MCQ6

Course No.
:- EXTN 122
Course Title:- Dimensions of Agricultural Extension
Q. 1) The National Extension service was stared in the year _______________
i) 2nd October 1952 ii) 2nd October 1953
iii) 2nd October 1951 iv) None of these
Q. 2) The middle tier of three tier system of Panchayat Raj is known as ________
i) Panchayat Samiti ii) Grampanchayat
iii) Zilla Parishad iv) None of these
Q. 3) Gramsabha is conducted ____________ times in a year.
i) 2 ii) 4
iii) 3 iv) 6
Q. 4) Panchayat Raj was introduced in India on the recommendation of ________
i) Vasantrao Naik ii) Balwantrao Mehta
iii) Jaywantrao Mehta iv) None of these
Q. 5) The Community Development Programme was launched in India on _______
i) 2nd October 1951 ii) 2nd October 1950
iii) 2nd October 1952 iv) 2nd October 1953
Q. 6) ______________ acts a secretary of Grampanchayat
i) B.D.O. ii) Talathi
iii) Gramsevak iv) None of these

Q. 7) Training and Visit System started in Maharashtra in year ______________
i) 1980 ii) 1981
iii) 1984 iv) 1982
Q. 8) Village guides were appointed in villages under __________ project
i) Etawah project ii) Nilokheri project
iii) Gurgaon project iv) None of these
Q. 9) The age of the person ranges between 18 to ___________ known as youth
i) 25 ii) 30
iii) 35 iv) None of these
Q. 10) _______________ per cent seats are reserved for women in Grampanchayat
i) 27 ii) 50
Q. 11) The village Grampanchayat having population of 6001 to 7500 consist of

__________ members.
i) 11 ii) 13
iii) 15 iv) 17
Q. 12) ____________ Percent seats of sarpanch are reserved for O.B.C. members
i) 25 ii) 27
Q. 13) The percentage of people below poverty line in India is
i) 25.1 ii) 27.8

iii) 29.3 iv) 21.45
Q. 14) The literacy rate of India according to 2011 census is
i) 75.85 ii) 54.16
iii) 62.67 iv) 74.04
Q. 15) Rural development can be defined as a strategy designed to improve
i) Economic and social life of rural poor
ii) Condition of all section of people
iii) Economic condition of rural society
iv) Physical infrastructure
Q. 16) The basic guide, philosopher and friend in rural development
i) BDO ii) VDO
iii) Pradhan iv) Pramukh
Q. 17) Rural development programmes are related to
i) Self employment ii) Employment generation
iii) Poverty alleviation iv) All of the above
Q. 18) The basic operational unit for rural development in India is
i) Village ii) District
iii) Tehsil iv) Block
Q. 19) The chairman of District Rural Development Agency
i) District collector ii) District Planning Officer
iii) District Panhayat President iv) Block Development Officer

Q. 20) The chairman of State Development Committee:
i) Governor ii) Chief Minister
iii) Chief Secretary iv) Minister of Rural Development
Q. 21) NABARD was established on
i) 1935 ii) 1959
iii) 1976 iv) 1982
Q. 22) A monthly newsletter published by Ministry of Rural Development
i) Grameen Bharat ii) Grama Sabha
iii) Panchayat Sabha iv) Rural Panchayat
Q. 23) International women’s day is celebrated on
i) 8th March ii) 16th October
iii) 1st November iv) 22nd December
Q. 24) The Right to Information Act was passed in the year
i) 2005 ii) 2006
iii) 2007 iv) 2008
Q. 25) The recent National Commission on Agriculture was headed by
i) M S Swaminathan ii) Chidambaram
c) Sharad Power iv) Mangala Rai

Q. 26) The millennium development goal of reducing world poverty by half is aimed
by
i) 2020 ii) 2015
iii) 2010 iv) 2012
Q. 27) The land revenue under Zamindari system was charged
i) Through village panchayats ii) Through landlords
iii) Directly from the farmers iv) All of the above
Q. 28) ‘Zamindari’ system was abolished in India on
i) 1951 ii) 1954
iii) 1968 iv) 1960
Q. 29) Srinikethan institute was established in
i) 1915 ii) 1914
iii) 1913 iv) 1903
Q. 30) The person associated with Sewagram project
i) R N Tagore ii) B P Pant
iii) M K Gandhi iv) F L Brayne
Q. 31) Sewagram project was started in
i) 1920 ii) 1931
iii) 1935 iv) 1937
Q. 32) Gurgaon attempt was in the state of
i) Madhya Pradesh ii) Utter Pradesh
iii) Hariyana iv) Punjab

Q. 33) Gurgaon attempt was started in
i) 1918 ii) 1920
iii) 1921 iv) 1922
Q. 34) Marthandam project was started in
i) 1918 ii) 1944
iii) 1921 iv) 1928
Q. 35) Who among the following is associated with YMCA
i) Spencer Hatch ii) F L Brayne
iii) S K Dey iv) Albert Mayor
Q. 36) Etawah pilot project was started in
i) 1947 ii) 1945
iii) 1946 iv) 1948
Q. 37) The person who was associated with Etawah pilot project
i) Albert Mayor ii) F L Brayne
iii) S K Dey iv) M K Gandhi
Q. 38) The concept of multipurpose village level worker was evolved from
i) Etawah pilot project ii) Community Development

Project
iii) National extension service iv) Gurgaon project
Q. 39) Etawah district is in the state of

i) Andhra Pradesh ii) Bihar
iii) Madhya Pradesh iv) Uttar Pradesh
Q. 40) Nilokheri project was also called
i) Mazdoor Manzil ii) Kishan Manzil
iii) Mazdoor Madad iv) None of these
Q. 41) Firka development scheme was started in
i) 1947 ii) 1945
iii) 1946 iv) 1944
Q. 42) The person associated with firka development scheme
i) R N Tagore ii) T Prakasam
Q. 43) Grow more food campaign was started in
i) 1947 ii) 1945
iii) 1946 iv) 1944
Q. 44) Sarvodaya scheme was started by
i) R N Tagore ii) Vinoba Bhave
Q. 45) Key village scheme was started in
i) 1947 ii) 1945
iii) 1946 iv) 1952

Q. 46) Bhoodhan movement was initiated on
i) 1947 ii) 1948
iii) 1951 iv) 1963
Q. 47) The land collected in Bhoodan is distributed among
i) Marginal farmers ii) Landless peasants
iii) Medium farmers iv) Krishi pundits
Q. 48) The structure of CD blocks were taken from
i) Ettawa project ii) Firka Project
iii) GMF campaign iv) Nilokari experiment
Q. 49) The technical cooperation agreement of CDP was signed with
i) Israel ii) France
iii) USA iv) Netherland
Q. 50) “A Guide to Community Development” was written by
i) M Horton ii) D Hamilton
iii) T Moscher iv) Ensminger
Q. 51) The number of community development projects implemented in India
i) 52 ii) 55
iii) 61 iv) 69
Q. 52) The operational area of each community development project includes
i) 100 villages ii) 200 villages
iii) 300 villages iv) 400 villages

Q. 53) Community Development Blocks was started in
i) 1952 ii) 1953
iii) 1954 iv) 1955
Q. 54) The committee constituted to review CD and NES projects was headed by
i) Ashok Mehta ii) Hanumantha Rao
iii) Dantwala iv) Balwanthray Mehta
Q. 55) Panchayat Raj is a system of
i) Local government ii) Local administration
iii) Local self-government iv) None of the above
Q. 56) The origin of the word democracy is from
i) Roman ii) Sanskrit
iii) Greek iv) Persian
Q. 57) The process of dispersing decision making closer to the point of service or
action
i) Decentralization ii) Delegation
iii) Devolution iv) Deconcentration
Q. 58) The election to panchayat is normally held after a period of
i) 3 years ii) 4 years
iii) 5 years iv) 6 years
Q. 59) Panchayat Raj system was adopted first in

i) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
ii) Andhra Pradesh and West Bangal
iii) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
iv) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan
Q. 60) The total number of panchyats in the country
i) 2.50 lakh ii) 2.23 lakh
iii) 2.47 lakh iv) 2.79 lakh
Q. 61) The total number of districts in India
i) 256 ii) 594
iii) 488 iv) 640
Q. 62) The pioneer state in India to bring the whole of it under democratic
decentralization
i) Uttar Pradesh ii) Bihar
iii) Rajasthan iv) Madhya Pradesh
Q. 63) Ford foundation was invited to India on
i) 1958 ii) 1959
iii) 1962 iv) 1979
Q. 64) The IADP was launched in
i) 1960 Kharif ii) 1960 Rabi
iii) 1964 Kharif iv) 1964 Rabi
Q. 65) The IADP was popularly known as

i) Package Programme ii) Training Programme
iii) Community Programme iv) Agricultural Programme
Q. 66) CDP differs from IADP as the former have
i) Area based approach
ii) Decentralized administration
iii) Degree of investment
iv) Multi purpose approach
Q. 67) The IAAP was launched in
i) 1960 ii) 1965
iii) 1964 iv) 1968
Q. 68) High Yielding Variety Programme was started in
i) 1960 ii) 1961
iii) 1964 iv) 1976
Q. 69) The T & V system was sponsored by
i) WHO ii) USAID
iii) World Bank iv) IMF
Q. 70) The T & V system of extension was introduced in India by
i) Danial Benor ii) Van den Ban
iii) M S Swaminathan iv) C Subramanian
Q. 71) The base level extension functionary in T & V system
i) BDO ii) VLW

iii) AEO iv) SDAO
Q. 72) The first state in India to introduce Training and Visit system was
i) Punjab ii) Rajasthan
iii) Tamil Nadu iv) Bihar
Q. 73) Small Farmers Development Agency was set up in
i) 1969-70 ii) 1970-71
iii) 1975-76 iv) 1980-81

Q. 74) The Ganga Kalyan Yojana is for
i) Consumption purpose of farmers
ii) Irrigation for small and marginal farmers
iii) Credit support scheme for rural women
iv) Credit support scheme for small farmers
Q. 75) Intensive Cattle Development Project was launched in
i) 1969-70 ii)1964-65
iii) 1975-76 iv) 1980-81
Q. 76) The Food Corporation of India was set up in
i) 1960 ii) 1962
iii) 1965 iv) 1967
Q. 77) Operational flood was launched in
i) 1986 ii) 1981
iii)1976 iv) 1971
Q. 78) Drought Prone Area Programme was launched on
i) 1973-74 ii) 1968-69
iii) 1971-72 iv) 1986-57
Q. 79) Desert Development Programme was launched on
i) 1977-78 ii) 1968-69
iii) 1971-72 iv) 1956-57
Q. 80) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in

i) 2000 ii) 2007
iii) 2008 iv) 1986
Q. 81) Annual growth rate in agriculture sector expected during the eleventh plan
i) 8 per cent ii) 6 per cent
iii) 4 per cent iv) 3 per cent
Q. 82) The planning commission was setup in
i) 1949 ii) 1950
iii) 1951 iv) 1952
Q. 83) The planning commission of India is a
i) Constitutional body ii) Statutory body
iii) Non-statutory body iv) Autonomous body

Q. 84) Who is not a member in the National Development Council
i) Prime Minister ii) President
iii) Chief Ministers iv) Cabinet Ministers
Q. 85) The national development council was set up in
i) 1950 ii) 1951
iii) 1952 iv) 1953
Q. 86) IRDP was introduced in India on
i) 1975-76 ii) 1978-79
iii) 1980-81 iv) 1981-82
Q. 87) The basic unit of development under IRDP is
i) District ii) Village
iii) CD block iv) Family
Q. 88) The agency constituted for implementing IRDP
i) DRDA ii) SFDA
iii) SISI iv) CAOART
Q. 89) DRDA expands to
i) District Rural Development Authority
ii) District Rural Development Agency
iii) District Rural Development Act
iv) District Rural Development Association
Q. 90) TRYSEM was introduced in the year

i) 1989 ii) 1979
iii) 1969 iv) 1978
Q. 91) DWCRA was implemented in
i) 1982 ii) 1979
iii) 1974 iv) 1978
Q. 92) The share of center and state in the funding of SGSY is
i) 75:25 ii) 60:40
iii) 50:50 iv) 25:75
Q. 93) The reservation for women as beneficiary under SGSY is
i) 53 per cent ii) 63.33 per cent
iii) 40 per cent iv) 33.33 per cent
Q. 94) The programme exclusively for urban poor
i) SJSRY ii) PMRY
iii) NSAP iv) SGSY
Q. 95) The programme developed to cover one crore poorest of the poor
i) SFDA ii) TRYSEM
iii) NAEP iv) AAY
Q. 96) The amount of rice and wheat together supplied per family in a month under
AAY
i) 20 kg ii) 25 kg
iii) 30 kg iv) 35 kg
Q. 97) The per kg price of rice and wheat under AAY is
i) Rs 2 and Rs. 3 ii) Rs 3 and Rs.3
iii) Rs 2 and Rs. 2 iv) Rs 3 and Rs. 2
Q. 98) Which of the following is not a poverty removal programme
i) NREP ii) HYVP
iii) IRDP iv) RLEGP
Q. 99) NREP was started in
i) 1977 ii) 1980
iii) 1981 iv) 1982
Q. 100) The National Rural Employment Programme dependent on
i) Rural employment ii) Self employment
iii) Wage employment iv) Revolving employment
*****
Course No. :- EXTN 122
Course Title:- Dimensions of Agricultural Extension
1 ii 26 ii 51 ii 76 iii
2 i 27 ii 52 iii 77 iv
3 ii 28 i 53 iii 78 i
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10 ii 35 i 60 i 85 iii
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25 i 50 iv 75 ii 100 iii
Department of Extension Education

College of Agriculture Kolhapur.
Multiple choice Questions for JRF/SRF/NET/ARS
Examination
Course No. EXTN. 111
Title-Fundamentals of Rural sociology and Educational Psychology
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1. A text book on Extension Education is written by _______________
i)Reddy A A ii) Singh R A
iii) S V Supe iv) None of these
2.‘Table manners’ falls under the category of ___________________
i)Mores ii) Folkways
iii)Customs iv) Values
3. Extension is a_____________ way channel
i)Two ii)One
iii)Three iv) None of these
4____________is the primary unit of local self Government
i)Panchayat samiti ii) Gram Panchayat
iii)Zilla parishad iv)None of these
5_____________are the socialiy accepted ways of acting according to the
corresponding traditions
i)Customs ii) Traditions
iii)Culture iv)None of these
6. ________________is the informal rural institutions
i)Mahila mandal ii)Family
iii)Rural society iv)None of these
7. Rural youth ciub is a _____________Organisation
i)Non voluntary ii)social
iii)Voluntary iv) None of these
8. In a village the percentage of ____________ type of families are more
i)Nucleus family ii) Joint family
iii)Joint and Nucleus iv) None of these
9. _____________ are socially accepted ways of thinking
i) Tradition ii)Customs
iii) Culture iv) None of these
10. The association which have self procedure and rules of functioning are
called
as___
i) Social group ii) Social interaction
iii) Institutions iv)None of these
11 _____________provide a communication link between resource systems of

some kind and client system
i)Change agent ii) Political leader
iii) Fully primary school iv) None of these
12. In ___________ School is standard has separate teacher
i)One teacher school ii) A group village
iii) Fully primary school iv)None of these
13.“ A continuous geographical area” is a component of
i) Group ii) Community
ii) Social change iii) Social control
14.Of the following which kind of families are found in India ?
i)Polygynous ii) Polyandrous
iii) Partilocal iv) Matriliocial
15. Symbolic adoption is the example of
i) Covert behavior ii) Overt behavior
iii) Aglection iv) None of these
16. The expected behavior of the member of society in relation to others is
i) Social role ii) Social norm
iii) culture iv) Social change
17. The process of providing situations in which leaning takes place
i) leaning ii) Teaching
iii) leaning experiences iv) Physical facilities
18. Of the following which is an example of a professional leader ?
i) VEW ii) MLA
iii) MP iv) None
19. Goal seeking behavior or factivity is called
i) Perception ii) Motivation
iii) Aspiration iv) Attitude
20. A person who actually initiates the action in the community is
i) Professional leader ii) Assured leader
iii) Operational leader iii) Popular leader
21. Caste is a class gained by
i) Power ii) Status
iii) Birth iv) Occupation
22. “Introductory Rural Sociology “ is written by
i) W.F. Ogburn ii) S.C. Dubey
iii) A.R.Desai iv) J.B. Chitamber
23. The basic criterion of social class is

i) Status ii) Occuption
iii) residence iv) None
24. The example of primary group is
i) Neighbourthood ii) Commission agent
iii) Local”bania iv) Sarpanch
25. Learning is a process which continues
i) Upto college education ii) Upto employment
iii) Life long iv) Occasionally
26. Which one of the following is the smallest unit of the culture ?
i) Cultural trait. II) Cultural complex
iii) Cultural pattern iv) Cultural area
27. Which of the following is an institution ?
i) temple ii) Political parties
iii) Family iv) Marriage
28. Any change in the behavior that takes place as a result of experience may
be called
i) Teaching ii) Education
iii) Learning iv) Extension
29. Which of the following have not been identified as an agent of social
control ?
i) Sex ii) Gossip
iii) Rumour iv) Tradition
30. “Rural sociology” is written by
i) A.R.Desai ii) J.B.Chitamber
iii) S.C.Dubey iv) W.F. Ogbum
31. Aim of psychology is
i) Environmental adjustments ii) Group behaviour
iii) Improvement of environment iv) All above
32.”Educational psychology” is written by
i) L.R.Shukala ii) Skinner and Charles
iii) J.P Guilford iv) S.N. Sriastva
33. Beliefs are
i) Primitive Knowledge ii) Testeal empirical knowledge
iii) Neither true nor false iv) Practical knowledge
34. Without social contact, education is
i) always possible ii) Sometimes possible
iii) Not possible iv) Noneof these
35. Which of the following is a social class ?
i) Kshatria ii) Upper, middle
iii) Brahmin iv) vaishya
36. The word “ sociology “ originated from the language
i) Greek ii) Latin
iii) French iv) German
37. An urge or combination of urges to induce conscious or purposeful action
is called
i)Activity ii) Perception
iii) Aptitude iv) Motive
38. Religion is a
i) Belief in Supernatural powers. ii) Belief in the immortality of the
soul
iii)Pursuit of the common ends. iv) Method of salvation
39 ……… is referred as father of socilogy
i) J.P.Legan ii) Auguste Comte
iii) E.M.Rogers iv) None of these
40. Learning is affected by
i) Physical environment ii) social environment
iii) Both iv) None
41. Which of the following is an element of behavior ?
i) Belief ii) Education
iii) Attitude iv) Aspiration
42. The IQ of normal individual is ……….
i)51-61 ii) 71-81
iii) 91-100 iv) l01-121
43. Family is an example of …… group.
i) Primary ii) Secondary
iii) Tertiary iv) None of these
44. Use of trained and influential extension persons in extension is the
principle of
i) selected person ii) Local leadership
iii) Whole family approach iv) Democracy
45 . The percentage of learning, which takes place through the sense of
touching,
is
i) 1 ii) 1.5
iii) 3.5 iv) 11
46. Method of studying and diagramming social relationships and making
sociograms is called
i) Sociogram ii) Sociomehod
iii) Sociometry iv) None
47. When two or more person meet it is …
i) Social organization ii) Social group
iii) Social Systems iv) Society
48. The type of leader who has received specialized training and is paid for
the
Field work is called.
a) Autocratic leader ii) Lay leader
iii) Professional leader d ) Democratic leader
49. The central element in an effective learning
i) Teacher ii) Learner
iii) Subject matter iv) Teaching aids.
50. The greatest hindrances to the “cultural lag” is
i) Technological innovations ii) Environment
iii) Voluntary associations iv) Psychological dogmatism
51. Who talked extensively on the concepts of “ego” and “alter”?
i) Karl Marx ii) August Comte
iii) Talcott Parasons iv) Raymond Aron
52. The term stem family was used by
i) F. Leplay ii) Captain Cook
iii) Robin Fore iv) R.D. Lanng
53. The team “ social physiology” was coined by
i) Emile Durkheim ii) Saint Simon
iii) August comte iv) Alfred Web
54. Filiocentric family is on in which the important role is played by
i) Children ii) Mother
iii) Father iv) Maternal uncle
55. “Social structure is web of interacting social forces from which have arise
the various modes of observing and thinking” is the definition given by
i) K. Mannheim ii) R.M. Maclaver
iii) S.F.Nodal iv) None
56. The term” Polygynandry” was coined by
i) T.N.Madan ii) D.N. Majumadar
iii)M.N.Srinivas iv) S.K.sinha
57. Which of the following is more closely realated to the social inequality ?
i) Social dynamics ii) Social differentiation
iii) Social stratification iv) Social control
58. The term freud is associated with.
i) Sociology ii) Psychology
iii) Rural development iv) Extension work
59. One of the significant attribute of the Indian culture is that it is
i) Materialistic ii) Spiritualistic
iii) Ethnocentric iv) Pragmatic
60. Cultural diffusion occurs due to
i) External source of change ii) cultural contacts
iii) Cultural borrowings iv) All of these
61. Which of the following is a community
i) Village ii) Caste
iii) Nation iv) Town
62. “ Norms are the blue prints of social behavior” This has been said by
i) Bierstadt ii) Sheriff
iii) Broom and Selznick iv) Hutton and Hunt
63. The term “Social movement” was first used by a social scientist from
i) Germany ii) France
iii) USA iv) England
64.The term “ basic personality” was first used by
i) Mead ii) Allport
iii) Kardinger iv) maan
65. Herbert Spencer linked his theory of social change with
i) technology ii) Organism
iii) Science iv) Supernatural elements
66. “Concentric zone theory” in urban sociology was given by
i) Burgess ii) Park
iii) Freud iv) Harris
67. The word “family” has been derived from the word “Famulus” which is in
essence ?
i)Latin ii) Greek
iii) Portuguese iv) Roman
68.Extension education has today acquired a special status as a profession and
discipline responsible for initiating
i) Programmed change ii) Technological change
iii)Learned change iv) Skill change
69. In Indian context, there are _______major organizational streams devoted
to extension work for agriculture and rural development
i) Three ii) four
iii)Five iv) Six
70. The first line extension system mainly comprises of
i) ICAR and SAUS ii) NGO
iii)Ministry of Agriculture and Cooperation iv) Ministry of Rural
Development
71. The systematic study of development of an individual within an education
setting is called as ……..
i) Extension Psychology ii) Educational Psychology
iii) Rural Psychology iv) Urban psychology
72. ……… are the types of mores for which the society does not given
consent.
i)customs ii) Toboo
iii) Rituals iv) Folkways
73. Gramsevak is a …….. Leader.
i) Local leaders ii) Professional
iii) autocratic leaders iv) none of these
74. Standing for National Anthem is an example of …….
i). taboos ii). folkways
iii). mores iv). values
75. The rural communities are smaller as compared…….. Communities
i). rural ii) urban
iii).state iv).nation
76. The word extension is derived from the …….
i) Greek ii) Latin
iii) French iv) Portuguese
77. The term ‘caste’ was derived from the……..
i) Greek ii) Latin
78. ……. As abstract and often unconscious assumptions of what is right and
important.
i) Social values ii)Social control
iii) Social change iv) none of these
79. ……….are formal cultural structures devised to meet basic social needs.
i) Social values ii) Social control
iii) Social Institutions iv) Social change
80. The pattern of pressure which a society exerts to maintain order and
established rules is ……
i) Social values ii)Social control
iii) Social change iv) none of these
81. ……is the modifications in ways of doing and thinking of people.

i) Social values ii) Social control
iii) Social Institutions iv) Social change
82. ………. Is an act that influences
i) Leader ii) Leadership
iii) Formal Leader iv) None of these
83 . The term Psychology was derived from…………… word
i) Greek ii) Latin
84. ………… is the ability of an individual to adjust himself to the condition
that arises in his environment.
i)Psychology ii) Intelligence
ii ) Sociology iv) None of these
85. …….. is the total quality of an individual.
i) Personality ii) Intelligence
iii) Leadership iv) ) None of these
86. ……….. is very conservative and suspicious of the motives of others
types of personality
i) Ambivert ii) Extrovert
iii) Introvert iv) None of these
87. ……. Personality have a liking for people as well as thoughts.
i) Ambivert ii) Extrovert
iii) Introvert iv) None of these
88. The word personality comes from the …… …..word.
i) Greek ii) Latin
iii) French iv) Portugues
89. ………… is directing the learning process, the process by which one
through his own activity, becomes changed in behavior.
i)Learning ii) Teaching
iii)Teaching and learning Process iv) None of these.
90. ……….. …. is a process by which a person changes his behavior through
his own efforts and abilities.
i)Learning ii) Teaching
iii) Teaching and learning Process iv) None of these
91. The learning situation ( Elements ) are
i) Learner (Farmer) ii) Teachers (Extension worker)
iii) Subject Matter ,Teaching material and Physical Facilities
iv) All above
92. ………… is the process of understanding sensations or attaching
meanings based on past experience to signs.
a) Perception ii) Motivation
iii)Motive iv) None of these
93. …………are physiological internal or environment external imbalances
that given rise to drives.
i)Drives ii) Needs
iii)Motivation iv) Motive
94. …………… are the stimuli that arise from needs.
i) Drives ii) Needs
iii)Motivation iv) Motive
95 Basic concept of sociology :
i)Family ii)Community
iii)Village iv)Society
96. A group of people organized for a particular purpose is called
i) Community ii) Association
iii)Society iv) Institution
97. In the class system ,the status is
i) Ascribed ii)Achieved
iii)Hereditary iv)Acquired
98.A person’s functional significance is indicated by
i) Status ii) Role
iii)Act iv) culture
99.Which of the following is most closely related to happiness
i)Wealth ii) Religion
iii)Age iv) Social Relationships
100. Marriage due to mutual affection is called
i)Gandharva ii)Rakshsa
iii)Daiva iv)A0sura
Course No. :- EXTN 111
Course Title:- Fundamentals of Rural sociology and Educational Psychology
1 ii 26 i 51 iii 76 ii
2 Ii 27 iv 52 i 77 iv
3 i 28 iii 53 ii 78 i
4 ii 29 i 54 i 79 iii
5 i 30 i 55 i 80 ii
6 ii 31 ii 56 ii 81 iv
8 ii 33 iii 58 ii 83 i
9 i 34 iii 59 i 84 ii
10 iii 35 ii 60 iv 85 i
11 i 36 ii 61 ii 86 iii
12 iii 37 iv 62 iii 87 i
13 ii 38 i 63 ii 88 ii
14 iii 39 ii 64 iii 89 ii
15 i 40 iii 65 ii 90 i
16 i 41 iii 66 i 91 iv
17 ii 42 iii 67 iv 92 i
18 i 43 i 68 ii 93 ii
19 ii 44 ii 69 ii 94 i
20 iii 45 ii 70 i 95 iv
21 iii 46 iii 71 ii 96 ii
22 iv 47 ii 72 ii 97 ii
23 i 48 iii 73 ii 98 ii
24 i 49 ii 74 i 99 i
25 iii 50 iv 75 ii 100 i
DEPARTMENT OF EXTENSION EDUCATION
COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE, KOLHAPUR
Multiple choice Question for JRF/SRF/NET/ARS Examination
Course No.EXTN.353
Title – Extension Methodologies for Transfer of Agricultural Technology
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1. It is 2-D Visual
i) Poster ii) Model iii) Specimen iv) Booklet
2. It is projected Visual
i) Model ii) Slide iii) Chart iv) Specimen.
3. It is non-projected Visual
i) Filmstrip ii) Slide iii) Model iv) Film
4. It is projected audio-visual
i) Specimen ii) Puppet iii) Drama iv) Film
5. It is traditional teaching method.
i) Film ii) Drama iii) TV iv) fax
6. It is non-projected audio-visual
i) film ii) Puppet show film iii) Slide iv) Radio
7. It is mass contact method.
i) Letter ii) TV iii) Telephone iv) Sildeshow
8. It is face-to-face contact method
i) Letter ii) film iii) TV iv) Office call
9. It is personal contact method
i) Film ii) Letter iii) TV iv) Puppet
10. It is 2-D projected visual
i) film ii) Model iii)Specimen iv) Slide
11. It is non- projected audio-visual
i) Model ii) Film iii) Specimen iv) Puppet
12. It is non- projected audio-visual
i) film ii) Drama iii) TV iv) lecture
13. It is useful to teach skill.
i) Poster ii) letter iii) Book iv) Method demonstration
14. It is useful to compare two technologies
i) Result demonstration ii) Method demonstration iii) Puppet iv) lecture.
15. It is used by applying the principle of “Learning by doing” only.
i) Method demonstration ii) Result demonstration iii) Puppet iv) TV
16. It is used to improve skill, knowledge and attitude.
i) Result demonstration ii) Method demonstration iii) Radio iv) Book
17.It is a process by which human behavior is modified.
i) Education ii) Motivation iii) Aim iv) Goal
18.It is the competency in using knowledge efficiency.
i) Knowledge ii) Skill iii) Attitude iv) Motivation
19. It is a body of principles underlying in a given branch of learning.
i) Principal ii) Philosophy iii) Knowledge iv) Education.
20. It is a fundamental truth
i) Objectives ii) Principal iii) Aim iv) Goal.
21. It is a statement of situation,objectives,problems & solutions.
i) Planning ii) Programme iii) Programme planning iv) Plan of work.
22. It is a process of preparing systemic statement of the line of action for achieving
certain overall and specific objectives in relation to needs and resources.
i) Programme Planning ii) Aim iii) planning iv) Goal
23. It is a process of working with rural people in an effort to recognize the problems
and determine possible solutions.
i) Programme ii) Planning iii) Programme Planning iv) Plan of work.
24. It is broad objectives.
i) Planning ii) Objective iii) Goal iv) Aim
25. It is decision to continue full use of an innovation.
i) Learning ii) Diffusion iii) Campaign iv) Adoption
26. It is the mental process through which indivual passes from first hearing about an
innovation to final adoption .
i) Learning ii) Diffusion iii) Campaign iv) Adoption process.
27. It is the process by which an idea or innovation spreads .
i) Communication ii) Adoption iii) Diffusion iv) Campaign
28. It is an intensive teaching activity undertaken at the proper time for a brief period
for focusing attention towards a particular problem, in order to stimulate the widest
possible interest and action in the community.
i) Diffusion ii) Campaign iii) Communication iv) Adoption.
29. It is a single sheet with one or more than one fold along with detailed information
on specific topic
i) Folder ii) Book iii) Booklet iv) Flash cards
30. It is a sheet of paper with pictorial slogan ,which is utilized to attract the mass
attention for single idea.
i) Poster ii) Flash Card iii) Leaflet iv) Folder
31. It consists of two or more brief talks presenting phases of the some general topic.
i) Symposium ii) Campaign iii) Training iv) Forum
32. It is the process of arranging situations that stimulate and guide learning activities
in order to bring desired changes in the behavior of the people.
i) Teaching ii) Learning iii) Communication iv) Diffusion
33. The word Extension is derived from which root ? .
i) Latin ii) Greek iii) French iv) American
34. It is known as formal education.
i) Adult education ii) School education iii) Extension education iv) Distance
education.
35. It is a mental and / or physical reaction one makes through seeing, hearing or
doing the things to be learned.
i) Teaching ii) Learning experience iii) Learning iv) Attention.
36. It is systematic display of models, specimens, charts, real objects and any
informative materials.
i) Model ii) Exhibits iii) Exhibition iv) Chart
37. It is mass produced pictorial slogan used for creating awareness among audience
for single idea.
i) Graph ii) Chart iii) Poster iv) TV.
38. Many obstructions enter in the channels of teaching are often referred as what ?
i) Treatment of message ii) Credibility of channel iii) Treatment of channel iv)
Noise
39. It is the time required to adopt innovations from the date of its origin
i) Minimum time ii) Fixed time iii) Adoption time iv) Over time
40. He/They is /are persons of any social system who adopts innovation very first
is /are known as
i) Early adopters ii) Innovators iii) Early majority iv) Laggards.
41. The farmer who accepts new practices very last with in his social system is
known as what ?
i) Laggards ii) Late majority iii) Last majority iv) Innovators.
42. It is a plan of activities to be undertaken in a particular time sequence.
i) Planning ii) Programme iii) Calendar of work iv) Programme planning.
43. In e-mail ,e stands for what ?
i) Express ii) Electric iii) Electronic iv) Economic.
44. It is the range within which activity displays itself.
i) Scope ii) Philosophy iii) Principle iv) Need.
45. This is the stage of acceptance leading to continued use..
i) Evaluation stage ii) Adoption stage iii) Trial stage iv)Awareness stage.
46. This is useful particularly in showing trends and relationship.
i) Pictorial graph ii) Line chart iii) Flip chart iv) Pie chart
47. It is an example of social need.
i) Belongingness ii) Food iii) Clothing iv) Housing.
48. It is the last step in the programme planning process.
i) Adoption ii) Evaluation iii) Reconsideration iv) Carrying out the plan.
49. It is help to establish ‘Bench mark.’.
i) Evaluation ii) Programme iii) Planning iv) Programme planning.
50. It is a method of selection for local leader.
i) Sociometry ii) Pedology iii) Andrology iv) Sociology.
51. For awareness, which of the following communication media is more suitably
used ?
i)Television ii) Method demonstration iii) Farm and Home visit iv) Group
discussion
52. The Book “ Diffusion of innovations” is written by .
i) E.M.Rogers ii) A.A.Reddy iii) A.S.Sandhu iv) J.P.Leagens
53. The Westly and Machens model of mass media contains how many stages ?
i) 5 ii) 3 iii) 4 iv) 6
54. Response of audience is an important component of.
i) Aristotle model ii) ) Leagens model iii) Berlo model iv) Shanon Weaver
model
55. Speaker –speech- audience is the communication model given by
i) Berlo ii) Aristotle iii) Leagens iv) Westley.
56. Which of the following is not an element of diffusion process ?
i) Social system ii) Persuasion iii) innovation iv) Over time.
57.Krishi Darshan programme in India is telecasted from.
i) Kolkata ii) Mumbai iii) New Delhi iv) Chennai.
58. For awareness which of the following communication media is not used ?
i) Television ii) Radio iii) Method demonstration iv) Poster
59. On an average , a persons spends how much of his active time in communication
verbally ?
i) 60 ii) 40 iii) 70 iv) 50
60. While communicating verbally how much message is distorted ?
i) 50 % ii) 40 % iii) 60 % iv) 30 %
61. Action- reaction interdependence in communication called
i) Message treatment ii) Credibility iii) Feedback iv) fidelity.
62. Which of the following four sources of communication do you consider more
credible for non-progressive / remote village situation ?
i) Radio ii) Demonstration Radio iii) Print iv) Exhibition
63. Communication involves three phases expression,interpretation and media is not
used ?
i) Responses ii) Reception iii) Transmission iv) Reselection.
64. For five minute Radio talk how many words per minute is good average ?
i) 160 words ii) 120 words iii) 140 words iv) 150 words
65. Proportion of laggards in farming community is
i) 34 percent ii) 16 percent iii) 20 percent iv) 25 percent
66. The collection of data in RRA is done by
i) Progressive farmers ii) A multidisciplinary team iii) Local extension agent
iv) Reserech Assistant
67. It is a type of TV scripts or TV programmes
i) Radio script ii) Succeess story iii) Camera script iv) News story
68. While preparing a layout for developing a poster ,the point taken into account
for dividing the layout into four quarter is
i) Central point ii) Actual centre iii) Optical centre iv) Real centre.
69. One of the parameters used to divide a normal adopters distribution into various
categories is
i) Median ii) Mode iii) Standard deviation iv) Standard error.
70 .Which of the following set of colours is called primary colours or basic colour set:
i) Red,Blue Yellow ii) Black ,white,Grey iii) Orange,Purple, Green iv) pink,sky
blue lemon.
71. The major drawback of mass media in the context of extension work is
i) Expenditure ii) Lack of free feed back iii) Not easily avilable iv) Not
understandable.
72. In social research ,the mesuarement is concerned with
i) Mesasurement of phenomenon ii) Mesasurement of objects iii) Indicators of
the properties of objects iv) Mesasurement of response.
73. ABC of Journalism
i) Actual, .balance, complete ii) Accurate, Brevity,clear iii) Accuracy, Brief,
Complete iv) Accuracy ,brevity ,clarity
74. Audio- visuals aids can
i) Supplement the teacher ii) Supplant the teacher iii) Self-explanatory iv) Gives
exhaustive information.
75. The most basic function of communication:
i) Influence ii) Information iii) Instruction iv) Integration
76. The essence of communication is : most basic function of communication:
i) Sharing information ii) Sharing understanding iii) Imparting knowledge
iv) Transmitting information.
77. The art of communication is:
i) Listening ii) Learning iii) Feeling iv) None of these
78. The three important dimensions of message include:
i) Source,self,receiver ii) Code,content, treatment iii) Encode,decode,feedback
iv) Simplicity and clarity
79. Television is primarily a:
i) Medium ii) Media mix iii) Source iv) Channel
80. Action-reaction inter-dependence in communication is:
i) Homophily ii) Feedback iii) Competence iv) Fidelity
81. Leagens model of communication contains :
i) 4 elements ii) 6 elements iii) ) 5 elements iv) ) 7 elements
82. Audience response is an important element in the model of:
i) Laswell ii) Berlo iii) Schramm iv) Leagens
83. The communication model better applicable for a person reading newspaper:
i) Laswell model ii) Berlo model iii) Schramm model iv) Barker Wiseman
model
84. LCD expands to:
i) Lazier Crystal Display ii) Lazier Crystal Digital iii) Liquid Crystal Display
iv) Liquid Crystal Digital
85. While communicating,the communicator can write facing the audience in:
i) Flash card ii) OHP iii) Slide iv) Black board
86. Which of the following statement about audio-visual aids is true:

i) Decorates learning situation ii) Replaces the teacher iii) Emphasis non-verbal
experience iv) Includes text book
87. The term electronic chalkboard refers to:
i) Beta chrom projector ii) LCD projector iii) VHS projector iv) OHP projector.
88. The optical centre of a poster lies at:
i) 5/8 from top ii) 5/8 from bottom 5/8 from top iii) 3/8 from right iv) 3/8 from
bottom
89.The film projector commonly used in extension:
i) 16 mm ii) 32 mm iii) 70 mm iv) 8 mm
90. The poster used in the demonstration should have a letter height of:
i) 1.5 inches ii) 0.5 inches iii) 1.0 inches iv) 2.5 inches
91. Reflected projectors are used in:
i) OHP ii) Epidiascope iii) Slide projector iv) Lantern projector
92. The motion camera records the still picture at the rate:
i) 36 per second ii) 12 per second iii) 24 per second iv) 48 per second.
93. While reading any visual,human eye moves normally in a:
i) ‘C’ like pattern ii) ‘Y’ like pattern iii) ‘W’ like pattern iv) ‘Z’ like pattern
94. The most appropriate letter size for titles in a chart is:
i) 2.5” ii) 1.5” to2” iii) 1 to 2” iv) 2”.
95. A series of indivual charts bound together and hung on a supporting stand is
called:
i) Job chart ii) Flip chart iii) Bar chart iv) Flow chart
96. The inflow and outflow of cash in the union budget is best presented through:
i) Bar graph ii) Activity graph iii) Pie graph iv) Flow graph
97. The ratio maintained between ‘f’ number and shutter speed of a camera is:
i) 2:1 ii) 1:2 iii) 1:3 iv) 3:1
98. The headline of a news story is generally given in:
i) Past tense ii) Presence tense Past tense iii) Future tense iv) No tense
99. The show window of a news paper referred to:
i) Feature ii) Lead iii) Headlines Feature iv) Editorial
100. Comprehensive information about a topic is given in :
i) Bulletin ii) Leaflet iii) Folder iv) Newsletter
101 Exact visual recording of things is called:
i) Models ii) Photographs iii) Pictures iv) Illustrations
102 Bunch of loose printed papers properly folded offered for sale at regular
intervals:
i) Annual ii) Journal iii) Newspaper iv) Newsletter
103. A communication model developed based on behavioral research:
i) Lazerfield ii) E M Rogers iii) D Berlo iv) Stevens
104. The percentage of communication that takes place through body language:
i) 30 ii) 40 30 iii) 20 iv) 10
105. The show window of a news paper referred to:
i) Lead ii) Headlines Lead iii) Feature iv) Editorial
106. Reading newspaper is:
i) Intrapersonal communication ii) Interpersonal communication
iii) Mass communication iv) Dyadic communication
107 Constant feedback between the sender and the receiver is the characteristics
feature of:
i) Interpersonal communication ii) Mass communication iii) Written

communication
iv) Vertical communication
Answer Key
Course No.EXTN.353
Title – Extension Methodologies for Transfer of Agricultural Technology

1 I 26 Iv 51 i 76 ii
2 Ii 27 Iii 52 i 77 i
3 Iii 28 Ii 53 i 78 ii
4 Iv 29 I 54 ii 79 i
5 Ii 30 I 55 ii 80 ii
6 Ii 31 I 56 ii 81 ii
7 Ii 32 I 57 iii 82 iv
8 Iv 33 Ii 58 iii 83 iv
9 Ii 34 Ii 59 iii 84 iii
10 Iv 35 Ii 60 iv 85 ii
11 Iv 36 Iii 61 ii 86 iii
12 Ii 37 Iii 62 ii 87 iv
13 Iv 38 Iv 63 i 88 ii
14 I 39 Iv 64 ii 89 i
15 I 40 Ii 65 ii 90 i
16 I 41 I 66 ii 91 ii
17 I 42 Iii 67 iii 92 iii
18 Ii 43 Iii 68 iii 93 iv
19 Ii 44 I 69 iii 94 i
20 Ii 45 Ii 70 i 95 ii
21 Ii 46 Ii 71 ii 96 iii
22 Iii 47 I 72 iii 97 i
23 Iii 48 Iii 73 iv 98 ii
24 Iv 49 I 74 i 99 ii
25 Iv 50 I 75 i 100 i
- - - - - - - - - 101 ii
- - - - - - - - - 102 iii
- - - - - - - - - 103 iii
- - - - - - - - - 104 ii
- - - - - - - - - 105 ii
- - - - - - - - - 106 i
- - - - - - - - - 107 i
DEPARTMENT OF EXTENSION EDUCATION

COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE, KOLHAPUR
Multiple choice Question for JRF/SRF/NET/ARS Examination
Course No.EXTN.364
Title – Entrepreneurship Development and Communication Skills
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1. The term Entrepreneurship comes from the French word
i) Entreprendre ii) Entrepruna iii) Entrepronos iv) None of the above
2. A successful entrepreneur taking a risk when a risk situation involves:
i) Only loss ii) Potential gain or loss iii) Only profit iv) None of the above .
3. Following are the characteristics of entrepreneur
i) Innovativeness ii) Achieve motivation iii) Personal drive iv) All of the above
4. Successful entrepreneur are always aware of the
i) Money ii) Resources iii) Land iv) Machineries
5. It is a important characteristics of successful entrepreneur.
i) Social networking ii) Social change iii) Social awareness iv) Social culture
6. Following are the important role demands of entrepreneur.
i) Accomodation to venture ii) Creativity &Innovation iii) Economic value iv) All
of the above
7. Entrepreneurship development institution of India conducted a study about job
competencies under guidance by
i) Amartya Sen ii) David Mc clelland iii) David Donald iv) Dr.M.S.Swaminathan
8. Which are the important job competencies of entrepreneur?
i) Selfishness ii) Good nature iii) Initiative iv) None of the above
9. It is a important qualities of successful entrepreneur
i) Information seeking ii) Commitment to quality iii)Efficiency orientation iv) All
of the above
i) Systematic planning ii) Problem solving iii) Self confidence iv) All of the
above
i) Assertiveness ii) Persuasion iii) Effective monitoring iv) All of the
above
12. According to James.J.Berna following competencies found in good entrepreneur
i) He is an enterprising indivual ii) He is interesting in advancing technology &
improving quality of his product iii) both i & ii iv) Only ii
13. What is the major factors have played significant role in developing
entrepreneurship.
i) Development of human factor ii) Development of money factor iii)
Development of environment iv) both i & iii
14. The first step of process of entrepreneurship development at community level.
i) Stimulatory phase ii) Action phase iii) Starting phase iv) Review phase.
15. The Second step of process of entrepreneurship development at community level.
i) Economic phase ii) Support phase iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
16. The Third step of process of entrepreneurship development at community level.
i) Economic phase ii) Growth phase iii) Support phase iv) Sustaining phase
17. Following activities were carried out in stimulatory phase.
i) Identifying & selecting potential entrepreneur ii) Developing technical
competence related to produce iii) Developing data bank of new product iv) All of
the above
18. In this phase such activities that help entrepreneurs in establishing & running new
enterprises.
i) Stimulatory phase ii) Growth phase iii) Support phase iv) both ii & iii
19. Process of entrepreneurship development at community level registration of the
unit were carried out .
i) Stimulatory phase ii) Support phase iii) Growth phase iv) both ii & iii
20.Support phase includes following characteristics
i) Registration of unit ii) Providing land,shed, power iii) issue of license for raw
material
iv) All of the above
21. Support phase includes following characteristics
i) Granting tax relif and subsidy ii) offering many consultancy iii) providing
information related to industry iv) All of the above
22. In sustaining phase activities may include
i) Additional finance for full capital ii) Modification in legislation iii) interest
depending on situation iv) All of the above
23. What is requirement of first generation of entrepreneur development ?
i) Entrepreneur quality & motivation ii) Capability of entrepreneur launching iii)
Ability of entrepreneur management & sense of responsibility iv) All of the above
24. In entrepreneurship growth process second step is
i) Employment ii) Self-employment iii) entrepreneurship iv) None of the above
25. In entrepreneurship growth process fourth step is
i) Entrepreneurship promoting environment ii) Growth iii) income generation
iv) None of the above
26.Last step in entrepreneurship growth process .
i) Self employment ii) Socio-economic development iii) both i & ii iv) None of the
above
27. In income generating activities
i) The risk is high ii) Risk is medium iii) No risk iv) None of the above
28. Koontz and O’Donnell have shown the process of motivation as
i) Need-Gap-Satisfaction ii) Gap-Need-Satisfaction iii) Gap-Satisfaction –Need
29. Entrepreneurship once started it is a
i) Co-coordinating process ii) Only i iii) Continuous process iv) None of the
above
30. Entrepreneurship is a
i) Full time employment ii) Half time employment iii) Some time employment iv)
None of the above.
31. According to Sridharan the need of entrepreneurship development is
i) For accepting challenge carrier option ii) For increasing national production
iii) for weakening monopoly iv) All of the above
32. In simple term behavior means
i) Response of an indivual to stimulus ii) Response of an indivual to receiver iii)
both i & ii iv) Diffusion
33. Entrepreneurial behavior consists following qualities in the entrepreneur.
i) He cops well even time in uncertainty ii) He is a creative problem solver iii)
strong human & organization skill iv) All of the above
34. It is the important factor affecting the entrepreneurial behavior of the farmer.
i) Money ii) Labour iii) size of farm & management iv) All of the above.
35. Factor affecting entrepreneurship is
i) Indivual quality ii) Industrial environment iii) Social environment iv) All of the
above.
36 Factor affecting entrepreneurship is
i) Economic environment ii) Technological environment iii) Political environment
iv) All of the above.
37. An art of converting the natural resources into goods & services more beneficial
to society called as
i) Technology ii) Techniques iii) both i & ii iv) None of the aboves
38. It is the important factors affecting entrepreneurship
i) Bonus ii) Incentives iii) payment iv) None of the above
39. Important entrepreneur function is
i) Aggressive behavior ii) Innovative behavior iii) both i & ii iv) None of the
above
40. Industrial policy resolution act was passed on the year
i) 1947 ii) 1946 iii) 1948 iv) 1950.
41. In Industrial policy Government
i) Govt. stressed the role of small scale industry for balanced industrial growth
ii) Govt. stressed the role of small scale industry for imbalanced industrial growth
iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
42. Full form of SSI
i) Second small industries ii) Small scale industries iii) Systematic small
industries iv) None of the above
43. Highlights of Industrial policy resolution 2005-06
i) Ministry of small scale industries identified 180 items for development ii)
Credit guarantee fund raised from 1132 crore to 2500 crore iii) both i & ii iv)
None of the above.
44. Institution providing assistant to small scale industries classified in to
i) Two categories ii) Three categories iii) four categories iv) five categories
.
45. Full form of KVIC
i) Krishi & village industries commission ii) Krishi & village innovative
commission
iii) Khadi & village industries commission iv) None of these
46. It is the apex non-statutory body constituted by Govt.
i) SSI board ii) SIDO board iii) SIDBI board iv) None of the above
47. SWOT analysis gives idea about.
i) Only weak points of an organisation ii) Only strong points of an organisation
iii) Strong & weak points of an organisation iv) None of the aboves
48 SWOT is an acronym for
i) Strength, Weakness, Opportunities & Threats ii)
Short,weakness,opportunities & talents iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
49. Planning provides
i) sense of purpose ii) sense of direction iii) Strategic outlook iv) All of the
above .
50. Strength of an organization are
i) Skilled man power ii) Adequate production capacity iii) Low cost
manufacturing iv) All of the above
51. Strength of an organization are
i) Source of capital ii) Wide distribution of network iii) Efficient management
52. It is a negative internal factors that inhibits accomplishment of mission ,goal &
objectives of an organisation .
i) Weakness ii) Management iii) Threats iv) Staff
53. Weakness of the organization is.
i) Low level of motivation of staff ii) Scarcity of capital iii) Outdated
technology iv) All of the above
54. Weakness of the organization is.
i) Shortage trained techniques ii) Lack of efficient co-ordination iii) Insufficient
management iv) All of the above
55.It is a positive external factors of the organization .
i) Opportunities ii) Good service iii) Money iv) Material.
56. Opportunities in organization
i) Good location ii) Availability of appropriate technology iii) Favorable
Govt.policies iv) All of the above
57. It is a negative external factors of the organization .
i) Threats ii) Manpower iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above.
58. Threats of an organization.
i) Shortage of power ,water, fuel ii) Rejection by market iii) Tough competition
59. Threats of an organization.
i) Obsolete technology ii) Resource crunch iii) Economic instability iv) All of the
above
60. It is a necessary element of any project.
i) Business survey ii) Market survey iii) Economic survey iv) None of the
above
61. It is the biggest problem faced by the entrepreneur in case of small enterprises
i) Marketing of products ii) Lack of raw material iii) Financial problem iv) All
of the above.
62. Successful marketing key is
i) Increasing in production cost & maintaing high quality ii) Reduction in
production cost & maintaing high quality iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
63. Before launching a new product line or project it is very important to conduct
i) Market economy ii) Market demand iii) Market survey iv) None of the
above.
64. This is the important objectives of market survey
i) Gaining knowledge & understanding the market ii) To take a loan from
bank for market iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
65. Market survey can be divided into two types
i) Primary & Secondary survey ii) Data & Interview survey iii) Qualitative &
Quantative survey iv) All of the above
66. Following are the important aspects of market survey.
i) Market condition & trend ii) Demand & supply situation gap iii) consumer
response iv) All of the above
67. First step in conducting market survey is
i) Deciding objectives ii) Problem definition iii) Data collection iv) All of the
above
68. Third step in conducting market survey is
i) Research design ii) Data collection iii) Primary survey iv) All of the above
69. Last step in conducting market survey is
i) Data collection ii) Writing survey report iii) both i & ii iv) None of the above
70 .According to Rogers & Shoemakers communication model is
i) SMCER model ii) SMRCE model iii) SMCRE model iv) SMECR model
71. Communication skills required to be mastered by entrepreneur are total
i) Five type ii) Four type iii) Three type iv) Two types.
72. In writing skills basic requirement of any good writing is
i) Simpleness ii) Accuracy iii) Correctness iv) All of the above.
73. For organizing group discussion conducted meeting, workshop etc. for
entrepreneur required skill
i) Writing skill ii) Speaking skill iii) Listening skill iv) All of the above
74. To acquire knowledge ,skill, right attitude for entrepreneur require
i) Writing skill ii) Speaking skill iii) Listening skill iv) All of the above
75. Humanity in communication ‘N’ stands for
i) Negativity ii) Nervousness iii) Negotiability iv) All of the above
76. Humanity in communication ‘I’ stands for:
i) Integrity ii) Identification iii) Idea iv) None of the above
77. The entrepreneur should remember written communication namely
i) Five C’s ii) Six C’s iii) Four C’s iv) Eight C’s
78. For normal business letters your letter should start with an
i) Short summary ii) Overall summary iii) Broad summary iv) All of the
above
79. Through a letter in a written communication
i) Its writing appearance can be ignored ii) Only i iii) Its visual appearance
cannot be ignored iv) None of the above
80. The books entitled Dimensions of Agricultural Extension is written by
i) Dr.O.P. Sharma & Dr.L.L.Somani ii) S.V.Supe & O.P.Bhatnagar iii)
R.K.Sharma & S.V.Supe iv) None of these
81. In Market survey industrial marketing research includes
i) Consumer market survey & business to business market research ii)
Consumer market survey & business to consumer market research iii) both i and ii iv)
None of the above
82. There are two main approaches to qualitative survey.
i) Interview & Simple group ii) Formal interview & Target group iii) Only i iv)
Depth interview & focus group
83. For writing a survey for questionnaire total important steps are
i) 10 ii) 8 iii) 6 iv) 5
84. It is the first component of the advertisement
i) Caption ii) Logo iii) both i & ii iv) Headline
85. Following are the important component of print advertisement
i) Visual ii) Headlines iii) Copy iv) All of the above
86. It is the symbolic representation of a company
i) Style ii) Logo iii) Posters iv) All of the above
87. Any accurate fact or idea that will interest large no.of readers called as
i) Headline ii) Advertisement iii) News iv) both i & ii
88. Farmers got a very high yield by following new technology is news
i) It is interesting to the audience ii) It is important from readers point of view iii)
It is based on written facts & written clarity iv) All of the above
89.Good news style is summed up in three words
i) Accuracy , breakness & short ii) Accuracy, brevity & simplicity iii) both i &
ii iv) None of the above
90. The most striking facts or climax of the story appears in
i) First paragraph ii) Second paragraph iii) Last paragraph iv) None of the
above
91. For project proposals includes organization & management following
responsibilities includes
i) Credit administration ii) marketing structure iii) Supply inputs iv) All of the
above
92. For project proposals includes organization & management following
responsibilities includes
i) Research ii) Extension iii) Co-operation iv) All of the above.
93. The message is communicated or placed before the audience its mean
i) Preparation ii) Presentation iii) Participation iv) All of the above
94. It is provide tremendous opportunities to create something much greater than an
indivual can normally do
i) Group presentation ii) Indivual presentation iii) Panel presentation iv) All of
the above
95. Where policy recommendation are indicated by project results the effective
presentation.
i) Indivual presentation ii) Group presentation iii) Only i & ii iv) Oral
presentation
96. We can just back & want, we must take responsibility. What type of feature of
oral presentation ?
i) Reviewing ii) Gestures iii) Transition signals iv) Rapport
97. Imaging that you are on the beach. What type of features of oral present ?
i) Introducing the end ii) Handing over iii) Closing iv) Only i & ii
98. It is a process of delineating ,obtaining & provide useful information for judging
decision called as
i) Presentation ii) Evaluation iii) Clarification iv) None of the above .
99. It is the direct communication between two people or group of people
i) Direct communication ii) Indirect communication iii) Dyadic communication
100. Provides information which is necessary to planning an effective extension
programme
i) Discussion ii) Seminar iii) Conference iv) Symposium
Answer Key
Course No.EXTN.364
Title – Entrepreneurship Development and Communication Skills
1 i 26 ii 51 iv 76 ii
2 ii 27 iii 52 i 77 iv
3 iv 28 i 53 iv 78 ii
4 c 29 iii 54 iv 79 iii
5 i 30 i 55 i 80 i
6 iv 31 iv 56 iv 81 i
7 ii 32 i 57 i 82 iv
8 iii 33 iv 58 iv 83 ii
9 iv 34 iv 59 iv 84 iv
10 iv 35 iv 60 ii 85 iv
11 iv 36 iv 61 i 86 ii
12 iii 37 i 62 ii 87 iii
13 iv 38 ii 63 iii 88 iv
14 i 39 i 64 i 89 ii
15 ii 40 iii 65 iii 90 i
16 iv 41 i 66 iv 91 iv
17 iv 42 ii 67 ii 92 iii
18 iii 43 iii 68 i 93 ii
19 ii 44 ii 69 i 94 i
20 iv 45 iii 70 iii 95 iv
21 iv 46 i 71 i 96 iii
22 iv 47 iii 72 iii 97 i
23 iv 48 i 73 ii 98 ii
24 ii 49 iv 74 iii 99 iii
25 i 50 iv 75 iii 100 ii
College of Agriculture, Kolhapur

Agricultural Economics Section, Objective type Questions
Course No. Econ 121 Title of course: PRINCIPLES OF ARRIL.
ECONOMICS
1) Diversified Farming is a kind of ……………………..
i) Type of farming ii) system of Farming
iii) Both 1 and 2 iv ) None of these
2) Short term credit is required normally for short period of less than
………….month
i)10 ii)15
iii)25 iv)50
3) A farmer whi)ch has land holding between 1 to 2 ha. Is known as
………………….
i) Marginal Farmer ii) Small Farmer
iii) Optimal Farmer iv) None of these
4) The marginal Cost curve intersects the Average cost curve when average
cost is at
………………
i) Maximum ii) Raising
iii) Falling i) Minimum
5) Which one of the Following is farmers agency ?……………..
i) IFFCCO ii) FCI
iii) Agro service Center iv) FAO
6) Marginal Cost is Equal to …………………
i) Change in cost due to change in output
ii) Change in Total cost +100
iii) Average fixed cost
iv) Average total cost
7) Fixed cost is also known as ………………….
i) Overhead cost ii) prime cost
iii) Alternate cost iv) Opportunity cost
8) Jamindari tenure system was introduced first by ………..in 1793, to facilitate
collection
of land revenue and taxes in Bengal region
i) Lord Ripan ii)Lord Deferin
iii)Lord Cornwallis iv)Lord heron
9) EXIM Bank was set up in the year………………..
i) 982 ii)980
iii)1981 iv)1985
10) Agriculture Price commission was established in the year……………..
i)1964 ii)1966
iii)1965 iv)1967
11) Break even point is determine by……………….
i)MC=MR ii)MC=AVC
iii)MC=AC=AR iv)TR=TC
12)Which of the following is refer to the combination of two inputs resulting in

the same
quantity of output ……….
i) Iso-quant ii)Iso-line
iii)Iso-cost line iv)none of these
13)A Market situation in which there is only one seller of commodity is
commodity is
known as………………
i) Monopoly ii)oligopoly
iii) Duopoly iv)duos pony
14) the law of diminishing MARGINAL returns applying more generally to

which of the
following industry……………..
i)chemical ii)film
iii)Agriculture iv)cloth
15)Creation of utility by way of marketing is known as………………….

i)consumption ii)production
iii)Distribution iv)exchange
16)which of the following is refers to increase of monetary value without any
increase in
physical unit and characterized by rise in general level of prices…………..
i)Inflation ii)Deflation
iii)Depreciation iv)none
17)Demand for necessary goods is………….
i)Elastic ii)Inelastic
iii)Perfectly elastic iv)none of these
18)Farm planning is…………..
i)Farm budgeting ii)Cropping sequncies
iii)Type of interprise iv)none of these
19)Maximum profit will be at point where…………..
i)MC=MR ii)MC is more than MR
iii)MC is less than MR iv) none of these
20)RBI established in the year………………..
i)1925 ii)1932
iii)1945 iv)1935
21)Elasticity of production stage of second in law of diminishing returns would
be …………..
i)1.0 ii)greater than 1
iii)less than 1 iv)0.01
22)which of the following is main function of NABARD………………..
i)financing the weaker section ii)Refinancing the bank
iii)financing the agril. University iv)none of these
23)Which of the following types of assets are difficult to convert them into cash
not meet
any current obligations…………….
i)current assets ii)total assets
iii)Fixed asssets iv)working assets
24) The individual who buys goods from wholesalers and sale them to the
consumers in
small quanties are known as……………
i)Broker ii)Barter
iii)Retailer iv)Wholesaler
25)We get maximum satisfaction when…………………………

i)marginal utility is the same ii)total utility is same
iii)average utility is same iv)total utility is maximum
26)full form of PACS is………………..
i)Primary Agriculture co-operative credit society
ii)agriculture price commission society
iii)preliminary agriculture co-operative society
iv)primary agriculture credit society
27)What is Taccavi…………………..
i)Government loans ii)IDB loan
iii)A Crop scheme iv)none of these
28)Panchayat Raj in Maharashtra was introduced in the year………..

i)1960 ii)1961
iii)1965 iv)1971
29)Credit taken for land development is………………….
i)long term credit ii)medium term
iii)short term iv)none of these
30) which of the example of free goods……………
i)machinery ii)air
iii)petrol iv)buildings
31) in mixed farming the contribution of livestock to gross farm income should
be………………………
i)at least 49 cent ii) less than 50 cent.
iii)at least 30 cent. iv)more than 60 cent.
32) Rayatwari system was farst introduced in the year of 1972 during
at………………..
i)Bombay ii)tamilnadu
iii)Culcutta iv)madras
33) Welfare definition economics was given by ----------.
i Adam smith. ii) J. M. Keynes.
iii) J. B. Say. iv) Alfred marshal.
34) Demand curve always-------.
i Negative. ii) Positive. iii)
Equal.
iv) Both a & b.
35) -------Things possessed by cultivator for others called as.
i) Liabilities. ii) Assets.
iii) Both a&b. iv) Non of above.
36) When various quantities of given commodity or service which consumer

would by or
purchase at given time in market at various hypothetical prices is
called--------
i) Income demand. ii) Law of demand.
iii) Demand iv) Price demand.
37) The person is willing & able to pay the object he desires is called--------.
i) Supply. ii) Demand.
iii) Law of demand. iv) Consumer surplus.
38) Loans given on security of jewellery called --------loan.

i Secure loan. ii) Chattle loan.
iii) Personal security loan. iv) None of above.
39) Which of the following is direct tax--------?
i Foreign travel tax. ii) Excise duty.
iii) Land revenue. iv) Entertainment tax.
40) Father of modern economics is----------.
i Adam smith. ii) Alfred marshal.
iii) J.m.keynes. iv) Ricardo.
41) Central AGMARK laboratory is situated at ---------.
i) Akola. ii) Hyderabad.
iii) Nagpur. iv) Delhi.
42) Rent theory of profit was proposed by--------.
i) Renato ruggiero. ii) Fredrick w. Taylor.
iii) F. A. Walker. iv) None of these.
43) Welfare definition economics was given by ----------.
i) Adam smith. ii) J. M. Keynes.
iii) J. B. Say. iv) Alfred marshal.
44) Demand curve always-------.
i) Positive. ii) Negative.
iii) Equal. iv) Both a & b.
45. Indian Society of Agricultural Marketing was set up in -------------
i) 1986 ii)1976
iii) 1966 iv) 1987
46. The Government of India announced a New 5 year export-import policy
effective from -----------
i) 1 April 1997 ii) 1 April 1987
iii) 1 April 1992-97 iv) 1 April 2002
47. The Headquarter of Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export
Development Authority located at -----------
i) Mumbai ii)Nagpur
iii)New Delhi iv) Jaipur
48. Directorate of Marketing & Inspection located at -------------
i) Faridabad
ii) Nagpur
iii)Both a & b
iv) Mumbai
49. The headquarter of Natoinal Bank For Agricultural & Rural
Development-------------
i) Bombay
ii) Pune
iii) New Delhi
iv) Nagpur
50. Grading and Marketing act was established during the year------------
i)1956 ii)1937
iii)1967 iv)1965
51. Wealth definition of economics was given by

I. Adam Smith
ii)Alfred Marshall iii) Lionel Robbins iv) Robbins
52. Destruction of utility is called as
i) Production ii) Consumption iii)Both iv). Distribution
53. An example for necessary goods is
i) Rice ii) Car iii). Silk Saree iv) Motar cycle
54. The reward to the Capital is

i) Rent ii) Wage iii)Interest iv) Money
55. The financial activities of the public authorities is referred as

i) Public finance ii) Exchange iii)Distribution iv) Consumption
56. Capital is a
i)Man made resource ii) Natural resource iii)Fixed Resource iv)
Variable resourse
57. The slope of a supply curve is
i)Positive ii) Negative iv) None iv) Equal
58. When the total utility is maximum the marginal utility will be
i). One ii) Minimum iii)Zero iv). Maximum
59. The demand curve is
i)Upward sloping ii) Downward sloping iii)Straight IV)Linear
60. Capital formation depends on
i)Savings ii) Expenditure iii). Income iv) Price
61. The approach that studies an economic problem from general to particular
is known
as
i)Deductive method ii) Inductive method
iii)Normative method iv). Maximum method
62. The indifferent curves are having
i)Negative slope ii) Positive slope iii) Zero slope. IV)Equal slope
63.An economic system answers the __________, ___________, and
__________ questions.
i) When to produce, where to produce, and why we should produce.
ii) Wealth, greed, and power.
iii) Money, markets, and the business cycle.
iv) What to produce, how to produce, and for whom to produce.
64. In a command economy, the three economic questions are answered by

which of the
following?
i)The production and consumption choices made by sellers and buyers in
decentralized
markets.
ii)A cartel of major transnational corporations, government agencies, and
consumer
advocates.
iii)A trilateral commission of major corporations, the military, and elite
university
professors.
iv) A central authority such as a people's committee, a government
agency, or a dictator.
65. A principal feature of a command economy is that
______________________. .
i) Production decisions are made by profit-maximizing firms.
ii)There is a central planning board at the top, which transmits economic
decisions down to the various producing and consuming units below.
iii) Consumers are allowed to determine what is produced based on their
demand for
goods and services.
iv) Regulatory agencies constrain the most egregious forms of market power
in a market
system of allocation.
66. Which of the following is a strength of a command-based economic system?
i)It is possible for goods to be allocated based on need rather than based
on willingness and ability to pay.
ii)Producers have strong incentives to innovate because successful
innovators are rewarded with higher profit.
iii)Consumers can transmit their preference for product quality and variety
by way of their "dollar votes" cast in the marketplace.
iv)Since price is freely set based on supply and demand, there are few
shortages or surpluses.
67. Which of the following are weaknesses of a command-based economic
system?
i)It is not possible for goods to be allocated based on need rather than based
on willingness and ability to pay.
ii)Producers have weak incentives to innovate because successful innovators
are not rewarded with higher profit.
iii)Since price is set by central planners, price cannot freely adjust to resolve
shortages or surpluses based on current supply and demand conditions.
iv)Answers b. and c. above are both correct.
68. In a market economy, the three economic questions are answered by which
of the
following?
i)Prices determined by the interaction of the forces of supply and
demand.
ii)A cartel of major transnational corporations, government agencies, and
consumer
advocates.
iii)A trilateral commission of major corporations, the military, and elite
university
professors.
iv)A central authority such as a people's committee, a government agency, or a
dictator.
69. According to Adam Smith, the source of a nation's material wealth is
_________________.
i)Its reserves of gold and silver.
ii)Its great works of art and music.
iii)The extent to which there is equality among its citizens.
iv)The productivity of the resources (land, labor, and capital) at the
disposal of firms to produce goods and services.
70. According to Adam Smith, the "invisible hand" refers to which of the
following?
i)The "best interests of society" will occur as an outcome of the market
process coordinating the self-interested interactions of buyers and
sellers.
ii)Government interference is the invisible hand of inefficiency.
iii)Bribes and graft is the invisible hand of inefficiency.
iv)The "best interests of society" will occur as an outcome of careful
guidance by government authorities in allocating scarce goods and services.
71. Adam Smith believed that the goal of economic activity is to amass wealth in
the form
of tangible commodities such as gold, and that this could best be accomplished
through
government carefully using tariffs and quotas to fashion favorable terms of
trade with its
trading partners.
i)True.
ii)False.
72. From Adam Smith's point of view, the "best interests of society" are met
when each individual in society is able to transcend self-interest and act
selflessly to promote the common good.
i.True.
ii. False.
73. Which of the following is a key weakness of the market economy as a
system of allocation?
i)Goods and services are allocated based on willingness and ability to pay,
rather than based on need.
ii)Producers have strong incentives to innovate because successful innovators
are rewarded with higher profit.
iii)Consumers can transmit their preference for product quality and
variety by way of their "dollar votes" cast in the marketplace.
iv)Since price is freely set based on supply and demand, there are few
74. Which of the following represent key strengths of the market economy as a
system of allocation?
i)Goods and services are allocated based on willingness and ability to pay,
rather than based on need.
ii)Producers have strong incentives to innovate because successful innovators
are rewarded with higher profit.
iii)Since price is freely set based on supply and demand, there are few
iv Both b. and c. above are correct.
75. Most of the world's economies are mixed economies because

_____________.
i)A cartel of powerful transnational firms demands that it be that way.
ii)The market system of allocation is always best.
iii)The command system of allocation is always best.
iv)Government intervention in an overall market system is needed at
times because markets fail when there is market power, a great deal of
inequality, pollution externalities, or public goods.
76.The term "capitalism" refers to which of the following?
i)A religion based on amassing capital.
ii)An economic system characterized by private ownership of resources,
and decentralized market allocation.
iii)An economic system characterized by government ownership of resources
and centralized allocation.
iv)None of the above.
77. The term "socialism" refers to which of the following?
i.A religion centered on community interaction.
ii)An economic system characterized by private ownership of resources, and
decentralized market allocation.
iii)An economic system characterized by government ownership of resources
and centralized allocation.
iv)None of the above.
78. Fundamental market analysis in commodity hedging and/or speculating is
most useful
in determining:
i)Entry levels
ii)Exit levels
iii.Market direction
iv)Market momentum
79. A principal payment on a loan is normally included as
i)An expense on an income statement
ii. A use of cash on a cash flow statement
iii)A source of cash on a cash flow statement
iv)All of the above
80. A Kansas wheat farmer properly enrolled in the Farm Security and Rural
Investment
Act of 2002 is guaranteed to receive which of the following payments each
year during
the life of the legislation:
i)Loan Deficiency Payments
ii. Direct Payments
iii)Counter-Cyclical Payments
iv)Conservation Reserve Program Payments
81. The debt/asset ratio is one measure of
i)Profitability
ii)Solvency
iii)Liquidity
iv)All of the above
82. A _____________ gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation to
purchase the
underlying futures at the ________________.
i)Hedge-to-arrive contract, strike price.
ii)Put option, opening bell
iii)Call option, daily closing price
iv)Call option, strike price
83. A farmer purchases 525 pound feeder steers for .82 per pound and plans to
sell the
steers at 750 pounds. The farmer estimates the total cost of gain to be .60 per
pound
The nearest breakeven price when the steers are sold at 750 pounds is:
i)69.00cents/pound
ii)69.18cents/pound
iii)75.40cents/pound
iv None of the above
84. For purposes of deducting expenses when preparing income taxes, which
type of input
is normally depreciated?
i)Raised breeding livestock ii)Machinery
iii)Livestock purchased for resale iv)Land
85. In order for limited partners to maintain their limited liability, the can not:
i)Share in the profits of the limited partnership
ii)Own more than 1/3 of the limited partnership
iii)Participate in the management of the limited partnership
iv)Own more than 49.9% of the limited partnership
86 . If the price of a commodity is too low, the demand will be greater than the
supply
resulting in a:
i)Surplus
ii)Boycott
iii)Monopoly
iv)Shortage
87. As the price of nitrogen fertilizer increases relative to the price of corn, the
most
profitable level of fertilization most likely:
i)Increases
ii)Stays the same
iii)Decreases
iv)Becomes negative
88. If production of more of one enterprise results in less production of another
enterprise,
the technical relationship among these two enterprises is called
i)Competitive
ii)Supplementary
iii)Complementary
iv)All of the above
89. The role of price in a free market is to serve as a guide:
i)In controlling quantity supplied
ii)In limiting quantity demanded
iii)In deciding what, when and how much to produce
iv)All of the above
90. Corn and grain sorghum are substitutes for each other in many livestock feed
rations.
Assuming that they are substitutes, a decrease in the supply of corn would
cause the
demand for grain sorghum to:
i)Shift to the left
ii)Shift to the right
iii)Decrease
iv)Remain unchanged
91. Which of the following is normally not included in an accrual basis income
statement?
i)Principal payments on loans
ii)Interest
iii)Depreciation
iv)All of the above
92. After fertilizing and planting, the costs of seed and fertilizer would normally
be
considered
i)A Section 179 deduction
ii A depreciable expense
iii)A sunk cost
iv)An opportunity cost
93. Specialization in crops or livestock in a farm business tends to:
i)Increase income and increase risk
ii)Decrease income and increase risk
iii)Decrease risk and increase income
iv)Decrease risk and decrease income
94 What is the present value of a $10,000 payment to be received 5 years from

now if the
annual interest rate is 9% compounded annually?
i)$1,862 ii)$2,989 10,000 x 0.6499
iii)$4,000 iv)$6,499
95. In the event the business is forced to liquidate, which of the following would
have first
claim on the proceeds?
i)Mortgage
ii)Accounts payable
iii)Holder of common stock
iv)Unsecured creditors
96. The big advantage of renting a major asset as compared to purchasing is that
renting:
i)Reduces your income taxes
ii)Increases your depreciation
iii)Releases capital for other uses
iv)Improves output per worker
97. Use of enterprise budgets for estimating total costs and returns for a farm
enterprise
assumes ________ returns to scale?
i)Decreasing ii)Constant
iii)Increasing iv)Negative
98. Calculating present value is called

i. Discounting
ii)Compounding
iii)Valuing
iv)All of the above
99. Which ratio measures the percent of assets financed by the owner?
i. Debt to Equity Ratio
ii)Equity to Asset Ratio
iii)Equity to Debt Ratio
iv)Asset to Equity Ratio
100. Which of the following is normally included on a cash flow statement?
i. Principal payments on loans
ii)Cash payments for operating inputs
iii)Interest payments
iv)All of the above
101. Which statement shows a farm’s financial situation at a point in time?
i. Balance sheet
ii)Accrual basis income statement
iii)Cash flow statement
iv)All of the above
102. Which noncash expense (or expenses) is (are) normally not accounted for
when
calculating net farm income?
i. Depreciation
ii)Unpaid Family labor and management
iii)Hired labor
i v. Both A and B
103. A contract that gives the holder the right, but not the obligation to sell at a
specified
price is a:
i. Future contract
ii)Put option
iii)Call option
iv)Forward contract

Answer Key Econ 121 Title of Course: PRINCIPAL OF ARRIL.
ECONOMICS
1) i) 16) i) 31) i) 46) iii) 61) ii) 76) ii) 91) i)
2) i) 17) ii) 32) iv) 47) iii) 62) i) 77) i) 92 )iii)
3) i) 18) i) 33) iv) 48) iii) 63) iv) 78 )iii) 93) i)
4) i) 19) i) 34) i) 49) i) 64) iv) 79) ii) 94) iv)
5) i) 20) iv) 35) i) 50) ii) 65) ii) 80) ii) 95) i)
6) i) 21) i) 36) i) 51) i) 66) i) 81)ii) 96) iii)
7) i) 22) ii) 37) ii) 52) ii) 67) iv) 82) IV) 97) ii)
8) iii) 23) iii) 38) ii) 53)i) 68) i) 83 )iii) 98) i)
9) i) 24) iii) 39) iii) 54) iii) 69 )iv) 84) ii) 99) ii)
10) iii) 25) iv) 40) iii) 55)iv) 70) i) 85) iii) 100) iv
11) iv) 26) i) 41) iii) 56)i) 71) ii) 86 )iv) 101) i)
12) i) 27) i) 42) iii) 57) i) 72) i) 87) iii) 102) ii)
13) i) 28) ii) 43) iv) 58) iii) 73) iii) 88) i) 103) ii)
14) iii) 29) i) 44) i) 59) ii) 74 )IV) 89 )iv)
15) iii) 30) ii) 45) i) 60) i) 75) iv) 90) ii)
Agricultural Economic Section, College of Agriculture, Kolhapur
MCQ for JRF/CET

Course Title: Production Economics and Farm Management Course No.:
ECON 232
1. When a farm is managed by the Government Officials, it is called farming?
(i) Peasent (ii) State
(iii) Cooperative (iv) Capitalistic
2. In which type of farming business unit derives more than 50 per cent of its income
from
single enterprise
(i) Specialized (ii) Diversified
(iii) Mixed (iv) Dry
3. When a farm is managed by the farmer on his own, it is called--------farming
(i) Peasent (ii) State
(iii) Cooperative (iv) Capitalistic
4 The MC curve intersects the AC curve, when the AC curve is
(i) Falling (ii) Rising
(iii) Minimum (iv) Maximum
5. Which of the following is not a system farming on the basis of ownership and
operationship?
(i) Dry farming (ii) State fanning
(iii) Peasant farming (iv) Capitalistic farming
6. Fixed cost is also known as
(i) MC (ii) Opportunity cost
(iii) Prime cost (iv) Overhead cost
7. Variable cost is also known as

(i) MC (ii) Opportunity cost
(iii) Prime cost (iv) Overhead cost
8.Which of the following is an implicit cost?
(i) Fertilizer cost (ii) Casual labour cost
(iii) Farm family labour cost (iv) Pesticides cost
9. Which of the following is not part of Cost A?
(i) expenditure on fertilizer (ii) Rental value of owned land
(iii) Expenditure on machine labour (iv) Expenditure on pesticides
10. Good farm plan should be
(i) Flexible (ii) Rigid
(iii) Cost-ineffective (iv) None of this
11.Which of the following is not a type of farming?
(i) Dry farming (ii) Ranching
(iii) Joint farming (iv) Mixed farming
12. The objective of subsistence farming is to
(i) Produce for market only (ii) Produce for home

consumption only
(iii) Produce for both home and market (iv) Produce for substantial urban
population
13. The term 'operational holding' refers to
(i) Net land area cultivated by the farmer (ii) Land area owned by the
farmer
(iii) Gross cropped area cultivated by the farmer (iv) Land area under
irrigation
14. Economic efficiency of production is denoted by

(i) MVP (ii) MPP
(iii) APP (iv) AVP
15. Building, machinery and implements are the examples of resources
(i) Flow (ii) Stock
(iii) Fixed (iv) Variable
16. In capitalistic farming, the land is owned by
(i) Land lord (ii) Farmer
(iii) Government (iv) Factory lord
17. The method which helps to compare the present worth of the future revenue with
the
present investments is known as
(i) Reducing cost method (ii) Discounting method
(iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) Compounding method
18.Crop farming and Milk production are examples of enterprises
(i) Complementary (ii) Competitive
(iii) Supplementary (iv) None
19. The law which is very useful in determining the next best use of limited resources
is
(i) Law of constant returns (ii) Law of variable proportions
(iii) Law of diminishing returns (iv) Law of opportunity cost
20.The relationship between cost function and production function is
(i) Negative (ii) Positive
(iii) Increase (iv) Decrease
21. The average fixed cost-----with increase in production
(i) Decreases (ii) Increases

(iii) Constant (iv) None
22. A curve on which various combinations of labour and capital show same level of
output is --
(i) Indifference curve (ii) Isoquant
(iii) Isoresource curve (iv) Production possibility curve
23. Farm management treats every farm unit unique in available resources, problems
and
potentialities because it has
(i) Broader field (ii) Micro approach
(iii) Practical field (iv) None
24. When TPP is maximum, MPP is
(i) Maximum (ii) Equal to APP
(iii) Equal to zero (iv) Negative
25. The profit maximizing criteria of a business firm
(i) AC=AR (ii) MC=MR
(iii) TC=TR (iv) TC=AR
26. Preparing farm budget in advance is known as
(i) Farm planning (ii) Advanced estimates
(iii) Farm budgeting (iv) Partial budgeting
27. When variable cost is equal to zero, total cost is
(i) Equal to fixed cost (ii) Equal to zero
(iii) Equal to opportunity cost (iv) None of the above
28. If factor substitution ratio is equal their price ratio, then cost will be
(i) Increasing (ii) Minimum
(iii) Maximum (iv) Decreasing

29. Which of the following is not a factor of production?
(i) Land (ii) Depreciation
(iii) Capital (iv) Labour
30 Average cost is
(i) Fixed cost/output (ii) Total cost/input
(iii) Total cost/output (iv) Fixed cost/input
31. When TPP increases, MPP
(i) Positive (ii) Infinity
(iii) Zero (iv) Negative
32. Expenditure on seed falls under
(i) Fixed cost (ii) Marginal cost
(iii) Variable cost (iv) Both 'a' and 'b'
33. Generally, a farm firm is a
(i) Technical unit (ii) Economic unit
(iii) Industrial unit (iv) None of the above
34. In which of the following cases, the farmer should stop the production
programme
permanently?
(i) Gross returns < Variable cost (ii) Gross returns < Fixed cost
(iii) Gross returns > Opportunity cost (iv) Gross returns > Variable
cost
35. In which of the following methods of computing depreciation, junk value is not
deducted?
(i) Straight line method (ii) Sum of the year digits method
(iii) Diminishing value method (iv) All the above

36. The total fixed cost curve
(i) Increases with the level of output (ii) Decreases with the level of output
(iii) Rectangular hyperbola in shape (iv) Remains constant at all levels of

output
37 Enterprise budgeting deals with the input-output relationship of
(i) A single enterprise on the farm (ii) A set of different enterprises
(iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) None of the above
38. The amount added to total cost for producing an additional unit of output is
called
(i) Average cost (ii) Opportunity cost
(iii) Marginal cost (iii) All the above
39. Break even point is determined by
(i) TC = TR (ii) MC = AC = MR
(iii) MC = MR (iv) FC = VC
40. The simplex method of linear programming was developed by
(i) Cobb-Douglas (ii) J.M. Keyenes
(iii) G.B. Dantzig (iv) J.B. Say
41. A holding which allows the farmer, a chance of providing sufficient support to
himself and
his family and reasonable comfort after paying his necessary expenses is called
(i) Basic holding (ii) Optimum holding
(iii) Economic holding (iv) Operational holding
42. Optimization of use of resources at farm level refers to
(i) Production economics (ii) Farm management
(iii) Agricultural marketing (iv) None

43. The slope of isoquant indicates the rate of substitution of
(i) Two fixed resources (ii) One fixed resource and one
variable resource
(iii) Two variable resources (iv) None
44. Which of the following methods of depreciation is suitable for farm animals?
(i) Straight line method (ii) Annual revaluation method
(iii) Sum of year digit method (iv) Reducing balance method
45. Management decisions which involve lasting effects are known as decisions
(i) Marketing (ii) Operational
(iii) Strategic (iv) None
46. Net returns per hectare of a farm is-------efficiency measure
(i) Specific (ii) Overall
(iii) Absolute (iv) Partial
47. Rational use of resources from national angle refers to
(i) Production economics (ii) Farm management
(iii) Agricultural marketing (iv) None
48. The process of transformation of resources into output is called
(i) Production function (ii) Production
(iii) Production cost (iv) Supply
49. Dairy farming, pig farming, sheep farming, goat farming etc., are examples for
(i) Types of farming (ii) Systems of farming
(iii) Both (iv) None
50. When a new variety of crop is introduced,
(i) Complete budgeting is done (ii) Partial budgeting is done

(iii) No budgeting is needed (iv) Only planning is needed
51. Level of output of a particular commodity depends upon the quantities of inputs
used in the
production programme and this is known as
(i) Product mix (ii) Cost function
(iii) Production function (iv) None
52. Diseconomies of scale refers to
(i) Less output but with higher per unit cost (ii) Larger output but with higher
per unit cost
(iii) Larger output associated with lower per unit cost (iv) None of the above
53. The price which covers both AVC and AFC of output is
(i) Long run price (ii) Short run price
(iii) Equilibrium price (iv) Market price
54. Production should be discontinued in long run when price of output is
(i) Less than ATC (ii) Less than AVC
(iii) Equal to ATC (iv) Equal to marginal cost of production
55. One can reduce the cost by using more of 'replaced resource' if
(i) MRTS > Price ratio, (ii) MRPS > Price ratio
(iii) MRTS = Price ratio (iv) MRTS < Price ratio
56. The term depreciation refers to
(i) Maintenance cost of asset (ii) 1 / 10th value of asset every year
(iii) Time value of asset (iv) Reduction in value of asset over time
57 . The marginal physical product is negative in
(i) Stage I (ii) Stage II
(c) Stage III (iv) Stage I and II

58. The average fixed cost
(i) First decreases and later increases (ii) First increases and later decreases
(iii) Continuously falls (iv) Continuously rises
59. A programme which maximizes profit or minimizes cost is called as
(i) Optimal programme (ii) Feasible programme
(iii) Rational programme (iv) None
60. A measure through which one can calculate advantage of an intercrop in terms of
yield is
(i) Cropping intensity (ii) Crop Yield Index
(iii) Crop performance (iv) Production efficiency
61. Cost function deals with the functional relationship between
(i) Cost and Resource services (ii) Cost and input
(iii) Cost and output (iv) All the above
62. Which of the following is not assumption of linear programming?
(i) Linearity (ii) Additivity
(iii) Divisibility (iv) Non linearity
63. Inflection point in the production function is the point, where
(i) Slope of production function is maximum (ii) TPP changes its curvature
(iii) MPP=APP (iv) All the above
64. If the production possibility curve is horizontal, the two inputs are
(i) Complementary (ii) Substitutes
(iii) Unrelated (iv) None
65. When MPP > APP, APP is
(i) Increasing (ii) Decreasing

(iii) APP is maximum (iv) APP is minimum
66. In classical production function, with the starting of rational zone, the efficiency
of input is
(i) Constant (ii) Increasing
(iii) Decreasing (iv) None
67. Principle of added costs and added returns helps in deciding
(i) Level of inputs to be used (ii) Price level of factors
(iii) Level of budget to be used (iv) Level of output
68. The law of comparative advantage helps the farmers in selecting the enterprises
based on
(i) Greatest absolute advantage (ii) Greatest opportunity cost
(iii) Greatest relative advantage (iv) None of the above
69. Elasticity of production is expressed as
(i) Quintals (ii) Percentage
(iii) Tonnes (iv) No unit
70. A state of being doubtful about future events which cannot be foreseen exactly is
known as
(i) Risk (ii) Hedging
(iii) Uncertainty (iv) Speculation
71 . The period in which a firm output can be changed without altering the size of the
plant is
(i) Short run period (ii) Planning period
(iii) Production period (iv) Long run period
72. A holding which is three times the size of economic holding is called
(i) Basic holding (ii) Operational holding

(iii) Optimum holding (d) Non of these
73. The problem of enterprise combination arises only when the enterprises have---
relationship
(i) Joint (ii) Competitive
(iii) Complementary (iv) Supplementary
74. Beef and Hides are the examples of
(i) Competitive enterprises (ii) Independent enterprises
(iii) Complementary enterprises (iv) Joint enterprises
75. Subsistence farming is characterized by
(i) More marketable surplus (ii) Dominance of cash crops
(iii) Distress sale (iv) Resource structure is rich
76. In which planning period, we can change the output through changing the size
of the farm?
(i) Intermediate period (ii) Short run
(iii) Long run (iv) None
77. If two items are competitive, then demand for one item will increase when price of
another item
(i) Decrease (ii) Increase
(iii) Constant (iv) None of these
78 . If production function is homogenous of degree one, then the scale elasticity of

output will be
(i) Greater than unity (ii) Equal to zero
(iii) Equal to unity (iv) Less than unity
79. Cost calculated per hectare is called
(i) Cost of production (ii) Opportunity cost

(iii) Economic cost (iv) Cost of cultivation
80. Which of the following costs is considered as returns from the missed alternative?
(i) Opportunity cost (ii) Prime cost
(iii) MC (iv) Overhead cost
81. In rational zone, TPP increases at decreasing rate, what will be the nature of MPP
(i) MPP increases and finally becomes zero (ii) MPP is maximum
(iii) MPP increases at increasing rate (iv) MPP continues to decrease and
becomes zero
82. Crop farming and Milk production are examples of _______enterprises
(i) Competitive (ii) Complementary
(iii) Supplementary (iv) None
83. Cost calculated per hectare is called
(i) Cost of production (ii) Economic cost
(iii) Cost of cultivation (iv) Opportunity cost
84. Given production function is Y = 25 X10.82 X2 0.18, the nature of returns to scale is
(i) Constant (ii) Decreasing
(iii) Increasing (iv) Rising
85. Isoquant touches the axes in case of
(i) Power function (ii) Exponential function
(iii) Quadratic function (iv) None of these
86. If factor substitution ratio is equal their price ratio, then cost will be
(i) Minimum (ii) Decreasing
(iii) Maximum (iv) Increasing

87. In which of the following methods of computing depreciation, junk value is not
deducted?
(i) Straight line method (iii) Sum of the year digits method
(iii) Diminishing value method (iv) All the above
88. The slope of isoquant indicates the rate of substitution of
(i) Two variable resources (ii) Two fixed resources
(iii) One fixed resource and one variable resource (iv) None
89. When two products substitute at constant rate, it is economical to produce
(i) Two products (ii) Single product
(ii) No product (iv) More than two products
90. The principle of equi-marginal returns states that, the profits will be the greatest,
if scarce
resources are used where___________are highest
(i) Average returns (ii) Gross returns
(iii) Marginal returns (iv) None
91. Decisions regarding selection of enterprises refers to ______management

decisions
(i) Buying (ii) Strategic
(iii) Operational (iv) Selling
92. Decisions regarding construction of farm buildings refers to ______management

decisions
(i) Operational (ii) Strategic
(iii) Marketing (iv) None
93. If two items are competitive, then demand for one item will increase for ____ in
price of
another item
(i) Decrease (ii) Increase
(iii) No effect (iv) None
94. Beef and Hide are the examples of
(i) Independent enterprises (ii) Joint enterprises
(iii) Complementary enterprises (iv) Competitive enterprises
95. Elasticity of production is always greater than one and highest at
(i) Point of TPP maximum (ii) Point of zero MPP
(iii) Point of inflection (iv) None
96. The marginal physical product is always greater than average physical product in
(i) Stage I (ii) Stage II
(iii) Stage III (iv) Stage I and II
97. Which of the following is not assumption in linear programming?
(i) Linearity (ii) Various values for expectation
(iii) Divisibility (iv) Additivity
98. In rational zone, total physical product
(i) Increases at decreasing rate (ii) Increases at increasing rate
(iii) Increases at constant rate (iv) All the above
99. When MPP > APP,
(i) APP is decreasing, MPP is increasing (ii) Both APP and MPP are
decreasing
(iii) APP is increasing, MPP is decreasing (iv) Both APP and MPP are
increasing
100. A _______holding is three times that of the size of economic holding
(i) Basic holding (ii) Optimum holding
(iii) Operational holding (iv) None of these

Agricultural Economic Section, College of Agriculture, Kolhapur
Course Title: Production Economics and Farm Management Course No.:

ECON 232
Answers
Sr. Ans Sr. Ans Sr. Ans Sr. No. Ans

No. No. No.
1 ii 26 i 51 iii 76 iii
2 i 27 i 52 ii 77 ii
3 i 28 ii 53 i 78 iii
4 iii 29 ii 54 i 79 iv
5 i 30 iii 55 iv 80 i
6 iv 31 i 56 iv 81 iv
8 iii 33 ii 58 iii 83 iii
9 ii 34 i 59 i 84 i
10 i 35 iii 60 ii 85 iv
11 iii 36 iv 61 iii 86 i
12 ii 37 i 62 iv 87 iii
13 i 38 iii 63 iv 88 i
14 i 39 i 64 iii 89 ii
15 iii 40 iii 65 i 90 iii
16 iv 41 iii 66 iii 91 iii
17 iii 42 ii 67 i 92 ii
18 i 43 iii 68 iii 93 ii
19 iv 44 ii 69 iv 94 ii
20 i 45 iii 70 iii 95 iii
21 i 46 ii 71 i 96 i
22 ii 47 i 72 iii 97 ii
23 ii 48 ii 73 ii 98 i
24 iii 49 i 74 iv 99 iv
25 ii 50 ii 75 iii 100 ii
Agricultural Economics Section,

Course No : ECON.-243 Title : Agricultural Finance and Co-operation
1 IRR is also called as

i) Marginal efficiency of capital ii) Marginal efficiency of land
iii) Marginal efficiency of lab our iv) None of these
2. World Bank is also called as --
i) IBRD ii) RBI
iii) ARDC iv) None of these
3. Net worth of statement is also called as
i) Profit –loss statement ii) Income statement
iii) Cash flow statement iv)Balance sheet
4. Micro-finance deals with financing -- -----------
i) Individual ii) Both i&ii
iii) Aggregate iv) None of above.
5. International Trade is that type of trade between --------
i) Two regions ii) Two countries
iii) Two states iv) None of these
6. Crop insurance increases the
i) Risk bearing ability ii)Credit worthiness
iii) Repayment capacity iv) None of these
7. The process of estimating future value of present sum invested is called as
i) Discounting ii) Annuity
iii) Compounding iv) None of these
8. First Co-operative society Act was passed on
i) 1912 ii) 1921
iii) 1940 iv) 1904

9. NABARD took over the function of
i) ACD ii) ARDC iii) RPCC iv) All
10. An example for Chattal loans
i) Agriculture produce ii) Tractor
iii) Gold ornaments iv) LIC bonds
11. Second spell of nationalization of commercial banks took place
i) 19th July ,1969 ii) 19th July ,1980
iii) 15th April 1969 iv) 15th April 1980
12. Rate of interest charged under DIR Scheme is
i) 1% ii) 4% iii) 2% iv) 6%
13. FSS came into existence in the year
i) 1971 ii) 1975 iii) 1980 iv) 1972
14. FSS mainly came into existence to meet the credit needs of
i) Weaker sections ii) Large farmers iii) medium farmers iv) All
15. The jurisdiction of LAMPS is ---
i) one district ii) one village iii) one taluka iv) None
16. Which of the following is inversely related to repayment capacity of the
farmer –borrower ?
i) Low productivity and production ii) Size of holding
iii) Family expenses iv) All
17. In case of net worth statement , assets are on ------ side
i) Left ii) Right iii) Middle iv) Not include
18 .Reserve repayment plan is also called as -----

i) Amortized decreasing repayment plan ii) Future repayment plan
iii) Amortized even repayment plan iv) Future repayment plan
19. Under SFDA and MFAL the per cent subsidy to Small farmers is -------%
i) 10 ii) 25 iii) 50 iv) 33.33
20. District credit plan is prepared by ----- of the district .
i) NABARD ii) RBI iii) Lead bank iv) cooperative bank
21. . Under SFDA and MFAL the per cent subsidy to Marginal farmers and
Agricultural
laborers is -------%
i) 10 ii) 25 iii) 50 iv) 33.33
22. Acid test ratio is otherwise called as --------
i) Quick ratio ii) Working ratio iii) Net capital ratio iv) Current ratio
23. Income statement is otherwise called as --------
i) Profit and loss statement ii) cash flow statement
iii) Balance sheet iv) Net worth statement
24. Income statement summarizes the ------and -------of the farm business.
i) Assets & liabilities ii ) Profit and loss
iii) Receipts and expenses iv) Equity and non equity capital .
25. Cash flow statement is otherwise called as --------
i)Profit and loss statement ii) Flow of funds statement
iii) Balance sheet iv) Net worth statement
26. Farm Graduate Scheme was implemented by -----
i) ANGRAU ii) SBI iii) TNAU iv) ICAR
27. In Service Area Approach the activities of the bank will be -------
i) With in the village ii) Extended outside the village
iii) Restricted to large farmers only iv) Restricted to medium farmers

only
28. The first cooperative credit society Act was passed in the year -----
i) 1911 ii) 1905 iii) 1904 iv) 1903
29. The liability was limited in the case of primary societies and unlimited for
central societies was the outcome of act ---
i) 1911 ii) 1912 iii) 1909 iv) 1910
30 . VAMNICOM was setup in the year ------
i) 1961 ii) 1967 iii) 1960 iv) 1964
31. Single window system is a three tier and two tier structure for –
i) cooperative credit ii) cooperative marketing
iii) Both a and b iv) None of the above
32 . Under the single window system PACS advances type of loan to farmers-----
i) short term loan ii) Medium term loan
iii) Loan term loan iv) All above ( a, b, c)
33. Comprehensive crop insurance was introduced by the GIC in all states in the
year ---
i) 1981 ii) 1985 iii) 1987 iv) 1984
34. Which of the following repayment plan is called as Balloon repayment plan---
i) Single repayment plan ii) Reserve repayment plan
iii) Variable repayment Plan iv) Partial repayment plan
35. In repayment plan, the installment amount remains same through out the repayment
period
i) Amortized decreasing repayment plan iii) Amortized even repayment plan
ii) Straight-end repayment iv) Partial repayment plan
36. Reserve repayment plan is also called
i) Amortized decreasing repayment plan iii) Future repayment plan
ii) Amortized even repayment plan iv) Partial repayment plan
37.The concept of repayment plans will generally arise in case of---- loans.
i) ST loans ii) LT loans
iii) SAO loans iv) Self liquidating loans
38.Which of the following is the first 'C' of credit?

i) Condition ii) Chracter iii) Capacity iv) Capital
39. Which of the following is inversely related to repayment capacity of the farmer-borrower
i) Gross returns ii) Size of holding
iii) Farm working expenses iv) All the above
40. The following are the important reasons for poor repayment capacity of the farmer-
borrowers
in India
i) Small size holding ii) Higher family expenditure
iii) Higher farm working expenses iv) All the above
41. Which of the following improves the repayment capacity of the farmer-borrowers?
i) Improving net worth of farm business ii) Crop diversification
iii) Adopting modern technology in farm business iv) All the above
42. DIR scheme was proposed by Committee
i) B. K. Hazare ii) B. Siva Rarer an

iii) Mohan Khanda iv) V.L. Mehra
43. DIR scheme came into existence in the year
i) 1980 ii) 1975 iii) 1970 iv) 1965
44. Crop loan scheme is recommended by
i) AIRCSC ii) AIRCRC iii) RBEC iv) CRAFICARD
45. The Committee on Cooperative Credit is headed by
i) B. Venkatappaiah ii) B. Siva Raman iii) V.L. Mehra iv) None
46. Crop loan scheme came into existence in India in
i) 1960 ii) 1965 iii) 1970 iv) 1971
47. In Village Adoption Scheme, for the development of village
i) Branch Manager is accountable ii) Branch Manager is not accountable
iii) Agricultural Officer is made accountable iv) None
48. The premium for cereals and millets in Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme is--- %
of
sum insured
i) 1 ii) 2 iii) 5 iv) 10
49 .The premium for oilseeds and pulses in Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme is % of
sum insured
i) 1 ii) 2 iii) 5 iv) 10
50. . National Agricultural Insurance Scheme came into existence in the year
i) 1979 ii) 1985 iii) 1999 iv) 1989
51. CRAFICARD committee recommended the establishment of
i) RBI ii) NABARD

iii) ARDC iv) AFC
52 .An apex refinance institution established at national level to guide the commercial banks
in
lending to agricultural activities is
i) RBI ii) World Bank iii) NABARD iv) AFC
53. The Three Maxims of cooperation were proposed by
i) J.M. Keynes ii) Mohan Kanda
iii) Lionel Robbins iv) H. Plunkett
54. Crop insurance schemes implemented by the Government aims at
i) Protecting the farmers' business against natural calamities
ii) Protecting the farmers from multiplicity of marketing margins
iii) Protecting the farmers from distress sales of produce
iv) Protecting the farmers from their life risks
55. Which of the following plays an important role in issuing the bank notes, operates
currency
and monitoring the credit system in India?
i) SBI ii) RBI
iii) NABARD iv) World Bank
56. Which one of the following is a farmers agency?
i) FCI ii) IFFCO
iii) Coromandel fertilizers iv) Agro-service centres
57. . Which of the following lead bank covers more number of districts?
i) SBI ii) ICICI
iii) Andhra Bank iv) Syndicate bank
58 . An apex cooperative bank is located at
i) State ii) Distinct iii) Taluka iv) village
59. Which of the following is a non-institutional credit agency?
i) Local money lender ii) PACS
iii) PLDB iv) FSS
60. Which of the following is not the component of three R's of credit?
(i) Returns (ii) Regularity
(iii) Repayment capacity (iv) Risk bearing ability
**********
Objective type Questions
Answers
Course No : ECON: 243 Course Title : Agricultural Finance and Co-operation
Answer keys
Sr. Sr.
ANS ANS Sr. No. ANS Sr. No. ANS
No. No.
1 i 16 iv 31 iii 46 ii
2 i 17 i 32 iv 47 i
3 iv 18 iv 33 ii 48 ii
4 i 19 ii 34 iv 49 i
5 ii 20 iii 35 iii 50 ii
6 i 21 iv 36 ii 51 ii
7 iii 22 i 37 ii 52 iv
8 iv 23 i 38 ii 53 iv
9 iv 24 iii 39 iii 54 i
10 iii 25 ii 40 iv 55 ii
11 iv 26 ii 41 iv 56 ii
12 ii 27 i 42 i 57 i
13 i 28 iii 43 ii 58 i
14 i 29 ii 44 i 59 i
15 iii 30 ii 45 iii 60 ii
ECON -354 Title – Agricultural Marketing Trade and prices
1) Market is one where, the produce is either finally disposed of the consumers or Processors, or
assembled for
export……………
i) Seaboard Markets ii) village market
iii) Terminal markets iv) Primary market
2) National markets may be classified on the basis of …………………….
i) On the basis of location. ii) On the Basis of time span
iii) National market iv) forward market
3) …………..are markets of a permanent nature.
i) Secular market ii) perfect market
iii) Duopoly market iv) monopolistic competition
4. …………….A market in which there are more than two but still a few sellers of a commodity.
i) Monopoly market ii) oligopoly market
iii) Duopoly market iv) monopolistic competition
5) Banking and Insurance are the type of ------------ function
i) Primary function ii) secondary function
iii) Tertiary function iv) None of these.
6)……………..is the formal of organization of the functional Activity of a marketing institution.
i) Market ii) market structure
iii) Agriculture market iv) market pattern
7) The processing function adds……………utility.
i) Form utility ii) time utility
iii) Place utility iv) possession utility
8) The transportation function adds ………..utility.
i) Form utility ii) Time utility
iii) Place utility iv) Possession utility.
9) The storage function adds ……………. Utility.
iii) Place utility iv) possession utility.
10) The marketing function of buying and selling helps in the transfer of ownership from one person to
another
Person to create ……… utility.
iii) Place utility iv) possession utility.
11) Any single activity performed I carrying a produce which the producer Farmer actually sells in the
market, irrespective of his requirement for Farm needs and other payments.
i) Market surplus ii) Producer surplus
iii) Marketable surplus iv) Market surplus
12) Any single activity performed in carrying a product from the point of its production to the
unlimited consumer
may be as………….
i) Marketing agencies ii) marketing channel
iii) Marketing function iv) marketing information
13) Packaging, transportation, grading, Buying and selling are the type of ………………marketing
function.
i) Primary factions ii) tertiary functions
iii) Secondary functions iv) Exchange functions.
14)……….means, the wrapping and creating of goods before they are Transported.
i) Packing ii) Grading
iii) Standardization iv) Distribution
15)………….these is used for packaging of vegetable both for domestic export Markets.
i) Jute Bags ii) CFB (corrugated fiber board)
iii) Bamboo Baskets iv) corrugated craft paper cartons
16) The central agmark Laboratory is…………….
i) New Delhi ii) Mumbai
iii) Pune iv) Nagpur
17) Grading and marketing act………………………
i)1937 ii)1927
iii)1947 iv)1957
18) The establishment of a national co-operative Development and warehousing Board was…..
i)1st sep. 1956 ii)1st sep.1965
iii)2nd Oct 1956 iv)1st march1966
19) The central warehousing corporations were set up in…………..
i)1st march. 1967 ii)2nd march 1957
iii)2nd march1977 iv)2nd march1987
20) The first state we housing corporation was set up in ………… In 1956.
i) Maharatrashatra ii) himachal Pradesh
iii) Bihar iv) Rajasthan
21. -------method of buying & selling the produce in different lots is mixed & then sold as one lot.
i) Hath system ii) Private Negotiations
iii) Dara sale method iv) Moghum sale method
22. --------is an important marketing function which ensures the smooth and efficient operation of the
marketing system.
i) Market segmentation ii) Market information
iii) Buying & selling iv) Packing
23. Market intelligence & market news are the type of----------?
i) Market information iii)Market segmentation
ii) Market agencies iv)Market surplus
24. ---------- was set up an apex organization in the sphere of rural finance.
i ) RBI ii) SBI iii ) NABARD iv)World bank
25. ------------ is the purchases & sales in the cash as well as in futures market are made with the
objective of making profit.
i) Hedging ii) Speculation iii) Both a & b iv) None of these
26. ----------is a device for protection against the price fluctuations which normally arise in the
commodities.
i) Hedging ii) Speculation
iii) Future trading iv) Both a & b
27. ---------- middleman is those individuals who take title to the goods they handle.
i) Merchant middleman ii) Agent middleman
iii) Speculative middleman iv) Facilitative middleman
28. --------- middleman who take title to the product with a view to making a profit on it.
i)Facilitative ii) Speculative iii)Agent Merchant
29.---------- as alternative routes of product flows from producers to consumers.
i)Marketing agencies ii)Marketing institution
iii) Marketing channel iv) None of these
30. The National Seeds Corporation (NSC) was set up in -------------.

i)1961 ii)1965 iii)1967 iv)1963
31.The Central Marketing Department was established in India------------
i)1925 ii)1935
iii)1945 iv)1955.
32. ------------is a direct contact between the farmer-producer & buyer, who is generally the consumer.
i)Apni Mandi ii)Kisan Mandi iii)Traditional Mandi iv)Both a) & b)
33. Apni Mandi is better marketing of Agricultural Produce is especially of------.
i)Food grains ii)Fruits & vegetables iii)Both a & b iv)None of these
st
34. The 1 Apni Mandi was started in ---------state in ----------year.
i)Punjab, 1987 ii)Maharashtra, 1987 iii)Punjab, 1977 iv)Maharashtra, 1987
35. In 1992, High Powered Committee on Agricultural Marketing was appointed by the Government of
India, under the Chairmainship of -----------.
i)Nariman Committee ii)Shri Shankerlal Guru
iii)Dantwala Committee iv)Suresh Tendulkar
36. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was borne on ----------.
i)1 Jan 1964 ii)1 Jan 1966 iii)1 Jan 1967 iv)1 Jan 1965
37. The Indian Standards Institution ( ISI ) was set up in ----------
i) 1947 ii)1957 iii)1945 iv)1955
38. The World Standards Day is celebrated annually on--------
i) 14th Nov ii) 20th Nov iii) 14th Octo iv)20th Octo
39. The Indian Standards Institution has been renamed as the Bureau Of Indian Standards ( BIS ) with
effect from ------------
i)1 April 1986 ii) 1 April 1987 iii)1 April 1999 iv) 1 April
1985
40. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was set up in-------------

i)1954 ii)1955
iii) 1956 iv)1957
41. The Consumer Education & Research Centre (CREC) located at ------------
i) Nagpur ii)Pune
iii) Ahmedabad iv)Kolkatta
42. The Agricultural Prices Commission was set up on the recommendation of the Food Grains prices
committee headed by -------------
i)Suresh Tendulkar ii)Dantwala Committee
iii)Guru Committee iv)Shri. L. K. Jha
43. Agricultural Prices Commission was set up in ------------
i)Jan 1965 ii) Jan 1975 iii) Jan 1985 iv)Jan 1966
44. The Agricultural Prices Commission change in its name to commission for Agricultural Cost &
Prices was set up in------------
i)1960 ii)1970 iii)1980 iv) 1990
45 ------------- is the Price fixed by the Government to protect the Producer- Farmers against excessive
fall in price during bumper production years.
i) Procurement price ii) Issue Price
iii)Both a & b iv)Minimum support price
46.-------------is the Apex Body of Co-operative Marketing.
i) NAFED ii) APEDA iii)NCDC iv)None of these
47. National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation ( NAFED ) was established in-------------.
i)1955 ii) 1960 iii)1958 iv) 1952
48. -------------- Committee ( 1965 ) recommended that the Membership of Agricultural Marketing
Societies should be restricted to the Agriculturist & Traders should not be allowed to join Agricultural
Marketing Societies.
i) Mirdha Committee ii) Dantwala Committee
iii)Nariman Committee iv) Guru Committee
49. The National Co- operative Development Corporation (NCDC) was set up in ----------
i)1983 ii) 1972 iii)1963 iv) None of these
50. The structure of Co- operative Marketing Societies ----------------.
i)Two- tier ii)Three- tier
iii)Both a & b iv) None of these
51. --------------- Central Nodal Agency for undertaking price support operetions for pulses & oil seeds
& market intervention operation for other Agricultural commodities.
i)APEDA ii) NAFED
iii) NCDC iv)Both b & c
52. The Maharashtra Agricultural Produce Marketing ( Regulation ), Act was set up in -----------
i)1961 ii) 1962
iii) 1963 iv) 1964
53. ----------as process which refers to the expansion of firms by consolidating additional marketing
functions & activities under a single management.
i) Market information ii) Market segmentation
iii) Both a & b iv)Market integration
54. ----------occurs when a firm performs more than one activity in the sequence of the marketing
process.
i)Horizontal integration ii) Forward integration
iii)Vertical integration iv)Backward integration
55. The difference between the price paid by consumer & the price received by the producer for an
equivalent quantity of farm produce is often known as ---------------.
i)Farm retail spread ii)Price spread
iii) Marketing margin iv)All of these
56. The combination of agencies or activities not directly related to each other may, when it operates
under a unified management, be termed a-------------
i)Horizontal integration ii)Vertical integration
iii) Conglomeration iv)None of these
57.--------is the ratio of market output ( satisfaction ) to marketing input ( cost of resources) .
i) Marketing efficiency ii) Marketing margin
iii)Price spread iv) Marketing cost
58. --------------margin is the difference between the price received by a seller at a particular stage of
marketing & the price paid by him at the preceeding stage of marketing during an earlier period.
i) Concurrent margins ii) Lagged margins
iii) Both a & b iv)None of these
59. --------------is the net price received by the farmer at the time of 1st sale.
i) Producers price ii) Producers share in consumers rupee
iii)Consumers price iv)Both a & b
60. National Institute Of Agricultural Marketing ( NIAM ) was located in ----------
i) Nagpur ii) New Delhi iii) Mumbai iv) Jaipur
******************
College of Agriculture, Kolhapur Agricultural Economics
Section,
Course No. ECON - 354 Title – Agricultural Marketing Trade and
prices
Answer Key
Sr. No. ANS Sr. No. ANS Sr. No. ANS Sr. No. ANS
1 iii 16 iv 31 Ii 46 i
2 i 17 i 32 Iv 47 iii
3 i 18 i 33 Ii 48 i
4 iv 19 ii 34 I 49 iii
5 iii 20 iii 35 Ii 50 iii
6 ii 21 iii 36 Iv 51 ii
7 i 22 i 37 I 52 iii
8 iii 23 i 38 Iii 53 iv
9 ii 24 iii 39 Ii 54 iii
10 iv 25 ii 40 I 55 iv
11 i 26 iii 41 Iii 56 iii
12 i 27 i 42 Iv 57 i
13 i 28 ii 43 I 58 ii
14 i 29 iii 44 Iii 59 i
15 ii 30 iv 45 Iv 60 iv
MCQ for JRF/CET
Course No. : ECON-365 Course Title: Agri-business Management
1 Which of following sector contributes at each of level agri-business development
i) Input sector ii) Production sector
iii) Processing sector iv) Marketing sector
2 …………….. is a stimulus that produces action
i) Communication ii) Motivation
iii) Participation iv) Leadership
3 Which of the following form of organization is a easy to start and easy to close
i) Sole proprietorship ii) Partnership
iii) Corporation iv) None of these
4 The process by which a manager anticipates the future and discover alternative course of
actions open to him........
i) Organizing ii)Directing
iii) Planning iii) None of these

5 Limited liability is a important attraction in case of ……..
iii) Corporation iv)None of these
6 ……………is a derivative of responsibility
i) Authority ii) Personality
iii) Accountability iv)Liability
7 In marketing concept more emphasis is given on
i)Product ii) Price of product
iii) Customers needs iv)Profit of intermediaries
8 Net worth statement is also called as …..……..
i)Profit –Loss statement ii) Cash flow statement
iii) Income statement iv)Balance sheet
9 ………….. is a face to face communication with one or more prospective purchasers
i) Personal selling ii) Advertising

iii) Direct marketing iv) sales promotion
10 Assigning duties and responsibility is a
i) Directing ii) Coordinating
iii) Controlling iv) Organizing
11 The decision making process through which the purposes and objectives of firms are
business determined, clarified and effected can be called as
i) Management ii) Planning

iii) Direction iv) Human Cognition
12 The process of forward thinking about a course of action based upon full
understanding of all the related factors involved and directed at specific objectives is
known as
i) Management ii) Planning
iii) Direction iv) Human Cognition
13 Planning necessitates faithfulness to
i) Achievements ii) Objectives
iii) Outcomes iv) Returns
14 An interview is generally intended to study the applicants
i) Technical knowledge ii) Mental alertness
iii) Senses of values iv)All
15 A good plan must be
i) Rigid ii) Flexible
iii) Rapid vi) All
16 Objectives help the managers in the --------------utilization of resources
i) Under ii) Over
iii) Efficient vi) inefficient
17 Which of the following is a function of management and pre-requisite for other

functions?
iii) Controlling vi) Organizing
18 The planning process meant for solving recurring problems is

i) Policy ii) Procedure
iii) Practice vi) Motivation
19 In planning process which serves a guide to carry out specific activity
20 In planning process which represents what actually is done in the organization.
21 In general, the level of benefits from the agricultural projects always
i) Constant ii) Decrease
iii) Increase vi) Vary
22 Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal?
i) BCR ii) PBP
iii) IRR vi) NPW
23 Which of the following is not a component of project cycle?
i) Conception ii) Evaluation
iii) Preparation vi) Maturity
24 Which of the following is an intangible benefit due to the project?
i) Increase in yield ii)Increase in income
iii) Increase in milk yield vi) Increased managerial ability of beneficiary
25 If BCR of a project is 1.15, then NBCR is

i) 0.15 ii) 2.15
iii) 0.30 vi) 1 /1.15
26 IRR is the discount factor, at which NPW is
i) Maximum ii) Minimum
iii) Zero vi) One
27 Which of the following involves being answerable to another for performance
i) Responsibility ii) authority
iii) Accountability iv) none of this
28 Which of the following is the structure i. e. easiest to begin as well as end
iii) Corporation vi) None of this
29 In which type of the partnership risk only the capital he has invested in the
business
i) Ordinary partnership ii) General partnership
iii) Limited partnership iv) None of these
30 In which of the following refers to an individual who owns, manages assumes all
risks, and derives all the profit from business
iii) Corporation iv) None of this
31 In which of the following is right to command or force an actions of other
i) Responsibility ii) Authority

iii) Accountability iv) None of this
32 In which of the following is the stimulus that produces action
i) Motivation ii) Hygienic factors
iii) Communication iv) None of this
33 In which of the following are called as pain relievers
i) Motivation ii) Hygienic factors
iii) Communication vi) None of this
34 In which of the following concepts more stress is given on product
i) Marketing ii) Selling
iii) Target marketing iv) None of this
35 In which of the following more importance is given on consumer needs
i) Marketing ii) Selling
iii) Target marketing vi) None of this
36 Which of the following is the main objective achieved in marketing concepts?
i) Profit through customer satisfaction ii) Profit through sales value
iii) Profit through customer exploitation iv) All of above
37 In which type of the market segmentation buyers are divided into different
groups on the basis of social class, life style and personality
i) Geographic ii) Demographic
iii) Psychographic iv) Behavioural
38 Which of the following is the heart of marketing mix?
i) Product ii) Place

iii) Price iv) Promotion
39 In which stage of the product life cycle profit is negative
i) Introduction ii) Growth
iii) Maturity vi) None of these
40 Which of the following means whether objectives are met as stipulated or not?
i) Planning ii) Organizing
iii) Directing iv) Controlling
41 IRR is the discount factor, at which BCR is
i) Maximum ii) Minimum
iii) Zero vi) One
42 When IRR is greater than Opportunity cost of capital, it is
i) Better to invest in the project ii)Not to invest in the project
iii) Point of indecision iv) None of the above
43 Which of the following means answerability for performance of work assigned to
subordinate
i) Authority ii) Responsibility
iii) Accountability vi) Power
44 In which of the following, time value of money is taken into consideration?
i) PBP ii) IRR
iii) Average Annual Proceeds vi) All the above
45 Which of the following do not indicate the rate of return from each rupee investment
in the
project?
i) BCR ii) NPW

iii) IRR vi) All
46 Agri-business is ----- oriented
i) Subsistence ii) Personal consumption
iii) Market iv) None of these
47 Quick ratio is also called as-----
i) Current ratio ii) Debt- equity ratio
iii) Acid test ratio vi) Equity-value ratio
48 The sum of net benefits during the life period of project is---
i) IRR ii) NPW
iii) Payback period iv) PWB
49. Which of the following element in the marketing mix that produces revenue.
i) Price ii) Product
iii) Place vi) Promotion
50) Which of the following is internal source of recruitment of staff?
i) Advertising ii) Employment Exchange
iii) Labour contractors vi) Promotion
Course Title: Agri-business Management Course No. : ECON-

365
Answers
Sr. No. Ans Sr. No. Ans Sr. No. Ans Sr. No. Ans Sr. No. Ans
1 iv) 11 ii) 21 ii) 31 ii) 41 iv)

2 ii) 12 ii) 22 ii) 32 i) 42 i)
3 i) 13 ii) 23 iv) 33 ii) 43 iii)
4 iii) 14 ii) 24 iv) 34 ii) 44 ii)
5 iii) 15 ii) 25 i) 35 i) 45 iii)
6 i) 16 iii) 26 iii) 36 i) 46 iii)
7 iii) 17 iii) 27 iii) 37 iii) 47 iii)
8 iv) 18 i) 28 i) 38 i) 48 ii)
9 i) 19 ii) 29 iii) 39 i) 49 i)
10 iv) 20 iii) 30 i) 40 iv) 50 iv)

Course Name : Statistics Course No. : STAT121
Multiple choice questions and answers
1. The number of fruits per plant is .................. variable.

i) continuous ii)discrete iii) constant iv) negative
2. A variable which is not capable of assuming all the numerical values in a given range is called as a
.............. variable.
i) continuous ii)discrete iii) constant iv) negative
3. A variable which is capable of assuming all the numerical values in a given range is called as
a .............. variable.
i) continuous ii) discrete iii) constant iv) negative
4. A quantitative variable whose set of possible values is ………..

i) countable ii) positive integers iii) whole numbers iv) all of these
5. Number of items in a class is called as ..................... of that class.

i) width ii) frequency iii) interval iv)class limit
6. In frequency distribution, the difference between lower and upper limit of exclusive class is
called as class .........
i) limit ii) frequency iii) mark iv) width
7. In ............ method of classification, lower limit of a class is equal to upper limit of previous class
i) inclusive ii) exclusive iii) geological iv) qualitative
8. In ............ method of classification, lower limit of a class is not equal to upper limit of previous
class
i) inclusive ii) exclusive iii) geological iv) qualitative
9. The sum of frequencies of all classes will always equal to ……….

i) 100 ii) the number of elements in a data set iii) the number of classes
iv) a value between 0 to 100
10. In a greater than or equal to cumulative frequency distribution, the first class will have a
cumulative frequency equal to ……..
i) one ii) 100 iii) the number of elements in the data set iv) none of the above
11. In a less than cumulative frequency distribution, the last class will have a cumulative frequency
equal to ……..
i) one ii) 100 iii) the number of elements in the data set iv) none of the above
12. The sum of relative frequencies of all classes will always equal to ……….
i) 100 ii) the number of elements in a data set iii) 1 iv) 10
13. If we divide each frequency of a class by the sum of all the frequencies then you will
get ................ frequencies of respective classes.
i) simple ii) cumulative iii) relative iv) average
14. The best positional average is ................

i) arithmetic mean ii) geometric mean iii) harmonic mean iv) median
15. The algebraic sum of the deviations of all the observations from their arithmetic mean is equal to
.........
i) zero ii) greater than zero iii) less than zero iv) cannot be judge
16. One of the most drawbacks of the arithmetic mean is that it is heavily influenced by ………
observations present in data set.
i) all ii) extreme iii) low extreme iv) high extreme
17. The sum of the deviation of the all the observations from their ……. , ignoring signs, is the least.
i) Mode ii) median iii) arithmetic mean iv) geometric mean
18. By definition …… is the most typical or representative value of a distribution.

i) Modeii) median iii) arithmetic mean iv) geometric mean
19. The measure of central tendency which is capable of further algebraic

treatment is ……
i) arithmetic mean ii) median iii) mode iv) all of these
20. The measure of central tendency which is relatively reliable in the sense of
sampling is ……….
21. ………. is the measure of central tendency and it cannot be determined
graphically.
22. ………. is the measure of central tendency and it is a centre of the gravity,
balancing the values on either side of it.
23. Out of existing averages, ……… is the average satisfying all the
characteristics/ requisites/properties/qualities/requirements of the good/ideal
average.
i) arithmetic mean ii) median iii) mode iv) none of these
24. The sum of squares of deviations of a set of observations is the minimum when deviations are
taken about ……………
25. The measure of central tendency which is based on all the observation is
……
i) arithmetic mean ii) median iii) mode iv) none of these
26. The mode of 1, 3, 900, 10, 30, 10, 1, 2, 1, 2 and 1 is ...................

i) 1 ii) 900 iii) 3 iv)10
27. ………… average which is always found at peak of the distribution.

i) Modeii) median iii) arithmetic mean iv) geometric mean
28. The height of normal distribution curve is maximum at the value of ..............
i) median ii) variance iii) SD iv) CV %
29. .................. is not affected by extreme values.

i) arithmetic mean ii) geometric mean iii) harmonic mean iv) median
30. A measure of central location which splits the data set into two equal groups/parts is the ………..
i) mean ii) mode iii) median iv) standard deviation
31. If a data set has an even number of observations, then the median ........
i) cannot be determined ii) must be equal to the mean
iii) difference between middle two observations
iv) arithmetic mean of middle two observations
32. Generally the mean is …….. the median (and mode) in a right/positive - skewed
distribution.
i) greater than ii) equal to iii) less than iv) none of these
33. Generally the mean is …….. the median (and mode) in a left/negative - skewed
distribution.
i) greater than ii) equal to iii) less than iv) none of these
34. The standard deviation of 9, 9, 9, 9, 9 is ....................

i) zero ii) 9 iii) 45 iv) cannot be judge
35. ……… is the arithmetic mean of the squared deviations of individual observations from the
arithmetic mean.
i) mean deviation ii) variance iii) correlation iv) an average
36. ……… is the square root of the arithmetic mean of the squared deviations of individual
observations from the arithmetic mean.
i) mean deviation ii) standard deviation iii) correlation iv) an average
37. The measure of dispersion that is based on the concept of a deviation about the arithmetic
mean is ............
i) the range ii) the inter quartile range iii) the standard deviation
iv) None of the above answers is correct
38. Measure of relative dispersion of standard deviation is called as ................

i) CV% ii) Variance iii) SD iv) an average
39. The value of variance is always ......................

i) negative ii) positive iii) zero iv) greater than unity
40. A data series is said to be consistent when its coefficient of variation is .....................
i) minimum ii) maximum iii) unity iv) none of these
41. The variance of standard normal distribution is ....................

i) 0 ii) 100 iii) 1 iv) none of these
42. The mean of standard normal distribution is ....................

i) 0 ii) 100 iii) 1 iv) none of these
43. The square of standard deviation is known as ........................

i) variance ii) an average iii) CV% iv) standard error
44. The coefficient of variation is one of the ………

i) measure of relative dispersion ii) measure of central tendency
iii) measure of absolute dispersion iv) none of these
45. The ratio of the standard deviation to the arithmetic mean (expressed in percentage) is
i) the variance ii) the coefficient of variation
iii) measure of absolute dispersion iv) the range
46. In scatter diagram, if we found general trend of plotted points in the form of ‘bottom left to top
right’ then we can say there exist ……….. correlation.
i) positive linear ii) negative linear iii) perfect positive iv) perfect negative
47. In scatter diagram, if we found general trend of plotted points in the form of ‘top left to bottom
right’ then we can say there exist ……….. correlation.
i) positive linear ii) negative linear iii) perfect positive iv) perfect negative
48. r XY =0
If , then variables X and Y are ..............................
i) independent ii) dependent iii) correlated iv) none of these
49. Cov ( X ,Y )=0 r XY

For paired data on two variables X and Y, , then the value of
is ..............................
i) 0
σ X and σ Y
ii) depends on value of standard deviation
b XY and bYX
iii) depends on regression coefficient
iv) cannot be determined on the basis of given information
50. Cov ( X ,Y )=0

If , then variables X and Y are ..............................
i) independent ii) dependent iii) correlated iv) none of these
51. ρ XY
The population correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is tested by …….. test.
2
i) χ ii) Z iii) t iv) F
52. r XY =0
If the value of , then there is no ……. relationship between two variables X and Y.
i) curvilinear ii) linear iii) non-linear iv) high-linear
53. r XY
The Pearson’s coefficient of correlation is equal to ……….
Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y )
2 2 2 2
σ X σY nσ X σ Y σ X
σ Y
nσ X
σ Y
i) ii) iii) ii)
54. The Pearson’s coefficient of correlation always lies between ............................

i) -1 to +1 ii) -1 to 0 iii) 0 to 1 iv) -  to 
55. r XY = −1
If , then X and Y are ..........................
i) independent ii) dependent iii) uncorrelated iv) none of these
56. r XY = +1
If , then X and Y are ..........................
i) independent ii) dependent iii) uncorrelated iv) none of these
57. If a scatter diagram shows a negative relation then, in general, as

i) x increases, y increases ii) y increases, x increases iii) x increases, y decreases
58. If a scatter diagram shows a negative relation then, in general, as

i) x increases, y increases ii) y increases, x increases iii) x decreases, y increases
59. If the correlation coefficient for two variables is - 0.90, the coefficient of determination is
i) 0.90 ii) - 0.81 iii) + 0.81 iv) - 0.90
60. The magnitude of Pearson’s coefficient of correlation ………

i) is the square coefficient of determination
ii) is the square root of the coefficient of determination
iii) can never be positive iv) none of the above
61. r XY
If magnitude of Pearson’s coefficient of correlation is one then value of is ………
i) minus one ii) plus one iii) minus one or plus one iv) none of these
62. If the amount of change in one variable tends the bear constant ratio to the amount of change in
the other variable then the relationship between two variable is said to be ………… correlation
i) non-linear ii) curvilinear iii) linear iv) only positive
63. If one of the regression coefficient is negative, the other would be ........................
i) negative ii) positive iii) zero iv) one
64. If the magnitude of one of the regression coefficient is greater than 1, the magnitude of other
must be ...................
i) greater than one ii) less than oneiii) negative iv) positive
65. If the magnitude of one of the regression coefficient is less than 1, the magnitude of
other ...................
i) greater than one ii) less than one iii) may be greater than one or less than one
iv) none of these
66. Value of regression coefficient lies between ..................

67. r XY
For the estimated regression line Y= 30 – 10X, the correlation coefficient must be ………
i) positive ii) negative iii) -10 iv) Cannot be judge
68. In regression analysis, the variable which is used for predicting or explaining is …………….. variable
i) the independent ii) usually denoted by Y
iii) the dependent iv) none of the above
69. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is ………..

i) the independent variable ii) the dependent variable iii) usually denoted by x iv)
none of the above
70. In regression analysis, the explanatory is known as …..

i) the independent variable ii) the dependent variable iii) usually denoted by x iv)
none of the above
71. In the regression equation Y = b0 + b1X, b0 is the ………..

i) slope of the line w.r.t. X-axis ii) slope of the line w.r.t. Y-axis
iii) intercept of line on X-axis iii) intercept of line on Y-axis
72. In the regression equation Y = b0 + b1X, b1 is the ………

73. In the regression equation X = b0 + b1Y, b0 is the ……….

74. In the regression equation X = b0 + b1Y, b1 is the ………

iii) intercept of line on X-axis iv) intercept of line on Y-axis
75. In regression analysis, the variable that is predicted or explained is …….. variable
i) the dependent ii) usually denoted by X
iii) the independent iv) none of the above
76. The two regression lines for a given pair of observations, regression line of Y on X and regression
line of X on Y, always intersect each other at ……….
i) means of X and Y ii) median of X and Y iii) Mode of X and Y
iv) varies as paired data of X and Y
77. The correlation coefficient between two variables can be expressed as …….. mean of two
regression coefficients.
i) arithmetic ii) geometric iii) harmonic iv) geometric
78. b YX
The regression coefficient of Y on X i.e is ………
Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y )
2 2
σ X
σ Y σ X σY
i) ii) iii) iv) none of these
79. b XY
The regression coefficient of X on Y i.e is ………
Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y ) Cov( X , Y )
2 2
σ X
σ Y σ X σY
80. We can say the regression line of Y on X as best fit line if ………..
i) sum of squares of vertical distances of all points from a line is the least
ii) sum of squares of horizontal distances of all points from a line is least
i) sum of vertical distances of all points from a line is least
ii) sum of horizontal distances of all points from a line is least
81. We can say the regression line of Y on X as best fit line if ………..
i) sum of squares of vertical distances of all points from a line is least
ii) sum of squares of horizontal distances of all points from a line is least
iii) sum of vertical distances of all points from a line is least
iv) sum of horizontal distances of all points from a line is least
82. The sample is chosen as a result of chance of an occurrence is known as ………. sampling.
i) random ii) Systematic iii) convenience iii) cluster
83. The probability of a null event is ................

i) zero ii) unity iii) 10 iv) 100
84. The probability of a universal set is always ......................

i) Zero ii) Less than one iii) More than one iv) One
85. Value of probability lies between .....................

86. ¿ ¿
P(A) = 0.6, P(B) 0.5, and P(A B) = 0.3, so P(A B) = ……..
i) 0.5 ii) 0.6 iii) 0.8 iv) 1.1
87. ¿ ¿
P(A) = 0.6, P(BI) 0.5, and P(A B) = 0.8, so P(A B) = ……..
i) 0.3 ii) 0.6 iii) 0.8 iv) 0.1
88. If two dice are thrown at a time, then probability of getting 2 on each die is ……..
1 1 2
6 36 6
89. If two coins are tossed at a time, then probability of getting head on each coin is ……..
1 1
2 4
i)1 ii) iii) iv) None of these
90. ¿
If two events A and B are independent, then P(A B)=…………
i) zero ii) one iii) P(A) x P(B) iv) P(A) + P(B) - P(A) x P(B)
91. ¿
If two events A and B are not mutually exclusive, then P(A B)=…………
¿
i) zero ii) one iii) P(A) + P(B) iv) P(A) + P(B) - P(A B)
92. The union of events A and B is ………..

i) the same as the intersection of events A and B ii) always equal to zero
iii) that event which contains all sample points belonging to A and B
iv) that event which contains all sample points belonging to A or B or both
93. Given that an event A has a probability of 0.25, then the probability of the
complement of event A ………….
i) cannot be determined with the above information ii) must be 0.75
iii) can have any value between zero and one iv) none of the above
94. A
'
A
'
If A is event and is it’s complement event, then P (A) + P ( ) is equal to ……..
1
2
i) 0 ii) 1 iii) iv) cannot be judge by using given information
95. Binomial distribution is a ........................ distribution.

i) continuous ii) discrete iii) negative iv) geometric
96. Mean is always greater than variance in a ....................distribution.

i) poison ii) normal iii) geometric iv) binomial
97. The binomial probability distribution has n = 10 and p = 0.2, then mean of this distribution is
………
i) 0.2 ii) 1.6 iii) 2 iv) 10
98. The binomial probability distribution has n = 50 and p = 0.2, then variance of this distribution is
………
i) 100 ii) 10 iii) 2 iii) 8
99. The binomial probability distribution has n = 50 and p = 0.2, then standard deviation of this
distribution is ………
i) 10 ii)
√ 10 iii)
√ 20 iii)
√8
100. The poison probability distribution has mean 10, then variance of this distribution must be ………
i) 100 ii) 10 iii)

√ 10 iii) cannot be judge
101. The poisson probability distribution has mean 10, then standard deviation this distribution must
be ………
i) 100 ii) 10 iii)

√ 10 iii) cannot be judge
102. The probability distribution for a discrete random variable which is used to compute the
probability of x successes in n trials is the …………..
i) normal probability distribution ii) standard normal distribution
iii) binomial probability distribution iv) none of the above
103. Poison distribution is a ...................... distribution.

i) continuous ii) discrete ii) negative iii) geometric
104. Mean and variance are equal in a ....................distribution.

i) poison ii) normal iii) geometric iv) binomial
105. Normal distribution is a ................................. distribution.

i) continuous ii) discrete iii) mathematical iv) geometric
106. The maximum height of normal probability distribution curve is ……….

1 μ 1 2μ
i)
√2 π σ ii)
√2 π σ iii)
√2 π iv)
σ
107. The maximum height of standard normal distribution probability curve is ……….
1 1 1
i)
√2 π ii)
√ π iii) 2 π iv) 1
108. The normal distribution has always …….… mode/modes.

i) Four ii) one iii) two iv) three
109. The variable which follows normal probability distributed is ............... one.
i) continuous ii) discrete iii) constant iv) none of these
110. In the normal probability distribution curve, point of inflections i.e. points
where the sudden change in curvature occurs are ……..
μ−σ and μ+σ μ−2 σ and μ+2 σ μ−3 σ and μ+3 σ
i) ii) iii)
iv) None of these
111. The two tails of normal probability distribution curve touches X-axis at
………..and ………..
μ−σ , μ+σ μ−2 σ , μ +2 σ μ−3 σ , μ+3 σ
i) ii) iii) iv) None of
these
112. μ σ
If variable X follows normal distribution with mean and standard deviation , then the area
μ−1 . 96 σ μ+1 . 96 σ
under the curve for X = and X= is ……….
i) 99% ii) 95.45% iii) 95% iv) 68%
113. If variable Z follows standard normal distribution, then the area under the curve for Z = -
1.96 and Z= +1.96 is ……….
i) 99% ii) 95.45% iii) 95% iv) 68%
114. In the standard normal probability distribution curve, point of inflections i.e.
points where the sudden change in curvature occurs are ……..
i) -1 and +1 ii) -2 and +2 iii) -3 and +3 iv) None of these
115.
If X is distributed normally with mean μ and standard deviation σ
, then the
X−μ
σ
distribution of is …………… distribution.
i) normal ii) standard normal iii) student tiv) none of these
116.
If X is distributed normally with mean μ and standard deviation σ , then the
X−μ
distribution of σ / √ n (where
X
is mean of sample of size n and σ known)
is …………… distribution.
i) normal ii) standard normal iii) student tiv) none of these
117. For the standard normal probability distribution, the area to the left of the mean is ……….
i) greater than 50% ii) - 50% iii) 100% iv) 50%
118. For the normal probability distribution, the area to the left of the mean is ……….
i) greater than 50% ii) - 50% iii) 100% iv) 50%
119. A standard normal distribution is a normal distribution with ……..

i) a mean of 1 and a standard deviation of 0 ii) any mean and any standard deviation
iii) a mean of 0 and any standard deviation
iv) a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1
120. A normal probability distribution ………..

i) is a discrete probability distribution ii) is a continuous probability distribution
iii) can be either continuous or discrete iv) must always have a mean zero
121. In order to uniquely define a normal distribution, one must know
μ σ μ and σ μ or σ
i) and n ii) n and iii) iv)
122. The process of inferring certain facts about a ………. based on a sample is known as statistical
inference.
i) statistic ii) population iii) frequency iv) arithmetic mean
123. If the variance of a data set is correctly computed with the formula using (n – 1) in the
denominator, the data set ...............
i) is a sample ii) is a population iii) is from a census
iv) could be either a sample or a population
124. If all possible samples of size say n, were drawn from a population, then the probability
distribution for all possible values of statistic (one value for each sample) is known as
i) a sample statistic ii) a parameter distribution
iii) simple random sampling iv) a sampling distribution
125. The standard deviation of statistic/sampling distribution is called as …………

i) curve of distribution ii) variance iii) standard error iv) coefficient of variation
126. The variance of arithmetic mean of sample is the ratio of population variance and the ……
i) population size ii) sample size iii) 100 iv) square root of sample size
127. The standard error of arithmetic mean of sample is the ratio of population/sample standard
deviation and the square root of ……
i) size of population ii) size of sample iii) 100 iv) none of these
128. If a sample of size say 16, was drawn from a normal population having mean 24 and variance
(X)
100, then the distribution of sample mean has mean and standard deviation is …….
respectively.
i) 6 and 25 ii) 6 and 2.5 iii) 24 and 2.5 iv) 24 and 10
129. For testing mean of single population on the basis of sample of size greater than 30 we use ……….
test.
i) t ii) non-parametric iii) z iv) sample
130. Population characteristic, such as a population mean, is called

i) a statistic ii) a parameter iii) a sample iv) none of the above
131. A measure from a sample, such as a sample mean, is known as
i) a statistic ii) a parameter iii) mean deviation iv) none of the above
132. In hypothesis testing, the hypothesis which is tentatively assumed to be true is called as ..............
i) correct hypothesis ii) null hypothesis iii) alternative hypothesis
iv) level of significance
133. In a hypothesis testing, Type I error is made if ………..

i) we reject the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true
ii) we do not reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
iii) we reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
iv) we do not reject the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true
134. In a hypothesis testing, Type II error is made if ………..

i) we reject the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true
ii) we do not reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
iii) we reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true
iv) we do not reject the null hypothesis when the alternative hypothesis is true
135. In hypothesis testing, the level of significance is .............

i) the probability of committing a Type II error
ii) the probability of committing a Type I error
iii) the probability of either a Type I or Type II iv) none of the above
136. β
In hypothesis testing, is
i) the probability of committing a Type II error
ii) the probability of committing a Type I error
iii) the probability of either a Type I or Type II iv) none of the above
137. The number of different simple random samples of size 4 that can be selected from a population
of size 6 is
i) 24 ii) 30 iii) 15 iv) 4
139.
If X is distributed normally with mean μ and standard deviation σ , then the
X−μ
distribution of S/ √ n (where
X S
is mean and is Standard deviation of
small sample of size n ) is …………… distribution.
i) normal ii) standard normal iii) student t iv) none of these
140. The shape of t-distribution curve depends on ……….
i) sample ii) degrees of freedom iii) population iv) none of these
141. The mean of t-distribution is …….……….

i) one ii) zero iii) depends on population iv) depends on sample
142. S and S
12 22
If are the variances of two independent random samples of sizes m and n from
S and S
12 22
two normal populations respectively, then the ratio is ……. test.
i) χ2 ii) Z iii) t iv) F
143. S and S
12 22
If are the variances of two independent random samples of sizes m and n from
S and S
12 22
two normal populations respectively, then the ratio follows F-Distribution with
…………. degrees of freedom.
i) m and n ii) m-1 and n-1 iii) n and m iv) n-1 and m-1
144. σ and σ
X2 Y2
The equality of variances, say of two normal populations is tested by …….. test.
2
145. ……… test is used in analysis of variance (ANOVA) to test means of more than two populations.
2
146. Goodness of fit is tested by ............. test.

i) Binomial ii) chi-square iii) t iv) F
147. In contingency table of r rows and c columns, the degree of freedom of chi-square is ………..
i) (r-1) and (c-1) ii (r-2) and (c-2) iii) (r-1)(c-1) iv) (r-2)(c-2)
148. An important application of chi-square distribution is ……………

i) testing the variance of a normal population ii) testing the goodness of fit
iii) testing the independence of two attributes iv) all of these
149. If a random variable X follows standard normal distribution, then the distribution X 2 is
called ……… distribution with one degree of freedom.
2
i) variance ii) normal iii) non-parametric iv) χ
150. If a random variable X follows standard normal distribution, then the distribution X 2 is
2
called χ - distribution with …….. degree of freedom.
i) infinite ii) positive iii) sampling error iv) one
151. X 1 , X 2 , ...... X n X 1 +X 2 + . .. .. . + X n
If are n independent standard normal variables, then has
the ……… distribution.
2
153. ………. is not basic experimental design.

i) CRD ii) RCBDiii) LSD iv) Split-plot
154. In ………. experimental design there is no restriction on number of replication for different
treatments.
155. In ………. experimental design number of replication must be equal to number of treatments.
156. In ………. experimental design/designs it is possible to consider all set of treatments.

i) CRD ii) RCBDiii) LSD iv) all of these
157. The degrees of freedom for error in CRD is ……….

i) n-t ii) (r-1)(t-1) iii) (t-1)(t-2) iv) (r-1)(t-2)
158. The degrees of freedom for error in RCBD is ……….

159. The degrees of freedom for error in LSD is ……….

160. The degrees of freedom for total in LSD is ……….

i) rt2-1 ii) t2-1 iii) r2t2-1 iv) r2t-1
161. The degrees of freedom for total in RCBD is ……….

i) rt-1 ii) t2-1 iii) rt2-1iv) r2t-1
162. The degrees of freedom for total in CRD is ……….

i) rt-1 ii) t2-1 iii) n-1 iv) r2t-1
163. In ANOVA procedure the statistical approach for determining whether or not the ………..
i) means of more than two samples are equal
ii) means of two or more than two samples are equal
iii) means of more than two populations are equal
iv) means of two or more than two populations are equal
164. The variable of interest in Design of experiment procedure is called ……..

i) a factor ii) a treatment iii) either a or b iv) ANOVA
165. In the Design of experiment , treatment refers to …………

i) experimental units ii) different levels of a factor
iii) a factor iv) treatment error
166. In ANOVA table, the mean sum of square is the sum of squares divided by …….
i) the total number of observations ii) the mean sum of squares for error
iii) its corresponding degrees of freedom minus one
iv) its corresponding degrees of freedom
167. An experimental design where the treatments are completely assigned at random to the
experimental units is known as ………..
i) factor block design ii) random factor design
iii) completely randomized design iv) none of the above
168. An experimental design where the complete set of treatments is assigned randomly to
experimental units of a block/replication is known as ……..
i) randomized complete block design ii) latin square design
iii) completely randomized design iv) factorial design
COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE, PUNE-5
B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
_________
Course No : ECON-121 Semester : II
Credits : 2= 2+0 Title : Principles of Agricultural Economics
_____________________________________________________________________
_________
Multiple choice questions
Q.1 Wealth is synonymous with …………goods.

i) Economic ii) Free
iii) Consumers iv) Material
Q.2 ………defined economics as science of material welfare.
i) Adam Smith ii) Robbins
iii) Alfred Marshal iv) J. B. Say
Q.3 Capital is fund while income is ………
i) value ii) flow
ii) Wealth iv) none of these
Q.4 Total utility is maximum when the marginal utility is
i) zero ii) maximum
iii) negative iv) minimum
Q.5 Air is an example of ………..goods.
i) economic ii) free
iii) personal iv) material
Q.6 Same quantity is offered at higher price is called ……. . .in supply.
i) increase ii) extension
iii) contraction iv) decrease
Q.7 The difference between what we are prepared to pay and what we actually pay
is
called as ………..
i) consumers surplus ii) producers surplus
iii) marketable surplus iv) marketed surplus
Q.8 Net National Product = Gross National Product - …………
i) Subsidies ii) Savings
iii) Consumption iv) Depreciation
Q.9 In private finance an individual’s income determines his……
i) saving iiB) consumption
iii) expenditure iv) profit
Q.10 ………. tax is one which takes out exactly the same percentage of income
from the
pockets of every person.
i) Proportional ii) Regressive
iii) Digressive iv) Progressive
Q.11 A sustained rise of less than 3 per cent in prices per annum is called as
………inflation.
i) walking ii) creeping
iii) running iv) galloping
Q.12 ………defined economics as science of scarcity.
Q.13 …………… tax is one which is charged from poor at a higher rate than from
the rich.
i) Proportional ii) Regressive
iii) Digressive iv) Progressive
Q.14 Process of bringing down prices moderately from a very high level is called
as..............
i) disinflation ii) deflation
iii) inflation iv) stagflation
Q.15 The book “Wealth of Nations” is written by ……….
i) Alfred Marshall ii) Robbins
iii) J. B. Say iv) Adam Smith
Q.16 ……….defined economics as a science of wealth.
Q.17 Price theory is also called as ………
. i) Macro- economics ii) Micro- economics
iii) Consumption economics iv) Production economics
Q.18 ……… goods yields satisfaction directly.

i) Consumption ii) Intermediate
iii) Producers iv) Capital
Q.19 The ……………of commodity is its purchasing power of commanding other
things in
exchange for itself.
i) value ii) price
iii) utility iv) consumpion
Q.20 The price at which demand and supply are equal is known as ……..…..
i) equilibrium price ii) consumers price
iii) producers price iv) none of these
Q.21 ……………are the things which we are forced to use by social custom.
i) Necessaries of existence ii) Necessaries of efficiency
iii) Conventional necessaries iv) Comforts
Q.22 ………..deals with wants and their satisfaction.
i) Consumption ii) Utility
iii) Goods iv) Wealth
Q.23 Economics is the study of ………….in the ordinary business of life.
i) wealth ii) man
iii) value iv) consumption
Q.24 Human wants are ……….
i) unlimited ii) limited
iii) constant iv) none of these
Q.25 Marshall’s definition of Economics has been criticized by …………..
i) Recardo ii) Ruskin
iii) Carlyle iv) Robbins
Q.26 Wants – efforts - ………….form the subject matter of Economics.
i) desire ii) satisfaction
iii) consumption iv) production
Q.27 The study of Economics is divided in to four divisions, viz., Consumption,

Production, Exchange and…………………….
i) Income ii) Satisfaction
iii) Employment iv) Distribution
Q.28 ………….goods are scarce and can be had only on payment.
i) Free ii) Capital
iii) Economic iv) Consumption
Q.29 Consumer’s Surplus = Total Utility - ……………
i) Total Amount Spent ii) Total Consumption
iii) Total Income iv) None of these
Q.30 Wants satisfying quality of goods is called ………
i) value ii) utility
iii) usefulness iv) consumption
Q.31 Value expressed in terms of money is called………….
i) wealth ii) utility
iii) income iv) price
Q.32 The various quantities of goods and services which would be purchased by
the consumer at various levels of income is called………….demand.
i) cross ii) wealth
iii) income iv) price
Q.33 When price rises, demand ……….
i) contracts ii) decreases
iii) extends iv) increases
Q.34 More quantity is offered at a higher price is called ………...
i) extension of supply ii) increase in supply
iii) contraction of supply iv) decrease in supply
Q.35 In railways, the demand for coal is……
i) Less elastic ii) More elastic
iii) Infinite elastic iv) Unit elastic
Q.36 Canons of taxation enunciated by ………….

Q.37 Income tax is an example of …………tax.
i) direct ii) indirect
iii) both i and ii iv) none of these
Q.38 Public expenditure can be classified as revenue expenditure and…….
i) capital expenditure ii) government expenditure
iii) development expenditure iv) none of these
Q.39 Canon of equity, canon of certainty, canon of convenience and canon of
…………were the four principles laid down by Adam Smith.
i) elasticity ii) simplicity
iii) economy iv) productivity
Q.40 Under ………….income tax, higher tax rates of income tax are charged on
higher
slabs of income
i) proportional ii) progressive
iii) regressive iv) degressive
Q. 41 …………….. has enuciated a very simple criteria of welfare economics as
“any
change which harms no one and which makes some people better off must be
considered to be an improvement”.
i) scitosky ii) Bergson
iii) Pareto iv) Kaldor-hichs
Q. 42 When consumption of a unit of commodity makes no addition to the total
utility,
is called …….utility.
i) zero ii) total
iii) negative iv) initial
Q.43 ………………is the beginning as well as the end of all economic activity.
i) Satisfaction ii) Consumption
iii) Production iv) Distribution
Q.44 The …………..law is applicable to the use of time, distribution of assets in

various forms and the allocation of resources among the various uses.
i) Diminishing Marginal Utility ii) Additional utility
iii) Equimarginal Utility iv) none of these
Q.45 The Law of ………………regulates our daily expenditure.
i) Diminishing Marginal Utility ii) Substitution.
iii) Equimarginal Utility iv) Maximum Satisfaction
Q.46 Giffen Paradox is obviously an exception to the Law of ……….
i) Demand ii) Supply
iii) Equimarginal Utility iv) Diminishing Marginal Utility
Q.47 ………….defined “Economics is that body of knowledge which relates to
wealth.”
i) J.B.Say ii) Carlyle and Ruskin
iii) F.A.Walker iv Adam Smith
Q.48 …………wealth refers to debt owned by individuals or States.
i) National ii) Personal
iii) Negative iv) Individual
Q.49 Anything that can satisfy human wants is called…………
i) utility ii) usefulness
iii) goods iv) wealth
Q.50 Father of Economics is……………….
i) J.M. Keynes ii) Alfred Marshall
iii) Lionel Robbins iv) Adam Smith
Q.51 Father of Modern Economics is……….
i) J.M. Keynes ii) Alfred Marshall
iii) Lionel Robbins iv) Adam Smith
Q.52 Which of the following definitions of Economics includes the concept of ‘scale
of
preferences’.
i) Wealth ii) Scarcity
iii) Welfare iv) Growth
Q.53 The subject matter economics dealing with an individual or tiny aggregates of
population
is called ………..
i) Macro Economics ii) Micro economics
iii) Income theory iv) All the above
Q.54 For necessaries the demand is……..

i) Less elastic ii) More elastic
iii) Infinite elastic iv) Unit elastic
Q.55 The subject matter of Economics dealing with large aggregates or economy as
whole is called …………
i) Macro economics ii) Micro Economics
iii) Price theory iv) All the above
Q.56 Stock is equal to supply in case of…….
i) Durable goods ii) Perishable goods
iii) Machinery iv) Implements
Q.57 Which of the following is an external material and transferable good?
i) Table ii) Good will of business
iii) Conduct certificate of a student iv) Skill of a doctor
Q.58 Which of the following is an internal/personal, non material and non-
transferable good?
i) Table ii) Good will of business
iii) Conduct certificate of a student iv) Skill of a doctor
Q.59 Free good have great………….
i) Value in use ii) Value in exchange
iii) Transferability iv) None
Q.60 Which of the following is an intermediate good?
i) Cotton ii) Machinery
iii) Rice iv) Non of the above
Q.61 The apple growers supplies apples from Kashmir to Lucknow and creates
i) Form utility ii) Place utility
iii) Time utility iv) Possession utility
Q.62 Utility in Economics refers to……….

i) Usefulness ii) Pleasure
iii) Satisfaction iv) Want satisfying power
Q.63 ………….. refers to the net value of all goods and services produced in a
country in the current year including net income from abroad.
i) Net National product
ii) Gross national Product at market prices
iii) Gross National Product at factor cost
iv) Per Capita Income
Q.64 Which of the following having value in the market?
i) Air ii) Air conditioner
iii) rotten eggs iv) All the above
Q.65 Anything which possess value in exchange is……………..
i) Utility ii) Good
iii) Income iv) Wealth
Q.66 Which of the following is not an attribute of wealth?
i) The good must posses utility ii) The good must be
internal
iii) The good must be transferable iv) The good must be scarce
Q.67 If prices increases at a rate of 10 to 20 per cent per annum, it is called………
i) Running inflation ii) Creeping inflation
iii). Walking inflation iv) None of these
Q.68 Kalidas works are …………..wealth.
i) Social ii) Representative
iii) Personal iv) International
Q.69 Sand near sea shore is not wealth, because, it does not possess
i) Transferability ii) Utility
iii) Scarcity iv) All the above
Q.70 ‘A particular want is satiable’ is explained by…………
i) Law of Equi-marginal Utility ii) Law of Diminishing
Marginal Utility
iii) Indifference curve analysis iv) All the above
Q.71 Human wants are competitive is explained by………

i) Law of Equi-marginal Utility ii) Law of Diminishing Marginal
Utility iii) Consumer’s surplus iv) All the above
Q.72 ………… are the wants which are essential and without them we cannot
imagine life.
I) Comforts ii) Luxuries
ii) Necessaries iv) All the above
Q.73 Which of the following makes a fuller life for the individual?
i) Comforts ii) Luxuries
iii) Necessaries iv) All the above
Q.74 Which of the following refers to superfluous consumption?
i) Comforts ii) Luxuries
iii) Necessaries iv) All the above
Q.75 As income increases, the expenditure on rent, fuel, light etc.
i) Increases ii) Decreases
iii) More or less remains same iv) None of the above
Q.76 In the process of consumption, the consumer stops purchasing the commodity
at the point where, …………..
i) Marginal utility > price ii) Marginal utility < price
iii) Marginal utility = price iv) Marginal utility = total
utility
Q.77 Utility of last unit is called……
i) Total utility ii) Marginal utility
iii) Initial utility iv) Zero utility
Q.78 According to law of diminishing marginal utility, the consumer derives
maximum satisfaction when, total utility is….
i) Maximum ii) Equal to marginal utility
iii) Less than marginal utility iv) Zero
Q.79 Moderate degree of controlled inflation is ………….
i) Deflation ii) Inflation
iii) Reflation iv) Stagflation
Q.80 The principle of taxation is based on……….

i) Law of Equi-marginal Utility ii) Law of Diminishing
Marginal Utility
. iii) Indifference curve analysis iv) None
Q.81 The law of diminishing marginal utility deals with …………..
i) Single commodity ii) Two commodities
iii) More the two commodities iv) None
Q.82 When total utility increases, marginal utility is…….
i) Zero ii) Positive
iii) Negative iv) None of these
Q.83 Marginal utility varies …………..with the supply of commodity.
i) Directly ii) Inversely
iii) Positively iv) None
Q.84 In case of free goods, marginal utility is……..
i) Positive ii) Negative
iii) Infinite iv) Zero
Q.85 In case of scarce goods, marginal utility is……….
i) Positive ii) Negative
Q.86 If the quantity of a substitute good increases, the marginal utility of the
good………
i) Decreases ii) Increases
Q.87 If the quantity of a complementary good increase, the marginal utility of the
good………
i) Decreases ii) Increases
Q.88 Law of equimarginal utility is also called as …………..
i) Law of maximum satisfaction ii) Law of indifference
iii) Gossen’s second law iv) All the above
Q.89 Law of equimarginal utility deals with……….
i) One commodity ii) More the one
commodity
iii) Only two commodities iv) None
Q.90 According to law of equimarginal utility, the consumer derives maximum
satisfaction when ………
i) Marginal utility is maximum for a commodity
ii) Marginal utility is zero
iii) When marginal utility derived from different commodities is same
iv) When total utility equals marginal utility
Q.91 The concept of law of equi-marginal utility is given by……..
i) Alfred Marshall ii) Cannon
iii) Adam Smith iv) J.R. Hicks
Q.92 The concept of consumers surplus is given by……
i) Alfred Marshall ii) Cannon
iii) Adam Smith iv) J.R. Hicks
Q.93 In general, a Finance Minister will impose more tax on the commodities for
which the consumers surplus is ………
i) High ii) Low
iii) Zero iv) None
Q.94 The law of demand is based on……
i) Law of equimarginal utility ii) Consumer’s surplus
iii) Low of diminishing marginal utility iv) All the above
Q.95 In which of the following cases, demand curve shifts towards right side.
i) Extension of demand ii) Contraction of demand
iii) Decrease in demand iv) Increase in demand
Q.96 In which of the following cases, demand curve shifts towards left side.
i) Extension of demand ii) Contraction of demand
iii) Decrease in demand iv) Increase in demand
Q.97 Too much money chasing too few goods implies…………..
i) Deflation ii) Inflation
iii) Trend fluctuations iv) Cyclical fluctuations
Q.98 For which of the following, there is joint demand.
i) Tea ii) Electricity
iii) Coal iv) Ink
Q.99 For which of the following, there is composite demand.
i) Tea ii) Coffee
iii) Coal iv) All the above
Q.100 The demand for agricultural labour refers to ……………… demand.
i) Joint demand ii) Composite demand
iii) Direct demand iv) Derived demand
$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$
COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE, PUNE

B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
___
Course No : ECON:121 Semester : II
Credits : 2= 2+0 Course Title : Principles of Agricultural
Economics
Answers keys
Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans. Q. No. Ans.
1 i 26 ii 51 i 76 iii
2 iii 27 iv 52 ii 77 ii
3 ii 28 iii 53 ii 78 i
4 i 29 i 54 i 79 iii
5 ii 30 ii 55 i 80 ii
6 iv 31 iv 56 ii 81 i
7 i 32 iii 57 i 82 ii
8 iv 33 i 58 iv 83 ii
9 iii 34 i 59 i 84 iv
10 i 35 i 60 i 85 i
11 ii 36 i 61 ii 86 i
12 ii 37 i 62 iv 87 ii
13 ii 38 i 63 i 88 iv
14 i 39 iii 64 ii 89 ii
15 iv 40 ii 65 iv 90 iii
16 i 41 iii 66 ii 91 i
17 ii 42 i 67 i 92 i
18 i 43 ii 68 iii 93 i
19 i 44 iii 69 iii 94 ii
20 i 45 i 70 ii 95 iv
21 iii 46 i 71 i 96 iii
22 i 47 iii 72 ii 97 ii
23 ii 48 iii 73 i 98 i
24 i 49 iii 74 ii 99 iii
25 iv 50 iv 75 ii 100 iii
COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE, PUNE-5

B.Sc. (Agri)
_____________________________________________________________________
________
Course : ECON-243 Semester : IV
Credit : 2 = 1+1 Title : Agricultural Finance and Co-operation
_____________________________________________________________________
_________

Q.1 Taccavi loans are supplied by …………..
i) Government ii) Commercial Bank
iii) Money lenders iv)D) RBI
Q.2 RRB came in to existence in ………….
i) 1975 ii) 1982
iii) 1994 iv) 1997
Q.3 Single window system of finance was first time introduced in ………State.
i) Punjab ii) Karnataka
iii) Andhra Pradesh iv) Maharashtra
Q.4 Estimation of future value of present sum is called as ………..
i)) discounting ii) compounding
iii) principle amount iv) interest
Q.5 The point at which total cost curve and total revenue curve intersect each other
is called ……
i)) break even point ii) equilibrium point
iii) equal point iv) none of these
Q.6 …….. is the discount rate which makes NPV of the project zero.
i)) profitability index ii) BCR
iii) pay back period iv) IRR
Q.7 …………loan is meant for helping the farmer to overcome distress sale.
i)) Production ii) Marketing
iii) Consumption iv) Investment
Q.8 Government of India and ………..are the joint owners of NABARD.
i) RBI ii) SBI
iii) LDB iv) ARDC
Q.9 ...……….repayment plan is made by the borrowers in areas where there is high
income variability.
i) Variable ii) Single
iii) Amortized iv) Reserve
Q.10 Bank of Maharashtra was nationalized in the year ………
i) 1958 ii) 1982
iii) 1969 iv) 1989
Q.11 The main purpose of …….. was to provide exchange stability.
i) IFC ii) IMF
iii) IDA iv) IBRD
Q.12 First Co-operative Act was passed in ………..
i) 1912 ii) 1908
iii) 1904 iv) 1918
Q.13 NABARD came in to existence in ………….
i) 1975 ii) 1982
iii) 1994 iv) 1997
Q.14 Head office of the NAFED is located at ……..
i) Delhi ii) Kolkatta
iii) Punjab iv) Gujarat
Q.15 Produce is either finally disposed off to the consumers or processors or
assembled for
export in ……….market.
i) National ii) Seaboard
iii) Wholesale iv) Terminal
Q.16 …………is a consortium of commercial banks and consultancy agency of
member banks in the formulation of projects for agriculture and rural development.
i) AFC ii) ACD
iii) SCB iv) NCDC
Q.17 World Bank is officially known as…..
i) Asian Development bank ii) IBRD
iii) CRAFICARD iv) ARDC
Q.18 All India Rural Credit Survey Committee (AIRCSC) under the chairmanship
of
.................was appointed by RBI in 1951.
i) D.R.Gadgil ii) A.D. Gorwala
iii) R.G.Saraiya iv) Sir Edward Maclagan
Q.19 ……………….. committee recommended for limited area of operation for
each society.
i) D.R.Gadgil ii) A.D. Gorwala
iii) R.G.Saraiya iv) Sir Edward Maclagan
Q.20 ………pertains to financing agriculture in aggregate.
i) Micro-finance ii) Macro-finance
iii) Agricultural finance iv) none of these
Q.21 Money lender comes under ----------------- agency.
i) non institutional ii) institutional
iii) government iv) co-operative
Q.22 The word credit came from Latin word ---------------.
i) Credus ii) Credis
iii) Credo iv) none of these
Q.23 In case of open loans the physical possession is with the……….
i) borrower ii) lender
iii) government iv) co-operative credit society
Q.24 GIC first introduced the crop insurance scheme in 1973 in selected centers of
………….State.
i) Maharashtra ii) Andhra Pradesh
iii) Gujarat iv) Punjab
Q.25 All crop loans are said to be ………loans.
i) medium term ii) short term
iii) long term iv) none of these
Q.26 ………loans can be extended for a period varying from 15 months to 5 years.
i) medium term ii) short term
iii) long term iv) none of these
Q.27 Immovable properties are presented for security purpose in………….loan

i) chattel ii) collateral
iii) personal iv) mortgage
Q.28 …………functions at the base level of the co-operative credit structure.
i) PACS ii) DCCB
iii) SCB iv) CLDB
Q.29 ………. were organized in tribal areas for providing all types of credit.
i) FSS ii) PACS
iii) LAMPS iv) LDB”s
Q.30 ………….. was established for giving protection to the depositors in the event
of
bank failure
i) DICGC ii) CCIS
iii) ACD iv) AFC
Q.31 ARDC established in the year ……….
i) 1965 ii) 1982
iii) 1975 iv 1969
Q.32. ……….shoulder the responsibility of promoting integrating rural development
activities
through refinance.
i) SBI ii) RRB
iii) NABARD iv) LDB
Q.33 …………. have successfully maintained their image as a small man’s bank.
i) RBI ii) RRB’s
iii) NABARD iv) LDB
Q.34 National Agricultural Insurance Scheme came into existence in the year…….
i) 1979 ii) 1985
iii) 1999 iv) 1989
Q.35 ………… is used for calculating the risk bearing ability of the farmer..
i) Gross income ii) Net income
iii) Deflated gross income iv) none of these
Q.36 Based on the warehouse receipts the financial institutes advances loans to the
extent of ……..per cent on the value of the produce.
i) 50 ii) 75
iii) 90 iv) 100
Q.37 Single repayment plan is also called as ………… repayment plan.
i) balloon ii) amortized
iii) Reserve iv) straight end
Q.38 Partial repayment plan is also called as ………… repayment plan.

iii) reserve iv) straight end
Q.39 The entire loan amount is to be cleared off after the expiry of loan period
stipulated in ………….. repayment plan
Q.40 The farmer is expected to settle the entire loan in quarterly, half yearly or
annual
installments in ………….. repayment plan
Q.41 The main goal of …………is to reduce poverty through promoting
economic development in the less developed areas of the world.
i) IFC ii) IBRD
iii) IDA iv) MIGA
Q.42 Corporation Bank was nationalized in the year ………
i) 1969 ii) 1980
iii) 1955 iv) 1975
Q.43 …………had first conceived Village Adoption Scheme.
i) RBI ii) RRB
iii) SBI iv) LDB
Q.44 The ‘Study Group’ under the chairmanship of Prof. D.R.Gadgil

recommended ………. for the development of financial structure
through intensive efforts.
i) Area Approach ii) Village Adoption Scheme
iii) Lead Bank Scheme iv) Branch Expansion Scheme
Q.45 SFDA gave ………per cent subsidies to small farmers.
i) 30 ii) 33
iii) 50 iv) 25
Q.46 RBI was established in …………
i) 1955 ii) 1935
iii) 1965 iv) 1944
Q.47 ………..can raise or lower the level of reserves that commercial banks
must maintain.
i) RBI ii) RRB
iii) SBI iv) LDB
Q.48 …….can raise or reduce bank rate.
i) SBI ii) RRB
iii) RBI iv) LDB
Q.49) Under single window system, co-operative marketing is under --------- tier
structure.
i) One ii) Two
iii) Three iv) Four
Q.50 Loans obtained from pawn brokers by pledging movable property are called
--------- loans.
i) Term ii) Production
iii) Chattal iv) All
Q.51 FSS on co-operative lines are recommended by -------------
i) Bawa team ii) NCA
iii) Royal Commission on Agriculture iv) Gadgil committee
Q.52 RRBs share capital is being subscribed by the Central Government, State
Government
and Sponsoring bank in the ratio of -------------
i) 50:15:35 ii) 50:35:15
iii) 50:25:25 iv) 50:40:10
Q. 53 Key and Open loans are together called as ------------ loans.
i) Mortgage ii) Pledge
iii) Production iv) Term
Q.54 Under single window system, production credit disbursement is through -------
tier
structure.
iI) One ii) Two
iii) Three iv) Four
Q.55 In the first spell of Nationalization, numbers of banks nationalized were -------
i) 4 ii) 14
iii) 6 iv) 16
Q.56 Agricultural Finance Corporation was promoted by ------------
i) NABARD ii) RBI
iii) Indian Banks Association iv) State Government
Q.57 Rate of interest charged under DIR scheme is -------------
i) 1 % ii) 4 %
iii) 2 % iv) 6 %
Q.58 LDBs fall under the category of --------------
i) Co-operative Banks ii) Commercial Bank
iii) NBFI iv) ALL
Q.59 Term loans/Investment loans constitute ------ loans.
i) ST loans ii) ST and MT
iii) MT and LT iv) ST and LT
Q.60 Consumptions loans given to the beneficiaries are ----------------
i) Unproductive ii) Directly productive
iii) Indirectly productive iv) None
Q.61 Marketing loans are given to the farmers to the extent ------- per cent of value of
produce.
i) 25 ii) 50
iii) 75 iv) 100
Q.62 Income statement summarizes the --------- and -------- of the farm business
i) assent and Liabilities ii) profit and loss
iii) income and expenditure iv) equity and non equity capital
Q.63 Which of the following is offered as mortgage security for claiming the loan by
the farmer- borrower from the financial institution ?
i) Gold ii) Tractor
iii) Land iv) LIC bonds
Q.64 Which of the following is offered as personal security for claiming the loan by
the farmer-
borrower from the financial institution ?
i) Gold ii) Tractor
iii) Land iv) Promissory note
Q.65 Which of the following is offered as collateral security for claiming the loan by
the farmer-
borrower from the financial institution?
i) Gold ii) Tractor
Q.66 An example for hypothecated open loans is --------
i) Gold ii) Tractor
Q.67 An example for hypothecated key loans is --------
i) Agricultural produce ii) Tractor
iii) Land iv LIC bonds
Q.68 In the second spell of Nationalization, number of banks nationalized are--------
i) 4 ii) 14
iii) 6 iv) 16
Q.69 First spell of nationalization of commercial banks took place on -----------
i) 19th July,1969 ii) 19th July,1980
iii) 15th July,1969 iv) 15th July,1980
Q.70 Second first spell of nationalization of commercial banks took place on ---------
i) 19th July,1969 ii) 19th July,1980
iii) 15th July,1969 iv) 15th July,1980
Q.71 AIRCRC was headed by ------------
i) B. Venkatappiah ii) V.L.Mehra
iii) A.D. Gorwala iv) None
Q.72 Single Window System of co-operative credit in Andhra Pradesh was

recommended by---
i) Raiffeisen ii) N.Chandra Babu Naidu
iii) Mohan Kanda iv) None of these
Q.73 Which of the following co-operative credit institution functions at district level
in Andhra
Pradesh for disbursing marketing credit?
i) DISCOBARD ii) APCOBARD
iii) PACS iv) MARKFED
Q.74 Which of the following co-operative credit institution functions at apex level in
Andhra
Pradesh for disbursing production credit?
iii) PACS iv) MARKFED
Q.75 Which of the following co-operative credit institution functions at grass root
level in
Andhra Pradesh for disbursing production credit?
iii) SCB iv) PACS
Q.76 The repayment period for ST/ crop loans/ SAO loans is ---- months.
i)12 ii) 6- 18
iii) 24 iv) 12- 24
Q.77 Which of the following co-operative credit institution functioning at apex level
in India for
disbursing LT loans?
i) PLDB ii) APCOBARD
iii) PACS iv) CLDB
Q.78 Which of the following co-operative credit institution functions at grass root
level in India
for disbursing LT loans?
i) PLDB ii) APCOBARD
iii) PACS iv) CLDB
Q.79 Net worth statement is also called as ------------
i) Income statement ii) Profit and loss statement
iii) Cash flow statement iv) Balance sheet
Q.80 In --- repayment plan, facility is given to the farmer borrower to pay advanced
installments
at the times of good harvest and no payment at times of poor harvest.
i) Amortized decreasing repayment plan iiI) Amortized even
repayment plan
iii) Reserve repayment plan iv) Variable repayment
plan.
Q.81 In India, First LMB was established in ---------- state
i) Gujarat ii) Andhra Pradesh
iii) Punjab iv) Orissa
Q.82 The name LMB was changed to LDB in the year -------
i) 1964 ii) 1974
iii) 1984 iv)1978
Q.83 RRB mainly came into existence to meet the credit needs of -----------
i) Weaker sections ii) Large farmers
iii) Small farmers iv) All the above
Q.84 RRB came into existence in the year --------
i) 1971 ii) 1975
iii) 1980 iv) 1972
Q.85 In ------- repayment plan, principal amount is paid in lumpsum in the last year
and interest
is paid regularly.
i) Amortized decreasing repayment plan ii) Straight-end
repayment plan
iii) Amortized even repayment plan iv) Variable repayment
plan
Q.86 The jurisdiction of RRB is ---------
i) 1 or 2 districts ii) 1 or 2 villages
iii) 1 or 2 mandals iv) None of these
Q.87 The authorized share capital of RRB is Rs. --------- crores.
i) One ii) Two
iii) Five iv) Ten
Q.88 ------ is the rate at which the RBI borrows from the banks.
i) Bank rate ii) Reverse repo rate
iii) Repo rate iv) CRR
Q.89 FSS came into existence in the year ----------

i) 1971 ii) 1975
iii) 1980 iv) 1972
Q.90 FSS is sponsored by ----------
i) NABARD ii) RBI
iii) Scheduled commercial bank iv) Lead bank
Q.91 LAMPS came into existence in the Year ----------
i) 1971 ii) 1975
iii) 1980 iv) 1972
Q.92 LAMPS came into existence to meet the credit needs of ------------
i) Weaker sections ii) Large farmers
iii) Medium farmers iv) Tribal farmers
Q.93 LAMPS came into existence based on the recommendations of --------- team.
i) B.Siva Raman ii) Bawa
iii) NCA iv) M.Narasimham
Q.94 Repayment of loans in a series of installments is called----------
i) Liquidity ii) Amortization
iii) Leverage iv) Hypothecation
Q.95 DIR scheme came into existence in the year ---------
i) 1980 ii) 1975
iii) 1970 iv) 1965
Q.96 Which of the following is quoted as ‘Double- edged knife’?
i) Credit ii) Interest
iii) Cost of Credit iv) All of these
Q.97 Which of the following is directly related to repayment capacity of the farmer
borrower?
i) Gross returns ii) Farm working expenses
iii) Family expenses iv) All of these
Q.98 Which of the following improves the repayment capacity of the farmer
borrowers?
i) Improving net worth of farm business ii) Crop
diversification
iii) Adopting modern technology in farm business iv) All the above
Q.99 The adjustment of gross income of farm- business to its coefficient of variation
in the
project area is called -----
i) Risk bearing ability ii) Deflation
iii) Inflation iv) Stagflation
Q.100 While estimating the --------- of the farmer borrower gross returns is deflated
i) Repayment capacity ii) Risk bearing ability
iii) Returns iv) Rate of return
************
B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
___
Course No : ECON:243 Semester : IV
Credits : 2= 1+1 Course Title : Agricultural Finance and Co-
operation
Answers keys
1 i 26 i 51 Ii 76 ii
2 i 27 iv 52 I 77 iv
3 iii 28 i 53 Ii 78 i
4 ii 29 iii 54 iii 79 iv
5 i 30 i 55 ii 80 iii
6 iv 31 i 56 iii 81 iii
7 ii 32 iii 57 ii 82 ii
8 i 33 ii 58 i 83 iii
9 iv 34 iii 59 iii 84 ii
11 ii 36 ii 61 iii 86 i
12 iii 37 iv 62 iii 87 i
13 ii 38 i 63 iii 88 iii
14 i 39 iv 64 iv 89 i
15 iv 40 i 65 iv 90 iv
16 i 41 iii 66 ii 91 i
17 ii 42 ii 67 i 92 iv
19 iv 44 i 69 i 94 ii
20 ii 45 iv 70 iv 95 ii
21 i 46 ii 71 i 96 i
22 iii 47 i 72 iii 97 i
23 i 48 iii 73 i 98 iv
24 Iii 49 ii 74 ii 99 ii
25 Ii 50 iii 75 iv 100 ii
COLLEGE OF HORTICULTURE, PUNE-5

B.Sc. (Agri.)
________________________________________
Course No : ECON-354 Semester : V
Credits : 2=1+1 Title : Agricultural Marketing, Trade and Prices
_____________________________________________________________________
_______
Q.1 Any single activity performed in carrying a product from point of its production
to the
ultimate consumer is termed as ………….
i) market integration ii) marketing function
iii) market structure iv) market functionaries
Q.2 Storage adds …….utility to the goods.
i) place ii) time
iii) form iv) none of these
Q.3 Central AGMARK Laboratory is located at …….
i) Delhi ii) Mumbai
iii) Nagpur iv) Chennai
Q.4 Entrepot trade becomes possible in …………warehouses.
i) private ii) public
iii) bonded iv) special commodity
Q.5 ……..is the purchase or sale of a commodity at the present price with the
object of sale or purchase at some future date at a favourable price.
i) Speculation ii) Hedging
iii) Marketing iv) Spot transaction
Q.6 Different lots of commodity are mixed together and sold as one lot in……..
method of sale.
i) Dara ii) Private negotiations
iii) Moghum iv) Close tender system
Q.7 ..…….is the residual left with the producer farmer after meeting his all
requirements.
i) Marketed surplus ii) Marketable surplus
iii) Producer’s surplus iv) Consumer’s surplus
Q.8 ………….is the price fixed by Govt. to protect the producer farmer against
excessive fall in price during bumper production years.
i) Fair price ii) Minimum Support price
iii) Levi price iv) Reserve price
Q.9 Food Corporation of India was started in ………..
i) 1965 ii) 1968
iii) 1975 iv) 1982
Q.10 Head office of the NAFED is located at ……..
i) Delhi ii) Kolkatta
iii) Mumbai iv) Chennai
Q.11 ………is an international body to supervise and encourage international trade
after 1995.
i) APEDA ii) WTO
iii) GATT iv) NAFED
Q.12 ……………traders moves from village to village and purchase agril.
produce directly from cultivators.
i) Itinerant traders ii) Merchant middlemen
iii) Village traders iv) Agent middlemen
Q.13 A market in which commodities are bought and sold to the consumers as per
their requirements is called as ………..market.
i) Terminal ii) Seaboard
iii) Wholesale iv) retail
Q.14 ………co-operative marketing societies deals in marketing a large number of
commodities produced by members, such as foodgrains, oilseeds and cotton.
i) single commodity ii) multi-commodity
iii) multi-purpose, multi-commodity iv) none of these
Q.15 ……….has defined marketing as a human activity directed at satisfying the
needs
and wants through exchange process.
i) Philip Kolter ii) American Marketing Association
iii) Thomson iv) Acharya
Q.16 The subject of agricultural marketing includes product marketing as well

as………….
i) labour marketing ii) output marketing
iii) input marketing iv) none of these
Q.17 The word market comes from the latin word …………..
i) marcatus ii) marcantus
iii) marcato iv) none of these
Q.18 …………..markets are located in towns near the centers of production of
agricultural commodities.
i) Terminal ii) Primary
iii) Secondary wholesale iv) Regional
Q.19 The difference between the price paid by consumer and price received by the
producer is known as ………..
i) marketing cost ii) marketing margin
iii) price spread iv) none of these
Q.20 ………… markets which are located near the seashore and are meant mainly
for
export or import.
i) Terminal ii) Regional
iii) National iv) Seaboard
Q.21 ………..are the markets of a permanent nature.
i) Secular ii) Long period
iii) Short period iv) Periodic
Q.22 …………..market is one in which commodities are bought and sold in large
lots or
in bulk.
i) Wholesale ii) Retail
iii) Forward iv) Spot
Q.23 ………. integration occurs when a firm performs more than one activity in the
sequence of the marketing process.
i) Horizontal ii) Vertical
iii) Conglomeration iv) None of these
Q.24 A market in which goods are exchanged for money immediately after the sale
is
called …………..market.
i) wholesale ii) retail
iii) forward iv) spot
Q.25 …………. is a market situation in which there is only one seller of a
commodity
i) monopoly ii) oligopoly
iii) duopoly iv) monopsony
Q26 The markets which collect the produce for final disposal to the consuming
population are called ……….. markets.
i) Consumer ii) Producer
iii) Commodity iv) Capital
Q.27 If the products are ………., the price variations in the market will not be
wide.
i) heterogeneous ii) homogenous
iii) both A and B iv) non of these
Q.28 ..…… determines the market conduct and performance.
i) Market structure iii) Marketing efficiency
iii) Marketing functions iv) Marketing functionaries
Q.29 ……….. is the ratio of market output to marketing input.
i) Market structure iii) Market integration
iii) Marketing efficiency iv) Marketing margin
Q.30 ………. classified the marketing functions as primary, secondary and tertiary
functions.
i) Thomson ii) Huegi and Mitchell
iii) Kohls and Uhl iv) Acharya
Q.31 ……… is the first function performed in the marketing of agricultural
communities.
i ) Assembling ii) Grading
iii) Transportation iv) Packaging
Q.32 Particularly at the wholesale level, the foodgrains and oilseeds, are generally
packed in ……..
i) gunny bags ii) plastic trays
iii) bambo baskets iv) corrugated fiber boxes
Q.33 When whole of the population is covered under rationing of commodities it is

called …..
i) Statutory rationing ii) Modified rationing
iii) Both i and ii iv) None of these
Q.34 The transportation cost accounts for about ….. per cent of the total cost of
marketing.
i) 25 ii) 35
iii) 50 iv) 60
Q.35 ……. is a marketing function which facilitates the movement of produce.
i) Transportation ii) Packing
iii) Grading and standardization iv) Storage
Q.36 ……. is the sorting of the unlike lots of the produce into different lots
according to the
quality specifications laid down.
i) Grading ii) Standardization
iii) Packing iv) None of these
Q.37 …….. is a quality certification mark under the Central Agricultural
Produce(Grading
and Marking) Act,1937
i) Grading ii) AGMARK
iii) Labeling iv) None of these
Q.38 The grading and marking of goods for domestic consumption was first started
in ………
i) potato ii) rice
iii) vegetable oils iv) ghee
Q.39 International Organization for Standardization (ISO) came into existence
formally in ……
i) 1947 ii) 1963
iii) 1972 iv) 1982
Q.40 .…….. is a storage structure designed by the Indian Agricultural Research
Institute (IARI),
New Delhi.
i) PAU bin ii) Pusa bin
iiii) Hapur Tekka iv) CAP Storage
Q.41 ………..warehouses are used for storage of most of foodgrains and fertilizers.
i) special commodity ii) general
iii) refrigerated iv) none of these
Q.42 The first state warehouse was set up in ……...

i) Maharashtra ii) Gujarat
iii) Bihar iv) Punjab
Q.43 …….converts the raw material and brings the product nearer to human
consumption.
i) grading ii) storage
iii) processing iv) packing
Q.44 The objective of ……… is to dispose off the goods at a satisfactory price.
i) selling ii) buying
iii) transportation iv) assembling
Q.45 In most regulated markets, the sale of the produce is permissible only by
the…… method.
i) moghum sale ii) open auction
iii) private negotiations iv) dara sale
Q.46 ………. is the life blood of a market.
i) Market information ii) Market middlemen
iii) Market efficiency iv) Market structure
Q.47 ……… is the lubricant that facilitates the marketing machine.
i) labour ii) credit
iii) income iv) profit
Q.48 The first cold storage was established in India in 1892 at ………
i) Delhi ii) Hyderabad
iii) Kolkata iv) Ahmedabad
Q.49 ……..refers to current information about prices, arrivals and changes in the
market
conditions.
i) Market Intelligence ii) Market News
iii) Market structure iv) none of these
Q.50 .……..is the supreme authority of WTO and to take decisions on all matters
falling
within the purview of an agreement.
i) General Council ii) Ministerial Conference
iii) Director General iv) none of these
Q.51 In regulated markets --------- are regulated.

i) Prices ii) Farmers behaviour
iii) Traders behaviour iv) Marketing practices
Q.52 Price determining forces are ……. and ………
i) Marginal cost and marginal returns ii) Demand and Supply
iii) Marginal cost and opportunity cost iv) All of these
Q.53 The local market is also called ……….
i) Regulated market ii) Primary wholesale market
iii) Sea board market iv) Village market
Q.54 Which of the following marketing intermediary is more common in regulated
market
i) Farmer ii) Commission agent
iii) Retailer iv) Broker
Q.55 To get large orders Indian exporters try hard to cut there own cost by ………
i) Reducing cost of material ii) Cutting a labour cost
iii) Reducing electricity cost iv) Reducing advertising and
marketing cost
Q.56 In ------market future sale and purchase of commodities will take place at
current time
i) Forward ii) International
iii) Perfect iv) Spot
Q.57 ……….. is the economic term used to describe product sales to a foreign
country
i) Import ii) Currency
iii) Export iv) Tariff
Q.58 Marketed surplus of the produce include …………
i) Traded produce only ii) Stock produce only
iii) Tradable produce iv) None of these
Q.59 The sorting of goods according size quality and other contents on the basis of
standards
prescribed year after year is termed as ………..
i) Variable grading ii) Invariable grading
iii) Fixed grading iv) None of these
Q.60 Which of the following is the leader in the field of co-operative marketing
within the
country as well as in the export market
i) NCDC ii) NAFED
iii) AGMARK iv) FCI
Q.61 Support prices of agricultural commodities are recommended by ……….
i) Government ii) ICAR
iii) SAU iv) CACP
Q.62 The Indian institute of packaging is established in ……
i) 1962 ii) 1963
iii) 1964 iv) 1966
Q.63 The administered price below which it is illegal to purchase agricultural
commodities by
buyers from the producers is …………….
i) Parity price ii) MSP
iii) Reserve price iv) Statutory MSP
Q.64 If marketed surplus is grater than marketable surplus then the situation is known
as…….
i) Open auction sale ii) Dara sale
iii) Distress Sale iv) Market equilibrium
Q.65 The tax on import and export is known as ----
i) Income tax ii) Trade tax
iii) Custom duty iv) None of the above
Q.66 Price of the commodity influences marketable surplus…….
i) Directly ii) Inversely
iii) Both i and ii iv) None of these
Q.67 Export –Import Bank was established on 1st January…….
i) 1980 ii)1982
iii) 1981 iv) 1983
Q.68 The market in which permanent and durable goods are traded is ………
i) long period market ii) short period market
iii) Secular market iv) all the above
Q.69 The government established TRIFED in …………

i) 1985 ii)1987
iii) 1990 iv) 2000
Q.70 Warehousing corporation was established to ……..
i) Undertake scientific storage ii) Construct
warehouses
iii) Subscribe share capital of SWC iv) All the above
Q.71 In the future market ‘Bear ‘ is one who believes……….
i) Prices are headed higher ii) Prices are headed lower
iii) Prices will stabilize iv) Prices will decline after an
upward swing
Q.72 The market which deals with a particular commodity are called…………
i) Wholesale market ii) Retail market
iii) Specialized market iv) Regulated market
Q.73 Traders are the main participants in these markets……..
i) Local markets ii) Primary markets
iii) Secondary wholesale markets iv) None of these
Q.74 Markets are classified into wholesale and retail markets based on ……..
i) Nature of transaction ii) Time
iii) Competition iv) Volume of transaction
Q.75 Market finance is the finance given to the farmer at the time of ……….
i) Harvesting ii) Processing
iii) Grading iv) Storage
Q.76 The price below which the farmer would find it uneconomical to sale the
produce is …..
i) Wholesale price ii) MSP
iii) Issue price iv) Floor price
Q.77 The largest food grain procurement agency at national level is …………
i) FCI ii) NAFED
iii) NABARD iv) Warehousing corporation
Q.78 In market finance -------------per cent of value of produce is given as loan
amount to the
beneficiary.
i) 25 ii) 60
iii) 75 iv) 85
Q.79 Which of the middlemen take the title of goods in the market
i)Merchant middlemen ii) Agent middlemen
iii) Facilitative middlemen iv) All the above
Q.80 The main objective of establishing the Rythu bazaar in India is to ……..
i) avoid storage of produce ii) reduce processing cost to the
farmers
iii) reduce transportation cost to the farmers
iv) increase producers share in consumer rupee.
Q.81 NDDB located at…….
i) Anand ii) Chennai
iii) Ahmednagar iv) Shaharnpur
Q.82 Market as a public place is defined by…….
i) Cournot ii) Jevons
iii) Chapman iv) Chamberlin.
Q.83 Indian society of agricultural marketing is located at ………..
i) New Delhi ii) Faridabad
iii) Nagpur iv) Vishkhapattanm
Q.84 The codex Alimenterious in Latin means…………
i) Grading standards ii) Food law /Food code
iii) Sanitary standards iv) None of these
Q.85 Which of the following is considered as protector of national wealth
i) Processing unit ii)Transportation
iii) Warehousing iv) Market information
Q.86 In cold storage the temperature range is between
i) -1o C to 10o C ii) -1o C to 1o C
iii) -11o C to 20o C iv) -0.1o C to 1.1 o C
Q.87 For which of the following crop, MSP is given statutory status.
i) Paddy ii) Cotton
iii) Sunflower iv) Sugarcane
Q.88 The first cold storage structure was established in India in 1892 at ………
i) Hyderabad ii) Delhi
iii) Kolkata iv) Chennai
Q.89 Value addition by processing function in India is to the tune of --------per cent.
i) 2 ii) 4
iii) 7 iv) 21
Q.90 Which of the following is the self interest of the farmer in the marketing process
i) Low purchase price, high quality ii) High purchase price,
high quality
iii) Maximum price, unlimited quantities iv) High purchase price, low
quality
Q.91 Which of the following is not the sub function of buying
i) Planning the purchase of goods ii) Contractual function
iii) Demand creation iv) Final transfer of goods
Q.92 Agricultural marketing is an area for the -----------of green revolution problems
i) first generation ii) Third generation
iii) Second generation iv) None of these
Q.93 The market information pertaining to market arrivals, prices and demand for
the
commodities in the past period refers to ……..
i) Market news ii) Market intelligence
iii) Communication iv) Market extension
Q.94 If the speculator make profits in the business through creating artificial scarcity
of
commodities it is called……..
i) Speculation proper ii) Hedging
iii) Forward trading iv) Illegitimate speculation
Q.95 ------------- is a trading technique of transferring price risk
Q.96 In which of the following purchase and sale of commodities are always in
opposite
direction.
Q.97 The main objective of speculation trade is……
i) Maximization of profits ii) Minimization of price
risk
iii) Reduction in transaction cost iv) None of these
Q.98 The main objective of hedging is…………..

i) Maximization of profits ii) Minimization of price
risk
iii) Reduction in transaction cost iv) None of these
Q.99 The forward markets review committee was set up by the government under the
chairmanship of ………
i) Prof.V.M.Dandekar ii) M.L.Dantwala
iii) B.K.Hazare iv)) L.K.Jha
Q.100 Which of the following acts as facilitative middlemen in a regulated market.
i) Broker ii) Hamal
iii) Speculatative middlemen iv) Commission agent
$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$$

B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
___Course No : ECON:354 Semester : V
Credits : 2= 1+1 Course Title : Agricultural Marketing, Trade and
Prices
Answers keys
1 ii 26 i 51 iv 76 iv
2 ii 27 ii 52 ii 77 i
3 iii 28 i 53 iv 78 iii
4 iii 29 iii 54 ii 79 i
5 i 30 i 55 ii 80 iv
6 i 31 iv 56 i 81 i
7 ii 32 i 57 iii 82 ii
8 ii 33 i 58 i 83 iii
9 i 34 iii 59 i 84 ii
10 i 35 iii 60 ii 85 iii
11 ii 36 i 61 iv 86 i
12 i 37 ii 62 iv 87 iv
13 iv 38 iv 63 iv 88 iii
14 ii 39 i 64 iii 89 iii
15 i 40 ii 65 iii 90 iii
17 i 42 iii 67 ii 92 iii
19 iii 44 i 69 ii 94 iv
20 iv 45 ii 70 iv 95 ii
21 i 46 i 71 ii 96 ii
22 i 47 ii 72 iii 97 i
24 iv 49 ii 74 iv 99 ii
25 i 50 ii 75 iv 100 ii

B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
_________
Course No: ECON: 365 Semester : VI
Credits : 2= 1+1 Course Title : Agri Business Management

1. Globalization means
i) Domestic sector liberalization ii) Free Trade
iii) Privatization iv) External Sector
Liberalization
2. Appraisal of project is done to access ------------------ of investment
i) Technical feasibility ii) Economic viability
iii) Speedy implementation of project iv) Gestation period of project
3. In project cycle appraisal succeeds
i) Conception /identification ii) Implementation
iii) Formulation iv) None
4. NPV criteria says that any project is worthy of selection if
i) PWB <PWC ii) PWB=PWC
iii) PWB>PWC iv) PWB>IRR
5. It is widely used as measure of social benefit in project analysis
i) IRR ii) BCR
iii) NPW iv) Pay back period
6. In general the level of benefits from the agricultural project always
i) Constant ii)Decreases
iii) Increases iv) Vary
7. Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal
i) BCR ii) PBP
iii) IRR iv) NPW
8. Which of the following measure the rate of return on investment from he date
investment in project
i) BCR ii)PBP
iii) IRR iv) NPW
9. Agriculture projects are ---------- in their scope compare to programmes
i) Macro ii)Micro
iii) Both a & b iv) None
10. Which of the following is not a component of project cycle

i) Conception ii) Evaluation
iii) Preparation iv) Maturity
11. Which of the following is an intangible benefit due to the project
i) Increase in yield ii) Increase in income
iii) Increase in milk yield iv) Increased managerial ability of
beneficiary
12. Evaluation of project is generally done based on
i) Proposed cost and proposed returns ii) Actual cost and actual
returns
iii) Proposed cost and actual returns iv) Actual cost and proposed
returns
13. Technological externalities like pollution, problem of health hazards due to
emission from the
project constitutes
i) Direct cost ii) Project cost
iii) Added cost iv) Social cost
14. Which of the following evaluation method is more desirable
i) Ex-ante ii) Ex-post
iii) Mid-course iv) Concurrent
15. Which of the following is not the feature of the project?
i) Specific objective ii) Specific location
iii) Specific rate of return iv) Leaving entity
16. In which of the following measures time value of money is not taken into
consideration
i) PBP ii) N/K
iii) IRR iv) NPV
17. Which of the following is not a relative measure for comparing across the
project?
i) PBP ii) N/K
iii) IRR iv) NPV
18. If BCR of a project is 1.13 then NBCR is
i) 0.13 ii) 2.13
iii) 0 .26 iv) 1/1.13
19. Which of the following discount measure is often compared with social
discount rate?
i ) PBP ii)N/K
iii) IRR iv) NPV
20. IRR is the discount factor at which NPW is
i) Maximum ii ) Minimum
iii) Zero iv) One
21. In which stage of project life cycle product strategy focuses on process
modification?
i) Introduction ii) Growth
iii) Maturity iv) Decline
22. When IRR greater than opportunity cost of capital, it is
i) Better to invest in the project ii) Not to invest in the project
23. When IRR is less than opportunity cost of capital, it is
i) Better to invest in the project ii) Not to invest in the project
24. When IRR is equal to opportunity cost of capital, it is
i) Better to invest in the project ii)Not to invest in the project
25. In undiscounted measures project are appraised based on
i) Discounted cost and returns ii)Absolute cost and returns
iii) Proposed cost and actual return iv) Actual cost and proposed returns
26. In which of the following measures, project is made break even through
increasing the discount factor
i) Switching value percentage ii) BCR
iii) IRR iv) NPW
27. The ratio of the sum of present worth of positive net incremental benefits to
sum of present worth of negative net incremental benefits
i) N/K ii) BCR
iii) IRR iv) NPW
28. In which stage of the product life cycle, product strategy focus on forecasting
capacity requirements
i) Growth ii)Introduction
iii) Maturity iv) Decline
29. Which of the following is an hypothetical /artificial price
i) Shadow price ii) Equilibrium price
iii) Market price iv) MSP
30. Which of the following is considered as shadow wage rate of skilled labour
i) Government sector wage rate ii) Private sector wage rate
iii) Both i and ii iv) None
31. ------ is the last phase of project cycle

i) Monitoring ii) Evaluation
iii) Conception iv) Appraisal
32. The expansion of FRA is
i) Foreign ratio agreement ii) Foreign rate agreement
iii) Forward rate agreement iv) Forward ration agreement
33. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of the project life
cycle
i) Conception – Appraisal –Formulation –Implementation –Monitoring –
Evaluation
ii) Conception -Formulation -Appraisal–Implementation-Mnitoring -
Evaluation
iii) Conception - Formulation – Implementation – Appraisal – Monitoring -
Evaluation
iv) Conception - Formulation - Implementation - Monitoring - Appraisal -
Evaluation
34. The period required from the investment to generate returns for viability of the
projects is
i) Gestation period ii) Accounting period
iii) Returns period v) Investment period
35. Sensitivity analysis of project is done taking in to consideration changes in
i) Actual cash outflow and cash inflow ii) proposed cost and proposed
returns
iii) Added cost and added returns iv) average cost and average
returns
36. If NPW is higher, switching value is
i) Lower ii) Higher
iii) No relation iv) Zero
37. ---------- is the ability to secure desirable action from group of followers
voluntarily, without use of coercion.
i) Leadership ii) Controlling
iii) Authority iv) Organizing
38. ---------- is the process by which a manager assures that resources are obtained
and used
effectively and efficiently in the accomplishment of an organization’s objective.
i) Leadership ii) Controlling
39. Appraisal of the project is done to assess ------- of investment
i) Technical feasibility ii) Economical feasibility
iii) Speedy implementation of project iv) Gestation period of project
40. ……… is the process in which directives are transmitted to the subordinates
which will
reflect in to their response and orders are issued to eliminate confusion
i) Ordering ii) Controlling
41 …………is the ability of a superior to influence the behaviour of his
subordinates and persuade
there to follow a particular course of action.
i) Organizing ii) Controlling
iii) Authority iv) Leadership
42 -------- is the process of stimulating of an individual to take action in order to
achieve the desired goals.
i) Organizing ii) Authority
iii) Leadership iv) Motivation
43. ……….is the highest level of need in the maslow’s need hierarchy theory of
motivation
i) Survival ii) Safety
iii) Self actualization iv) Belongingness
44. -------- is a process of defining and grouping the activities of the enterprises and
establishing authority relationship among them
i) Controlling ii) Organization
iii) Planning iv) Motivation
45. …..is the oldest and most widespread legal structure of organization
i) Partnership ii) Corporation
iii) Joint stock company iv) Sole proprietorship
46. ……is the formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions, issue
orders and allocate resources to achieve organizationally desired outcomes.
i) Authority ii) Responsibility
iii) Accountability iv) Ordering
47. NABARD is established in the year ------
i) 1965 ii) 1982
iii) 1935 iv) 1980
48. Regional Rural Bank is established in the year ------
i) 1982 ii) 1965
iii) 1975 iv) 1955
49. The first RRB in the country was sponsored by ------
i) Syndicate Bank ii) Bank of Maharashtra
iii) Punjab bank iv) Bank of India
50. ……….need take priority over other needs in the maslow’s need hierarchy
theory of motivation
i) Survival ii) Safety
iii) Self actualization iv) Belongingness
51. The Agribusiness System consists of which of following sectors :

i) Production and Input sector ii) Marketing sector
iii) Agro processing sector iv) All the above
52. Planning must be --------- since it is to deal with uncertain probabilistic future
i) Rigid ii) Flexible
iii) Cost effective iv) None
53. At the lower levels, plans are……. in nature, of immediate action, are usually
unwritten and tend toward simplicity.
i) Complex ii) Specific
iii) Broad iv) Long range
54. At the --------- level, plans have a tendency towards flexibility, are longer
range, are usually
written, are more complex, and are broader in nature
i) Top ii) Middle
iii) Lower iv) all the above
55. …….is a legal structure, voluntary association of two or more persons to carry
on, as co-owner of a business for profit.
i) Partnership ii) Corporation
iii) Joint stock company iv) Sole proprietorship
56. Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal?
i) BCR ii) PBP
iii) IRR iv) NPW
57. Which phase of the product life cycle is considered to be most critical?
i) Maturity ii) Decline
iii) Introduction iv) Ascendancy
58. The concept of Agribusiness was born in Harvard University in the year
i) 1947 ii) 1957
iii) 1967 iv) 2006
59. Assigning duties and responsibilities is a function of
iii) Controlling iv) Organizing
60. When a new product is introduced into the market, the margin of safety should
be
i) Low ii) High
iii) Zero iv) Infinity
61. The Acid test ratio falls under.
i) Solvency ratios ii) Profitability ratios
iii) Liquidity ratios iv) Operational efficiency ratios
62. Classifying customers into different groups based on various criteria like age,
income, size of holding, adoption behaviour etc. refers to
i) Target marketing ii) Market positioning
iii) Market segmentation iv) Market penetration
63. In which of the following stage of product life cycle, there is rapid market
acceptance for the product?
i) Growth ii) Introduction
iii) Maturity iv) Declining

64. The structure of Agribusiness is generally -----
i) Horizontal ii) Conglomerate
iii) Vertical iv) None
65. …… ratio indicates the capacity of the farmer to meet immediate financial
obligations.
i) Current ratio ii) Intermediate ratio
iii) Turn over ratio iv) All the above
66. …….. ratio highlights the productivity gained by the farmer in relation to the
assets he has.
i) Equity value ii) Intermediate
iii) Turn over iv) All the above.
67. In project cycle, appraisal succeeds
i) Conception ii) Implementation
iii) Formulation iv) Product concept

68. Appraisal of project is generally done based on
i) Proposed costs and proposed returns
ii) Proposed costs and proposed returns
iii) Proposed costs and proposed returns
iv) Proposed costs and proposed returns
69. …..is the ratio of net present values of cash flows to the initial capital
expenditure.
i ) N/K ii) BCR
iii) Profitability index iv) NPW

70. If NPW is higher, IRR is ------ to make the project break even
i) Higher ii) Lower
iii) Negative iv) None
71. The planning process meant for solving recurring problems is

iii) Practice iv) Motivation
72. Equity to total assets ratio falls under
i) Solvency ratio ii) Debt ratio
iii) Liquidity ratio iv) Operational efficiency ratio
73. Return on asset ratio falls under
i) Solvency ratio ii) Profitability ratio
74. The method of pricing in which product is offered at low price in order to
increase sales and wider acceptance quickly is -------- pricing
i) Mark up ii) Penetrating
iii) Skimming iv) Loss leader
75. The method of pricing in which product is introduced into the market at high
price is ---- pricing
76. In ------ pricing, one of the products is sold at a reduced price when products
are purchased in combination.
iii) Discount iv) Loss leader
77. In ------ pricing method, the firm announces odd ending price to product,
which is emotionally satisfying the consumer
i) Value pricing ii) Psychological
78. …. is the obligation to see a task through completion
i) Responsibility ii) Accountability
iii) Authority iv) None
79. Which of the following measures the rate of return on investment from the
date of investment in the project?
i) BCR ii) PBP
iii) IRR iv) NPW
80. The area below the break even point represents uncovered
i) Variable costs ii) Fixed costs

iii) Total costs iv) opportunity cost
81. Current ratio falls under
82. Turn over ratio falls under

83. Which of the following committee recommended regarding establishment of
NABARD
i) AIRCSC ii) RBEC
iii) CRAFICARD iv) AIRCRC
84. Adjusting the discounted measures in accordance with the variations in project
costs and output
prices is called
i) IRR ii) NPW

iii) Sensitivity analysis iv) Switching value percent
85. The RRBs share capital is being subscribed by the Central Government, State
Government and Sponsoring Bank in the ratio of
i) 50:15:35 ii) 50:345:15

iii) 50:25:25 iv) 50:40:10
86. In …. pricing method, a standard profit margin is fixed as percentage on unit
cost of production i)
Value pricing ii) Mark up
iii) Skimming iv) Perceived value
87. Return on equity ratio falls under
i) Solvency ratio ii) Profitability ratio

88. If the assets are more than liabilities difference is called as
i) Net worth ii) Net deficit
iii) NPW iv) None

89. ……….was the chairman of CRAFICARD committee for recommending
establishment of
NABARD
i) A.D. Gorwala ii) V.L. Meheta
iii) B. Sivaraman iv) A.M. Khusro
90. An established course of action is called
i) Policy ii) procedure
iii) Practice iv) motivation
91. Orders are ------ in an organization
i) Unidirectional ii) Bidirectional
iii) Multidirectional iv) None
92. Most liquid assets among the following is ….. .

i) Gold ii) Share
iii) Cash iv) Land
93. Industry and agriculture are closely
i) Inter-related ii) Intra –related
iii) Extra –related iv) Not-related
94. Agri- business is -----oriented
i) Personal ii) Subsistence
iii) Market iv) none
95. The structure of agribusiness is generally -----
i) Horizontal ii) Vertical
iii) Conglomerate iv) None
96. Marketing mix of a business firm is represented by
i) 4 Ps ii) 5Ps
iii) 6Ps iv) 7Ps
97. Agro-based industries are mainly established in rural because
i) Availability of raw material ii) Availability of labour
iii) Absence of pollution in environment iv) Low tariff on electricity
98. At break even point in a business
i) FC = VC ii) TC = TR
iii) MC = MR iv) MC = MVP
99. The task of any business is to deliver ---- at a profit.
i) Customer needs ii) products
iii) Customer value iv) Products and services
100. The difference between visible export and visible import is defined as
----.
i) Balance of trade ii) Balance of payment
iii) Balanced terms of trade iv) coins from trade
*****************
B.Sc. (Agri.)
_____________________________________________________________________
___
Course No: ECON: 365 Semester : VI
Credits : 2= 1+1 Course Title : Agri Business Management
Answers keys
1 iv 26 iii 51 iv 76 iv
2 ii 27 i 52 ii 77 ii
3 iii 28 i 53 ii 78 i
4 iii 29 i 54 i 79 iii
5 ii 30 ii 55 i 80 iii
6 iii 31 ii 56 ii 81 iii
7 ii 32 iii 57 iii 82 iv
8 iii 33 ii 58 ii 83 iii
9 ii 34 i 59 i 84 iii
10 iv 35 i 60 ii 85 i
11 iv 36 ii 61 iii 86 ii
12 ii 37 i 62 iii 87 ii
13 iv 38 ii 63 i 88 i
14 iv 39 ii 64 iii 89 iii
15 iii 40 i 65 i 90 iii
16 i 41 iv 66 i 91 i
17 i 42 iv 67 iii 92 iii
18 i 43 iii 68 i 93 i
20 iii 45 iv 70 i 95 ii
21 iii 46 i 71 i 96 iv
22 i 47 ii 72 ii 97 i
23 ii 48 iii 73 iv 98 ii
24 iii 49 i 74 ii 99 iv
25 ii 50 i 75 iii 100 i
1) Father of Modern Economics is

a) J. M. Keynes b) Alfred Marshall
c) Lionel Robbins d) Adam Smith
2) Economics is "An enquiry into the nature and causes of the wealth of
nations" defined by…
a) J. M. Keynes b) Alfred Marshall
c) J. B. Say d) Adam Smith
3) The definition of Economics given by Alfred Marshall emphasized only

a) Material welfare b) Non- material welfare
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
4) According to Lionel Robbins, Economics is….
a) Science only b) Arts only
c) Both Science and Art d) None

5) Economics is primarily a study of -
a) Wealth b) Welfare
c) Man d) Money
6) The creation of utility by the way of marketing is called as-
a) Production b) Distribution
c) Consumption d) Exchange
7) Micro Economics is otherwise called as-
a) Income theory b) Employment theory
c) Price theory d) Demand theory
8) Macro Economics is otherwise called as-
a) Income and Employment b) Price theory
c) Demand theory d) All the above
9) The term 'Macro Economics' was first coined by
a) Keynes b) Ragnar Frisch
c) Alfred Marshall d) Lionel Robbins
10) An Economics first collect few indispensable facts about human nature general
principle
and draw inferences about an individual. The method used for such investigation is
called-
a) Deductive method b) Inductive method
c) Econometric method d) Quantitative method

11) Which of the following, falls under Deductive method of economics investigation?
a) LDMU b) Engle's law
c) Malthusian theory of population d) None
12) Which of the following, falls under Deductive method of economics investigation?
a) Consumer's surplus b) Engle's law
13) Which of the following, falls under Inductive method of economics investigation?
a) LDMU b) Engle's law
14) Economic laws are not certain as
a) physical laws b) Moral law
c) Social science d) None
15) Economic laws are
a) Hypothetical b) Exact
c) Certain d) None
16) Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Government laws are coercive
b) Economic laws carry a phrase 'Ceteris Paribus'
c) Economic laws are more exact and definite than social laws
d) Economic laws are less exact and less definite than physical laws
17) 'Ceteris Paribus' term is related to
a) Monetary theory b) Law of demand
c) General equilibrium theory d) All the above

18) Who said that "all these phenomena which can be brought directly or indirectly into
relation with measuring rod of money, fall under the subject matter of Economics
a) J. B. Say b) J. M. Keynes
c) Prof. Pigou d)Alfred Marshall
19) The Process of determination of rent, wages, interest and profit is called
a) production b) Consumption
c) Exchange d) Distribution
20) In which of the following economic systems, all the factors of production are owned
and controlled by private sector?
a) Capitalism b)Socialism
c) Communism d) Mixed economy
21) In which of the following economics, Capitalism is in existence?
a) India b) Russia
c) China d) USA
22) In Capitalism, the prices of commodities are
a) fixed of the Government b) Determined by market forces
c) Fixed by marketing Department d) All the above
23) Which of the following is the important objective of Socialism economics system?
a) Welfare Motive b) Profit motive
c) Business motive d) All the above
24) In which of the following economics systems, there is complete absence of private
sector?
a) capitalism b)Socialism
c) Mixed economy d) All the above

25) In Socialism, the prices of commodities are
a) Fixed of the Government b) Determined by market forces
c) Fixed by marketing Department d) All the above
26) In which of the following economics, Communism is in existence?
a) India b) Russia
c) China d) USA
27) Communism is otherwise called as
a) Marxian capitalism b)Socialism
c) Marxian Communism d) Marxian Mixed economy
28) Which of the following statement is correct with reference to functioning to

different economic systems?
a) Capitalism is good in production but poor in distribution
b) Socialism is good in production but poor in distribution
c) Communism is extreme form of Capitalism
d) Mixed economics mainly controlled by Private Sector
29) Mixed economy is mid way between
a) Capitalism and Socialism b)Socialism and Communism
c) Communism and capitalism d) None of the above
30) In Mixed economy, there is
a) Only Public sector b) Only Private sector
c) Coexistence of both Public and Private Sector
d) None of the above
31) The concept of Mixed economy was introduced by

a) Adam Smith b) Lionel Robbins
c) Alfred Marshall d) J. M. Keynes
32) __________ is the power regulator of all the economic activity in capitalistic
economy
a) Demand b) Supply
c) Price d) Consumption
33) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Utility is not usefulness
b) Utility is not synonymous with pleasure
c) Utility does not mean satisfaction
D) All the above
34) In Economics, the essentials of a good to have value should possess

a) Utility b) Scarcity
b) Transferability d) All the above

a) Value is absolute and not relative
b) Value is relative and not absolute
c) There can be general rise or fall in value of a commodity
d) All wealth is money and all money is not wealth
36) "Wealth consists of all potentially exchangeable means of satisfying human

need” defined by
a) Adam Smith b) Lionel Robbins
c) Alfred Marshall d) J. M. Keynes

a) There can be general rise or fall in price of a commodity
b) Wealth is a flow and income is a stock
38) Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a) There can be general rise or fall in price of a commodity
b) There can be general rise or fall in value of a commodity
d) All money is wealth and all wealth is not money

a) There can be general rise or fall in value of a commodity
b) Wealth is a stock and income is a flow
c) Utility means satisfaction

a) Y = C - I b) C = Y + I
c) Y = I -S d) Y = C + S
41) Free goods have a great

a) Value in exchange b) Demand
c) Value in use d) All the above
42) Patents and copyrights are

a) Material, Transferable goods
b) Material Non-transferable goods
c) Non- material, transferable goods
d) Non- material, non- transferable goods
43) Kalidas's work are ____________ wealth

a) Social b) Representative
c) Personal d) International
44) Sand near sea shore is not wealth, because, it does not possess
a) Transferability b) Utility
c) Scarcity d) All the above
45) __________ are the basic wants which we are forced to do or use either by social
customs or people around us expect us to do so.
a) Necessaries of existence b) Necessaries of efficiency
c) Conventional necessaries d) All the above
46) Which of the following makes a fuller life for the individual?
a) Comforts b) Luxuries
c) Necessaries c) All the above
47) According to Cardinality approach of analyzing the consumer behaviour

a) Utility to not measurable
b) Utility is measurable
c) Utility values are always positive
d) Utility values are always negative
48) According to Ordinality approach of analyzing the consumer behaviour


49) According to Indifference curve technique of consumer behaviour

50) According to Utility of Marshalian analysis of consumer behaviour

51) Which of the following represents right expression of utility of nth unit?
a) TU of (n -1) unit
b) TU of 'n' units- TU of (n-1)
c) TU of 'n-1' units- TU of (n-2 unit)
d) TU of 'n' units - TU of (n +2 unit)
d) All the above
52) When marginal utility is high price of the commodity is__________

a) Low b) high
c) Constant d) No relation
53) Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a) Marginal utility indicates price
b) Price measures marginal utility
c) Marginal utility governs price
d) All the above
54) The Principle of Taxation is based on

a) LEMU b) LDMU
c) Indifference curve analysis d) None
55) The law of Diminishing Marginal Utility deals with

a) One commodity b) Two Commodity
c) Applicable in some cases d) None
56) Whether the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility is applicable to money?

a) Yes b) No
c) Applicable in some cases d) No relation
curve analysis
57) Law of Equi- Marginal utility is otherwise called as

a) Law of maximum satisfaction b) LEMU
c) Gossen's second law d) All the above
58) The law of Equi-Marginal utility deals with

a) One commodity b) More than one
commodity
b) Only two commodities c) None
59) The Principle of Proportionality of consumption behaviour of an individual is given

by
a) (MUx /Px) = ( MUy/Py) = ( MUz/Pz)
b) (MUx/Py) = ( MUy/Pz) = (MUz/Px)
c) (Px/TUx) = (Py/TUy) = ( Py/TUy)

d) (TUx/Px ) = ( TUy/Py) = (TUz/Pz)
60) The Marginal Preference theory of consumption behaviour was proposed by

a) Armstrong b) J. R. Hicks
c) Neumann- Morgenstern d) Marshall
61) The concept of consumers' surplus is given by

a) Alfred Marshall b) Cannon
c) Adam Smith d) J. R. Hicks
62) Consumers' surplus in case of necessaries of life is _________ than luxuries

a) Higher b) Lower
c) Zero d) None
63) If the demand for the product is less elastic, the consumer's surplus is _______ .
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Zero d) None
64) The slope of isocost line indicates the price ratio of

a) Products b) Factors
65) Which of the following cost is not a fixed cost?
a) Depreciation b) Taxes
c) Seeds d) Interest
65) If MRTS > Price ratio of inputs, costs will be increased by using more of
a) Added resource b) Replaced resource
c) Added product d) Replaced product
66) Isoquants are liner, when the resources are

a) Substitutes b) Complements
c) Perfects substitutes d) Perfect complements

67) If the substitution ratio between the products is zero, then the relationship
a) Complementary b) Supplementary
c) Competitive d) Antagonistic
68) Within the ridge lines, the products are

c) Competitive d) Antagonistic
69) The technical efficiency of variable and fixed resources increases in

a) I zone b) II zone
c) III zone d) All
70) The point of LCC is

a) MRTS of inputs> Price ratio of inputs
b) MRTS of inputs< Price ratio of inputs
c) MRTS of inputs is inversely equal to Price of inputs
d) MRTS of products is inversely equal to Price ratio of products
71) If the technology turns out to be inferior than the previous one, then the production
function will shift
a) Upwards b) Downwards
c) Does not shift d) Changes the shape
72) Returns to scale is _______ production function

a) Long-run b) Short-run
c) Very short-run d) Discrete
73) Elasticity of production in the stage of production function is

a) Greater than unity b) Less than unity
c) Zero d) Infinity
74) In the production function, input is

a) Dependent variable b) Independent variable
c) Intercept d) None
75) When MRTS = 0, then the product are

c) Competitive c) Antagonistic
76) Family and hired labour are examples of

a) Complementary b) Substitutes
c) Perfect substitutes d) Perfect complements
77) At break even point in a production programme, the profits to the farmer is
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Zero d) Cannot be calculated
78) Production possibility curve is concave to the origin when products substitute at
a) Constant rate b) Increasing rate
c) Decreasing rate d) None
79) A convenient unit of production for which costs and returns are computed
a) Farm - firm b) Technical unit
c) Plant d) Economic unit
80) Which of the following is a non cash fixed cost?

a) Repairs b) Depreciation
c) Premium d) Tax
81) With improvement in technology, the production function shifts?

a) Downwards b) Upwards
c) Shifts right d) Shift left

82) ___________ of depreciation is most commonly followed for livestock.
a) Annual revaluation method b) Sinking found method
c) Insurance policy method d) Straight line method
83) Which of the following is a component of Marginal Cost?

a) Fixed cost b) Variable cost
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Opportunity cost
84) Which of the following curves cuts the AC curve at its lowest point?
a) AVC curve b) AFC curve
c) Opportunity cost curve d) MC curve
85) In a classical production function, the elasticity of production is greater than one,
where
a) The point of equality between average physical product and marginal physical
product.
b) Upto the point where average physical product is maximum
c) The point where average physical product is maximum
d) The point where marginal physical product is maximum
86) The point, where the elasticity of production remains zero is lying at
a) AR = MR b) MR > AR
c) AR > MR d) MR = TR
87) Which of the following costs includes managerial services component

a) Cost A1 b) Cost C3
c) Cost B1 d) Cost D
88) Crop Yield index is an

a) Physical efficiency aggregate measure
b) Physical Efficiency ratio measure

c) Financial efficiency aggregate measure
d) Financial efficiency ratio measure
89) At Break even point in a programme, an Economist advise the farmer

a) To continue production programme temporarily
b) To stop production programme temporarily
c) To stop production programme permanently
d) To increase the fixed cost
90) When the price range is high for a commodity, the demand for that commodity is?
a) Less elastic b) More elastic
c) Perfectly inelastic d) None of the above
91) In measuring elasticity of demand, at midpoint of the demand curve the elasticity is
a) Infinity b) Zero
c) Unity d) More than one
92) The quantity of product offered for sale at different prices at a given time in a given
market is known as
a) demand b) Demand Function
c) Supply d) Supply Function
93) According to Malthusian theory of population, positive checks are applied by
a) Man b) Nature
c) Animals d) None of the above
94) Which of the following forms of business organizations is a step towards Socialism
a) Joint stock company b) Cooperative Business
c) Partnership d) State Enterprise
95) Fixed cost are also called as
a) Sunk cost b) Overhead cost

c) Long run cost d) All the above
96) In perfect competition, the shape of price line is

a) Parallel to y-axis b) Parallel to X- axis
c) Convex d) Concave
97) The cross elasticity of demand for the product in monopoly market is
a) High b) low
c) Infinity d) Zero
98) Price discrimination is seen in ________ market situation
a) Duopoly b) Oligopoly
c) Monopoly d) Perfect competition
99) The income earned from a factor which is fixed only is short run and not in long run
is called
a) Rent b) Interest
c) Quasi rent d) Wages
100) If tax is imposed on the basis of quantity of volume of a commodity, it is

called_______
a) Ad Valorem tax b) Value added tax
c) Specific duty d) None
101) Moderate degree of controlled inflation is
a) Deflation b) Inflation
c) Reflation d) Stagflation
102) The point where aggregate demand price equal the aggregate supply price is called
a) Direct demand b) Derived Demand
c) Indirect Demand d) Effective Demand
103) As income increases, the average propensity to save
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain constant d) None
104) Marginal propensity to consume is always
a) Greater than Zero b) Greater than one
c) Less than Zero d) Less than one
105) Induced investment is
a) Welfare Motive b) Profit Motive
106) If paper money is converted to standard money on demand, it is called
a) Convertible paper money b) Token Money
c) Standard money c) None
107) In monometallism,________ is used as standard coins
a) Copper and Silver b) Silver and Platinum
c) Gold and Platinum D) Gold and Sliver
108) Better measure of economic development
a) GNP b) National Income
c) Per capita income d) HDI
109) An example of hypothecated open loans
a) Gold b) Tractor
c) Land d) LIC Bonds

110) Which of the following is the third ‘R’ of credit?
a) Risk bearing ability b) Repayment Capacity
c) Returns d) Rate of Return
111) Which of the following is the recent concept in the field of insuring agri-business
a) Crop insurance b) Cattle Insurance
c) Weather insurance d) None
112) In a production function, when MPP = APP
a) APP is Increasing b) APP is decreasing
c) APP is constant d) APP is maximum
113) Which of the following is not a system of farming
a) State farming b) Dry farming
c) Cooperative farming d) Collective farming
114) Production is a function of
a) Cost b) Prices
c) Profit d) Factors
115) A holding which allows a farmer a chance of producing income sufficient to support
himself and his family in reasonable comfort after paying his necessary expenses is
called
a) Basic holding b) Optimum holding
c) Operational holding d) Economical Holding
116) Rent theory of profit as proposed by
a) F. A. Walker b) J. B. Clark
b) F. B. Hawley d) Frank knight
117) Risk bearing theory of profits was proposed by

118) Uncertainty bearing theory of profits was proposed by
119) Normal price is a
a) Short period price b) Long period Price
c) Floor Price d) Procurement Price
120) The degree of price discrimination is given by
a) Chamberlin b) A. C. Pigou
c) Cournot c) Robinson
121) First degree of price discrimination is followed in
a) Direct selling b) Railways
c) Electricity d) None of the above
122) Second degree of price discrimination is followed in
a) Direct selling b) Railways
c) Electricity d) None of the above
123) An example for personal price discrimination
a) Doctor service b) Dumping
c) Electricity d) Accessories for cars
124) Dumping is a form of
a) Product differentiation b) Price differentiation

125) Monopolistic competition combines the features of
a) Perfect Competition and Monopoly
b) Perfect competition and Duopoly
c) Perfect Competition and Oligopoly
d) Monopoly and Duopoly
126) A monopolistic firm will gain by increasing the price of the product, if the elasticity of
demand for the product is
a) More than one b) Less than one
c) Zero d) Unity
127) Cooperative and collusive trend as well as competitive trend prevail in ______
market situation
a) Perfect competition b) Monopolistic competition
c) Oligopoly d) Duopoly
128) Price rigidity is feature of
a) Perfect competition b) Monopolistic competition
c) Oligopoly d) Duopoly
129) An example for Bilateral monopoly market situation is
a) Cotton Corporation of India
b) Mahindra Tractors
c) Bt cotton
d) A tea estate owner selling raw material to tea manufacturer
130) Game theory was formulated by
a) Chamberlin b) Neumann and Morgenstern
c) Joe Bain d) Keynes

131) Barometric price leadership by a firm is common in
a) Monopolistic firm b) Duopoly form
c) Oligopoly firm d) Monopoly firm
132) Exploitative or aggressive price leadership is common in
a) Monopolistic firm b) Duopoly form
c) Oligopoly firm d) Monopoly firm
133) In oligopoly prices fixed are _____ than average cost
a) Lower b) Higher
c) Equal d) None of the above
134) Liner programming is otherwise called as
a) Activity analysis b) Mathematical Programming
135) The Subsistence theory of wages is
a) Pessimistic b) Optimistic
c) Both a and b d) None
136) Demand curve in case of perfectly competitive market is
a) Parallel to X axis b) Intersects Y axis
c) Parallel to Y axis d) Intersects Y axis
137) “ Interest is a reward for parting with liquidity” was proposed by
a) Prof. Senior b) J. M. Keynes

c) Fisher d) Rao, Bohem and Bowerk
138) The sum of net benefits during the life period of the project is
a) BCR b) Pay back period
c) IRR d) NPW
139) Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal?
a) BCR b) PBP
c) IRR d) NPW
140) Which of the following is not a component of project cycle?
a) Conception b) Evaluation
c) Preparation d) Maturity
141) If BCR of a project is 1.13, then NBCR is
a) 0.13 b) 2.13
c) 0.26 d) 1/1-13
142) IRR is the discount factor, at which NPW is

a) Maximum b) Minimum
c) Zero d) One
143) ________ price represent the true or intrinsic value of a product
a) Shadow price b) Equilibrium Price
c) Market Price d) MSP
144) Which of the following is considered as shadow wages of skilled labour?
a) Government sector wages rate b) Private sector wages rate
145) Game theory is an example of ________ utilization of resources
a) Closed b) Multiple Choice

146) The ratios which indicate firms ability to meet its current obligations are _______
ratios.
a) liquidity b) Profitability
c) Debt d) Operating
147) Market priced is a
a) Short period price
b) Long period Price
c) floor price
d) Piece equal to cost of commodity.
148) Which of the following commodities have normal price
a) Diamond b) Picture of old masters
c) Old manuscripts d) Paddy
149) Power to create money is seen in
a) Private finance b) Public finance
150) In case of constant rate of substitution of product, the production possibility curve is
a) ‘L’ shaped b) Inverted ‘L’ shaped
c) straight line d) ‘U’ shaped

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Course No.

Course Title:- Dimensions of Agricultural Extension

Q. 1) The National Extension service was stared in the year _______________

i) 2nd October 1952 ii) 2nd October 1953

iii) 2nd October 1951 iv) None of these

i) Panchayat Samiti ii) Grampanchayat

iii) Zilla Parishad iv) None of these

Q. 3) Gramsabha is conducted ____________ times in a year.

Q. 4) Panchayat Raj was introduced in India on the recommendation of ________

i) Vasantrao Naik ii) Balwantrao Mehta

iii) Jaywantrao Mehta iv) None of these

Q. 5) The Community Development Programme was launched in India on _______

i) 2nd October 1951 ii) 2nd October 1950

iii) 2nd October 1952 iv) 2nd October 1953

Q. 6) ______________ acts a secretary of Grampanchayat

i) B.D.O. ii) Talathi

iii) Gramsevak iv) None of these

i) 1980 ii) 1981

iii) 1984 iv) 1982

Q. 8) Village guides were appointed in villages under __________ project

i) Etawah project ii) Nilokheri project

iii) Gurgaon project iv) None of these

Q. 9) The age of the person ranges between 18 to ___________ known as youth

iii) 35 iv) None of these

iii) 30 iv) None of these

Q. 11) The village Grampanchayat having population of 6001 to 7500 consist of

iii) 30 iv) None of these

Q. 13) The percentage of people below poverty line in India is

i) 25.1 ii) 27.8

Q. 14) The literacy rate of India according to 2011 census is

i) 75.85 ii) 54.16

iii) 62.67 iv) 74.04

Q. 15) Rural development can be defined as a strategy designed to improve

i) Economic and social life of rural poor

ii) Condition of all section of people

iii) Economic condition of rural society

iv) Physical infrastructure

Q. 16) The basic guide, philosopher and friend in rural development

i) BDO ii) VDO

iii) Pradhan iv) Pramukh

Q. 17) Rural development programmes are related to

i) Self employment ii) Employment generation

iii) Poverty alleviation iv) All of the above

Q. 18) The basic operational unit for rural development in India is

i) Village ii) District

iii) Tehsil iv) Block

Q. 19) The chairman of District Rural Development Agency

i) District collector ii) District Planning Officer

iii) District Panhayat President iv) Block Development Officer

i) Governor ii) Chief Minister

iii) Chief Secretary iv) Minister of Rural Development

Q. 21) NABARD was established on

i) 1935 ii) 1959

iii) 1976 iv) 1982

Q. 22) A monthly newsletter published by Ministry of Rural Development

i) Grameen Bharat ii) Grama Sabha

iii) Panchayat Sabha iv) Rural Panchayat

Q. 23) International women’s day is celebrated on

i) 8th March ii) 16th October

iii) 1st November iv) 22nd December

Q. 24) The Right to Information Act was passed in the year

i) 2005 ii) 2006

iii) 2007 iv) 2008