of 5 kN. The change in dimension in linear and lateral direction is 0.05
mm and 0.00028 mm respectively. The Poisson’s ratio is
a) 0.32
b) 0.28
c) 0.25
d) 0.30
78. A steel rod has ultimate tensile strength is 400 MPa and the factor of safety is 2.5.
Calculate the working stress or safe stress or yield point stress.
a) 200 MPa
b) 150 MPa
c) 100 MPa
d) 160 MPa
79. Which of the following is true if the value of Poisson’s ratio is zero?
a) The material is rigid
b) The material is perfectly plastic
c) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
d) There is no longitudinal strain in the material
80. Determine the moment at fixed end.

a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 60 kNm
d) 80 kNm
81. In thin cylindrical vessels____________ is half of the circumferential stress.
 a) Hoop stress
b) Longitudinal stress
c) Fluid stress
d) Transverse stress
82. Which of the following stress can also know as hoop stress?
a) Axial stress
b) Longitudinal stress
c) Fluid stress
d) Circumferential stress
83. Lower pairs are those which have
a) Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
b) Surface contact between the two elements when in motion
c) Elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
d) Two elements that permit relative motion
84. What is the mobility of the given linkage?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 0
d) 3

85. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) In any engine, 100% of the reciprocating masses can be balanced dynamically
b) In the case of balancing of multicylinder engine, the value of secondary force is
higher than the value of the primary force
 c) In the case of balancing of multimass rotating systems, dynamic balancing can be
directly started without static balancing done to the system
d) None of the above
86. Cam size depends upon
a) Base circle
b) Pitch circle
c) Prime circle
d) Outer circle
87. Gyroscopic effect not observed in which of the following actions performed by the ships.
a) Rolling
b) Pitching
c) Steering
d) All of the above
88. In the epicyclic gear train shown in the figure, A is fixed. A has 100 teeth and B has 20
teeth. If the arm C makes three revolutions, the number of revolutions made by B will be

a) 12
b) 24
c) 15
d) 18
89. A series of operations, which take place in a certain order and restore the initial condition
is known as
a) Reversible cycle
b) Irreversible cycle
 c) Thermodynamic cycle
d) None of the above
90. The latent heat of vaporisation at critical point is
a) Less than zero
b) Greater than zero
c) Equal to zero
d) None of the above
91. Rankine cycle comprises of
a) Two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) Two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
d) None of the above.
92. The equation of state of an ideal gas is a relationship between the variables :
a) Pressure and volume
b) Pressure and temperature
c) Pressure, volume and temperature
d) None of the above.
93. The processes of a Carnot cycle are
a) Two adiabatic and two constant volume
b) One constant pressure, one volume and two isentropic
c) Two adiabatic and two isothermal
d) Two constant volumes and two isothermals
94. Cavitation

a) Causes sudden drop in power output

b) Reduces discharge

c) Causes vibration of various parts of turbine and creates noise

d) All the above

95. What is the general energy equation for transfer of energy between the fluid and
machine?
 Where,
Vw1 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the entry of the rotor
Vw2 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the exit of the rotor
u1 = Peripheral velocity of fluid at the entry of the rotor
u2 = Peripheral velocity of fluid at the exit of the rotor
ṁ = Flow rate of fluid
a) E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)
b) E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c) E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d) E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2
96. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is
called
a) Diagram efficiency
b) Blade efficiency
c) Velocity ratio
d) Slip factor

97. In air compressor performance curve, a surge line represents

a) Lower critical speed of shaft

b) Limit of stable operation

c) Limit of compressor efficiency

d) Limit of compressor discharge

98. To obtain the maximum efficiency in centrifugal pumps, the blades are
a) Straight
b) Bent backward
c) Bent forward
d) Given airfoil shape
99. In which turbine the pressure energy of water first converted into kinetic energy by
means of nozzle kept close to the runner.
a) Impulse turbine
 b) Reaction turbine
c) Radial turbines
d) None of the above
100. ___________ Can defined as the ratio of the pressure rise in rotor blades to the
pressure rise in stages in an axial flow compressor.
a) Degree of pressure
b) Degree of reaction
c) Pressure ratio
d) Reaction ratio
 Answers

1. B 51. A
2. C 52. A
3. C 53. B
4. B 54. D
5. B 55. C
6. A 56. A
7. B 57 A
8. B 58 A
9. D 59 B
10. A 60 D
11. C 61 D
12. B 62 B
13. A 63 D
14. A 64 A
15. C 65 C
16. D 66 D
17. B 67 B
18. C 67 D
19. D 69 B
20. A 70 C
21. A 71 C
22. B 72 C
23. A 73 B
24. A 74 C
25. D 75 A
26. A 76 C
27. A 77 B
28. C 78 D
29. C 79 D
30. B 80 D
31. C 81 B
32. D 82 D
33. C 83 B
34. D 84 A
35. A 85 C
36. C 86 A
37. B 87 A
38. D 88 C
39. B 89 A
40. D 90 C
41. A 91 B
42. D 92 C
43. A 93 C
44. D 94 D
45. D 95 C
46. C 96 D
47. D 97 B
48. D 98 B
49. D 99 A
50. C 100 B