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1. A. Creatinine concen- To determine amniotic fluid contamination with ma-

tration ternal urine, which of the following measurements
could be used?

A. Creatinine concentration
B. Delta absorbance at 410 nm
C. Albumin/globulin ratio
D. Lactate dehydrogenase

2. A. Synthesis of IgG An IgG index greater than 0.80 is indicative of which

within the CNS of the following?

A. Synthesis of IgG within the CNS

B. Alterations in the blood-brain barrier
C. Active demyelination of neural tissue
D. Increased reabsorption of IgG from the peripher-
al blood

3. B. Distal convoluted Aldosterone, a hormone produce by the adren-

tubule al cortex, reabsorbs sodium in what part of the
nephron?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. glomerulus
D. collecting duct

4. A.ÿSetting collection Each of the following is included in the quality as-

guidelines for 24-hour surance program for a urinalysis laboratory. Which
urines one represents a preanalytical component of test-
ing?

A.ÿSetting collection guidelines for 24-hour urines

B. Setting a maintenance schedule for microscopes
C. Reporting units to be used for crystals
D. Requiring acceptable results for control speci-
mens before any patient results are reported out

5. D. Bilirubin
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A reagent test strip impregnated with a diazonium
salt such as diazotized 2,4-dichloroaniline may be
used to determine which analyte?

A. Glucose
B. Ketone
C. Hemoglobin
D. Bilirubin

6. C. Melanin In certain malignant disorders, what substance is

found in the urine that turns the urine dark brown
or black on exposure of the urine to air?

A. Urobilinogen
B. Indican
C. Melanin
D. Porphyrin

7. B. 3 The chain of infection is a continuous link in the

transmission of harmful microorganism between a
source and a susceptible host. It is composed of
how many components?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

8. C. Renal tubular, tran- The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in
sitional, squamous descending order is:

A. Squamous, transitional, renal tubular

B. Transitional, renal tubular, squamous
C. Renal tubular, transitional, squamous
D. Squamous, renal tubular, urothelial

9. B. loss of tubular reab- What is the first function affected in Renal Disease?
sorption capability
A. a decrease in glomerular filtration
B. loss of tubular reabsorption capability
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C. inability to produce an acid urine
D. a decrease in renal blood flow

10. D. Bilirubin = negative, Which of the following results would be seen in

urobilinogen = positive urine from a patient with autoimmune hemolytic
anemia?

A. Bilirubin = negative, urobilinogen = negative

B. Bilirubin = positive, urobilinogen = positive
C. Bilirubin = positive, urobilinogen = negative
D. Bilirubin = negative, urobilinogen = positive

11. B. Consistently alka- In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

line
A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet

12. C. Diabetes insipidus Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and

1.003 indicates:

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Diabetes insipidus
B. Renal tubular failure
D. Addison's disease

13. B. Crystal violet and Which of the following dyes are used in Stern-
safranin heimer-Malbin stain?

A. Hematoxylin and eosin

B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin
D. Methylene blue and safranin

14. D. Phosphatidyl With the development of fetal lung maturity, which

choline of the following phospholipid concentrations in am-
niotic fluid significantly and consistently increases?

A. Sphingomyelin
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B. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
C. Phosphatidyl inositol
D. Phosphatidyl choline

15. D. Fixed specific grav- "Isosthenuria" is a term applied to a series of urine

ity of approximately specimens from the same patient that exhibit a?
1.010
A. Specific gravity of exactly 1.000
B. Specific gravity less than 1.007
C. Specific gravity greater than 1.020
D. Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010

16. D. Cystatin C Which of the following tests is a measure of

glomerular filtration?

A. p-Aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance

B. Fishberg concentration test
C. Mosenthal dilution test
D. Cystatin C

17. A. Bacteria and nitrite In an unpreserved urine specimen left at room tem-
perature overnight, which of the following will have
increased?

A. Bacteria and nitrite

B. Specific gravity and bilirubin
C. Glucose and ketones
D. Urobilinogen and protein

18. C. Transferrin protein Which of the following can be used to identify a fluid
as CSF?

A. Oligoclonal bands
B. Xanthochromia
C. Transferrin protein
D. Absence of glucose

19. C. Elastase I The most sensitive fecal enzyme test for the diag-
nosis of pancreatic insufficiency measures:

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A. Lipase
B. Trypsin
C. Elastase I
D. Chymotrypsin

20. C. They are seen in the Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of
CSF and not in the multiple sclerosis when:
serum
A. They are seen in both the serum and CSF
B. At least five bands are seen in the CSF
C. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum
D. They appear in both the albumin and globulin
fractions of serum and the CSF

21. A. Hoesch test Rapid screening for urine porphobilinogen which

uses Ehrlich's reagent dissolved in 6M HC1.

A. Hoesch test quizlet

B. Watson-Schwartz test >success
C. Blondheim's test
D. Ammonium sulfate test

22. D. Hyaluronic acid The mucin clot test determines the presence of
synovial fluid _____.

A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Fibrinogen
D. Hyaluronic acid

23. D. Glomerular bleeding The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the
urine sediment is indicative of which of the follow-
ing?

A. A coagulation disorder
B. Menstrual contamination
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Glomerular bleeding

24.
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B. Phenylalanine hy- Phenylketonuria is an inherited metabolic disease
droxylase in which there is deficiency of an enzyme:

A. Phenvlalanine oxidase
C. Phosphoalanine hydroxylase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
D. Phosphoalanine phosphatase

25. A. ascending loop of Passive reabsorption of water takes place in all

Henle parts of the nephron except in the:

A. ascending loop of Henle

B. descending loop of Henle
C. DCT
D. collecting duct

26. D. Neutrophil "Glitter cell" is a term used to describe a specific

type of

A. Ketone body
B. Oval fat body
C. Fatty droplet
D. Neutrophil

27. C. boric acid Preservative agent of urine which preserves pro-

tein, bacteriostatic, and can be used for Urine Cul-
ture

A. thymol
B. toluene
C. boric acid
D. saccomanno's fixative

28. B. Bacterial meningitis CSF lactate can be used to verify cases of which of
the following?

A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Reye's syndrome
D. Tertiary syphilis
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29. B. Bacterial endocardi- The most likely cause of increased neutrophils is a

tis pericardial fluid exudate is

A. Tuberculosis
B. Bacterial endocarditis
C. Cardiac puncture
D. Pneumonia

30. D. Monocyte Normal predominant WBC in CSF seen in New-

borns:

A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Monocyte

31. B. Phase-contrast mi- To detect more easily the presence of casts in urine
croscopy sediments, which microscopic method can be used

A. Fluorescent microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Polarized microscopy
D. Brightfield microscopy

32. C. middle piece Mitochondria of a sperm cell is located in:

A. head
B. acroscomal cap
C. middle piece
D. tail

33. D. Orthostatic protein- A first morning specimen would be requested to

uria confirm which of the following?

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Fanconi's syndrome
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Orthostatic proteinuria

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34. D. 5-Hydroxyindole
acetic acid
35. C. Cloudy, flu-
id-to-serum LD ratio:
0.8, fluid to-serum pro-
tein ratio: 0.7, WBC
count: 2500/mL
36. A. Bile duct obstruc-
tion
37. D. 4.5-8.0
Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from the ente-
rochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract are
characterized by increased excretion of urinary
A. Serotonin
B. 5-Hydroxytryptophan
C. Homogentisic acid
D. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
Which of the following sets of results most closely
indicates a transudate?
A. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluid-to-serum
protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 1000/mL
B. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.5, flu-
id-to-serum protein ratio: 0.6, WBC count: 1200/ml
C. Cloudy, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluid
to-serum protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 2500/mL
D. Clear, fluid-to-serum LD ratio: 0.45, fluid-to-
serum protein ratio: 0.40, WBC count: 800/mL
The following urinalysis results were obtained on a
40-year-old white male whose skin appeared yel-
lowish during the clinical examination. Color and
clarity- dark brown, clear, protein negative; glucose
negative; blood negative; ketones negative; biliru-
bin 3+; urobilinogen 0.2 mg/dL.
These results are clinically significant in which of
the following conditions?
A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hepatitis
D. Hemolytic anemia
What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided
urine specimen?
A. 3.5-8.0
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B. 3.5.9.0
C. 4.0-8.5
D. 4.5-8.0

38. C. Calcium oxalate These crystals were seen in the urine of a child who
monohydrate had ingested antifreeze. They are:

A. Triple phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate dehydrate
C. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
D. Calcium phosphate

39. A. Monosodium urate Crystals that appear needle-shaped under polar-

ized light and are yellow when aligned with the slow
vibration of compensated polarized light are

A. Monosodium urate
B. Calcium pyrophosphate
C. Hydroxyapatite
D. Corticosteroid

40. D. An a-fetoprotein re- Which of the ff results of a test on the mother would
sult of 3.0 MOM suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?

A. A positive antibody screen

B. A glucose value of 140 mg/dL
C. An a-fetoprotein result of 0.1 MOM
D. An a-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MOM

41. A. Distal tubules and
collecting ducts
Cylindroid - DCT and
ALH
Casts - DCT and col-
lecting ducts
Urinary casts are formed in which of the following?
A. Distal tubules and collecting ducts
B. Distal tubules and loops of Henle
C. Proximal and distal tubules
D. Proximal tubules and loops of Henle

42. C. Rhabdomyolysis A 35-year-old man has just experienced severe

may be a cause for crush injuries sustained in a car accident. He has
the discrepant chemi- a broken pelvis and right femur and has numer-
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cal/microscopic blood ous abrasions and contusions. A random urinalysis
findings. specimen shows a brown color and clear appear-
ance. pH is 6.0. protein is 1 +, and blood is 3+.
There is, however, only 0-1 RBC/hpf, along with
0-3 WBChpf. Casts found include hyaline (0-2/Apf
and granular (0-1/pf. Other urine results are normal.
Which of the following is true about this patient?

A. The positive blood result is from a hemolytic

anemia.
B. The bilirubin result should have also been posi-
tive for this patient.
C. Rhabdomyolysis may be a cause for the dis-
crepant chemical/microscopic blood findings.
D. The bone crushing led to the increased protein
result.

43. B. 2+ Manner of reporting for SS precipitation test if the

result is "turbidity with granulation with no floccula-
tion"?

A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+

44. B. Urobilinogen Which urinalysis reagent strip test will never be

reported out as "negative"?

A. Protein
B. Urobilinogen
C. Bilirubin
D. Nitrite

45. D. 10 to 15 renal tubular Which of the following results is not consistent with
epithelial cells/hpf cystitis?
Color: Yellow
Protein: 1+
Clarity: Hazy

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Glucose: Negative
Specific gravity: 1.015
Ketones: Negative
pH: 7.0
Bilirubin: Negative
Blood: Trace
Urobilinogen:1.0 EU
Nitrite: Positive
Leukocyte esterase: ++
Microscopic: 80-100 WBC/hpf
10-15 renal tubular epithelial cells hpf
5-10 red blood cells/hrE
Many bacteria

A. pH
B. Protein
C. 5 to 10 RBC/hef
D. 10 to 15 renal tubular epithelial cells/hpf

46. C. Cholesterol Resembles a "staircase pattern" with a notch in one

or more corners, associated with lipiduria

A. Uric acid
B. Cystine
C. Cholesterol
D. Sulfonamides

47. A. Liquefaction time: Which of the following semen analysis is abnormal?

45 minutes
A. Liquefaction time: 45 minutes
B. pH of 7.7
C. motility 50% progressive movement
D. volume of 1.5ml

48. b. Heroin abuse Focal segmental glomerular nephritis is associated

with which of the following?
FSGN
-More common in a. Untreated streptococcal infections
adults b. Heroin abuse

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-Associated with hero- c. Diabetes mellitus
in and AIDS d. Autoimmune disorders

Autoimmune disorder
- More likely to
be membranoprolifer-
ative glomerulonephri-
tis

49. B. Watson-Schwartz Differentiate Urobilinogen and Porphobilinogen, in-

test cludes extraction with chloroform & butanol.

A. Hoesch test
B. Watson-Schwartz test
C. Blondheim's test
D. Ammonium sulfate test

50. B. 1.010 The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is

A. 1.000
B. 1.010
C. 1.025
D. 1.040

51. C. Steatorrhea A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of the

following?

A. Barium testing
B. Osmotic diarrhea
C. Steatorrhea
D. Excess carbohydrates

52. C. White blood cell Pyelonephritis can be differentiated from cystitis by

casts the presence of

A. Eosinophils
B. Hyaline casts
C. White blood cell casts
D. Bacteriuria

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53. C. 1. 2 and 3 Which of the following casts are stages in the pro-
gressive autolysis of WBC casts?
1. Coarse granular
2. Fine granular
3. Hyaline
4. Waxy

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4

54. D. Bence-Jones pro- Which of the following is likely to result in a

tein false-negative dry reagent strip test for proteinuria?

A. Penicillin
B. Aspirin
C. Amorphous phosphates
D. Bence-Jones protein

55. D. collecting duct ADH or vasopressin, hormone produced by the

pituitary, reabsorbs water in what part of the
nephron?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. glomerulus
D. collecting duct

56. B. A PMN with inclu- What type of cell is a "ragosyte"?

sions formed by im-
mune complexes A. Cartilage cell seen in inflammatory arthritis
B. A PMN with inclusions formed by immune com-
plexes
C. A plasma cell seen in RA
D. A macrophage containing large inclusions

57. D. Calcium oxalate The most common composition of renal calculi is:

A. Cystine
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B. Uric acid
C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
D. Calcium oxalate

58. D. Normal plasma hap- A urine sample taken after a suspected transfusion
toglobin reaction has a positive test for blood, but intact
RBCs are not seen on microscopic examination.
Which one test result would rule out an intravascu-
lar hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A. Negative urine urobilinogen

B. Serum unconjugated bilirubin below 1.0 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium below 6.0 mmol/L
D. Normal plasma haptoglobin

59. A. Lipid-containing What are Oval Fat Bodies?

RTE cells
A. Lipid-containing RTE cells
B. Aggregated lipid droplets
C. protein material produced by epithelial cells
D. Iron-containing Hemosiderin crystals

60. D. Juxtaglomerular ap- Part of the nephron responsible for monitoring plas-
paratus ma sodium content, changes in Blood Pressure
and participates in the autoregulatory mechanism
of blood flow.

A. Renin
B. Medullary nephrons
C. Cortical Nephrons
D. Juxtaglomerular apparatus

61. A. ammonium sulfate Hemoglobin in urine can be differentiated from

to precipitate hemo- myoglobin using:
globin
A. ammonium sulfate to precipitate hemoglobin
B. Sodium dithionite to reduce hemoglobin
C. o-Dianisidine instead of benzidine as the color
indicator
D. The dry reagent strip blood test
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62. B. 1,200 mL/ min What is the approximate amount of renal blood flow
per minute based on an average body size of 1.73
m2?

A. 800 mL/min
B. 1,200 mL/ min
C. 1,800 mL. min
D. 2,500 mL/min

63. C. Minimal change dis- Children develop a form of nephrotic syndrome

ease called:

A. IgA nephropathy
B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
C. Minimal change disease
D. Acute glomerulonephritis

64. B. Purple What is the end color of reagent strip pad if urine is
positive for ketones?

A. Yellow
B. Purple
C. Brown
D. Green

65. D. pH 5.0, WBCs, and The test for which of the following results should be
triple phosphate crys- repeated?
tals
A. Positive nitrite and leukocyte esterase
B. Positive blood and protein
C. pH 7.0 with ammonium biurate crystals
D. pH 5.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals

66. A. triggers the release Which of the following is a function of Angiotensin

of aldosterone from II in R-A-A-S?
the adrenal cortex
A. triggers the release of aldosterone from the
adrenal cortex
B. stimulates reabsorption of K* and CI in the PCT
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C. reacts with Angiotensin-Converting-Enzyme in
the lungs to produce Angiotensinogen
D. stimulated release of vasopressin from pituitary

67. C. bilirubin Ictotest kits are used for detecting what compound
in urine?

A. urobilinogen
B. glucose
C. bilirubin
D. Ketones

68. A. Albumin The reagent test strips used for the detection of
protein in urine are most reactive to

A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Alpha-globulins
D. Beta-globulins

69. B. A traumatic or Three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are submitted to

bloody tap and in all the laboratory. They are numbered 1, 2, and 3 and
likelihood of no patho- show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount
genic significance in tubes I through 3. This observation should be
interpreted as:

A. The tubes are in wrong sequence, because an

increasing amount of blood would be expected
B. A traumatic or bloody tap and in all likelihood of
no pathogenic significance
C. The pathologic presence of RBs and reported to
your supervisor immediately
D. RBC is present but morphology is normal, thus
the importance is minimal

70. D. All are correct Which of the ff reagent strip tests can be affected
by ascorbic acid, resulting in falsely-negative rxn:
1. Blood
2. Bilirubin
3. Glucose
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4. Nitrite

A. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct
C. 4 is correct
D. All are correct

71. A. Fluid leakage Which of the following can decrease CSF protein?

A. Fluid leakage
B. Meningitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Hemorrhage

72. D. An effusion The fluid that builds up between the serous mem-
branes is

A. A transudate
B. An abscess's
C. An exudate
D. An effusion

73. D. Urochrome The physical characteristic of color is assessed

when a routine urinalysis is performed. What sub-
stance is normally found in urine that is principally
responsible for its yellow coloration?

A. Bilirubin
B. Melanin
C. Carotene
D. Urochrome

74. A. Uric acid Rhombic, four-sided plates - "lemon-shaped" crys-

tals seen in increased amounts in Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome

A. Uric acid
B. Cystine
C. Leucine
D. Struvite
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75. C. 100 mg - Strasinger Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not
D. 150 mg - Henry's exceed:

A. 30 mg
B. 50 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 150 mg

76. A. Lipids Which substance found in urinary sediment is more

easily distinguished by use of polarized microscopy

A. Lipids
B. Casts
C. Red blood cells
D. Ketone bodies

77. A. A double indicator Which of the following is the principle of the reagent
reaction strip test for pH?

A. A double indicator reaction

B. The protein error of indicators
C. The diazo reaction
D. A dye-binding reaction

78. D. saccomanne's fixa- Preservative agent of urine which can be used for
tive Cytology; made up of 50% ethanol & 2% carbowax

A. thymol
B. toluene
C. boric acid
D. saccomanne's fixative

79. A. In the refrigerator Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should
be preserved

A. In the refrigerator
B. At room temperature
C. In a dark container
D. At 37C
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80. D. With low-volume Which of the following statements applies to the

specimens, a culture is proper collection and handling of CSF?
performed first, before
cell counts are done. A. The second tube collected should be used for
chemistry analyses.
B. The third tube collected should be used for bac-
teriologic studies.
C. CSF collected in the evening should be refriger-
ated and assays performed only at daytime.
D. With low-volume specimens, a culture is per-
formed first, before cell counts are done.

81. D. Homogentisic acid Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is charac-

terized by the urinary excretion of

A. Alkaptone
B. Phenvlalanine
C. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
D. Homogentisic acid

82. C. Vasopressin con-
trols the collecting
duct reabsorption of
water.
Which of the following is true about the final con-
centrating of urine in the kidney?
A. The distal convoluted tubule, through active
transport, reabsorbs water.
B. Water is reabsorbed under the direct influence of
angiotensin II.
C. Vasopressin controls the collecting duct reab-
sorption of water.
D. Water reabsorption is influenced by urine filtrate
levels of potassium.

83. B. 78 mL/min Given the following data, calculate the creatinine

clearance.
Serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL; urine creatinine =
100 mg/dL;
urine volume = 1.4 L/day; body surface area = 1.80
m2

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A. 47mL/min
B. 78 mL/min
C. 100 mL/min
D. 116 mL/min

84. D. Glutamine In suspected case of Reye's syndrome, it is useful

to measure in CSF:

A. Glucose
B. LDH
C. Lactic acid
D. Glutamine

85. C. Addis count To quantify formed elements such as white blood

cells, red blood cells, and casts in a 12-hour urine
specimen, which of the following procedures is
used?

A Guthrie count
B. Rothera count
C. Addis count
D. Folin-Lowry count

86. C. Cause falsely de- Failure to collect the last specimen of a timed urine
creased results collection will:

A. Cause falsely increased results

B. Affect the preservation of glucose
C. Cause falsely decreased results
D. Adversely affect reagent strip results

87. D. Quantitative fecal The acid steatocrit test is performed to analyze

fats which of the following?

A. Grossly bloody stools

B. Qualitative fecal fats
C. Carbohydrate reabsorption
D. Quantitative fecal fats

88. D. calcium oxalate

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Which of the following could be found in acidic
urine?

A. calcium carbonate
B. ammonium biurate
C. triple phosphate
D. calcium oxalate

89. B. Waxy and broad Which of the following would be most character-
casts istic of chronic glomerulonephritis versus acute
glomerular nephritis?

A. Red blood cells and red blood cell casts

B. Waxy and broad casts
C. Hyaline casts and mucus
D. Proteinuria

90. A. Secretion by the Cerebrospinal fluid is produced primarily by which

choroid plexus cells of the following?

A. Secretion by the choroid plexus cells

B. Diffusion from the plasma into the central ner-
vous system
C. Ultrafiltration of plasma in the choroid plexuses
D. Excretions from the ependymal cells lining the
central nervous system

91. B. Second specimen In the three-glass procedure, this specimen is used

as a control for kidney and bladder infection

A. First specimen
B. Second specimen
C. Third specimen
D. none of the above

92. C. Leucine Crystals with yellow-brown sphere w/ concentric

circles & radial striations seen in liver disorders

A. Tyrosine
B. Bilirubin
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C. Leucine
D. Cystine

93. B. Ionization of a poly- Which of the following is the principle of the reagent
electrolyte, producing strip test for specific gravity?
a pH change detected
by bromothymol blue A. Disassociation of the indicator bromothymol
blue, producing a pH change
B. Ionization of a polyelectrolyte, producing a pH
change detected by bromothymol blue
C. Disassociation of polyelectrolyte, producing a pH
change detected by bromothymol blue
D. Change in the pK, of bromothymol blue to pro-
duce a pH change

94. B. 80-115 umolL Reference range for serum creatinine:

A. 40-85 umolL
B. 80-115 umolL
C. 120-250 umol/L
D. 200-300 umol/L

95. B. Acetoacetic acid The presence of ketone bodies in urine specimens

and acetone may be detected by use of a reagent strip impreg-
nated with sodium nitroprusside. This strip test is
sensitive to the presence of

A. Acetoacetic acid and betahydrossbutyric acid

B. Acetoacetic acid and acetone
C. Diacetic acid & beta-hydroxybutyric acid
D. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone

96. A. Goodpasture's syn- Anti-glomerular basement antibody is seen with:

drome
A. Goodpasture's syndrome
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Wegener's granulomatosis
D. Diabetic nephropathy

97.
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D. pH is greater than The colorimetric reagent strip test for protein is able
8.0. to detect as little as 5-20 mg of protein per deciliter.
What may cause a false-positive urine protein read-
ing?

A. Uric acid concentration is greater than 0.5 g/day.

B. Vitamin C concentration is greater than 0.5 g/day
C. Glucose concentration is greater than
130mg/day.
D. pH is greater than 8.0.

98. A. Is conjugated When a reagent strip is positive for bilirubin, it can

be assumed that the bilirubin:

A. Is conjugated
B. Has passed through the small intestine
C. Is attached to protein
D. Is unconjugated

99. C. Chloride Passive reabsorption of sodium always accompa-

nies an active transport of ______________ in the
ascending loop of Henle.

A. Urea
B. Amino acid
C. Chloride
D. Water

100. C. 65 If a fasting plasma glucose level of 100 mg/dL is

obtained on an individual, what is the expected
fasting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose level in
mg/dL?

A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 100

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