CSE PRELIMS PYQ ANALYSIS

2019

Before reading this document, make sure to read similar analysis for year 2020, as this document
has been built on the basis of observations made in corresponding document. It may not make any
sense without referring the corresponding document. The analysis for year 2020 can be obtained
by clicking here.

ABOUT THE DOCUMENT:

➢ This document identifies certain elimination tricks based on observations from UPSC CSE
Prelims 2019. It provides general ideas regarding elimination and how it can be used in
exam setting.
➢ It is not intended for commercial use or use by any paid coaching institutes.

KNOW THAT:
➢ One may not always arrive at one final answer through elimination. Eliminating even one
option provides comparative advantage in the exam.
➢ Elimination does not work in all questions. However, proper use of elimination can help one
clear the exam cut off which has been hovering to less than 50% in the last few years.
➢ Elimination does not always yield one final answer. However, eliminating just one option
provides you with comparative advantage in the exam.
➢ Elimination is not a substitute to knowledge. It is application of knowledge. Thus, it plays a
complimentary role.
➢ Always prioritize knowledge and logic over any trick. Trust your preparation.
➢ There is Hindsight Bias while preparing this analysis. It is not easy to make all these
observations in the exam setting. However, a calm mind does wonders.
➢ Many of the seemingly difficult questions may have substantial hints inherent in them. Try to
identify them.
➢ Feel free to disagree with any or all observations made in this document. No trick is infallible
and Truly Stubborn is all the more fallible.

You can attempt similar PYQs with observations To report any mistakes or for feedback
on Telegram @csepyqanalysis contact : trulystubborn@gmail.com or
DM on Telegram @trulystubborn
 1. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and
financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current
account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or
more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-
under consortium lending

Inter-Creditor Agreement means it’s between more than one i.e., multiple Creditors
(Lenders).
A: Why would some lenders reach such an agreement? They are not promoters or
managers.
B: Again, lenders might have an informal understanding but they are not supposed to
conclude any binding agreement to support
projects.
C: This is an absurd statement.
D: See the word consortium (multiple)? It seems to be the most appropriate fit.

2. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as
part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population.

(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines.
(c) The size of population in the working age group.
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

A is Human Capital while B is Economic Capital. C? I don't know... Tell me!!! D Social
Capital… No? At least UPSC says its, Social
 3. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following
statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical

world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-
life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience
using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion
experience.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4 only

A plain reading shows that Statement 1 and 2 are contradictory to 3 and 4 so we can
eliminate option C directly.
Decoding the meaning: - Augment is like Enhance something original while I use virtual as
sort of substitute for physical, rest is self-explanatory.

Answers (According to official Key)

1. D
2. D
3. B

4. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the

following statements (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c). 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

With active presence of mind one can conclude that statement 1 and 3,
simultaneously cannot be right. Why? Let’s see… If statement 3 is correct that would
mean AIIB’s membership is restricted to Asia only. Now, if statement 1 is also correct
that would mean Asia has more than 80 countries. There are approximately 193
countries in the world. More than 80 countries (>40% of total) in Asia alone would
mean around 60% countries for the remaining 5 populated continents. Food for
 thought… No? Thus, we can eliminate option C and D.
Out of statement 1 and 3, 1 seems more logical because 3 is a bit extreme (No
members outside Asia). Similarly, statement 2 also uses some extreme word
(largest). By eliminating the extremes, we can arrive at the answer. A bit of
knowledge is helpful in these questions but still, one can get closer to the answer
without any knowledge.

5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference /

differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term
Evolution)? (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced
3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Easy question. One can observe that VoLTE encompasses LTE in itself and thus can
eliminate statement 2. Also, if we apply the logic of avoiding extremes (Only), we can
eliminate statement 2.

6. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit
(Amendment) Act, 2017? (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months
post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
All statements with numbers haan? Let’s use some other logic. What’s the average
number of office hours for a daily office worker in India? Around 8 hours? Statement
2, Six Visits daily, doesn’t it sound like unreasonable demand? Six visits in eight hours
seemed like too much to me. Eliminating statement 2 yielded the answer.
You are allowed to disagree with my point of view. If there are any other
observations, feel free to add here.
Answers (According to official Key)
4. A
5. D
6. C
By the way, have you ever calculated that getting just 3 questions correct out of 10
attempted yields an overall positive result? That means we are supposed to attempt the
question even if we are able to eliminate only 1 statement.

7. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
We all know that the basic task of Finance Commission is to recommend sharing of tax
revenue between Centre and States based on certain terms of reference. It has nothing to
do with the review of regulators. Thus, we can eliminate option B and C. Similarly, NITI
Aayog is a think tank whose task is to think and recommend. It brings out comparative
analysis of performance of States on certain parameters. Eliminating statement 5, we can
arrive at the right answer.

8. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing
Business Index’? (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits

Because all the above-mentioned options are conducive to a business-friendly environment,

we have to choose the odd one among the four. Careful analysis will show that Statement B,
C and D are directly related to business while statement 1 has indirect relevance. When you
have a valid reason to single out one option, go for it.

9. Consider the following statements:(CSE Prelims 2019)

The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System
Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system
providers that-
1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them
are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector
enterprises
 3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Tricky one!!! Statement 3- The task of CAG is to audit the accounts of PSUs, State
and Union government. There is a high probability that Payment System Providers
will include Private sector as well. CAG usually does not deal with Private Sector thus
we can eliminate option C and D. A plain reading shows that statement 2 is absurd
for such a mandate hinders Ease of Doing Business and Innovation. Statement 1,
though sounds extreme but at the same time we have no choice.
Learning: - Extreme statements are also true at times and there might be some hint
as well, indicating their correctness.

Q.1 and 3 required prior knowledge about Finance Commission and CAG respectively. Thus,
knowledge is required to arrive at answers in such questions. Usually, candidates will ignore
the fact that both the questions were also about Finance Commission and CAG and thus can
be answered using Laxmikant. Also, the integrated (FC+NITI Aayog, CAG+PSUs, Economy +
Polity) approach of framing the questions is what a majority of Test Series lacks. They mostly
frame questions in Silos (Consider the statements about FC, NITI Aayog, CAG etc). Thus,
there is no substitute of analysing PYQs.

Answers (According to official Key)

7. A
8. A
9. A

10. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years,
consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 2. Jowar is a Crop (Not even a popular one like Wheat and Rice) while Oilseeds is
a category which includes, inter alia, Groundnut, Soyabean, Mustard, Sesamum. A, not so
popular, single crop is not supposed to have more area than a full-fledged category.
Eliminating statement 2 will yield the answer.
Statement 4. While fluctuations can be expected, steadily decrease doesn’t make any sense
when the increasing payment arrears from sugar mills to cane farmers are often in news.
Eliminating this statement will reaffirm the answer.

11. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
(CSE Prelims 2019)
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 can be easily eliminated as we have come across many such instances like
invalidating NJAC (99th Amendment Act), setting caps on reservation, 9th schedule etc.
Judicial review is part of Basic feature as well.
Statement 1 – High courts derive their power of judicial review directly from constitution.

12. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel
for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide
emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 4- If it would have been cheaper, why won’t it be adopted on a large scale? In
fact, cost is one of the limiting factors apart from safe storage and production of Hydrogen.
Eliminating statement 4 leaves us with option A and B.
Statement 1 uses the word, Elimination while Statement 2, Reduction. The former sounds
extreme in comparison to the latter. As we discussed during the analysis of 2020 Prelims
Paper, Extreme statements are often incorrect (unless other options seem more incorrect).
Thus, we can arrive at the answer by eliminating the extreme statement.
Answers (According to official Key)
10. A
11. D
12. B

13. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’
and introduced into the ‘Old World’? (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber.
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

This question made me think whether world History is part of Prelims syllabus as well
because New World and Old World can’t be confined to India. For those who don’t know
the meaning (I didn’t know during exam) of these terms, North and South America
collectively is usually referred to as New World because they were discovered by Europeans
recently. On the other hand, Asia, Africa and Europe are considered under Old World.
Coming to the question, we don’t need to read world history to solve this question. We find
mention of use of Cotton in IVC. During Ancient and Medieval times too, Cotton and its
products were traded from India. Similarly, IVC people used Wheat and it’s been a staple
source of diet for Indians since time immemorial. Since contacts with new world have been
established during last 6 centuries only, by eliminating options with Wheat and Cotton, we
can arrive at the answer.

14. Consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be
patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

This question is quite tricky and many of you might not and are not supposed to agree with
my reasoning here. Because framing questions is a skill, adding incorrect statements among
correct ones is a skill too. On a plain reading of Statement 2, I realized that this statement is
framed as incorrect one as why would examiner think there should be an IPAB? This is
something like getting into examiners psyche to frame incorrect statements. Eliminating
options with statement 2, we are left with Option A and C. BTW, IPAB has now been
abolished.
Statement 1 and 3 seem somewhat contradictory to each other and thus Option A can be
eliminated.
 15. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are
accomplished by wearable devices? (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing-impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Easy question. As was discussed during the analysis of Prelims Paper 2020, denying the
possibility of something requires a strong conviction on the part of the examiner. All thes
options given above suggest use of wearables. One is not supposed to get such questions
incorrect due to overthinking because the cost of getting these incorrect is very high.
Usually, all the statements suggesting the possibility are correct unless they are absurd or
extreme.

Answers (According to official Key)

13.A
14.C
15.D

16. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in
others because
(a) poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) quality of public distribution varies from State to State

This question if examined carefully can be answered easily. It needs to be kept in mind that
the question is about Poverty Line and not Poverty per se. What’s poverty line? It’s
something of an Income Criteria. People who earn below the set criteria are considered
poor and those who earn above the level are called APL i.e., Above Poverty Line. It is
determined after calculating the cost to fulfil basic needs of an individual like food,
education, health etc. Now let’s examine the statements

Statement A- Though the statement is true but has nothing to do with the poverty line?
Statement B- Price levels i.e., the price at which something can be purchased. Higher the
cost of fulfilling basic necessities, higher the income required and that’s when the poverty
line is going to vary for the state.
Statement C- GDP or GSDP might have co-relation with absolute poverty but not with the
poverty line
Statement D- While PDS might reduce vulnerability for the poor but still it doesn’t account
for the poverty line.
The reason it was asked was maybe because different floor wages were suggested for
different states under Code on Wages 2019. This inter-linkage among different topics is
something UPSC is known for.

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of
‘methane hydrate? (CSE Prelims 2019)
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under
the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Notice the word, Hydrate? Suggest something related with water? Under the seafloor or
arctic seems something relevant.
Statement 1 suggests some possibility and as discussed earlier, statements with some sort
of possibility are often correct.
Statement 3 propose some approximate timeline. If it would have been some definite
timeline, we should have been critical but approximate timelines provide us with some less
reason to be suspicious.

18. Consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(e) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Some people got tricked here. This is simply an attempt to confuse or let’s say an attempt to
make us think better. Out of hundreds or thousands of species of Turtles, Fishes, and
Marine mammals, we can expect at least some of them to be herbivores. Only Option D has
statement 1, 2 and 3 and thus we can arrive at the answer.
One thing which played in my favour during last attempt was that after going through many
PYQs, I realised that I need not be overly critical of the questions during exam. There might
be many questions which don’t have a single statement as incorrect and I should accept this
fact. This, less critical mindset paid enormously in year 2020 as there were many questions
with all statements correct. When you are going through PYQs, do try to observe
consciously if you are getting many questions incorrect because you have been overly
critical.

Answers (According to official Key)

1. B
2. D
3. D

19. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which
one of the following statements is correct? (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the
people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta
Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer
Usually, History questions with four direct options are not to be attempted if we are unable
to eliminate any option. Good thing about this question is that it has been already told what
Vishti meant i.e., Forced labour. It would have been hard to attempt this question if forced
labour was replaced with simply, labour.
Option B is extreme and thus we can eliminate it.
Option C doesn’t make much sense. If its forced labour, we generally do no suppose wages
to be paid for it.
Now that 2 options have been eliminated, we are supposed to attempt the question. Going
further we can ask as to why only the eldest son and why not the fittest son? Why not other
family members?
Learning: - Asking ourselves further questions about any statement might help us arrive at
the right answer.

20. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum
Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Again, a direct question. Option A and B employ the word Only and usually such statements
are incorrect.
Answer should be either C or D and we are supposed to attempt it since the probability of
getting it right is 50% and even 33% probability of getting any question right entails overall
positive score.

21. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following
statements is correct? (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) The ceiling “laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

This question is quite tricky and we have to read in between the lines here. Many aspirants
eliminated Option B because the word used here is all the landless.
Option A- While they haven’t explicitly used the word Only in the statement, it can be
inferred with the language i.e., Laws were aimed only at family holdings and not individual
holdings. Even a plain reading of the statement doesn’t make sense. Why won’t it apply on
individual holdings?
Option B- Though it sounds extreme but think logically. If not all landless then which ones
should be excluded and why?
Option C- We know India had been net importer of food grains post-independence and also
that farmers even today are disproportionately cultivating Wheat and Rice (food crops) due
to MSP. Thus, this option can be eliminated.
Option D- No exemptions sound another extreme statement and can be eliminated.
Learning: - Logic supersedes any trick. While extreme statements are often incorrect, if logic
allows them, we can assume them to be correct.

Answers (According to Official Key)

19. A
20. C
21. B

22. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the
following statements is correct? (CSE Prelims 2019)
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all
industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for
landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one
district cannot be moved to another district.

This question requires applying multiple tricks/logic.

Option A- Five is a number and it gives us a reason enough to be suspicious about it.
B- Use of the word, Only make the statement somewhat extreme and thus we can eliminate
it.
C- Rules unlike an act are usually comprehensive and they address the nitty-gritty related to
the law.
D- This statement again seems to be on extreme side. Also, the prohibition on inter-district
transfer doesn’t make sense if the aim is to address the waste challenge. Is the waste
generator supposed to have waste processing facilities in every district, big or small?

23. Consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Direct question from Economic Survey/Budget. Second statement can be easily eliminated
because of the extreme nature. Statement one is incorrect. It was probably asked because
Budget 2019-20 had provision for more government borrowing from foreign markets to
prevent crowding out of private sector investment.

24. Consider the following statements: (CSE Prelims 2019)

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body
set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for
Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Good thing about this question is that the options have been formulated in such a manner
that at least two statements will be correct.
Statement 1 makes high claims. It doesn’t even mention that its first regulatory body in
petroleum sector. Thus, over all the first regulatory body of India might be wrong. On a plain
reading it seems to be false or high sounding. Eliminating statement 1 will yield the answer.

Answers (According to Official Key)

22. C
23. D
24. B