PRACTICE TEST (2022-23)

SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)

Date: 15/02/2023 Std. X M.M: 80
Name: ___________ Roll No.: ____ Section: ____

General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C - contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History
(2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION – A
Multiple Choice Questions (1x20=20)

1. Look at the picture given below. Identify the picture from the following options. (1)
a) Industrial Manchester
b) Hugli River
c) Bombay Harbour
d) Surat Port

2. Which of the following is a metal frame in which types are laid and text composed? (1)
a) Compositor
b) Platen
c) Galley
d) Tavern

3. Why was reading manuscripts not easy in India? Choose the appropriate reason from
the following. (1)
a) Manuscripts were commissioned only by the members of royal families.
b) Manuscripts were fragile and awkward to handle.
c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi.
d) Manuscripts were widely spread out.

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4. Arrange the following in a chronological order: (1)
i. James Augustus Hickey started to edit the ‘Bengal Gazette.
ii. Gutenberg perfected the system of Olive press.
iii. Marco Polo a great explorer returned to Italy from China.
iv. Rammohan Roy published Sambad Kaumudi.
Options:
a) iii, ii, i and iv
b) i, ii, iii and iv
c) iv, iii, ii and i
d) iv, ii, iii and i

5. Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop? (1)

a) Rubber
b) Tea
c) Pulses
d) Coffee

6. Which of the below conservation strategies do not directly include community

participation? (1)
a) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
b) Joint Forest Management
c) Beej Banchao Andolan
d) Chipko Movement

7. Match the following Columns and choose the correct combination. (1)
Column A Column B
1. Potential Resources i. Petroleum in Mumbai High
2. Developed Resources ii. Solar Energy
3. Stock iii. River water for the purpose of Hydel Power
4. Reserves iv. Hydrogen in water
Options:
a) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii

8. Which one of the following elements is NOT included in the Belgium model? (1)
a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation.
d) There is a community government which looks into international affairs.

9. Which one of the following is the correct example of ‘coming together’ federation? (1)
a) United States of America
b) India
c) Spain
d) Belgium

10. Which of the following statement is true regarding the child sex ratio? (1)
a) Child sex ratio is the proportion of the number of boy children per hundred girls.
b) Child sex ratio is the proportion of the number of girl children per hundred boys.
c) Child sex ratio is the proportion of the number of girl children per thousand boys.
d) Child sex ratio is the proportion of the number of boy children per thousand girls.

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11. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched? (1)
Column A Column B
a) Indian National Congress Regional Party
b) Bharatiya Janata Party National Democratic Alliance
c) Rashtriya Janta Dal Left Front
d) Communist Party of India (Marxist) United Progressive Alliance

12. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer
as per the codes provided below: (1)
Assertion (A): Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.
Reason (R): Democracy ensures that the decision making is based on norms and
procedures.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

13. Which of the following was one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils? (1)
a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
b) Regional seclusion of the Sinhalese.
c) Abolition of Buddhism as a state religion.
d) Fostering Christianity in the heart of Sri Lanka.

14. Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Look at the following table of Crude Oil Reserves and answer the following question:

Region/Country Reserves (2017) Number of Years

(Thousand Reserves will last
Million Barrels)
Middle East 808 70
The United States of America 50 10.5
World 1697 50.2
Source: BP Statistical Review of World Energy, June 2018, P.12

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in relation to study of this table of
Crude oil reserves? (1)
i. It is the estimation of the crude oil reserves of the whole world and the number of years it
can sustain.
ii. Middle East roughly estimates to have 70 years of crude oil reserve.
iii. Crude oil is non-renewable resource, and we should plan its development sustainably.

a) I & III are correct.

b) II & III are correct.
c) Only I is correct
d) I, II & III are correct.

15. The table below shows the estimated number of workers in India in organised and
unorganised sectors. Read the following data and fill in the blanks: (1)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 1 (i) ? 232
Secondary 41 74 (ii)?
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82 393 475
Percentage 100%

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 Options:
a) (i- 230) and (ii-156)
b) (i- 211) and (ii-151)
c) (i- 231) and (ii-115)
d) (i- 213) and (ii-105)

16. Find the odd one (incorrectly matched pair) out from the following options: (1)
a) Demand deposit- Money
b) Collateral- Livestock
c) Under the regulation of RBI - Self-help group
d) Terms of credit- Rate of interest

17. Which one of the following economic activities is NOT in the tertiary sector? (1)
a) Money laundering
b) Teaching
c) Bee keeping
d) Working in call centre

18. Read the information given below and select the correct option: (1)
Ram and Shyam are small farmers who have taken loans of Rs. 30,000/- from different
sources. Ram has taken credit at 1.5% per month interest from a trader while Shyam has
taken credit at 8% per annum from a Farmer’s Cooperative.
Which of the following options is correct?
a) Shyam has an advantage as he receives more interest.
b) Ram has an advantage as he does no paperwork.
c) Shyam is less fortunate as he pays more interest.
d) Ram is worse off as he pays more interest.

19. Which Indian company was bought over by an American MNC, called Cargill Foods
after the introduction of the globalization? (1)
a) Fun Foods Ltd.
b) Parakh Foods
c) Amul
d) Agro-Tech Foods Ltd.

20. Identify the organization that lay stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign
investment at the global level. (1)
a) International Labour Organization
b) International Monetary Fund
c) World Health Organization
d) World Trade Organization
SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Questions (2x4=8)

21. Why did Gandhiji launch the Quit India Movement? (2)

22. What is political equality? (2)

23. What is National Food Security? What does it consist of? (2)
OR
Suggest any two ways on the Comprehensive Land Development programme, taken
by the government to increase the agricultural production.

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 24. How do the deposits with bank become sources of income – (2)
(i) For Account holders (ii) For Banks

SECTION – C
Short Answer based Questions (3x5=15)

25. Highlight the ways in which indentured labourers survived in the British colonies. (3)

OR
How mass production became a characteristic feature of US industrial production in
the 1920s?

26. What is the importance of minerals? (3)

27. In what ways can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and
workers? Suggest any three measures. (3)

28. What are feminist movements? What were their major demands? (3)

29. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers- has been of advantage
to consumers.” Justify the statement with three examples. (3)

SECTION – D
Long Answer Based Questions (5x4=20)

30. How did the East India Company procure regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles
from Indian weavers? (5)
OR
Mention the major features of Indian textiles before the age of machine industries.

31. Why are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation
and its economy? (5)

OR
Discuss the contribution of the major seaports of India.

32. Mention any five main features which make India a federal country. (5)
OR
What is the meaning of decentralization? Explain the provisions that have been
made towards decentralization in India after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992.

33. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in the Indian economy
in the last decade? Give reasons. (5)

OR
How far is it correct to say that several services which cannot be provided by private
sector, can be provided by the public sector? Explain.

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 SECTION – E
Case Based Questions (4x3=12)

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 4
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and
society- like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family- should be
preserved. Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-
revolutionary days. Rather they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that
modernisation could in fact strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy. It could make
state power more effective and stronger. A modern army, an efficient bureaucracy, a dynamic
economy, the abolition of feudalism and serfdom could strengthen the autocratic monarchies of
Europe. In 1815, representatives of the European powers who had collectively defeated
Napoleon, met at Vienna to draw up a settlement of Europe. The Congress was hosted by the
Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich. The delegates drew up the treaty of Vienna of 1815 with
the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic
wars. The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was
restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of
states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future.

34.1 What were the reforms brought in by the European conservatives after 1815? (1)

34.2 What was the purpose to convene the Vienna Congress in 1815? (1)

34.3 How did Congress of Vienna ensure peace in Europe? (2)

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 4
NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS
(Environment Management System) 14001.The corporation has a proactive approach for
preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil and gas and fuels in places
where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through various steps taken by the
NTPC.
It utilizes the equipments. optimally by adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing
equipments. All the power stations NTPC minimises waste generations by maximising ash
utilisation. It also provides green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the
question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation. It reduces environmental pollution through
ash pond management, ash water cycling system and liquid waste management. All its power
stations do regular ecological monitoring, reviews, and online database management efficiently.

35.1 Write the full form of NTPC. (1)

35.2 Which kind of power does NTPC produce and from which raw material? (1)

35.3 Mention two ways through which NTPC tries to preserve the natural
environment. (2)

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36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 4
The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This
was done because many elected representatives were indulging in defection in order to
become ministers or for cash rewards. Now, the law says that if any MLA or MP changes
parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. This new law has helped bring defection
down. At the same time, this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAs have to
accept whatever the party leaders decide.

The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminal. Now, it
is mandatory for every candidate who contest elections to file an Affidavit giving details of his
property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of
information available to the public. But there is no system of check if the information given
by the candidates is true.

The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold
their organisational elections and file their income tax returns.

36.1 Define the term Affidavit. (1)

36.2 Why has the Election Commission passed the order to hold regular organisational
elections for political parties? (1)

36.3 What is anti-defection law? How can it prevent MPs or MLAs to leave one party
and join another? (2)

SECTION – F
Map Skill Based Questions (2+3=5)

37. 37a. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2)

(A) The place where the Congress Session was held in September 1920.

(B) The place where the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.

37b. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable symbols: (3)

(C) Multipurpose dam on river Mahanadi.

(D) Nuclear Power Plant in Gujarat.
(E) Software Technology Park in Karnataka.
(F) Major Seaport in Andhra Pradesh.

THIS QUESTION PAPER ENDS HERE

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 PRACTICE TEST (2022-23)
SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)
Date:15/02/2023 Std. X M.M: 80
Name: ___________ Roll No.: ____ Section: ____

Q. No. 37 a and b

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