1.
_____ is an intestinal nematode capable of
vertical transmission and potential cause for
congenital infections.
Ancylostoma duodenale
2. _____ is the predominant microorganism that
causes bacon to spoil despite being stored in
vacuum-packed containers.
Lactobacillus
3. Before collection of hair, nails or skin scrapings
for fungal culture, the area must be first _____.
Cleanse area with 70% alcohol
4. After determining a strain of Staphylococcus as
coagulase negative, _____ would confirm the
identification as S. saprophyticus and novobiocin
susceptible would confirm the identification as S.
epidermidis.
Novobiocin resistant
5. The adult of _____ possesses a cephalic cone
and a well-developed (prominent) shoulders.
Fasciola hepatica
6. _____ is characterized by extensive branching
aerial hyphae in tap water agar.
Streptomyces spp.
7. _____ is the color produced by acid fast bacilli
after staining.
Red
8. It is considered the most common and earliest
serological test to detect antibodies to VZV.
ELISA
9. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated
from M. bovis by _____ .
Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
10. _____ is considered the most commonly
identified species of filarial worms that infect
humans, characterized by a sheath and nocturnal
periodicity.
Wuchereria bancrofti
11. Which biological safety cabinet allows room air
to pass through and within the cabinet and only
sterilizes the air exhausted?
Class 1
12. Which biological safety cabinet sterilizes the air
that flows over the infectious material as well as air
to be exhausted; also it is the most commonly used
biological safety cabinet which has a fixed opening
and 70% of the filtered air is recirculated.
Class 2a
13. _____ first demonstrated the handwashing can
prevent the spread of diseases.
Ignaz Semmelweis
14. _____ is utilized to demonstrate the presence
of diffuse capsule surrounding the bacteria. Best
example is India ink.
Negative staining
15. In _____ microorganisms are most susceptible
to antibiotics.
Log phase
16. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires
that the skin be cleansed with _____.
70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor
17. Opthalmia neonatorum is caused by N.
gonorrhoeae as the newborn passes the birth
cannal, AgNO3 drops (Crede’s prophylaxis) were
one used. Nowadays, _____ is more commonly
used for treatment.
Erythromycin
18. Sodium polyanethanol sulfonate (SPS) may be
used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because
it.
Prevents phagocytosis
Neutralizes the bactericidal effect of human serum
19. _____ is best suited for the recovery of Yersinia
enterocolitica from a patient with gastroenteritis.
Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin (CIN) agar
20. When testing aminoglycosides and
tetracyclines against P. aeruginosa, elevated
concentrations of _____ can result to diminished
activity of the antibiotics.
Divalent cations
21. _____ is used in infection associated with
Group A Streptococcus wherein the positive result
is redness of the skin
Dick’s test
22. In the carbohydrate utilization test using CTA
medium, _____ fails to produce acid from glucose,
maltose, lactose and sucrose. It is catalase,
oxidase and DNase positive.
M. catarrhalis
23. An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of
a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be
tested for _____ before sending it to a reference
laboratory for serotyping.
Sorbitol
24. _____ identifies late lactose fermenters.
ONPG test
25. _____is the only species of Haemophilus which
does not require V factor.
H. ducreyi
26. In order for a sputum specimen to be
acceptable for culture, _____ must be seen.
<10 epithelial cells and >25 pus cells
27. The Fire-Faraco acid-fast stain is different from
other acid-fast stains because it uses _____.
Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a
counter stain
28. _____ is a characteristic growth pattern of C.
perfringens in litmus milk broth.
Stormy fermentation
29. _____ is associated with with Q fever and can
be transmitted via inhalation of aerosols from
infected animals.
C. burnetti
30. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes _____.
Primary atypical pneumonia
31. _____ is the yeast enzyme detected using
birdseed (niger seed) agar.
Phenol oxidase
32. The mycelia form of _____ (dimorphic mold)
produces thick-walled, rectangular or barrel shaped
alternate arthroconidia.
Coccidioides immitis
33. _____ is the most common viral syndrome of
pericarditis, myocarditis and pleurodynia (pain upon
breathing).
Coxsackie B virus
34. When a delay in processing cannot be avoided,
specimens for viral isolation must be _____.
Held at 4 degrees Celsius and snap-frozen to -70
degrees Celsius.
35. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Echinococcus granulosus – routine ova and
parasite examination
36. The following are considered STAT procedures
in diagnostic parasitology:
CNS specimens for examination of free-living
amoebae
Blood films in a potential malaria case
37. The specific gravity of the solution used in the
zinc sulfate flotation method is _____.
1.18
38. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has
_____.
Central karyosome, ingested RBC, clear
pseudopodia
39. _____ is pathognomonic for Giardia lamblia
_____.
Ventral sucking disk, trophozoite
40. What differentiates modified acid-fast staining
from regular AFB staining?
The decolorizer is weaker in modified acid-fast
staining than the acid alcohol in regular AFB
staining.
41. Autofluorescence requires no stain and is
recommended for the identification of _____.
Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
42. Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. Have
been implicated in _____.
Use of contaminated lens care solutions
43. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is
commonly caused by _____.
Naegleria fowleri
44. _____ is the hemoflagellate form that can be
found in humans in cases of Leishmaniasis
(diagnostic stage).
Amastigote
45. _____ possesses the characteristic “thrown
ball” motility.
B. coli
46. _____ is capable of exhibiting multiple ring
forms and marginal/applique forms.
P. falciparum
47. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are
similar because they _____.
Exhibit Schuffner’s dots and have a true relapse in
the life cycle.
48. The positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye
test is when _____.
Toxoplasma loses its affinity for the methylene blue
dye.
49. The rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides
stercoralis have _____.
Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
50. Trichinella spiralis adults are found in _____.
Small intestine
51. Zinc sulfate concentration may NOT allow
detection of _____.
Infertile ova of Ascaris lumbricoides
52. A trematode with male and female adult forms
is _____.
Schistosoma spp.
53. Which protozoa should be reported to the
clinicians?
Dientamoeba fragilis
54. Nontuberculous colonies that develop pigment
in the dark or light, and take longer than 7 days to
appear on solid media are known as _____.
Scotochromogens
55. An organism that is (+) in niacin, nitrate
reduction, appears to have a serpentine cording on
culture and grows in Tween 80 Hydrolysis after 5
days is suggestive of:
M. tuberculosis
56. Which of the following can be used as positive
control in Gram staining?
Staphylococcus aureus
57. Which organism is used for the quality control
of positive results in Kovac method for indole
production?
E. coli
58. Which test is used to diagnose Giardia lamblia
infection from duodenal specimens?
Entero
59. What is NOT considered a panic value in a
Microbiology laboratory?
Negative blood smear for malaria
60. A lesion from the buccal mucosa of a patient
with C. albicans in exudate shows _____.
Blastoconidia, chlamydospores
61. Which substance interferes with stool sample
testing?
Mineral oil
62. Which nematode egg requires a warm humid
environment in order for the embryonated ovum to
mature and become infective and is transmitted
through oral fecal route?
A. lumbricoides
63. Nucleic acid amplification test for detection of
suspicious Bordetella, Chlamydia or Neisseria
infections require a sample of _____.
DNA
64. An emulsifying agent that stains nuclei of
parasites and other structures to make them easily
visible is _____.
Lugol’s iodine
65. Anaerobic bacteria that has no definitive
virulence factors known and is associated with
inflammatory process in acne is _____.
Propionibacterium
66. The gold standard serologic test for
rickettsioses is _____.
Indirect immunofluorescent antibody assay
67. Which of the following is NOT true of virions
Extracellular
68. Which order of events should be followed at the
conclusions of the shift of a laboratory worker to
prevent the spread of blood borne pathogens?
Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands remove
lab coat.
69. Contact with feline feces in cat litter is a primary
source of ____.
Toxoplasma
70. The mode of transmission of this organism is
direct skin penetration. Which organism is referred
to?
Strongyloides stercoralis
71. Which organism can cause granulomatous
disease in animals?
Actinobacillus
72. In the life cycle of Paragonimus, migration of
_____ (also the infective stage) through muscle
and tissue causes local pain and immune response
to tissue damage.
Metacercariae
73. How can anaerobic indigenous flora become
pathogenic?
Impairment of blood supply
74. A single-stranded RNA genome having a helical
capsid with envelope is a characteristic of ____.
Filovirus
75. Which method of susceptibility testing involves
subjecting the isolate to a series of concentrations
of antimicrobial agents in a broth environment?
Dilution
76. Select the type of bacteria that can use oxygen
as terminal electron acceptor in respiration.
Aerobic
77. An organism that causes chancroid and which
appears as small gram negative coccobacilli is
_____.
H. ducreyi
78. How will you know if an N95 mask works
properly?
Snug fit
79. What type of organism demand special and
enriched nutritional environment?
Fastidious
80. What bacteria is MOST susceptible to changes
in temperature?
Yersinia pestis
81. What does a desiccator do?
Preserve moisture-sensitive items
82. The required preventive maintenance of
centrifuge is _____.
Check rpm every 6 months
83. In thioglycolate broth medium, where do you
find obligate aerobe?
At the top of the tube
84. Elongated embryonated, operculated ova with
terminal spine seen in a urine specimen is
indicative of _____.
Schistosoma haemotobium
85. Which of the medically important streptococci is
characterized by beta-hemolysis, bacitracin
sensitive and PYR test positive?
Streptococcus pyogenes
86. What is an appropriate action if the diameters of
the zones of inhibition are too large or too small
with all the antimicrobials being tested?
Ensure that plates are incubated immediately after
application of discs
87. What is blood agar made of?
Nutrients and 5% sheep blood
88. A device used to incubate, agitate and monitor 98. Animals that harbor parasites and serve as an
blood culture bottles for microbial growth is a _____ important source of infection are known as _____
system. host.
Blood culture Reservoir
89. An organism appearing as small gram negative 99. On BA plate, a non-lactose fermenter that
coccobacilli that causes chancroid is _____. shows round, smooth, convex, colonies, appearing
as black or very dark purple and has ammonium
H. ducreyi
cyanide odor is suggestive of _____.
90. Which is transmitted by a black fly by laying its
Chromobacterium violaceum
eggs in running water and where the larvae attach
to the rocks? 100. Amniotic, peritoneal, synovial, pericardial fluids
should be transported to the laboratory within
Onchocerca volvulus
_____ minutes.
91. What is NOT considered Personal Protective 30
Equipment?
Hand sanitizer
92. Sputum sample from a female teenanger with
cystic fibrosis and diagnosed with pneumonia
shows gram negative bacilli with yellow, smooth
columbium. Further testing gave the following
results

• Oxidase (+)
• TSI alkaline/alkaline
• Glucose oxidized.
• Fluorescence
• Lysine decarboxylase (+)
What is the most likely organism involved?
Burkholderia cepacian
93. Which type of tapeworm is characterized by
pollen grain like appearance of the proglottids?
Taenia
94. Which is NOT a strategy in Parasitology Quality
Assurance?
Dispatch test results for ER immediately
95. Positive cultures of yeast and filamentous fungi
are reported with the _____.
Organism identification
96. Identify the cause of Loeffler’s syndrome?
Hypersensitivity reaction
97. What type of growth can an agar slant
produce?
Diffuse

1. Which of the following media identifies species of
Aspergillus?
Czapek’s agar
2. Which of the following parasite larva can be
isolated in sputum?
Ascaris lumbricoides
3. The third Taenia spp.:
T. asiatica
4. The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:
Mosquito (Female Anopheles)
5. How many samples are required to be submitted
for DSSM?
2 Blue
6. A medium that aids in the presumptive
identification of organisms based on their
appearance on the medium is called:
Differential
7. Which of the following is a test to differentiate
Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus
saprophyticus?
Novobiocin Disk Test
8. A medical technologist cultured a specimen from
a suspected cystic fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of
incubation, the MT noticed colonies which were
spreading and flat, with serrated edges and a
metallic sheen. There was a characteristic corn
taco-like odor. Identify the bacteria.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
9. Which of the following bacteria is the most likely
identified by the following characteristics:
Catalase: Negative
Coagulase: Negative
Bacitracin: Susceptible
Bile esculin: Negative
Streptococcus pyogenes
10. The lowest concentration of antibiotics that
inhibits growth of a test organism is the:
Minimum inhibitory concentration
11. A clear medium used to identify M. tuberculosis.
Middlebrook
12. All of the following are RNA viruses EXCEPT:
Adenoviridae
13. Roundworm that inhabits small intestine and
usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva.
Strongyloides stercoralis
14. Staphylococcus aureus can be isolated from
stool cultures by?
Medium with 7.5 salt
15. Which of the following is the color of non-acid
fast bacilli?
16. What is the composition of an iodophore?
Iodine and detergent
17. Gram-negative, coffee bean shaped diplococci
with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which
of the following?
Neisseria
18. Campylobacter requires how many % of CO2?
5-10%
19. What virus has the affinity for CNS?
Rabies virus
20. Cause of diarrhea in infants during winter
period
Rotavirus
21. Cause of adult gastroenteritis.
Norwalk virus
22. Which of the following can be used as a quality
control in a parasitology laboratory?
Slides and photographs
23. Which of the following bacteria have red
colonies often exhibit a black center in XLD agar?
Salmonella
24. Which of the following is the cause of urinary
tract infection in young females?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
25. Which of the following eggs of Ascaris
lumbricoides is lacking albuminoid layer?
Decorticated
26. Cytomegalovirus isolation is recommended
using:
Human embryonic fibroblasts
27. Which of the following produces macroconidia
that are large, multicellular and club-shaped with
smooth walls?
Epidermophyton flocossum
28. What is the scientific name of the body of
tapeworm?
Strobila
29. Corn meal agar test is used to identify Candida
albicans through the organism’s production of:
Chlamydospores
30. Preferred medium for isolation of Bordetella
pertussis:
Charcoal-Cephalexin agar
31. Most Enterobacteriaceae gives what type of
methyl red and vogues-proskauer reaction:
Opposite
32. This presumptive test for Candida uses serum.
Germ tube test
33. Which of the following are often mistaken for
cyst of amoebae?
Blastocystis hominis
34. In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated
yeast Cryptococcus neoformans in wet
preparations of patient specimens, what should be
used?
India ink
35. Which of the following is the vector of African
sleeping sickness?
Tse tse fly
36. Which of the following is diagnostic for
chromoblastomycosis?
Sclerotic body
37. Which of the following parasite through blood,
lungs, pharynx and then back to small intestines?
1. Necator americanus
2. Ancylostoma duodenale
3. Strongyloides stercoralis
1, 2, 3
38. Rose gardener’s disease:
Sporotrichosis
39. The steam autoclave method sterilization:
Uses 15 lbs of pressure for 15 mins.
40. The following are techniques used for detection
of parasitic infection and their corresponding
causative agent. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae
41. The most sensitive substrate for the detection
of beta-lactamase is:
Nitrocefin
42. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of
Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting:
A scotch tape preparation from the perianal region
43. Which of the following is the most appropriate
organism and media combination?
Yersinia enterocolitica – Cefsulodin-Irigasan-
Novobiocin
44. Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the
adult form of:
Spirometra
45. When performing a Kovac Indole Test, the
subtrate must contain:
Tryptophan
46. Second intermediate host of Paragonimus
westermani:
Freshwater crab
47. What is the first step in the replication cycle of
virus?
Attachment and penetration
48. What is the schistosomule?
Cercaria minus a tail
49. SPS is used as an anticoagulant for blood
cultures because it:
Inactivates neutrophils and components of serum
complement
50. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp.
to humans?
Promastigote
51.Which of the following factors would make an
organism appear to be more resistant on a disk
diffusion susceptibility test?
Too many organisms in the inoculum
52. It is the smallest RNA virus:
Enterovirus
53. Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be confirmed
best by culture of:
Bone marrow
54. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from
rhinoviruses by:
Acid resistance
55. Which of the following media can be used to
culture Campylobacter jejuni?
Skirrow medium
56. Which of the following is a suitable transport
medium for bacteria and virus?
Stuart’s medium
57. The best medium for culture of Bordetella
pertussis is:
Regan-Lowe agar
58. Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to
differentiate:
Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus spp.
59. The best medium for culture of Francisella
tularensis is:
Cystine Glucose Blood agar
60. Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is most
commonly caused by the Staphylococcus species:
S. epidermidis
61. Parasitic organisms that are most often
transmitted sexually include:
Trichomonas vaginalis
62. A gram stain from a gum lesion showed what
appeared to be amoebae. A trichome smear
showed amoebae with a single nucleus and
partially digested PMNs. The correct identification
is:
Entamoeba gingivalis
63. Type of parasite that can exist in a free living
stage or can become parasitic when the need arise.
Facultative
64. Reservoir host of Paragonimus westermanui
Field rats
65. Infective stage of Trichiuris trichiura
Embryonated egg
66. Reagent applied on sputum to enhance
recovery a lung fluke
3% NaOH
67. Protein only produced by Plasmodium
falciparum
HRP-2
68. Only species of Schistosomes which causes
human schistosomiasis in the Philippines.
S. japonicum
69. Which stage of Enterobius vermicularis has the
characteristic cuticular alar expansion?
Adult worm
70. Causes “ground itch/dew itch”
Necator americanus
71. Causes “creaping eruption”
Ancylostoma caninum
72. Biologic vector of Wuchereria
Aedes, Culex, Anopheles
73. Periodicity of filarial worms
Nocturnal
74. How can you differentiate Taenia saginata and
Taenia solium?
T. saginata has tree-like branches, T. solium has
fingerlike branches
75. Infective stage of broad fish tapeworm in
copepods
Procercoid larva
76. General infective stage of trematodes in snails
Miracidia
77. “Achovy sauce like” liver aspirate
Entamoeba histolytica
78. Characteristic lobose monopseudopodium,
central nucleus, 2 flagella and pear shaped cell
body
Naegleria
79. Infective stage of Leishmanial parasite
Promastigote
80. Monocyte produced substance which is the
cause of malarial fever
Cachexin
81. The incorrect match between symptoms and
disease is:
Myalgias and trichuriasis
82 – 86
The only son of Mang Blue name Mr. Bubbles help
him in the farm after the strike if Bagyong Yolanda.
Mr. Bubbles arrange all the downed plants and
clean all the muds inside the house. The mother
shouted to Mr. Bubbles and call him to have lunch
because she prepared Nilagang baka. After 1
month Mr. Bubbles experienced, diarrhea, severe
abdominal pain and pain on the right side of his
body. They found out that Mr. Bubbles has
Appendicitis.
82.What would be the parasite most significantly
the cause of the following symptoms mentioned
above of the son of Mang Nestor:
Ascaris lumbricoides
83. What is the infective stage of the parasite
identified in question #82:
Embryonated egg
84. Method/s use for the diagnosis of the parasite
identified in question #87:
Direct Fecal Smear
85. Common name of the parasite identified in
question #82:
Giant Round worm
86. Habitat of the adult worm of the parasite
identified in question #82:
Small intestine
87. Black water fever is a special manifestation of
malaria caused by:
Plasmodium falciparum
88. After sporozoite gain entrance to human body it
undergoes developmental cycle first in liver than in
RBC, only after which fever is seen. This incubation
period varies between plasmodium species, and
_____ species has longest incubation period.
Plasmodium malariae
89. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
Plasmodium falciparum are true?
Is the only malarial parasite causing greater than
20% parasitaemia
90. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
vivax malaria is (are) true:
May co-exist with falciparum malaria in the same
patient
91. Antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous
colitis and diarrhea is/are associated to.
C. difficile
92. Test/s to differentiate gram (+) spore forming
Bacillus anthracis from Bacillus cereus.
Motility test
93. Culture media of choice for Francisella
tularensis.
Blood Glucose-Cystine Medium
94. Specimens used for diagnosis of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is/are the following:
I. Secretions obtained from bronchoscopy
II. Pericardial fluid
III. Blood
IV. Urine
All of these options
95. Biotype of Vibrio associated with recent
widespread endemics.
El Tor
96. Disease caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
I. Vietnamese timbe bomb disease
II. Glander’s disease
III. Melioidosis
IV. None of the choices
I and III are correct
97. Blood, eye and ear infections are associated
with:
V. alginolyticus
98. Dirrhogenic strain of Escherichia coli
responsible for watery stool with mucus only.
EAEC
99. Which of the following is the most appropriate
test/s to differentiate Proteus from Morganella and
Providencia?
Gelatin Liquefaction test
100. During the stationary phase, the bacterial
enzymes and metabolic processes are activated.
Dead debris is starting to accumulate during this
phase.
Second statement is correct
1. The following is an example of antiseptic 13. Substance responsible for acid-fastness of
EXCEPT: microorganisms
Lysol Mycolic acid
2. Enrichment media EXCEPT: 14. The mordant used in Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast
stain is:
BAP
Heat
3. Which of the following variables may change the
results of an MIC? 15. Rod shape
Inoculum size Bacillus
Incubation Time 16. Pertaining to the ability of the pathogenic agent
to produce a disease
Growth rate of Bacteria
Pathogenicity
4. Acid fast bacteria appear what color
microscopically? 17. Characterized by a Flagella surrounding the
bacteria
Red
Peritrichous
5. Which class of antibiotics is used for the
treatment of serious gram-negative infections as 18. Type of carrier who has an overt clinical case of
well as infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis? the disease
Aminoglycosides Active carrier
6. Serologic somatic “O” antigen is located in: 19. Define as the number of death due to a disease
in a population
Cell wall
Mortality rate
7. Define as bacteria multiplying in the blood
20. The ratio of the toxic dose to the therapeutic
Septicemia
dose
8. Classification of disease that constantly present
Therapeutic index
in a particular population
21. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most
Endemic
effective germicide?
9. All are classified as sign EXCEPT
75%
Malaise
22. Inhibitory Substance to gram positive except:
10. Accept sputum for processing when gram stain Sodium azide
reveals:
23. When collecting specimen for bacteriology
Less than 10 epithelial cells
which vial/bottle should be used for bacteriology
More than 25 PMN
2nd Microbiology
11. Minor antigenic changes as a result of mutation 24. The following statement are true except:
in pathogen strains and facilitate the pathogen
avoid host immune responses Sterile specimen are those which don’t normally
contain microorganisms such as CSF, joint fluids,
Antigenic shift
Blood, Urine and sweat.
12. Appear dark blue to purple after gram staining
25. Guidelines for proper specimen collection
process
except:
Gram positive
Collect specimen using clean, appropriate
containers
26. All specimen should be stored at Refrigerator
temperature EXCEPT:
CSF
27. Antimicrobial drugs that is considered as
Broadspectrum
Rifampicin
28. Lowest concentration of antibiotic that can
inhibit the microorganism
MIC
29. Which of the terms of the normal Growth cycle
best describes a stage when bacteria are adapting
to a new environment?
Lag phase
30. This type of antimicrobial drugs inhibit
transpeptidation of enzymes
Cell wall inhibitor
31. Broth dilution method’s standard inoculum size
in Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
5
5x10 CFU/ml
32. What is the purpose of adding 0.025% - 0.050%
of sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient
broth media for the collection of blood cultures?
It inhibits phagocytosis and complement
33. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) should be cultured
immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:
Incubated at 37C and cultured as soon as possible
34. Chemicals used in McFarland Standard
H2SO4
Barium chloride
35. The instrument used to measure the diameter
of zone of inhibition around the disk is called:
Caliper
36. Protein synthesis inhibitor that results in the
inhibition of peptidyltransferase and inhibits peptide
chain elongation
Clindamycin
37. These are chemically modified natural drugs
with added extra chemical groups
Semi-synthetic drugs
38. Which of the following variables may change
the results of an MIC?
Inoculum size
Incubation Time
Growth rate of Bacteria
39. Which calls of antibiotics is used for the
treatment of serious gram-negative infections as
well as infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Aminoglycosides
40. Indirect method of staining
India Ink
41. Organism that used inorganic substance as
electron source
Lithotrophs
42. Carbon dioxide produced by a candle jar?
5%
43. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires
that the skin be cleansed with:
70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor
44. Infections that develop slowly with milder but
longer-lasting symptoms
Chronic infection
45. Obligate intracellular organism
Chlamydia
46. Generalized/systemic infection is usually due
to:
Gram negative bacteria
47. Most effective dilution of house hold bleach
1:10
48. Spores are colored green against red bacilli?
Writz and Conklin method
49. Selective medium best used in isolation of
Vibrio organism from stool?
TCBS
50. Ultraviolet lights kills bacteria by:
Damaging Nucleic acids
51. An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell
him the chances of him progressing to symptomatic
AIDS. Which one of the following tests would be
most useful?
CD4 lymphocyte count
52. The clinical picture if arbovirus infection fits one
of three categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic
fever, or fever with myalgia. One of the
characteristics or arboviruses is that they
Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
53. Which one of the following statements best
describes interferon’s suspected mode of action in
producing resistance to viral infection?
It action is related to the synthesis of a protein that
inhibits translation or transcription
54. Which of the following antiviral agents is a
purine nucleoside analogue that has shown
promise with Lassa fever, influenza A and B, and
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
Ribavirin
55. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all
cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States,
Infection with mumps virus
Is preventable by immunization
56. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s
office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-
grade fever, and Koplik’s spot. The causative agent
of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
Paramyxovirus
57. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup
syndrome in young children and, when infecting
mammalian cells in culture, will hemabsorb red
blood cells?
Parainfluenza virus
58. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis
virus, is best described by which of the following
statements?
It is not a threat to the blood supply
59. Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset
of fever and stiff neck. Aseptic meningitis may be
caused by a variety microbial agents. During the
initial 24 hours of the course of aseptic meningitis,
an affected person’s cerebrospinal fluid is
characterized by
Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
60. Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated
with a high fatality rate. Control of the disease could
be possible by eradication of
Mosquitoes
61. Habitat of Schistosoma japonicum
Superior mesenteric plexus
62. The preservative to be employed with the
trichrome stain is:
Alcohol
63. Vector of Loa Loa
Mango fly
64. When stained with trichrome stain, chromatoid
bodies appear what color?
Bright to red
65. Vector of Trypanosoma brucei
Tse-tse fly
66. Trophozoite structures for protozoans, when
stained with trichrome stain, appear:
Glycogen – colorless
Nucleus – red purple
Charcot Leyden crystals – bright red
67. Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti
Mosquito
68. What is the advantage of the sedimentation
method of concentrating stool specimens?
All eggs will sediment
Recovers operculated eggs
Fecal debris and soluble material can be removed
69. Infective stage of T. cruzi to man:
Trypomastigote
70. What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan 82. What is the scientific name of the body of a
cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation? tapeworm?
Do not stain Strobila
71. Almond-shaped scolex with 2 lateral grooves: 83. Infective stage of coccidians:
D. latum Oocyst
72. What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan 84. Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as
cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation? swimmer’s itch, is caused by:
Yellow-brown Cercariae of schistosomes
73. A term used to describe the disease incidence 85. Infective to definitive host in malarial infection:
that occurs simultaneously at very high frequency
Gametocytes
throughout the world is called:
86. Which of the following is caused by the
Pandemic
ingestion of snails by humans?
74. Direct examination of stool specimen stained
Rat lungworm
with iodine make the trophozoite of the protozoa
stain what color? 87. Infective to intermediate host in malarial
infection:
Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine
Sporozoite
75. The female sex-cell of malarial parasites
88. Which of the following causes a chronic cough,
Macrogametocytes
pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of
76. “Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms the heart in humans?
at the:
Dirofilaria immitis
Site of larval penetration of the skin
89. Which of the following persist in the liver and
77. Which of the following is not seen in blood cause a relapse by invading the bloodstream years
smears? after malarial infection?
S. mansoni Hypnozoites
78. A six-hooked embryo is known as: 90. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption
is caused by:
Hexacanth
Filariform larvae of dog hookworm
79. Important parasites in man:
91. Which of the following describes Toxocara
1. Protozoa
canis?
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Nematoda Visceral larva migrans
4. Annelida
92. Which of the following is the eyeworm?
1, 2, 3
Loa
80. The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled
93. The receptor of malarial parasite on red cells is:
with:
Duffy
Eggs
MN – receptor for P. falciparum
81. Which species of malaria has the longest
incubation period? 94. Which of the following microfilariae does NOT
have a sheath?
Malariae
Mansonella
95. Which of the following has a trophozoite and a
cyst form?
E. histolytica
96. Drancunculus infections cause ulcers that:
On contact with water, release larvae
97. Clonorchis sinensis lives inside some fish that
humans eat. The fish is considered as:
Secondary host
98. Dirofilaria immitis is the:
Dog heartworm
99. Parasetemia refers to:
Parasites in the blood
100. The intermediate host of the guinea worm is
the:
Copepod